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Total No. of MCQs 65
Total Marks: 65 Time Allowed: 1 hour 5 min
Table of Specification: MCQ No. 1 5.
1. Plasma protein binding of drugs:
a. Prolongs the half life of drugs
b. Increases the bio-availability of drugs
c. Increases the renal clearance of drugs
d. Increases the volume of distribution of drugs
e. Favors early onset of action of drugs
Key: a
2. Absorption of drugs from gastrointestinal tract occurs more:
a. In ionized state
b. With larger molecular size
c. In case of tertiary amines
d. With greater water solubility
e. With longer disintegration time
Key: c
3. By knowing the half-life of a drug we can find out:
a. The dose of the drug
b. Bio-availability of the drug
c. Time to reach the steady state
d. Rate of absorption
e. The pattern of their distribution in body
Key: c
4. Which of the following conjugation reactions occurs inside the
microsomes of hepatocytes?
a. Sulfate conjugation
b. Acetylation
c. Glycine conjugation
d. Glucuronide conjugation
e. Glutathione conjugation
Key: d
5. Therapeutic index of a drug:
a. Is obtained by dividing ED50 by LD50
b. Is greater if a drug is more toxic
c. Is high if therapeutic widow is narrow
d. Is low if the drug has more tissue biding
e. Is low if the slope of its dose-response curve is steep
Key: e
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Table of Specification: MCQ No. 6 9.
6. Which of the following drugs should be administered to reverse
the bradycardia caused by vagal stimulation?
a. Adrenaline
b. Dopamine
c. Dobutamine
d. Atropine
e. Theophylline
Key: d
7. Which of the following antimuscarinic drugs shows relative
selectivity for M1 receptors?
a. Tropicamide
b. Ipratropium
c. Glycopyrrolate
d. Hyoscine
e. Pirenzepine
Key: e
8. Which of the following actions of epinephrine is mediated through
Beta-1 receptors?
a. Release of renin from JG cells of kidneys
b. Glycogenolysis in liver
c. Negative feed-back at presynaptic adrenergic nerve endings
d. Bronchodilatation
e. Relaxation of intestinal smooth muscle
Key: a
9. Pralidoxime is administered to patients suffering from poisoning
with Organophosphorous compounds to:
a. Reduce the cholinergic effects
b. Reactivate cholinesterase enzyme
c. Counter te central effects of acetylcholine
d. Prevent the respiratory embarrassment
e. Stimulate production of fresh cholinesterase
Key: b
Table of Specification: MCQ No. 10 -16
10. A patient of Parkinsons disease is taking a combination of
levodopa and carbidopa. The role of carbidopa is to block:
a. Reuptake of dopamine in substantia nigra.
b. DOPA decarboxylase in the brain.
c. DOPA decarboxylase in peripheral tissues
d. monoamine oxidase in the neostriatum.
e. COMT in peripheral tissues.
Key: c
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11. A patient is suffering from Absence-seizure concomitant with
generalized tonic-clonic seizures. Which of the following drugs is
effective against both the disorders?
a. Phenytoin
b. Ethosuximide
c. Phenobarbitone
d. Diazepam
e. Valproate sodium
Key: e
12. Which of the following endocrine abnormality may be produced by
D-2 receptor blockade caused by Phenothiazines?
a. Hypothyroidism
b. Hyperprolactinaemia
c. Iatrogenic Cushings Syndrome
d. Diabetes mellitus
e. Diabetes insipidus
Key: b
13. The risk of the following adverse reaction increases when
selective-serotonin reuptake inhibitors are used in combination
with mono amine oxidase inhibitors:
a. Antimuscarinic effects
b. Alpha adrenoceptor blocking effect
c. Reduced sexual function
d. Serotonin syndrome
e. Cardiac arrhythmias
Key: d
14. Which of the following benzodiazepines is converted into its
active metabolite by gastric hydrochloric acid?
a. Clorazepate
b. Alprazolam
c. Bromazepam
d. Oxazepam
e. Diazepam
Key: a
15. In a person addicted to Morphine, tolerance will not develop to:
a. Euphorea
b. Miosis
c. Analgesic effect
d. Respiratory depressant effect
e. Sedative effect
Key: b
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16. Induction of general anaesthesia with Thiopentone sodium should
not be undertaken in a patient suffering from:
a. Congestive cardiac failure
b. Diabetes mellitus
c. Hypertension
d. Bronchial asthma
e. Acute intermittent porphyria
Key: e
Table of Specification: MCQ No. 17 21.
17. Which of the following Antipyretic is preferred for relief of fever
in a child of four years age?
a. Naproxen
b. Aspirin
c. Diclofenac
d. Paracetamol
e. Piroxicam
Key: d
18. Use of highly selective COX-2 Inhibitors like Rofecoxib may be
associated with increased risk of:
a. Gastrointestinal bleeding
b. Nephropathy
c. Cardiovascular events
d. Hepatotoxicity
e. Reduced platelet count
Key: c
19. Aspirin is not used in young children for antipyretic effect,
because it may be associated with:
a. Salicylism
b. Hypoprothrombinemia
c. Renal impairment
d. Metabolic acidosis
e. Reyes syndrome
Key: e
20. A disease modifying drug used in rheumatoid arthritis that also
chelates copper is:
a. Penicillamine
b. Aurothiomalate
c. Methotrexate
d. Sulfasalazine
e. Etanercept
Key: a
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21. Colchicine is helpful in management of acute gout by:
a. Increasing urinary excretion of uric acid
b. Reduced production of uric acid
c. Exerting strong analgesic effect
d. Inhibiting migration of leukocytes into the inflamed joints
e. Inhibiting cyclooxygenase enzyme in the inflamed joints.
Key: d
Table of Specification: MCQ No. 22 26.
22. Which one of the following drugs exhibits its anti-hypertensive
effect primarily by reduction of peripheral resistance?
a. Diltiazem
b. Clonidine
c. Verapamil
d. Amlodipine
e. Atenolol
Key: d
23. A cardioselective beta receptor blocker that also possesses
intrinsic sympathomimetic activity (partial agonist activity) and
membrane stabilizing action (local anaesthetic effect) is:
a. Esmolol
b. Acebutolol
c. Carvedilol
d. Sotalol
e. Timolol
Key: b
24. A calcium channel blocker preferably used in subarachnoid
haemorrhage is:
a. Verapamil
b. Nifedipine
c. Diltiazem
d. Amlodipine
e. Nimodipine
Key: e
25. Which of the following drugs is preferred for treatment of digoxin-
induced cardiac arrythmias?
a. Procainamide
b. Phenytoin
c. D-Sotalol
d. Amiodarone
e. Flecainide
Key: b
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26. Glyceryl trinitrate relieves stable (atherosclerotic) angina by:
a. Producing cGMP-dependent vasodilatation
b. Reducing preload of the heart
c. Reducing afterload on the heart
d. Causing redistribution of blood in coronaries
e. All of the above
Key: e
Table of Specification: MCQ No. 27 29.
27. A diuretic that can lead to alkalinization of urine is:
a. Acetazolamide
b. Bendrofluazide
c. Frusemide
d. Amiloride
e. Ammonium chloride
Key: a
28. A diuretic that produces its action mainly by acting on the
proximal part of distal convoluted tubules is:
a. Ethacrynic acid
b. Triamterene
c. Hydroxychlorothiazide
d. Spironolactone
e. Mannitol
Key: c
29. A diuretic that acts by inhibiting Na/K/2Cl symport in the renal
tubules is:
a. Bendrofluazide
b. Frusemide
c. Amiloride
d. Acetazolamide
e. Spironolactone
Key: b
Table of Specification: MCQ No. 30 32.
30. Warfarin:
a. Is generally administered by intramuscular injection
b. Has a quick onset of action
c. Inactivates factor XIIa
d. Is antagonized by Vitamin K-1
e. Activated partial thromboplastin time is used to regulate its dosage
Key: d
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31. A drug that inhibits ADP-induced platelet aggregation is:
a. Abciximab
b. Aspirin
c. Eptifibatide
d. Clopidorel
e. Tirofiban
Key: d
32. A drug suitable for treatment of familial hypretriglyceridemia:
a. Gemfibrozil
b. Simvastatin
c. Colestipol
d. Cholestyramine
e. Atorvastatin
Key: a
Table of Specification: MCQ No. 33 36.
33. While traveling by car to a hill-station, a child suffered from
nausea and vomiting. In order to prevent these symptoms to
occur during return journey you would prescribe:
a. Atropine
b. Promethazine
c. Ondensatron
d. Diphenoxylate
e. Chlorpromazine
Key: b
34. Acid rebound phenomenon is likely to occur with the use of:
a. Magnesium trisilicate
b. Aluminum hydroxide
c. Sodium bicarbonate
d. Aluminum phosphate
e. Sucralfate
Key: c
35. A drug that causes purgation by local irritation of small intestine
is:
a. Senna
b. Bisacodyl
c. Sorbitol
d. Castor oil
e. Aloes
Key: d
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36. Loperamide and Diphenoxylate:
a. Are very effective in controlling the diarrhoea of severe ulcerative
colitis.
b. Are preferred for control of diarrhoeas caused by infections
c. Are primarily used in treatment of diarrhoeas in infants
d. Should be preferred over ORS therapy in childhood diarrhoeas
e. May produce substantial improvement in diarrhoea of irritable bowel
syndrome
Key: e
Table of Specification: MCQ No. 37 40.
37. The following drug will produce bronchodilatation in an
asthmatic patient:
a. Ipratropium
b. Montelukast
c. Beclomethasone
d. Nedochromil
e. Cromolyn Sodium
Key: a
38. Theophylline is helpful in bronchial asthma by:
a. Inhibiting phosphodiesterase
b. Blocking Adenosine receptors
c. Reversing fatigue of diaphragm
d. Inhibiting antigen-induced release of histamine
e. All of the above
Key: e
39. A patient presenting with acute episode of bronchial asthma
should be preferably treated with:
a. Oral administration of LTD-4 receptor blockers
b. Administration of Mast Cell Stabilizing drugs by aerosol
c. Administration of long acting Beta-2 receptor agonists by inhalation
d. Administration of short acting Beta-2 receptor agonists by inhalation
e. Oral administration of slow-release tablets of theophylline
Key: d
40. An opium-alkaloid solely used as a cough suppressant is:
a. Codeine
b. Thebaine
c. Noscapine
d. Papaverine
e. Dextromethorphan
Key: c
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Table of Specification: MCQ No. 41 46.
41. A drug that acts by inhibiting bacterial topoisomerase is:
a. Co-trimoxazole
b. Doxycycline
c. Ofloxacin
d. Amikacin
e. Clindamycin
Key: c
42. Which of the following cephalosporins is more likely to be
associated with hypoprothrombinemia:
a. Ceftriaxone
b. Cefoperazone
c. Ceftazidime
d. Ceftizoxime
e. Cefaclor
Key: b
43. Which of the following drugs may be used in regimens for
eradication of H. pylori?
a. Clarithromycin
b. Tobramycin
c. Ticarcillin
d. Ciprofloxacin
e. Albendazole
Key: a
44. Sulphamethoxazole is combined with trimethoprim in co-
trimoxazole because the two drugs:
a. Have matching volumes of distribution
b. Have similar plasma protein binding
c. Have matching half lives
d. Inhibit different metabolic pathways in the organisms
e. Are excreted through the same route
Key: c
45. The aminoglycosides are not effective against anaerobic bacteria
because:
a. These organisms do not have binding sites for aminoglycosides
b. These drugs fail to enter into anaerobes
c. These drugs are actively effluxed from anaerobes
d. These drugs are inactivated under anaerobic conditions
e. The anaerobes produce inactivating enzymes against
aminoglycosides
Key: b
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46. The tetracyclines are not prescribed to the growing children
because they:
a. May cause pseudomembranous enterocolitis
b. May cause photosensitivity
c. May cause severe vertigo
d. May impair bony growth
e. May cause Fanconi -like syndrome
Key: d
Table of Specification: MCQ No. 47 49.
47. In the chemotherapy of tuberculosis:
a. Ethambutol is the most quickly acting sterilizer.
b. Pyrazinamide is active at neutral pH
c. Streptomycin acts better against intracellular bacilli
d. Rifabutin causes more drug interactions than rifampin
e. Neurotoxicity of isoniazid is reversed by pyridoxine
Key: e
48. Which of the following antimalarial drugs will eradicate the
relapses in a patient of benign tertian malaria?
a. Primaquine
b. Mefloquine
c. Artemether
d. Pyremethamine
e. Sulfadoxine
Key: a
49. The drug of choice for treatment of Taenia saginata infestation is:
a. Mebendazole
b. Pyrantel pamoate
c. Albendazole
d. Praziquantel
e. Ivermectin
Key: d
Table of Specification: MCQ No. 50 51.
50. Which one of the following antiviral agents is used against
infections caused by cytomegalovirus?
a. Ganciclovir
b. Amantadine
c. Adefovir
d. Ribavarin
e. Idoxuridine
Key: a
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51. A drug that is administered orally for treatment of infections by
dermatophytes is:
a. Nystatin
b. Griseofulvin
c. Clotrimazole
d. Miconazole
e. Tolnaftate
Key: b
Table of Specification: MCQ No. 52 55.
52. Which of the following antineoplastic drugs is an antimetabolite:
a. Carmustine
b. Busulphan
c. Cisplatin
d. Fluorouracil
e. Vincristine
Key: d
53. The main mechanism of antineoplastic action of the
anthracycline antibiotics is:
a. Binding with tubulin of the cancer cells
b. Inhibition of folic acid metabolism in cancer cells
c. Alkylation of reactive radicals in cancer cells
d. Intercalation of the DNA molecule in cancer cells
e. Disruption of the ribosomes in cancer cells
Key: d
54. Among the alkaloids of Vinca rosea:
a. Vinblastine cause more neurotoxicity than vincristine
b. Vincristine causes more bone marrow depression than vinblastine
c. Vincristine is more useful in childhood leukemias
d. Vinblastine has mechanism of action different than vincristine
e. The clinical uses of the two alkaloids are practically the same.
Key: c
55. Which of the following drugs used in chemotherapy of breast
cancer acts by inhibiyting the Estrogen receptor?
a. Diethylstilbestrol
b. Tamoxifen
c. Anastrozole
d. Paclitaxel
e. Cyclophosphamide
Key: b
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Table of Specification: MCQ No. 56 62
56. Dexamethasone:
a. Is less potent than prednisolone
b. Also has mineralocorticoid activity
c. Improves glucose tolerance
d. Is a naturally occurring glucocort icoid
e. Suppresses hypothalamo-hypophysio-adrenal axis
Key: e
57. Which of the following Insulin preparations has the longest
duration of action?
a. Insulin aspart
b. NPH Insulin
c. Insulin Zinc Suspension Lente
d. Glargine
e. Glulisine
Key: d
58. Which of the following Insulin secretogogues is not a
Sulfonylurea in its chemical structure?
a. Chlorpropamide
b. Nateglinide
c. Glibenclamide
d. Glipizide
e. Glimepiride
Key: b
59. Which of the following antidiabetic drugs acts by binding with
PPAR- receptor?
a. Metformin
b. Acarbose
c. Repaglinide
d. Pioglitazone
e. Gliclizide
Key: d
60. The mechanism of atithyroid action of Propylthiouracil is to:
a. Inhibit iodination of the tyrosil residues
b. Inhibit coupling of the iodotyrosil residues
c. Inhibit peroxidase enzyme in thyroid gland
d. Reduce the circulating Thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulins
e. All of the above
Key: e
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61. The most serious adverse reaction that may occur with the use
of Thionamide antithyroid drugs is:
a. Agranulocytosis
b. Joint pains
c. Paresthesias
d. Alopecia
e. Skin rashes
Key: a
62. The radio-active Iodine
131
:
a. Exerts atithyroid action by emitting gamma radiation
b. Is most suitable for young adult male patients
c. Is safe for use during pregnancy
d. May cause delayed hypothyroidism
e. Has a rapid onset of action
Key: d
Table of Specification: MCQ No. 63- 65
63. A taxi driver comes to the clinic with complaints of runny nose,
effused eyes, fever and malaise. He wishes to continue his work
while taking treatment for these symptoms. Which one of the
following anti histamines would be most suitable for him?
a. Chlorpheniramine
b. Diphenhydramine
c. Fexofenadine
d. Meclizine
e. Hydroxyzine
Key: c
64. A drug that is administered systemically for the treatment of
acute glaucoma is:
a. Timolol
b. Acetazolamide
c. Physostigmine
d. Demecarium
e. Latanoprost
Key: b
65. Which of the following chelators has been correctly paired with
the metal for whose poisoning it is clinically used?
a. Edetate Calcium Disodium --- Mercury
b. Dimercaprol --- Arsenic
c. Succimer --- Gold
d. Penicillamine --- Silver
e. Deferoxamine --- Lead
Key: b
