Professione Volare Domande Radio Nav Final C

Data:

Nome Allievo:

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104) What airborne equipment, if any, is required to be fitted 100) In a Satellite-Assisted Navigation System (GNSS/GPS), a
in order that a VDF let-down may be flown? fix is obtained by:

A VOR/DME A the aircraft's receiver measuring the phase angle of signals

received from a number of satellites in known positions
B VHF radio
B measuring the time taken for an aircraft's transmissions to
travel to a number of satellites, in known positions, and
C VOR
return to the aircraft's receiver
D none C measuring the pulse lengths of signals received from a
minimum number of satellites received in a specific
sequential order
96) An airway 10 NM wide is to be defined by two VORs
each having a resultant bearing accuracy of plus or D measuring the time taken for a minimum number of
minus 5.5°. satellites' transmissions, in known positions, to reach the
In order to ensure accurate track guidance within the aircraft's receiver
airway limits the maximum distance apart for the
transmitter is approximately:
101) (For this question use annex 062-9922A)
A 50 NM What is the manually selected heading?

B 165 NM A 260°(M)

C 210 NM B 272°(M)

D 105 NM C 280°(M)

D 300°(M)
97) The database of an FMS (Flight Management System) is
organised in such a way that the pilot can:
112) (For this question use annex 062-9910A)
A read and write at any time in database Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight
Instrument System (EFIS) display in PLAN mode?
B insert navigation data between two updates
A Figure 4
C only read the database
B Figure 6
D can modify the database every 28 days
C Figure 2

D Figure 3
98) The selection of code 7500 on an aircraft SSR
transponder indicates:

A radio communication failure 103) The advantage of the use of slotted antennas in modern
radar technology is to:
B unlawful interference with the planned operation of the flight
A simultaneously transmit weather and mapping beams
C an emergency
B have a wide beam and as a consequence better target
detection
D transponder malfunction
C eliminate the need for azimuth slaving

99) In a primary radar using pulse technique, pulse D virtually eliminate lateral lobes and as a consequence
recurrence frequency (PRF)/pulse recurrence rate (PRR) concentrate more energy in the main beam
determines:

A minimum range 93) In order to enter a waypoint that is designated by a VOR

into an RNAV, the VOR:
B beam width
A must be in range
C maximum theoretical range
B has to be positively identified by one of the pilots
D target discrimination
C does not have to be in range when entered but must be
when used

D does not have to be in range when entered or used

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105) Radar returns, on a B737-400, can be displayed on all 109) What is the minimum number of satellites required for a
Electronic Horizontal Situation Indicator (EHSI) screen Satellite-Assisted Navigation System (GNSS/GPS) to
modes of an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) carry out two dimensional operation?
WITH THE EXCEPTION OF:
A 4
A FULL VOR/ILS, EXP VOR/ILS and PLAN
B 5
B FULL NAV, FULL VOR/ILS and PLAN
C 2
C EXP VOR/ ILS, PLAN and MAP
D 3
D FULL NAV, PLAN and MAP

110) Which of the following will give the most accurate

106) What is the deviation per dot on the HSI when using an calculation of aircraft ground speed?
2-dot RNAV system in the approach mode?
A A DME station sited on the flight route
A 10°
B An ADF sited on the flight route
B 0.5 NM
C A VOR station sited on the flight route
C 10 NM
D A DME station sited across the flight route
D 0.5°

1) In which of the following cases would ETOs and ETA at

107) Under JAR-25 colour code rules, features displayed in destination calculated by the Flight Management
green on an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS), Computer (FMC) be correct?
indicate:
A When the actual winds match the forecast winds, and the
A engaged modes actual cruising Mach number is equal to the FMC calculated
Mach number
B cautions, abnormal sources
B When the FMC computes each ETO and ETA using the
correct GS
C the earth
C When the FMC positions and GS are accurate
D the ILS deviation pointer
D When the ETOs and ETA are based on the forecast winds
calculated from the actual take-off time
108) Which of the following statements is correct concerning
the principle behind the correction of one of the
NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system errors by the 102) When Mode C is selected on the aircraft SSR
transmission of the signals on two frequencies (L1 and transponder the additional information transmitted is:
L2)?
A altitude based on regional QNH
A The effect of receiver noise can be reduced due to the
interference of both frequencies
B aircraft height based on sub-scale setting
B The effect of signal reflections (multipath effect) can be
reduced due to the interference of both frequencies C height based on QFE

C The influence of shadowing on the GPS signals is D flight level based on 1013.25 hPa
proportional to the inverse of the carrier frequency squared

D The path delay of the signals in the earth atmosphere is

proportional to the inverse of the carrier frequency squared 86) ILS is subject to false glide paths resulting from:

A spurious signals reflected by nearby obstacles

B back-scattering of antennas

C ground returns ahead of the antennas

D multiple lobes of radiation patterns in the vertical plane

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77) The prime factor in determining the maximum 82) In relation to the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation
unambiguous range of a primary radar is the: system, what is involved in the differential technique (D-
GPS)?
A size of parabolic receiver aerial
A Fixed ground stations compute position errors and transmit
B height of the transmitter above the ground correction data to a suitable receiver on the aircraft

B The difference between signals transmitted on the L1 and

C pulse recurrence rate
L2 frequencies are processed by the receiver to determine
an error correction
D power output
C Receivers from various manufacturers are operated in
parallel to reduce the characteristical receiver noise error
78) An NDB transmits a signal pattern in the horizontal
plane which is : D Signals from satellites are received by 2 different antennas
which are located a fixed distance apart. This enables a
suitable receiver on the aircraft to recognise and correct for
A omnidirectional
multipath errors
B bi-lobal circular

83) In relation to Area Navigation Systems (RNAV), which of

C a cardioid balanced at 30 Hz
the following is an Air Data input?

D a beam rotating at 30 Hz A True airspeed

B Inertial Navigation System (INS) position

79) Which of the following radar equipments operate by
means of the pulse technique? C VOR/DME radial/distance
1. Aerodrome Surface Movement Radar
2. Airborne Weather Radar D Doppler drift
3. Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)
4. Aerodrome Surveillance (approach) Radar

A 2, 3 and 4 only 95) The ATC transponder system,excluding Mode S,

contains :
B 2 and 4 only
A two modes, each of 4096 codes
C 1, 2, 3 and 4
B four modes, each 1024 codes
D 1, 2 and 4 only
C four modes, each 4096 codes

D two modes, each 1024 codes

80) The ISO-ECHO facility of an airborne weather radar is
provided in order to:

A detect areas of possible severe turbulence in cloud 85) Which combination of characteristics gives best screen
picture in a primary search radar?
B give an indication of cloud tops
A long pulse length and wide beam
C inhibit unwanted ground returns
B long pulse length and narrow beam
D extend the mapping range
C short pulse length and wide beam

D short pulse length and narrow beam

81) In which frequency bands are the L1 and L2 frequencies
used by the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS
for transmission of the navigation message?

A SHF

B UHF

C VHF

D EHF

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94) Given: Course Deviation Indicator (CDI) for a VOR is 90) In relation to the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation
selected to 090°. system, 'Search the Sky' is a:
From/To indicator indicates "TO".
CDI needle is deflected halfway to the right. A continuous process by the ground segment to monitor the
On what radial is the aircraft? GPS satellites

A 095 B procedure performed by the receiver to recognise new

satellites becoming operational
B 275
C continuous procedure performed by the receiver that
searches the sky for satellites rising above the horizon
C 085
D procedure that starts after switching on a receiver if there is
D 265 no stored satellite data available

87) In relation to the satellite navigation system 91) The VOR system is limited to about 1° of accuracy. One
NAVSTAR/GPS, degree at 200 NM represents a width of:
the term 'inclination' denotes the angle between the:
A 2.5 NM
A horizontal plane at the location of the receiver and the direct
line to a satellite B 3.0 NM

B orbital plane and the earth's axis

C 3.5 NM

C horizontal plane at the location of the receiver and the orbital

D 2.0 NM
plane of a satellite

D orbital plane and the equatorial plane

92) Which of the following lists all the parameters that can
be determined by a GPS receiver tracking signals from 4
different satellites?
88) (For this question use annex 062-9923A)
The diagram indicates that the aircraft is to the:
A Latitude, longitude and altitude
A right of the localizer and below the glidepath
B Latitude, longitude, altitude and time
B right of the localizer and above the glidepath
C Latitude and longitude
C left of the localizer and below the glidepath
D Latitude, longitude and time
D left of the localizer and above the glidepath

113) Which of the following combinations of satellite

navigation systems provide the most accurate position
89) Which of the following is the datum for altitude
fixes in air navigation?
information when conducting flights under IFR
conditions on airways using the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite
navigation system?
A NNSS-Transit and GLONASS

A The average of GPS altitude and barometric altitude B GLONASS and COSPAS-SARSAT

B GPS altitude C NAVSTAR/GPS and GLONASS

C GPS altitude if 4 or more satellites are received otherwise D NAVSTAR/GPS and NNSS-Transit
barometric altitude

D Barometric altitude

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84) Which of the following statements concerning the 135) Assuming a five dot display, what does each of the dots
variable, or directional, signal of a conventional VOR is on either side of the ILS localizer cockpit display
correct? represent :

A The receiver adds 30 Hz to the variable signal before A 1.5 degrees

combining it with the reference signal
B 2.5 degrees
B The rotation of the variable signal at a rate of 30 times per
second gives it the characteristics of a 30 Hz amplitude
modulation C 2.0 degrees

C The transmitter varies the amplitude of the variable signal by D 0.5 degrees
30 Hz each time it rotates

D The transmitter changes the frequency of the variable signal

136) The heading rose of an HSI is frozen on 200°.
by 30 Hz either side of the allocated frequency each time it Lined up on the ILS of runway 25, the localizer needle
rotates will be:

A centred
141) Under JAR-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight
Instrument Systems (EFIS), a selected heading is B left of centre
coloured:

A green
C right of centre

B white
D centred with the 'fail' flag showing

C yellow
137) A DME in tracking mode subsequently experiences a
D magenta reduction in signal strength will switch the equipment in
the first instance to:

A standby mode
133) Under JAR-25 colour code rules, features displayed in
amber/yellow on an Electronic Flight Instrument System B signal controlled search
(EFIS), indicate:

A engaged modes
C memory mode

B cautions, abnormal sources

D search mode

C flight envelope and system limits

138) An RMI indicates aircraft heading. To convert the RMI
D warnings bearings of NDBs and VORs to true bearings the correct
combination for the application of magnetic variation is:

A NDB: beacon position

134) An aircraft at 6400 FT will be able to receive a VOR VOR: beacon position
groundstation at 100 FT above MSL at an approximate
maximum range of : B NDB: beacon position
VOR: aircraft position
A 110 NM
C NDB: aircraft position
B 90 NM VOR: aircraft position

D NDB: aircraft position

C 100 NM
VOR: beacon position

D 120 NM
111) Which one of the following disturbances is most likely
to cause the greatest inaccuracy in ADF bearings?

A Coastal effect

B Quadrantal error

C Precipitation interference

D Local thunderstorm activity

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140) What is the maximum number of usable Secondary 145) In an Airborne Weather Radar that has a colour cathode
Surveillance Radar (SSR) transponder codes? ray tube (CRT) increasing severity of rain and
turbulence is generally shown by a change of colour
A 760 from:

B 4096 A green to red to black

C 3600 B yellow to orange to red

D 1000 C green to yellow to red

D yellow to amber to blue

130) DME channels utilise frequencies of approximately:

146) How does a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system

A 1000 MHz receiver recognise which of the received signals
belongs to which satellite?
B 300 MHz
A The Doppler shift is unique to each satellite
C 110 MHz
B The receiver detects the direction from which the signals are
D 600 MHz received and compares this information with the calculated
positions of the satellites

C Each satellite transmits its signal on a separate frequency

142) The aircraft DME receiver is able to accept replies to its
own transmissions and reject replies to other aircraft
interrogations because:
D Each satellite transmits its signal, on common frequencies,
with an individual Pseudo Random Noise code
A transmission frequencies are 63 MHz different for each
aircraft
147) An RMI slaved to a remote indicating compass has
B pulse pairs are discreet to a particular aircraft gone unserviceable and is locked on to a reading of
090°. The tail of the VOR pointer shows 135°. The
available information from the VOR is:
C pulse pairs are amplitude modulated with the aircraft
registration
A Radial 315°, relative bearing unknown
D aircraft interrogation signals and transponder responses are
63 MHz removed from each other B Radial 135°, relative bearing unknown

C Radial unknown, relative bearing 225°

143) What approximate rate of descent is required in order to
maintain a 3° glide path at a groundspeed of 120 kt? D Radial unknown, relative bearing 045°

A 950 FT/MIN
148) (For this question use annex 062-9908A)
B 600 FT/MIN Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight
Instrument System (EFIS) display in Expanded (EXP)
C 550 FT/MIN VOR/ILS mode with a VOR frequency selected?

D 800 FT/MIN A Figure 2

B Figure 3
144) The reason why pre take-off holding areas are
sometimes further from the active runway when ILS C Figure 4
Category 2 and 3 landing procedures are in progress
than during good weather operations is: D Figure 1

A aircraft manoeuvring near the runway may disturb guidance

signals

B heavy precipitation may disturb guidance signals

C to increase distance from the runway during offset approach

operations

D to increase aircraft separation in very reduced visibility

conditions

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139) In order to indicate unlawful interference with the 116) Ignoring pulse length, the maximum pulse repetition
planned operation of the flight, the aircraft Secondary frequency
Surveillance Radar (SSR) transponder should be (PRF) that can be used by a primary radar facility to
selected to: detect targets
unambiguously to a range of 200 NM is:
A 7000 (pps = pulses per second)

B 7500 A 375 pps

C 7600 B 405 pps

D 7700 C 782 pps

D 308 pps
123) In Airborne Weather Radar (AWR), the main factors
which determine whether a cloud will be detected are:
117) An aircraft at FL 100 should be able to receive a VOR
A range from cloud; groundstation at 100 FT above MSL at an approximate
wavelength/frequency used maximum range of :

B size of the water drops; A 130 NM

diameter of radar scanner
B 142 NM
C rotational speed of radar scanner;
range from cloud
C 135 NM
D size of the water drops;
wavelength/frequency used D 123 NM

114) Under JAR-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight 118) In relation to the satellite navigation system
Instrument Systems (EFIS), increasing intensity of NAVSTAR/GPS, which of the following statements
precipititation are coloured in the order: correctly describes the term 'Pseudo Random Noise
(PRN)' signal?
A green, amber/yellow, red, magenta
A PRN is the atmospheric jamming that affects the signals
B green, red, magenta, black transmitted by the satellites

C black, amber/yellow, magenta, red

B PRN describes the continuous electro-magnetical
background noise that exists in space
D amber/yellow, magenta, black C PRN occurs in the receiver. It is caused by the signal from
one satellite being received from different directions
(multipath effect)
115) Outer marker transmits on 75 MHz and has an aural
frequency of: D PRN is a code used for the identification of the satellites
and the measurement of the time taken by the signal to
reach the receiver
A 1300 Hz

B 2000 Hz
119) Which one of the following errors can be compensated
for by a NAVSTAR/GPS receiver comparing L1 and L2
C 3000 Hz
frequencies?

D 400 Hz A Multipath

B Tropospheric

C Receiver noise

D Ionospheric

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120) What is the approximate angular coverage of reliable 124) Assuming sufficient transmission power, the maximum
navigation information for a 3° ILS glide path out to a range of a ground radar with a pulse repetition
distance of 10 NM? frequency of 450 pulses per second is: (Given: velocity
of light is 300 000 km/second)
A 3° above and below the glide path and 10° each side of the
localiser centreline A 666 km

B 1.35° above the horizontal to 5.25° above the horizontal and B 1333 km
8° each side of the localiser centreline

C 0.45° above the horizontal to 1.75° above the glide path and C 150 km
8° each side of the localiser centreline
D 333 km
D 0.7° above and below the glide path and 2.5° each side of
the localiser centreline
125) What is the minimum number of satellites required by a
GPS in order to obtain a three dimensional fix?
132) An aircraft is on radial 120 with a magnetic heading of
300°, the track selector (OBS) reads : 330. The A 3
indications on the Course Deviation Indicator (CDI) are
'fly': B 5

A left with 'TO' showing

C 6

B right with 'TO' showing

D 4

C right with 'FROM' showing

D left with 'FROM' showing 126) Which of the following NAVSTAR/GPS satellite
navigation system codes can be processed by
'unauthorised' civil aviation receivers?

122) (For this question use annex 062-9918A) A P

What is the value of the selected course?
B C/A- and P
A 280°(M)
C P and Y
B 299°(M)
D C/A
C 272°(M)

D 260°(M)
127) GPS satellites transmit on two L-band frequencies with
different types of signals.
Which of these are generally available for use by civil
131) (For this question use annex 062-9912A) aviation?
Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight
Instrument System (EFIS) display in Expanded (EXP) A L1-precise (P)
VOR/ILS mode with an VOR frequency selected?
B L2-for communications purpose
A Figure 5
C L1-coarse acquisition (C/A) with selected availability (S/A)
B Figure 6
D L2-coarse acquisition (C/A)
C Figure 1

D Figure 4
128) The basic elements of the satellite navigation system
NAVSTAR/GPS are the:

A control, space and user segments

B main control station, the monitoring station and the ground

antennas

C antenna, the receiver and the central control unit (CDU)

D atomic clock, power supply and transponder

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129) The outer marker of an ILS with a 3° glide slope is 22) Which of the following, if any, is a prerequisite if a
located 4.6 NM from the threshold. Assuming a glide receiver of a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system
slope height of 50 FT above the threshold, the is to be used in combination with a multi sensor system?
approximate height of an aircraft passing the outer
marker is: A The prescribed IFR-equipment must be installed and
operational
A 1300 FT
B The prescribed IFR-equipment must be in working correctly
B 1450 FT and the navigation information continuously displayed

C 1400 FT C The RAIM-function of the GPS receiver must be able to

monitor all prescribed navigation systems

D 1350 FT D Multi-sensor systems are not certificated for flights under

IFR conditions

74) The DME (Distance Measuring Equipment) operates

within the following frequencies: 23) In which situation will speed indications on an airborne
Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) most closely
A 962 to 1213 kHz. represent the groundspeed of an aircraft flying at FL400?

B 962 to 1213 MHz A When tracking directly away from the station at a range of
10 NM
C 108 to 118 MHz
B When tracking directly towards the station at a range of 100
NM or more
D 329 to 335 MHz
C When passing abeam the station and within 5 NM of it

121) (For this question use annex 062-9917A) D When overhead the station, with no change of heading at
What wind velocity is indicated? transit

A 255°(M)/20KT
24) (For this question use annex 062-9919A)
B 285°(M)/20KT What is the instantaneous aircraft track?

C 105°(M)/20KT A 272°(M)

D 030°(M)/20KT B 300°(M)

C 260°(M)
29) Which of the following is an ILS localiser frequency?
D 280°(M)

A 109.15 MHz
25) In civil aviation, the height value computed by the
B 108.25 MHz receiver of the satellite navigation system
NAVSTAR/GPS is the:
C 110.20 MHz
A height above the WGS-84 ellipsoid
D 112.10 MHz
B geometric height above ground

21) An aircraft is 100 NM from a VOR facility. Assuming no C height above Mean Sea Level (MSL)
error when using a deviation indicator where 1 dot = 2°
deviation, how many dots deviation from the centre line D flight level
of the instrument will represent the limits of the airway
boundary? (Assume that the airway is 10 NM wide)
26) Every 10 kt decrease in groundspeed, on a 3° ILS
A 6.0
glidepath, will require an approximate:

B 1.5 A increase in the aircraft's rate of descent of 50 FT/MIN

C 3.0 B decrease in the aircraft's rate of descent of 100 FT/MIN

D 4.5 C increase in the aircraft's rate of descent of 100 FT/MIN

D decrease in the aircraft's rate of descent of 50 FT/MIN

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76) The MIDDLE MARKER of an Instrument Landing System 32) The principle used in VOR bearing measurement is:
(ILS) facility is identified audibly and visually by a series
of:
A phase comparison
A dots and a white light flashing
B envelope matching
B dashes and an amber light flashing
C beat frequency discrimination
C alternate dots and dashes and an amber light flashing
D difference in depth of modulation
D two dashes per second and a blue light flashing

33) Due to 'Doppler' effect an apparent decrease in the

28) Which of the following Secondary Surveillance Radar transmitted frequency, which is proportional to the
(SSR) codes is used to indicate transponder transmitter's velocity, will occur when:
malfunction?
A the transmitter moves away from the reciever
A 4096
B the transmitter and receiver move towards each other
B 9999
C the transmitter moves toward the reciever
C 0000
D both transmitter and receiver move away from each other
D 7600

34) Which one of the following statements is correct

18) In the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, what concerning the use in primary radar of continuous wave
is the maximum time taken to receive the complete set transmissions as compared with pulse transmissions?
of almanac data from all satellites?
A The equipment required is more complex in continuous
A 24 seconds (= 1 second per data frame) wave radar but this is offset by greater reliability and
accuracy
B 12.5 minutes (= 30 seconds per data frame) B It eliminates the minimum target reception range

C 12 hours (= period of the satellites orbit)

C A smaller common transmitter and receiver aerial can be
used
D 25 seconds (= 1 second per data frame)
D It is less effective in short range radars but more effective in
long range radars
30) In order to ascertain whether a cloud return on an
Aircraft Weather Radar (AWR) is at or above the height
of the aircaft, the tilt control should be set to: 35) The geometric shape of the reference system for the
(Assume a beam width of 5°) satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS, defined as
WGS 84, is:
A 2.5° down
A a sphere
B 5° up
B a geoid
C 2.5° up
C an ellipsoid
D 0°
D a mathematical model that describes the exact shape of the
earth

31) An aircraft is flying on the true track 090° towards a VOR

station located near the equator where the magnetic
variation is 15°E. The variation at the aircraft position is 36) Which of the following frequency-bands is used by the
8°E. Loran C navigation system?
The aircraft is on VOR radial:
A 978 - 1213 MHz
A 285°
B 90 - 110 kHz
B 255°
C 1750 - 1950 kHz
C 278°
D 10.2 - 13.6 kHz
D 262°

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27) A secondary radar can provide up to 4096 different 4) The main task of the user segment (receiver) of the
codes. satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is to:
These 4096 codes can be used in:
A to monitor the status of the satellites, determine their
A mode A only positions and to measure the time

B mode C only B monitor the orbital planes of the satellites

C mode S C select appropriate satellites automatically, to track the

signals and to measure the time taken by signals from the
satellites to reach the receiver
D all modes
D transmit signals which, from the time taken, are used to
determine the distance to the satellite
11) Airborne weather radar systems use a wavelength of
approximately 3 cm in order to:
5) An aircraft DME receiver does not lock on to its own
A obtain optimum use of the Cosecant squared beam transmissions reflected from the ground because:

B detect the smaller cloud formations as well as large A DME uses the UHF band

C detect the larger water droplets B they are not on the receiver frequency

D transmit at a higher pulse repetition frequency for extended C DME transmits twin pulses
range
D the pulse recurrence rates are varied

2) What is the procedure to be followed if, on a flight under

IFR conditions using the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite
6) If VOR bearing information is used beyond the
navigation system, the number of satellites required to
published protection range, errors could be caused by:
maintain the RAIM (Receiver Autonomous Integrity
Monitoring) function are not available?
A noise from precipitation static exceeding the signal strength
of the transmitter
A The flight may be continued using other certificated
navigation systems
B sky wave interference from the same transmitter
B The flight has to be continued under VFR conditions
C sky wave interference from distant transmitters on the same
frequency
C A constant heading and speed must be flown until the
required number of satellites are again available
D interference from other transmitters
D The flight may be continued as planned if at least 4 satellites
are available and the pilot monitors the GPS-System
manually 7) A Category 1 Instrument Landing System (ILS) ground
installation provides accurate guidance from coverage
limit down to:
3) The amplitude modulation and the colour of an outer
marker (OM) is: A 200 feet above the runway threshold

A 3000 Hz, blue B 50 feet above ILS reference point

B 1300 Hz, blue C runway surface

C 400 Hz, amber D 200 feet above the inner marker

D 400 Hz, blue

8) (For this question use annex 062-9913A)
Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight
Instrument System (EFIS) display in Expanded (EXP)
VOR/ILS mode with an ILS frequency selected?

A Figure 2

B Figure 3

C Figure 5

D Figure 6

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20) Which of the following statements about the accuracy 13) In an Airborne Weather Radar that has a colour cathode
that can be obtained with the differential technique (D- ray tube (CRT) the areas of greatest turbulence are
GPS) of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS indicated on the screen by:
is correct?
A colour zones being closest together
A The increase in accuracy of position fixes is independent of
the receiver position in relation to a D-GPS ground station B blank iso-echo areas where there is no colour

B A D-GPS receiver can detect and correct for SA providing a

more accurate position fix C large areas of flashing red colour

C Only D-GPS allows position fixes accurate enough for 'Non D iso-echo areas which are coloured black
Precision Approaches'

D The nearer a receiver is situated to a D-GPS ground station,

14) Which of the following is an advantage of Ground/DF
the more accurate the position fix (VDF) let-down?

A It is pilot interpreted and does not require the assistance of

10) Why is a secondary radar display screen free of storm ATC
clutter?
B It does not require any special equipment to be fitted to the
A The principle of 'echo' return is not used in secondary radar aircraft

B The frequencies employed are too high to give returns from C It does not require any special equipment, apart from a VHF
moisture sources radio, to be installed in the aircraft or on the ground

C A moving target indicator facility suppresses the display of D It only requires a VHF radio to be fitted to the aircraft
static or near static returns

D The frequencies employed are too low to give returns from 15) In order to indicate radio failure the aircraft SSR
moisture sources transponder should be selected to code:

A 7700
19) Given:
Aircraft heading 160°(M), B 7000
Aircraft is on radial 240° from a VOR,
Selected course on HSI is 250°.
The HSI indications are deviation bar: C 7500

A ahead of the aeroplane symbol with the FROM flag showing D 7600

B ahead of the aeroplane symbol with the TO flag showing

16) The orbital planes of the satellite navigation system
C behind the aeroplane symbol with the FROM flag showing NAVSTAR/GPS are:

D behind the aeroplane symbol with the TO flag showing A inclined 55° to the earth axis

B inclined 90° to the equatorial plane

12) The maximum range of primary radar depends on :
C parallel to the equatorial plane

A frequency D inclined 55° to the equatorial plane

B pulse length
17) The maximum range obtainable from an ATC Long
C pulse recurrence frequency Range Surveillance Radar is approximately:

D wave length A 400 NM

B 300 NM

C 200 NM

D 100 NM

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39) In relation to radar systems that use pulse technology, 60) The design requirements for DME stipulate that, at a
the term 'Pulse Recurrence Rate (PRR)' signifies the: range of 100 NM, the maximum systematic error should
not exceed:
A ratio of pulse period to pulse width
A + or - 3 NM
B number of pulses per second
B + or - 0.25 NM
C delay after which the process re-starts
C + or - 1.25 NM
D the number of cycles per second
D + or - 1.5 NM

9) In order to plot a bearing from a VOR station, a pilot

needs to know the magnetic variation: 61) Which one of the following inputs to an Area Navigation
System (R-NAV) comes from an external, not on-board,
A at the VOR system?

B at the aircraft location A Inertial Navigation System (INS) position

C at the half-way point between the aircraft and the station B Pressure altitude

D at both the VOR and aircraft C VOR/DME radial/distance

D Magnetic heading
67) Which of the following is one of the functions of the
Course-Line-Computer in a basic Area Navigation
(RNAV) system? 62) A radio beacon has an operational range of 10 NM. By
what factor should the transmitter power be increased in
A It transfers the information given by a VOR/DME station into order to achieve an operational range of 20 NM?
tracking and distance indications to any chosen Phantom
Station/waypoint A Four

B It checks the ground station accuracy using a built-in test B Six

programme

C It automatically selects the two strongest transmitters for the C Eight

Area-Nav-Mode and continues working by memory in case
one of the two necessary station goes off the air D Two

D It calculates cross track information for NDB approaches

63) On a DME, display counters rotating throughout their
range indicates:
37) An aircraft is required to approach a VOR station via the
244° radial. In order to obtain correct sense indications A airborne equipment failure
the deviation indicator should be set to:
B ground equipment failure
A 244° with the FROM flag showing
C the airborne equipment is conducting a frequency search
B 244° with the TO flag showing
D the airborne receiver is conducting a range search
C 064° with the TO flag showing

D 064° with the FROM flag showing 64) What approximate rate of descent is required in order to
maintain a 3° glidepath at a groundspeed of 90 kt?

59) The principle of operation of an ILS localiser transmitter A 450 FT/MIN

is based on two overlapping lobes that are transmitted
on (i).......... frequencies and carry different (ii).......... B 400 FT/MIN

A (i) the same (ii) phases C 600 FT/MIN

B (i) different (ii) modulation frequencies D 700 FT/MIN

C (i) different (ii) phases

D (i) the same (ii) modulation frequencies

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57) How does a receiver of the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite 69) Which of the following coordinate systems is used by
navigation system determine the elevation and azimuth the GPS receiver to determine position (Latitude,
data of a satellite relative to the location of the antenna? longitude and altitude)?

A The data is determined by the satellite and transmitted A ED 87

together with the navigation message
B ED 50
B It calculates it by using Almanac data transmitted by the
satellites
C EUREF 92
C The data is stored in the receiver together with the Pseudo
Random Noise (PRN) code D WGS 84

D The data is based on the direction to the satellite determined

at the location of the antenna A frequency of 10 GHz is considered to be the optimum
70)
for use in an airborne weather radar system because:

66) In relation to the satellite navigation system A static interference is minimised

NAVSTAR/GPS, 'All in View' is a term used when a
receiver: B less power output is required in the mapping mode

A is tracking more than the required 4 satellites and can

C the larger water droplets will give good echoes and the
instantly replace any lost signal with another already being
antenna can be kept relatively small
monitored

B is receiving the signals of all visible satellites but tracking

D greater detail can be obtained at the more distant ranges of
the smaller water droplets
only those of the 4 with the best geometric coverage

C is receiving and tracking the signals of all 24 operational

satellites simultaneously 71) The BFO selector on an ADF receiver is used to:

D requires the signals of all visible satellites for navigation

purposes A hear the IDENT and must always be switched ON

B find the loop 'null' position

56) An aircraft is "homing" to a radio beacon whilst
maintaining a relative bearing of zero. C hear the IDENT of some NDB stations radiating a
If the magnetic heading decreases, the aircraft is continuous wave signal
experiencing :
D stop loop rotation
A left drift

B zero drift 72) An aircraft on a heading of 280°(M) is on a bearing of

090°(M) from a VOR.
C a wind from the west The bearing you should select on the OMNI bearing
selector to centralise the VOR/ILS left/right deviation
D needle with a 'TO' indication is:
right drift
A 280°

68) Given: B 270°

Magnetic heading 280°
VOR radial 090°
What bearing should be selected on the omni-bearing
C 090°
selector in order to centralise the VOR deviation needle
with a "TO" indication? D 100°

A 100°
73) The reason why the measured distance between a
B 090° NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system satellite and
a receiver is called a 'Pseudo-Range' is because the:
C 270°
A calculated range is based on an idealised Keplerian orbit
D 280°
B calculated range includes receiver clock error

C measured distance is based on the Pseudo Random Noise

code

D movement of satellite and receiver during the distance

calculation is not taken into account

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151) In general the operation of airborne weather radar 41) An aircraft carrying out an ILS approach is receiving
equipment on the ground is: more 90 Hz than 150 Hz modulation notes from both the
localiser and glidepath transmitters. The ILS indication
A only permitted with certain precautions, to safeguard health will show:
of personnel and to protect equipment
A Fly left and fly up
B permitted anywhere
B Fly right and fly down
C totally prohibited
C Fly left and fly down
D unrestrictedly permitted in aerodrome maintenance areas
D Fly right and fly up

65) In which frequency band do VOR transmitters operate?

42) The two main design functions of Secondary
Surveillance Radar (SSR) Mode S are:
A SHF
A air to ground and ground to air data link communications and
B EHF improved ATC aircraft surveillance capability

C VHF B collision avoidance using TCAS II and improved long range

(HF) communication capability.
D UHF
C continuous automatic position reporting using Global
Positioning System (GPS) satellites and collision avoidance
using TCAS II
48) A Primary radar operates on the principle of:
D the elimination of ground to air communications and the
introduction of automatic separation between aircraft using
A phase comparison
TCAS II

B continuous wave transmission

43) Which of the following statements concerning LORAN-C
C pulse technique is correct?

D transponder interrogation A It is a navigation system based on secondary radar

principles; position lines are obtained in sequence from up
to eight ground stations
75) Basic RNAV requires a track-keeping accuracy of:
B It is a hyperbolic navigation system that works on the
principle of range measurement by phase comparison
A +/- 3NM or better for 90% of the flight time
C It is a navigation system based on simultaneous ranges
B +/- 2NM or better for 75% of the flight time being received from a minimum of four ground stations

D It is a hyperbolic navigation system that works on the

C +/- 5NM or better throughout the flight principle of differential range by pulse technique

D +/- 5NM or better for 95% of the flight time

44) A ground radar transmitting at a PRF of 1200
pulses/second will have a maximum unambiguous range
40) Signal reception is required from a minimum number of of approximately:
satellites that have adequate elevation and suitable
geometry in order for a Satellite-Assisted Navigation A 67 NM
System (GNSS/GPS) to carry out independent three
dimensional operation, Receiver Autonomous Integrity B 135 NM
Monitoring (RAIM) and to isolate any faulty satellite and
remove it from contributing to the navigation solution.
The number of satellites is:
C 270 NM

A 5
D 27 NM

B 6

C 7

D 4

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45) What is the minimum number of NAVSTAR/GPS 50) Which of the following statements concerning the L1
satellites required to produce an accurate independent 3- and L2 NAVSTAR/GPS transmission frequencies and
D position fix? codes is correct?

A 24 A The higher frequency is used to transmit both the C/A and P

codes
B 3
B C/A and P codes are transmitted at different times on both
frequencies
C 4
C The higher frequency is only used to transmit the P code
D 5
D The lower frequency is used to transmit both the C/A and P
codes
58) In the event of the use of Selective Availability, how
does this affect, if at all, the navigation accuracy of the
NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system ? 51) Which of the following data, in addition to the Pseudo
Random Noise (PRN) code, forms part of the so called
A It degrades position accuracy by manipulating satellite 'Navigation Message' transmitted by NAVSTAR/GPS
signals satellites?

B It increases because only signals from satellites in the most A almanac data; satellite status information
suitable geometric constellation are selected by the receiver
B time; data to impair the accuracy of the position fix
C It has no influence because, by selecting of the most
suitable signals, the computing process in the receiver is
quicker C data to correct receiver clock error; almanac data

D It degrades accuracy by reducing the number of available D time; positions of the satellites
satellites

52) (For this question use annex 062-9920A)

47) The Flight Management Computer (FMC) position is: The letters QTX and adjacent symbol indicate a:

A the computed position based on a number of sources (IRS, A Airport

Radio, ILS, GPS etc)
B VOR/DME
B the actual position of the aircraft at any point in time
C TACAN
C the same as that given on the No. 1 IRS
D VOR
D another source of aircaft position; it is independent of other
position sources (IRS, Radio, ILS etc)
53) Ignoring pulse length and fly-back, a radar facility
designed to have a maximum unambiguous range of 50
38) In a primary radar using pulse technique, pulse length km will have a PRF (pulses per second) of:
determines:
A 6000
A minimum measurable range
B 167
B target discrimination
C 330
C maximum measurable range
D 3000
D beam width

54) The aircraft DME receiver cannot lock on to

49) Factors liable to affect most NDB/ADF system interrogation signals reflected from the ground because:
performance and reliability include:
A DME pulse recurrence rates are varied
A static interference - night effect - absence of failure warning
system B aircraft transmitter and DME ground station are transmitting
on different frequencies
B static interference - station interference - latitude error
C reflections are subject to doppler frequency shift
C height error - station interference - mountain effect
D DME transmits twin pulses
D coastal refraction - lane slip - mountain effect

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55) The azimuth transmitter of a Microwave Landing System 247) Which of the following types of radar systems are most
(MLS) provides a fan-shaped horizontal approach zone suited for short range operation?
which is usually:
A primary continuous wave
A + or - 30° of the runway centre-line
B centimetric pulse
B + or - 40° of the runway centre-line
C millimetric pulse
C + or - 50° of the runway centre-line
D secondary continuous wave
D + or - 60° of the runway centre-line

248) One of the tasks of the space segment of the satellite

46) The captain of an aircraft flying at FL100 wishes to navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is to:
obtain weather information at the destination airfield
from the airfield's VOR. At what maximum theoretical A compute the user position from the received user messages
range will it be possible to obtain this information? and to transmit the computed position back to the user
segment
A 1230 km
B monitor the satellites' orbits and status
B 123 NM
C transmit signals which can be used, by suitable receivers, to
C 123 km determine time, position and velocity

D 12.3 NM
D transmit signals to suitable receivers and to monitor the
orbital planes autonomously

253) Under JAR-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight 249) Which one of the following methods is used by a
Instrument Systems (EFIS), turbulence is coloured: Microwave Landing System (MLS) to indicate distance
from the runway threshold?
A black
A Timing the interval between the reception of sequential
B cyan secondary radar pulses from the MLS station to the aircraft

C white or magenta B A DME co-located with the MLS transmitters

D red C Timing the interval between the transmission and reception

of primary radar pulses from the aircraft to MLS station

D Measurement of the frequency shift between the MLS

245) MLS installations notified for operation, unless azimuth and elevation transmissions
otherwise stated, provide azimuth coverage of:

A + or - 20° about the nominal courseline out to a range of 20 250) If an aircraft flies along a VOR radial it will follow a:
NM

B + or - 40° about the nominal courseline out to a range of 30 A constant magnetic track
NM
B great circle track
C + or - 20° about the nominal courseline out to a range of 10
NM
C rhumbline track
D + or - 40° about the nominal courseline out to a range of 20
NM D line of constant bearing

246) A typical frequency employed in Distance Measuring 225) One of the tasks of the control segment of the satellite
Equipment (DME) is: navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is to:

A 100 MHz A grant and monitor user authorisations

B 100 GHz B monitor the status of the satellites

C 1000 MHz C manufacture and launch the satellites

D 10 MHz D manipulate the signals of selected satellites to reduce the

precision of the position fix

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252) What is the maximum distance between VOR and 256) 'Night Effect' which causes loss of signal and fading,
DME/TACAN ground installations if they are to have the resulting in bearing errors from NDB transmissions, is
same morse code identifier? due to:

A 600 m A static activity increasing at night particularly in the lower

frequency band
B 2000 m
B the effect of the Aurora Borealis
C 60 m
C skywave distortion of the null position and is maximum at
dawn and dusk
D 300 m
D interference from other transmissions and is maximum at
dusk when east of the NDB
242) (For this question use annex 062-12410A)
Which of the distances indicated will be shown on a
basic VOR/DME-based Area Navigation Equipment when 257) In an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) data
using a 'Phantom Station' at position 'X'? relating primarily to navigation is provided by:

A 9 NM A Flight Management Computer

Aircraft Mapping Radar
B 11 NM Navigation radios

C 14 NM B Inertial Reference Systems

Navigation radios
True airspeed and drift inputs
D 8 NM
C Navigation radios
Flight Management Computer
254) An aircraft is flying on a heading of 270°(M). The VOR Inertial Reference Systems
OBS is also set to 270° with the full left deflection and
FROM flag displayed. D Inertial Reference Systems
In which sector is the aircraft from the VOR ground Aircraft Mapping Radar
station? Navigation radios

A SE
258) Which of the following statements about the 'visibility'
B NE of NAVSTAR/GPS satellites is correct?

C NW A It is greatest at the equator

D SW B It is greatest at the poles

C It varies, depending on the time and observer's location

255) Loran C coverage is:
D It is the same throughout the globe

A global
259) In which mode of operation does the aircraft weather
B unrestricted between latitudes 70°N and 70°S radar use a cosecant radiation pattern.

C unrestricted over the oceans and adjacent coastlines but A MANUAL

limited over the major continental land masses
B MAPPING
D confined to certain limited areas of the world
C CONTOUR

D WEATHER

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260) The selection of code 2000 on an aircraft SSR 228) (For this question use annex 062-9915A)
transponder indicates: What drift is being experienced?

A entry into airspace from an area where SSR operation has A 20° Right
not been required
B 20° Left
B unlawful interference with the planned operation of the flight
C 12° Right
C an emergency
D 8° Left
D transponder malfunction

229) Erratic indications may be experienced when flying

251) In the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, towards a basic VOR/DME-based Area Navigation
'Selective Availability' (SA) gives the option to artificially System 'Phantom Station':
degrade the accuracy by :
A because, under adverse conditions (relative bearing to the
A shutting off selected satellites Phantom Station other than 180°/360°) it takes the computer
more time to calculate the necessary information
B using a less accurate atomic clock in a satellite for signal
processing B when in the cone of silence overhead the Phantom Station

C offsetting satellite atomic clocks by a predetermined C when the Phantom Station is out of range
constant amount

D dithering the satellite clock

D when operating at low altitudes close to the limit of reception
range from the reference station

235) Precision RNAV (P-RNAV) requires a track-keeping 230) How does the Electronic Flight Instrument System
accuracy of: display of a B737-400 respond to the failure of a VHF
navigation (VOR) receiver?
A 0.25 NM standard deviation or better
A It removes the associated magenta deviation bar and/or
B 1.0 NM standard deviation or better pointer from the display

C 1.5 NM standard deviation or better B The pointer rotates around the display and a VOR 1 or 2
failure warning bar appears
D 0.5 NM standard deviation or better
C The deviation bar and/or pointer change colour to red and
flash intermittently

149) What is the approximate maximum theoretical range at D The pointer flashes and a VOR 1 or 2 failure warning bar
which an aircraft at FL130 could receive information appears
from a VDF facility which is sited 1024 FT above MSL?

A 150 NM 231) An aircraft is required to approach a VOR via the 104°

radial. Which of the following settings should be made
B 180 NM on the VOR/ILS deviation indicator?

C 220 NM A 284° with the FROM flag showing

D 120 NM B 104° with the TO flag showing

C 104° with the FROM flag showing

227) The maximum pulse repetition frequency (PRF) that can
be D 284° with the TO flag showing
used by a primary radar facility in order to detect targets
unambiguously at a range of 50 NM is:
(pps = pulses per second)

A 610 pps

B 713 pps

C 1620 pps

D 3240 pps

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232) ICAO specifications are that range errors indicated by 237) Under JAR-25 colour code rules, features displayed in
Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) should not red on an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS),
exceed: indicate:

A + or - 0.5 NM or 3% of the distance measured whichever is A flight envelope and system limits; engaged modes
the greater
B warnings; cautions and abnormal sources
B + or - 1.25 NM plus 0.25% of the distance measured
C cautions and abnormal sources; engaged modes
C + or - 0.25 NM plus 3% of the distance measured up to a
maximum of 5 NM
D warnings; flight envelope and system limits
D + or - 0.25 NM plus 1.25% of the distance measured

238) Given:
VOR station position N61° E025°, variation 13°E;
244) (For this question use annex 062-9906A)
Estimated position of an aircraft N59° E025°, variation
Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight
20°E.
Instrument System (EFIS) display in PLAN mode?
What VOR radial is the aircraft on?
A Figure 4
A 160°
B Figure 1
B 193°

C Figure 2
C 167°
D Figure 3
D 347°

234) The main factor which determines the minimum range

239) Which of the following equipments uses primary radar
that can be measured by a pulsed radar is pulse:
principles?
A amplitude
A Global Positioning System (GPS)
B repetition rate
B Airborne weather radar (AWR)

C frequency
C Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)
D length
D Distance Measuring Equipment (DME)

243) Which of the following is the ICAO allocated frequency

240) In order to indicate an emergency situation, the aircraft
band for ADF receivers?
Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) transponder
should be set to:
A 200 - 2000 kHz
A 7500
B 200 - 1750 kHz
B 7000
C 255 - 455 kHz
C 7700
D 300 - 3000 kHz
D 7600

236) Of what use, if any, is a military TACAN station to civil

aviation ?
241) Under JAR-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight
Instrument Systems (EFIS), selected data and values are
A It can provide a DME distance and magnetic bearing
coloured:

B It can provide a magnetic bearing A white

C It can provide DME distance B magenta

D It is of no use to civil aviation C yellow

D green

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263) In the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, 284) The maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at
receiver clock error: FL210 may receive signals from a VOR facility sited 340
feet above mean sea level is approximately:
A is negligible small because of the great accuracy the atomic
clocks installed in the satellites A 204 NM

B is corrected by using signals from four satellites B 245 NM

C is the biggest part of the total error; it cannot be corrected C 163 NM

D can be minimised by synchronisation of the receiver clock D 183 NM

with the satellite clocks

285) Which one of the following is an advantages of a multi-

233) What is the maximum theoretical range that an aircraft at
sensor system using inputs from a global navigation
FL150 can receive signals from a VOR situated 609 feet
satellite system (GNSS) and an inertial navigational
above MSL?
system (INS)?
A 156 NM
A The GNSS can be used to update a drifting INS
B 184 NM
B The activation of 'Selective Availability' can be recognised by
the INS
C 220 NM
C The average position calculated from data provided by both
D 147 NM systems increases overall accuracy

D The only advantage of coupling both systems is double

redundancy
291) Which of the following satellite navigation systems has
Full Operational Capability (FOC) and is approved for
specified flights under IFR conditions in Europe?
286) There are two NDBs, one 20 NM inland, and the other 50
A NNSS-Transit NM inland from the coast.
Assuming that the error caused by coastal refraction is
the same for both propagations, the extent of the error
B COSPAS-SARSAT
in a position line plotted by an aircraft that is over water
will be:
C GLONASS
A the same from both beacons when the aircraft is on a
D NAVSTAR/GPS relative bearing of 090° and 270°

B greater from the beacon that is 50 NM inland

261) The code transmitted by a SSR transponder consists of:
C the same from both beacons when the aircraft is on a
relative bearing of 180° and 360°
A phase differences
D greater from the beacon that is 20 NM inland
B frequency differences

C amplitude differences 287) In a Satellite-Assisted Navigation system (GNSS/GPS) a

position line is obtained by:
D pulses
A the aircraft's receiver measuring the phase angle of the
signal received from a satellite in a known position

283) ADF bearings by an aeroplane by day within the B timing the period that is taken for a transmission from the
published protection range should be accurate to within aircraft's transmitter/receiver to reach and return from a
a maximum error of: satellite in a known position

A +/-5° C the aircraft's receiver measuring the time difference between

signals received from a minimum number of satellites
B +/-10°
D timing the period that is taken for a satellite's transmission to
reach the aircraft's receiver
C +/-2.5°

D +/-2°

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288) Which of the following procedures must be adopted if, 293) What is the colour sequence when passing over an
on a flight under IFR conditions using a NAVSTAR/GPS Outer, Middle and Inner Marker beacon?
satellite navigation system receiver, the position fix
obtained from the GPS receiver differs from the position A blue - amber - white
of conventional navigation systems by an unacceptable
amount? B amber - white - green

A The pilot must determine the reason for the deviation and
C white - amber - blue
correct the error or switch off the faulty system

B It may be continued using conventional navigation systems D blue - green - white

C It may be continued using NAVSTAR/GPS; prior to the next

flight all systems must be checked 294) Which one of the following correctly lists the major
ground based components of a Microwave Landing
D It must be continued under VFR conditions System (MLS)?

A Separate azimuth and elevation transmitters, DME facility

281) At what approximate height above the WGS-84 ellipsoid
are NAVSTAR/GPS satellites circling the earth? B Separate azimuth and elevation transmitters, outer and
middle marker beacons
A 20200 km
C Combined azimuth and elevation transmitter, DME facility
B 10900 km
D Combined azimuth and elevation transmitter, outer and inner
marker beacons
C 36000 km

D 19500 km
295) Which one of the following is an advantage of a
Microwave Landing System (MLS) compared with an
Instrument Landing System (ILS)?
290) (For this question use annex 062-9914A)
Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight A The installation does not require to have a separate method
Instrument System (EFIS) display in FULL VOR/ILS (marker beacons or DME) to determine range
mode with an ILS frequency selected?
B There is no restriction on the number of ground installations
A Figure 3 that can be operated because there is an unlimited number
of frequency channels available
B Figure 5
C It is insensitive to geographical site and can be installed at
sites where it is not possible to use an ILS
C Figure 6
D It does not require a separate azimuth (localiser) and
D Figure 2 elevation (azimuth) transmitter

280) How long does it take a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite to orbit 296) (For this question use annex 062-9916A)
the earth? What is the value of the track from TBX to YTB?

A 12 days A 280°(T)

B 365 days because the satellites are located in a B 097°(T)

geostationary orbit
C 170°(M)
C Approximately 12 hours (1/2 of a sidereal day)
D 140°(M)
D Approximately 24 hours (one sidereal day)

297) Which of the following gives the best information about

292) Under JAR-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight the progress of a flight between 2 en-route waypoints
Instrument Systems (EFIS), armed modes are coloured: from a RNAV equipment?

A white A ETO

B green B ETD

C magenta C ATA

D amber/yellow D Elapsed time on route.

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298) Complete the following statement. Aircraft Surface 265) The OUTER MARKER of an Instrument Landing System
movement Radar operates on frequencies in the (i) (ILS) facility transmits on a frequency of:
.......... band employing an antenna that rotates at
approximately (ii) .......... revolutions per minute; it is (iii) A 200 MHz and is modulated by alternate dot/dash in morse
......... possible to determine the type of aircraft from the
return on the radar screen. B 75 MHz and is modulated by alternate dot/dash in morse

A (i) EHF (ii) 30 (iii) never

C 300 MHz and is modulated by morse at two dashes per
second
B (i) SHF (ii) 10 (iii) always
D 75 MHz and is modulated by morse at two dashes per
C (i) EHF (ii) 100 (iii) never second

D (i) SHF (ii) 60 (iii) sometimes

266) In the MAPPING MODE the airborne weather radar
utilises a:
289) Quadrantal errors associated with aircraft Automatic
Direction Finding (ADF) equipment are caused by:
A pencil beam to a maximum range of 60 NM

A misalignment of the loop aerial B pencil beam effective from zero to 150 NM

B skywave/groundwave contamination C fan shaped beam effective up to a maximum of 50 NM to 60

NM range
C signal bending by the aircraft metallic surfaces
D fan shaped beam effective up to a range of 150 NM

D signal bending caused by electrical interference from

aircraft wiring
267) Which frequency band is used by VOR transmissions?

272) Which of the following combinations is likely to result in A VHF

the most accurate Area Navigation (RNAV) fixes?
B UHF
A VOR/DME

B NDB/VOR
C SHF

D HF
C VOR/VOR

D DME/DME
268) An aircraft tracking to intercept the Instrument Landing
System (ILS) localiser inbound on the approach side,
outside the published ILS coverage angle:
224) A DME is located at MSL.
An aircraft passing vertically above the station at flight A may receive false course indications
level FL 360 will obtain a DME range of approximately:
B will not normally receive signals
A 7 NM

B 11 NM
C will receive signals without identification coding

D can expect signals to give correct indications

C 8 NM

D 6 NM
269) Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) operates in the:

264) GPS system satellites transmit their signals on two A SHF band and uses frequency modulation techniques
carrier waves 1575 MHz and 1227 MHz and supply two
possible codes accessible acording to user (civil or B UHF band and is a secondary radar system
military).
Commercial aviation uses: C VHF band and uses the principle of phase comparison

A only the 1 227 MHz carrier wave and one code

D UHF band and is a primary radar system

B the two carrier waves and one public code

C only the 1 575 MHz carrier wave and one code

D only the 1 575 MHz carrier wave and two codes

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282) The selection of code 7600 on an aircraft SSR 275) Which one of the following sensors/systems is self-
transponder indicates: contained and obtains no external information?

A radio communication failure A Inertial Navigation System (INS) position

B an emergency B Pressure altitude

C unlawful interference with the planned operation of the flight C Magnetic heading

D transponder malfunction D VOR/DME radial/distance

271) (For this question use annex 062-9911A) 276) Concerning the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation
Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight system, what is the meaning of the term 'Receiver
Instrument System (EFIS) display in MAP mode? Autonomous Integrity Monitoring' (RAIM)?

A Figure 4 A It is a technique by which a receiver ensures the integrity of

the navigation information
B Figure 5
B It is the ability of the GPS satellites to check the integrity of
the data transmitted by the monitoring stations of the ground
C Figure 2
segment
D Figure 3 C It is a method whereby a receiver ensures the integrity of the
Pseudo Random Noise (PRN) code transmitted by the
satellites
262) A VOR and DME are co-located.
You want to identify the DME by listening to the callsign. D It is a technique whereby the receivers of the world-wide
Having heard the same callsign 4 times in 30 seconds distributed monitor stations (ground segment) automatically
the: determines the integrity of the navigation message

A VOR and DME callsigns were the same and broadcast with
the same pitch 277) ICAO Annex 11 defines Area Navigation (RNAV) as a
method of navigation which permits aircraft operation
B DME callsign is the one with the higher pitch that was on any desired flight path:
broadcast only once
A within the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids or
C DME callsign was not transmitted, the distance information within the limits of the capability of self-contained aids, or a
is sufficient proof of correct operation combination of these

D DME callsign is the one with the lower pitch that was B outside the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids
broadcast several times provided that it is equipped with a minimum of one
serviceable self-contained navigation aid

273) Errors caused by the effect of coastal refraction on C within the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids
bearings at lower altitudes are maximum when the NDB provided that it is equipped with a minimum of one
is: serviceable self-contained navigation aid

A inland and the bearing crosses the coast at right angles

D outside the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids
provided that it is equipped with a minimum of two
serviceable self-contained navigation aids
B near the coast and the bearing crosses the coast at an
acute angle

C inland and the bearing crosses the coast at an acute angle 278) A VOR is sited at position 58°00'N 073°00'W where the
magnetic variation equals 32°W.
An aircraft is located at position 56°00'N 073°00'W where
D near the coast and the bearing crosses the coast at right
the magnetic variation equals 28°W.
angles
The aircraft is on VOR radial:

A 360
274) The rate of descent required to maintain a 3.25° glide
slope at a groundspeed of 140 kt is approximately: B 180
A 850 FT/MIN
C 212
B 670 FT/MIN
D 208

C 700 FT/MIN

D 800 FT/MIN

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279) What is the deviation per dot on the HSI when using a 2- 172) Transmissions from VOR facilities may be adversely
dot basic RNAV system in the en-route mode? affected by:

A 2 NM A night effect

B 10 NM B quadrantal error

C 5 NM C uneven propagation over irregular ground surfaces

D 1 NM D static interference

270) If the reference phase differs 30° with the variable phase 173) In which frequency band do Satellite-Assisted
the radial from the VOR station will be : Navigation systems (GNSS/GPS) provide position
information that is available to civil aircraft?
A 210°
A UHF
B 150°
B SHF
C 030°
C EHF
D 330°
D VHF

178) The track-line on the Electronic Horizontal Situation

Indicator (EHSI) or Navigation Display of an Electronic 174) A frequency of airborne weather radar is :
Flight Instrument System:

A indicates to the pilot that a manually selected heading is A 9375 GHz

being flown
B 9375 kHz
B represents the track of the aircraft over the ground. When it
co-incides with the desired track, wind influence is C 93.75 MHz
compensated for
D 9375 MHz
C corresponds to the calculated IRS TH and is correct during
turns

D indicates that the pilot has made a manual track selection 175) In which navigation system does the master station
transmit a continuous string of pulses on a frequency
close to 100 kHz?
170) An Omni-bearing selector (OBS) shows full deflection to
the left when within range of a serviceable VOR.
A GPS
What angular deviation are you from the selected radial?
B Decca
A 1.5° or more
C Doppler
B 2.5 or more
D Loran C
C 10° or more

D less than 10° 226) The selection of code 7700 on an aircraft SSR
transponder indicates:

171) In which one of the following circumstances is ground

A unlawful interference with the planned operation of the flight
direction finding (VDF) likely to be used to fix an
aircraft's position? B an emergency

A When contacting ATC to join controlled airapace from the C radio communication failure
open FIR
D transponder malfunction
B When declaring an emergency on any frequency

C When using the emergency VHF frequency 121.5 MHz

D On first contact with ATC on crossing an international FIR

boundary

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177) In which frequency band do most airborne weather, and 182) The ground Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)
ground based ATC, radar systems operate? equipment incorporates a transmitter and receiver
respectively operating in the following frequencies:
A SHF
Transmitter Receiver
B UHF
A 1030 MHz 1030 MHz
C EHF
B 1030 MHz 1090 MHz
D VHF
C 1090 MHz 1030 MHz

D 1090 MHz 1090 MHz

167) A Cat III ILS glidepath transmitter provides reliable
guidance information down to:

A a maximum height of 200 ft above the runway 183) The distance between a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite and
receiver is:
B a maximum height of 100 ft above the runway
A determined by the time taken for the signal to arrive from the
satellite multiplied by the speed of light
C a maximum height of 50 ft above the runway
B calculated from the Doppler shift of the known frequencies
D the surface of the runway
C calculated, using the WGS-84 reference system, from the
known positions of the satellite and the receiver
179) Which component of the B737-400 Electronic Flight
Instrument System generates the visual displays on the D determined by the phase shift of the Pseudo Random Noise
EADI and EHSI? code multiplied by the speed of light

A Symbol Generator
184) The minimum range of a primary radar, using the pulse
B Flight Management Computer technique, is determined by the (i)........ ; the maximum
unambiguous range by the (ii).........
C Flight Control Computer
A (i) pulse length (ii) length of the timebase
D Navigation database
B (i) transmission frequency (ii) pulse recurrence frequency

180) When switching on the weather radar, after start-up, a

C (i) pulse length (ii) pulse recurrence frequency
single very bright line appears on the screen.
This means that the: D (i) transmission frequency (ii) transmitter power output

A scanner is not rotating

185) The Doppler Navigation System is based on:
B receiver is faulty
A radar principles using frequency shift
C scanning of the cathode ray tube is faulty

D transmitter is faulty
B radio waves refraction in the ionosphere

C doppler VOR (DVOR) Navigation System

181) The two signals transmitted by a conventional VOR D phase comparison from ground station transmissions
ground station are 90° out of phase on magnetic:

A east

B south

C west

D north

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176) Which of the following lists information required to input 153) Which of the following geometric satellite constellations
a waypoint or 'Phantom Station' into a basic VOR/DME- provides the most accurate NAVSTAR/GPS position fix?
based Area Navigation System?
A 3 satellites with a low elevation above the horizon and an
A Magnetic track and distance from the aircraft to the waypoint azimuth of 120° from each other together with a fourth
or 'Phantom Station' directly overhead

B Magnetic track and distance to a VOR/DME from the B 3 satellites with an azimuth of 120° from each other and an
waypoint or 'Phantom Station' elevation of 45° above the horizon

C Radials from a minimum of two VORs to the waypoint or C 4 satellites with an azimuth of 90° from each other and a low
'Phantom Station' elevation above the horizon

D Radial and distance from a VOR/DME to the waypoint or D 4 satellites with an azimuth of 90° from each other and an
'Phantom Station' elevation of 45° above the horizon

160) The time taken for the transmission of an interrogation 154) In which frequency band does an ILS glide slope
pulse by a Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) to transmit?
travel to the ground transponder and return to the
airborne receiver was 2000 micro-second. A UHF
The slant range from the ground transponder was:
B VHF
A 165 NM
C SHF
B 186 NM
D EHF
C 296 NM

D 330 NM
155) The required 24 NAVSTAR/GPS operational satellites are
located on:

299) For a conventional DME facility 'Beacon Saturation' will A 4 orbital planes with 6 satellites in each plane
occur whenever the number of simultaneous
interrogations exceeds: B 6 orbital planes with 3 satellites in each plane plus 6 reserve
satellites positioned in a geostationary orbital plane
A 60
C 6 orbital planes with 4 satellites in each plane
B 80
D 3 orbital planes with 8 satellites in each plane
C 100

D 200 156) What are the effects, if any, of shadowing by parts of the
aircraft (e.g. wing) on the reception of signals from
NAVSTAR/GPS satellites?
152) In weather radar the use of a cosecant beam in
'Mapping' mode enables: A It may prevent the reception of signals

A higher definition echoes to be produced giving a clearer B It causes multipath propagation

picture
C The signals will be distorted, however the error can be
B scanning of a large ground zone producing echos whose corrected for using an algorithm and information from
signals are practically independent of distance unaffected signals

C better reception of echos on contrasting terrain such as D It has no influence because high frequency signals are
ground to sea unaffected

D a greater radar range to be achieved

157) The maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at
FL80 can obtain bearings from a ground VDF facility
sited 325 FT above MSL is:

A 158 NM

B 107 NM

C 114 NM

D 134 NM

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169) Which of the following lists are all errors that affect the 162) (For this question use annex 062-9921A)
accuracy and reliability of the Satellite-Assisted The 'O' followed by the letters 'KABC' indicate:
Navigation system (GNSS/GPS)?
A an off-route airport
A Satellite to ground time lag; atmospheric propagation;
satellite clock B a designated alternate airport

B Satellite mutual interference; frequency drift; satellite to

ground time lag C an off-route VOR/DME

C Satellite clock; satellite ephemeris; atmospheric propagation D the destination airport

D Satellite mutual interference; satellite ephemeris;

atmospheric propagation 163) Which of the following equipments works on the
interrogator/transponder principle?

159) What is the minimum level that an aircraft, at a range of A Aerodrome Surface Movement Radar
113 NM, must fly in order to contact the tower on R/T for
a VDF bearing from an airport sited 169 FT above MSL? B Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)

A FL50 C Global Positioning System (GPS)

B FL80 D Airborne Weather Radar (AWR)

C FL100
164) The frequency of an SSR ground transmission is:
D FL60

A 1030 +/- 0.2 Mhz

168) Given :
Compass heading 270° B 1050 +/- 0.5 Mhz
Deviation 2°W
Variation 30°E C 1090 +/- 0.3 Mhz
Relative bearing 316°
What is the QDR? D 1120 +/- 0.6 Mhz

A 044°

165) Which of the following is a complete list of airborne

B 226°
weather radar antenna stabilisation axes?

C 046° A pitch and yaw

D 224° B roll and yaw

C roll and pitch

161) A DME that has difficulty obtaining a "lock-on":
(NOTE: PRF = pulse recurrence frequency, D roll, pitch and yaw
PPS = pulses per second)

A alternates search mode with periods of memory mode

lasting 10 seconds 166) In which frequency band does the Microwave Landing
System (MLS) operate?
B stays in search mode but reduces PRF to max. 60 PPS
after 15000 pulse pairs have been transmitted A VHF

C stays in search mode without a reduction in PRF B UHF

D stays in search mode but reduces PRF to max. 60 PPS C SHF

after 100 seconds
D EHF

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188) The pencil shaped beam of an airborne weather radar is 209) In a primary radar using pulse technique, the ability to
used in preference to the mapping mode for the discriminate between targets in azimuth is a factor of:
determination of ground features:
A beam width
A beyond 150 NM because the wider beam gives better
definition B aerial rotation rate

B when approaching coast-lines in polar regions

C Pulse Recurrence Rate (PRR)

C beyond 50 to 60 NM because more power can be

D pulse length
concentrated in the narrower beam

D beyond 100 NM because insufficient antenna tilt angle is

available with the mapping mode 210) An aircraft carrying out a 3° glidepath ILS approach
experiences a reduction in groundspeed from 150 kt at
the outer marker to 120 kt over the threshold. The effect
158) What is the wavelength of an NDB transmitting on 375 of this change in groundspeed on the aircraft's rate of
kHZ? descent will be a decrease of approximately:

A 8000 m A 100 FT/MIN

B 8m B 150 FT/MIN

C 80 m C 250 FT/MIN

D 800 m D 50 FT/MIN

216) The receiver aerial for a NAVSTAR/GPS system should 211) Which of the following is likely to have the greatest
be mounted: effect on ADF accuracy?

A inside the tail fin to minimise the influence of reflections from A Interference from other NDBs, particularly at night
the wing and fuselage
B Frequency drift at the ground station
B in the vicinity of the receiver to avoid long transmission lines
C Interference from other NDBs, particularly during the day
C under the fuselage in order to receive correction data
transmitted by D-GPS stations D Mutual interference between aircraft aerials
D on the upper side of the fuselage in the vicinity of the centre
of gravity
212) A VOR is sited at position A (45°00'N, 010°00'E). An
aircraft is located at position B (44°00'N, 010°00'E).
Assuming that the magnetic variation at A is 10°W and
186) An apparent increase in the transmitted frequency which
at B is 15°W, the aircraft is on VOR radial:
is proportional to the transmitter velocity will occur
when:
A 195°
A the transmitter moves away from the receiver
B 185°
B the receiver moves towards the transmitter
C 180°
C both transmitter and receiver move towards each other
D 190°
D the transmitter moves towards the receiver

213) (For this question use annex 062-9909A)

Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight
208) Which one of the following switch positions should be
Instrument System (EFIS) display in FULL VOR/ILS
used when selecting a code on the Transponder?
mode with an VOR frequency selected?
A IDENT (Identification)
A Figure 5
B NORMAL
B Figure 6

C OFF
C Figure 1
D STBY (Standby)
D Figure 4

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206) Which of the following cloud types is most readily 219) On which of the following radar displays is it possible to
detected by airborne weather radar when using the get an indication of the shape, and to some extent the
'weather beam'? type, of the aircraft generating the return?

A altostratus A Aerodrome Surface Movement Radar (ASMR)

B cumulus B Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)

C cirrocumulus C Aerodrome Surveillance (approach) Radar

D stratus D Airborne Weather Radar (AWR)

215) Which one of the following lists information given by a 220) Under JAR-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight
basic VOR/DME-based Area Navigation System? Instrument Systems (EFIS), current data and values are
coloured:
A Wind velocity
A white
B True airspeed; drift angle
B cyan
C Crosstrack distance; alongtrack distance; angular course
deviation C red

D Aircraft position in latitude and longitude D magenta

205) For any given circumstances, in order to double the 221) Which one of the following Secondary Surveillance
effective range of a primary radar the power output must Radar (SSR) codes should be used by aircraft entering
be increased by a factor of: airspace from an area where SSR operation has not
been required?
A 4
A 7000
B 8
B 0000
C 16
C 2000
D 2
D 5000

217) A DME station is located 1000 feet above MSL.

An aircraft flying at FL 370, 15 NM away from the DME 222) The frequency range of a VOR receiver is :
station, will have a DME reading of:

A 15 NM A 118 to 135.95 MHz

B 17 NM B 108 to 135.95 MHz

C 16 NM C 108 to 117.95 MHz

D 14 NM D 108 to 111.95 MHz

218) When an aircraft is operating its Secondary Surveillance 223) What datum is used for the Minimum Descent Altitude
Radar in Mode C an air traffic controller's presentation (MDA) on a non-precision approach when using the
gives information regarding the aircraft's indicated flight NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system?
level that is accurate to within:
A Radar altitude
A + or - 25 FT
B GPS altitude
B + or - 50 FT
C Barometric altitude
C + or - 75 FT
D If using Differential-GPS (D-GPS) the altitude obtained from
D + or - 100 FT the D-GPS, otherwise barometric altitude

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214) Almanac data stored in the receiver of the satellite 191) The influence of the ionosphere on the accuracy of the
navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is used for the: satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is:

A recognition wether Selective Availability (SA) is operative A minimised by computing the average of all signals

B assignment of received PRN-codes (Pseudo Random B only significant if the satellites are located at a small
Noise) to the appropriate satellite elevation angle above the horizon

C correction of receiver clock error C negligible

D fast identification of received signals coming from visible D minimised by the receiver using a model of the atmosphere
satellites and comparing signals transmitted by the satellites

197) Instrument Landing Systems (ILS) Glide Paths provide 192) The maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at
azimuth coverage (i) ..........° each side of the localiser FL230 may receive signals from a VOR facility sited at
centre-line to a distance of (ii) .......... NM from the mean sea level is:
threshold.
A 230 NM
A (i) 25 (ii) 17
B 170 NM
B (i) 35 (ii) 25
C 151 NM
C (i) 5 (ii) 8
D 190 NM
D (i) 8 (ii) 10

193) In order to obtain an ADF bearing the:

150) How many operational satellites are required for Full
Operational Capability (FOC) of the satellite navigation
system NAVSTAR/GPS? A sense aerial must be tuned separately

A 12 B mode selector should be switched to 'loop'

B 30 C BFO switch must be selected to 'ON'

C 24 D signal must be received by both the sense and loop aerials

D 18
194) Which of the following correctly gives the principle of
operation of the Loran C navigation system?
189) A weather radar, set to the 100 NM scale, shows a squall
at 50NM. By changing the scale to 50 NM, the return on A Frequency shift between synchronised transmissions
the radar screen should:
B Differential range by phase comparison
A decrease in area and move to the top of the screen
C Phase comparison between synchronised transmissions
B increase in area and move to the top of the screen
D Differential range by pulse technique
C increase in area and appear nearer to the bottom of the
screen

D 207) Under JAR-25 colour code rules features displayed in

decrease in area but not change in position on the screen
cyan/blue, on an Electronic Flight Instrument Systems
(EFIS), indicate:

190) The theoretical maximum range for an Airborne Weather A the flight director bar(s)
Radar is determined by the:
B flight envelope and system limits
A transmission frequency
C the sky
B pulse recurrence frequency
D engaged modes
C transmission power

D size of the aerial

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196) What type of satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS 201) Which of the following lists phenomena that CANNOT be
receiver is most suitable for use on board an aircraft? detected by weather radar?

A Sequential A clear air turbulence; turbulence in cloud with precipitation

B Multiplex B snow; turbulence in clouds with precipitation

C Any hand held type C snow; clear air turbulence

D Multichannel D dry hail; clear air turbulence

187) Where, in relation to the runway, is the ILS localiser 202) A radar facility transmitting at a Pulse Recurrence
transmitting aerial normally situated? Frequency (PRF) of 1200 pulses/second will have a
maximum unambiguous range of approximately:
A At the non-approach end about 150 m to one side of the
runway and 300 m along the extended centreline A 135 NM

B At the approach end about 150 m to one side of the runway B 270 NM
and 300 m from touchdown

C On the non-approach end of the runway about 300 m from C 27 NM

the runway on the extended centreline
D 69 NM
D At the approach end of the runway about 300 m from
touchdown on the centreline
203) During a flight at FL 210, a pilot does not receive any
DME distance indication from a DME station located
198) (For this question use annex 062-9905A) approximately 220 NM away.
Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight The reason for this is that the:
Instrument System (EFIS) display in MAP mode?
A aeroplane is circling around the station
A Figure 2
B altitude is too high
B Figure 3
C range of a DME system is always less than 200 NM
C Figure 4
D aeroplane is below the 'line of sight' altitude
D Figure 1

204) (For this question use annex 062-12409A)

199) Under JAR-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight Which of the distances indicated will be shown on a
Instrument Systems (EFIS), the active route/flight plan is basic VOR/DME-based Area Navigation Equipment when
coloured: using a 'Phantom Station'?

A green A 11 NM

B yellow B 12 NM

C cyan C 21 NM

D magenta D 10 NM

200) (For this question use annex 062-9907A)

Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight
Instrument System (EFIS) display in Expanded (EXP)
VOR/ILS mode with an ILS frequency selected?

A Figure 4

B Figure 1

C Figure 2

D Figure 3

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195) Signal reception is required from a minimum number of
satellites that have adequate elevation and suitable
geometry in order for a Satellite-Assisted Navigation
System (GPS) to carry out independent three
dimensional operation without the Receiver
Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) function. The
number of satellites is:

A 5

B 6

C 3

D 4

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