Cisco 200-310

Designing for Cisco Internetwork Solutions

Version: 30.3

Cisco 200-310 Exam

QUESTION NO: 1
You want to gather as much detail as possible during a network audit, to include data time
stamping across a large number of interfaces, customized according to interface, with a minimal
impact on the network devices themselves. Which tool would you use to meet these
requirements?
A.
RMON
B.
SNMPv3
C.
NetFlow
D.
Cisco Discovery Protocol

Answer: C
Explanation:

NetFlow provides extremely granular and accurate traffic measurements and a high-level
collection of aggregated traffic. The output of netflow information is displayed via the show ip
cache flow command on routers. The Table shows a description of the fields for NetFlow output.
Table. Netflow Output escription

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Cisco 200-310 Exam

QUESTION NO: 2
You want to gather as much detail as possible during a network audit with a minimal impact on the
network devices themselves. Which tool would you use to include data time stamping across a
large number of interfaces while being customized according to each interface?
A.
RMON
B.
SNMPv3
C.
NetFlow
D.
Cisco Discovery Protocol

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 3
In which phase of PPDIOO are the network requirements identified?
A.
Design
B.
Plan
C.
Prepare
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Cisco 200-310 Exam

D.
Implement
E.
Operate
F.
Optimize

Answer: B
Explanation:

Plan Phase
The Plan phase identifies the network requirements based on goals, facilities, and user needs.
This phase characterizes sites and assesses the network, performs a gap analysis against bestpractice architectures, and looks at the operational environment. A project plan is developed to
manage the tasks, responsible parties, milestones, and resources to do the design and
implementation. The project plan aligns with the scope, cost, and resource parameters established
with the original business requirements. This project plan is followed (and updated) during all
phases of the cycle.

QUESTION NO: 4
Which is part of the Prepare phase of PPDIOO?

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Cisco 200-310 Exam

A.
Obtain site contact information
B.
Perform network audit
C.
Identify customer requirements
D.
Perform gap analysis

Answer: C
Explanation:

Prepare Phase
The Prepare phase establishes organization and business requirements, develops a network
strategy, and proposes a high-level conceptual architecture to support the strategy. Technologies
that support the architecture are identified. This phase creates a business case to establish a
financial justification for a network strategy.

QUESTION NO: 5
When designing the identity and access control portions for the enterprise campus network, which
of these solutions would be the most appropriate solution to consider?
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Cisco 200-310 Exam

A.
802.1X
B.
ACLs in the core layer
C.
Cisco Security MARS
D.
NetFlow

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 6
Which is the purpose of the Cisco NAC Profiler?

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Cisco 200-310 Exam

A.
Automates discovery and inventory of all LAN attached devices
B.
Generates a profile based on username and group
C.
Learns and creates a database of virus definitions based on LAN traffic
D.
A database used to map user VPN accounts

Answer: A
Explanation:

Cisco NAC Profiler: Enables network administrators to keep a real-time, contextual inventory of all
devices in a network. It greatly facilitates the deployment and management of Cisco Network
Admission Control (NAC) systems by discovering and tracking the location and type of all LANattached endpoints, including those that are not capable of authenticating. It also uses the
information about the device to determine the correct policies for NAC to apply.

QUESTION NO: 7
Cisco Identity-Based Networking Services relies heavily on the 802.1X protocol. Which other
authentication solution is used hand-in-hand with 802.1X to authenticate users for network
access?
A.
RADIUS
B.
LEAP
C.
IPsec
D.
TACACS
E.
ISAKMP
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Cisco 200-310 Exam

Answer: A
Explanation:

Cisco Identity-Based Network Services

The Cisco Identity-Based Network Services solution is a way to authenticate host access based
on policy for admission to the network. IBNS supports identity authentication, dynamic provisioning
of VLANs on a per-user basis, guest VLANs, and 802.1X with port security.
The 802.1 X protocol is a standards-based protocol for authenticating network clients by permitting
or denying access to the network. The 802.1 X protocol operates between the end-user client
seeking access and an Ethernet switch or wireless access point (AP) providing the connection to
the network. In 802.1 X terminology, clients are called supplicants, and switches and APs are
called authenticates. A back-end RADIUS server such as a Cisco Access Control Server (ACS)
provides the user account database used to apply authentication and authorization.
With an IBNS solution, the host uses 802.IX and Extensible Authentication Protocol over LANs
(EAPoL) to send the credentials and initiate a session to the network. After the host and switch
establish LAN connectivity, username and password credentials are requested. The client host
then sends the credentials to the switch, which forwards them to the RADIUS ACS.
The RADIUS ACS performs a lookup on the username and password to determine the credentials'
validity. If the username and password are correct, an accept message is sent to the switch or AP
to allow access to the client host. If the username and password are incorrect, the server sends a
message to the switch or AP to block the host port.
Figure 13-4 illustrates the communication flow of two hosts using 802.1X and KAPoL with the
switch, AP, and back-end RADIUS server.

QUESTION NO: 8
Which protocol is used for voice bearer traffic?
A.
MGCP
B.
RTP
C.
SCCP
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Cisco 200-310 Exam

D.
CDP
E.
ICMP

Answer: B
Explanation:

VoIP Control and Transport Protocols

A number of different protocols are used in a VoIP environment for call control, device
provisioning, and addressing.
Figure 14-15 shows those protocols focused on VoIP control and transport.

QUESTION NO: 9
Which protocol is used to reserve bandwidth for the transport of a particular application data flow
across the network?
A.
cRTP
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Cisco 200-310 Exam

B.
IEEE 802.1P
C.
RSVP
D.
LFI
E.
Auto QOS

Answer: C
Explanation:

RSVP Signaling protocol that enables end stations or applications to obtain guaranteed bandwidth
and low delays for their data flows.

QUESTION NO: 10
Which two features are supported by single wireless controller deployments? (Choose two.)
A.
automatic detection and configuration of LWAPPs
B.
LWAPP support across multiple floors and buildings
C.
automatic detection and configuration of RF parameters
D.
Layer 2 and Layer 3 roaming
E.
controller redundancy
F.
mobility groups

Answer: A,B
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Cisco 200-310 Exam

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 11
Which four services does the architecture for Media Services contain? (Choose four.)
A.
access services
B.
transport services
C.
storage services
D.
forwarding services
E.
session control services
F.
security services
G.
filtering services
H.
remote access services

Answer: A,B,C,E
Explanation:

An architecture framework for media services supports different models of video models. As
shown in Figure 14-13, the network provides service to video media in the Media Services
Framework. Those services are access services, transport services, bridging services, storage
servers, and session control services, which arc provided to endpoints.

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Cisco 200-310 Exam

QUESTION NO: 12
Refer to the exhibit.

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Cisco 200-310 Exam

Which layer is the distribution layer?
A.
Layer A
B.
Layer B
C.
Layer C
D.
Layers A and B form a consolidated core and distribution layer

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 13
Which IPv6 feature enables routing to distribute connection requests to the nearest content
server?
A.
Link-local
B.
Site-local
C.
Anycast
D.
Multicast
E.
Global aggregatable

Answer: C
Explanation:
Any cast is a network addressing and routing methodology in which data grams from a single
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Cisco 200-310 Exam

sender are routed to the topologically nearest node in a group of potential receivers all identified
by the same destination address.
Link: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Anycast

QUESTION NO: 14
What is the recommended spanning tree protocol to use for all Layer 2 deployments in a branch
office environment?
A.
CST
B.
RSPT
C.
PVST
D.
MISTP
E.
Rapid PVST +

Answer: E
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 15
Refer to the exhibit.

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Cisco 200-310 Exam

A standard, Layer 2 campus network design is pictured. Which numbered box represents the
distribution layer?
A.
#1
B.
#2
C.
#3
D.
#4

Answer: B
Explanation:

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Cisco 200-310 Exam

QUESTION NO: 16
Which two are types of network virtualization? (Choose two.)
A.
VSS: Virtual Switching System
B.
VRF: virtual routing and forwarding
C.
VCI: virtual channel identifier
D.
VLSM: variable length subnet masking
E.
VM: virtual machine
F.
VMP: Virtual Memory Pool

Answer: A,B
Explanation:

Network virtualization encompasses logical isolated network segments that share the same
physical infrastructure. Each segment operates independently and is logically separate from the
other segments. Each network segment appears with its own privacy, security, independent set of
policies, QoS levels, and independent routing paths.
Here are some examples of network virtualization technologies:
VLAN: Virtual local-area network
VSAN: Virtual storage-area network
VRF: Virtual routing and forwarding
VPN: Virtual private network
VPC: Virtual Port Channel

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Cisco 200-310 Exam

QUESTION NO: 17
You are tasked with designing a new branch office that will support 75 users with possible
expansion in the future and will need a highly available network. Which of the branch design
profiles should be implemented?
A.
large branch design
B.
medium branch design
C.
teleworker design
D.
small branch design

Answer: B
Explanation:

Medium Branch Design

The medium branch design is recommended for branch offices of 50 to 100 users, which is similar
to the small branch but with an additional access router in the WAN edge (slightly larger) allowing
for redundancy services. Typically, two 2921 or 2951 routers are used to support the WAN, and
separate access switches are used to provide LAN connectivity.

QUESTION NO: 18
Which two can be used as a branch office WAN solution? (Choose two.)
A.
frame relay
B.
MPLS
C.
Metro Ethernet
D.
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Cisco 200-310 Exam

GPRS
E.
dial-up modem
F.
3G USB modems

Answer: B,C
Explanation:
Explanation
Frame relay is old 'shared' technology today's sites use some flavor or Metro E or MPLS/VPN

QUESTION NO: 19
What is the acceptable amount of one-way network delay for voice and video applications?
A.
300 bytes
B.
1 sec
C.
150 ms
D.
500 ms

Answer: C
Explanation:

Delay Components in VoIP Networks

The ITU's G.I 14 recommendation specifics that the one-way delay between endpoints should not
exceed 150 ms to be acceptable, commercial voice quality. In private networks, somewhat longer
delays might be acceptable for economic reasons. The ITU G.114 recommendation specifics that
151-ms to 400-ms one-way delay might be acceptable provided that organizations are aware that
the transmission time will affect the quality of user applications. One-way delays of above 400 ms
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Cisco 200-310 Exam

are unacceptable for general network planning purposes.

QUESTION NO: 20
Which mode is used to exclusively look for unauthorized access points?
A.
monitor mode
B.
sniffer mode
C.
rogue detector mode
D.
local mode

Answer: C
Explanation:

Interference detection and avoidance: As Cisco LWAPs monitor all channels, interference is
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Cisco 200-310 Exam

detected by a predefined threshold (10 percent by default). Interference can be generated by
rogue APs, microwaves, cordless telephones, Bluetooth devices, neighboring WLANs, or other
electronic devices.

QUESTION NO: 21
Which of the following three options represents the components of the Teleworker Solution?
(Choose three.)
A.
Cisco Unified IP Phone
B.
Cisco 880 Series Router
C.
Aironet Office Extend Access Point
D.
Catalyst 3560 Series Switch
E.
Cisco 2900 Series Router
F.
MPLS Layer 3 VPN
G.
Leased lines

Answer: A,B,E
Explanation:

A Cisco ASR is used to terminate Teleworker solutions, not a 2900 series router.
Hybrid teleworker uses Aironet, Advanced teleworker uses 880, both use IP phones.
google: "at_a_glance_c45-652500.pdf" for details
The Cisco Virtual Office Solution for the Enterprise Teleworker is implemented using the Cisco
800 series ISRs. Each ISR has integrated switch ports that then connect to the users broadband
connection. The solution uses a permanent always-on IPsec VPN tunnel back to the corporate
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Cisco 200-310 Exam

network. This architecture provides for centralized IT security management, corporate-pushed
security policies, and integrated identity services. In addition, this solution supports the enterprise
teleworker needs through advanced applications such as voice and video. For example, the
enterprise teleworker can take advantage of toll bypass, voicemail, and advanced IP phone
features not available in the PSTN.
Enterprise Teleworker Module
The enterprise teleworker module consists of a small office or a mobile user who needs to access
services of the enterprise campus. As shown in Figure 2-14, mobile users connect from their
homes, hotels, or other locations using dialup or Internet access lines. VPN clients are used to
allow mobile users to securely access enterprise applications. The Cisco Virtual Office solution
provides a solution for teleworkers that is centrally managed using small integrated service routers
(ISR) in the VPN solution. IP phone capabilities are also provided in the Cisco Virtual Office
solution, providing corporate voice services for mobile users.

QUESTION NO: 22
Which three types of WAN topologies can be deployed in the Service Provider Module? (Choose
three.)
A.
ring
B.
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Cisco 200-310 Exam

star
C.
full mesh
D.
core/edge
E.
collapsed core
F.
partial mesh

Answer: B,C,F
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 23 DRAG DROP

DRAG DROP
Drag the WAN characteristics on the left to the branch office model where it would most likely to
be used on the right.

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Cisco 200-310 Exam

Answer:

Explanation:

Small Branch Design

The small branch design is recommended for branch offices that do not require hardware
redundancy and that have a small user base supporting up to 50 users. This profile consists of an
access router providing WAN services and connections for the LAN services.
The Layer 3 WAN services are based on the WAN and Internet deployment model. A T1 is used
for the primary link, and an ADSL secondary link is used for backup. Other network fundamentals
are supported, such as EIGRP, floating static routes, and QoS for bandwidth protection.
Medium Branch Design
The medium branch design is recommended for branch offices of 50 to 100 users, which is similar
to the small branch but with an additional access router in the WAN edge (slightly larger) allowing
for redundancy services.
Large Branch Design
The large branch design is the largest of the branch profiles, supporting between 100 and 1000
users. This design profile is similar to the medium branch design in that it also provides dual
access routers in the WAN edge. In addition, dual Adaptive Security Appliances (ASA) are used
for stateful firewall filtering, and dual distribution switches provide the multilayer switching
component. The WAN services use an MPLS deployment model with dual WAN links into the
WAN cloud.
Cisco Press CCDA 640-864 Official Certification Guide Fourth Edition, Chapter 7
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Cisco 200-310 Exam

QUESTION NO: 24
Which statement describes the recommended deployment of DNS and DHCP servers in the Cisco
Network Architecture for the Enterprise?
A.
Place the DHCP and DNS servers in the Enterprise Campus Access layer and Enterprise branch.
B.
Place the DHCP and DNS servers in the Enterprise Campus Server Farm layer and Enterprise
branch.
C.
Place the DHCP server in the Enterprise Campus Core layer and Remote Access_VPN module
with the DNS server in the Internet Connectivity module.
D.
Place the DHCP server in the Enterprise Campus Distribution layer with the DNS server in the
Internet Connectivity module.

Answer: B
Explanation:
For the Enterprise Campus, DHCP and internal DNS servers should be located in the Server Farm
and they should be redundant. External DNS servers can be placed redundantly at the service
provider facility and at the Enterprise branch.

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Cisco 200-310 Exam

QUESTION NO: 25
Your company's Cisco routers are operating with EIGRP. You need to join networks with an
acquisition's heterogeneous routers at 3 sites, operating with EIGRP and OSPF. Which describes
the best practice for routing protocol deployment?
A.
Apply OSPF throughout both networks
B.
Apply one-way redistribution exclusively at each location
C.
Apply two-way redistribution exclusively at each location
D.
Apply two-way redistribution at each location with a route filter at only one location
E.
Apply two-way redistribution at each location with a route filter at each location
F.
Apply EIGRP with the same autonomous system throughout both networks

Answer: E
Explanation:
Without filters there is possibility of routing loops.
Link: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk365/technologies_tech_note09186a008009487e.shtml

QUESTION NO: 26
Which two routing protocols converge most quickly? (Choose two.)

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Cisco 200-310 Exam

A.
RIPv1
B.
RIPv2
C.
BGP
D.
OSPF
E.
EIGRP

Answer: D,E
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 27
Which of these is the equation used to derive a 64 Kbps bit rate?
A.
2 x 8 kHz x 4-bit code words
B.
8 kHz x 8-bit code words
C.
2 x 4-bit code words x 8 kHz
D.
2 x 4 kHz x 8-bit code words

Answer: D
Explanation:
While the human ear can sense sounds from 20 to 20, 000 Hz, and speech encompasses sounds
from about 200 to 9000 Hz, the telephone channel was designed to operate at about 300 to 3400
Hz. This economical range carries enough fidelity to allow callers to identify the party at the far end
and sense their mood. Nyquist decided to extend the digitization to 4000 Hz, to capture higher"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com

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Cisco 200-310 Exam

frequency sounds that the telephone channel may deliver. Therefore, the highest frequency for
voice is 4000 Hz. According to Nyquist theory, we must double the highest frequency, so 2x4kHz
= 8kHz.
Each sample will be encoded into a 8-bit code. Therefore 8kHz x 8-bit code = 64 Kbps (notice
about the unit Kbps: 8kHz = 8000 samples per second so 8000 x 8-bit = 64000 bit per second =
64 Kilobit per second = 64 Kbps)
Link: http://encyclopedia2.thefreedictionary.com/Nyquist+theorem
Note:
Nyquist theory:
When sampling a signal (e.g., converting from an analog signal to digital), the sampling frequency
must be greater than twice the bandwidth of the input signal in order to be able to reconstruct the
original perfectly from the sampled version.

QUESTION NO: 28
Which one of these statements is an example of how trust and identity management solutions
should be deployed in the enterprise campus network?
A.
Authentication validation should be deployed as close to the data center as possible.
B.
Use the principle of top-down privilege, which means that each subject should have the privileges
that are necessary to perform their defined tasks, as well as all the tasks for those roles below
them.
C.
Mixed ACL rules, using combinations of specific sources and destinations, should be applied as
close to the source as possible.
D.
For ease of management, practice defense in isolation - security mechanisms should be in place
one time, in one place.

Answer: C
Explanation:

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Cisco 200-310 Exam

Validating user authentication should be implemented as close to the source as possible, with an
emphasis on strong authentication for access from untrusted networks. Access rules should
enforce policy deployed throughout the network with the following guidelines:
Source-specific rules with any type destinations should be applied as close to the source as
possible.
Destination-specific rules with any type sources should be applied as close to the destination as
possible.
Mixed rules integrating both source and destination should be used as close to the source as
possible.
An integral part of identity and access control deployments is to allow only the necessary access.
Highly distributed rules allow for greater granularity and scalability but, unfortunately, increase the
management complexity. On the other hand, centralized rule deployment eases management but
lacks flexibility and scalability.
Practicing defense in depth by using security mechanisms that back each other up is an
important concept to understand. For example, the perimeter Internet routers should use ACLs to
filter packets in addition to the firewall inspecting packets at a deeper level.
Cisco Press CCDA 640-864 Official Certification Guide Fourth Edition, Chapter 13

QUESTION NO: 29
With deterministic Wireless LAN Controller redundancy design, the different options available to
the designer have their own strengths. Which one of these statements is an example of such a
strength?
A.
Dynamic load balancing, or salt-and-pepper access point design, avoids the potential impact of
oversubscription on aggregate network performance.
B.
N+N redundancy configuration allows logically grouping access points on controllers to minimize
intercontroller roaming events.
C.
N+N+1 redundancy configuration has the least impact to system management because all of the
controllers are colocated in an NOC or data center.
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Cisco 200-310 Exam

D.
N+1 redundancy configuration uses Layer 3 intercontroller roaming, maintaining traffic on the
same subnet for more efficiency.

Answer: B
Explanation:
With such an arrangement there is no complex mesh of access points & controllers.
Link: http://www.cisco.com/web/learning/le31/le46/cln/qlm/CCDA/design/understanding-wirelessnetwork-controller-technology-3/player.html
N+N WLC Redundancy
With N+N redundancy, shown in Figure 5-14, an equal number of controllers hack up each other.
For example, a pair of WLCs on one floor serves as a backup to a second pair on another floor.
The top WLC is primary for API and AP2 and secondary for AP3 and AP4. The bottom WLC is
primary for AP3 and AP4 and secondary for API and AP2. There should be enough capacity on
each controller to manage a failover situation.

N+N+1 WLC Redundancy

With N+N+1 redundancy, shown in Figure 5-15, an equal number of controllers back up each
other (as with N+N), plus a backup WLC is configured as the tertiary WLC for the APs. N+N+1
redundancy functions the same as N+N redundancy plus a tertiary controller that backs up the
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Cisco 200-310 Exam

secondary controllers. The tertiary WLC is placed in the data center or network operations center

QUESTION NO: 30
When designing the threat detection and mitigation portion for the enterprise data center network,
which of the following would be the most appropriate solution to consider?
A.
802.1X
B.
ACLs in the core layer
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Cisco 200-310 Exam

C.
Cisco Security MARS
D.
Cisco Firewall Services Module

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 31
You have a campus network that consists of only Cisco devices. You have been tasked to
discover the device platforms, the IOS versions, and an IP address of each device to map the
network. Which proprietary protocol will assist you with this task?
A.
SNMP
B.
TCP
C.
CDP
D.
ICMP
E.
LLDP

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 32
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Cisco 200-310 Exam

Which three technologies are recommended to be used for WAN connectivity in today's Enterprise
Edge designs? (Choose three.)
A.
DWDM
B.
Metro Ethernet
C.
Frame Relay
D.
MPLS VPN
E.
ISDN
F.
DSL
G.
Wireless

Answer: A,B,D
Explanation:

There is some discussion about whether ISDN not DWDM should be the answer but it does say
TODAYS network

QUESTION NO: 33
WAN backup over the Internet is often used to provide primary connection redundancy. Which is
the most important consideration when passing corporate traffic over the public Internet?
A.
security
B.
static versus dynamic routing
C.
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Cisco 200-310 Exam

bandwidth
D.
QoS
E.
latency

Answer: A
Explanation:

WAN Backup over the Internet

Another alternative for WAN backup is to use the Internet as the connectivity transport between
sites. However, keep in mind that this type of connection does not support bandwidth guarantees.
The enterprise also needs to work closely with the ISP to set up the tunnels and advertise the
company's networks internally so that remote offices have reachable IP destinations.
Security is of great importance when you rely on the Internet for network connectivity, so a secure
tunnel using IPsec needs to be deployed to protect the data during transport.

QUESTION NO: 34
To provide Layer 2 connectivity between the primary and remote data centers, given that the two
data centers are using Layer 3 routed DCIs, which NX-OS technology can be used to facilitate this
requirement?
A.
VRF
B.
OTV
C.
MPLS
D.
SPT
E.
VPC
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Cisco 200-310 Exam

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 35
Which WLC interface is dedicated for WLAN client data?
A.
virtual interface
B.
dynamic interface
C.
management interface
D.
AP manager interface
E.
service port interface

Answer: B
Explanation:

WLC Interface Types

A WLC has five interface types:
Management interface (static, configured at setup, mandatory) is used for in-band management,
connectivity to AAA, and Layer 2 discovery and association.
Service-port interface (static, configured at setup, optional) is used for out-of-band management.
It is an optional interface that is statically configured.
AP manager interface (static, configured at setup, mandatory except for 5508 WLC) is used for
Layer 3 discovery and association. It has the source IP address of the AP that is statically
configured.
Dynamic interface (dynamic) is analogous to VLANs and is designated for WLAN client data.
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Cisco 200-310 Exam

Virtual interface (static, configured at setup, mandatory) is used for leaver 3 security
authentication, DHCP relay support, and mobility management.

QUESTION NO: 36
According to Cisco, which four improvements are the main benefits of the PPDIOO lifecycle
approach to network design? (Choose four.)
A.
faster ROI
B.
improved business agility
C.
increased network availability
D.
faster access to applications and services
E.
lower total cost of network ownership
F.
better implementation team engagement

Answer: B,C,D,E
Explanation:

The PPDIOO life cycle provides four main benefits:

+ It improves business agility by establishing business requirements and technology strategies.
+ It increases network availability by producing a sound network design and validating the network
operation.
+ It speeds access to applications and services by improving availability, reliability, security,
scalability, and performance.
+ It lowers the total cost of ownership by validating technology requirements and planning for
infrastructure changes and resource requirements.
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Cisco 200-310 Exam

(Reference: Cisco CCDA Official Exam Certification Guide, 3rd Edition) described in the link
below. Link: http://www.ciscopress.com/articles/article.asp?p=1608131&seqNum=3

QUESTION NO: 37 DRAG DROP

DRAG DROP
The first phase of PPDIOO entails identifying customer requirements. Drag the example on the left
to the associated requirement on the right.

Answer:

Explanation:

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Cisco 200-310 Exam

QUESTION NO: 38
During which phase of the PPDIOO model would you conduct interviews with supporting staff to
develop and propose a viable solution?
A.
Prepare
B.
Plan
C.
Design
D.
Implement
E.
Operate
F.
Optimize

Answer: A
Explanation:

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Cisco 200-310 Exam

Prepare Phase
The Prepare phase establishes organization and business requirements, develops a network
strategy, and proposes a high-level conceptual architecture to support the strategy. Technologies
that support the architecture are identified. This phase creates a business case to establish a
financial justification for a network strategy.

QUESTION NO: 39
Which three are considered as technical constraints when identifying network requirements?
(Choose three.)
A.
support for legacy applications
B.
bandwidth support for new applications
C.
limited budget allocation
D.
policy limitations
E.
limited support staff to complete assessment
F.
support for existing legacy equipment
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Cisco 200-310 Exam

G.
limited timeframe to implement

Answer: A,B,F
Explanation:

Network design might be constrained by parameters that limit the solution. Legacy applications
might still exist that must be supported going forward, and these applications might require a
legacy protocol that may limit a design. Technical constraints include the following:
Existing wiring does not support new technology.
Bandwidth might not support new applications.
The network must support exiting legacy equipment.
Legacy applications must be supported (application compatibility).

QUESTION NO: 40 DRAG DROP

DRAG DROP
Drag the description or characteristic on the left to the appropriate technology or protocol on the
right.

Answer:

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Cisco 200-310 Exam

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 41 DRAG DROP

DRAG DROP
Click and drag the phases of the PPDIOO network lifecycle approach on the left to their order on
the right.

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Cisco 200-310 Exam

Answer:

Explanation:

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Cisco 200-310 Exam

QUESTION NO: 42
Characterizing an existing network requires gathering as much information about the network as
possible. Which of these choices describes the preferred order for the information-gathering
process?
A.
site and network audits, traffic analysis, existing documentation and organizational input
B.
existing documentation and organizational input, site and network audits, traffic analysis
C.
traffic analysis, existing documentation and organizational input, site and network audits
D.
site and network audits, existing documentation and organizational input, traffic analysis

Answer: B
Explanation:

This section describes the steps necessary to characterize the existing network infrastructure and
all sites. This process requires three steps:
Step 1. Gather existing documentation about the network, and query the organization to discover
additional information. Organization input, a network audit, and traffic analysis provide the key
information you need. (Note that existing documentation may be inaccurate.)
Step 2. Perform a network audit that adds detail to the description of the network. If possible, use
traffic-analysis information to augment organizational input when you are describing the
applications and protocols used in the network.
Step 3. Based on your network characterization, write a summary report that describes the health
of the network. With this information, you can propose hardware and software upgrades to support
the network requirements and the organizational requirements.

QUESTION NO: 43
Which three terms describe the primary functions of the distribution layer of the campus network
design hierarchy? (Choose three.)
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Cisco 200-310 Exam

A.
provides end-user connectivity
B.
provides high speed transport
C.
provides QoS services
D.
enforces security policies
E.
provides WAN connections
F.
connects access devices to the core backbone

Answer: C,D,F
Explanation:
Link: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Campus/campover.html#wp708979

QUESTION NO: 44
Refer to the exhibit.

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Cisco 200-310 Exam

Which statement accurately represents the characteristics of the core layer in this design?
A.
QoS should only be performed only in the core.
B.
Load balancing should never be implemented or used.
C.
Access lists should be used in the core to perform packet manipulation.
D.
Partial mesh should be used as long as it is connected to each device by multiple paths.
E.
Policy-based traffic control should be implemented to enable prioritization and ensure the best
performance for all time-critical applications.

Answer: D
Explanation:

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Cisco 200-310 Exam

QUESTION NO: 45
Which two of the following are benefits of using a modular approach to network design? (Choose
two.)
A.
improves flexibility
B.
facilitates implementation
C.
lowers implementation costs
D.
improves customer participation in the design process

Answer: A,B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 46
Which three modular components are part of the Cisco Enterprise Edge Architecture? (Choose
three.)
A.
e-commerce module
B.
Internet connectivity module
C.
server farm module
D.
remote access and VPN module
E.
PSTN services module
F.
enterprise branch module
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Cisco 200-310 Exam

G.
building distribution module

Answer: A,B,D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 47
Which of the following is a component within the Cisco Enterprise Campus module?
A.
Teleworker
B.
E-Commerce
C.
Internet Connectivity
D.
Building Distribution
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Cisco 200-310 Exam

E.
WAN/MAN Site-to-Site VPN

Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 48
What are the three primary functions of the distribution layer of the campus network design
hierarchy? (Choose three.)
A.
provide end-user connectivity
B.
provide high speed transport
C.
provide QoS services
D.
enforce security policies
E.
provide WAN connections
F.
connect access devices to the core backbone

Answer: C,D,F
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 49 DRAG DROP

DRAG DROP
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Cisco 200-310 Exam

Drag the characteristics of the traditional campus network on the left to the most appropriate
hierarchical network layer on the right.

Answer:

Explanation:

Access
Distribution
Core
Large-Building LANs
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Cisco 200-310 Exam

Large-building LANs are segmented by floors or departments. The building-access component
serves one or more departments or floors. The building-distribution component serves one or
more building-access components. Campus and building backbone devices connect the data
center, building-distribution components, and the enterprise edge-distribution component. The
access layer typically uses Layer 2 switches to contain costs, with more expensive Layer 3
switches in the distribution layer to provide policy enforcement. Current best practice is to also
deploy multilayer switches in the campus and building backbone.
Cisco Enterprise Architecture Model
Core
Distribution
Access
Cisco Press CCDA 640-864 Official Certification Guide Fourth Edition, Chapter 3

QUESTION NO: 50 DRAG DROP

DRAG DROP
Drag the network function on the left to the functional area or module where it is most likely to be
performed in the enterprise campus infrastructure on the right.

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Cisco 200-310 Exam

Answer:

Explanation:

1 Enterprise Edge
2 Internet Connectivity
3 Data Center
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Cisco 200-310 Exam

4 Enterprise Campus
5 E-Commerce
6 Remote Access and VPN
please refer to link.
Link: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Campus/campover.html#wp708979
CCDA Study Guide: Diane Teare

QUESTION NO: 51
Where in the Cisco Enterprise Architecture model does network management reside?
A.
Enterprise data center module
B.
Enterprise campus module
C.
Enterprise edge module
D.
Service Provider edge module
E.
Service Provider data center module

Answer: B
Explanation:

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Cisco 200-310 Exam

The network management servers reside in the campus infrastructure but have tie-ins to all the
components in the enterprise network for monitoring and management.

QUESTION NO: 52 DRAG DROP

DRAG DROP
Drag the security prevision on the left to the appropriate Network module on the right.

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Cisco 200-310 Exam

Answer:

Explanation:

Please refer to link.

Link: http://www.ciscopress.com/articles/article.asp?p=1073230&seqNum=2
Building access layer:
Protect network services including DHCP, ARP, and IP spoofing protection
Protect against inadvertent loops
Building distribution layer:
Protect the endpoints using network-based intrusion prevention
Protect the infrastructure using NFP best practices
Campus Core:
Does not perform any security functions to mitigate transit
Filter and rate-limits control-plane traffic

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Cisco 200-310 Exam

http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Security/SAFE_RG/chap5.html#wp109091
3
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Security/SAFE_RG/chap3.html

QUESTION NO: 53
Which three solutions are part of the Borderless Network Services? (Choose three.)
A.
Wireless
B.
Routing
C.
TrustSec
D.
MediaNet
E.
Switching
F.
EnergyWise
G.
Next-Gen WAN

Answer: C,D,F
Explanation:

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Cisco 200-310 Exam

QUESTION NO: 54
Refer to the exhibit.

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Cisco 200-310 Exam

Which two statements correctly identify the layers of the Enterprise Campus module? (Choose
two.)
A.
A is the Data Center Module and C is the Campus Core layer.
B.
A is the Data Center Module and D is the Building Access layer.
C.
B is the Campus Core layer and C is the Building Distribution layer.
D.
B is the Building Distribution layer and C is the Campus Core layer.
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Cisco 200-310 Exam

E.
A is the Internet Connectivity layer and B is the Campus Core layer.
F.
B is the Building Distribution layer and D is the Building Access layer.

Answer: B,C
Explanation:
Module characteristics show to which category the blocks belong to.
Link: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Campus/campover.html#wp708780

QUESTION NO: 55
The evolution of the Data Center is best represented by the 3.0 architecture component of
virtualization. Which of the following is not an example of the virtualization taking place in the Data
Center?
A.
Virtualized media access utilizing Fiber Channel over Ethernet
B.
VLANs and virtual storage area networks (VSANs) provide for virtualized LAN and SAN
connectivity, separating physical networks and equipment into virtual entities
C.
Virtual Machines that run an application within the client operating system, which is further
virtualized and running on common hardware
D.
Storage devices virtualized into storage pools, and network devices are virtualized using device
contexts

Answer: A
Explanation:

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Cisco 200-310 Exam

QUESTION NO: 56
When there is a need for immunity to EMI for connecting locations that are greater than 100
meters apart, which two solutions can be utilized? (Choose two.)
A.
multimode fiber
B.
Fiber Channel
C.
HVDC transmission lines
D.
single-mode fiber
E.
serial RS-232
F.
Gigabit Ethernet 1000BASE-CX

Answer: A,D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 57
Which layer of the OSI model does Cisco recommend to place the enterprise network core layer,
when designing a network based on its switched hierarchical design?
A.
Layer 1
B.
Layer 2
C.
Layer 3
D.
Layer 4
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Cisco 200-310 Exam

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 58
OSPF will be used as the IGP within a campus network. Which two things should you consider
before deployment? (Choose two.)
A.
All areas need to connect back to area 0.
B.
The OSPF process number on each router should match.
C.
NSSA areas should be used when an area cannot connect directly to area 0.
D.
Stub areas should be connected together using virtual links.
E.
ECMP may cause undesired results depending on the environment.

Answer: A,E
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 59
Which Cisco technology using Nexus NX-OS infrastructure allows the network architect to create
up to four separate control and data plane instances of the Nexus chassis?
A.
virtual port-channel
B.
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Cisco 200-310 Exam

virtual routing and forwarding
C.
virtual switching system
D.
virtual device context

Answer: D
Explanation:

Virtualization
Virtual local-area network (VLAN), virtual storage-area network (VSAN), and virtual device
contexts (VDC) help to segment the LAN, SAN, and network devices instances.
Cisco Nexus 1000V virtual switch for VMware ESX and ESXI help to deliver visibility and policy
control for virtual machines (VM).
Flexible networking options with support for all server form factors and vendors, including support
for blade servers from Cisco, Dell, IBM, and HP with integrated Ethernet and Fiber Channel
switches.

QUESTION NO: 60
Which three options are valid Cisco STP tools used to ensure best-practice access layer design
for the enterprise campus? (Choose three.)
A.
Port fast
B.
UDLD
C.
Root Guard
D.
BPDU Guard
E.
Flex Links
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Cisco 200-310 Exam

F.
SPAN
G.
Ether Channel

Answer: A,C,D
Explanation:

Access layer Limit VLANs to a single closet when possible to provide the most deterministic and
highly available topology.
Use RPVST+ if STP is required. It provides the best convergence.
Set trunks to ON and ON with no-negotiate
Manually prune unused VLANs to avoid broadcast propagation.
Use VTP Transparent mode, because there is little need for a common VLAN database in
hierarchical networks.
Disable trunking on host ports, because it is not necessary. Doing so provides more security and
speeds up Port Fast.
Consider implementing routing in the access layer to provide fast convergence and Layer 3 load
balancing.
Use Cisco STP Toolkit, which provides Port Fast, Loop Guard, Root Guard, and BPDU Guard.

QUESTION NO: 61
Spanning Layer 2 across geographically separate data centers is a key consideration for current
data center designs. Which is the name of the NX-OS technology that facilitates MAC in IP
transport for Layer 2 VLANs across any IP network?
A.
Overlay Transport Virtualization
B.
Virtual Private LAN Services
C.
Generic Routing Encapsulation
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Cisco 200-310 Exam

D.
QinQ tunneling

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 62
Which two statements about designing the Data Center Access layer are correct? (Choose two.)
A.
Multiport NIC servers should each have their own IP address.
B.
Layer 3 connectivity should never be used in the access layer.
C.
Layer 2 connectivity is primarily implemented in the access layer.
D.
Multiport NIC servers should never be used in the access layer.
E.
Layer 2 clustering implementation requires servers to be Layer 2 adjacent.

Answer: C,E
Explanation:

User access is primarily layer 2 in nature, layer 2 clustering is possible only in layer 2
Here is the Explanation: from the Cisco press CCDA certification guide
Figure 4-8. Enterprise Data Center Infrastructure Overview

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Cisco 200-310 Exam

Defining the DC Access Layer

The data center access layers main purpose is to provide Layer 2 and Layer 3 physical port
density for various servers in the data center. In addition, data center access layer switches
provide high-performance, low-latency switching and can support a mix of oversubscription
requirements. Both Layer 2 and Layer 3 access (also called routed access) designs are available,
but most data center access layers are built using Layer 2 connectivity. The Layer 2 access design
uses VLAN trunks upstream, which allows data center aggregation services to be shared across
the same VLAN and across multiple switches. Other advantages of Layer 2 access are support for
NIC teaming and server clustering that requires network connections to be Layer 2 adjacent or on
the same VLAN with one another.
CCDA 640-864 Official Certification Guide Fourth Edition, Chapter 4

QUESTION NO: 63
What is the primary consideration when choosing a routed network design over a traditional
campus network design?
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Cisco 200-310 Exam

A.
Layer 3 service support at the network edge
B.
the routing protocol choice: open (OSPF) or proprietary (EIGRP)
C.
the routing abilities of the host devices
D.
the need to control the broadcast domains within the campus core

Answer: A
Explanation:
Layer 3 ability at network edge should be available to leverage the benefits of routed network
design.
Link: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Campus/campover.html

QUESTION NO: 64
When selecting which hardware switches to use throughout an enterprise campus switched
network, which consideration is not relevant?
A.
whether data link layer switching based upon the MAC address is required
B.
the number of shared media segments
C.
which infrastructure service capabilities are required
D.
whether to support Layer 3 services at the network edge

Answer: B
Explanation:

Shared media are not used in modern networks; all links are operating full-duplex
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Cisco 200-310 Exam

Link: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Campus/campover.html

QUESTION NO: 65
Which two of these practices are considered to be best practices when designing the access layer
for the enterprise campus? (Choose two.)
A.
Implement all of the services (QoS, security, STP, and so on) in the access layer, offloading the
work from the distribution and core layers.
B.
Always use a Spanning Tree Protocol; preferred is Rapid PVST+.
C.
Use automatic VLAN pruning to prune unused VLANs from trunked interfaces to avoid broadcast
propagation.
D.
Avoid wasted processing by disabling STP where loops are not possible.
E.
Use VTP transparent mode to decrease the potential for operational error.

Answer: B,E
Explanation:

When designing the building access layer, you must consider the number of users or ports
required to size up the LAN switch. Connectivity speed for each host should also be considered.
Hosts might be connected using various technologies such as Fast Ethernet, Gigabit Ethernet, or
port channels. The planned VLANs enter into the design.
Performance in the access layer is also important. Redundancy and QoS features should be
considered.
The following are recommended best practices for the building access layer:
Limit VLANs to a single closet when possible to provide the most deterministic and highly
available topology.
Use Rapid Per-VLAN Spanning Tree Plus (RPVST+) if STP is required. It provides the faster
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Cisco 200-310 Exam

convergence than traditional 802.1d default timers.
Set trunks to ON and ON with no-negotiate.
Manually prune unused VLANs to avoid broadcast propagation (commonly done on the
distribution switch).
Use VLAN Trunking Protocol (VTP) Transparent mode, because there is little need for a
common VLAN database in hierarchical networks.
Disable trunking on host ports, because it is not necessary. Doing so provides more security and
speeds up PortFast.
Consider implementing routing in the access layer to provide fast convergence and Layer 3 load
balancing.
Use the switchport host commands on server and end-user ports to enable PortFast and disable
channeling on these ports.
Use Cisco STP Toolkit, which provides
PortFast: Bypass listening-learning phase for access ports
Loop GuarD. Prevents alternate or root port from becoming designated in absence of bridge
protocol data units (BPDU)
Root GuarD. Prevents external switches from becoming root
BPDU GuarD. Disables PortFast-enabled port if a BPDU is received
Cisco Press CCDA 640-864 Official Certification Guide Fourth Edition, Chapter 3, Page 85

QUESTION NO: 66
The enterprise campus core layer has requirements that are unique from the distribution and
access layers. Which of the following is true about the core layer?
A.
The core layer provides convergence using Layer 2 and Layer 3 services and features.
B.
The core layer provides high availability to support the distribution layer connections to the
enterprise edge.
C.
The campus core layer is optional.
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Cisco 200-310 Exam

D.
The core layer requires high performance to manage the traffic policing across the backbone.

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 67
Which of these statements is true concerning the data center access layer design?
A.
The access layer in the data center is typically built at Layer 3, which allows for better sharing of
services across multiple servers.
B.
With Layer 2 access, the default gateway for the servers can be configured at the access or
aggregation layer.
C.
A dual-homing NIC requires a VLAN or trunk between the two access switches to support the dual
IP addresses on the two server links to two separate switches.
D.
The access layer is normally not required, as dual homing is standard from the servers to the
aggregation layer.

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 68
Which one of these statements is true concerning the data center distribution (aggregation) layer
design?

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Cisco 200-310 Exam

A.
With Layer 3 at the aggregation layer, the physical loops in the topology must still be managed by
STP.
B.
The boundary between Layer 2 and Layer 3 must reside in the multilayer switches, independent of
any other devices such as firewalls or content switching devices.
C.
A mix of both Layer 2 and Layer 3 access is sometimes the most optimal.
D.
In a small data center, the aggregation layer can connect directly to the campus core, exchanging
IP routes and MAC address tables.

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 69 DRAG DROP

DRAG DROP
Drag the technology on the left to the type of enterprise virtualization where it is most likely to be
found on the right.

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Cisco 200-310 Exam

Answer:

Explanation:

Here is the correct answer

Network Virtualization
* VPC
* VLAN
* VRF
Device Virtualization
*ASA firewall context
*IPS
*VDC
Network virtualization encompasses logical isolated network segments that share the same
physical infrastructure. Each segment operates independently and is logically separate from the
other segments. Each network segment appears with its own privacy, security, independent set of
policies, QoS levels, and independent routing paths.
Here are some examples of network virtualization technologies:
Device virtualization allows for a single physical device to act like multiple copies of itself. Device
virtualization enables many logical devices to run independently of each other on the same
physical piece of hardware. The software creates virtual hardware that can function just like the
physical network device. Another form of device virtualization entails using multiple physical
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Cisco 200-310 Exam

devices to act as one logical unit.
Here are some examples of device virtualization technologies:
Cisco Press CCDA 640-864 Official Certification Guide Fourth Edition, Chapter 4

QUESTION NO: 70
Refer to the exhibit.

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Cisco 200-310 Exam

Which statement is true concerning enterprise edge distribution switches?
A.
The speed of switching is the most critical feature.
B.
Security requirements are offloaded to the other modules for performance reasons.
C.
Edge distribution switches are only required when using a collapsed core backbone.
D.
Enterprise edge distribution switches are similar to the building distribution layer.

Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 71
An enterprise campus module is typically made up of four sub modules, as described by the Cisco
Enterprise Architecture Model. Which two sub modules are part of this module?
A.
DMZ
B.
enterprise branch
C.
building distribution
D.
server farm/data center
E.
MAN

Answer: C,D
Explanation:

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Cisco 200-310 Exam

QUESTION NO: 72
Which is a factor in enterprise campus design decisions?
A.
network application characteristics
B.
routing protocol characteristics
C.
switching latency characteristics
D.
packet filtering characteristics

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 73
Which network virtualization technology involves creating virtual routers with its own individual
routing tables on a physical router?
A.
VSS
B.
vPC
C.
VRF
D.
VLAN

Answer: C
Explanation:
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Cisco 200-310 Exam

QUESTION NO: 74
Which protocol is the recommended first-hop redundancy protocol for an existing infrastructure
that contains multiple vendors and platforms?
A.
HSRP
B.
VRRP
C.
IGRP
D.
OSPF

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 75
Which IGP provides the fastest convergence by default?
A.
EIGRP
B.
OSPF
C.
IS-IS
D.
RSTP
E.
BGP

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Cisco 200-310 Exam

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 76
Which three are valid Layer 2 access designs? (Choose three.)
A.
Looped Triangle
B.
Looped Square
C.
Looped U
D.
Loop-Free Triangle
E.
Loop-Free Square
F.
Loop-Free U

Answer: A,B,F
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 77
Which Gigabit Ethernet media type provides the longest reach without a repeater?
A.
1000Base-CX
B.
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Cisco 200-310 Exam

1000Base-LX
C.
1000Base-SX
D.
1000Base-T

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 78 DRAG DROP

DRAG DROP
Drag the network characteristic on the left to the design method on the right which will best ensure
redundancy at the building distribution layer.

Answer:

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Cisco 200-310 Exam

Explanation:

Layer 2 between distribution and access layers, with a Layer 3 link between the distribution
switches
-> Support Layer 2 VLANs spanning multiple access layer switches across the distribution
switches
Layer 2 between distribution and access layers, with a Layer 2 link between the distribution
switches
-> FHRP for convergence, no VLANs span between access layer switches across the distribution
switches
VSS -> Convergence (FHRP) is not an issue
The following are recommended best practices at the distribution layer:
Cisco Press CCDA 640-864 Official Certification Guide Fourth Edition, Chapter 3

QUESTION NO: 79
Which three are associated with the distribution layer within the campus design? (Choose three.)
A.
access layer aggregation
B.
route summarization
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Cisco 200-310 Exam

C.
network trust boundary
D.
next-hop redundancy
E.
layer 2 switching
F.
port security
G.
broadcast suppression

Answer: A,B,D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 80
High availability is a key design consideration in the enterprise campus network. In a fully
redundant topology, which is likely to provide faster IGP convergence during a failure?
A.
redundant supervisors
B.
redundant supervisors with Cisco Nonstop Forwarding (NSF) and Stateful Switchover (SSO)
C.
single supervisors with tuned IGP timers
D.
single supervisors

Answer: C
Explanation:

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Cisco 200-310 Exam

QUESTION NO: 81
Which two enterprise campus layers are combined in a medium-sized LAN? (Choose two.)
A.
core
B.
distribution
C.
access
D.
backbone
E.
aggregation

Answer: A,B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 82
What is a characteristic of campus core designs?
A.
fast transport
B.
security
C.
summarization
D.
redistribution

Answer: A
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Cisco 200-310 Exam

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 83
In the enterprise data center, which are the three main components? (Choose three.)
A.
Network Infrastructure
B.
Interactive services
C.
Data Center Management
D.
Internet services
E.
WAN services
F.
VPN and remote access

Answer: A,B,C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 84
Which two common cable management strategies are used in high-density server deployments in
the data center? (Choose two.)
A.
top-of-rack
B.
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middle-of-rack
C.
bottom-of-rack
D.
beginning-of-row
E.
middle-of-row
F.
end-of-row

Answer: A,F
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 85
Which servers that reside in the data center require direct links to all other enterprise modules?
A.
network management servers
B.
DHCP servers
C.
Active Directory servers
D.
IP SLA servers
E.
web servers

Answer: A
Explanation:

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QUESTION NO: 86 DRAG DROP

DRAG DROP
Drag the associated virtualization tool or solution on the left to the appropriate design requirement
on the right.

Answer:

Explanation:

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Cisco 200-310 Exam

QUESTION NO: 87
When designing using the Cisco Enterprise Architecture, in which Enterprise Campus layer does
the Remote Access and VPN module establish its connection?
A.
Building Access
B.
Campus Core
C.
Enterprise Branch
D.
Enterprise Data Center

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 88 DRAG DROP

DRAG DROP
Drag the WAN technology on the left to the most appropriate category on the right.

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Answer:

Explanation:

Leased
SHARED

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QUESTION NO: 89
Which three describe challenges that are faced when deploying an environment for teleworkers?
(Choose three.)
A.
supporting a mix of technically knowledgeable and nontechnical users
B.
simplifying router installation and configuration
C.
verifying available power at employee's house for necessary equipment
D.
avoiding situations where employees might use nonstandard hardware or configurations
E.
reducing daily commuting time to main office location
F.
providing access to FTP servers located in main office location
G.
implementing leased line connectivity between main office and employee's home location
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Answer: A,B,D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 90
You need to connect to a remote branch office via an Internet connection. The remote office does
not use Cisco equipment. This connection must be secure and must support OSPF. Which of the
following can be used to transport data to the branch office?
A.
GRE over IPsec
B.
IPsec
C.
GRE
D.
IPsec VTI

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 91
Which two are characteristics of a Lightweight Access Point? (Choose two.)
A.
managed via a central wireless LAN controller
B.
code upgrade performed via a TFTP server
C.
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CAPWAP tunnels
D.
managed directly via CLI or web interface
E.
facilitates the creation of its own WLANs and port mappings

Answer: A,C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 92
Which one of these statements describes why, from a design perspective, a managed VPN
approach for enterprise teleworkers is most effective?
A.
A managed VPN solution uses a cost-effective, on-demand VPN tunnel back to the enterprise.
B.
This solution supports all teleworkers who do not require voice or video.
C.
This architecture provides centralized management where the enterprise can apply security
policies and push configurations.
D.
It provides complete flexibility for remote access through a wireless hotspot or a guest network at
a hotel, in addition to a home office.

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 93
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Cisco 200-310 Exam

What are three key areas that need to be considered when designing a remote data center?
(Choose three.)
A.
power diversity
B.
active directory services
C.
Cisco IOS versions
D.
data storage
E.
applications
F.
user access
G.
packet routing

Answer: A,D,E
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 94
If a teleworker is required to access the branch office via a secure IPSEC VPN connection, which
technology is recommended to provide the underlying transport?
A.
ISDN
B.
Metro Ethernet
C.
Frame Relay
D.
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ADSL
E.
ATM

Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 95
Which model of ISR is utilized for the teleworker design profile?
A.
Cisco 1900 Series
B.
Cisco 1800 Series
C.
Cisco 800 Series
D.
Cisco 500 Series

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 96
When designing a WAN backup for voice and video applications, what three types of connections
should be used? (Choose three.)
A.
Private WAN
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B.
internet
C.
ISDN
D.
MPLS
E.
dial-up
F.
ATM
G.
DSL

Answer: A,C,D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 97
Which three options represents the components of the Teleworker Solution? (Choose three.)
A.
Cisco Unified IP Phone
B.
Cisco 880 Series Router
C.
Aironet Office Extend Access Point
D.
Catalyst 3560 Series Switch
E.
Cisco 2900 Series Router
F.
MPLS Layer 3 VPN
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G.
Leased lines

Answer: A,B,E
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 98
Which three service categories are supported by an ISR? (Choose three.)
A.
voice
B.
security
C.
data
D.
Internet
E.
storage
F.
satellite

Answer: A,B,C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 99
When designing for a remote worker, which two are typical requirements? (Choose two.)

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A.
best-effort interactive and low-volume traffic patterns
B.
connections to the enterprise edge using Layer 2 WAN technologies
C.
always-on connection with SLA from ISP
D.
voice and IPsec VPN support
E.
high-end security devices with stateful firewall filtering
F.
dual or multihoming to ISPs

Answer: C,D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 100

What is the maximum number of groups that is supported by GLBP?
A.
64
B.
256
C.
512
D.
1024

Answer: D
Explanation:

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QUESTION NO: 101 DRAG DROP

DRAG DROP
Match the bandwidth usage optimization technique on the left with its definition on the right.

Answer:

Explanation:

+ limits the number of frames transmitted before an acknowledgement is received: window size+
reduces data size to save transmission time, optimizing the use of WAN bandwidth: data
compression+ allows network administrators to manage the varying demands generated by
applications: queuing+ discards packets or modifies some aspect of them (such as IP
precedence): traffic policing

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QUESTION NO: 102
Which two routing protocols usually converge most quickly? (Choose two.)
A.
RIPv1
B.
RIPv2
C.
BGP
D.
OSPF
E.
EIGRP

Answer: D,E
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 103

Which two routing protocols operate over NBMA point-to-multipoint networks without the use of
point-to-point sub interfaces? (Choose two.)
A.
RIPv1
B.
RIPv2
C.
IS-IS
D.
EIGRP
E.
OSPF

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Answer: D,E
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 104

Refer to the exhibit.

Which three modules would typically utilize public IPv4 addressing? (Choose three.)
A.
Access
B.
Distribution
C.
Core
D.
Data Center
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E.
E-Commerce
F.
Internet Connectivity
G.
Remote Access/VPN
H.
WAN/MAN
I.
Branch
J.
Branch Data Center

Answer: E,F,G
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 105

With respect to IPv6 addressing, from a design perspective, which of these statements is it
important to keep in mind?
A.
IPv6 addressing provides convenience of anycast addressing without any configuration
requirements.
B.
IPv6 does not use multicast addressing.
C.
An IPv6 router will not forward packets from one link to other links if the packet has either a linklocal source or a link-local destination address.
D.
Dynamic address assignment requires DHCPv6.

Answer: C
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Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 106

Which consideration is the most important for the network designer when considering IP routing?
A.
convergence
B.
scalability
C.
on-demand routing
D.
redistribution

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 107

Your supervisor has asked you to deploy a routing protocol within the lab environment that will
allow for unequal cost multipath routing. Which should you choose?
A.
EIGRP
B.
OSPF
C.
IS-IS
D.
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RIP

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 108

Which two methods are used to reduce the mesh links required between iBGP peers in the same
AS? (Choose two.)
A.
community
B.
router reflectors
C.
local preference
D.
confederations
E.
atomic aggregate
F.
MED

Answer: B,D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 109

A company wants to use private IP addresses for all its internal hosts. Which technology can the
company use to provide access to the Internet using a single public IP address?
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Cisco 200-310 Exam

A.
static NAT
B.
source routing
C.
ACL
D.
PAT

Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 110

At which layer of the network is route summarization recommended?
A.
data link layer
B.
core layer
C.
distribution layer
D.
access layer

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 111

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Which two link state routing protocols support IPv6 routing? (Choose two.)
A.
BGP4+
B.
OSPF
C.
RIPng
D.
EIGRP
E.
IS-IS

Answer: B,E
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 112

Which is the North American RIR for IPv4 addresses?
A.
RIPE
B.
ARIN
C.
IANA
D.
IEEE
E.
APNIC

Answer: B

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Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 113

What is the most compact representation of the following IPv6 address?
2001:db8:0000:0000:cafe:0000:0000:1234
A.
2001:db8::cafe::1234
B.
2001:db8::cafe:0000:0000:1234
C.
2001:db8:0:0:cafe::1234
D.
2001:db8::cafe:0:1234

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 114

Which type of area should you use in an enterprise OSPF deployment if you want to prevent
propagation of type 5 LSAs but still allow the redistribution of external routes?
A.
stub
B.
totally stubby
C.
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backbone
D.
NSSA
E.
virtual link

Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 115

Which is usually used to connect to an upstream ISP?
A.
EIGRP
B.
OSPF
C.
BGP
D.
IS-IS
E.
RIPv2

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 116

You are designing a network that requires a routing protocol that will use minimal network
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bandwidth. Which would satisfy this requirement?
A.
RIPv2
B.
RIPng
C.
OSPF
D.
ARP
E.
EGP

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 117

Which two statements best describe an OSPF deployment? (Choose two.)
A.
ABR provides automatic classful network boundary summarization.
B.
ABR requires manual configuration for classful network summarization.
C.
External routes are propagated into the autonomous system from stub areas via ASBR.
D.
External routes are propagated into the autonomous system from regular areas or NSSA via
ASBR.
E.
External routes are propagated into the autonomous system from regular areas or NSSA via ABR.

Answer: B,D
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Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 118

Which three items pertain to EIGRP? (Choose three.)
A.
Can use multiple unequal paths.
B.
Routes are redistributed as type 2 by default.
C.
ASN and K values must match to form neighbors.
D.
Uses multicast address 224.0.0.9 for updates.
E.
Exchanges full routing table every 30 seconds.
F.
Summary routes have AD of 90.
G.
External routes have AD of 170.

Answer: A,C,G
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 119

A hierarchical design of the EIGRP domain facilitates which two of the following? (Choose two.)
A.
route summarization
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B.
faster convergence
C.
unequal cost load balancing
D.
redistribution
E.
virtual links

Answer: A,B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 120

Which three protocols support VLSM? (Choose three.)
A.
RIPv2
B.
RIPv1
C.
EIGRP
D.
OSPF
E.
IGRP

Answer: A,C,D
Explanation:

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QUESTION NO: 121
Which statement should the designer keep in mind when considering the advanced routing
features?
A.
One-way route redistribution avoids the requirement for static or default routes.
B.
Redistribution, summarization, and filtering are most often applied between the campus core and
enterprise edge.
C.
Filtering only occurs on the routing domain boundary using redistribution.
D.
Summarize routes at the core toward the distribution layer.
E.
The hierarchical flexibility of IPv6 addressing avoids the requirement for routing traffic reduction
using aggregation.

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 122

When designing an EIGRP network, which two things should you take into consideration?
(Choose two.)
A.
ASN and K values must match.
B.
The neighbor command can be used to enable unicast communication.
C.
The neighbor diameter cannot exceed a 15-hops limit.
D.
NSSA areas can be used to redistribute external routes.
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E.
Neighbor relationship can be established with non-Cisco routers.

Answer: A,B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 123

Which statement describes a unique advantage of EIGRP?
A.
It enables unequal-cost load balancing.
B.
It enables equal-cost load balancing.
C.
It enables source-based load balancing.
D.
It enables port-based load balancing.

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 124

ACME Corporation is implementing dynamic routing on the LAN at its corporate headquarters. The
interior gateway protocol that they select must support these requirements: multivendor
environment, efficient subnetting, high scalability, and fast convergence. Which interior gateway
protocol should they implement?
A.
EIGRP
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B.
OSPF
C.
RIPng
D.
BGP

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 125

Which routing protocol classification should you use when full topology information is needed?
A.
link-state
B.
distance vector
C.
stateful
D.
path vector

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 126

When you are designing a large IPv6 multivendor network, which IGP does Cisco recommend that
you use?
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A.
OSPFv3
B.
EIGRP for IPv6
C.
BGP
D.
RIPng

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 127

When designing the infrastructure protection portion for the enterprise edge, which solution would
be the most appropriate solution to consider?
A.
802.1X
B.
ACLs in the core layer
C.
Cisco Security MARS
D.
AAA

Answer: D
Explanation:

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QUESTION NO: 128
Which two design approaches provide management of enterprise network devices? (Choose two.)
A.
in-band
B.
out-of-line
C.
out-of-band
D.
in-line

Answer: A,C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 129

You are asked to design a new branch office that will need to support 25 users. These users will
be using an ISP connection and will need to connect to the main office for network services. Which
two Cisco devices are the most appropriate to fulfill all of these requirements? (Choose two.)
A.
Cisco IPS
B.
Cisco ISR G2
C.
Cisco ASA
D.
Cisco 2960
E.
Cisco CRS-1
F.
Cisco ACS
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Answer: B,C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 130

What are the three modes of unicast reverse path forwarding? (Choose three.)
A.
strict
B.
loose
C.
VRF
D.
global
E.
PIM
F.
local

Answer: A,B,C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 131

Which network access control technology is recommended to use with Layer 2 access layer
switches?
A.
802.1q
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B.
802.1x
C.
802.3af
D.
802.3q
E.
802.11n

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 132

Refer to the list of requirements. Which IP telephony design model should you implement to fulfill
these requirements?
A.
centralized
B.
distributed
C.
clustered
D.
decentralized

Answer: A
Explanation:

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QUESTION NO: 133
Which is the equation used to derive a 64 Kbps bit rate?
A.
2 x 8 kHz x 4-bit code words
B.
8 kHz x 8-bit code words
C.
2 x 4-bit code words x 8 kHz
D.
2 x 4 kHz x 8-bit code words

Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 134

Which three statements are true regarding the virtual interface on a Cisco Wireless LAN
Controller? (Choose three.)
A.
supports mobility management
B.
serves as a DHCP relay
C.
used for all controller to AP communication
D.
supports embedded Layer 3 security
E.
default for out-of-band management
F.
default for in-band management
G.
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provides connectivity to AAA servers

Answer: A,B,D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 135

A campus network needs end-to-end QoS tools to manage traffic and ensure voice quality. Which
three types of QoS tools are needed? (Choose three.)
A.
interface queuing and scheduling
B.
congestion management
C.
compression and fragmentation
D.
bandwidth provisioning
E.
traffic classification
F.
buffer management

Answer: A,D,E
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 136

Which technology enables WLCs to peer with each other to enable roaming support?

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A.
WAP profiles
B.
roaming profiles
C.
mobility groups
D.
peer groups

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 137

Which IP telephony component supports VoIP, PoE, and QoS?
A.
client endpoints
B.
voice-enabled infrastructure
C.
Cisco Unified Communications Manager
D.
Cisco Unified Contact Center

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 138

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Your supervisor wants you to recommend a management protocol that will allow you to track
overall bandwidth utilization, utilization by traffic type, and utilization by source and destination.
Which is ideally suited for this function?
A.
MRTG
B.
NetFlow
C.
RRD
D.
SNMP

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 139

Which factor would be most influential in choosing multimode fiber optic connections over UTP?
A.
signal attenuation
B.
required bandwidth
C.
required distance
D.
electromagnetic interference
E.
cost

Answer: C
Explanation:
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QUESTION NO: 140

Which WAN technology is a cost-effective method to deliver 100Mb of bandwidth to multiple
branch offices?
A.
DSL
B.
DWDM
C.
ISDN
D.
Metro Ethernet

Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 141

Which subnet address and mask would you use for all Class D multicast addresses to be matched
within an access list?
A.
224.0.0.0/20
B.
224.0.0.0/4
C.
239.0.0.0/24
D.
239.0.0.0/8
E.
225.0.0.0/8
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Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 142

A company is implementing an Identity Management solution with these characteristics:
1) existing AAA Server
2) Cisco Catalyst switches
3) minimal added investments
Which Cisco Trust and Identity Management solution would you recommend?
A.
NAC Appliance
B.
Cisco IBNS
C.
CSM
D.
Cisco Security MARS

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 143

When considering the three VoIP design models - single site, centralized multisite, and distributed
multisite - which question below would help to eliminate one of the options?
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A.
Will the switches be required to provide inline power?
B.
Will users need to make offsite calls, beyond the enterprise?
C.
Will users require applications such as voice mail and interactive voice response?
D.
Are there users whose only enterprise access is via a QoS-enabled WAN?

Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 144

Which two devices would you place in your DMZ to ensure enterprise edge security? (Choose
two.)
A.
IPS
B.
NAC
C.
ASA
D.
ACS
E.
WCS

Answer: A,C
Explanation:

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QUESTION NO: 145

Which three are security services offered through Cisco Router Security? (Choose three.)
A.
Trust and Identity
B.
Integrated Threat Control
C.
Unified Wireless Network Security Solution
D.
Secure Connectivity
E.
Voice-Messaging Security
F.
Endpoint Security
G.
Virtual Security Gateway

Answer: A,B,D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 146

Which voice codec should you use in order to provide toll quality calls?
A.
G.711
B.
G.718
C.
G.722
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D.
G.729

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 147

Which three are features of LWAPP? (Choose three.)
A.
firmware synchronization
B.
local management of APs
C.
configuration changes manually synced
D.
encryption of control channel
E.
configuration data only on the WLC
F.
wireless control free operation
G.
replaces 802.1x for authentication in wireless connections

Answer: A,D,E
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 148

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Which Cisco device has the sole function at looking at threat detection and mitigation at the
Enterprise edge?
A.
Cisco IOS router
B.
Cisco ASA
C.
Cisco Catalyst FWSM
D.
Cisco IPS

Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 149

Which three of these are layers in the Cisco SONA Architecture? (Choose three.)
A.
Applications
B.
Physical Infrastructure
C.
Presentation
D.
Integrated Transport
E.
Core Common Services
F.
Networked Infrastructure

Answer: A,B,E
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Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 150

What business trend allows employees to use personal devices to access enterprise data and
systems?
A.
ISE
B.
BYOD
C.
SAN
D.
IOE

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 151

What three customer supported details identifies network requirements based on the PPDIOO
design model? (Choose three.)
A.
goals
B.
budget
C.
user needs
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D.
locations
E.
policies
F.
tasks

Answer: A,B,C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 152

An engineer receives a resource utilization alert on a router. What command should be used to
investigate the issue?
A.
show processes cpu
B.
show memory
C.
show running-config
D.
show version

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 153

What part of the network does a top-down network design focus on for solution development?
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A.
presentation
B.
hardware
C.
session
D.
application
E.
data link
F.
transport

Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 154

An engineer has configured a router to send level 7 messages to a syslog server. What severity
level are these messages?
A.
error
B.
warning
C.
debug
D.
informational
E.
notice

Answer: C
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Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 155

A network engineer must implement a design where LAN clients are to connect to various access
layer devices, while remaining on the same VLAN . What type of design would support this
requirement?
A.
routed
B.
switched
C.
tunneled
D.
virtual

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 156

When evaluating network designs, what indicator demonstrates that the modular approach was
followed?
A.
ability to scale
B.
follows best practices
C.
redundant connectivity
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D.
easy to deploy

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 157

A network engineer is following the Cisco enterprise architecture model. To which network layer
would a branch office connect to using a private WAN?
A.
Enterprise Campus
B.
Enterprise Edge
C.
SP Edge Premise
D.
Remote Module

Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 158

A network engineer is following the three tiered Network Hierarchical Model. At which tier is route
summarization implemented?
A.
core
B.
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distribution
C.
backbone
D.
access

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 159

A network engineer is using the Cisco enterprise architecture model. In what module do network
management servers reside?
A.
Enterprise Campus
B.
Enterprise Edge
C.
Remote Modules
D.
SP Edge WAN/internet

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 160

What three design requirements are key to designing a campus core? (Choose three.)

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A.
low latency
B.
access control
C.
traffic filtering
D.
high speed
E.
redundant links
F.
QoS tagging

Answer: A,D,E
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 161

What type of device can be installed to increase a broadcast domain?
A.
router
B.
switch
C.
IDS
D.
IPS

Answer: B
Explanation:

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QUESTION NO: 162

To what Layer 2 technology does VRF closely compare?
A.
VSS
B.
VPC
C.
VLAN
D.
VTP

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 163

What network virtualization technology can be leveraged within the data center to reduce the
number of physical devices?
A.
VLANs
B.
VPLS
C.
VDC
D.
VSS

Answer: C
Explanation:
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QUESTION NO: 164

During the design of a new campus network, the customer requests the ability to route overlapping
IP addresses. What technology can be leveraged to meet this request?
A.
VRF
B.
VLANs
C.
VSS
D.
VPC

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 165

A network engineer is attempting to separate routing domains using a virtualization technology.
What protocol can be configured to perform this task?
A.
VLAN
B.
VSAN
C.
VRF
D.
VPC

Answer: C
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Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 166

What device virtualization technology allows for a single point of management and a centralized
routing instance?
A.
ACE
B.
VSS
C.
VDC
D.
VM

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 167

What two performance considerations must be taken into account when designing a remote
worker access solution? (Choose two.)
A.
simultaneous VPN connections
B.
port density
C.
throughput capacity
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D.
packet size
E.
latency

Answer: A,C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 168

In which network location should an external DNS server be placed?
A.
campus data center
B.
enterprise branch
C.
internet
D.
remote access

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 169

What submodule is found within the Enterprise Edge module?
A.
enterprise WAN
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B.
remote branch
C.
campus IPS
D.
building distribution

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 170

A company requires a managed WAN solution that supports Layer 2 adjacency across remote
offices for applications and services. What solution should be selected?
A.
DMVPN
B.
MPLS
C.
VPLS
D.
FR

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 171

A circuit order has been placed for Gigabit Ethernet and is 80KM from the carrier equipment. What
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type of SFP will be required?
A.
TX
B.
SX
C.
ZX
D.
LX

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 172

A company has dark fiber between headquarters and its data center. It is presently configured as
a 10GbE connection. Network utilization shows high utilization on the connection. What
technology can be implemented to increase capacity without acquiring another circuit?
A.
MPLS
B.
DWDM
C.
VPLS
D.
DMVPN

Answer: B
Explanation:

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QUESTION NO: 173

A secure WAN design requires dynamic routing and IP multicast. What two VPN protocols meet
these requirements? (Choose two.)
A.
Standard IPsec
B.
P2P GRE over IPsec
C.
DMVPN
D.
AnyConnect
E.
PPTP
F.
Easy VPN
G.
SSL/TLS

Answer: B,C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 174

What branch design supports 100 to 1000 users and integrates ASA firewalls?
A.
small
B.
medium
C.
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large
D.
extra large

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 175

A network engineer is designing an enterprise managed VPN solution for a large number of
remote offices that do not have on-site IT support and communicate only with the home office.
What type of VPN solution should be implemented?
A.
VPLS
B.
GRE
C.
IPsec
D.
EVPN
E.
DMVPN
F.
SSL client

Answer: D
Explanation:

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QUESTION NO: 176
A remote office has a T1 WAN link to headquarters and a T1 Internet connection. The client
requests WAN redundancy to headquarters with similar bandwidth. What two connection types
satisfy this requirement? (Choose two.)
A.
Secondary T1 WAN circuit
B.
ISDN BRI
C.
IPSec Tunnel over the Internet
D.
DWDM l
E.
POTS Line T1 WAN

Answer: A,C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 177

What two features are advantages of adding a secondary WAN link at the enterprise edge?
(Choose two.)
A.
provides additional bandwidth and load balancing capabilities
B.
acts as a backup link in event the primary link fails
C.
reduces capital and operational costs
D.
improves security and prevents against denial of service attacks
E.
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distributes traffic proactively based on link utilization

Answer: A,B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 178

What technology can secure data over an insecure medium and provide WAN redundancy in the
event of a primary connection failure?
A.
virtual private network
B.
shadow PVC
C.
dial-up ISDN
D.
GRE Tunnel

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 179

A client wants to consolidate applications that are currently housed at multiple sites to a remote
data center. What two design requirements are unique to this scenario? (Choose two.)
A.
bandwidth
B.
security
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C.
latency
D.
storage
E.
availability

Answer: A,C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 180

What IPv4 addressing technique allows for the division of addresses into subnets of different
sizes?
A.
VLSM
B.
RIR
C.
CIDR
D.
NAT

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 181

An organization is conducting an evaluation on the migration to IPv6 within the enterprise network
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and has requested clarification on recommended migration strategies. What three migration
models would accomplish the organization's goal? (Choose three.)
A.
Dual Stack
B.
Service Block
C.
Top-Down
D.
Hybrid
E.
Tunneled
F.
Fork-Lift

Answer: A,B,D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 182

An application uses broadcast traffic to send data to IPv4 hosts. How can the application
communicate using IPv6?
A.
Anycast
B.
Unicast
C.
Broadcast
D.
Multicast

Answer: A
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Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 183

What significant advantage does EIGRP have over OSPF?
A.
easy summarization
B.
shorter convergence times
C.
single area operation
D.
low processor utilization

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 184

What routing protocol requires full mesh between internal peers in an enterprise network?
A.
OSPF
B.
EIGRP
C.
BGP
D.
ISIS
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E.
RIP

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 185

What three considerations should be taken into account when selecting a routing protocol?
(Choose three.)
A.
classful routing
B.
scalability
C.
default route origination
D.
multi vendor support
E.
link load balancing
F.
hop count

Answer: B,D,E
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 186

By default, how does EIGRP's metric differ from OSPF?
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A.
hops
B.
cost
C.
bandwidth
D.
delay

Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 187

What characteristic separates link state routing protocols from a distance vector?
A.
creates a topological view of the entire network
B.
path calculation utilizes a more granular metric
C.
does not scale well for large networks
D.
constantly shares link state updates throughout the topology

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 188

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A company must deploy an IGP routing protocol on an Enterprise Network. Where should route
summarization be implemented?
A.
distribution
B.
core
C.
access
D.
backbone

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 189

What routing configuration can prevent routing loops between IGPs?
A.
route filters
B.
route reflectors
C.
auto summarization
D.
virtual links

Answer: A
Explanation:

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QUESTION NO: 190

What is the first step when creating a network security policy?
A.
define what should be protected
B.
investigate how likely an attack is to occur
C.
implement measures to protect assets
D.
hire a security firm to perform penetration tests

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 191

A customer requests a filtering design based on the need to scan all internet traffic, including
remote workers. What solution meets these requirements?
A.
Cisco Cloud Web Security
B.
Cisco Network Admission Control
C.
Cisco Identity Services Engine
D.
Cisco Adaptive Security Appliance

Answer: A
Explanation:
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QUESTION NO: 192

A customer wants to support a BYOD environment. What two products allow for posture
assessment? (Choose two.)
A.
ACS
B.
NAC
C.
ASA
D.
ISE
E.
WAAS
F.
IDS

Answer: B,D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 193

What two CoS values are used by voice traffic? (Choose two.)
A.
COS1
B.
COS2
C.
COS3
D.
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COS4
E.
COS5

Answer: C,E
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 194

A client wants to deploy a video conferencing platform in a multisite WAN environment. What two
design considerations need to be evaluated? (Choose two.)
A.
CODECs supported by the video units
B.
buffer sizes on the routers
C.
POE capabilities of the switches
D.
number of current calls
E.
number of hops between sites

Answer: A,D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 195

What wireless authentication option requires a Public Key Infrastructure?

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A.
EAP-TLS
B.
PEAP
C.
LEAP
D.
EAP-FAST

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 196

What two access point modes support the transmission of user traffic over a LWAPP/CAPWAP
tunnel? (Choose two.)
A.
local
B.
H-REAP
C.
rogue detector
D.
monitor
E.
sniffer
F.
standalone

Answer: A,B
Explanation:

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QUESTION NO: 197

What is the primary advantage of implementing a wireless LAN controller in a wireless LAN
design?
A.
roaming between APs
B.
RADIUS user authentication
C.
radio resource management
D.
accelerated data transfer

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 198

A wireless LAN client is sending traffic to the wired LAN client. What path will the packet take to
reach the destination endpoint in a lightweight wireless deployment?
A.
switch > controller > ap > client
B.
controller > ap > switch > client
C.
ap > controller > switch > client
D.
switch > ap > controller > client

Answer: C
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Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 199

What Cisco product is designed to improve the performance of Windows file and exchange
services in remote data centers?
A.
Application Control Engine
B.
Wide Area Application Services
C.
Cisco Application Policy Infrastructure Controller
D.
Cisco Prime Network Services Controller

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 200

An organization needs a WAN Transport technology that meets these criteria:
has a low initial cost
provides low-to-medium BW
has medium-to-high latency and jitter
Which technology should the organization use?
A.
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DSL
B.
X.25
C.
ISDN
D.
wireless
E.
analog modem

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 201

Which two of these are scalability benefits of designing a network that utilizes VPNs? (Choose
two.)
A.
extends the network to remote users
B.
allows networks to be set up and restructured quickly
C.
reduces dial infrastructure expenditures
D.
reduces the number of physical connections
E.
simplifies the underlying structure of a customer WAN

Answer: D,E
Explanation:

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QUESTION NO: 202

Refer to the exhibit.

A standard Layer 2 campus network design is pictured. Which numbered box represents the core
layer?
A.
#1
B.
#2
C.
#3
D.
#4
E.
#5

Answer: C
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Cisco 200-310 Exam

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 203

Which two design criteria require VLANs in a proposed solution? (Choose two.)
A.
video streaming on the LAN
B.
security between departments
C.
the segmenting of collision domains
D.
the segmenting of broadcast domains
E.
the use of multivendor equipment
F.
a limited corporate budget

Answer: B,D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 204

Which three sources does a network designer use to collect information for characterizing an
existing network? (Choose three.)
A.
staff input
B.
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visual inventory
C.
network audit
D.
traffic analysis
E.
server statistics

Answer: A,C,D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 205

Which Cisco security mechanism has the attributes listed below?
It is a sensor appliance
It searches for potential attacks by capturing and analyzing traffic
It is a "purpose-built device"
It is installed passively
It introduces no delay or overhead
A.
IKE
B.
PIX
C.
HIPS
D.
NIDS
E.
HMAC
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Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 206

Which three pieces of information should be documented for each step in a design implementation
plan? (Choose three.)
A.
step description
B.
design document references
C.
easy guidelines in case of failure
D.
estimated implementation time
E.
simple implementation guidelines
F.
estimated rollback time in case of failure

Answer: A,B,D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 207

Which Cisco device management feature is most suited to metering network traffic and providing
data for billing network usage?
A.
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Cisco 200-310 Exam

BGP
B.
Cisco Discovery Protocol
C.
QoS
D.
RMON
E.
NetFlow

Answer: E
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 208

What are three valid methods of gathering information about an existing data network? (Choose
three.)
A.
Use organizational input.
B.
Perform a traffic analysis.
C.
Analyze the user-mapping of a running application.
D.
Perform a packet-level audit to verify carrier service guarantees.
E.
Perform a network audit to gather more detail about the network.
F.
Use reports that analyze the metrics of the customer's existing network.

Answer: A,B,E

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Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 209

What is the benefit of VLSM?
A.
reduces configuration complexity by using the same subnet mask length
B.
reduces the routing table size by using automatic route summarization
C.
reduces the routing table size by using manual route summarization
D.
allows the subnet mask and classful routing updates to be advertised
E.
secures the hosts on a subnet by using RFC 1918 addresses

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 210

Refer to the exhibit. On which router should you configure redistribution?

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Cisco 200-310 Exam

A.
Router 1
B.
Router 2
C.
Router 3
D.
Router 4
E.
Router 5

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 211

Which three Cisco technologies can you use to detect and mitigate threats? (Choose three.)
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Cisco 200-310 Exam

A.
NetFlow
B.
FWSM
C.
ISE
D.
VRRP
E.
sFLOW

Answer: A,B,C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 212

Which technology allows remote networks to be connected via site-to-site tunnels?
A.
IPsec VPN
B.
AnyConnect VPN
C.
SSL VPN
D.
EasyConnect VPN

Answer: A
Explanation:

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Cisco 200-310 Exam

QUESTION NO: 213
Which RFC defines the IPv6 standard?
A.
RFC 1918
B.
RFC 2338
C.
RFC 2460
D.
RFC 2740

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 214

What is the maximum RIPv2 hop count for a reachable route?
A.
13
B.
14
C.
15
D.
16

Answer: C
Explanation:

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QUESTION NO: 215

Which Cisco Wireless LAN Controller interface is used for out-of-band management?
A.
service port
B.
management port
C.
controller port
D.
virtual port

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 216

In which operation mode does the AP act as a dedicated sensor for location-based and intrusion
detection services?
A.
monitor mode
B.
promiscuous mode
C.
discovery mode
D.
sniffer mode

Answer: A
Explanation:
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QUESTION NO: 217

Which HSRP parameters must match, to ensure proper functionality?
A.
group parameters
B.
priority parameters
C.
preempt parameters
D.
tracking parameters

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 218

What three primary sources of information are needed to perform a network audit? (Choose
three.)
A.
existing documentation
B.
new documentation
C.
existing network management software
D.
new network management tools
E.
management personnel
F.
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technical personnel

Answer: A,C,D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 219

Which three layers comprise the traditional hierarchical model? (Choose three.)
A.
core layer
B.
distribution layer
C.
access layer
D.
aggregation layer
E.
network layer
F.
Internet layer

Answer: A,B,C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 220

Which first-hop redundancy protocol dynamically distributes client traffic between multiple routers?
A.
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Cisco 200-310 Exam

HSRP
B.
VRRP
C.
GLBP
D.
IGRP

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 221

Which three options are characteristics of data center evolution? (Choose three.)
A.
consolidation
B.
virtualization
C.
automation
D.
standardization
E.
optimization
F.
modulation

Answer: A,B,C
Explanation:

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QUESTION NO: 222

Which option is a benefit of the modular approach to network design?
A.
higher availability
B.
repeatable scalability
C.
increased security
D.
improved resiliency

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 223

Which statement describes the methodology that supports the Cisco Enterprise Architecture
models?
A.
It divides the network into functional network modules.
B.
It divides the network into role-based network modules.
C.
It divides the network into regional network modules.
D.
It divides the network into operational network modules.

Answer: A
Explanation:
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QUESTION NO: 224

Which design is the recommended geometric design for routed topologies?
A.
linear
B.
triangular
C.
rectangular
D.
circular

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 225

Which statement describes an advantage of the Layer 2 access model over the Layer 3 access
model in the data center?
A.
It enables NIC teaming.
B.
It removes STP dependency.
C.
It increases scalability.
D.
It decreases convergence.

Answer: A
Explanation:
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Cisco 200-310 Exam

QUESTION NO: 226

Router A has three feasible successors to the 192.168.1.0/24 network, which are listed here:
Option 1 has a metric of 8123228.
Option 2 has a metric of 2195467.
Option 3 has a metric of 8803823.
The variance 4 command was issued on Router A. How many active entries does Router A have
in its routing table for the 192.168.1.0/24 network?
A.
0
B.
1
C.
2
D.
3

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 227

Which two mechanisms are used by distance vector protocols to prevent routing loops? (Choose
two.)
A.
split horizon
B.
route summarization
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C.
route poisoning
D.
tuned timers

Answer: A,C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 228

Which interior routing protocol has the most preferable administrative distance by default?
A.
RIP
B.
OSPF
C.
EIGRP
D.
BGP
E.
IS-IS

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 229

A network engineer has been asked to follow a top down design approach. What layer of the OSI
model is used to start the design?
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A.
physical
B.
network
C.
transport
D.
application

Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 230

Where in the network hierarchy should network access control be performed?
A.
backbone
B.
core
C.
access
D.
distribution

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 231

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Cisco 200-310 Exam

What are two advantages of employing scalability when designing a campus network? (Choose
two.)
A.
reduces operational cost
B.
higher port density
C.
investment protection
D.
consistent operation
E.
improved fault tolerance

Answer: D,E
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 232

A network engineer is using the traditional switched hierarchical design. The client has asked to
increase uplink utilization from the access layer to the distribution. How can the engineer attain
this new requirement without adding new physical connections?
A.
enable spanning-tree portfast
B.
enable VSS at the distribution layer
C.
increase the MTU size on the uplink interfaces
D.
ensure the root bridge priority is equal on both distribution switches

Answer: B

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Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 233

Multicast has been enabled and configured in the Enterprise, and PIM Sparse-mode has been
enabled on all VLANs. What feature is required to stop multicast traffic from being broadcasted on
the access layer switches?
A.
IGMP snooping
B.
Multicast boundary filter
C.
PIM dense-mode
D.
Dynamic ARP inspection

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 234

What two SAN protocols will allow a customer to utilize 10GbE for SAN access? (Choose two.)
A.
ISCSI
B.
FCoE
C.
SATA
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D.
Fiber Channel
E.
AoE

Answer: A,B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 235

Application servers require load balancing and security services. Where in the data center network
should these services be provisioned?
A.
core
B.
aggregation
C.
Layer 3 access
D.
distribution

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 236

A data center is reaching its power and cooling capacity. What two virtualization technologies can
address the problem by directly reducing the number of physical devices? (Choose two.)
A.
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Cisco 200-310 Exam

virtual switching systems
B.
virtual device contexts
C.
virtual servers
D.
virtual routing and forwarding
E.
virtual port channels
F.
virtual LANs

Answer: B,C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 237

A dynamically routed private line and a statically routed IPsec tunnel connect two offices. What
routing configuration prefers the IPsec tunnel only in the event of a private line failure?
A.
floating static entry
B.
EIGRP variance
C.
bandwidth metric
D.
OSPF maximum paths

Answer: A
Explanation:

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Cisco 200-310 Exam

QUESTION NO: 238

When designing a new enterprise campus network, what topology should be used for maximum
scalability?
A.
flat
B.
three-layer
C.
star
D.
partial mesh
E.
full mesh

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 239

A spanning tree topology can be simplified by deploying what Cisco IOS technology in the
distribution block?
A.
VDC
B.
vPC
C.
Rapid PVST+
D.
VSS
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E.
Flex Links

Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 240

An organization is deciding what routing protocol to use throughout their network. What must be
considered if routing is to be performed at the access layer?
A.
reduced scalability of the network when introducing a large number of switch blocks into the
routing table
B.
centralized management of access control lists at the distribution layer
C.
reliability when implementing routing over spanning-tree at the access layer
D.
performance differences between core, distribution and access layer equipment

Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 241

A routing protocol neighbor relationship has been established between two routers across the
public Internet using GRE. What technology can be used to encrypt this communication channel?
A.
access lists
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B.
IP security
C.
context based access
D.
intrusion prevention system

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 242

Your company uses OSPF for internal routing. The company will be connected to VendorA via a
single dedicated link and to VendorB via redundant dedicated links. Both vendors also use OSPF
for internal routing.
Which of the following deployments describes the best intra-domain routing practice in this
situation?
A.
Connect your company to both VendorA and VendorB using existing OSPF.
B.
Redistribute the routes on each link between your company and the vendors to a shared EIGRP
routing protocol.
C.
Use IBGP to reach VendorA and EBGP to reach VendorB.
D.
Use static routes to reach VendorA and EBGP to reach VendorB.
E.
Use static routes to reach both VendorA and VendorB.

Answer: D
Explanation:

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QUESTION NO: 243

You design a network with the following network addresses:
192.168.168.0
192.168.169.0
192.168.170.0
192.168.171.0
192.168.172.0
192.168.173.0
192.168.174.0
192.168.175.0
Which route address is the best summary of these network addresses?
A.
192.168.0.0/24
B.
192.168.171.128/3
C.
192.168.168.0/21
D.
192.168.175.0/3
E.
192.168.0.0/16

Answer: C
Explanation:

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QUESTION NO: 244
A network engineer must collect application-level information passing through a router. What two
tools can provide this information? (Choose two.)
A.
NBAR
B.
CiscoWorks
C.
SNMP collector
D.
NetFlow collector
E.
Syslog

Answer: A,D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 245

Which option is an advantage of the bottom-up design model?
A.
focuses on the needs of user communities
B.
includes a thorough analysis of customer requirements
C.
facilitates a quick response to client requests
D.
produces a "big-picture" of the desired outcome

Answer: C

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Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 246

A large company requests a hierarchical design model. What tier should be free of physically
connected hosts?
A.
core
B.
access
C.
aggregation
D.
distribution

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 247

Which two options are benefits of using a modular network architecture? (Choose two.)
A.
facilitates troubleshooting
B.
accurate monitoring
C.
consistent documentation
D.
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increased flexibility
E.
reduced cabling requirements

Answer: A,D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 248

An organization is redesigning a 3-tier hierarchical network into a collapsed core. What design
issue is a primary concern per Cisco best practices?
A.
services delineation
B.
port density
C.
feature availability
D.
resource utilization

Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 249

A network engineer is using the traditional switched hierarchical design. The client has asked to
increase uplink utilization from the access layer to the distribution. How can the engineer attain
this new requirement without adding new physical connections?
A.
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enable spanning-tree portfast
B.
enable VSS at the distribution layer
C.
increase the MTU size on the uplink interfaces
D.
ensure the root bridge priority is equal on both distribution switches

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 250

What three design best practices are key functions of the distribution layer? (Choose three.)
A.
fault domain isolation
B.
admission control
C.
access switch aggregation
D.
QoS tagging
E.
address summarization
F.
end user and application isolation

Answer: A,C,E
Explanation:

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Cisco 200-310 Exam

QUESTION NO: 251

What design requirement is necessary for campus network access layer switching?
A.
high cost per port
B.
high availability
C.
high scalability
D.
high performance

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 252

A network engineer requires that an OSPF ASBR must only flood external LSAs only within its
own area. What OSPF area type should be configured?
A.
Backbone Area
B.
Totally Stub Area
C.
Not So Stubby Area
D.
Stub Area

Answer: C
Explanation:
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QUESTION NO: 253

A network engineer is tasked to upgrade and expand a large existing production network. From
the IOS CLI, what two protocols can be used to build a topology map of the existing network?
(Choose two.)
A.
SNMP
B.
IP SLA
C.
ICMP Echo
D.
LLDP
E.
Traceroute

Answer: D,E
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 254

A network engineer has finished designing and implementing a new network. What two protocols
would they use to gain insight into the network and determine the components that require
optimization? (Choose two.)
A.
CDP
B.
NetFlow
C.
ICMP Echo
D.
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NMAP
E.
SNMP

Answer: B,E
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 255

What are two benefits of a structured IPv4 addressing scheme? (Choose two.)
A.
reduces routing table size
B.
provides increased security
C.
allows for address translation to be performed
D.
improves manageability and troubleshooting
E.
increases high availability

Answer: A,D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 256

What are two reasons discontinuous IPv4 networks hinder scalability? (Choose two.)
A.
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routing table bloat
B.
inability to utilize automatic summarization
C.
insufficient IP addresses
D.
slowed packet forwarding
E.
delayed interface queuing

Answer: A,B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 257

What is a benefit of IPv6 over IPv4 addresses?
A.
shorter addresses
B.
automatic summarization
C.
hierarchal global address space
D.
faster IGP convergence

Answer: C
Explanation:

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Cisco 200-310 Exam

QUESTION NO: 258
GRE has been used to establish a routing-protocol neighbor relationship between two routers,
across the public Internet. Which technology can you use to encrypt this communication channel?
A.
access lists
B.
IPsec
C.
CBAC
D.
IPS

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 259

Which option is a benefit of Cisco Discovery Protocol?
A.
provides information about directly connected Cisco devices
B.
provides greater detail about collected data, including time stamping
C.
combines with the network layer data that is gathered by NetFlow when using a NetFlow collector
D.
part of the IEEE 802.1ab standard

Answer: A
Explanation:

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Cisco 200-310 Exam

QUESTION NO: 260

Which option is an example of physical device virtualization?
A.
VSS
B.
VPN
C.
VRF
D.
VLAN

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 261

In which two places is redundancy recommended in an enterprise campus network design?
(Choose two.)
A.
building distribution
B.
campus core
C.
building access
D.
e-commerce
E.
Internet connectivity

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Cisco 200-310 Exam

Answer: A,B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 262

What are two purposes of route redundancy? (Choose two.)
A.
minimize the effect of link failures
B.
minimize the effect of internetworking device failures
C.
minimize the convergence time of STP
D.
reduce router CPU utilization
E.
save network costs

Answer: A,B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 263

Refer to the exhibit.

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Cisco 200-310 Exam

The red lines refer to STP blocked ports. What happens if the HSRP active moves to the right
distribution, and the STP root remains on the left distribution?
A.
The STP root becomes the gateway.
B.
The interdistribution link is used for transit.
C.
The HSRP standby becomes the gateway.
D.
The interaccess link is used for transit.
E.
Host traffic is unable to reach the HSRP active.

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 264

Which three QoS levels should VoIP clients be set to on a Cisco WLC? (Choose three.)
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Cisco 200-310 Exam

A.
Platinum
B.
Bronze
C.
Gold
D.
Silver
E.
Premier
F.
Critical

Answer: A,C,D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 265

What is the optimal device and location to fulfill these requirements?

A.
IPS inline outside of the firewall
B.
IPS inline inside the firewall
C.
Cisco IOS IPS on the border router
D.
passive IPS connected to a SPAN port outside of the firewall
E.
passive IPS connected to a SPAN port inside the firewall

Answer: A
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Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 266

Refer to the exhibit.

Which location is best for placing a monitor-only IPS that has visibility into the most data center
traffic?
A.
(A) inline before the firewall
B.
(B) inline after the firewall
C.
(C) passive off the firewall
D.
(D) passive off the internal switch

Answer: D
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Cisco 200-310 Exam

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 267

A remote worker for a sales company must submit daily updates via the company email system.
The employee does not have a company-issued laptop, so which VPN method is used for
connectivity to the company email server?
A.
DMVPN
B.
SSL VPN
C.
IPsec VPN
D.
GET VPN

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 268

What are the three models that are required in the systematic approach of the top-down design
methodology? (Choose three.)
A.
logical
B.
physical
C.
layered
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D.
network components
E.
technological
F.
protocols
G.
virtual

Answer: A,B,C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 269

Refer to the exhibit.

Which functionality must be enabled on router A to connect two networks for translating private
addresses into "legal" public addresses on a one-for-one basis?
A.
PAT
B.
NAT
C.
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Cisco 200-310 Exam

VLAN
D.
GARP
E.
PPP

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 270

Refer to the exhibit.

You are designing routing between building distribution switches and campus core switches.
Assuming that all links have the same speed, which statement about these designs is true?
A.
Option A has more fault tolerance but slower convergence than Option B.
B.
Option A has more fault tolerance and faster convergence than Option B.
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Cisco 200-310 Exam

C.
Option B has more fault tolerance but slower convergence than Option A.
D.
Option B has more fault tolerance and faster convergence than Option A.

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 271

Which technology should a company use to connect a branch office to headquarters via an
Internet connection while maintaining confidentiality and the flexibility to run a routing protocol
between the two locations?
A.
GRE over IPsec
B.
IPsec
C.
GRE
D.
SSL VPN

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 272

Which WAN technology is a cost-effective method to deliver 100 Mb of bandwidth to multiple
branch offices?
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Cisco 200-310 Exam

A.
DSL
B.
DWDM
C.
ISDN
D.
Metro Ethernet

Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 273

A network engineer needs to create a controller-based, high-density RF design. Which two factors
determine the cell size? (Choose two.)
A.
antenna type
B.
ClientLink support
C.
TPC threshold setting
D.
QoS setting
E.
free space path loss

Answer: A,C
Explanation:

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Cisco 200-310 Exam

QUESTION NO: 274

Which IP address can be routed to cross the public Internet?
A.
10.31.1.1
B.
192.168.32.1
C.
172.32.1.1
D.
169.254.32.1

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 275

Which DHCP option do you need to configure to ensure that an LWAP can communicate with the
Cisco WLC in a different subnet?
A.
7
B.
19
C.
43
D.
150

Answer: C
Explanation:
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Cisco 200-310 Exam

QUESTION NO: 276

Which two options can be virtual networking devices? (Choose two.)
A.
ESX host
B.
VM
C.
switches
D.
routers
E.
Hyper-V host

Answer: C,D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 277 DRAG DROP

DRAG DROP
Drag the STP toolkit term on the left to the definition on the right.

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Cisco 200-310 Exam

Answer:

Explanation:

C, F, A, G, D, B, E

QUESTION NO: 278 DRAG DROP

DRAG DROP
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Cisco 200-310 Exam

Drag the characteristic on the left to the correct campus design model on the right.

Answer:

Explanation:

A, D, E, A, D, E, A, D, E, B, C, B, C

QUESTION NO: 279 DRAG DROP

DRAG DROP
Drag the technology on the left to the matching routing protocol on the right.

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Cisco 200-310 Exam

Answer:

Explanation:

C, F, C, F, A, E, A, E, B, D, B, D

QUESTION NO: 280 DRAG DROP

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Cisco 200-310 Exam

DRAG DROP
Drag the security term on the left to the matching description on the right.

Answer:

Explanation:

C, D, A, B

QUESTION NO: 281 DRAG DROP

DRAG DROP
Drag the term on the left to the matching deployment scenario on the right.

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Cisco 200-310 Exam

Answer:

Explanation:

B, D, A, C

QUESTION NO: 282

What are two components of the Build phase in the Cisco Design Lifecycle? (Choose two.)
A.
Migration
B.
Deployment
C.
Optimization
D.
Design
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Cisco 200-310 Exam

E.
Configuration

Answer: A,B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 283

Which design enables easy and flexible scaling in the Cisco Enterprise Architecture model?
A.
modular
B.
top-down
C.
bottom-up
D.
full-mesh

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 284

Which two issues are typical challenges to network stability and reliability? (Choose two.)
A.
hardware failures
B.
layer 1 link failures
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C.
application failures
D.
core layer failures
E.
distribution layer failures

Answer: A,B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 285

For a VLAN that requires 70 hosts, which subnet is the most efficient?
A.
10.0.0.1/8
B.
172.31.17.0/26
C.
192.168.1.0/25
D.
192.168.15.0/24

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 286

If two routing protocols have the same route and prefix, which effect do they have on the routing
table?
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Cisco 200-310 Exam

A.
Only the route with the lowest administrative distance is added.
B.
Only the route with the highest administrative distance is added.
C.
Both routes are added.
D.
Neither route is added, and a loop is formed.

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 287

Which benefit is an advantage of route summarization?
A.
It reduces the size of the routing table.
B.
It causes routes to be updated more frequently.
C.
It lowers the cost metric.
D.
It enables neighbor discovery.

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 288

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Cisco 200-310 Exam

Which two states are RSTP port states? (Choose two.)
A.
discarding
B.
learning
C.
blocking
D.
listening
E.
disabled

Answer: A,B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 289

When is the Cisco FlexConnect design model recommended?
A.
when remote-site APs are centrally managed
B.
when each remote site has its own wireless controller
C.
when each remote site runs VSS
D.
when the remote sites use WAN optimization

Answer: A
Explanation:

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Cisco 200-310 Exam

QUESTION NO: 290

In which two modes can you deploy Cisco IPS appliances? (Choose two.)
A.
inline
B.
promiscuous
C.
VTP group
D.
threat mitigation
E.
threat detection

Answer: A,B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 291

According to Cisco best practices, which traffic control should you apply to the strict priority
queue?
A.
Bandwidth should be limited to one-third of the link capacity.
B.
Bandwidth should be limited to 768 kbps.
C.
Limits should be applied to non-real-time traffic and all real-time traffic should be permitted.
D.
The link serialization delay should be set to less than 100 ms.

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Cisco 200-310 Exam

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 292

According to fundamental design principles, which location is best for implementing Cisco QoS
policies?
A.
hardware
B.
software
C.
Cisco 3900 Series Integrated Services Routers running IOS software
D.
WAN routers running IOS software

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 293

Which item is the fundamental basis of a virtual network?
A.
a VRF instance
B.
a MIB database
C.
a GRE tunnel
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Cisco 200-310 Exam

D.
redundant hardware

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 294

Which network virtualization technique can you implement without disrupting the existing network
design and infrastructure?
A.
VRF-Lite
B.
EVN
C.
MPLS
D.
VNET tags

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 295

Refer to the exhibit.

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Cisco 200-310 Exam

Assuming that a network will grow exponentially for the next 24 months, what is the main limitation
that must be addressed?
A.
scalability
B.
serviceability
C.
redundancy
D.
resiliency

Answer: A
Explanation:

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