Eye lid

All of the followings are types of neurogenic ptosis except:

A- blepharophimosis syndrome

B- third nerve palsy

C- Horner's syndrome

D- Marcus Gunn jaw winking syndrome

Which of the followings are sweat glands related to lash follicles:

A- Zeis glands

B- Meibomian glands

C- Goblet cells

D- Moll's glands

Epicanthus is a congenital skin fold over the medial canthus which produces

A- pseudoproptosis

B- ture esotropia

C- pseudoptosis

D- pseudostrabismus

The skin of the eyelid is red and macerated especially at the outer and inner
canthi in case of:

A- parasitic blepharitis

B- ulcerative blepharitis

C- angular blepharitis

D- squamous blepharitis
 Presence of a second row of lashes arising from or slightly behind the
Meibomian glands orifices is called:

A- distichiasis

B- trichiasis

C- rubbing lashes

D- entropion

Congenital dystrophic ptosis is characterized by:

A- compensatory chin elevation in severe bilateral cases

B- all of the above

C- usually poor levator function

D- unilateral or bilateral ptosis

Rolling in of the upper lid margin most commonly is due to

A- Ophthalmoplegia.

B- Trachoma.

C- Thermal injury of lid skin

D- Facial palsy

Facial palsy may result in all of the followings except:

A- Exposure keratopathy

B- Paralytic ectropion

C- Neurogenic ptosis.

D- Lagophthalmos.
 Chalazion can cause the following complications except:

A- Mechanical ptosis

B- Irregular astigmatism

C- Internal hordeolum

D- Anterior uveitis

Ectropion of the upper eyelid may be:

A- Senile

B- paralytic

C- congenital

D- None of the above

Staphyloococci can cause:

A- All of the above

B- stye

C- Ulcerative blepharitis

D- Atypical hypopyon ulcer

All of the followings are types of entropion except:

A- Spastic

B- Cicatricial

C- Paralytic

D- Senile
 All of the followings are causes of lagophthalmos except:

A- Cicatricial ectropion

B- Proptosis

C- Facial nerve palsy

D- Third nerve paralysis

Ectropion of the upper lid is most commonly:

A- Senile ectropion

B- Spastic ectropion

C- Cicatricial ectropion

D- Paralytic ectropion

The levator palpebrae superioris is inserted into the following structures

except:

A- Medial orbital margin & medial palpebral ligament

B- Upper border of tarsus

C- Bulbar conjunctiva

D- Skin of upper eye lid

Hordeolum externum is an acute suppurative inflammation of:

A- Gland of Krause

B- Gland of Moll

C- Gland of zies

D- Gland of Wolfring
 Conjunctiva
Patient had a pterygium, excised since one month, and starts to see double
vision, this may be due to:

A- Corneal perforation

B- Symblepahron formation

C- Secondary infection

D- Lateral rectus paralysis

All the following can be caused by chlamydial infection except:

A- Angular conjunctivitis

B- Ophthalmia neonatorum

C- Inclusion conjunctivitis

D- Trachoma

The leading cause of preventable blindness in Egypt:

A- Diabetic retinopathy

B- Glaucoma

C- Senile cataract

D- Trachoma

Etiology of pterygium is:

A- Inflammation

B- Infection

C- Neoplastic
D- Degenerative

Endogenous septic focus may cause All except :

A- Hypopyon ulcer

B- Iridocyclitis

C- Phlycten

D- Metastatic endophthalmitis

Pre auricular lymphadenopathy occurs with:

A- Phlyctenular keratoconjunctivitis

B- Viral conjunctivitis

C- Angular conjunctivitis

D- Vernal keratoconjunctivitis

Corneal damage in trachoma is due to:

A- Dryness

B- Trichiasis

C- All of the above

D- Lagophthalmos and exposure

Most common organism in purulent conjunctivitis is:

A- Gonococci

B- Pneumococci

C- Herpes simplex virus

D- Streptococci
 All of the followings are sure signs of trachoma except:

A- Herbert's pits

B- Arlt's line

C- Detection of intracytoplasmic basophilic inclusion bodies

D- Papillae of upper tarsal conjunctiva

Which of the following is specific for the diagnosis of allergic conjunctivitis?

A- Excessive lacrimation

B- Itching

C- Foreign body sensation

D- Eye redness

Bitot's spots may be caused by:

A- Vit B deficiency

B- Vit A deficiency

C- Trachoma

D- Vernal keratoconjunctivitis

Conjunctival injection is characterized by the following except:

A- Individual vessels are easily distinguished

B- Bright red color

C- Movable

D- Not affected by vasoconstrictors

 Lacrimal system
Congenital watery eye may result from all the followings except:

A- Corneal birth injury

B- Congenital glaucoma

C- Congenital cataract

D- Congenital nasolacrimal obstruction

Treatment of acquired chronic dacryocystitis is:

A- None of the above

B- DCR

C- Systemic antibiotics

D- Probing

Persistent unilateral conjunctivitis is usually due to:

A- Purulent conjunctivitis

B- Spring catarrh

C- Mucopurulent conjunctivitis

D- Chronic dacryocystitis

Pneumococci can commonly cause:

A- Atypical hypopyon corneal ulcer

B- Acute dacryocystitis

C- Chronic dacryocystitis

D- Ulcerative belpharitis
 In a baby with watery eyes which of the followings may be the cause?

A- Corneal abrasion

B- Buphthalmos

C- All of the above

D- Congenital NLD obstruction

Cornea
Double staining pattern of the cornea is characteristic for:

A- Acanthameobic corneal ulcer

B- Exposure keratopathy

C- Fungal corneal ulcer

D- Herpetic corneal ulcer

Corticosteroids is given in:

A- Bacterial corneal ulcer

B- Stromal fungal keratitis

C- Herpetic corneal ulcer

D- Fascicular corneal ulcer

Topical corticosteroids is needed in:

A- Herpetic corneal ulcer

B- Interstitial desciform keratitis

C- Stromal fungal keratitis

D- Bacterial corneal ulcer

 Tarrsorraphy is needed in:

A- Exposure keratopathy

B- Viral corneal ulcer

C- Traumatic corneal ulcer

D- Bacterial corneal ulcer

Which of the following organisms can penetrate intact corneal epithelium?

A- All of the above

B- Streptococci

C- Gonococci

D- Staphylococci

Small central perforated corneal ulcer may lead to:

A- Anterior staphyloma

B- Iris prolapsed

C- Leucoma non-adherent

D- Leucoma adherent

Keratomalacia is an acute keratitis which results from:

A- Exposure keratopathy

B- Pneumococcal infection

C- Contact lens wear

D- Vit A deficiency

Fungal keratitis is characterized by:

A- Pyramidal hypopyon

B- All of the above

C- Thick area of stromal infiltration

D- Positive history with trauma with organic material

Typical hypopyon corneal ulcer is due to infection by:

A- Pneumococci

B- Streptococci

C- pseudomonas

D- Staphylococci

Neuroparalytic keratitis results from:

A- Fifth cranial nerve injury

B- None of the above

C- Facial palsy

D- Horner's syndrome

All of the followings are used as a specific treatment for herpetic keratitis
except:

A- Acyclovir

B- Trifluorothymidine

C- Vorioconazole

D- Vidarabine

The corneal touch reflex involves the following cranial nerves:

A- V and III

B- II and IV

C- V and VII

D- II and III

Small peripheral corneal perforation leads to:

A- Anterior staphyloma

B- Anterior synechia

C- Corneal fistula

D- Anterior polar cataract

Topical steroids are contraindicated in corneal ulcers except:

A- Atypical hypopyon ulcer

B- Typical hypopyon ulcer

C- Dendritic ulcer

D- Phlectenular fasicular ulcer

Corneal ulcers can occur with the following CN (cranial nerve) disorders:

A- IV CN affection

B- III CN affection

C- VII CN palsy

D- VI CN affection

Munson sign is seen in:

A- Keratoconus
B- Corneal fistula

C- Corneal dystrophy

D- Corneal facet

In corneal edema; all of the followings are true except:

A- Predispose to corneal vascularization

B- There is increase in corneal diameter

C- There is increase in corneal thickness

D- Epithelial bullae

Infective corneal ulcers include all of the followings except:

A- Bacterial corneal ulcer

B- Viral corneal ulcer

C- Fungal corneal ulcer

D- Mooren's ulcer

In treating bacterial corneal ulcer all of the followings are true except:

A- Mydratics and cycloplegics

B- Antibiotic drops

C- Corticosteroid drops

D- Vitamin A,C

The corneal epithelium is :

A- Non keratinized stratified squamous epithelium

B- cuboidal epithelium.
C- Keratinized stratified squamous epithelium.

D- Tall columnar epithelium

Sclera
The only staphyloma with normal IOP is:

A- Posterior staphyloma

B- Equatorial staphyloma

C- Ciliary staphyloma

D- Intercalary staphyloma

Episcleritis is similar to phlycten clinically but differs in being:

A- tender

B- Multiple

C- Flat

D- Pigmented

Ciliary injection can be found In all of the followings except:

A- AACG

B- Corneal ulcer

C- Episcleritis

D- Anterior uveitis
 Crystalline lens
In senile cataract, iris shadow may be found in:

A- All of the above

B- mature senile cataract

C- hypermature senile cataract

D- Intumescent cataract

The crystalline lens derives nutrition by:

A- Limbal blood vessels

B- Retinal arteries

C- Diffusion from aqueous

D- All of the above

Extensive congenital cataract is treated by:

A- a and b

B- Cataract extraction as soon as possible

C- Follow up

D- Glasses

The leading cause of preventable blindness worldwide:

A- Age related macular degeneration

B- Glaucoma

C- Diabetic retinopathy

D- Senile cataract
 The term mature cataract means:

A- A cortical cataract that involves the entire cortex

B- An anterior subcapsular cataract that causes capsular wrinkling

C- A posterior subcapsular cataract that reduces visual acuity to /6/6 or worse

D- A nuclear cataract present more than 06 years

Criteria of mature senile cataract:

A- Visual acuity HM

B- Absent iris shadow

C- Absent RR

D- All of the above

All the following are signs of lens sublaxation except:

A- Phakodenesis

B- Intact all zonule

C- Irregular anterior chamber

D- Iridodenesis

Tremulous iris can be seen in:

A- Sublaxation of the lens

B- posterior dislocation of the lens

C- Aphakia

D- All of the above

E- Hypermature cataract
 Posterior polar cataract markedly affects vision because:

A- Its shadow lies on the macula

B- It blocks the pupillary area

C- Close to the nodal point

D- It matures early

Nuclear cataract changes the refraction of the eye into:

A- Myopia

B- Hypermetropia

C- Astigmatism

D- No change

Most common cause of diminution of vision after phakoemulsification is:

A- Corneal decompansation

B- Posterior capsular opacification

C- Cystoids macular edema

D- Retinal detachment

The best treatment for Posterior capsule opacification:

A- Surgical excision

B- YAG laser capsulotomy

C- Surgical polishing

D- Leave alone

The type of laser used to treat Posterior capsule opacification:

A- Excimer laser

B- Argon laser

C- Diode laser

D- YAG laser

Glaucoma
Which of the following field defects occurs in primary open angle glaucoma?

A- Roenne's nasal step

B- bitemporal hemianopia

C- none of the above

D- homonymous hemianopia

Which of these is a predisposing factor of primary angle closure glaucoma?

A- retinitis pigmentosa

B- Aphakia

C- high hypermetropia with shallow anterior chamber

D- intumescent cataract

Field of vision may be tested by:

A- Automated perimetry

B- Confrontation test

C- All of the above

D- Projection of light

Which of the followings is a type of lens induced angle closure glaucoma?

A- Phacomorphic glaucoma
B- Phacolytic glaucoma

C- Phacoanaphylactic glaucoma

D- Pseudoexofoliation glaucoma

Vision is usually poor in infants with buphthalmos due to:

A- Corneal opacification

B- Progressive myopia

C- All of the above

D- Optic nerve damage

All of the following are true concerning open angle glaucoma except:

A- Normal angle of anterior chamber

B- IOP usually above 22 mmHG

C- Cup/disc ratio of 6.0 or larger

D- Visual fields are normal

The cause of decreased visual acuity in acute congestive glaucoma is:

A- Glaucomatous optic atrophy

B- Increased intra ocular pressure

C- Complicated Cataract

D- Corneal edema

Which of the following is not a test for visual field:

A- Projection of light

B- Confrontation test
C- Perception of light

D- Automated perimetry

Optic nerve head in glaucomatous optic atrophy has all except:

A- Interrupted retinal vessels

B- Large deep cup

C- Waxy yellow colour

D- Overhanging margins

All of the followings are lens induced glaucoma except:

A- Neovascular glaucoma

B- Phacoanaphylactic glaucoma

C- Phacolytic glaucoma

D- Phaco morphic glaucoma

Which of the followings is more susceptible to primary angle closure

glaucoma?

A- Hypermetropic eye

B- Astigmatic eye

C- Myopic eye

D- Aphakic eye

In an acute angle closure glaucoma, the choice of surgery is decided after:

A- Tonometry

B- Visual field examination

C- Fundus examination

D- Gonioscopic examination

All of the following are the characteristics of glaucomatous optic disc cupping
except:

A- Lamina criprosa is not visible

B- Retinal vessels appear broken at the margin

C- Overhanging margins

D- Large deep cup

In buphthalmos, which of the followings is a late presentation:

A- Flattened sublaxated lens

B- Lacrimation

C- Enlarged hazy cornea

D- Optic disc cupping

In a patient with HM vision, visual field can be tested by:

A- Projection of light

B- Automated perimetry

C- Bjerrum screen

D- Confrontation test

Which of the following is not a test for visual field?

A- Automated perimetry

B- Confrontation test
C- Perception of light

D- Projection of light

Glaucoma inversus can occur in:

A- Intumescent cataract

B- Anterior dislocated lens

C- Post sublaxated lens

D- Post dislocated lens

Glaucoma inversus can be treated by:

A- Pilocarpine + beta blockers

B- cyclocryotherapy

C- Pilocarpine + anti-inflammatories

D- Atropine

Phakomorphic Glaucoma is:

A- All of the above

B- Induces pupillary block

C- Induced by intumescent cataract

D- A closed angle secondary glaucoma

E- Urgent cataract extraction is indicated

Which of the following is TRUE concerning the intraocular pressure?

A- All of the above

B- can be normal in patients with glaucoma

C- Normal value is 06-20 mmHg

D- It varies during the day with a peak in the early morning

E- A and B only

Which of the following is not a sign of acute angle-closure glaucoma:

A- Shallow anterior chamber

B- Ciliary congestion

C- Constricted, rounded pupil

D- Corneal epithelial edema

E- High intraocular pressure

An early sign of congenital glaucoma is :

A- Leukocoria

B- Amblyopia

C- Corneal edema

D- Ptosis

Secondary angle closure glaucoma may be associated with all of the following
except:

A- Pigmentary glaucoma

B- Intumescent cataract

C- Uveitis

D- Anterior lens dislocation

The procedure of choice after medical control of acute angle closure glaucoma
is:
A- cyclophotocoagulation

B- Goniotomy

C- Laser iridotomy

Pigmentary glaucoma is characterized by all of the following except:

A- Iris transillumination defect

B- The anterior chamber angle is closed

C- Krukenberg spindle

D- High Intraocular pressure

All of the following are signs of congenital glaucoma except:

A- IOP is usually high

B- The cornea is enlarged

C- Habb's stria

D- The anterior chamber is shallow

The color of the pupil in Acute congestive glaucoma is:

A- Grayish white

B- Jet black

C- Yellow

D- brown

E- Greenish blue

Neovascular glaucoma is due to all of the following except:

A- CRVO
B- Proliferative diabetic retinopathy

C- Chronic uveitis

D- Mature senile cataract

Goniotomy is Indicated in:

A- Congenital glaucoma with corneal cloudiness

B- POAG after failure of medical treatment

C- Narrow angle glaucoma after failure of LPI

D- Congenital glaucoma with clear cornea and diameter less than 01 mm

Epiphora, photophobia and blepharospasm in a newly born infant occurs in:

A- Congenital naso-lacrimal duct obstruction

B- Ocular inflammation (e.g. uveitis)

C- All of the above

D- Congenital glaucoma

E- Corneal injury (e.g. abrasion)

All of the following are causes of lens induced glaucoma except:

A- Intumescent cataract

B- lens-protein glaucoma (phacolytic, macrophage-induced)

C- Lens dislocation

D- Phacoanaphylactic

E- Nuclear sclerosis

Trabeculectomy is indicated in:

A- Congenital glaucoma after failure of goniotomy and trabeculotomy

B- Narrow Angle Glaucoma after faliure of LPI

C- All of the above

D- POAG after faliure of medical treatment

Double arcuate scotoma is a characteristic field defect in:

A- Severe POAG

B- A and B

C- All of the above

D- Retinitis pigmentosa

E- Pituitary adenoma

Interventions to decrease the IOP in patients with acute angle closure

glaucoma include:

A- Mannitol

B- All of the above

C- acetazolamide

D- Laser peripheral iridotomy

E- Pilocarpine eye drops

Uveal tract
All of the followings are signs of acute iridocyclitis except:

A- Muddy iris

B- Aqueous flare

C- Keratic precipitate (KPs)

D- Exudative RD
 Complications of anterior uveitis include:

A- All of the above

B- Occlusio pupillae

C- Cyclitic membrane

D- Band shaped keratopathy

Choroidal inflammation as Harada disease may result in:

A- Exudative retinal detachment

B- None of the above

C- Rhegmatogenous retinal detachment

D- Tractional retinal detachment

The pupil in acute Ant. Uveitis is:

A- Dilated

B- Vertically oval

C- Constricted

D- Festooned

Pupil & Visual pathway & Optic nerve

Afferent pupillary defect is found in all of the followings except:

A- Optic atrophy

B- Papillitis

C- Mature senile cataract

D- Total retinal detachment

 Horners syndrome consits of:

A- Ptosis + mydriasis + enophthalmos + anhydrosis

B- Ptosis + miosis + enophthalmos + anhydrosis

C- diplopia + myosis + enophthalmos + anhydrosis

D- lagophthalmos + myosis + enophthalmos + anhydrosis

A 03 years old female with unilateral large regular pupil and absent light
reflex but tonic near reflex. This condition is:

A- A and C

B- Marcus-Gunn pupil

C- Argyll Robertson pupil

D- Adie's pupil

The site of lesion that cause Argyll Robertson pupil is

A- Optic nerve

B- Third nerve palsy

C- Crossing nasal fibers in the optic chiasma

D- Crossing midbrain fibers

The pupil in Horners syndrome is

A- A and B

B- None of the above

C- Small

D- Responds normally to light and near

 All of the following cause mydriasis except:

A- Third nerve palsy

B- Adie's pupil

C- Horner's syndrome

D- Mydriatic eye drops

In Horner's Syndrome all of the following is right except:

A- Anhydrosis

B- Ptosis

C- Miosis

D- Exophthalmos

Bitemporal hemianopia is due to:

A- Pituitary gland tumors

B- Orbital apex syndrome

C- Cavernous sinus thrombosis

D- All of the above

All of the followings are true about papillaedema except:

A- vision is preserved in early cases

B- the condition is commonly bilateral

C- afferent pupillary defect is found in early stage

D- visual field shows enlarged blind spot

 Afferent papillary defect occurs in all the following except:

A- Retrobulbar neuritis

B- Primary optic atrophy

C- Early papilledema

D- Papillitis

Doctor sees nothing (no signs can be detected) & patient sees nothing (marked
diminution of vision) in:

A- Retrobulbar neuritis (toxic amblyopia)

B- All of the above

C- Papillitis

D- Papilledema

Which of the following ttt is used for optic neuritis:

A- Antibiotics

B- prednisolone

C- Atropine

D- Observation

Papilloedema leads to:

A- Rapid deterioration of vision

B- Pain on the eye movement

C- Early loss of color vision

D- Amaurosis fugax
 Papilloedema leads to the following Feild changes:

A- Arcuate scotoma

B- Nasal step

C- Concentric contraction of peripheral field

D- Enlarged blind spot

Consecutive optic atrophy occurs in all of the following conditions except:

A- CRV thrombosis

B- CRAO

C- Chorio-retinitis

D- Degenerative myopia

Afferent pupillary defect occurs in all of the followings except:

A- Retrobulbar neuritis

B- Optic atrophy

C- Papillitis

D- Hysteria

Retina
Non proliferative diabetic retinopathy is characterized by:

A- Rubeosis iridis

B- Vitreous hemorrhage

C- Microaneurysms

D- Neovascularization
 Retinitis pigmentosa is characterized by:

A- Attenuated retinal vessels

B- All of the above

C- Retinal pigmentary changes

D- Tubular field

Causes of tractional retinal detachment include:

A- penetrating posterior segment trauma

B- proliferative diabetic retinopathy

C- retinopathy of prematurity

D- all of the above

Vitreous hemorrhage results in:

A- Rapid painless visual loss

B- Gradual visual loss

C- Rapid painful visual loss

D- Sudden painful visual loss

Late signs of central retinal artery occlucion include:

A- Cherry red spot at the macula

B- Optic disc edema

C- None of the above

D- Consecutive optic atrophy

Signs of non proliferative diabetic retinopathy include:

A- vitreous or subhyaloid hemorrhage

B- All of the above

C- Neovascularization

D- microaneurysms and retinal hemorrhage

All of the followings are true about central retinal vein occlusion except:

A- Causes rapid painful diminution of vision

B- May be ischaemic or non ischaemic

C- More common in diabetic, hypertensive and old aged patients

D- Fundus picture shows dilated and tortuous veins with retinal hemorrhages

All these are signs of recent central retinal vein occlusion except:

A- Dilated tortuous veins

B- Retinal hemorrhages

C- Consecutive optic atrophy

D- Optic disc edema

Common risk factors for progression of diabetic retinopathy are:

A- Repeated pregnancy

B- Presence of hyperlipidemia

C- All of the above

D- Uncontrolled hypertension

Rapid painful loss of vision may occur in all of the followings except:

A- AACG
B- CRAO

C- Blunt trauma

D- Alkali burn

All these are causes of tubular vision except:

A- Primary optic atrophy

B- Advanced stage of chronic simple glaucoma

C- CRAO with cilio-retinal sparing

D- Retinitis pigmentosa

Strabismus
Essential infantile esotropia is characterized by:

A- Oblique muscle dysfunction

B- All of the above

C- Large angle of esotropia

D- Cross fixation

Characters of 6th nerve palsy include:

A- Limited abduction

B- All of the above

C- Esotropia

D- Diplopia

Third nerve innervates all of the followings except:

A- Medial rectus muscle

B- Inferior oblique muscle

C- Levator palpenbre muscle

D- Superior oblique muscle

Diplopia due to right 6th cranial nerve palsy Increases on looking to:

A- Down

B- Up

C- To the right

D- To the left

Diplopia due to right 4th cranial nerve palsy disappears on covering:

A- Right eye

B- Left eye

C- Either eye

The commonest cause of squint in the first year of life is:

A- Essential infantile esotropia

B- Accomodative Esotropia

C- Sixth cranial nerve palsy

Orbit
All of the followings are clinical findings in dysthyroid orbitopathy except:

A- Eye lid retraction

B- Edematous red tender eye lid swelling

C- Bilateral proptosis
D- Myopathy of EOM

The commonest sign of Graves disease:

A- Lid retraction

B- Conjunctival chemosis

C- Diplopia

D- Exophthalmos

Acute proptosis may be due to:

A- Orbital cellulitis

B- Surgical emphysema

C- Orbital hematoma

D- All of the above

Enophthalmos may be due to:

A- Trauma

B- All of the above

C- Post radiotherapy

D- Secondaries of breast scirrhus carcinoma

The most common cause of proptosis in adults is:

A- Dysthyroid orbitopathy

B- Orbital cellulitis

C- Orbital tumors

D- None of the above

 Patient with dysthyroid orbitopathy may suffer from diminution of vision due
to:

A- EOM fibrosis

B- Soft tissue involvement

C- Exposure keratopathy

Management of bacterial orbital cellulitis should include:

A- Parentral broad spectrum antibiotics

B- All of the above

C- Hospitalization

D- Monitoring of optic nerve functions

Which of the followings is a life threatening complication of bacterial orbital

cellulitis?

A- CRAO

B- Raised IOP

C- Cavernous sinus thrombosis

D- Exposure keratopathy

Errors of Refraction
In hypermetropia, parallel rays come to a focus:

A- In front of the retina

B- Behind the retina

C- On the retina

D- All of the above

 Spherocylinderical lenses are indicated for the correction of:

A- Myopia

B- Compound myopic astigmatism

C- Hypermetropia

D- Simple myopic astigmatism

Complications of progressive myopia includes:

A- Latent convergent squint

B- Angle closure glaucoma

C- Complicated cataract

D- Manifest convergent squint

Causes of myopia :

A- Decrease Corneal curvature

B- Post. Lens dislocation

C- Decrease R.I of the lens

D- Increase A-P axis of the eye

Which of the following is a type of myopia

A- Facultative

B- Simple

C- manifest

D- Latent

Which of the following is a sign of high myopia

A- Large globe

B- Shallow AC

C- Bright red reflex

D- Narrow angle

Myopia can be treated by :

A- LASIK surgery

B- All of the above

C- Concave minus lens glasses

D- Soft contact Lens

E- None of the above

Treatment of Hyperopia includes :

A- Clear lens extraction

B- R.K ( radial keratotomy)

C- All of the above

D- Concave glasses

E- None of the above

Types of regular astigmatism are :

A- Simple

B- None of the above

C- Compound

D- Mixed

E- All of the above

 The term Ametropia refers to:

A- Astigmatism

B- Hypermetropia

C- Myopia

D- All of the above

All of the following is true about myopic eye except:

A- High refractive power

B- Steep cornea

C- Small axial length

D- Deep anterior chamber

All of the following is true about irregular astigmatism except:

A- Occurs with keratoconus

B- Could be corrected with glasses

C- Occurs with corneal opacities

D- Could be corrected with rigid lenes

Unilateral aphakia can be corrected by:

A- None of the above

B- +06 diopters ordinary glasses

C- Contact lens

D- Laser capsulotomy
 The LASER used in corneal refractive surgeries is:

A- Argon laser

B- YAG laser

C- CO2 laser

D- Excimer laser

Regular astigmatism includes all of the followings except:

A- Simple myopic astigmatism

B- Mixed astigmatism

C- Advanced Keratoconus

D- Simple hyperopic astigmatism

Early cases of keratoconus can be treated by:

A- RGP contact lens

B- Penetrating keratoplasty

C- Deep lamellar keratoplasty

D- None of the above

Ocular trauma
The immediate emergency treatment of chemical injury to the eye is:

A- Search for the suitable antidote

B- Topical antibiotics

C- Topical steroids

D- Immediate copious irrigation

 Enophthalmos, diplopia and limitation of ocular movements after blunt ocular
trauma are due to:

A- Orbital blow-out fracture

B- iridodialysis

C- Orbital hematoma

D- Lens sublaxation

Blood staining of the cornea is due to:

A- Corneal edema

B- Corneal FB

C- Hyphema with rise of IOP

D- Hyphema

The first line of treatment in acid burn of the eye is:

A- Immediate wash with plain water

B- Instilling local antibiotic drops

C- Eye patching

D- Neutralization of the acid with alkali

Etiology of sympathetic ophthalmia is:

A- None of the above

B- Viral

C- Auto-immune

D- Bacterial
 Ocular Tumours
Retinoblastoma may be presented by all of the followings except:

A- Leukocoria

B- Secondary glaucoma

C- Papilledema

D- Strabismus

All these are clinical presentations of retinoblastoma except:

A- Secondary glaucoma

B- High myopia

C- Strabismus

D- Leucokoria

Amaurotic cats eye reflex occurs in all of the followings except:

A- Malignant melanoma of the choroid

B- PHPV

C- Coat's disease

D- Retinoblastoma

Which of the following is the most common presentation for retinoblastoma?

A- Leucokoria

B- Strabismus

C- Proptosis

D- Buphthalmos
 Which of the followings is the most common pathological type of
retinoblastoma?

A- Exophytum

B- Mixed

C- Diffuse infiltrating

D- Endophytum

Which of the followings pathological types of retinoblastoma grows towards

the choroid?

A- Endophytum

B- Diffuse infiltrating

C- Exophytum

Which of the followings is the least common pathological type of

retinoblastoma?

A- Endophytum

B- Mixed

C- diffuse infiltrating

D- Exophytum

Which of the followings is the most common primary intraocular tumor in

adult?

A- Retinoblastoma

B- Malignant melanoma of the choroid

C- Choroidal hemangioma

D- Malignant melanoma of the iris

 Which of the following pathologies of the choroid is an indication for
treatment with transpupillary thermotherapy?

A- Detachment

B- Melanoma

C- nevus

Which of the following is the first line of management for choroidal nevus,
suspected to be malignant melanoma?

A- Laser photocoagulation

B- Photodocumentation

C- Transpupillary thermotherapy

D- Cryotherapy

Retinoblastoma is thought to be caused by mutation in which of the following

chromosomes?

A- 01

B- 02

C- 00

D- 00

The most common rout of metastasis in retinoblastoma is:

A- None of the above

B- Optic nerve

C- Regional lymph nodes

D- Blood stream