1.
Detection and termination of aneuploidy affected pregnancy:
a. Primary prevention method.
b. Secondary prevention method.
c. Tertiary prevention method.
d. Therapeutic prevention method.
(The primary prevention requires universal pre-pregnancy and pregnancy
care and optimization of management before conception for women at
higher risk of anomalies
Secondary prevention of congenital anomalies is achieved through
prenatal Screening and diagnosis followed by the offer of termination of
pregnancies affected by major anomalies.
2. 30 years old leaking urine the most common reason after genuine stress
incontinence is:
a. Overflow bladder.
b. Urge incontinence.
c. Detruser dys-synirgia.
3. The normal sperm count \ million is:
a. 100 million.
b. 25 million.
c. 40 million.
d. 15 million.
4. Two haploid nucleus meet, that is called:
a. Pronuclei.
b. Centriole.
c. Nucleoli.
5. SLE in pregnancy:
a. Symptoms overlap with PET.
b. SLE exacerbate in pregnancy.
c. Improves in pregnancy
6. Effect of SLE on baby:
a. Complete heart block.
b. Thrombocytopenia.
c. Hydrops fetalis
d. Aplastic anemia
7. Absolute contra indication for combined oral contraceptive pills:
a. Breast cancer.
b. Cancer in situ of cervix.
8. Complication of OCP:
a. Fibrocystic breast change.
b. Hepatic adenoma.
9. Mother with anti-D sensitized pregnancy, the first sign appear in fetus is:
a. Skin edema.
b. Ascites.
c. Pleural effusion.
d. Polyhydramnios.
10. 25 year old, no risk factor, first pregnancy,, you will council her:
a. Folic acid preconception will reduce the risk by 95%
11.Hyper spermia:
a. Increase in sperm valium.
b. Increase in sperm count.
c. Increase is sperm motility
d. Increase in sperm morphology
12.Mother in labor afebrile, C/O sudden sever chest pain, skin changes and
collapse, the most common cause:
a. Amniotic fluid embolism.
b. Pulmonary embolism.
13.Patient presents with minimal vaginal bleeding, uterus is soft, fetal heart is
reactive, the most common cause is: (U/S: low lying placenta with
marginal incretion)
a. Abortion.
b. Previa
c. Vasa previa.
14. 80 years old, with cardiac disease, congestive heart failure, complete
presendisia:
a. Pessary.
b. Lefart operation.
c. Vaginal hysterectomy
15.Patient pregnant with Mitral Stenosis:
a. Manifestations appear if diameter more 1.5 cm2
b. Significant if associated with atrial fibrillation.
c. Balloon surgery is associated with poor fetal outcome.
16.18 years old woman, 5 months amenorrhea, BHCG is +ve, prolactin is 100
ng/L (NL: 25)
a. For obstetric cause.
b. MRI brain.
17.Patient with primary infertility, receive CC (clomiphene citrate), the most
common risk is:
a. OHSS.
b. Multiple pregnancies.
c. Thrombosis.
18.Patient with duodenal atresia / esophageal atreia:
a. Baby with down
b. 30% risk of down
c. 45% risk of down
d. Normal baby.
19.Fragile X syndrome:
a. Most common cause of genetic mental retardation.
b. High in males than females.
(a is also right from up to date)
20.Most common sign in turner:
a. Webbed neck.
b. Short status.
21.Choroid plexus cyst is highly associated with:
a. Trisomy 18
b. Trisomy 13
22.The most common HPV associated with VIN and squamous cell cancer is :
a. 16
b. 18
c. 6
d. 11
23.Most common vulvar cancer with hematogenus spread is:
a. Melanoma.
b. Pagets disease.
c. Adeno-cancer.
d. Basal cell cancer.
24.Patient is taking combined oral contraceptive pills, 20meq ethanol estradiol,,
increase weight by 35 kg, what reliable contraception:
a. Depo-Provera.
b. Continue OCP with diet and exercise.
c. Progesterone only pills.
d. Condom.
25.Depo-Provera injection:
a. Normal BMD (bone mineral density).
b. Not effecting STD transmission rate.
26.Patient pregnant on IUCD 10 weeks, the most important action:
a. Keep IUCD.
b. Remove IUCD.
27.Patient with a history of ectopic managed by salpingectomy, pregnant 6
weeks, present with mild abdominal pain, HCG 1500, after 2 days 3200, US (
luminal endometrium + adnexal mass .6 X 1.2) the most important plan of
management is:
a. Conservative
b. MTX
c. Salpingectomy.
28.Patient PG 39 weeks, 2 cm footling breech, WBC 15,600, PLT 40,000 glucose
90, the most suitable anesthesia:
a. Para-cervical block.
b. GA.
c. Spinal block.
d. Epidural block.
29.Patient with claw hand, the nerve injured:
a. C7,T1
b. C6,7
30. 36 weeks, ROM (rupture of membrane) the most important Dx of PPROM is:
a. Nitralazine
b. Ferning
c. 1 cm dilatation.
d. Clear pooling in the vagina.
31.The most common single gene is:
a. Thalassemia
b. SCD (sickle cell disease)
32.In trans vaginal ultrasound:
a. Fetal cardiac activity can be detected as early as 8 weeks.
b. By 12 weeks you cannot differentiate between head and body.
c. By 13 weeks physiological omphalocele can be seen.
33.Molar pregnancy:
a. Risk of chorio-carcinoma is 2-5%
b. Ultrasound demonstrates increase in echogenicity in myometrium.
c. Placental trophoblastic tumor is cystic.
d. Differ mass.
34.Patient pregnant in top of IUCD, had a History of ectopic, now she is 7 weeks,
the most important RF in recurrent of ectopic is:
a. Previous ectopic
b. IUCD
35.The most important risk factor for NTD is:
a. Family Hx.
b. Drugs and medication.
c. Inherited disease.
36.In PGD:
a. Taken 1-2 cells as the embryonic stage after 5 days
b. Detect single gene defect
c. Not useful in fragile X syndrome
37.Pregnant 10 weeks, 42 years old, asthmatic, occasional nausea,
asymptomatic, Urine analysis (+ve nitrite, +ve leukocyte) Urine culture
(50,000 E.coli) the best management is:
a. Antibiotics
b. Repeat cultures
c. Wait until symptoms appear.
38.Patient, recently married, with coitus problem, especially of intercourse, no
vaginal infection, the most common cause:
a. Trichomonus infection.
b. Psychiatric cause
39.Newborn male external gentalia, empty scrotum, by US testis in the
abdomen, uterus seen, the most important cause is:
a. Absent AMH.
b. Absent testosterone
c. XX46
d. Remnant ovarian tissue
40.Match between tumor and hormone:
a. Dysgermenoma LDH
b. Chorio-carcinoma
c. Endodermal sinus tumor
41.Risk of invasive cancer in endometrial hyperplasia and atypia:
a. 25-30%
42.Rrisk of complex hyperplasia with atypia:
a. 25-30%
43.The most common hormonal ovarian tumor is:
a. Gonadoblastoma
b. Epithelial
c. Germ cell tumor
d. Sex cord tumor
44.Granulosa cell tumor associated with:
a. Endometrial hyperplasia
45.The most common ovarian tumor in pregnancy is:
a. Epithelial
b. Germ cell tumor
46.Black woman on OCP, wants to know her risk factor for breast cancer,
No family History, No lesion, Asymptomatic, Medically free, Previous 2 C/S:
a. No need for BRACA I/II
b. BRACA I/II is recommended
47.Patient is 39 years old nulliparous, mother died of ovarian cancer at age 68,
sister at age 48, BRACA I/II ve,, risk of cancer is:
a. 5-7%
b. 10-20%
48.Patient with CIN III treated by cryotherapy,, failure rate:
a. 10-20%
b. 25-30%
c. 5-10%
d. 40-40%
49.Characteristic of trisomy 18:
a. polydactyl
b. st??? hand
c. IUGR
d. Rocker bottom foot
50.Patient 32 weeks in 1st ANC, BP: 142/92, came with palpitation X3 months,
with anxiety came to the ER at admission BP 160/102 it is:
a. Pheochromocytoma
b. Adison
c. crones
d. Pituitary Cushing syndrome
51.Not recommended in the treatment of infective endocarditis:
a. VSD
b. ASD
c. Prosthetic heart valve
52.In the androgen insensitivity syndrome the defect with androgen:
a. Receptors
b. Aromatization
c. 5 alpha reductase
53.All related to paternal age except:
a. Hemophilia
b. Achrondroplasia
c. Hereditary spherocytosis
54.Most related to increase maternal and paternal age:
a. Triploidy
b. Euploid
c. Trisomy
d. Tetraploid
55.In patient with phenylketonuria:
a. Preconceptional counseling is not for phenylanin restriction.
b. Fetus may inherit the disease
c. No fetal damage
d. No diagnostic test
56.Patient with dysuria, urine culture ve, diagnosed to her gonorrhea, the most
common associated infection is:
a. Chlamydia
57.Patient with PMS with treatment with ???? treatment with OCP for ???
symptoms related the symptoms except for ???,,, the most next plan:
a. Finasteride
b. SSRI
58. 29 years old DM, controlled, delivered by C/S, no complication, not obese,
no other problem, wants contraception:
a. OCP (low dose) after breast feeding completed.
59.Female with congenital adrenal hyperplasia +ve, irregular cycle treatment is:
a. Low dose daily corticosteroids
b. Low dose daily testosterone
60.In regards to the ureter from key surgical point:
a. 2 cm from parametrical ligament
b. 4 cm from upper of the vagina
c. 3 cm from infandebiolo-pelvic ligament
61.Recommended low dose (1mg) folic acid in:
a. Vegetarian diet
b. Sulfasalazine treatment
c. Hereditary spherocytosis
d. Carbamazepine treatment
(It should be avoided or lowered in Megaloblastic anemia, phenytoin treated pt.)
62.Vaccination not recommended in pregnancy is:
a. Hep. B
b. MVP vaccine
c. Rubella vaccine
63.The next most important ultrasound finding in down syndrome in 2nd
trimester:
a. NT
b. Nucal fold thickness
c. Nasal hypoplasia
64.What is the risk of down syndrome if the father is with balanced
translocation and the mother is normal:
a. 1%
b. 3% (4.5 in Wikipedia)
c. 15%
d. 30%
65.the most common complication of IUI:
a. Uterine contraction.
b. infection
66.Concentrated, washed semen with low no. of sperm, referred to:
a. Necro-spermia
b. Cryo-spermia
c. Aspermia
d. Azethenospermia
67.Patient conceived by ICSI forgot her LMP, the most apparent method to
count the GA:
a. Embryo transfer
b. Date of stimulation +2 weeks
68.39 weeks previous 1 C/S, suddenly stopped contraction, fetal head rate
dropped to 85, fetal part felt by abdomen, bloody urine, the most important
action:
a. Immediate laparotomy
b. Oxytocin therapy
c. Observation
69.Patient in labor, previous baby 3.8kg, reached 7 cm, in two consecutive
examinations, EFW 3.2kg this is called:
a. Protracted labor
b. Arrest of latent phase
c. Secondary dystocia
(Arrest of labor is diagnosed at cervical dilation 6 cm dilation in a patient with ruptured membranes and:
No cervical change for 4 hours despite adequate contractions
No cervical change for 6 hours with inadequate contractions)
70.Patient in 40 weeks complaining of decreased fetal movement, planned for
B.P.P. you did NST reactive, in the second step:
a. AFI.
b. Fetal tone
c. Fetal breathing
71.Intrahepatic cholestasis, associated with:
a. 3rd stage hemorrhage
b. Jaundice is the landmark.
72.Intrahepatic cholestasis associated with:
a. PTL
b. Increased acid phosphatase
c. Decrease alkaline phosphatase
73.Acute fatty liver of pregnancy
a. Appear in 2nd trimester
b. Marked hypoglycemia
c. 5% of all pregnancy
74.Patient at 41 weeks pregnant with mild pain, cervix is posterior, -3, 1 cm, the
most important next step is:
a. IOL, if favorable cervix
b. Kick chart, to be induced if less than 10 movements in 8 hours
c. Admit for C/S
d. B.P.P. + Doppler
75.Which is the most common cause of tachycardia in pregnancy
a. Supraventricular tachycardia
76.Which is in appropriate in management of supraventricular tachycardia at 27
weeks:
a. Dioxin
b. Amiodaron
c. Clanopril
d. Adinosin
77.The most common non infective vulvar disease:
a. Eczema
b. Linchen planus
c. Linchin sclerosis
d. Vulvo-vaginitis
78.The most common skin vulvar disease is:
a. Contact dermatitis
b. Linchin planus
c. Hydradentis suppurative
d. Psoriasis
79.Treatment of patient with vulvitis + atrophic vaginitis:
a. Local estrogen treatment
b. Local steroid
c. Local testosterone
80.If a recto-vaginal fistula is identified, initial treatment should include
a) Diverting colostomy
b) Bowel resection
c) Rectal pull-through operation
d) Vaginal repair of the fistula
e) Systemic steroids and antibiotics
81.Patient delivered 3 weeks ago with midiolateral episiotomy, repaired, she
presented with urinary leaking, found to have cystocele and rectocele II, no
uterine prolapse, the most important next step:
a. Do urodynamics
b. Kegal exercise
82. In kegal exercise you are strengthening the:
a. Pubococcegius
83.Explaining to the patient about kegal exercise except:
a. Voluntary contraction of pelvic floor mucsles
b. Involuntary contraction of pelvic muscle
c. Voluntary contraction using nerve stimulator
d. Voluntary contraction using vaginal wt.
84.definition of hot flushes:
a. prephral vasodilation reflecting body temperature
b. Increase in LH
85.Foot drop associated with:
a. Pudandal nerve injury
b. Common perineal nerve injury
86.The most unlikely nerve to be injured in pregnany:
a. Lateral femoral cutaneous
b. Optic nerve
c. Facial nerve
87.Variability on CTG:
a. Least associated with analgesic use
b. If 30 weeks verity between fetal heart at rest and movement
88.The minimum O2 accepted for baby
a. 10%
b. 20%
c. 30%
d. 40%
89.Placental site trophoblastic disease:
a. Increase intermediate cytotrophoblast
b. High concentration of syncitotorphoblast
c. HCG is very high
d. Human placental lactogen is not a tumor marker
90. DM with nephropathy, most common complication is:
a. Shoulder dystocia
b. PET
91. Solution can be given in hydronephrosis gravida:
a. Hartmans solution
b. 5% dextrose
c. 10% dextrose
d. Double straight Normal saline
92.Baby with father is having congenital heart disease, the risk of the baby:
a. 3%
b. 6%
c. 10%
d. 30%
93.Increase in NT (nuchal translucence) + normal karyotyping:
a. Congenital heart disease
94.Patient exposed to varicella zoster in pregnancy, management is:
a. IV.IG up to 3 weeks post exposure
b. VZV can be given after 24weeks.
95.VBAC in a patient with primi C/S:
a. Endometritis + blood disease is 3-5% more in VBAC than elective C/S
b. Prior VBAC is the most important predictor of successful VBAC
c. Success rate is 80-90%
d. Risk of rupture is 2 / 100
96.VBAC:
a. Decreased C/S interval increase risk of rupture
b. Foly catheter used to ripe the cervix
c. Oxytocin is contraindicated
d. PGE2 associated with decreased rupture rate
97.Previous C/S due to failure to progress, presents after 5 days with fever, the
most important cause:
a. Endometritis
98.Rheumatoid arthritis with pregnancy:
a. MXT should be stopped once pregnant
99.Ovarian cancer associated with external papillary projections:
a. Mucinous cyst adenoma
b. Serous cyst adenoma
c. Endometriod cancer
d. Clear cell cancer
100. Long term complication of LEEP:
a. PTL
b. Abscess
101. Long term complication of LEEP + conization:
a. Cervical incompetence + stenosis
102. Patient with primary infertility, receives ovulation induction:
a. Sever OHSS associated with 2% VTE
b. IVF + gonadotropin injection associated with 15-30% risk of OHSS
c. Clomiphene citrate increase risk of OHSS
103. Patient with cancer breast should avoid pregnancy for:
a. 2-3 years
b. 1-2 years
104. Mucinous cyst adenoma of low malignancy, true is:
a. May associate with invasive implant
b. Associated with stromal invasion
c. Chemotherapy is the treatment of choice
105. Granulosa cell tumor stage I A grade I, best treatment is:
a. Unilateral sulpego-oophrectomy
b. Radiotherapy
c. Bilateral sulpego-oophrectomy + hysterectomy
106. 42 years old P5+0 aborted Histopathology complaining of molar
pregnancy:
a. Council patient for hysterectomy
b. Work up for F/U
107. Phantom B-HCG (def.)
a. Urine (PT) pregnancy test is +ve
b. Heterophile antibodies.
108. The most common uterine sarcoma is a (n)
a) Leiomyosarcoma
b) Endometrial stromal sarcoma
c) Endolymphatic stromal myosis
d) Malignant mixed mullerian tumor
e) lymphoma
109. Diagnosis of lio-myosarcoma:
a. Sudden increase in uterine size
b. HP finding of liomyosarcoma within myoma
110. Patient presented with abrupio, had C/S, require 3 PRBCs after 1 day
develop hematouria + abdominal pain, the most likely important to be rolled
out:
a. Acute cortical necrosis
b. UTI
c. Pyelonephritis
111. Pregnancy with DM
a. Insulin requirement increase postpartum
b. Congenital anomalies increase 10 folds
c. 25% associated with PET
112. Patient with a Hx of PE postpartum 7 years ago, treated with warfarin, not
on treatment currently, free of disease since that time, currently pregnant,
10 weeks, best plan of management:
a. Inohep in pregnancy and postpartum
b. Not at high risk
c. Dopplar is not good for diagnosis of DVT
113. PUPP (Pruritic urticarial papules and plaques of pregnancy):
a. No fetal risk
b. More common in 2nd trimester
c. Recisive is high
114. PUPP:
a. Treatment by local steroid + antihistamine
b. There is increase in maternal and fetal affect
c. Bad prognosis
115. Patient pregnant on IUCD the greatest risk is:
a. Spontaneous abortion
b. Ectopic
c. Septic abortion
116. Patient with abdominal pain, diagnosed as ectopic:
a. Presence of centrally located gestation sac is suggestive of pseudosac
and usually associated with ectopic
b. Any fluid in pouch of doglas is suggestive of ectopic
117. In Rh disease:
a. Anti kell is not bad antibody
b. Amniotic fluid bilirubin correlate well with fetal Hct
c. Fetal cell from maternal serum is 100% diagnosis of fetal blood group
and type
118. Cervical cancer + radiotherapy
a. Use 30Gy in treatment
b. 1st should be extended to involve para-aortic LN
c. Can lead to primary cancer in 20 years
119. Vulvar cancer treatment:
a. Unilateral latrial mass bilateral LN dissection
b. Clitoral mass 3 cm, local excision + bilateral LN dissection by two
separate incision
120. PG 2 hours Rt occipto transverse fully for 2 hours, no anesthesia, progress
from 0 to +2, your management:
a. No action
b. Deep transvers arrest
c. Forceps + vacuum
121. Bartholin abscess scenarios:
a. Incision and drainage
122. Baby with skin rash, mother dry mouth, gritting eyes, diagnosis:
a. Sjogran syndrome
b. Rubella
123. Patient with restrictive lung disease, fluid show granulomatous infarction,
red eye, diagnosis:
a. TB
b. Sarcoidosis
124. Baby with occipto anterior:
a. Use plastic cup better than metallic
125. In twins
a. Anomalies are more with monozygotic twins
b. Conjoint more common in dizygotic
126. Which is associated with increased fetal bowl atresia:
a. Amnio patch
b. Cordocentesis
c. CVS
d. Amniocentesis with mythalen blue
127. ECV:
a. Should be conducted at 34 weeks
b. Success rate is 90%
c. If failed at first time it should be abandoned
d. Use of B2 agonist increase rate of success
128. In ulcerative colitis:
a. Cannot be inherited to the fetus
b. In on corticosteroids parvovirus P19 should be tested
c. Backache and headache should be investigated
129. You were called for shoulder dystocia for 2 minutes (you are the most
senior obstetrician on call), next step:
a. Suprapubic pressure
b. Macrobert maneuver
c. Call for help
d. Wood screw maneuver
130. In management of labor pain, evidence associated with lower surgical
instumination:
a. Support and explanation
131. Reactive NST indicated will ????????? between:
a. F +ve
b. F ve
132. Postpartum 1 week, episiotomy non infected, broken down, afebrile,
normal lochia, management:
a. Antibiotic
b. Primary closure
c. Secondary closure
133. Precipitated labor, 3rd degree tear, good hemostasis, vitally stable, patient
unable to walk, inspection large fluctuant bluish swelling,, management:
a. Incision and drainage
b. Observation + analgesia
c. Antibiotics
134. Patient with hydrosalpenx, managed by sulpengectomy, for IVF,
mechanism of hydrosalpnix in preventing pregnancy is:
a. Interfere with implantation
135. Patient P1+0 presents with secondary infertility + amenorrhea, decreased
libido, lethargy, post-delivery she was not able to breast feed, diagnosis:
a. Shehan syndrome
b. Asherman syndrome
136. Candida in pregnancy:
a. Account for 10%
b. Congenital candidiasis doesnt affect the baby
c. Fluconazole is the drug of choice
137. Chemotherapy with pregnancy:
a. Associated with congenital anomalies in 3%
b. Most is lipid soluble not crossing the placenta.
138. Suction curettage can be done up to:
a. 12 weeks
b. 10 weeks
c. 18 weeks
139. Medical termination of pregnancy is accepted up to . As outpatient:
a. 10 weeks
b. 7 weeks
c. 9 weeks
140. Definition of stress incontinence:
a. Involuntary gush of urine with frequency
b. Voluntary gush of urine with effort
c. Voluntary drop of urine with effort
141. Postpartum came for stapler removal, has anxiety + stressful, no harm
feeling, diagnosis:
a. Postpartum blue
b. Postpartum mania
c. Postpartum psychosis
d. Postpartum depression
142. Term in labor, ROM x 6 hours, unfavorable cervix,, plan:
a. Discharge her
b. Admit for augmentation.
143. Previous C/S for VBAC, EFW= 3.2KG, PV for 2 exams with same findings,
contracting 2/10, next step:
a. Oxytocin augmentation
b. Observation
c. Analgesia
d. C/S
144. Radiation in pregnancy:
a. Chest X-ray= 20 abdominal X Rays
b. CT associated with increase fetal cancer risk
145. In needle stick injury, the most common infection:
a. Hep.B
b. Hep.C
c. HIV
146. In follow up of patient with ejection HTN, NST should be performed:
a. 48 hours
b. 72 hours
c. 96 hours
d. 120 hours
147. Decrease risk of perennial pain:
a. Contentious locked suture
b. 0.5 interrupted skin approximation without closure
c. Use interrupted is better than subcutaneous suture
148. Patient 26 years old P3+0, receives HPV vaccine 2 years ago, cytology=
HSIL, next management:
a. Colposcopy
b. Repeat cytology in 1 year
c. Another booster of vaccine
149. 68 years old with exofetic vulvar mass 2 cm, presented since 3 months,,
best treatment:
a. Excisional biopsy
b. No further treatment
150. In vulvar cancer:
a. If deep femoral node is +ve, ilial node should be dissected
151. Patient with recto-vaginal fistula:
a. Endoanal ultrasound
152. Patient with AGUS, next step:
a. Colposcopy, ECC + endometrial biopsy
153. 49 years old with Hx of heavy period 3 weeks post last menses, on OCP,
her cycle is regular, 4-5 days best next step is:
a. Endometrial biopsy
b. Pelvic US
c. Hysterectomy
d. Colposcopy
154. Patient with Hx of PTL at 28 weeks baby alive, had cervical circulage at
14 weeks currently 24 weeks, ROM, AFI=2 CM, fundal height is 20
weeks,, next step:
a. Remove circulage and augment
b. Remove cirulage and observe
c. Keep it until contracting then remove it
d. Antibiotics
155. Patient came for amniocentesis, in counselling at 16 weeks:
a. Amniotic fluid leakage is of no importance
b. If chorioamnionitis occur, no need for antibiotics
c. No risk of limp reduction
156. Most common malignant endometrial cancer with hematogenous spread:
a. Adenosarcoma
b. Carcinosarcoma
c. Endometrial stromal
d. Liomyosarcoma
157. HIV in pregnancy:
a. Neonatal anemia associated with zidoviden
158. P1 + 3 Hx of 3 consecutive abortions, delivered by C/S, presented 2 weeks
with fever T=38.6, breast soft, lax, uterus well contracted, no tenderness,
urine analysis is ve, the most important cause to be rolled out:
a. Thrombophlebitis
b. Puerperal mastitis
c. Uterus sub involution
159. In regard to ovarian vein thrombophlebitis:
a. Left side is the most important cause (right side more)
b. Should be managed by veinectomy
c. May go to the iliac vein
160. P3+0 diagnosed to have stage I endometrial cancer, wants to keep her
uterus, started on megstrol 80 mg PO daily, came complaining of irregular
bleeding X 3 weeks, next plan:
a. Increase the dose to 160 mg daily
b. Insert mirena
161. Patient presented with severe pain after last cycle, PA: palpable Rt.
Abdominal mass, U/S: Rt. Kidney, central hemogenic mass, uterus
a. Unicorniat uterus with hemi-vaginal obstruction
b. Fallobian cyst
162. Young girl with secondary sexual characteristics, had menarche,
presented with whitish discharge, no symptoms, no UTI, all investigations for
trichinous ,vaginal wash= -ve diagnosis is:
a. Physiological leucorrhea
163. 2 weeks post C/S presented with purulent discharge from the wound, a
lot of pus evacuated, wound opened till the half ,, next step:
a. IV antibiotics
b. Dressing
c. Oral antibiotics
164. Patient with MS newlywed, wants to get pregnant, in remission, you will
advise her:
a. Postpond pregnancy 1 year more
b. She can get pregnant
c. Pregnancy will worsen her condition
165. Patient epileptic, wants to get pregnant
a. A trail to stop drugs can be done in she is free from fits X 3 years
166. Patient with asthma:
a. Baby is having the same risk of engaging the disease as general
population
b. 30% of patients will improve the disease in pregnancy
167. Patient with trisomy 18 term in labor, your management plan:
a. Vaginal delivery regardless if baby tolerated the labor or not
b. C/S for baby
c. C/S if fetal heart drop
168. Which of the following regarding radical vulvectomy + bilateral
lypmhnode excision:
a. Basal cell cancer
b. Malignant melanoma with depth of 10 mm
c. Squamous cell cancer with 7 mm depth
d. Carcinoma of 1 mm depth
169. PUD (peptic ulcer disease) in pregnancy:
a. Incidence increase
b. HP must be define
170. APS (anti-phospholipid syndrome) should be managed by:
a. Prophylactic low dose heparin + ASA
171. Most common site of cervical cancer is:
a. Endo cervix
b. S-C junction
c. Ecto cervix
172. Colposcopy:
a. View the cervix 1-4 X power magnification.
b. See the entire TZ in all patients
c. Choose the most suspected area on the cervical portion
d. Make diagnosis cancer
173. In regard to fetal growth:
a. In the 2nd half of pregnancy, fetal growth is by environmental factors
more than genetic
b. Female male on average at term
c. Smoking marijuana associated with maternal hypotension
d. Dopplar dichotic notch in uterine artery indicator of low resistance
within the vessel
174. 42 years old P3+0 Patient presents with confusion delivery, U/S showed
bulky uterus with a mass, the most important investigation to be done:
a. B-HCG
b. MRI
c. Neurological
175. The important part in the sperm which penetrate the peliucida is:
a. Acrosomal
b. capacita
176. Chicken pox:
a. Ultrasound for fetal anomaly
177. PTL + ultrasound:
a. Increase the negative predictive value of 3 cm at 24 weeks
178. Baby with complete heart block:
a. Anti Ia
b. Anti
179. Spinal block absolute contraindication:
a. Increase in CP + mass effect
180. The most common heart defect in down syndrome:
a. A.V. canal defect
b. Hypoplastic heart
181. Even after menopause most women have circulating estrogen. In high
enough levels, this can promote the development of endometrial cancer. It
mainly originates from the aromatization of
a) Androstenedione to estrone by ovarian granulosa cells
b) Androstenedione to estrone by ovarian thecal cells
c) Androstenedione to estrone by adipose tissue
d) Testosterone to estradiol by adipose tissue
e) Estradiol to estrone by adipose tissue
182. What percentage of clinical stage I carcinomas of the cervix will have
lymphatic spread?
a) 0%
b) 5%
c) 15%
d) 25%
e) 40%
183. Patient came PROM at 36 weeks, previous 1 C/S:
a. Start oxytocin
b. NTD with recognizable risk factors
c. Genetic
184. Appendicitis:
a. It will change in place with pregnancy
b. Incidence doesnt increase in pregnancy
185. The most controversy:
a. Breast feeding cessation
186. Pregnant patient came for breast screening:
a. Not recommended
187. In early scan, what is earliest time to detect ventricular septal defect:
188. Medication of SLE contraindicated in pregnancy.
189. Safest epileptic drug in pregnancy
190. What is the 1st line of management of pelvic organ prolapse
191. What is the 1st investigation for vulvar pruritus
192. Endometrial cancer and ??????
193. Which of the following ?:
a. Trisomy 22
b. Trisomy 21
c. Trisomy 18
d. Trisomy 13
194. Patient with HISL in pregnancy
195. Bartholin abscess scenarios
196. Trans-vaginal US in measuring cervical length in a patient with preterm
labor
