COMMUNICABLE DISEASE POSTTEST 10. Agents that inhibit growth of some microorganism.

It is safe to use in
skin tissue
A. Disinfectant
1. Which of the following statements best describes Communicable B. Alcohol
Disease? C. Sanitizer
A. It is applied to diseases that are easily spread directly from one D. Antiseptic
person to another. 11. What do you call the objects that are contaminated with an infectious
B. Is an illness caused by an infectious agent or its toxic products agent like Bacteria, Viruses, Fungi, Rickettsia, Chlamydia, Protozoa or
that are transmitted directly or indirectly to a well person through Parasites?
an agency, and a vector or an inanimate object. A. Agent
C. A disease produced by the invasion of the body tissues with B. Fomites
pathogenic microorganisms which multiply and produce the signs C. Vector
and symptoms of disease D. Vehicle
D. All of the above 12. What stage of infection pertains to the interval between entrance of
2. Microorganisms have the ability to invade the body tissues and pathogenic microorganism to the appearance of the unique sign and
proliferate causing infection. One factor is virulence of the organism. symptom of a specific infection?
What is the other factor? A. Stage of illness
A. weakness of the body B. Prodromal stage
B. weakness of the organism C. Incubation period
C. resistance of the body D. Convalescence
D. resistance of the organism 13. A 3 year old boy with tetralogy of fallot after 7 days of fever has whitish
3. What type of immunity is developed through introduction of antibodies to bluish specks on his buccal area after attending a childrens party.
that comes from other sources such as human serum or from animals? As the pediatric nurse assigned to this client you must suspect that the
A. Natural active child is in what stage of infection?
B. Natural passive A. Convalescence
C. Artificial active B. Incubation period
D. Artificial passive C. Prodromal stage
4. The immediate and continuous disinfection of infected discharges and D. Stage of illness
articles: 14. A 42 year old male client has Community Acquired Pneumonia (CAP)
A. Concurrent disinfection hence the attending physician ordered airborne precaution. The
B. Terminal disinfection following are interventions for a client under airborne precaution except:
C. Quarantine A. Wear an N95 respirator when visiting the patient
D. Sterilization B. Wear a mask when working within 3 feet away from the client
5. Type of Immunoglobulin that is detected first after exposure to an C. Place the client in a private room or a client infected with the
antigen: same organism
A. IgM antibodies D. Instruct family members and caregivers to wear respiratory
B. IgG antibodies devices
C. IgD antibodies 15. If a disease is said to be highly communicable like SARS,
D. IgG antibodies Meningococcemia or Avian Influenza isolation must be implemented by
6. Legal responsibilities of the nurse regarding protection and control of the Communicable Disease Nurse (CDN), which among the following
CD definition best describe the word isolation?
1. Isolation of the CD case A. Isolation is the separation of infected individual from those who
2. Carry out of quarantine laws are uninfected for the maximum incubation period of a specific
3. Assist in surveillance and case finding disease
4. Report cases to the health authority B. Isolation is the limitation of freedom of movement of a well
A. Only 1 & 2 individual exposed to a specific disease for the maximum
B. All of the above incubation period
C. All except 2 C. Isolation is the limitation of freedom of movement of a well
D. None of the above individual exposed to a specific disease for the maximum
7. It is a system that will isolate all moist and potentially infectious communicability period
substance from all patient: D. Isolation is the separation of infected individual from those who
A. Standard precaution are uninfected for the maximum communicability period of a
B. Body substance isolation specific disease.
C. Handwashing 16. The following are not a type of transmission based precaution except:
D. Transmission base precaution A. Borreliosis
8. Hospital waste management program is a new requirement before B. Consumption Disease
construction of a facility. The hospital personnel required to train in C. Dandys fever
waste management to prevent which of the following? D. Weils Disease
A. Cross infection 17. Nurse Sakura Chan just finished rendering care to a patient with
B. Communicable disease Consumption Disease in an isolation room. Nurse Sakura begins to
C. Nosocomial infection remove her personal protective equipment (PPE). What should she
D. Transmission of disease remove first?
9. Destruction of pathogenic microorganism outside the body by directly a. Mask
applying physical and chemical means but does not kill bacterial b. Goggles
spores: c. Gown
A. Sterilization d. Cap
B. Fumigation 18. Lia lives in Palawan, known to be endemic area for Filariasis. Endemic
C. Disinfection means that?
D. Antiseptic
a. The pattern of occurrence and distribution is continuous throughout a SITUATION: Malaria is one of the major health problems in Palawan.
period of time. Knowledge of the nature of this disease and its mode of transmission will
b. The pattern of occurrence and distribution is intermittent of a few isolated help the nurse in planning and implementing preventive control measures.
and unrelated cases in a given locality. 27. As a prevention for malaria, you educate people living in malaria
c. The pattern of occurrence and distribution is unusually large number of endemic areas to do which of the following:
cases in a relatively short period of time.
d. The pattern of occurrence and distribution is simultaneous occurrence of A. Avoid going out between 12 nn to 3 am
the same disease in several countries. B. Take chloroquine tablets once a day
19. Mang Andres, who is one of the attendees in you seminar, asks you what C. Apply insect repellant on house walls
can be done to prevent the spread of a disease. Your appropriate response D. Use long sleeved shirts when going out at night
would be based on the easiest link to break, which is: E. Plant Neem tree in their back yards
a. Portal of Exit F. Clear hanging branches near rivers
b. Reservoir or Environment
c. Mode of Transmission a. A, B, C, D, E, F
d. Portal of Entry b. B, C, D, E, F
20. As part of your duties as Community Health Nurse you conduct a c. C, D, E, F
seminar about Immunization. One of your attendees ask you what type of d. B, C, D,E
immunity can an infant get through breast feeding your appropriate response 28. You are assigned in Palawan where there is a sudden increase in the
would be? occurence of malaria. As a preventive measure to your pregnant clients, you
a. Natural:Passive will:
b. Artificial:Active a. Instruct the patient to wear long sleeve and pants all the time and apply
c. Natural:Active mosquito repellants when going out of the house to protect themselves from
d. Artificial:Passive mosquitoes.
21. A client 3 year old client was rushed by his mother to the hospital with b. Tell the pregnant women to transfer to another place of residence
Diphtheria; assessment reveals temperature 38.5 degrees Celsius, temporarily until there are no more cases of malaria in the locality.
respiration 28 with presence of grayish pseudomembrane. The following are c. Give them each 2 chloroquine tablets to be taken every week as
the nursing care for a client with diphtheria except: prophylaxis
a. CBR to prevent myocarditis d. Perform fumigation to destroy all mosquitoes
b. Increase fluid intake to liquefy secretions 29. When monitoring laboratory results, the most important parameter
c. Oral hygiene with emphasized on the removal of pseudomembrane frequently checked in patient with Dengue is:
d. ANST before giving antitoxin a. Hematocrit
22. Which of the following is NOT an appropriate management of diphtheria: b. Platelet
a. Performing Moloneys test to determine hypersensitivity to antidiphtheria c. Prothrombin time
antitoxin d. Hemoglobin
b. Removal of pseudomembrane to decrease the toxic effects of diphtheria 30. Mateo, 23 years old sought consultation due to high grade fever for three
toxin days unresponsive to oral paracetamol, severe nausea and vomiting,
c. Performing emergency tracheostomy for suspected airway obstruction headache and malaise. After taking the vital signs, the nurse performs a
d. Aerosol inhalations and postural drainage of pulmonary secretion upon tourniquet test. Jumong is positive if:
doctors order a. There are 20 or more petechiae noted in 2.5 cm square
23. A common finding in patients with Diphtheria is the presence of b. There are 20 or more petechiae noted in 1 inch square
pseudomembranes due to the necrosis of local tissues leading to c. There are 20 or more petechiae noted in 5 cm square
fibrinopurulent exudates. Which type of diphtheria is characterized by bull d. Both a and b
neck apperance? SITUATION: Abigail, a 12 year-old female, was brought to Dr. San Diegos
a. Nasal diphtheria clinic because of generalized rashes and was subsequently diagnosed with
b. Laryngeal diphtheria chickenpox.
c. Pharyngeal diphtheria 31. Nurse Sasuke recognizes the following as signs and symptoms of
d. Cutaneous diphtheria chickenpox:
24. A nurse provides home care instructions to the parents of a child a. Rashes which pass through stages of macule, papule, vesicle and pustule
hospitalized with Pertussis. The child is in convalescent more abundant on the face and extremities.
stage and is being prepared for discharge. Which of the following will not be b. Rashes which begin on the head and neck and spread cephalocaudally
included in the teaching plan? c. Red blotchy rashes which appears on the 3rd to the 7th day.
A. Maintain respiratory precautions and quiet environment for at least 2 d. Rashes which begin on the head and spread peripherally and more
weeks abundant on covered body parts.
B. Coughing spells may be triggered by dust or smoke 32. The following nursing interventions are appropriate for the patient,
C. Encourage fluid intake except:
D. Good handwashing techniques must be instituted to prevent spreading a. Increase oral fluid intake
of the disease to others b. apply calamine lotion to the lesions to decrease pruritus
25. The nurse is wary of possible spread of pertussis among children c. give aspirin for fever
because the period of greatest communicability is at what stage? d. Soap is omitted to prevent irritation
a. Incubation period 33. A nurse is performing an assessment on a child with chicken pox. The
b. Catarrhal stage mother of the child tells the nurse that child keeps scratching at night, and
c. Paroxysmal stage the nurse teaches the mother about the measures that will prevent an
d. Convalscent period alteration in skin integrity. Which statement of the mother indicates that the
26. If this is pertussis, the nurse will prepare which of the following drugs: teaching is effective?
a. Cephalosporins a. I will apply generous amounts of a cortisone cream to prevent
b. Tetracyclines itching .
c. Erythromycin b. I need to place white gloves on my childs hands at night.
d. Ciprofloxacin c. I need to keep my child in a warm room at night so that covers
will not cause my child to scratch.
 d. I will give my child a glass of warm milk at bedtime to help my b. Tetanus Antitoxin
child sleep . c. Diazepam (Valium)
34. The name for a comprehensive strategy which primary health services d. Anti-Tetanus serum
around the world is using to detect and cure TB patients 45. Nurse Shan Deok, who is caring for a child with symptoms of tetanus
a. National TB program responds to the childs parents request to assist their sons care by stating:
b. Direct Observe Treatment Short Course (DOTS) a. I can understand you wanting to help, but we must avoid all unnnecessary
c. Center for Communicable Diseases stimuli at this time
d. International TB Control Organization b. You may talk but dont touch him since it could cause uncontrolled
35. Tuberculosis is considered as the worlds deadliest disease remains as a seizures
major public health problem in the Philippines. The infectious agent that c. Tell me more about your concerns, we realize you must be so upset with
causes this disease in cattle is known as: the hospitalization. You may attend to your son as much as you wish.
a. Mycobacterium tuberculosis d. We encourage you to speak to him and touch him even though he is
b. Mycobacterium bovis unable to respond you
c. Wuchereria bancrofti 46. Tetanus is an acute disease caused by a bacillus growing in wounds and
d. Mycobacterium leprae at the site of the umbilicus among infants. The causative agent for tetanus is:
36. One of the early preventions against tuberculosis is: a. Gram (-)Aerobic
a. Prompt diagnosis and treatment of infectious cases b. Gram (-)Anaeobic
b. Improve social condition c. Gram (+)Aerobic
c. BCG vaccination of newborn d. Gram (+)Anaerobic
d. Make available medical and laboratory facilities for examination 47. Nurse Jang Gium asked Lady Gaga what she did immediately after the
37. As part of your duties as community nurse you are discussing about the incident. LGs response indicate correct understanding of first aid measure
nature of tuberculosis. Your attendees understand the discussion if they when she says that:
state that the primary diagnostic tool in tuberculosis to detect extent of lesion a. I ran after the dog and killed it before it can bite again.
is: b. I washed my wound immediately with soap and water.
a. X ray and culture c. I went to the drug store and bought 500mg antibiotic.
b.Direct sputum smear microscopy d. I went to the police station and reported the incident.
c. PPD skin test 48. The confirmatory diagnostic test for rabies:
d. X ray a. Negri bodies antibody test
38. A Mantoux test or Purified Protein Derivative (PPD) is interpreted after: b. Flourescent Rabies antibody test
a. 12 hours c. Immunodiagnostic procedure
b. 24 hours d. Nasal and throat swab
c. 36 hours 49. Rabies is preventable but not curable. The patient was given Imurab. The
d. 48-72 hours doses are given on the following schedule:
39.. Which clients are considered targets for DOTS Category II? a. Day 0, 3, 7, 14, 28
a. Sputum negative cavitary cases b. Day 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7
b. Clients returning after a default c. Day 3, 7, 10
c. Relapses and failures of previous PTB treatment d. Day 1, 7, 10, 11, 16, 22
d. Clients diagnosed for the first time through a positive sputum 50. Jang Gium interviewed Lady Gaga and her mother at the emergency
exam room to take the history before seeing a doctor. She told LGs mother not to
40. Treatment failure and relapses falls under what recommended category kill the dog because the dog will be:
of treatment regimen? a. Injected with a vaccine
a. Category I b. Confined at a veterinary clinic
b. Category II c. Observed for 10 days
c. Category III d. Treated with antibiotic against rabies
d. Category IV 51. Based on report that the Philippines ranked number six among the
41. Sauke stopped taking his medications prescribed in the hospital for PTB countries with the highest reported incidence of rabies in the world and
because he had no money to buy for the next months supply. He stopped considering that rabies is one of the most acurately fatal infections which
taking it for a few months then he goes to the nearest health center in their causes the death of between 200-500 Filipinos annualy, voluntary pre-
baranggay for check-up and treatment. Mr. Carlos will be placed under exposure prophylaxis among people who are at risk is highly recommended.
DOTS treatment regimen? These people include:
a. 2 HRZE / 2 HR a. Barangay tanod officials patrolling the streets at night, pet owners,
b. 2 HRZE / 4 HR veterinarians, animal handlers
c. 2 HRZES / 4 HRE b. All people living within an area where there are dogs that roam their
d. 2 HRZES / 1 HRZE / 5 HRE neighborhood
42. The most adverse side effect of Ethambutol is: c. Pet owners, animal handlers, health personnel working in anti-rabies units
a. Stomach upset and children below 15 years old.
b. Peripheral neuritis d. Pregnant women, side-walk vendors, pet owners, veterinarians an
c. Vertigo 52. A 22 year male was bitten by a rabid dog. To confirm whether the client
d. Optic Neuritis is infected with rabies, what test is to be done?
43. A nurse is reading a Mantoux skin test for a client with no documented a. FAT (Fluorescent Antibody Test)
health problems. The site has no induration and a 1mm area of ecchymosis. b. MAT (Microscopic Agglutination Test)
The nurse nterprets that the result is: c. LAT (Leptospira Agglutination Test)
a. Positive d. SSS (Slit Skin Smear)
b. Negative 53. The following are nursing management for rabies, except:
c. Uncertain a. Administration of tetanus prophylaxis and antibiotics
d. Borderline b. Locating and observing the rabid animal
44. Which of the following could be ordered to relieve the spasm in a patient c. Suturing the bite wound (techniques should allow adequate wound
suffering from tetanus? drainage)
a. Pen G Sodium d. Rubbing garlic on the wounds
SITUATION: Mr. Boy Abundat has been experiencing paresthesia on his 64. AH1N1 compose of 4 genes. These includes:
lower extremities for the past few months associated with a non-healing a. 2 genes from bird, 1 gene from pig and 1 gene from human
wound on his big toe. The skin b. 2 genes from pig, 1 gene from bird and 1 gene from human
c. 3 genes from human and 1 gene from pig
d. 2 genes from human, 1 gene from pig and 1 gene from bird
scraping on the site confirms presence of Mycobacterium leprae.
54. Of the following statements about Hansens disease, which one is false?
a. an early symptom is loss of sensation, sweating, and hair in a
localized patch of skin 65. As a nurse, you must do an assessment upon seeing a patient with
b. the incubation period is less than a month leprosy. Which one of the following is early sign and symptom?
c. treatment should include giving rifampicin with dapsone a. clawing of fingers and toes
d. the form the disease takes depends on the immune status of b. decrease or loss of sweating or hair growth
the victim c. contractures
55. The identification of M. Leprae is best seen on which of the following d. loss of eyelids or eyebrows
tests: 66. Which of the following attributes is/ are true of amoebiasis?
a. Agglutination test 1. Amoebiasis can cause amoebic liver abscess.
b. Direct microscopy 2. Entamoeba hystolitica is the etiologic agent and has two developmental
c. Skin biopsy stages which are the cyst and the trophozoite.
d. Acid fast bacilli 3. Source of infection is human excreta.
56. Preventive aspect of care is a priority consideration. Which of the 4. The cysts are resistant to levels of chlorine normally used for water
following vaccine is also preventive measure? purification.
a. BCG a. 1, 2,3
b. DPT b. 1, 3, 4
c. MMR c. 2, 3, 4
d. ATS d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
57. The following are late signs and symptoms of leprosy except: 67. Nurses should be aware that clinical features of amoebiasis include the
a. Madarosis following, except:
b. Loss of sensation on the skin lesion a. Bloody-mucoid stool
c. Clawing of fingers and toes b. Onset is sudden
d. Lagophthalmos c. Tenesmus
58. The nurse would expect the client to exhibit which of the following d. Diarrhea and abdominal distention
symptoms during icteric phase of viral hepatitis? 68. The patient asks the nurse what are the treatment modalities for
a. Light frothy urine amoebiasis. The nurse mentions the following as treatment modalities,
b. Yellowed sclera except:
c. Shortness of breath a. Metronidazole
d. Tarry stool b. Tetracycline
c. Fluid and electrolytes replacement
59. The physician determines that Hazel is in the icteric stage of Hepatitis A d.Praziquantel
infection. Which nursing intervention is not appropriate during this stage? 69. One of the most important responsibilities of a nurse is to provide health
a. Administering vitamin K as ordered education. Health education should tackle about the following, except:
b. Forcing fluids (3,000 ml or more daily)
c. Encouraging ambulation to prevent pneumonia a. Eat ground vegetables such as lettuce, carrots and the like regularly.
d. Providing mittens for the patient
60. Nurse Gorabhels is developing a plan of care for the client with viral b. Boil water for drinking or use purified water.
hepatitis, she should incorporate nursing orders that reflect the primary c. Avoid washing food from open drum or pail.
treatment. Emphasis will be on ensuring the client receives which of the
following? d. Cover left-over foods.
a. Generous fluid intake 70. A client with a bacterial pneumonia is to be started on IV antibiotics.
b. Adequate bed rest Which of the following diagnosis test must be completed before antibiotic
c. Regular antibiotic therapy therapy begins?
d. Regular check-up a. Urinalysis
61. Which of the following diets most likely be prescribed for a client with viral b. Chest X-ray
hepatitis? c. WBC count
a. High fat, low protein, low carbohydrates d. Sputum culture and sensitivity
b. Low sodium, low fat 71. Mr. Underson, 41 years old is brought by his wife Kim Chow to a doctors
c. High carbohydrates, high calorie, low protein clinic to be tested for filariasis upon the advise of their family physician. The
d. High protein, low carbohydrates most likely diagnostic test that he will undergo is:
62. Infectious hepatitis is: a. Immunochromatographic test ( ICT )
a. Hepatitis A b. Nocturnal Blood Examination
b. Hepatitis B c. Stool exam
c. Non A non B d. Urinalysis
c. Hepatitis D 72. Mr. Underson is in the acute stage of the disease, expected findings at
63. You will suspect bird flu if a person exhibits which of the following this time will include the following:
manifestations? a. Lymphangitis, lymphadenitis, epidydimitis
a. Fever, body weakness, vomiting, diarrhea,anorexia b. Hydrocele, lymphedema, elephantiasis
b. Fever, body weakness, cough, dyspnea, sore throat c. Orchitis, hydrocele, elephantiasis
c. Fever, cough, sore throat, diarrhea, bloody stools, hemoptysis d. Lymphangitis, lymphedema, orchitis
d. Difficulty breathing, sore eyes, hemoptysis, vomiting, diarrhea
SITUATION: Red tide poisoning is a syndrome of characteristic symptoms Respiratory
predominantly neurologic which occurs within minutes or several hours after Skin Contact
ingestion of poisonous shellfish. Sexual
73. Modes of transmission of red tide poisoning: 81. Which of the following species of Schistosoma, the causative agent of
1. Ingestion of raw or inadequately cooked bi-valve shellfish during red tide Schistosomiasis, is the only endemic to the Philippines?
season. Haematobium
2. Ingestion of raw or inadequately cooked mollusks during red tide season. b. Mansoni
3. Ingestion of raw or inadequately cooked fishes during red tide season. c. Japonicum
4. Ingestion of raw or inadequately cooked shrimps and crabs. d. Falciparum
a. 1,2 82. The nurse would anticipate that Mang Pedro will be taking which of the
b. 1, 2, 3 following drug:
c. 1, 2, 3, 4 a. Primaquine
d. 1, 2, 4 b. Metronidazole
74.Pedro has eaten infected tahong and sought consultation to the nearby c. Mebendazole
health center due to numbness, vomiting and tingling sensation. The nurse d. Praziquantel
anticipated the following as management to the patient: 83. The primary preventive measure against HIV-AIDS is:
1. The doctor would prescribe medication to the patient. a. Withdrawal
2. Advised the patient to cook shellfishes with vinegar the next b. Virus killing drugs
time around. c. Use of condom
3. Induced vomiting d. Foams and gels use
4. Instructed the patient to drink coconut milk and sodium 84. Transmission of HIV from an infected individual to another person
bicarbonate solution during the early stage of poisoning. occurs:
a. 1, 2, 3, 4 a. Most frequently in nurses with needle sticks
b. 1,2, 3 b. Only if there is a lagre viral load in the blood
c. 1, 2 c. In all infants born to women with HIV infection
d. 3, 4 d. Most commonly as a result of sexual contact
75. Individuals who ingested shellfish during red tide season should be SITUATION: A suspect cases of poliomyelitis is defined as any patient
monitored for: below 15 years old with acute flaccid paralysis.
1. numbness of face especially the mouth
2. vomiting, hematemesis and dizziness 85. Which of the following serologic types of poliovirus is the most frequent
3. tingling sensation, paresthesia and eventual paralysis of hands cause of paralytic poliomyelitis?
and feet a. Type I Brunhilde
4. floating sensation and weakness b. Type III Leon
a. 1, 2 , 3, 4 c. Type II Lansing
b. 1, 2, 3 d. Type IV Tigre
c. 2, 3, 4 86. Pandys test or Lumbar puncture is used for the CSF analysis. The
d. 1,3,4 expected finding of protein in the CSF is?
76. One of the residents in Brgy. Bagumbong asks the nurse if its a. Moderately elevated as disease progresses.
recommended to cook and eat tahong affected by red tide. The nurse is b. Remained normal throughout the course of illness.
correct in his response if he states: c. Decreased as disease progresses
a. Eating tahong affected by red tide can be eaten provided that it is cook d. None of the above
with vinegar to destroy the toxin. 87. Positive Hoynes sign is present in paralytic of poliomyelitis. Positive
b. Tahong is rich in iodine hence it should be eaten despite the red tide hoynes is:
warning issued by the proper authorities. a. Hyperextension or arching of the back.
c. Toxin of red tide is not totally destroyed upon cooking hence eating b. Stiffness and rigidity of spinal column.
tahong should be avoided. c. Resistance to full extension of knee when hip is flexed.
d. Red tide phenomena cannot affect tahong thus it can be safely eaten. d. Head falls back when the pt. is in supine position with
77. Organism that causes red tide: shoulders elevated.
a. Pyromidium bahamense 88. All of the following are TRUE of poliomyelitis except:
b. Sarcoptes scabiei var. hominis a. MOT is thru fecal-oral route
c. Yersinia b. Poliomyelitis affects chiefly the anterior horn of CNS
d. Pediculus humanus c. Positive hoynes sign is present in paralytic polio
SITUATION: Mang Pedro Penduko, a ricefield farmer from Samar, sought d. The use of handroll, trochanter roll and footboard is
consult to a private MD regarding the progressive enlargement of his contraindicated.
abdomen associated with a history of watery stools and easy fatigability. SITUATION: Gloria, a 58 year old former politician was brought to the Jose
Impression was liver cirrhosis secondary to schistosomiasis. Reyes Medical Center after complaining of fever, headache and vomiting.
78. You know as a nurse that Schistosomiasis has an intermediate host. She was diagnosed with meningitis by Dr. Quack-quack.
What is it? 89. If Gloria develops sign of meningeal irritation, this may include the
a. Rat following, except:
b. Snail a. Nuchal rigidity
c. Mosquito b. Opistothonus
d. Tick c. Kernings Sign
79. What is the specific name of the intermediate host in the above question? d. Homans sign
a. Aedes poecilus 90. Which among the following is/are possible complication(s) in children
b. Wuchereria bancrofti with meningitis?
c. Oncomelania quadrasi a. Hydrocephalus
d. Plasmodium b. Blindness
80. The mode of transmission of schistosomiasis is: c. Deafness
airborne d. All of the above
91. An osmotic diuretic used in patients with meningitis to counter cerebral
edema includes:
a. Dexamethasone
b. Corticosteroid
c. Furosemide
d. Mannitol
92. A child is admitted with a diagnosis of meningococcal meningitis. The
nurse is aware that isolation:
a. of any kind is not required
b. will be required for seven days
c. must be maintained during the incubation period.
d. is required for 24 hours after onset of antibiotic therapy
93. The physicians order for a child admitted with meningitis includes
specific isolation. The nurse understands that the child be placed on:
a. Reverse isolation
b. Respiratory isolation
c. Enteric precautions
d. Syringe and needle precaution
94. In CSF analysis of patient with meningitis, the level, of protein is of
protein is:
a. Elevated/increased
b. Decrease
c. Fluctuating
d. none of the above
95. Stool exam is used as diagnostic exam in amoebiasis. Proper collection
of stool is a must. Which of the following should be advice to the patient?
a. Instruct patient to mix urine with stool
b. Small portion of stool is needed
c. Sending of specimen to the laboratory can be delayed.
d. Label specimen properly
96 Which of the following statements about measles is true?
a. It is an acute paramyxovirus infection
b. It is highly contagious
c. The prodromal period last for about two weeks
d. The rash usually begins behind the ears and neck
e. The cause of death is usually from complications
f. Serum antibodies appear on the third day of the incubation period

A. A, B, C, D, E, F
B. A, B, D, E
C. A, C, E, F
D. B, D, E

97. Which of the following describes Forscheimers spots in German

measles?
a. Buildup of keratin debris located superficially in the conjunctiva
b. Discreet pink blanching lesions
c. Benign flat congenital birthmark with wavy borders and irregular shape
d. Small red papules on the area of the soft palate
98. Which among the following offers the least chance to get infected with
HIV?
a. French kissing
b. Sexual contact
c. Drug users involving sharing of needles
d. Blood transfusion
99. Disease that is/are strongly associated with AIDS includes the following,
except:
a. Pulmonary tuberculosis
b. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
c. Kaposis sarcoma
d. None of the above
100. AIDS is most common in?
a. man and woman relationship
b. woman to woman relationship
c. man to man relationship
d. all of the above