Module 13 B2

1. Flaps at landing position

a) decrease take off and landing speeds,,
b) decrease take off..
* c) decrease landing

2. Lowering of the flaps..

* a) increases drag and lift
b) increases drag
c) increases lift

3. Pushing the left rudder pedal

* a) yaws the aircraft left and possibly the right wing will rise
b) yaws the aircraft left and possibly the left wing will rise
c) yaws the aircraft left but has no effect on the

4. What preventative maintenance can be carried out in case

of HIRF?
a) Check of aircraft structure..
b) Bonding and insulation tests
* c) Shielding of all sensitive equipment

5. What do ruddervators do?

* a) Control pitch and yaw
b) Control pitch and roll
c) Control yaw and roll

6. On a helicopter what is dragging?

a) Movement of each blade vertically about their lateral
hinges
* b) Movement of each blade horizontally about their vertical
hinge
c) Contact of the blade tips on the ground

7. What controls pitch and roll on a delta wing aircraft?

a) Elevators
b) Ailerons
* c) Elevons
8. If you add an aerial, to strengthen the airframe you
* a) an internal
b) external
c) an intercostals

9. What does a trim tab do?

* a) Eases control loading for pilot
b) Allows the C of G to be outside the normal limit
c) Provides finer control movements by the pilot column

10. How does a balance tab move?

a) In the same direction proportional to the control surface
it is attached to
b) In the same direction a small amount
* c) In the opposite

11. Satellite transmits updates on every

a) 13th orbit
b) 9th orbit
* c) 2nd orbit

12. Galley and cabin lighting operate on

a) DC bus
* b) AC bus
c) GND services

13. Buffer amp on transmitter is between

a) modulator and power amp
* b) local oscillator and modulator
c) local oscillator and demodulator

14. Aircraft is North of VOR beacon on a course of 090 RMI pointer,

points
a) 0
b) 090
* c) 180

15. What is power at pulse?

* a) Peak power
b) Pulsed power
c) Average power

16. What frequency increases radar relative range?

 a) High
* b) Low
c) Radar relative range can not be increased by frequency
change

17. If radar pulse is reduced there is

a) increased relative range
b) reduced relative range
* c) no effect

18. If an 80 ohm coaxial cable is connected to an 80 ohm dipole

aerial, resistance would be
* a) 80 ohm
b) 160 ohm
c) 0 ohm

19. Adding 6 foot of cable to TX RX aerials on rad. alt would

give you
a) 3 ft error
b) 6ft error
* c) 12 foot error

20. Maximum power on a wave guide is governed by the

a) widest width
b) narrowest width
* c) number of joints and bends

21. Which side of the pilot is the collective?

* a) Left
b) Right
c) In-between

22. What effect does the ground have on a helicopter?

* a) Increases lift
b) No effect
c) Increases thrust

23. What damps vibrations on a helicopter?

* a) Bifilar damper
b) Swash plate
c) Scissor levers

24. What design factors govern RPM of a helicopter rotor?

* a) Weight of blade
 b) Engine and gearbox
c) Fineness ratio

25. Relative velocity of rotor

* a) increases at fwd traveling blade
b) increases at retreating blade
c) is equal for all blades

26. When OAT increases what happens to an helicopter operating

ceiling?
a) Increase
* b) Decrease
c) No effect

27. How many satellites required for GNS?

a) 8
* b) 4
c) 6 90º apart

28. If on a lead-acid battery, several cell checks of SG read

consistently low Battery needs
a) topping up with distilled water
b) replacing
* c) recharging

29. What happens when battery master is switched off in flight?

* a) Battery disconnected from charge circuit
b) No effect
c) Electrical systems shut down

30. In MLS, what is the beam angle away from runway

a) 20 degrees
* b) 15 degrees
c)10 degrees

31. A full operational autopilot system will ensure that

a) the automatic pilot will automatically disengage whenever
any failure is detected
 b) the automatic pilot will automatically cause the aircraft to
overshoot if any failure is detected
* c) the aircraft will continue its automatic landing in the event
of a single failure

32. What is the 'Q' code for runway heading?

a) QDH
* b) QDM
c) QDR

33. During an automatic landing, the aircraft descent rate is

sensed by
a) pitch rate gyros
* b) radio altimeters
c) vertical accelerometers

34. The aircraft describing signal, used during auto-land,

originates from
a) roll errors
b) localizer deviation errors
* c) heading errors

35. An automatic throttle, engaged in the EPR mode, will control

a) the aircraft altitude to maintain constant engine input
pressure
b) the engine throttles to maintain a constant acceleration
rate
* c) the engine throttles to maintain a constant engine power
setting

36. Overshoot or go-around mode can be initiated

a) only when autopilot is engaged
* b) after glide slope capture
c) at any time

37. The wheel height at which the approach path has been visually
assessed as satisfactory to continue the approach to a landing is
known as the
* a) decision height
 b) intercept height
c) alert height

38. The International Civil Aviation Organization weather category

3A is
a) operation down to and along the surface of the runway
without external reference
b) operation down to sixty meters and RVR of 800 meters
* c) operation down to and along the surface of the runway
with RVR of 200 meters

39. Runway visual range in (RVR) is obtained by

a) information obtained the local Meteorological Office
b) three sets of instruments at the side of the runway
* c) one set of instruments the threshold of the runway

40. A category 3B aircraft using fail operational automatic landing

equipment which fail operational control and roll out guidance
will have
a) a decision height of about 50 feet
* b) no decision height
c)a decision height depending upon the RVR

41. The purpose of a yaw damper is to

a) assist the aerodynamic response
b) produce a coordinated turn
* c) block the Dutch roll frequency

42. In a triplex system, the detection of a failure of one simplex

system will disconnect
a) all channels
* b) the failed system and carry on with an auto land
c) the failed system and continue with a manual approach

43. Stand off errors on localizer approach are washed out by

a) differentiating deviation signal
b) integrating deviation signal
* c) integrating course error

44. With auto-throttle selected in the SPEED MODE compatible

autopilot modes are
a) VOR ARM and HDG HOLD
* b) IAS HOLD and ALT ARM
c) V/S and ALT ARM
45. Which modes are incompatible
a) VOR + ALTITUDE HOLD
b) G/S + ALTITUDE HOLD
* c) HDG + V/S HOLD

46. To carry out an autopilot check first

a) switch off all power
* b) ensure all control surfaces are unobstructed
c) switch on NAV receivers

47. FAIL PASSIVE means

a) system self monitors, failure does not affect system
* b) system self monitors, failure does affect system
c) system is duplicated, failure allows aircraft to continue
auto-land

48. On the approach the autopilot loses the LOC signal; the
aircraft would
a) fly a circle
b) increase its drift angle
* c) fly parallel to the beam

49. VOR capture can be determined by

* a) a predetermined level of the course error signal away
from the selected radial
b) is computed from the vectorial summation of the course
error and radio deviation signals
c) a predetermined level of the VOR deviation signal away
from the selected radial

50. Versine is generated by

a) torque receiver synchros
* b) synchros resolvers
c) control synchro transformers

51. Automatic trim is used to

* a) maintain level flight
b) prevents standing loads on the elevator
c) allow full authority to be regained by the aileron

52. An over station sensor (OSS) is triggered by

 a) measured radio deviation
* b) rate of change of radio deviation
c) rate of change of course

53. Synchronization circuits in autopilots ensure

a) that the trim indicators will read zero prior to
engagement
* b) that the autopilot control circuits are at zero demand
conditions engagement
c) that the aircraft will always be returned to straight and
level flight when the autopilot is engaged

54. In the FMS vertical navigation (V NAV) climb mode the throttles
are used for
* a) maintaining a computed EPR
b) controlling to a maximum thrust
c) correction minor speed deviations

55. The GA mode is usually initiated by

a) pressing a button on the control wheel
* b) pressing a button on thrust levers
c) making a selection on the mode control panel

56. On selection of the Turbulence Mode

a) the gain is doubled to reduce oscillation
b) the gain remains the same but signals are phase
advanced
* c) the gain is reduced to prevent stresses to the
airframe

57. To know the valid data base on the FMS

a) perform a BITE check
* b) call up the relevant page on the CDU
c) call up the relevant current status

58. Coordinated autopilot turns are achieved by

* a) yaw rate gyro signals
b) aileron to rudder cross-feed
c) aileron to elevator cross-feed

59. A yaw damper system operates on

a) all yaw frequencies
 b) only mid range frequencies
* c)low range frequencies

60. A GCR will trip if what is detected?

a) Under frequency and over frequency
b) Over frequency and under current
* c) Over current and over frequency

61. What is the impedance of VOR or HF aerial cables?

a) 75 ohms and 25 ohms
b) 25 ohms
* c) 50 ohms

62. To improve the image or picture when using the WRX

(weather radar receiver)
a) scan at a lower rate
* b) use shorter bursts
c) use longer bursts

63. In a vibrator type voltage regulator

* a) the resistor is in series with the field
b) parallel with the field
c) in series with the voltage coil

64. Where does it state what emergency equipment and what

levels of emergency equipment should be carried on an
aircraft
* a) BCAR section A4-8 or A8-4
b) JAR OPS (M)
c) Maintenance Manual

65. If a section of the emergency floor proximity lights are

inoperative
a) the aircraft cannot fly i.e. grounded until the defect
is fixed
b) the aircraft can fly but the section with the problem is
not used/shut off
* c) the aircraft is allowed to fly back to base where the
defect can be fixed
66. The tail Nav. light. What angle of divergence should it have?
a) 180 degrees
b) 120 degrees
* c) 140 degrees

67. When changing the brushes on a DC generator the brushes

must be bedded first, this can be done
* a) with the generator fitted to the aircraft
b) the generator taken off the aircraft and bedding done on
the bench
c) at the manufacturers only

68. What must be taken into account when measuring the SG or

relative density of a lead acid battery?
* a) The temperature
b) The ambient pressure
c) The ambient humidity

69. The polythene coating on a HF antenna wire is provided

* a) to prevent precipitation static build up
b) to prevent the wire from corroding
c)to prevent the wire from chafing

70. Weather radar domes are protected from lightning

strikes by
a) the use of special conductive paint
* b) bonding strips
c) special conducting or non-conducting grease

71. An elevator tab moves down

* a) to counteract for the aircraft flying nose heavy
b) to make the nose go down
c) to counteract for the aircraft flying tail heavy

72. The electrolyte in a Ni-cad battery can be checked by checking

* a) one cell at a time until all cells are completed
b) only the end cell as all the others will be the same
c) any single cell as all the others will be the same

73. In a RVSM system what is the tolerance level of separation

i.e.. + or - feet
a) 400ft
b) 160ft
 * c) 80ft

74. In a fly by wire system, pitch and roll control positions are
known by using
a) LVDTs for roll control surfaces and RVDTs for pitch
control surfaces
* b) LVDTs for roll and pitch control surfaces
c) RVDTs for roll and pitch control surfaces

75. In a CMC aircraft, flight deck indications and warnings are

managed and provided by
a) the central warning computer (CWC)
b) the electronic interface units (EIU)
* c) the engine indicating and crew alert system (EICAS)

76. What type of memory do C.M.C.s have?

a) Volatile
* b) Non-volatile
c) Hard

77. What is the purpose of the tail cone in helicopters?

a) To provide a balance for C. of G.
* b)To hold the stabilizers and tail rotor
c) To provide vibration damping to the tail rotor

78. An aircraft in climb maintains the same IAS. What is it's

true airspeed?
* a) Higher than its IAS
b) Lower than its IAS
c) The same as its IAS

79. The stall margin is controlled by

* a) EPR limits
b) speed bug cursor
c) angle of attack and flap position

80. When can the FMS be engaged with the auto-throttle

a) only with the Flight Director selected
b) With either the Flight Director or the Digital flight Control
System (DFCS) engaged
* c) only after take off
81. A full authority Digital Engine Control System (FADEC)
consists of
a) electronic engine control unit only
* b) electronic engine control unit and all its sensors
c) electronic engine control unit and throttle position
transmitter

82. A FADEC system does not have the following system?

a) An automatic starting capability
b) Control of thrust reverser operation
* c) Automatic control of engine fire extinguishers

83. Which is the correct sequence for an auto-land?

a) Glide slope capture, altitude hold and flare
* b) Localizer capture, glide slope capture, attitude hold
and flare
c) Localizer capture, glide slope capture, flare and attitude
hold

84. The wheel height at which the approach path has been visually
assessed as satisfactory to continue the approach to a landing
is know as the
* a) decision height
b) intercept height
c) alert height

85. The ICAO weather category 3A is

a) operation down to and along the surface of the runway
without external reference
b) operation down to 60 m and 800 m
* c) operation down to and along the surface of the runway
with RVR of 200m

86. A category II facility performance ILS has an intercept height of

a)15 m
* b) 60 m
c) 0 m

87. The facility performance ILS intersect height is the point

* a) where the aeroplane receives the first glide path signal
b) the localizer and glide path signals cross each other
c) where the aeroplanes first receives both the localizer and
glide path signals
88. The average risk of auto-land should not contribute a rate of
fatal accidents per landing greater than
a) 1 x 10-6
* b) 1 x 10-7
c) 1 x 10-8

89. Before an aeroplane is able to make an automatic landing the

a) ground radio aids must be at least CAT II
b) ground radio aids must be at CAT III
* c) ILS system must be working

90. For an aeroplane to be certified for automatic landing an

auto-throttle system is
* a) mandatory
b) a matter of choice for the operator
c) dependent upon the operation of the aeroplane at
slow speed

91. The overshoot or go around mode is initiated

a) automatically
b) by a selector on the throttle control panel
* c) by pushing the throttles forward to maximum

92. The aeroplanes autopilot is programmed to leave the glide

slope at
a) 300 ft
b) the decree phase
* c) start of flare phase

93. Overshoot or go-around mode can be initiated

a) only when the autopilot is engaged
* b) at any time after auto-land has been engaged
c) at any time

94. The following modes may be retained when overshoot has

been initiated after the selection of auto-land
a) ILS localizer and IAS
b) IAS and glide slope
* c) IAS and steering or heading

95. If go-around has been initiated after auto-land has been

 selected, the aeroplane will
a) increase speed
b) rotate nose up
* c) increase speed and rotate nose up

96. V NAV can be selected

a) alone
b) only if A/P and F/D selected
* c) only if A/T selected

97. If during auto-land the LOC signal is lost at 400 ft in final

approach
a) the system degrades to CAT II
b) the auto-land is continued
* c) a go-around is initiated

98. The order of auto-land approach is

* a) LOC, GS, ATT HOLD, FLARE
b) GS, LOC, ATT HOLD, FLARE
c) LOC, GS, FLARE, ATT HOLD

99. Purpose of an auto-land de-crabbing maneuver is to

a) assist with localizer tracking
b) assist with glide slope tracking
* c) point the aircraft down the runway at touch down

100. An auto-land failure monitoring system must ensure that

a) the automatic pilot will automatically disengage
whenever any failure is detected
b) the automatic pilot will automatically cause the aircraft
to overshoot if any failure is detected
* c) the aircraft will continue its automatic landing in the
event of single failure

101. The effective gain of the glide path receiver

a) is increased as the aircraft descends
b) remains constant as the aircraft descends
* c) is decreased as the aircraft descends
102. During an automatic landing , the aircraft descent rate is
sensed by
a) pitch rate gyros
* b) radio altimeters
c) vertical accelerometers

103. An autopilot with two separate power supplies is

a) fail passive
* b) fail operational
c) fail redundant

104. On touchdown, autopilot

* a) remains engaged ready for G/A
b) drives the throttles forward
c) disconnects after a short time

105. When will the decision height aural warning sound

a) at D.H.
* b) before D.H.
c) after D.H.

106. Automatic steering of the aircraft after touch down is

affected by
a) the area navigation system
* b) the runway localizer
c) the airfield marker beacon

107. The flare maneuver may be controlled by signals from

* a) radio altimeter
b) the glide slope receiver
c) the localizer receiver

108. A triplex system looses one channel, the system is now,

a) fail passive
* b) fail operational
c) fail redundant

109. A fail passive system in the event of failure will

a) produce a significant out of trim condition
* b) produce no significant out of trim condition
c) ensure the aircraft can still land automatically
110. A triplex system loses one channel, the system becomes a
a) simplex system
* b) duplex system
c) dual-dual system

111. The two parameters used for category classification are

a) radio height/runway visual range
b) localizer and glide slope
* c) decision height and runway visual range

112. What is the controlling factor in the automatic flare mode?

a) Decision height
* b) Radio altimeter
c) Glide slope signal

113. CAT-3b allows

a) approach land and runway guidance with zero DH
and RVR
* b) approach land and RVR in the order of 50 meters
c) approach land and runway guidance with taxing
visibility in the order of 50 meters

114. The definition of fail operational is the ability of a system to

a) disconnect and leave the aircraft in trim
* b) continue to control after any first fault
c) disconnect but leave the aircraft out of trim

115. What is added to the flare computation at touchdown?

* a) Nose down bias
b) Nose up bias
c) No signal

116. What controls are used in response to the PVD?

a) Ailerons
b) Throttles
* c) Nose-wheel steering or rudder pedals

117. The ground run monitor (GRM) presents

a) distance to go
* b) ground speed and distance to go
c) take off speed and distance to go
118. For a vertical Gyro which is moved in pitch, which gimble
would be moved to correct the pitch movement?
a) Lateral
* b) Longitudinal
c) Normal

119. Versine is used in which channel?

* a) Pitch
b) Roll
c) Yaw

120. With airspeed hold engaged whilst flying with Flight Director
engaged, a down command means your speed has
a) increased
* b) decreased
c) is the same

121. A Master Warning is issued when

* a) over-speed and cabin altitude occurs
b) cargo smoke and a low oil quantity occurs
c) engine fire and generator trip occurs

122. The total static resistance along the length of an aircraft is

* a) 50 milliohms
b) 1 ohms
c) 1M - 100,000 ohms

123. In the ATA zoning where is section 100 in on an aircraft

a) in the undercarriage bay including the doors
* b) at the lower section of the cabin up to the pressure
bulkhead
c) at the rear of the fuselage behind the bulkhead

124. Sparking in a generator would be caused by

* a) low spring tension
b) bedding of brushes
c) brushes on the Magnetic Neutral Axis

125. Which is the most important part of preventative

maintenance on HIRF installations?
* a) Visual inspections
b) Insulation testing
c) CMC fault indications
126. What should be done to a transformer secondary
connections which are open circuit?
a) Short the terminals together
b) Put a set resistance across the terminals
* c) Leave the terminals open circuit

127. An RMI in VOR mode, its pointer is showing a course of 000,

if the course knob is adjusted to 010 what happens to the
pointer?
a) Move left
* b) Move right
c) Moves left then hard right

128. If a fault is detected during an auto-land approach the system

will totally disconnect if it is a
a) Triplex system
b) Duplex system
* c) Simplex system

129. A Glass Reinforced Plastic surface on an aircraft, to reduce the

risk of high potential differences would be
* a) painted in a conductive paint
b) painted in a non-conductive paint
c) bonded to the primary structure

130. The VHF aerial resistance and transmission line resistance is

* a) 50 ohms
b) 20 ohms
c) 20 and 50 ohms respectively

131. TAS uses which inputs

a) Pitot and Static
b) Pitot and Static, Mach and Temperature
* c) Mach and Temp

132. Other than spoilers, where are speed brakes located?

a) On the wing
b) Under the Fuselage
* c) Either side of the Fuselage

133. With a trailing edge flap being lowered, due to rising gusts what will
happen to the angle of attack?
 * a)Tend to increase
b) Tend to decrease
c) Stay the same

134. If a fly-by-wire system fails, the rudder

a) remains at the neutral position
b) controls the aircraft in trim
* c) remains in the previous position

135. A poor oscillator in a receiver would cause

a) poor channel selectivity
* b) poor audio output
c) poor volume output

136. The Ground Proximity Warning Computer in mode 4

would use which inputs to issue a warning?
a) A low range altimeter and rate of change of low
range altimeter
* b) A low range altimeter and configuration of aircraft
c) A low range altimeter and GPS

137. Alert Height is when

* a) a decision of whether to land is made
b) an alert of the altitude of the aircraft is made
c) an alert of the ground proximity is made

138. When downgrading an Auto-land system what needs

to be done?
a) Placards in the cockpit
* b) An entry in the log book and cockpit placarding
c) Crew retraining

139. If a drain trap in a pitot static system is removed but nothing

was found
a) no leak test is required unless the drain trap contains
water
* b) a leak test must be carried out even if nothing found
c) a leak test is never required

140. TCAS transmits and receives on a frequency of

* a) 1030mhz and 1090mhz respectively
b) 1090mhz and 1030mhz respectively
c) 1090mhz
141. When an aircraft is aligned for a compass swing check
to be carried out it will be aligned with an error of plus
or minus
a) 1 degree
b) 3 degree
* c) 5 degree

142. The quad-rental error in ADF is maximum at a heading of

a) 000
* b) 045
c) 090

143. Circulating currents is caused by an unbalanced

a) DC generators
* b) AC generators
c) AC & DC generators

144. A device used do dump lift from an aircraft is the

* a) spoiler
b) leading edge flaps
c) trailing edge flaps

145.Runway turn of lights have a beam width of

a) 10 degree
b) 110 degree
* c) 50 degree

146. Stall warning will be given at speeds

* a) that are higher than stall speed
b) that are lower than stall speed
c) at the actual stall speed

147. when a helicopter lands how does the pilot signal to

the ground staff that it is safe to approach the aircraft?
a) Turning on and off the NAV lights
* b) Turning off the anti-collision lights
c) Flashing the landing light

148. An aircraft will capture the auto land system at

* a) 1500 ft
b) 2500 ft
 c) 3500 ft

149. FADEC system gets its power supply from

a) channel A and B from the same windings of a dedicated
Generator
* b) channel A and B from separate windings of a dedicated
Generator
c) emergency Batt. bus

150. Loss of an electrolyte in a battery is due to

* a) excessive charging current
b) insufficient charging current
c) excessive charging voltage

151. An autopilot interlock circuit is to

a) prevent the system engagement if a fault exists
b) disconnect the system if a fault appears
* c) both a & b

152. A rain fall of 5mm/hr is indicated in the WXR by a

a) green color
* b) amber
c) red color

153. The international emergency frequency used in VHF COMM.s is

a) 131.55
* b) 121.5
c) 118.00

154. In a modern aircraft a BITE is carried out

a) on the ground only
* b) continuously when the systems are working
c) only in the air

155. The electrical A/H has a movement of

a) 85 degree in pitch and roll
b) 360 in roll and 110 in pitch
* c) 360 in roll and 85 in pitch

156. When working on a hydraulic operated flight control it is

sensible to
* a) remove/disconnect hydraulic power
b) remove/disconnect electrical power
c) pull the appropriate CB
157. Emergency electronic equipment requirement will be
found in
a) CAAIPs
b) Maintenance Manual
* c) JAR OPS

158. When an aircraft is at a height of 9500ft and the QNH is 500 ft

what is the distance that VHF Com cover?
a) 100 nm
* b)120 nm
c) 140 nm

159. When the VOR ref and Vari. phase are in phase quadrature ,
the aircraft is at the
a) 180 degree radial
* b) 090 degree radial
c) 275 degree radial

160. A unit with two springs and a mass pick off is

* a) an accelerometer
b) a gyroscope
c) a tachogenerator

161. The units of vibration are measured in

a) phones
b) decibels
* c) relative amplitude

162. A fuel flow measurement system can be adjusted for

a) maximum flow rate
b) minimum flow rate
* c) cannot be adjusted

163. Magnetic variation is the difference in angle between

* a) true north and magnetic north
b) magnetic heading and aircraft heading
c) the compass north and magnetic north

164. GPWS mode 1 is excessive

a) terrain closure
b) rate of ascent
* c) rate of descent

165. How many bits make up the mode "S" address

 a) 12
* b) 24
c) 36

166. The applied pressure to an ASI varies with the

* a) square of the speed
b) square root of the speed
c) cube root of the speed

167. Temperature compensation is required on an altimeter because of

* a) capsule elasticity
b) capsule shape
c) non linear pressure/height relationship

168. The loss of the vertical gyro signal to the flight director system
would cause
a) aircraft to under-bank
* b) aircraft to over-bank
c) aircraft to remain in level flight

169. The Doppler VOR beacon reference signal

* a) amplitude modulates the carrier frequency
b) amplitude modulates the sub carrier frequency
c) frequency modulates the sub carrier frequency

170. During flare mode auto-throttle will

* a) retard throttles to idle
b) disconnect auto-throttle
c) select reverse thrust

171. A CSD is monitored for

a) low temperature and high oil pressure
* b) high temperature and low oil pressure
c) high temperature and high oil pressure

172. As the rotor head is tilted to travel forward what happens to

the reward traveling blades pitch angle?
* a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) No change

173. In a fully fly by wire system if the rudder becomes disconnected

 a) it is centralized by a spring
b) its control is maintained by electric trim
* c) it is centralized by the airflow

174. What is the power supply to cabin flow tubes?

a) 115v ac
b) 200v ac
* c) High voltage stepped up

175. When all three leads of a bonding tester are connected

together the output reading is
* a) zero
b) full scale deflection
c) centre scale

176. In a capacitive fuel gauging system an increase in fuel level

would
a) increase capacitive reactance
* b) increase capacitance
c) decrease capacitance

177. Float fuel gauge system is

a) adjusted when tanks are full
b) adjusted when tanks are empty
* c) cannot be adjusted

178. A vertical structural member forming part or full walls are

* a) bulkheads
b) longerons
c) frame

179. Low electrolyte in a Ni-cad battery is caused by

* a) excessive electrical loading
b) high charge current
c) low charge current

180. With engine stopped, EPR indicator reads slightly above 1.

a) This is normal
* b) You would change the Tx as the datum is shifted
c) You would adjust the Tx

181. To ensure the compass is serviceable before installation you

would carry out
a) damping and periodicity checks
 * b) damping and pivot friction check
c) damping and alignment checks

182. The specific gravity readings of a lead–acid cell taken twice

after charging shows substantially lower value.
* a) Cell is defective
b) You top up the cell with distilled water
c) You replace the cell

183. Suppressor line is required for

a) ATC and DME only
b) TCAs only
* c) all L band equipments including TCAS

184. Differential GPS requires

a) 3 satellites and two ground based transmitters
b) 4 satellites and 2 ground based transmitters
* c) 4 satellites and 1 ground based transmitter

185. GPS has

a) 6 satellites in 4 orbits
* b) 4 satellites in 6 orbits
c) 7 satellites in 3 orbits

186. When the captain calls attendant

* a) a high/low chime and pink light comes on
b) a low chime and blue light comes on
c) a high chime and pink light comes on

187. In ACARS, if an upcoming message is received

a) a designated light comes on
b) a selcall light along with a chime comes on
* c) a chime sounds in the cockpit

188. A manual trim wheel, when fully moved in the direction

of tail
a) the authority of elevators not effected
* b) the up movement authority is effected
c) the down movement authority is effected

189. If on an ILS approach, LOC signal is lost

a) aircraft continues descent with an accumulating drift
* b) aircraft descends in a parallel path to runway
 c) aircraft moves in a circle

190. IDG output voltage

a) does not require voltage regulation as RPM is constant.
* b) voltage is regulated by GCU
c) voltage is regulated by IDG

191. The over-station sensor is activated by

a) radio deviation signal
* b) rate of radio deviation signal
c) deviation and course error

192. When moving the control column

* a) sensors located under the control column produces
a signal
b) sensor located along the control run produces
a signal
c) sensor in the AFCS computer produces a signal

193. In the reversed camber horizontal stabilizer as shown

a) the elevator causes tail down movement i.e. increases
tail plane down force
b) there is an increases tail plane up-force
* c) there is an increased tailplane down-force

194. Equivalent airspeed is

a) indicated airspeed corrected for IE and PE
b) rectified airspeed corrected for compressibility
* c) calibrated airspeed corrected for compressibility

195. In an Auto-land, auto-throttle is disengaged

a) after reverse thrust is applied
b) after affixed period of the time after landing
* c) manually after landing

196. What is the maximum limit of the artificial horizon?

* a) 85 degrees in pitch and 360 degrees in roll
b) 360 degrees in pitch and roll
c) 85 degrees pitch and 110 degrees in roll

197. Acceleration error produces

a) a false indication of left bank
* b) a false indication of right bank
c) a false indication of climb
198. The normal axis of a helicopter passes through
a) the centre of rotor disc
* b) through the centre of intersection of longitudinal and
lateral axis
c) a line parallel to rotor axis

199. Zone 500 indicates as per ATA 100

a) Door
* b) Left wing
c) Right wing

200. Shock stall

a) is a flap down stall
* b) occurs at high speeds
c) occurs at low speeds

201. Drooping of helicopter blades is compensated by

a) flapping
b) dragging
* c) centrifugal force

202. During a turn

a) left rudder to be used
b) right rudder to be used
* c) rudder to be maintained in centre position

203. Align light flashes during alignment

* a) A fault has occurred and system needs to be turned off
b) It is attracting operators attention
c) It is indicating progress of alignment

204. During decent with power on in a helicopter

a) lift, drag and thrust are acting on the helicopter
* b) lift, drag, thrust and weight are acting on the helicopter
c) lift, weight and thrust are acting on the helicopter

205. To transmit position feedback for actuators of roll and pitch control
surfaces, in a fly by wire system
* a) LVDT is used hence ensuring interchangeability
b) LVDT and RVDT are used for pitch and roll
c) Synchros are used
206. The compensator in a fuel tank measures
a) specific gravity of fuel
* b) K value of fuel
c) fuel quantity

207. What is the error signal used for in a fixed angle approach in
LOC coupling?
a) Heading and Deviation
* b) Course error and Deviation
c) Heading ,Course error and Deviation

208. In modern aircraft, power distribution of Generators are

controlled by
* a) BPCU
b) PCDU (power control distribution unit)
c) SPCU

209. As you approach supersonic speed

* a) total drag is increased
b) lift is reduced
c) thrust is reduced

210. Range resolution is obtained by

a) high PRF
* b) shorter pulse width
c) shorter beam width

211. In weather radar, short range targets are missed by

* a) larger pulse width
b) larger beam width
c) larger frequency

212. When the trailing edge flap is extended

a) the CP moves forward and the pitching moment changes to
nose up
b) the CP moves forward but the CG does not change
* c) CP move rearward

213. During take off if an input to auto throttle is fails

a) auto throttle disengages
* b) throttle hold is annunciated
c) fail light illuminates

214. Flight director command bars indicate

 * a) direction in which aircraft is to be maneuvered
b) direction in which aircraft is flying
c) direction in which the beacon is

215. Mode S has

a) 12 address bits
* b) 24 address bits
c) 36 address bits

216. If an aircraft is on east of VOR beacon, the reference and

variable phases are
a) n phase
b) opposite phase
* c) phase quadrature

217. RVSM, Vertical minimum separation error allowed is

* a) 80 ft
b) 300 ft
c) 500 ft

218. In a radio altimeter system if you decide to increase the

TX cable and RX cable each by 3 inch the total correction
factor is
a) 3 inch
b) 6 inch
* c) 9 inch

219 If you momentarily short the two spikes of bonding tester

a) tester reads zero
* b) tester reads full scale
c) tester would be zero centered

220. For bonding, the two ends of a rubber pipe are joined by
a) a thick metallic bonding strip
* b) a corrugated bonding jumper
c) a wire attached by terminal legs at both ends

221. What is the minimum resistance between all isolated

electrostatic conducting parts which may be subjected to
appreciable charge and main earth system
a) 0.5 ohm
b) 1 ohm
* c) 0.5 Megohm or 100,000 ohm/sq.ft. surface area which ever
 is less

222. Mach trim in some aircraft assists

* a) longitudinal stability
b) lateral stability
c) vertical stability

223. In case the airplane is wired for dual installation of the

Central Maintenance Computers and only one computer is
to be installed
* a) it must be installed on LH side
b) it must be installed on RH side
c) it may be installed either on LH or RH side

224. Main electric pitch trim is controlled by

* a) a switch on control wheel
b) a switch installed on centre pedestal panel
c) a wheel on the centre pedestal

225. If the static line is disconnected in the cabin, the Mach meter
reading would be
a) higher mach number
* b) lower mach number
c) not effected

226. In a dual FMC installation, if one FMC is defective

a) one CDU blanks
b) both CDU blanks
* c) not be affected as automatic transfer takes place

227. While carrying out a leak check of the altimeter, if the static
is leaking, the VSI would
a) indicate climb
* b) indicate decent
c) not be affected

228. In a combined pitot-static probe, while carrying out a leak check,

which instrument is most likely to be effected by over pressure?
a) ASI
* b) VSI
c) Altimeter

229. The correction for a positive error for coefficient A in a compass

 a) is to rotate clockwise
b) is to rotate anticlockwise
* c) It may be rotated either direction

230. Radiated interference of current carrying cables can be

minimized by
a) having filters in power supply lines
b) separating the affected and affecting cables
* c) putting the affected cable in a single conduit

231. During compass swing, using a datum compass, the error

permitted in aligning the aircraft is
a) 1 degree
* b) 5 degree
c) 10 degree

232. If two aircraft decide to issue the same RA for a potential

conflict, which aircraft changes the decision?
* a) The one with the higher address
b) The one with the smaller address
c) Neither changes the decision

233. What is the authority of series actuator on an helicopters

autopilot?
* a) 10%
b) 50%
c) 100%

234. GPS antenna is

a) vertically polarized
b) horizontally polarized
* c) circular polarized

235. The cyclic stick in an helicopter is

a) to the left
b) to the right
* c) in the centre

236. An autopilot computer

* a) is more sensitive to ILS than to VOR
 b) is more sensitive to VOR than to ILS
c) is the same sensitivity for VOR and ILS

237. What type of flap is this?

* a) Split flap
b) Fowler flap
c) Plain flap

238. Purpose of the bellcrank is to

a) transmit motion
* b) reverse direction and transmit motion
c) adjust friction

239. In an FDS, the attitude gyro is coupled with the FD computer

by means of transformer coupling. The purpose of this
arrangement is
* a) to protect the attitude gyro in case of failure of FD computer
b) to protect FD computer in case of attitude gyro failure
c) to minimize power losses

240. DH is based on
* a) aircraft characteristics
b) experience of the crew
c) RVR transmitted by ATC

241. In a horizontal gyro the random precession of the inner ring is

corrected by
a) mercury switches on the inner ring
b) mercury switches on the outer ring
* c) flux valve slaving

242. Index error is

a) coefficient B
b) Coefficient P
* c) misalignment of compass lubber line

243. Helicopter derives its lift from

* a) the blade of the helicopter creates a low pressure above it
b) rotor acts as a airscrew
c) air is pushed downward

244. A two bladed helicopter rotor on a central gimbal is called

a) rigid rotor
* b) semi rigid rotor
 c) fully articulated rotor

245. Use of a diplexer in a receiver is

a) to enable signals to be distributed to different receivers
b) to amplify the RF signal
* c) to impedance match the aerial and receivers

246. If the 'Q' feel in a powered control system fails

a) the failed system stops and it remains in this position
b) the pilot feels air loads higher than normal
* c) the pilot feels air loads lower than normal

247. Doppler flag comes on when it receives

a) excessive ground clutter
* b) no signal
c) excess signals

248. When the bank angle limit is applied to the autopilot , it means
a) the max aileron angle that can be commanded
* b) the max roll angle that can be demanded by the autopilot
c) maximum rudder deflection

249. Servo tabs

a) enable the pilot to bring the control surface back to neutral
* b) move in such a way as to help move the control surface
c) provide artificial feel

250. Spring Tabs

a) enable the pilot to bring the control surface back to neutral
* b) move in such a way as to help move the control surface
c) provide artificial feel

251. Back beam scanning in an MLS is at a rate of

* a) 20 degrees per millisecond
b) 30 degrees per millisecond
c) 15 degrees per millisecond

252. Omega ground stations

* a) transmit pulses of CW
b) carrier modulated by three audio tones
c) series of CW

253. During testing of ATC altitude function the pressure altimeter

is set
 * a) 1013.25 mb
b) sea level pressure
c) prevailing pressure

254. When secondary stops are utilized in control surfaces, they

come in contact
a) before the primary stops
* b) after the primary stops
c) at the same time as the primary stops

255. EICAS indicates

* a) engine performance and aircraft system malfunctions
b) engine performance only
c) engine performance and aircraft status

256. Helicopter cyclic stick is turned to the right

* a) rotating aerofoil tilts to the right
b) pitch operating arms lengthen in one direction and
shorten in another
c) rotating aerofoil tilts forward

257. Magnetic heading errors will be

* a) positive if easterly
b) negative if easterly
c) negative if northerly

258. What will happen with a flux valve in a turn?

a) It moves once the aircraft is established on a new
heading
* b) It move as the aircraft moves
c) It stays fixed on magnetic north

259. When will a mode C interrogation be ignored?

* a) When the P2 pulse is higher amplitude to P1
b) When the P2 pulse is anti-phase to P1
c) If P2 is before P1

260. An aircraft with auto-land is fitted with a CMC

a) records all faults in volatile memory
* b)records all faults in non-volatile memory
c) all memory is erased when aircraft lands

261. A helicopter autopilot uses

 * a) radio altitude for height hold and barometric altitude
for altitude
hold
b) barometric altitude for height hold and radio altitude
for altitude hold
c) barometric altitude for both height and altitude hold

262. On an ILS approach what will cause the aircraft to fly onto
the beam?
* a) Radio deviation
b) Glide slope deviation
c) Course deviation

263. Which of the following modes does a autopilot go through

in correct sequence?
a) Flare, attitude, rollout
* b) Attitude, flare, rollout
c) Rollout, attitude, flare

264. When can other autopilot modes be select once Go Around has been
selected?
a) When aircraft has reached 5000ft
* b) When reached a desired altitude
c) Disengage and reengage the AFCS system

265. Once the G/S has been captured what other pitch modes are
available?
* a) No other pitch modes are available
b) Only when the aircraft is above the glide slope beam
c) All are continuously available

266. A spring balance control system you

* a) can move the control surface on the ground
b) can move the control surface only by moving the tab
c) cannot move the control surface on the ground

267. Why is a wire HF antenna covered in polythene?

a) To prevent corrosion
* b) To prevent precipitation static
c) To provide lightning protection
268. What is a versine signal attenuated with?
a) Increase in airspeed
* b) Increase in altitude
c) Decrease in altitude

269.How long is the time between the start of the P1 pulse and
the P3 Pulse ignoring the P2 pulse length?
a) 21 micro seconds
* b) 8 micro seconds
c) 17 micro seconds

270. If a VOR RMI indicates 000 degrees and the course selected
is 000 degrees what will the TO/FROM indicator indicate?
a) TO
* b) FROM
c) Neither

271. What does the Radar contour button do?

a) Alter the beam shape
b) Alter the transmitter power
* c) Alter the video amplifier

272. A radar response takes 309 micro seconds. How far away
is the target?
a) 12 miles
* b) 25 miles
c) 40 miles

273. What controls are used in response to PVD display?

* a) Nose wheel steering or rudder pedals
b) Control wheel
c) PVD control unit

274. DME transponder transmits on receipt

a) of any interrogation
b) of pilot input command request
* c) of a pair of pulses separated by 12 microseconds

275. Mode S transponders transmits a binary code of

a) 12bits
b) 64bits
* c) 24bits

276. Artificial feel is gained by using a

a) hydraulic damper
* b) spring bias unit
 c) 'feel' generator

277. A mode C transponder

* a) can be used for TCAS
b) cannot be used for TCAS
c) can be used for TCAS on ILS approach only

278. The audio select panel allows the crew to

a) transmit on one channel, listen on one
* b) transmit on one channel, listen on multiple others
c) receive on one channel, transmit on multiple others

279. The crew select DH on

a) the altimeter
b) the DH annunciator panel
* c) the rad. alt display

280. When substituting the radio altimeter antenna cables,

you should consider
a) power requirements
* b) the speed of propagation of rad. alt signal
c) the diameter of cables

281. GPS has

* a) 24 satellites, 6 orbits of 4
b) 24 satellites, 4 orbits of 6
c) 27 satellites, 3 orbits of 9

282. Audio select panel voice switch

a) allows voice ident. of DME
* b) cuts "beeps" from DME signal
c) disables DME voice ident.

283. GPS frequency is

a) 1575 GHz
* b) 1575 MHz
c) 1525 MHz

284. Radio switches are normally

* a) sprung on R/T, latched on I/C
b) latched on R/T, sprung on I/C
c) latched on R/T, latched on I/C
285. On TCAS, with aircraft below 1700ft
* a) systems is disabled
b) no traffic will be shown
c) all traffic produces aural alert

286. Mode S pulses. Which are used?

* a) F1,F2,F4,F5
b) s1,p1,p3,p4
c) s1,s2,p1,p2

297. In a superheat receiver, the advantage of an RF amplifier is

a) it amplifies output stages
* b) it improves signal to noise ratio
c) it couples noise factors

288. Fluorescent tubes for the cabin lighting are powered from
a) 115 volts from ac bus
b) 200 volts from ac bus
* c) high voltage produced by transformer ballast units

289. In air speed hold mode, a down displacement of the flight

director pitch command bar signifies
a) speed increase
* b) speed decrease
c) height decrease

290. Back beam is captured

* a) by manually selecting the back beam mode
b) this automatically trips the L NAV mode
c) by manually selecting the L NAV mode

291. With a bonding meter

* a) the long lead is attached to the aircraft airframe and
short lead to item
b) the short lead to the aircraft airframe and long lead to the
item
c) it does not matter which lead goes where

292. DME reply pulses are 63MHZ

a) higher
b) lower
* c) higher or lower
293. Flight director incompatible modes are
* a) VOR and glide slope
b) heading and altitude hold
c) VOR and altitude hold

294. What is VHF comm. range at 9000 feet?

a) 110 nm
* b) 120 nm
c) 130 nm

295. GPS sends L1 and L2. What is on L1?

a) c/a code only
* b) c/a code and P code
c) P code only

296. Mode 4 of GPWS derives warnings from

a) rad. alt to barometric
* b) rad. alt decrease
c) approach along localizer with reference to runway
threshold

297. On power up, the IRS obtains position

a) latitude from previous position
* b) longitude from previous position
c) latitude and longitude from previous position

298. Electronic stab trim switches are found on the

* a) control column
b) flight control panel
c) behind thrust levers

299. Carbon microphones require

* a) DC supply
b) AC supply
c) no supply

300. Microwave landing systems are modulated with

a) FM
* b) phase drift keying
c) Manchester code

301. A CVR is found to be unserviceable

a) flight can continue with serviceable FDR provided
 they are not combined
b) flights must not continue after four days
* c) flights must not continue after 72 hours

302. The maximum azimuth coverage by a MLS facility is

a) +/- 35 degrees
b) +/-40 degrees
* c) +/-60 degrees

303. The bearing of a NDB measured by ADF is 060 degrees

relative to aircraft heading of 030 degrees. The RMI pointer
indicates
a) 30 degrees
* b) 90 degrees
c) 60 degrees

304. Fiber glass parts are protected from lightning strikes and
dangerous voltages by
a) non conductive paint
b) conductive paint
* c) earth primary conductors

305. In MLS, the 12 bit preamble consists of

a) carrier and 5 bits time reference and 7 bits information
b) 5 bits time function and carrier and 7 bits function
* c) 7 bits function and 5 bits time reference and carrier

306. The pseudo-random code used by all civilian GPS users is

a) the y code
b) the p code
* c) the c/a code

307. The respective band widths for a radar IF amplifier and

Video amplifier, for good pulse shape, should be
a) wide and narrow
* b) narrow and wide
c) wide and wide

308. On localizer approach the radio deviation signal is lost

a) the aircraft flies in a circle
* b) aircraft flies off centre line on pre-set heading
c) aircraft flies heading with increasing drift angle
309. 'Q' feel for the stabilizer requires
a) pitot only
b) static only
* c) pitot and static

310. When the aircraft nose yaws to the left, the yaw damper
will apply corrective rudder to
* a) the right
b) the left
c) the left with some aileron assistance

311. A yaw damper will apply rudder proportional to

a) amount of aircraft disturbance
b) attitude of aircraft
* c) rate of yaw

312. Glide slope deviation signals are

* a) DC polarity sensitive
b) AC phase sensitive
c) DC positive going only

313. A triplex system loses one channel

* a) pilot can continue with auto-land
b) pilot can use auto approach
c) pilot must make a full manual approach and land

314. Stall warning will be given

* a) before stall
b) after stall
c) at stall

315. With on-board maintenance (OBM) systems, the purpose

of central maintenance function (CMF) is to
* a) log relevant maintenance data
b) transmits to the CMC
c) provides details of defect action

316. How are spoilers normally operated?

* a) Hydraulic actuator
b) Air pistons
c) Electrical motors

317. A differential relay in a twin generator system will cause

a) only one generator can supply a bus bar at a time
b) one generator always comes on line before the other
 * c) the generator voltages are nearly equal before they are
paralleled

318. Distilled or de-mineralized water would be added to an

Alkaline battery
a) in the aircraft
b) when the battery is fully charged
* c) in the charging room only

319. When removing the load from a current transformer

* a) short the terminals
b) place a resistor across each terminal
c) leave the terminals open

320. Wing steady light must be visible through

a) 70 degrees
* b) 110 degrees
c) 180 degrees

321. On AC ground power the interlock system is operated

by pins
a) a and b
b) c and d
* c) e and f

322. When paralleling two AC generators

a) it is important that they are in phase, and should be brought
on in sequence ABC
* b) it is important that they are in phase, and can be brought on
in either ABC or CBA
c) they do not need to be in phase

323. The neutral shift sensor ensures that

* a) after an auto trim, the elevator is moved to align with the
stabilizer
b) after a mach trim, the stabilizer is moved to align with the
elevator
c) after an auto trim, the stabilizer is moved to align with the
elevator

324. Aileron to rudder cross-feed is applied in autopilot systems to

a) assist the aircraft back to datum after disturbance in yaw
b) prevents slip and skid in yaw
* c) prevents aircraft yawing in the opposite direction to
 the turn

325. Stand off errors on localizer approach are washed out by

a) differentiating deviation signals
b) integrating deviation signals
* c) integrating course error signals

326. An open circuit in the temperature bulb as used in the

DC ratio-meter would cause
a) the pointer to read zero
b) the pointer to read mid scale
* c) the pointer to read full scale

327. The instantaneous VSI is designed to

* a) overcome the inherent lag by utilizing an accelerometer
b) use an accelerometer to give a rate of climb/descent
c) improve the VSI output during acceleration greater than 1g

328. With a constant torque applied to a gyroscope, the rate of

precession will
a) increase with a higher rotor speed
* b) decrease with a higher rotor speed
c) decrease with a lower rotor speed

329. A gyroscope with a vertical spin axis has the roll torque motor
located about the gyroscope's
a) lateral axis
* b) longitudinal axis
c) vertical axis

330. The glide slope equipment operates in the

a) HF band
* b) UHF band
c) VHF band

331. The loss of the vertical gyro signal to a flight director

system would cause
a) aircraft to under-bank
* b) aircraft to over-bank
c)aircraft to remain in level flight

332. Fuel quantity test set consists of

a) resistance decade
* b) capacitance bridge
 c) inductance decade

333. EICAS provides the following

a) engine parameters
* b) engine parameters and system warnings
c) engine warnings and engine parameters

334. DSR TK (desired track) means

a) the bearing to capture the track
* b) a great circle path on surface of earth connecting
two way points
c) distance left or right from desired track

335. On aircraft an auto land during auto flare the auto throttle will
* a) retard the throttle
b) reverse thrust
c) control throttle for a IAS

336. If an FM signal modulated by an audio signal the frequency

of the audio would relate to the
a) amplitude
b) frequency
* c)rate of frequency change

337. A GPS aerial is polarized

a) vertically
b) horizontally
* c) right hand circular

338. Mach trim threshold are set by the

a) pilot
b) engineer using aircraft maintenance manual
* c) manufacture

339. An RMI requires the following inputs:

* a) Heading and radio deviation
b) Course and radio deviation
c) Radio deviation only

340. GPS Telemetry consists of

a) week number and time label
* b) satellite position information
c) 8 bits of preamble and position information
341. A DME is in auto stand by when
a) the ATC transponder is transmitting
* b) the DME receives 200 - 300 pulses a second
c) the TCAS is transmitting

342. Cat-2 auto-land DH limits are

* a) below 200 feet but not less than 100 ft
b) below 500 feet but not less than 400 ft.
c) below 300 feet and not less than 200 ft.

343. Cat-1 auto-land DH limits are

a) not less than 100 ft.
* b) not less than 200 ft.
c) below 200 ft but not less than 100 ft.

344. The controlling signal in pitch channel in the Flare mode are
* a) integrated pitch and radio altitude.
b) G/S deviation and radio altitude.
c) integrated pitch and G/S deviation

345. Rollout guidance after touch down is by

* a) automatic rudder control and nose-wheel steering
b) visual indication and nose wheel steering
c) visual indication and rudder control

346. During auto-land failure of one channel is detected

a) all channels will disconnect in triplex system.
* b) all channels will disconnect in dulpex system.
c) all channels will disconnect in dual-dual system.

347. In triplex auto-land system failure of one channel will

a) disconnect all channels
* b) disconnect the failure channel and continue auto-land
approach
c) disconnect the failure channel and continue with a manual
approach

348. During the flair mode the A/T- throttle will

* a) retard throttle to idle.
b) disconnect auto-throttle
c) select reverse thrust.
349. Roll out mode occurs
* a) after flare
b) before flare
c) at alert height

350. High and low signal to voter are

* a) averaged
b) removed
c) added

351. Basic monitoring is function of

a) voting
* b) signal comparison
c) signal summing

352. In series rudder system

a) the pilot cannot input to the system
* b) the pilot can input to the system
c) yaw damping is only possible signal input

353. If a pointer is not centralized on a trim indicators,

it means that
a) the indicator is not serviceable
* b) the control system is out of trim
c) the system is trimmed

354. In parallel rudder system,

a) The pilot can input on rudder pedals
* b) The rudder pedals move in response to rudder
movement
c) The rudder pedals are disconnected

355. The aileron/rudder signal is demodulated in the rudder

channel amplifier. This means it is
a) AC
b) DC
* c) DC output whose polarity is related to the phase of
AC input
356. An increase in mach number will cause the
* a) C of P to move rearwards giving less downwash on
the tail plane
b) C of P to move rearwards giving more downwash on
the tail plane
c) C of P to move forwards giving less downwash on the
tail plane

357. If one FMS fails in a duel system

a) system operation will not be affected
b) FMS CDU on fail side goes blank
* c) FMS display transfers automatically from serviceable
computer

358. To carry out FMS database update on FMS

a) use database loader
* b) insert new EPROM
c) insert new data on CDU

359.To know the valid database on FMS

a) perform bite check
* b) call up relevant page on CDU
c) call up relevant current status

360. Magnetic heading errors will be

* a) positive if easterly
b)negative if easterly
c) negative if northerly

361. What will happen with a flux valve in a turn?

a) It will move once the aircraft is established on a new
heading
* b) Move as the aircraft moves
c) Stay fixed on magnetic north

362. When will a mode C interrogation be ignored?

* a) When the P2 pulse is higher amplitude to P1
b) When the P2 pulse is anti-phase to P1
c) If P2 is before P1

363. A helicopter autopilot uses

 * a) radio altitude for height hold and barometric altitude
for altitude hold
b) barometric altitude for height hold and radio altitude
for altitude hold
c) barometric altitude for both height and altitude hold

364. On an ILS approach what will cause the aircraft to fly onto
the beam?
a) Height Deviation
b) Radio deviation
* c) Course deviation

365. When can other autopilot modes can be select once

go-Around has been selected?
a) When aircraft has reached 5000ft
* b) When reached a desired altitude
c) Disengage and reengage the AFCS system

366. Once the G/S has been captured what other pitch modes
are available?
* a) No other pitch modes are available
b) Only when the aircraft is above the glide slope beam
c) All are continuously available

367. Forces on a helicopter in a power-on descent are

* a) lift, drag thrust, weight
b) lift, drag, thrust
c) weight, drag, lift

368. What is the primary purpose of a helicopter tail arm?

* a) Provide a structure for mounting the stabilizer and
anti torque rotor
b) Acts to help balance the centre of gravity of the helicopter
c) Provide directional control

369. With a spring balance control system you can

* a) move the control surface on the ground
b) move the control surface only by moving the tab
c) not move the control surface on the ground

370. Alert Height is when

* a) a decision of whether to land is made
 b) an alert of the altitude of the aircraft is made
c) an alert of the position of the aircraft is made

371. A Master Warning is issued when

* a) over-speed & cabin altitude occurs
b) cargo smoke & low oil quantity occurs
c) engine fire & generator trip occurs

372. An aircraft flying on a heading of 030 receives an ADF

signal 030 relative to the aircraft, what is the ADF pointer
indicating?
a) 030
* b) 060
c) 090

373. If a control surface that is fitted with a balance tab is moved,

what will happen to the tab?
a) It is moved manually in the opposite direction to
the surface
b) It is moved automatically in the same direction as
the surface
* c) It is moved automatically in the opposite direction as
the surface

374. At which two points on a gas turbine engine is

EPR measured?
* a) Compressor inlet and jet pipe
b) Combustion chamber and jet pipe
c) Jet pipe and combustion chamber

375. If a stall is approaching, what indication does the pilot get?

* a) Stick Shaker
b) Stick Nudger
c) EICAS warning

376. Flap asymmetry causes the aircraft to

a) nose up
* b) go one wing down
c) nose down

377. On a coupled approach what happens to the aircraft if it

looses the localizer signal?
* a) It will fly straight down the original course but will drift
 b) It will fly in circles
c) It will fly on the heading the aircraft was on

378. If an autopilot is fed with radio deviation

a) it will stand off the centre line by a fixed amount
* b) it will fly in circles
c) it will fly on the heading the aircraft was on

379. What color are the auto-land indication lights next to the
pilots instruments with excess deviation?
a) Red
* b) Amber
c) White

380. If an aircraft moves in yaw what axis is it moving about?

* a) Normal
b) Longitudinal
c) Lateral

381. The neutral shift system augments control of the

a) stabilizer
* b) elevator
c) spoilers

382. On a full time Fly-by-wire system a nose up command causes

* a) the two elevator surfaces on each side of the stabilizer to
move up
b) all the elevators on each wing to move up
c) the two Ailerons on each wing to move up

383. What are ground spoilers used for?

* a) To dump lift
b) To assist the aircraft coming to a stop
c) To slow the aircraft

384. If the aircraft is to be rolled to the right where does the

pilot feed in this command?
* a) Control Wheel
b) Control Column
c) Rudder Pedals

385. What is the typical aircraft hydraulic system pressure?

* a) 3000 psi
b) 1000 psi
c) 300 psi
386. If a bonding lead is found to be broken and a spare is
unavailable you must
* a) replace with a self manufactured cable of the same type
but larger
b) defer the defect until correct spares are available
c) splice the broken lead

387. What is the minimum size cable, which is not likely to carry
all the current from a primary structure?
a) 0.5inch wide by 26AWG cable
* b) 0.25inch wide by 26AWG cable
c) No smaller than 18AWG

388. What is the bonding value between secondary structure?

a) 0.5 ohms
* b) 1 ohm
c) Between 1Megohm and 500,000 ohms

389. What is the diagonal part of the landing gear called?

* a) Drag Strut
b) Drag Wire
c) Shock Absorber

390. What is the advancing blade on a helicopter doing?

* a) Increasing in lift
b) Going to the highest point
c) Increasing in drag

391. In a series actuator fitted to a helicopter how much authority

does it have?
* a) 10% approx
b) 100%
c) 50%

392. What does an INS calculate on power up?

a) Last known longitude
* b) Last known latitude
c) Last known longitude & latitude

393. If a series actuator is fitted in the cyclic control circuit of a

helicopter what effect will an autopilot input have?
a) The cyclic lever will move in proportion to the autopilot
input
* b) The cyclic lever will not move
 c) The flight director bars only will move

394. On an aircraft fitted with a CMC how do you get to the system
pages?
* a) Through the ground test function
b) Through the Existing faults function
c) Through the Present Leg faults function

395. What is the purpose of the autopilot trim indication?

* a) The voltage activity in the servo amp
b) Trim tab position
c) Control surface position

396. What is the entry angle of an MLS installation +/-?

a) 62°°
* b) 42°°
c) 20°

397. What does a piezo electric type vibration sensor detect?

a) Disturbances
b) Velocity
* c) Pressure changes

398. What should be carried out prior to working on or near

surfaces?
* a) Ensure Hydraulics are selected off
b) Pull & tag circuit breakers
c) Wear ear protection

399. What is the glide slope frequency range?

a) 108 - 112 Mhz
b) 108 - 112 Ghz
* c) 329 - 335 Mhz

400. What would indicate the state of charge of a lead acid battery?
a) Fluctuations in the level of the electrolyte
* b) Fluctuations in the SG of the electrolyte
c) Fluctuations in the terminal voltage

401. Up-wash on a helicopter would result in

* a) increase in lift without an increase in power
b) decrease in lift
c) decrease in speed

402. What is the aural warning of an aircraft ,over-speeded?

 a) Bell sound
* b) Clacking sound
c) Horn sound

403. What is a slot used for?

* a) To reinforce the boundary layer
b) Increased angle of attack during approach
c) Increase the speed of the airflow

404. A Boost Gauge reads

a) above or below ambient atmospheric pressure
* b) absolute pressure
c) above or below ISA atmospheric pressure

405. Angle of Attack is the angle between cord line and

* a) relative air flow
b) tip path plane
c) horizontal axis

406. What is the Speed of an ARINC 429 system

a) 2.3 - 23 Mhz
b) 2 - 6 GHz
* c) 100 KHz

407. A high lift device is used for

* a) take off and landing
b) take off only
c) landing only

408. What is the major vertical component of an airframe that

is a load bearing part of the structure that can be used as
walls or partial walls?
a) Frame
* b) Bulkhead
c) Stringer

409. What is jitter used for in a DME transmission?

* a) To make an installation recognize it’s own transmission
b) To make sure only strong signals are replied to in a
dense area
c) To make an aircraft recognize a DME in a quiet area

410. What is the minimum candela of an anti-collision beacon?

 a) 100
b) 50
* c) 20

411. What is the calibration law of a Ratio-meter?

a) Material of the coil
* b) Material of the sensing element
c) Material of the indicator needle

412. How is a spoiler interconnected to other flight control systems?

* a) Spoiler to aileron
b) Spoiler to flap
c) Spoiler to elevator

413. What is audio clipping used for in voice communication?

a) To enable vowels to be heard better
* b) To enable consonants to be heard better
c) To enable numbers to be heard better

414. If a QFE is set at an airfield and flown to another airfield

at the same level above sea level then
a) it will not need resetting and will read zero
b) it will display the airfield height above sea level
* c) it will probably not need resetting and will read zero

415. What is aileron droop?

a) The leading edge of both ailerons presented to the airflow
b) One aileron lowered
* c) The droop of ailerons with no hydraulics on

416. How is the output of a constant speed drive fed AC generator

controlled?
a) Hydraulic feedback to a governor
b) No control as the generator is fed via a constant speed drive
* c) By a swash-plate

417. Earths atmosphere is

* a) 1/5 oxygen, 4/5 nitrogen
b) 4/5 oxygen, 1/5 nitrogen
c) 3/5 oxygen, 2/5 nitrogen

418. thermocouple
a) capacitance and inductance cannot be added
* b) cannot be shortened
 c) can be shortened

419. How is temperature compensation achieved in the fluid of

a compass?
* a) Bellows and diaphragm
b) Alcohol is used as it does not get effected by temperature
c) Press relief valve

420. When installing an aerial, added support is needed for the

structure. This is achieved by
a) webs
b) outer plate
* c) inner plate

421. Relative airflow over a helicopter blade

* a) increases at the tip
b) increases at the root
c) is unaffected by blade position

422. TCAS II is
a) 1 aircraft per square nautical mile
* b) 24 aircraft per 5 nautical mile radius
c) 100 aircraft per 5 miles square

423. RMI in ADF mode, the pointer is moved by a

a) servomotor
* b) loop voltage
c) Chinaman

424. FMC changes movement via

a) A/P actuator
* b) flight control computer
c) straight to the actuator

425. Aircraft condition monitoring monitors

* a) certain parameters
b) with a fault detector and tells master warning computer
c) and compares the faults on the aircraft with the CMC

426. Radio signals chance of penetration of ionosphere

* a) increase with the frequency
b) decrease with frequency
c) is not affected by frequency
427. What is lapse rate?
a) Pressure changes with altitude
* b) Temperature changes with altitude
c) Density changes with altitude

428. In an amplitude modulated wave, the intelligence is contained in the

* a) sidebands only
b) carrier only
c) sidebands and carrier equally

429 What happens when a control stick is pulled back and to the left?
a) Elevator up, left aileron down
b) Elevator down, right aileron down
* c) Elevator up, right aileron down

430. DC power into the GCU comes from

* a) main battery bus
b) main battery bus and ground service
c) ground service

431. In a boost gauge system the sensing element contains

a) 1 capsule
* b) 2 capsules
c) 3 capsules

432. If an elevator is fitted with a fixed tab in the down position,

the control surface will
* a) move up
b) move down
c) remain at the same place

433. Spring tabs

a) cannot be adjusted in flight
b) can be adjusted in the flight deck
* c) cannot be adjusted

434. Rising gust in front of the leading edge with flaps lowered,
AoA will
* a) increase
b) decrease
c) remain
435. If an aircraft moves in roll it is moving about the
a) normal axis
b) lateral axis
* c) longitudinal axis

436. LOC signal modulation is

a) 50 %
* b) 20 %
c) 10 %

437. What instrument uses ram air pressure and atmospheric

pressure?
* a) ASI
b) altimeter
c) VSI

438. If increasing altitude at constant IAS, TAS will

a) decrease
* b) increase
c) remain the same

439. How does a delta wing aircraft move about the pitch and
roll axis?
a) Elevator
* b) Elevon
c) Ailerons

440. If a roll was commenced, what command would the versine

generator give?
* a) Up Elevator
b) Left rudder
c) Down elevator

441. Which signal would be integrated to get onto Localizer centerline?

* a) Heading error
b) Course error
c) Radio deviation

442. What does a vibration type sensor measure?

a) Maximum deflection
* b) Frequency of deflections
c) Direction of flexing

443. The result of the equation (Dev E – Dev W)/2 is known as

 * a) Coefficient B
b) Coefficient A
c) Coefficient C

444. A ‘q’ feel system supplies

a) aerodynamic damping
* b) The pilot with ever increasing awareness of speed
c) control movement effort relief

445. Cat IIIB landing, up to what phase is LOC signal used?

a) Roll out
* b) Flare
c) Touchdown

446. FMC mode that can be selected through the CDU is

a) DME Freq
b) LNAV
* c) CRZ

447. Mode C responses

* a) 21 microseconds
b) 12 microseconds
c) 8 microseconds

448. A DGPS system installed on an aircraft requires

* a) 1 ground station and 4 satellites
b) 2 ground stations and 4 satellites
c) 1 ground station and 6 satellites

449. The term 'circulating currents' refer to

* a) AC generators
b) AC and DC Generators
c) DC generators

450. Speed control on an emergency hydraulic driven generator is via the

a) IDG
b) CSD
* c) swash plate

451. WX radar display the time base is

* a) saw tooth wave form
 b) trapezoidal wave form
c) rectangular wave form

452. Flight director on G/S capture, the pitch integration is

* a) to increase GS signal
b) to decrease GS signal
c) to maintain GS signal

453. If the inductance in a parallel tuned circuit is increased in

value, the resonant frequency
a) remains the same
* b) decreases
c) increases

454. When an AM carrier is modulated, its bandwidth

* a) increases
b) decreases
c) remains the same

455. Transformer coupling between an ADI and a flight director

computer is
* a) to protect the ADI in event of a FD computer failure
b) to protect the FD computer in case of an ADI failure
c) to protect the FD computer in case of an HSI failure

456. Control loop gain with an autopilot is usually

* a) dependent on aircraft altitude
b) 100%
c) chosen as a compromise

457. With no.1 HF. system transmitting the interlock circuit

a) allows no.2 H.F. to receive only
b) allows no.2 H.F. to transmit and receive
* c) does not allow no.2 to transmit or receive

458. MLS azimuth range is

a) +/- 30
* b) +/- 42
c) +/- 62

459. In an auto trim horizontal stabilizer, 'low' speed mode is when

* a) flaps are retracted
b) landing gear up and locked
 c) flaps extended

460. An aircraft receives a response from a DME station, 1236

microseconds after transmitting the interrogation. What is
the slant range to the station?
* a) 96 nautical miles
b) 100 nautical miles
c) 104 nautical miles

461. If the VOR track error is 2 dots, how many degrees off track
is the aircraft?
* a) 10
b) 5
c) 2.5

462. What frequency range does ACARS operate in?

a) 2-30 MHz
* b) 118-136 MHz
c) 4-5 GHz

463. On an Auto-land coupled approach, a GPWS warning

a) would initiate a Go Around
* b) audio and Visual warning
c) visual warning only

464. A Doppler VOR station's transmissions

* a) can be received and processed with a conventional
VOR receiver
b) can not be received and processed with a conventional
VOR receiver
c) can be received but not processed with a conventional
VOR receiver

465. When checking the altitude reporting of the transponder

a) set the barometric altimeter to local pressure
* b) set the barometric altimeter to 1013.25 mb
c) set the rad. alt to 0 feet

466. Standing waves in a co-axial feeder cable are proportional to

 a) length of the cable
b) transmitter power output
* c) degree of mismatch between transmitter and antenna

467. Compass error remaining after all the corrections, which is

used for entry on the deviation card should not exceed
a) 2 degrees
* b) 3 degrees
c) 5 degrees

468. Stick shaker activates at a speed which is above the stalling speed by
a) 4%
* b) 7%
c) 10.321%

469. Oscillation and hunting of flight control surface are prevented by

* a) Tachogenerator
b) Feedback from control surface
c) Feedback from servo motor

470. When an hydraulic system is un pressurized, the position of flight

control surfaces are
a) down
b) neutral
* c) droop

471. Radar beam-width improves

a) range resolution
b) range accuracy
* c) bearing resolution

472. A transformer has a power input of 115V AC. What is

the output voltage?
a) 115V
b) 345V
* c) 460V

473. A shunt wound generator fitted on an aircraft, a preset

potentiometer is fitted
* a) in series with the field winding
b) in parallel with the field winding
 c) in series with the generator output

474. Battery trays are

a) metal for earthling purposes
* b) metal with PVC coating and anti corrosive paint
c) absorbent to soak up electrolyte

475. When installing multiple batteries on aircraft they

are connected in
a) parallel
b) series
* c) either parallel or series and switched
between as an option

476. Maximum battery temperature on charging before protection

circuit starts is
* a) 115 Degrees F
b) 144 Degrees F
c) 144 Degrees C

477. Battery charging procedures can be found in ATA

a) Chapter 24 Section 21
* b) Chapter 24 Section 31
c) Chapter 31 Section 21

478. In a carbon pile regulator the resistive element is

a) in series with the field and changes resistance with changing
length
* b) in series with the field and changes resistance with surface
area contact
c) in parallel with the field and changes resistance with changing
length

479. The output of a carbon pile regulator with no variation of loading is

* a) stationary
b) fluctuating
c) pulse width modulating

480. In a transistor voltage regulator the voltage output is controlled by

a) transformers and transistors
b) diodes and transformers
 * c) zeners and transistors

481. Paralleled relay for DC system is energized and connected by

a) voltage coil
b) current coil
* c) voltage and current coil

482. Increasing the real load primarily

a) decreases frequency
b) decreases output voltage
* c) increases output voltage and increases frequency

483. Inductive reactive load causes

a) no effect on torque but produces extra heat dissipated
b) increase in torque and increase in heat dissipated
* c) increase in torque only

484. The power factor of an AC generator identifies the

proportion of
a) apparent power from the generator that does work
b) reactive power from the generator that does work
* c) real power from the generator that does work

485. Differential protection in an AC system protects against

* a) A reverse current flowing from the battery
b) short circuits
c) line-line, line-line-line, line-earth faults

486. When resetting the CSD on the ground, the engine should be
a) stationary
b) rotating at idle
* c) rotating at Nsync

487. One of the main purposes of a CSD is to

* a) enable generators to be paralleled
b) prevent engine overload
c) maintain constant load on the generator

488. In a under-volt condition in an AC generator system, the

 most likely consequence is
* a) activation of the time delay circuit
b) de-activation of the field regulatory TRs
c) energies the bus tie relay

489. If voltage and frequency of the generator drop to zero in flight,

it would be an indication that the
* a) CSD drives shaft had sheared
b) phase sequence detection circuit has operated
c) bus tie interlock is inoperative

490. In an aircraft VOR receiver

a) 108 MHz reference signal is compared with 9960 Hz
variable phase signal
b) 30 Hz modulated reference signal is compared with
30 Hz variable phase signal
* c) 30 Hz reference signal is compared with 9960 Hz variable
phase signal

491. In CVOR, 9960 c/s AM sub-carrier is used in

a) VAR phase
* b) REF phase
c) station identification Morse code

492. A secondary surveillance radar (SSR) interrogation

operates on
a) a frequency of 1030 MHz and pulse spacing of
20.3 microseconds
* b) a frequency of 1030 MHz and pulse spacing depending
on mode of interrogation
c) a frequency of 1090 MHz and pulse spacing 20.3
microseconds

493. In ILS, the glide slope provides

a) lateral steering
* b) vertical steering
c) distance checks

494. The components of an ILS are:

a) A localizer and a glide slope
* b) A localizer, a glide slope and the marker beacons
c) A localizer and the marker beacons
495. Localizer modulation depth is
a) 2%
* b) 20%
c) 50%

496. The VSWR of a VHF system with a forward power of 100W

and a reflected power of 4W will be
a) 1.5:1
* b) 2:1
c) 2.5:1

497. When an ADF antenna is repositioned from the bottom of the

fuselage to the top, the wiring of the bearing indicator must be
* a) reverse R1+R2 connections only
b) reverse R1+R2 and S1+S2 connections
c) reverse R1+S2 connections

498. The mode S squatter pulse will

* a) trigger the TCAS mode S all call interrogation
b) contain the aircraft identity
c) contain the aircraft range and altitude information

499. When using the GPS

a) database card must be replaced every 28 days
* b) once the database card has expired the system will
continue to operate with a warning message
c) once the database expires the system will not operate

500. When the ILS marker hi/lo switch is set to lo

a) receiver sensitivity is reduced by 10 to 12db
* b) increased by 10 to 12db
c) marker lamps are illuminated by a lower signal level

501. In a CVR system hot mics

* a) are as selected by the boom/mic switches
b) is a term applied to all the aircrafts mics
c) get their power supply from the selected Tx via the r/t switch

502. A DME receives a ground transponder reply after 2472

microseconds, the slant range to the transponder is
approximately
 a) 196 nm
* b) 200 nm
c) 200 statute miles

503. A laser dither mechanism ensures that

* a) optical backscatter does not cause the contra
rotating beams to lock together
b) the contra rotating beams are synchronized together
c) that the two contra rotating beams are each at different
frequencies

504. Which modes of the GPWS may be inhibited

* a) modes 1, 3, 4a, 6
b) modes 2, 4, 5
c) modes 4b, 5

505. DFDR (digital flight data recorder) RINC 573 data bus has how
many sub-frames?
a) 4
b) 6
* c) 8

506. The middle marker is keyed with

* a) dots
b) dashes
c) alternate dots and dashes

507. What is the millivolt deflection per dot on ILS/VOR

a) 25/75
b) 25/5
* c) 75/75

508. An accelerometer has

a) low inertia, free suspension
b) high inertia, restrained
* c) high inertia, free suspension

509. When a compass is in the slave mode

a) the azimuth gyro will wander uncompensated
b) azimuth gyro will be corrected by long term monitoring
of the flux valve
* c) the azimuth gyro is slaved to the annunciator or synchronizer
 circuit

510. Dome lights on the flight deck are powered by the

a) battery bus bar
* b) battery bus bar or ground services
c) ground services

511. Bandwidth of HF transmission is

a) 1khz
* b) 1.5khz
c) 3khz

512. A flux valve becomes permanently magnetized. What will be the

effect?
a) More deviation
b) More variation
* c) Remote compass will indicate in one direction only

513. During a system overload, load sharing will first affect

* a) galley services
b) IFE
c) first officers transfer bus

514. What maneuver does TCAS II advise the pilot to make

* a) TA
b) RA
c) either RA or TA

515. What are the shapes of traffic shown on a TCAS display ?

a) White diamonds, red squares and amber circles
* b) White squares, red diamonds and amber circles
c) White circles, red diamonds and amber squares

516. A RAT provides AC power of around

* a) 7.5 kva
b) 63 kva
c) 28 VAC

517. If voltage and frequency of the generator drop to zero in flight,

it would be an indication that the
* a) Phase sequence detection circuit has operated
b) CSD drive shaft has sheared
c) bus tie interlock is inoperative
518. Paralleling in AC constant frequency is affected by
a) contactors
* b) Generator Control Unit (GCU)
c) Buss Tie Barker (BTB)

519. The power factor of an AC generator identifies the

proportion of
a) reactive power from the generator that does work
b) apparent power from the generator that does work
* c) real power from the generator that does work

520. Parallel distribution systems can typically be found on all

a) twin-engine aircraft
b) aircraft with 3 or more engines
* c) aircraft with 4 or more engines only

521. Aircraft generators are connected in

a) series to the bus-bar, parallel to the load and the loads
parallel to each other
* b) series to the bus-bar, series to the load and the loads
parallel to each other
c) parallel to the bus-bar, series to the load and the loads
parallel to each other

522. Mach trim counters

a) longitudinal instability
* b) lateral instability
c) vertical instability

523. Non-essential loads such as galleys and cabin lighting

operate from
* a) Ground services bus
b) Ground handling bus
c) Transfer bus

524. TCAS will issue a traffic advisory if

a) aircraft are within 6 nautical miles laterally and
1200 feet vertically of each other
b) a collision is within 25-35 seconds of occurring
* c) a collision is within 35-40 seconds of occurring

525. The auto gain voltage of a weather radar is set

* a) in the workshop
b) by the manufacturer
c) by adjusting the gain control until optimum picture
quality is obtained
526. When servicing an RVSM aircraft
a) all pitot/static instruments must be serviceable
* b) the alt. alert must be serviceable
c) the alt hold must be serviceable

527. A GNS satellite system transmissions are

a) vertically polarized
* b) horizontally polarized
c) right hand circular

528. An anti-servo tab

a) assists the pilot to move the controls back to neutral
b) moves in the same direction as the control surface to
assist the pilot
* c) moves in the opposite direction to the control surface
to assist the pilot

529. A typical Ratiometer indicating system would use

* a) 3 phase AC
b) Single phase AC for the indicator and transmitter
c) Single phase AC for the indicator and DC for the
transmitter

530. Cat 2 RVR if the alert height is 100 feet will be

a) 300m
* b) 400m
c) 800m

531. A plain flap

a) When stowed makes up part of the wing trailing edge
lower surface
* b) When stowed makes up part of the wing trailing edge
upper surface
c) when deployed increases the camber of the wing

532. ICAO Standard atmosphere is

a) taken from data measured at the equator
b) taken from data measured at 45 degrees North
* c) relevant to set parameters
533. On the ASP how many Rx and Tx can be selected at any one time ?
a) multiple Rx and only one Tx
* b) multiple Rx and multiple Tx
c) only one Rx and only one Tx

534. DME squitter comes from

* a) DME station
b) interrogator
c) test set

535. How do the crew select decision height?

* a) selected on the main altimeter
b) Selected on the radio altimeter display
c) selecting a switch on the control panel

536. What type of signal is used for trigger height trip signals?
a) Switchable d.c
* b) Switchable a.c
c) variable d.c

537. The AFCS remains in control:

* a) until 2 seconds after touchdown
b) until reverse thrust is selected
c) until disengaged by flight crew

538. The plane of polarization is defined as the plane in which the

a) E field lies
b) H field lies
* c) E and H fields are parallel

539. The stability of an RF oscillator can be improved by

* a) direct coupling to an RF amplifier
b) a buffer amplifier
c) tight coupling to an RF amplifier

540. What does a current limiter fuse do?

a) Limit current to a predetermined level to prevent circuit
damage
* b) Allow high current to flow for 5 seconds
c) React when the circuit gets warm

541. When terminating an aluminum cable, what preparations would be

carried out before crimping?
a) Just terminate
 * b) Apply a mixture of 50% petroleum jelly and zinc oxide
c) Degrease stripped cable

542. The distance over which VHF communication may be achieved is

limited
a) by local weather conditions in the troposphere
* b) to radio line of sight
c) to conditions in the ionosphere

543. A Mach meter

a) compensates for square law
* b) does not compensate for square law
c) uses a spring and bar

544. At its resonant frequency, a parallel tuned circuit has

* a) maximum impedance
b) minimum impedance
c) the same impedance as at any other frequency

545. Crystals operate reliably at fundamental frequencies up to

* a) 1000MHz
b) 100MHz
c) 30MHz

546. The RF resistance of an inductor

a) decreases as frequency is increased
b) increases as frequency is increased
* c) is independent of frequency

547. At its resonant frequency, a parallel tuned circuit

a) offers minimum impedance
* b) has minimum voltage developed across it
c) has maximum circulating currents

548. In a dual FMS, a failure of one computer will result in

a) Completely blank display on one CDU
b) down-grade of the landing category
* c) no effect on the CDU

549. When can, the FMS be engaged with the auto-throttle?

a) Before takeoff
b) After takeoff
* c) Only with the autopilot engaged
550. Tx output stages are normally run in class C
* a) because the efficiency is high
b) so that the output is rich in harmonics
c) as higher gains can be obtained

551. Which of the following has the best frequency stability?

* a) Hartley
b) Colpitts
c) Tuned collector tuned base

552. A quartz crystal has the characteristics of a

a) resistive bridge network
* b) high 'Q' resonant circuit
c) pair of tuned circuits

553. Air density compensation requires

a) OAT
* b) altitude
c) altitude and OAT

554. Time base of PPI display is

a) a ramp
b) a square wave
* c) a trapezoid

555. The maximum acceptable tuning ratio of an RF amplifier is

a) 9 : 1
b) 6 : 1
* c) 3 : 1

556. Single Side Band filters are

a) 3Khz
* b) 1Khz
c) 6Khz

557. Delayed Automatic Gain Control is inoperative, the sensitivity

of the receive
* a) decrease for low signal
b) increase for low signal
c) increase for high signal

558. Rollout guidance by the rudder is effective to about

* a) 80 knots
b) 110 knots
c) 30 knots
559. Go-around mode can be initiated
* a) after glide slope capture
b) at any time
c) below 2000ft

560. Vortex ring start requires

a) retreating blade stall
b) advancing blade stall
* c) power on descent

561. Man made noise causes interference

a) mainly above 12 Mhz.
b) only in the LF band
* c) mainly below 12 Mhz

562. Signals used during the flare are

a) GS and rad. alt
b) GS and integrated pitch
* c) Rad. alt and integrated pitch

563. A single side band transmission is equal to

a) High level modulation
b) Low level modulation
* c) One half of the high level modulation

564. Glide slope gain programming is based on

a) pressure altitude
* b) altitude above MSL and radio altitude
c) radio altitude

565. Radio waves are said to have line-of-sight propagation

a) above about 100MHz
b) not below 1000MHz
* c) from about 10 MHz upwards

566. To check side lobe suppression

* a) select ATC on ASP
b) use a ramp test set
c) carry out a self test

567. On an FMCS CDU, you can select

a) N1 Thrust
 * b) VNAV
c) VOR

568. What is Track angle?

* a) The angle, measured clockwise, between true north
and the aircraft ground track
b) The angle, measured clockwise, between true north
and the aircraft longitudinal axis
c) The angle between true heading (HGD) and ground track

569. In color WXR AGC is set

* a) in workshop
b) automatically on receiver noise level
c) by operator on manually adjusted gain control

570. Tail rotor effects the helicopter in

a) Vertical
* b) Horizontal
c) Pitch and Roll

571. What is needed for RHO-RHO navigation?

a) 2 DME signals
* b) 1 VOR and 1 DME signals
c) 1 VOR/DME signal

572. The loop aerial polar diagram is a

* a) cardioid
b) figure 8
c) circle

573. Single Side Band filters are

a) 3Khz
* b) 1Khz
c) 6Khz

574. The frequency spectrum of noise is

* a) infinitely wide
b) restricted to the audio band
c) restricted to the HF band

575. Man made noise causes interference

* a) mainly above 12Mhz
b) only in the LF band
c) mainly below 12Mhz