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PMP Workbook

PMP Exam Practice Questions

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)

403 views77 pages

PMP Workbook

PMP Exam Practice Questions

Uploaded by

Wale Adebakin

We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.

Available Formats

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You are on page 1/ 77

Page 1 of 77

®
PMP
CERTIFICATION
EXAM

WORK BOOK

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PMP® Certification Work Book

This publication has been prepared and written by iCert Global and is protected by copyright. Other than
for the purposes of and subject to the conditions prescribed under the Copyright Act, no part of it may in
any form or by any means (electronic, mechanical, microcopying, photocopying, recording or otherwise)
be reproduced, stored in a retrieval system or transmitted without prior written permission from the
document controller. Product or company names are trademarks or registered trademarks of their
respective holders.

Note: The contents of this publication are subject to change without notice. All efforts have been made to
ensure the accuracy of this publication. Notwithstanding, iCert Global does not assume responsibility for
any errors nor for any consequences arising from any errors in this publication.

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Table of Contents

1. PMBOK® GUIDE 5TH EDITION 200 SAMPLE QUESTIONS PMP EXAM ......................... 4
2. PMBOK® GUIDE 5TH EDITION 200 SAMPLE PMP EXAM - ANSWERS ........................ 47

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1. PMBOK® GUIDE 5TH EDITION 200 SAMPLE QUESTIONS

PMP EXAM

1. When closing a project, the project manager:

A. Reviews phase closure information to ensure the project has met its objectives
B. Reviews the scope baseline
C. Finalizes any open claims
D. A and B

2. A project charter aligns the project with:

A. The project manager’s work priorities
B. The strategy and ongoing work of the organization
C. The project’s scope
D. The project management plan

3. The Direct and Manage Project Work process:

A. Tracks, reviews and approves project progress
B. Perform the work defined in the Project Management Plan
C. Implements approved changes
D. B and C

4. Disadvantages of virtual teams include all but which of the following?

A. Feeling of isolation
B. Cost of supporting technology
C. Adding special expertise to a project team
D. Difficulty sharing knowledge and experience

5. Techniques for communications management include:

A. Choice of media and writing style
B. Observation and conversation
C. Listening and facilitation techniques
D. A and C

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6. You have been working under a Cost Plus Incentive contract, with a 75/25 share. The target
cost and target fee in the contract are $150,000 and $25,000, respectively. The contract ceiling
amount is $195,000. Over the course of the contract, the seller incurred $180,000 in actual
documented costs. What is the total payout for the procurement?
A. $180,000
B. $197,500
C. $195,000
D. $175,000

7. Which of the following is true of a definite estimate (also called grassroots or engineering
estimate):
A. It is generally accurate within plus or minus 10%
B. It is usually based on analogous information
C. It can be prepared quickly
D. B and C

8. Which of the following statements is not true?

A. The project charter not only identifies the project manager, but also states the level of
authority the project manager will have.
B. The project charter does not contain the high level requirements – those are managed
as part of the initial project management plan.
C. The project charter contains the project approval requirements and identifies who has
to sign what for approval.
D. The project charter contains a business case with a financial justification for the
project.

9. A project management plan is a series of plans and baselines. Which of the following is not
one of the baselines included in the project management plan?
A. Schedule
B. Scope
C. Quality
D. All of the above are baselines

10. Which option best describes a work authorization system:

A. A software system to schedule tasks.
B. A software system able to associate a given person with a task.
C. A system of procedures and forms to initiate, track and authorize completion of
project tasks.
D. A system that defines detailed information about each work package to be completed.

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11. Which of the following statements is completely true:

A. The scope statement is composed of the WBS, the WBS dictionary, and the scope
baseline.
B. The scope baseline is composed of the WBS, the WBS dictionary, and the scope
statement.
C. The scope statement contains the product scope, the project scope, and the WBS.
D. The scope statement contains the product scope, assumptions and constraints, and
the WBS.

12. Costs that the project manager has the least influence on are:
A. Direct and variable
B. Direct and fixed
C. Indirect and variable
D. Indirect and fixed

13. Which of the following statements is true?

A. The cost baseline contains the management reserves.
B. The 50/50 rule means an activity is considered 50% complete when it starts and 50%
complete when it finishes.
C. CV = EV – PV
D. A value analysis attempts to find method for attaining the same results.

14. Organizational charts and position descriptions are tools used during:
A. The Develop Human Resource Plan process
B. The Define Roles process
C. The Develop Project Team process
D. The Manage Project Team process

15. According to the PMBOK, in a decision tree diagram, a triangle is used to identify:
A. A decision node
B. A chance node
C. End of Branch
D. The PMBOK does not use triangles in decision trees

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16. Your team has been having difficulty controlling a manufacturing process so that data points
fall within the specification limits and the control limits. The specification limits are 31.9 liters to
32.1 liters. The following readings are captured:

31.93, 32.01, 31.925, 32.1, 31.99, 31.95, 32.15

The best course of action is:

A. Find an assignable cause and make corrections to the process.
B. Find an assignable cause because of the Rule of Seven.
C. Undetermined - more data points are required.
D. Undetermined as the question does not state the specification limits.

17. PMPs have an obligation to avoid conflicts of interest. Nevertheless, such conflicts can be
unexpectedly encountered. In the event of a conflict of interest, the PMPs refrain from the
decision-making process until all of the following are true EXCEPT:
A. The manager has made full disclosure to the affected stakeholders.
B. The manager has an approved mitigation plan.
C. The manager has obtained the consent of the stakeholders to proceed.
D. The manager has written approval from all stakeholders.

18. Your project CPI has dropped from 1.0 to .5 in the last past 2 weeks. You should
communicate this information to the customer in the following manner:
A. Formally and in writing
B. Formally and verbally (so you have the opportunity to actively manage emotions and
expectations in person)
C. Informally and verbally (to downplay bad news and ensure the customer remains
calm)
D. Informally, but in writing (to minimize concern, but to ensure the message has been
received)
19. When acquiring a project team, a project manager should consider that:
A. Getting the right staffing is rarely the cause of project failure
B. Negotiation and influencing skills are paramount
C. Constraints may dictate use of alternate resources
D. B and C

20. Stakeholders are classified:

A. According to their interest, influence, importance and expectations
B. Because while they’re not diverse, there may be many of them to consider
C. Only on very large projects
D. Because placement into categories allows identical treatment of large groups

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21. Managing stakeholder engagement:

A. Helps minimize stakeholder impact
B. Keeps stakeholders out of the project manager’s way
C. Monitors overall project stakeholder relationships
D. Allows stakeholders to be active project supporters

22. In conducting procurements, a tool to bring the buyer and potential sellers together to
proposal submittals is a(n):
A. Proposal pre-evaluation
B. Independent estimate gathering
C. Procurement negotiation
D. Bidder conference

23. Assuming that your team is one that has begun to work together well, has developed a
trusting relationship, but has not yet reached its peak output, what stage of development have
they reached?
A. Forming
B. Storming
C. Performing
D. Norming

24. Activity network diagrams used in quality assurance include:

A. Activity on arrow
B. Activity on node
C. A and B
D. None of the above

25. You are about to undertake identification of stakeholders. What items would you consider as
you begin this process?
A. The project management plan
B. The communications plan
C. Procurement documents
D. The risk management plan

26. A project is:

A. A set of sequential activities performed in a process or system.
B. A revenue-generating activity that needs to be accomplished while achieving
customer satisfaction.
C. An ongoing endeavor undertaken to meet customer or market requirements.
D. A temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result.

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27. Workaround is:

A. A response to a threat that has occurred, for which a prior response had not been
planned or was not effective.
B. A contingency plan to avoid, transfer, or mitigate a negative risk or threat.
C. Implementation of the established contingency plan to avoid a negative risk or threat,
or to exploit a positive risk or an opportunity.
D. Using global sourcing to continue project work around the clock.

28. The cost performance baseline has all of the following characteristics EXCEPT:

A. It is the approved version of the time-phased project budget, excluding any

management reserves, and is used as a basis for comparison with actual results.
B. It shows the actual cost expenditures throughout the project life cycle.
C. It is developed as a summation of the approved budgets for the different schedule
activities.
D. It is typically displayed in the form of an S-curve.

29. Control Communications is the process of:

A. Ensuring that information is provided on a need-to-know basis only to avoid
unnecessary confusion and possible conflicts.
B. Monitoring and controlling communications throughout the entire project life cycle to
ensure the information needs of the project stakeholders are met.
C. Providing all project information to all project stakeholders to enhance full buy-in
regarding project requirements.
D. Securing and guarding any negative information related to project performance
throughout the entire project life cycle to ensure that the project team can continue
working on the project with minimal disruption.

30. The iterative process of increasing the level of detail in a project management plan as
greater amounts of information and more accurate estimates become available is called:
A. Quality function deployment (QFD)
B. Agile project planning method
C. Progressive elaboration
D. Sequential planning method (SPM)

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31. Control charts have all of the following characteristics EXCEPT:

A. They are used to determine whether or not a process is stable or has predictable
performance.
B. They can be used to monitor various types of output variables.
C. They are used to illustrate how various factors might be linked to potential problems
or effects.
D. They are graphical displays of process data over time and against established control
limits, which has a centerline that assists in detecting a trend of plotted values toward
either control limit.

32. Crashing in time management is:

A. A schedule compression technique used to shorten the schedule duration for the least
incremental cost by adding resources.
B. A schedule compression technique in which phases or activities that are normally
done in sequence are performed in parallel.
C. The timely input of data to calculate the critical path.
D. Equivalent to minimizing float in the project schedule network.

33. To be successful, an organization should be committed to addressing risk management:

A. Just in time before a meeting with major stakeholders of the project.
B. Proactively and consistently throughout the project.
C. As soon as time and cost estimates are ready.
D. As early as possible in the execution phase.

34. Cultural differences:

A. Are primarily individual issues that need to be avoided in project teams.
B. Involve internal stakeholders primarily and should not be apparent to external
stakeholders because such differences do not involve them.
C. Can impact the speed of working, the decision-making process, and the impulse to
act without appropriate planning.
D. Should not generally lead to conflict and stress in organizations. Therefore, they do
not affect the performance of professionals working on project teams and their ability to
meet project objectives.

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35. Which of the following is true regarding precision and accuracy?

A. Precision is a measure of correctness, whereas accuracy is an assessment of
exactness.
B. Precision is a measure of exactness, whereas accuracy is an assessment of
correctness.
C. Precision and accuracy are essentially the same.
D. As an example, points clustered tightly in one area of the target but not in the bull’s
eye are considered to have a high accuracy, whereas points that are more spread out
but equidistant from the bull’s eye are considered to have the same degree of precision.

36. Team building has all of the following characteristics EXCEPT:

A. Team-building activities can vary from a 5 minute agenda item in a status review
meeting to an offsite, professionally facilitated experience designed to improve
interpersonal relationships.
B. Team-building should be primarily considered after major conflicts within the project
team, because they generally waste precious resource time and cause schedule delays.
C. Team-building Strategies are particularly valuable when team members operate from
remote locations without the benefit of face-to face contact.
D. Team-building is essential during the front end of the project and is an ongoing
process. To effectively manage inevitable changes in the project environment, a
continued or renewed team-building effort is required.

37. Communication activities have many potential dimensions that generally include all of the
following EXCEPT:
A. Written, oral, and non-verbal
B. Internal and external
C. Conceptual and definitive
D. Formal and informal

38. As an output of Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process, the risk register is updated.
These updates generally include:
A. Prioritized list of quantified risks.
B. Qualitative analysis of the threads to ignore and opportunities to accept.
C. Checklists, corrective actions, and qualified decision trees.
D. Direction, resources, and contingency costs.

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39. Classification of an engagement level of stakeholders includes all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Resistant
B. Neutral
C. Supportive
D. Manipulative

40. You are using a classification model for stakeholder’s analysis that groups the stakeholders
based on their level of authority and their level or concern regarding the project outcomes. This
in known as:
A. Power/influence grid
B. Influence/impact grid
C. Power/interest grid
D. Salience model

41. Cost plus fixed fee contracts (CPFF) have all of the following characteristics EXCEPT:
A. Seller is reimbursed for all allowable costs for performing the contract work.
B. Seller receives a fixed-fee payment calculated as a percentage of the actual project
costs.
C. Seller receives a fixed-fee payment calculated as a percentage of the initial estimated
project costs.
D. The fee is paid only for completed work and does not change due to seller
performance unless the project scope changes.

42. An activity in a project network has the following characteristics: ES = 5, EF = 10, and
LF = 14. Therefore, LS = ______.
A. 9 weeks
B. 10 weeks
C. 11 weeks
D. 12 weeks

43. Program Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT) uses:

A. The weighted average of the triangular or beta distribution duration estimates to
calculate the activity early finish date when there is uncertainty with the individual activity
estimates.
B. The weighted average of optimistic, pessimistic, and most likely estimates to calculate
the expected duration of the activity.
C. Dummy activities to represent logic links among three or more activities.
D. Free float instead of total float in the schedule calculations.

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44. The responsibility assignment matrix (RAM) is:

A. Used for development of the project budget and network diagrams.
B. Developed at the activity level and used to closely link project roles and
responsibilities to project network activities.
C. Used to illustrate the connections between work packages or activities and project
team members. It ensures that there is only one person accountable for any one task to
avoid confusion of responsibility.
D. Used to identify accountabilities and responsibilities in individual performance
appraisals of project team members.

45. Lessons learned documentation generally includes all of the following EXCEPT:
A. The causes of issues.
B. Updates of the statement of work to reflect training and learning requirements.
C. Reasoning behind the corrective action chosen.
D. Other types of lessons learned about communications management.

46. Quality and grade are not the same. A fundamental distinction is that:
A. Quality as a delivered performance or result is the degree to which a set of inherent
characteristics fulfill requirements; grade as a design intent is a category assigned to
deliverables having the same functional use but different technical characteristics.
B. A quality level that fails to meet quality requirements may not be a problem; a low
grade of quality is always a problem.
C. Delivering the required levels of quality is not included in the responsibilities of the
project manager and the project team.
D. Delivering the required levels of grade is not included in the responsibilities of the
project manager and the project team.

47. Which of the following cumulative measures indicates that your project is about 9% under
budget?
A. The cumulative AC was 100, and the cumulative EV was 110.
B. The cumulative PV was 100, and the cumulative AC was 110.
C. The cumulative was AC 110, and the cumulative EV was 100.
D. The cumulative EV was 100, and the cumulative PV was 110.

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48. In which type of contracts do buyers need to precisely specify the product or services being
procured?
A. Cost plus award fee contracts
B. Fixed-priced contracts
C. Cost-reimbursable contracts
D. Partnership contracts

49. All of the following are tools and techniques of the Conduct Procurements process
EXCEPT:
A. Proposal evaluation techniques
B. Independent estimates
C. Procurement negotiations
D. Resource distribution system

50. What does cost of quality mean?

A. The sacrifice of essential project objectives to meet essential quality standards.
B. The life cycle cost of the project, including costs for quality planning and failure costs.
C. Determining the costs of meeting project objectives including cost for quality control,
quality assurance, and rework.
D. Determining the costs incurred to ensure quality.

51. Perform Quality Assurance is the process of:

A. Applying planned systematic quality activities to ensure effective policing and
conformance of the project team to the approved specifications.
B. Providing the project team and stakeholders with standards by which project
performance is measured.
C. Auditing the quality requirements and the results from quality control measurements
to ensure that appropriate quality standards and operational definitions are used.
D. Assuring the implementation of appropriate specifications, which generally reduces
the probability of the project being completed on schedule.

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52. You are managing a $10 million project. Which of the following is an acceptable cause for
“re-baselining” this project?
A. The client has approved an addition to the scope of the project with a $150,000
budget increase and a 2 week extension of the scheduled completion.
B. The contractor’s company has instituted a Quality Assurance Program in which it has
pledged to spend one million dollars during the next year.
C. The productivity in the Design Department is lower than estimated, which has
resulted in 1,100 additional hours over what was budgeted and a forecasted 2 week
delay of the scheduled completion.

53. Project Management Process Groups are:

A. Overlapping activities that occur throughout the project.
B. Overlapping activities that generally occur at the same level of intensity within each
phase of the project.
C. Generally discrete, one-time events.
D. Discrete, repetitive events that occur generally at the same level of intensity
throughout each phase of the project.

54. Which of the following is NOT true about tools and techniques of Perform Integrated
Change Control?
A. They include expert judgment
B. They include change control meetings
C. A change control board (CCB) is responsible for meeting and reviewing the change
requests and approving, rejecting, or other disposition of those changes.
D. They include project plan updates

55. All of the following are characteristics of the Project Management Information System
(PMIS) EXCEPT:
A. It is part of the environmental factors
B. It provides access to tools, such as a scheduling tool, a work authorization system, a
configuration management system, an information collection and distribution system, or
interfaces to other online automated systems.
C. It is used as part of the Direct and Manage Project Work.
D. It is used by the project manager and the project management team primarily to
generate presentations to key stakeholders.

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56. The Delphi Technique has all of the following characteristics EXCEPT:
A. It is a way to reach a consensus of experts on a subject such as project risk.
B. It is a technique in which project experts participate anonymously.
C. It helps reduce bias in the data and keeps any one person from having undue
influence on the outcome.
D. It is based on an ancient Greek technique to ensure that actions of subordinates are
aligned with the vision of senior executives.

57. The risk rating:

A. Is calculated by multiplying the probability of the occurrence of a risk times its impact
(numerical scale) on an objective (e.g., cost, time, scope, or quality) if it were to occur.
B. Is the sum of squares of the scale values assigned to the estimates of probability and
impact
C. Cannot be used to determine whether a risk is considered low, moderate, or high.
D. Is a commonly used technique for risk avoidance

58. All of the following are true about the project scope statement EXCEPT:
A. It is an output of the Validate Scope Process.
B. It describes =, in detail the project’s deliverables and the work required to create
those deliverables.
C. It provides a common understanding of the project scope among project
stakeholders.
D. It may contain explicit scope exclusions that can assist in managing stakeholder
expectations.

59. The project manager has the greatest level of independence and authority in a
__________________ organization.
A. Strong Matrix
B. Weak Matrix
C. Projectized
D. Functional

60. The collection of generally sequential and sometimes overlapping project phases, whose
name and number are determined by the management and control needs of the organization or
organizations involved in the project, is known as the:
A. Project waterfall
B. Project life cycle
C. Project life stages
D. Project Management Process Groups

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61. Your team is having trouble estimating the duration of a coding activity for a software
project. The developers seem more comfortable providing estimates in terms of lines of code
than in terms of hours required to write those lines. You decide to make use of some data from
a previous project that is analogous to your current project. On the previous project it took 1 day
to write 50 lines of code. Based on the information, it appears as though the duration of the
coding task on this new project will take 5 days. This is an example of the PMBOK technique
known as:
A. Analogous estimating
B. Parametric estimating
C. Comparable estimating
D. Equivalent estimating

62. Which of the following diagrams are used to determine root causes?
A. Ishikawa
B. Fishbone
C. Pareto charts and the 80/20 principle
D. Scatter diagrams

63. Which of the following statements is false?

A. ISO9000 is a family of standards designed to ensure companies have quality
standards and that those companies follow their own standards.
B. The upper and lower tolerance limits are used to determine if a process is out of
control.
C. The Rule of Seven is a heuristic.
D. A Design of Experiments (DOE) might be used to determine which of 25 different
possible changes might improve a product’s quality the most.

64. You are constructing a new office building for your company. You have determined that if
the structure is constructed on lot 7 (rather than the originally lot 6), property taxes are
guaranteed to be reduced by 4%. Moreover, by keeping the structure below two stories, you
increase the likelihood that the structure will be classified as environmental friendly. And the
company will qualify for an additional .5% property tax decrease. Placing the structure on lot 7 is
a _____________risk response strategy, while confining the building to two stories is a
______________ risk response strategy.
A. Exploit and Share
B. Transfer and Exploit
C. Exploit and Enhance
D. Enhance and Share

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Use the following data for the next two questions:

A: 2 days; no predecessors
B: 3 days; no predecessors
C: 4 days; both A & B are predecessors
D: 3 days; A is predecessor
E: 2 days; B is a predecessor
F: 1 day; both C & E are predecessors

65. What is your critical path, and its length?

A. ACF; 7 days
B. BCF; 8 days
C. BEF; 8 days
D. None of the above

66. More content has been added to Activity F, extending its duration to 2 days, and your critical
path by one day. To make things worse, your boss has told you that the work must be
completed in 6 days, at the lowest possible cost. Looking at the table below, which tasks would
you crash, in what sequence, and what would your crashing cost be?

Activity Schedule Days Crashable Days Crash Cost/Day

A 2 1 $ 1,000
B 3 1 $ 4,000
C 4 2 $ 10,000
D 3 2 $ 1,000
E 2 1 $ 1,000
F 2 1 $ 2,000

A. D, E & F; $ 4,000
B. F, E & B; $ 7,000
C. F, A & C; $ 13,000
D. F, B & C; $ 16,000

67. When using an agile vs. traditional/waterfall approach, Control Schedule is about:
A. Conducting prospective views in order to correct problems
B. Analyzing the prioritization of work that has been completed
C. Reprioritizing the work backlog
D. Presiding work velocity for the typical three-month iteration cycles

68. Effective stakeholder management:

A. Recognizes that stakeholder influence is highest during latter project stages
B. Recognizes that stakeholder influence is highest during initial project stages
C. Recognizes that the project’s sponsor is responsible for managing this area
D. Recognizes that active stakeholder management can increase project risk

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69. Project management processes closely linked to controlling procurements include:

A. Control Quality and Control Risks
B. Plan Schedule and Plan Cost
C. Manage Communications and Manage Stakeholder Engagement
D. Control Communications and Control Stakeholder Engagement

70. Variance Analysis as a Control Scope technique:

A. Decides whether corrective or preventive action is required
B. Is equivalent to EVM
C. May indicate potential impacts from threats or opportunities
D. A & C

71. Which of the following is true about statistical control processes?

A. Attribute sampling determines whether a result conforms or not
B. Variables sampling defines a range of common statistical variation
C. Tolerances identifies boundaries of common statistical variation
D. Control limits measures the result on a continuous scale of conformity

72. Work Performance Data

A. Are measurements integrated and analyzed in context
B. Are the physical representation of information
C. Are raw observations regarding about such things as completion status of
deliverables
D. None of the above

73. When monitoring and controlling project work, one of your key inputs will be:
A. Work Performance reports
B. Expert Judgment
C. Cost and Schedule Forecast
D. All of the Above

74. A Requirements Traceability Matrix traces requirements for all but which of the following?
A. Production support
B. Test strategy
C. Project scope
D. Product design

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75. Tools and techniques used in controlling risk include:

A. Variance, trend and reserve analysis
B. Information management systems, expert judgment and meetings
C. Inspections, performance reporting and records management systems
D. Forecasting, performance reviews and reserve analysis

76. Scope verification and quality control:

A. Are the same
B. Differ, in that scope verification is concerned with deliverables acceptance, and
quality control with the correctness of those deliverables
C. Usually happens simultaneously
D. Differ, in that quality control is concerned with deliverables acceptance and scope
validation with the correctness of those deliverables

77. The Close Project or Phase Process:

A. Establishes procedures for handling early project termination
B. Engages all relevant stakeholders
C. A and B
D. None of the above

78. Tree diagrams:

A. Are synonymous with Decision Trees
B. Are what is used to depict a WBS, RBS, or OBS
C. May only be depicted in a vertical structure
D. Always terminate in multiple decision points

79. The Perform Integrated Change Control Process:

A. Begins sometime after the project’s inception
B. Accepts changes in both oral and written form
C. Often employs a Change Control Board to review/evaluate changes
D. Requires only the approval of the project manager to move changes forward

80. Examples of work performance data include:

A. Status reports
B. Key performance indicators
C. Memos
D. Recommendations

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81. Often, a Multi-Criteria Decision Analysis is used to assist in making project staffing
decisions. Some examples of selection criteria include:
A. Brainstorming
B. Knowledge and Availability
C. Negotiation
D. A and B

Use the following information to answer the next four questions:

You have just been handed responsibility for a project that is well underway. It was originally
budgeted at 200,000 hours of work. About 40% of the project’s planned value has been created,
its schedule variance is 5,000, ad its CPI is running at .90.

82. What is the cost variance for the project?

A. 2014
B. -8889
C. 8889
D. -2014

83. What is the schedule performance index for the project?

A. 5000
B. .93
C. -5000
D. 1.07

84. Assuming that you have corrected the issues leading to your current CPI, what would your
EAC for the project be?
A. 210,000
B. 222,000
C. 208,889
D. 212,889

85. Your boss has seen your latest EAC projection, and is not happy. Being a realist, though, as
well as a fan of the TCPI metric, he wants to know what your TCPI would have to be to bring the
project in at 3% over the original budget. What is that number?
A. 1.08
B. 1.035
C. 1.07
D. 1.025

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86. The project charter:

A. Includes change and configuration management plans
B. Formally authorizes the project and the project manager
C. Documents business needs, assumptions and constraints
D. B and C

87. A stakeholder classification model that categorizes stakeholders based on their power and
legitimacy is a:
A. Power/Interest Grid
B. Salience Model
C. Power/Influence Grid
D. Influence/Impact Grid

88. A purpose of the Control Risks process is to determine if:

A. Stakeholders are appropriately engaged in the process
B. Contingency reserves need modification
C. Project requirements are in danger of not being satisfied
D. Cost expenditure are in danger of exceeding the budget

89. You are talking to the contractor building your new home, who was very excited to find out
you are a project manager. You have asked him why there has been no noticeable activity on
the site over the last week. He just informed you that a week ago, the foundation slab was
poured, and that it must cure for ten days before framing activity can start. This predecessor-
successor relationship attribute is known as:
A. Lead
B. Mandatory
C. Lag
D. Fixed

90. A procurement Audit:

A. Identifies significant project successes and failures
B. Identifies significant project successes
C. Is fairly unstructured in its application
D. Is focused on the project, and does not extend to other organizational projects.

91. Work Performance Information from the Control Scope process includes:
A. Which deliverables have been accepted?
B. Amount of rework required
C. How scope variances may impact schedule or cost
D. Contract compliance information

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92. Your fellow PM has just stopped by your desk to chat. She sees that you are down in the
dumps. When she asks why, you tell her that you’re working a very labor intensive project, and
struggling to organize the many types and number of resources. She suggests you use an RBS
to categorize your resources hierarchically. An RBS is this context, is a:
A. Risk Breakdown Structure
B. Resource Breakdown Structure
C. Resource Break-Fix
D. Responsibility Breakdown Structure

93. A project was budgeted to take 2,000 hours of work. 750 hours have been burned, and 600
hours of value have actually been created. Your SPI is .9. What is the project’s SV?
A. 150
B. -150
C. 67
D. -67

94. Conditions driving the business need for a project include:

A. Solution or quality requirements
B. Market demand or social need
C. Customer requests or legal requirements
D. B and C

95. At the beginning of your project, you and your sponsor agreed on acceptable limits for the
project’s process variables. You are 3 months into the project. The sponsor is asking you if the
variables are within those limits. To answer him, you consult your:
A. Run chart
B. Control chart
C. Scatter diagram
D. Histogram

96. A Quantitative Risk Analysis technique that uses simulations and probability distribution is:
A. Sensitivity analysis
B. Expected monetary value analysis
C. Monte Carlo technique
D. Expert Judgment

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97. You have been told that a project activity will most likely take 10 days. If all goes well, it will
only take 6 days. However, if Murphy’s Law strikes, it could take 20 days. Given this uncertainty,
you have decided to estimate the activity using a Beta, or PERT distribution. You deliver and
estimation of:
A. 10 days
B. 13 days
C. 12 days
D. 11 days

98. You are being tasked with a project that is globally sourced. Your first step is to:
A. Send a memo to all prospective team members noting your appointment
B. Prepare a project charter
C. Hire a translator and cultural coach to minimize misunderstandings
D. Ask your sponsor to prepare a project charter

99. One of the key Inputs to the Direct and Manage Project Work process is Approved Change
Request. Those change requests:
A. Are always corrective actions or defect repairs
B. Never result in modifications to polies or procedures
C. A and B
D. Could potentially impact any area of the project

100. Procurement documents coming out of the Close Procurement Process:

A. Are not used as a basis for evaluating contractors in the future
B. Do not include cost and schedule performance data
C. Include stakeholder register information
D. Include contract payment records and inspection results

101. Conflict is:

A. Bad
B. Avoidable when a project plan is properly put together and managed effectively
C. Always managed using a Collaborative style
D. Inevitable

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102. You have been assigned to a project where your team will be comprised of people that
have worked together well in the past. It will involve building and outsourcing, then integrating
components into a final solution. You believe that the biggest challenges will be keeping
contractors on schedule and integrating their work. Your first step is to:
A. Begin work on the project plan
B. Hold a kick-off meeting
C. Engage the customers in requirements discussions
D. Begin procurement planning for purchased components

103. Product Analysis and Alternatives Generation are two techniques used to:
A. Create WBS
B. Collect Requirements
C. Define Scope
D. Define Activities

104. You are running a project in an enterprise in which the project environment is one where
the project manager’s role is acknowledged, but you have low to moderate control. What type of
project structure is this?
A. Balanced Matrix
B. Weak Matrix
C. Strong Matrix
D. Functional

105. The Change Log that flows from the integrated Change Control process:
A. Includes impacts in terms of risk to the project
B. Does not include information on rejected changes
C. Is for project team use only, and not typically shared with external stakeholders
D. A and B

106. A Requirements Management Plan includes:

A. A requirements prioritization process
B. Stakeholder requirements
C. Products metrics to be used
D. A and C

107. You have just finished work on a document that includes a project scope statement, a
WBS and a WBS dictionary. What have you just completed?
A. Performance Measurement Baseline
B. Requirements Document
C. SOW
D. Scope Baseline

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108. Dependency attributes include:

A. Mandatory or Discretionary
B. Fixed or Variable
C. Internal or External
D. A and C

109. Organizational process assets updated by the Controlling Stakeholders process include:
A. Project or phase closure documents
B. Scope, cost and schedule baselines
C. Project presentations and reports
D. A and B

110. Configuration Management activities include all but which of the following:
A. Configuration identification
B. Configuration status accounting
C. Configuration scope creep control
D. Configuration verification/audit

111. In planning procurements, which of the following might be used as source selection
criteria?
A. Warranty proposed and business size/type
B. Life cycle costs and financial capacity
C. Management approach and understanding of need
D. All of the above

112. Project Management is:

A. The integration of the critical path method and the Earned Value Management
system.
B. The application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet
the project requirements.
C. The application of knowledge, skills, wisdom, science, and art to organizational
activities to achieve operational excellence.
D. A subset of most engineering and other technical disciplines.

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113. Managing a project typically includes:

A. Balancing the competing project constraints, which include scope, quality, schedule,
budget, resources, and risks.
B. Integrating requirements of profitability, low cost, and legal requirements.
C. Implementation of software, hardware, and other systems to enhance organizational
efficiency.
D. Supporting human factors, communications, discipline, and performance
management.

114. A program is a:
A. Group of related activities lasting one year or less.
B. Group of related projects, subprograms, and programs activities managed in a
coordinated way.
C. Project with a cost over $1 million.
D. Sequence of steps constituting a project.

115. Project success is measured by:

A. Product and project quality, timeliness, budget compliance, and degree of customer
satisfaction
B. Degree to which the project satisfies its time and budget objectives
C. The triple constraints of schedule, cost, and technical performance.
D. Degree to which the project satisfies the needs for which it was undertaken and its
long-term contribution to aggregate performance of the organization’s portfolio.

116. A primary function of a project management office (PMO) is to support project managers in
a variety of ways which may include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Delivering specific project objectives and controlling the assigned project resources to
best meet objectives of the project.
B. Managing shared resources across all projects administered by the PMO.
C. Identifying and developing project management methodology, best practices, and
standards.
D. Coaching, mentoring, training, and oversight.

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117. Enterprise environmental factors refer to both internal and external environmental factors
that surround or influence a project’s success. All of the following are true about these factors
EXCEPT:
A. Enterprise factors include organizational culture, structure, and processes.
B. Enterprise environmental factors include government or industry standards, such as
regulatory agency regulation, codes of conduct, product standards, quality standards,
and workmanship standards.
C. Enterprise environmental factors include project management information systems
(e.g., an automated tool, such as a scheduling software tool, a configuration
management system, an information collection and distribution system, or web
interfaces to other online automated systems.
D. Enterprise environmental factors do not include personnel administration functions
(e.g., staffing and retention guidelines, employee performance reviews and training
records, reward and overtime policies, and time tracking) because these are considered
to function of the human resource department.

118. The following is true about the WBS:

A. The WBS is another term for the bar (Gantt) chart.
B. Each descending level of the WBS represents an increasing detailed definition of the
project work.
C. Work not in the WBS is usually defined in the scope statement of the project.
D. The WBS shows only the critical path activities.

119. All of the following are true about the Control Scope process EXCEPT:
A. Control Scope is the process of monitoring the status of the project and product scope
and managing changes to the scope baseline.
B. Control Scope is used to manage the actual changes when they occur and is
integrated with the other control processes.
C. Scope changes can be avoided by developing clear and concise specifications and
enforcing strict adherence to them.
D. Project scope control includes determining the cause and degree of variance to the
scope baseline and deciding whether corrective or preventive action is required.

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120. Inputs to the Define Activities process are:

A. Schedule management plan, work breakdown structure, project schedule, and
network diagram.
B. Project schedule, resource estimates, progress reports, and change requests.
C. Scope management plan, project network diagram, constraints and assumptions.
D. Schedule management plan, scope baseline, enterprise environmental factors, and
organizational process assets.

121. All of the following are true about resource levelling EXCEPT:
A. It can be used to keep resource usage at a constant level during certain time periods.
B. It can often cause the original critical path to change, usually to increase.
C. It is used to develop a resource-based WBS.
D. It is a resource optimization technique that can be used to adjust the schedule model
due to demand and supply of resources.

122. The critical chain:

A. Focuses on managing the resources applied to the project buffer and feeding buffer
activities.
B. Adjusts the required dependencies in the project schedule to optimize resource
constraints.
C. Adds duration buffers that are work schedule activities to manage risks and maintain
focus on the total float of network paths.
D. Adds duration buffers that are non-work schedule activities to manage uncertainty
and focuses on managing the remaining buffer durations against the remaining durations
of chains of activities.

123. Project Cost Management includes all of the following processes EXCEPT:
A. Plan cost management
B. Level resources
C. Determine budget
D. Control Cost

124. Your earned value management analysis indicates that your project is falling behind its
baseline schedule. You know this because the cumulative EV is much:
A. Higher than the cumulative AC.
B. Higher than the cumulative PV
C. Lower than the cumulative PV.
D. Lower than the cumulative CPI.

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125. In earned value management, the cost variance is equal to:

A. EV minus PV.
B. EV minus AC
C. AC minus EV.
D. PV minus EV.

Cumulative data for questions 126-127:

Item PV AC EV
1 10,000 11,000 10,000
2 9,000 8,000 7,000
3 8,000 8,000 8,000
4 7,000 7,000 5,000

126. Which item is MOST over budget?

A. Item 1
B. Item 2
C. Item 3
D. Item 4

127. Which item has the LOWEST SPI?

A. Item 1
B. Item 2
C. Item 3
D. Item 4

128. Cost of quality includes all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Preventing non-conformance to requirements.
B. Appraising the product or service for conformance to requirements.
C. Failing to meet requirements (reword).
D. Operating computers required for the project.

129. Benchmarking involves comparing actual or planned project practices to those of

comparable projects with all of the following characteristics EXCEPT:
A. To identify best practices and generate ideas for improvement.
B. To provide a basis for measuring performance.
C. Within the performing organization or outside of it.
D. Within the same application area but not in a different application area.

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130. All of the following are true about Six Sigma and Lean Six Sigma EXCEPT:
A. It is a quality improvement initiative undertaken by the performing organization.
B. It could improve the quality of the project’s management.
C. It could improve the quality of the project’s product.
D. It focuses on systematically correcting defects, errors, or mistakes revealed by
inspection.

131. The basis for continuous quality improvement is the:

A. Plan-do-check-act (PDCA) cycle as defined by Shewhart and modified by Deming.
B. Process decision program chart (PDPC).
C. Ready-aim-fire (RAF) cycle linked by results.
D. Conceptualize-design-execute-finish (CDEF) cycle

132. Generally acknowledged techniques for resolving conflict include:

A. Smooth, compromise, collaborate, and co-locating.
B. Accept, compromise, attack, and separate.
C. Accommodate, compromise, force, and collaborate.
D. Withdraw, force, elaborate, and provide sensitivity training.

133. Examples of interpersonal skills that a project manager uses most often include all of the
following indicators EXCEPT:
A. Leadership
B. Influencing
C. Biasing
D. Effective decision making

134. Payment systems generally include all of the following characteristics EXCEPT:
A. Payments are typically processed after certification of satisfactory work by an
authorized person on the project team.
B. All payments should be made and documented in strict accordance with the terms of
the contract.
C. Re-negotiations of the price and other terms of the contract are typically conducted
prior to authorizing payments to the seller.
D. Payments to the seller are typically processed by the accounts payable system of the
buyer.

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135. Acceptance criteria:

A. Are developed during phase-end reviews to ensure authorization to close the current
phase and start the subsequent one:
B. Are a set of conditions that are required to be met before deliverables are accepted.
C. Can be passive or active allowing the project team to deal with the risks as they
occur.
D. Are distinct from performance measurements, which are aimed at meeting or
exceeding technical specifications.

136. In what way does free float differ from total float?
A. Free float is the amount of total float that does not affect the schedule end date or
violate a schedule constraint, whereas total float is the total accumulated amount of free
float.
B. There is no difference-the two terms are functionally equivalent and are used in
different application areas.
C. Free float is the amount of time that a schedule activity can be delayed without
delaying the early start date of any successor or violating a schedule constraint, whereas
total float is the amount of time that a schedule activity can be delayed or extended from
its early start date without delaying the project finish date or violating a schedule
constraint.
D. Free float of a schedule activity is calculated by subtracting the total float of the
schedule activity from the total float of the critical path, without violating other schedule
constraints.

137. The approved project baseline may only be changed:

A. When a sequence of activities has taken longer than originally planned or costs more
than originally estimated, and in excess of the thresholds established in the performance
management plan.
B. When a change request is generated and approved through the Perform Integrated
Change Control process.
C. When the productivity within a certain discipline has been substantially higher or
lower than originally planned, and in excess of the thresholds established in the
performance measurement plan.
D. When a high-duration activity has been accomplished “out-of-sequence.”

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138. All of the following are true about the product life cycle EXCEPT:
A. It is a series of phases that represent the evolution of a product.
B. The last product life cycle phase for a product is generally the product’s retirement.
C. Operations are ongoing endeavors that produce repetitive outputs according to the
standards institutionalized in a product life cycle.
D. The project life cycle contains one or more product life cycles, and therefore the two
life cycles are synonymous.

139. The project’s performance measurement baseline:

A. Is used to measure and manage performance.
B. Change frequently.
C. Document relevant performance standards of the project team.
D. Can be generally changed by the project team to reflect adherence to project
objectives.

140. The project scope statement:

A. Is a description of the project scope, major deliverables, assumptions, and
constraints.
B. Determines the boundary conditions and responses required to perform project
activities.
C. Is a narrative of project activities, activity sequences, activity durations, and resource
requirements.
D. Is a written statement that identifies the quality standards relevant to project
deliverables and describes how to achieve those standards.

141. The PMBOK® Guide is the standard for:

A. Managing all projects all of the time across all industries.
B. Managing all projects all of the time across some type of industries.
C. Managing most projects most of the time across many types of industries.
D. Managing some projects some of the time across some types of industries.

142. Organizational cultures and styles:

A. Are generally similar and manifest in similar ways.
B. Are generally similar but manifest in different ways.
C. Have no impact on a clearly defined project.
D. May have a strong influence on project’s ability to meet its objectives.

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143. All of the following are true about project governance EXCEPT:
A. It is an oversight function that is aligned with the organization’s governance model
and that encompasses the project life cycle.
B. It is a methodology for managing large government projects.
C. It is a framework that provides the project manager and team with structure,
processes, decision-making models, and tools for managing the project, while
supporting and controlling the project for successful delivery.
D. It includes a framework for making project decisions, defines roles, responsibilities,
and accountabilities for the success of the project; and determines the effectiveness of
the project manager.

144. An example of a mandatory dependency is:

A. A dependency established based on knowledge of best practices within a particular
application area.
B. A dependency established based on some unusual aspect of the project where a
specific sequence is desired.
C. On a construction project, to erect the superstructure only after the foundation has
been built.
D. On a software development project, to start design only after completion and approval
of all project requirements.

145. Which of the following processes is included in Project Integration Management?

A. Develop project management plan.
B. Control scope definition.
C. Review scope verification.
D. Conduct procurement surveillance.

146. In the middle of a project, a project manager creates a set of specific recommendations for
each team member to improve their work. In the middle of a project, processes from any of the
five process group may be performed. However, the production or recommended improvements
is generally regarded as an activity that belongs in which process group?
A. Planning
B. Executing
C. Monitoring and Controlling
D. Closing

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147. You have specifically identified a set of risks on your project are likely to cost your
company $4,000. You have further determined that project in your company of this type often
historically overrun by 30%, which for your project is $30,000. You should:
A. Create a contingency reserve of $34,000
B. Create a management reserve of $34,000
C. Create a contingency reserve of $4,000 and recommend a management reserve of
$ 30,000
D. Create a management reserve of $4,000 and recommend a contingency reserve of
$30,000.

148. Select the best phrase to complete the following sentence:

A work breakdown structure is used to:
A. Communicate activities to the team.
B. Communicate what needs to be produced to the customer.
C. Inform stakeholders what deliverables are required to meet the product scope.
D. Define what is meant by the title of each work package.

149. Which of the following statements is false:

A. Quality assurance is performed in the executing process group, while quality control is
performed in the monitoring and control process group.
B. Marginal analysis is used to determine if the cost of further improving quality
outweighs the benefits associated with the incremental improvement.
C. Total Quality Management is a term associated with a philosophy of continuous
improvements of quality.
D. Kaizen is a term associated with finding the root cause behind quality problems.

150. Which of the following is false:

A. When talking to someone, 55% of the communication is nonverbal
B. Paralingual communication refers to the pitch, volume, and information of someone’s
voice.
C. A collaborative web site where documents are posted disseminate to anyone
interested is an example of push communication.
D. The identifying stakeholders process is part of the Initiating process group.
151. Documented change requests must be either __________ or ___________ by the change
control board.
A. Accepted, deferred
B. Reviewed, deferred
C. Reviewed, accepted
D. Accepted, rejected

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152. The project sponsor asked you to audit the schedule of a project in a chocolate factory.
The project manager provided you with an earned value of $1,234. The number appeared to be
correct. The project baseline shows a planned value of $1,540. What should you do next?
A. Do not trust the project Manager; calculate the earned value yourself to be sure.
B. Calculate the SPI and tell the project manager that no corrective actions are required.
C. Present your findings and ask the project sponsor to consider corrective actions.
D. Confirm the earned value and thank the project manager for doing a great job.

153. Project performance measurements are used to assess the ______________.

A. Magnitude of variation
B. Effectiveness of the team
C. Experience of the project manager
D. Conformance to requirements

154. The following are commonly used process improvement models EXCEPT:
A. Malcolm Baldrige
B. OPM3
C. CMMI
D. PDCA

155. A vendor’s response to a request for proposal (RFP) identified three key team members by
name who will be working on a project. One team member will perform the initial analysis at the
corporate headquarters, and two team members will perform the detailed analysis at various
field offices across the country. With regard to acquiring the project team members, the three
key team members are considered__________________.
A. Pre-assigned
B. Negotiated
C. Acquired
D. Virtual

156. The Identify Risk process uses several tools and techniques. Which information gathering
technique would be most appropriate if you need to work primarily with subject matter experts to
identify the project risks?
A. Brainstorming
B. Delphi Technique
C. Interviewing
D. Root cause analysis

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157. Using decision tree analysis, you calculated that Project A has an expected monetary
value (EMV) of $65,000. In contrast, Project B has an EMV of $75,000. Which project is a better
option?
A. Project A, because it has a lower EMV
B. Project B, because it has a higher EMV
C. Neither project, because the difference in EMV is not significant
D. Both, in order to maximize the results

158. Which risk response strategy can be applied to both negative risks (threats) and positive
risks (opportunities)?
A. Mitigate
B. Exploit
C. Share
D. Accept

159. Which documents are prepared by the sellers and highlight their ability and willingness to
deliver a product, service, or result for the buyer?
A. Agreements
B. Memos of understanding
C. Proposals
D. Letters of intent

160. In a weak and balanced matrix structure, the project manager’s titles are _____________
and ________________ respectively?
A. Project coordinator, project leader
B. Project leader, project expeditor
C. Project expeditor, project manager
D. Project leader, project manager

161. From the following list, which action is an example of a mandatory standard of honesty?
A. Make commitments and promises in good faith
B. Make others feel safe to tell the truth
C. Provide accurate information in a timely manner
D. Do not engage in dishonest behaviours

162. What is the best way to resolve issues that may arise when there is a potential clash
between duty of loyalty and conflict of interest?
A. Adhere to the duty of loyalty
B. Disclose the conflict entirely
C. Avoid the conflict of interest
D. Do not engage in the discussion

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163. A person’s responsibility, legal or moral, to promote the best interest of an organization or
other person with whom he or she is affiliated is called__________________.
A. Duty of loyalty
B. Social obligation
C. Membership affinity
D. Professional responsibility

164. Which statement accurately describes interviews and focus groups?

A. Interviews are one-on-one; focus groups are cross-functional.
B. Interviews are one-one-one; focus groups are usually facilitated by a moderator
C. Interviews are cross-functional; focus groups are usually facilitated by a moderator
D. Interviews are usually facilitated by a moderator; focus groups are cross-functional

165. You have always had suspicions about the professional relationship of another project
manager with a major supplier. You strongly feel that other project managers share the same
suspicions regarding this person. What is the most appropriate course of action in this situation?
A. Ask the other project managers if they share the same suspicions
B. Report the suspicions to the company’s ethics review committee
C. Start gathering facts to substantiate your personal suspicions
D. Stop being envious of the project manager’s relationship
166. You have been provided with a document that contains the market demand and cost-
benefit analysis that justifies the go-ahead of the project. What is this document called?
A. A contract
B. A statement of work
C. A business case
D. An organizational asset

167. As a result of comparing planned results to actual results, change requests may be issued
that expand, adjust, or reduce project or product scope. All of the following are changes that are
included as change requests EXCEPT:
A. Corrective action
B. Situational action
C. Defect repair
D. Preventive action

168. During the process of executing a project, a number of influences drive a project
manager’s activities. Which of the following is an input to this process?
A. Outstanding defects and faults
B. Administrative procedure edits
C. Approved change requests
D. Postponed change requests

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169. When running a project, the project manager must manage the project work. Which of the
following statements is part of effectively monitoring the project progress?
A. Email the team the schedule according to the plan
B. Record the actual progress on task on a daily basis
C. Compare actual activity performance against plan
D. Report only completed activity, schedule, and costs.

170. You have been given the responsibility of documenting why a project was terminated.
Which of the following documents would you use to record this information?
A. Project contract document
B. Project closure document
C. Project scope management
D. Formal acceptance documents

171. You are discussing your role as a project manager with your peers. In the conversation,
another team member describes the process of defining and controlling what is, and what is not,
included in the project. What is this process called?
A. Project documentation management
B. Project change control
C. Project scope management
D. Formal acceptance documents

172. The project team is involved in measuring, examining, and verifying that the work and
deliverables meet the product and acceptance criteria. Which of the following is a summary
description of the work your team is doing?
A. Define Scope: Inputs
B. Validate Scope: Outputs
C. Validate Scope: Inspection
D. Plan Scope Management: Inputs

173. The Control Scope process is part of the ________________knowledge area under the
--------------------------- process group.
A. Project Integration Management; Monitoring and Controlling
B. Project Quality Management; Planning
C. Project Risk Management; Executing
D. Project Scope Management; Monitoring and Controlling

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174. Which of the following is a project management deliverable that identifies, and describes
the types and quantities of each resource required to complete all work packages?
A. Resource calendar updates
B. Activity attribute updates
C. Resource breakdown structure
D. Activity resource requirements

175. As a project manager, your responsibilities include gathering data on actual start and finish
dates of activities, along with remaining durations for work in progress. The work you are doing
is involved with ________________.
A. Cost variance analysis
B. Performance measurement
C. Performance reviews
D. Critical path analysis

176. What factors are needed to calculate the estimate to complete (ETC) for a project?
A. EAC and PV
B. BAC, AC and PV
C. BAC, EV and AC
D. EAC and AC

177. Your company needs to make a decision whether to spend $120K to build a new mobile
app or to enhance an existing one for $50K. With the new mobile app, there is a 60 percent
chance to generate revenue of $200k if the app store reviews are positive. Your company
expects revenue of $90k if the reviews are not so positive. If the company enhances the existing
mobile app, the expected revenue is $120k and $60k respectively with the same probabilities as
the building of a new app. What is the decision expected monetary value (EMV)?
A. $46k
B. $50k
C. $120k
D. $170k

178. It is the duty of a project manager to act impartially and objectively when making decision
and otherwise behaving. This can be classified as ____________________.
A. Fairness
B. Honesty
C. Respect
D. Responsibility

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179. Most of the project’s budget is consumed during_______________________.

A. Project management plan development
B. Project management plan execution
C. Overall change control
D. Project initiation.

180. Which one of the following activities is not part of monitoring and controlling the project
work?
A. Adapting approved changes into the project scope, plans, and environment.
B. Monitoring implementation of approved changes when and as they occur.
C. Comparing actual project performance against the project management plan.
D. Providing forecast to update current costs and current schedule information.

181. Project administrative closure procedures involve all of the following actions and activities
EXCEPT:
A. Raising problem reports for nonperforming parts for the system
B. Archiving project information for future use
C. Gathering Lessons Learned
D. Validating that completion and exit criteria have been met

182. You are managing a two-year project that spans four different countries. As part of the
requirements-gathering process, you have used virtual sessions to compile a list of product
requirements. Two different views remain on one major requirement. You consult with the
project sponsor, who reviews the comments and makes a decision favoring one option. She
justifies by stating it will have a greater benefit to most of the end users. What method of
decision making is this?
A. Plurality
B. Dictatorship
C. Majority
D. Unanimity

183. What is the lowest level of decomposition in a WBS?

A. Work Package
B. Component
C. Deliverable
D. Work item

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184. The predecessor Task A will require seven days to complete and the successor Task B will
require nine days to complete. It is desired to start Task B three days before Task A is
scheduled to finish. Which of the following dependency relationship representations will produce
this result?
A. Task A FF + 3 Task B
B. Task A FF - 4 Task B
C. Task A FS – 2 Task B
D. Task A FS – 3 Task B

185. Which statement is true regarding the Develop Schedule process?

A. Activity duration estimating is one of the process’s central tools and techniques.
B. It must often be iterated along with the processes that provide inputs prior to
determination of the project schedule.
C. It should be made by the person or group on the project team that is most familiar
with the nature of a specific activity.
D. The network diagram is an output of the process.

186. Which statement is accurate in regard to a resource calendar?

A. It contains information regarding vacation and training time of resources.
B. It deals with the work times applicable for all human and equipment resources.
C. It is a component of the project calendar.
D. It is not appropriate for use with resource pools.

187. What is the name for documented recommendations required to bring expected future
project performance into conformance with the project management plan?
A. Adjustment action
B. Corrective action
C. Preventive action
D. Response action

188. Which of the following is not an activity of configuration management system with an
integrated change control process?
A. Configuration identification
B. Configuration status accounting
C. Configuration management plan
D. Configuration control committee

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189. Which change request can have implications for the project management plan, policies,
procedures, schedules, costs, and budgets?
A. Rejected
B. Deferred
C. Declined
D. Approved

190. A supplier in your project provided you confidential product information that the project
team needs in order to integrate the supplier’s product into your organization’s systems. In the
performance of professional services, what are you expected to do with the confidential
information?
A. Always give full disclosure of matters concerning your participation on the project.
B. Always insist that the customer conform to best project management practices.
C. Always maintain and respect the confidentiality of sensitive information.
D. Always maintain and satisfy the scope and objectives of professional services.

191. What element of the project management plan is essential for progress measurements and
control?
A. Defining required communication tasks
B. Defining the key management reviews
C. Documenting project planning assumptions and decisions about chosen alternatives
D. Providing baseline

192. Three programming activities must be completed on time, in order, to begin testing on time.
The first two activities have a 0.90 probability of being completed by the due date. The third has
a 0.80 probability of being completed on time. What is the probability of starting the testing on
time?
A. 0.65
B. 0.70
C. 0.72
D. 0.87

193. _____________________ is not an input to the Close Project or Phase process.

A. Procurement documentation
B. Project management plan
C. Accepted deliverables
D. Organizational process assets

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194. Helen was asked to draw a Pareto chart to determine the common causes of schedule
delays on her project. She identifies five items which she labelled as A, B, C, D, and E with their
corresponding defect frequencies of 100, 350, 200, 180, and 250. In what order should the
corrective action be applied?
A. A, C, E, and B
B. A, D, C, and E
C. B, A, E, and D
D. B, E, C, and D

195. What should you use to anticipate management’s approval of the amount of risk you plan
to take on with your chosen project approach?
A. Probability analysis
B. The company’s risk tolerance level
C. The Delphi method
D. The Monte Carlo method

196. What might be allowed if it is the culture norm in the country where you are working?
A. Making unauthorized disclosure of confidential or sensitive information
B. Paying $500 in local currency to get a key shipment released from customs
C. Representing another company’s analytical tool or methodology as your own
D. Stating that you are experienced in a field when you are not

197. Which of the following terms means the disclosure to others of the unethical behaviour of
another individual, company, or institution?
A. Divulgence
B. Snitching
C. Squealing
D. Whistleblowing

198. Which quality planning tool or technique allows brainstorming of ideas in small groups, and
the ideas are then later reviewed by a larger group?
A. Nominal group technique
B. Affinity diagrams
C. Force field analysis
D. Matrix diagrams

199. All of the following are source selection criteria EXCEPT:

A. Understanding of need
B. Selecting official biases
C. Technical capability
D. Overall or life cycle cost

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200. You must provide a cost estimate for a new project that is similar to two other completed
projects. One cost $456,342 and the other cost $ 437,976. Because this new project is a little
larger, you decide to estimate it at $480,000. This is an example of which of the following?
A. Bottom-up estimating
B. Brainstorming estimating
C. Lateral thinking estimating
D. Top-down estimating

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PMBOK® Guide 5th Edition 200 Sample PMP Exam - Answers

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2. PMBOK® GUIDE 5TH EDITION 200 SAMPLE PMP EXAM -

ANSWERS

1.
Answer: D

PMBOK® Guide Reference: 4.6, Process Group: Closing and the Knowledge Area is
Integration.

2.
Answer: B

PMBOK® Guide Reference: 4.1, Process Group: Initiation, Knowledge Area is Integration

3.
Answer: D

PMBOK® Guide Reference: 4.3, Process Group: Executing and Knowledge Area is
Integration

4.
Answer: C

PMBOK® Guide Reference: 9.2.2.4, Process Group: Executing and Knowledge Area is
Human Resource Management

5.
Answer: D

PMBOK® Guide Reference: 10.2, Process Group: Executing, Knowledge Area is

Communication

6.
Answer: C

The seller recovers his costs of $180,000. Under the 75/25 sharing agreement, he also
has forfeit 25% of the target profit of $25,000, or $6,250, which reduces his profit to
$18,750. Adding the $18,750 to the cost figure of $180,000, the total procurement value
would be $198,750; however, the contract ceiling amount of $195,000 becomes the final
figure, as $198,750 exceeds that ceiling.

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7.
Answer: A

Process Group: Planning, Knowledge Area: Time/Cost

8.
Answer: B

PMBOK® Page 72-73

9.
Answer: D

The scope, schedule and cost baselines form the “performance measurement baseline”,
which is included in the project management plan, so option A and B are baselines in the
plan. The PMBOK defines as “an approved plan for a project, plus or minus approved
changes. It is compared to actual performance to determine if performance is within
acceptable variance thresholds. (PMBOK, p. 302) Since the quality management plan is
included in the project management plan (PMI’s Book of Forms, p. 134), option C is also
a baseline in the plan. Option D is therefore the only correct answer.

10.
Answer: C

A work authorization system defines all the steps for issuing work authorizations (for
people to get to work on an activity) and includes all the methods for tracking Work
Authorizations through their states and obtaining formal signoff. PMBOK page 567.

11.
Answer: B

PMBOK pages 131-132.

12.

Answer: C
Are shared costs (like the company costs for preparing their taxes or for heat and
electricity). Typically these costs cannot be easily changed.

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13.
Answer: D

The cost baseline does not contain the management reserve. Only the contingency
reserves are contained in the cost baseline, so option A is incorrect. Option B is false
because an activity is considered 100% complete when it finishes, not 50%. Option C is
incorrect because CV = EV – AC.

14.
Answer A: Organizational charts and position descriptions are tools of the Develop
Human Resource Plan process.

15.
Answer C: The triangle is used to designate an end of branch. PMBOK page 339.

16.
Answer: A

The last value of 32.15 is outside the specification limits, which indicates a problem that
should be corrected. The PMBOK states when a process is within acceptable limits it is
in control and does not need to be adjusted. That is not the case in this example and the
process should be adjusted.

17.
Answer: D

The PMP Code of Ethics states “ When we realize that we have a real or potential conflict
of interest, we refrain from engaging in the decision-making process or otherwise
attempting to influence outcomes, unless or until: we have made full disclosure to the
affected stakeholders to proceed.” The Ethics Code never states that ALL stakeholders
must be informed – only the “affected one”. Moreover it does not state that stakeholder
approval be in writing, making the last option false and therefore the correct answer.

18
Answer: A

Major events should be communicated formally and in writing. A dramatic drop in CPI is
a major event. A cost overrun is further compounded if the customer can claim that they
never received this important message early on, which is why it is important to deliver
immediately and in writing.

19.
Answer: D: B and C

Process Group: Executing, Knowledge Area is Human Resource Management

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20.
Answer: A

PMBOK® Guide Reference: 13.1, Process Group: Initiating and Knowledge Area is
Stakeholder

21.
Answer: D

PMBOK® Guide Reference: 13.3, Process Group: Executing and the Knowledge Area is
Stakeholder

22.
Answer: D

PMBOK® Guide Reference: 12.2.2.1, Process group: Executing and the Knowledge Area
is Procurement

23.
Answer: D

PMBOK® Guide Reference: 9.3.2.3, Process Group: Executing and the Knowledge Area
is Human Resource Management

24.
Answer: C

PMBOK® Guide Reference: 8.2.2.1, Process Group: Executing and the Knowledge Area
is Quality

25.
Answer: C

PMBOK® Guide Reference: 8.2.2.1, Process Group: Initiating and the Knowledge Area is
Stakeholder

26.
Answer: D

PMBOK® Guide, page 3, Section 1.2

27.
Answer: A

PMBOK® Guide, Glossary: and page 353, Section 11.6.3.2

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28.
Answer: B

PMBOK® Guide, pages 212-214, Section 7.3.3.1, Figure 7-8

29.
Answer: B

PMBOK® Guide, page 303, Section 10.3

30.
Answer: C

PMBOK® Guide, Glossary; and page 55, Section 3.4

31.
Answer: C

PMBOK® Guide, page 238, Section 8.1.2.3, page 239, Figures 8-7; and glossary

32.
Answer: A

PMBOK® Guide, page 181, Section 6.6.2.7, and Glossary

33.
Answer: B

PMBOK® Guide, page 311, Introduction

34.
Answer: C

PMBOK® Guide, Appendix X3, Section X3.7; and pages 20-21, Section 2.1.1

35.
Answer: B

PMBOK® Guide, page 228, Introduction

36.
Answer: B

PMBOK® Guide, page 276, Section 9.3.2.3; and Appendix X3, Section X3.2

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37.
Answer: C

PMBOK® Guide, page 287, Introduction

38.

Answer: A

PMBOK® Guide, page 341, Section 11.4.3, page 239, and page 334, Figure 11-11

39.
Answer: D

PMBOK® Guide, page 402, Section 13.2.2.3

40.
Answer: C

PMBOK® Guide, page 396, Section 13.1.2.1

41.
Answer: B

PMBOK® Guide, page 364, Section 12.1.1.9

42.
Answer: A

PMBOK® Guide, pages 176-177, Section 6.6.2.2 and Figure 6-18

43.
Answer: B

PMBOK® Guide, pages 170-171, Section 6.5.2.4 and Glossary

44.
Answer: C

PMBOK® Guide, page 262, Section 9.1.2.1 and Figure 9-5

45.
Answer: B

PMBOK® Guide, page 303, Section 10.2.3.4

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46.
Answer: A

PMBOK® Guide, page 228, Introduction

47.
Answer: A

PMBOK® Guide, pages 218-219, Section 7.4.2.1 and Figure 7-12

48.
Answer: B

PMBOK® Guide, page 362, Section 12.1.1.9

49.
Answer: D

PMBOK® Guide, pages 375-377, Section 12.2.2 and page 371, Figure 12-4

50.
Answer: D

PMBOK® Guide, Glossary

51.
Answer: C

PMBOK® Guide, page 242, Section 8.2

52.
Answer: A

PMBOK® Guide, page 242, Section 8.2

53.
Answer: A

PMBOK® Guide, page 51, Section 3.1, and Figure 3-2

54.
Answer: D

PMBOK® Guide, pages 98-99, Section 4.5.2, and page 100, Figure 4-12

55.
Answer: D

PMBOK® Guide, pages 83-84, Section 4.3.2, and Section 4.3.2.2

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56.
Answer: D

PMBOK® Guide, page 324, Section 11.2.2.2

57.
Answer: A

PMBOK® Guide, pages 331-332, Section 11.3.2.2, Figure 11-10

58.
Answer: A

PMBOK® Guide, page 123, Section 5.3.3.1

59.
Answer: C

PMBOK® Guide, pages 21-22, Section 2.1.3, and Table 2-1, page 25, and Figure 2-5

60.
Answer: B

PMBOK® Guide, page 38, Section 2.4

61.
Answer: B

Even though the projects are similar (or analogous to each other), this is really an
example of parametric estimation. If we had used the entire duration of an activity from a
previous project to estimate the entire duration of an activity in our present project, the
answer would have been analogous estimating. However, the lines of code are multiplied
by the lines of code/day figure taken from a previous project to derive the activity
duration of 5 days.

62.
Answer: B

Ishikawa diagrams and fishbone diagrams are synonymous – they are references to the
exact same diagram. Fishbone diagrams are, in fact, used for root cause analysis.

63.
Answer: B

What is defined in Option B is control limits rather than tolerances. Control limits are the
process variation range that must be met. Tolerances, on the other hand, show the
specified range of acceptable results, which conceptually slightly different than the
former.

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64.
Answer: C

By building the structure on lot 7, the company is guaranteed to receive the 4% tax
break. This is exploiting the opportunity. However, the company’s efforts to receive the
additional .5% tax break for environmental friendliness are not guaranteed (the question
states the risk is more likely). Consequently, by making the structure environmentally
friendly, the company is enhancing the opportunity – that is, they are increasing the
likelihood of the event.

65.
Answer: B
BCF = 8 days
BEF = 6 days

66.
Answer: D

Crashing F first costs $ 2,000, and shortens two paths currently above 6 days, leaving
only ACF (7) and BCF (8) above 6 days. F is now fully crashed, leaving only A, B & C as
potential crashable activities.

Crashing B next costs $ 4,000, and shortens BCF to 7 days. B is now also fully crashed.
Crashing C next meets the objective of 6 days for the schedule, shortening both ACF and
BCF to 6 days at a cost of $ 10,000. Total cost of crashing is $2K + $4K + $10K, or $
16,000.

Note that Activity A, which appeared to be a low cost candidate to crash, did not come
into play, as the necessity of crashing C and F to reduce critical path BCF by three days
also reduced path ACF to 6 days.

67.
Answer: C
PMBOK® Guide, Reference: 6.7

Process Group: Planning; and the Knowledge Area is Time

Note: Page 187 in the PMBOK covers answer C about Agile in the Control Schedule process.

68.
Answer: B

PMBOK® Guide, Reference: 13.3, Process Group: Executing and the Knowledge Area is
Stakeholder

69.
Answer: A

PMBOK® Guide, Reference: 12.3, Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling and the
Knowledge Area is Procurement

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70.
Answer: A

PMBOK® Guide, Reference: 5.6.2.1, Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling and the
Knowledge Area is Scope

71.
Answer: A

PMBOK® Guide, Reference: 8.3, Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling and the
Knowledge Area is Quality

72.
Answer: C

PMBOK® Guide, Reference: 4.3, Process Group: Executing and the Knowledge Area is
Integration

73.
Answer: C

PMBOK® Guide, Reference: 4.4.1.2; 4.4.1.3, Process Group: Monitoring and Controlling
and the Knowledge Area is Integration

74.
Answer: A

PMBOK® Guide, Reference: 5.2.3.2, Process Group: Planning and the Knowledge Area is
Scope

75.
Answer: A

PMBOK® Guide, Reference: 11.6.2, Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling and the
Knowledge Area is Risk

76.
Answer: B

PMBOK® Guide, Reference: 5.5, Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling and the
Knowledge Area is Scope

77.
Answer: C

PMBOK® Guide, Reference: 4.6, Process Group: Closing and the Knowledge Area is
Integration

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78.
Answer: B

PMBOK® Guide, Reference: 8.2.2.1, Process Group: Executing and the Knowledge Area
is Quality

79.
Answer: C

PMBOK® Guide, Reference: 4.5, Process Group: Monitoring and Controlling and the
Knowledge Area is Integration

80.
Answer: B (the other three are work performance reports)

PMBOK® Guide, Reference: 4.3.3.2, Process Group: Executing and the Knowledge Area
is Integration

81.
Answer: B

PMBOK® Guide, Reference: 9.2.2.5, Process Group: Executing and the Knowledge Area
is Human Resource Management

82.
Answer: B

EV is .4(200,000), or 80,000. AC = EV/CPI, or 80,000/.9, or 88,889. CV = EV-AC, or 80,000 –

88,889, or -8889.

PMBOK® Guide, Reference: 7.4.2, Table 7-1, Process Group: Monitoring and Controlling
and the Knowledge Area is Cost

83.
Answer: D

PV = EV –SV, or 80,000 – 5,000, or 75,000. SPI = EV/PV, or 80,000/75,000, or 1.07

PMBOK® Guide, Reference: 7.4.2; Table 7-1, Process Group: Monitoring and Controlling
and the Knowledge Area is Cost

84.
Answer: C

Formula is AC + (BAC-EV), or 88,889 + (200,000 – 80,000), or 208,889.

PMBOK® Guide, Reference: 7.4.2, Table 7-1, Process Group: Monitoring and Controlling
and the Knowledge Area is Cost

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85.
Answer: D

Formula is (BAC – EV) / (EACrev – AC), or (200,000 – 80,000) / (206,000 – 88,889), or

120,000/117,111, or 1.025.

PMBOK® Guide, Reference: 7.4.2, Process Group: Monitoring and Controlling and the
Knowledge Area is Cost

86.
Answer: D

PMBOK® Guide, Reference: 4.1.3.1, Process Group: Initiating and the Knowledge Area is
Integration

87.
Answer: B

PMBOK® Guide, Reference: 13.1.2.1, Process Group: Initiating and the Knowledge Area
is Stakeholder

88.
Answer: B

PMBOK® Guide, Reference: 11.6, Process Group: Monitoring and Controlling and the
Knowledge Area is Risk

89.
Answer: C

PMBOK® Guide, Reference: 6.3.2.3, Process Group: Planning and the Knowledge Area is
Time

90.
Answer: A

PMBOK® Guide, Reference: 12.4.2.1, Process Group: Closing and the Knowledge Area is
Procurements

91.
Answer: C

PMBOK® Guide, Reference: 5.6.3.1, Process Group: Monitoring and Controlling and the
Knowledge Area is Scope

92.
Answer: B

PMBOK® Guide, Reference: 6.4.3.2, Process Group: Planning and the Knowledge Area is
Time

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93.
Answer: D

SV = EV – PV. EV = 600; PV = EV/SPI = 600/.9 = 667. 600 -667 = -67

PMBOK® Guide, Reference: 6.7.2.1, Table 7-1, Process Group: Planning and the
Knowledge Area is Time

94.
Answer: D

PMBOK® Guide, Reference: 4.1.1.2, Process Group: Initiating and the Knowledge Area is
Integration

95.
Answer: B

PMBOK® Guide, Reference: 8.1.2.3, Process Group: Planning and the Knowledge Area is
Quality

96.
Answer: C

PMBOK® Guide, Reference: 11.4.2, Process Group: Planning and the Knowledge Area is
Risk

97.
Answer: D

PMBOK® Guide, Reference: 6.5.2.4, Process Group: Planning and the Knowledge Area is
Time

98.
Answer: D

PMBOK® Guide. No specific reference. The sponsor owns the charter.

99.
Answer: D

PMBOK® Guide, Reference: 4.3.1.2, Process Group: Executing and the Knowledge Area
is Integration

100.
Answer: D

PMBOK® Guide, Reference: 12.4.1.2, Process Group: Closing and the Knowledge Area is
Procurements

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101.
Answer: D

PMBOK® Guide, Reference: 9.4.2.3, Process Group: Executing and the Knowledge Area
is Human Resource Management

102.
Answer: B

PMBOK® Guide, No specific reference. The kick-off meeting is always the first step, even
when the team members are familiar with each other, because every project is unique in
some respect. Process Group: Initiating and the Knowledge Area is Integration

103.
Answer: C

PMBOK® Guide, Reference: 5.3.2, Process Group: Planning and the Knowledge Area is
Scope

104.
Answer: A

PMBOK® Guide, Reference: 2.1.3, Table 2.1, Process Group: Executing and the
Knowledge Area is Human Resource Management

105.
Answer: A

PMBOK® Guide, Reference: 4.5.3.2, Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling and the
Knowledge Area is Integration

106.
Answer: D

PMBOK® Guide, Reference: 5.1.3.2, Process Group: Planning and the Knowledge Area is
Scope

107.
Answer: D

PMBOK® Guide, Reference: 5.4.3.1, Process Group: Planning and the Knowledge Area is
Scope

108.
Answer: D

PMBOK® Guide, Reference: 6.3.2.2, Process Group: Planning and the Knowledge Area is
Time

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PMP® Certification Work Book

109.
Answer: C

PMBOK® Guide, Reference: 13.4.3.5, Process Group: Monitoring and Control and the
Knowledge Area is Stakeholder

110.
Answer: C

PMBOK® Guide, Reference: 4.5, Process Group: Monitoring and Controlling and the
Knowledge Area is Integration

111.
Answer: D

PMBOK® Guide, Reference: 12.1.3.4, Process Group: Planning and the Knowledge Area
is Procurement

112.
Answer: B

PMBOK® Guide, Page 5, Section 1.3

113..
Answer: A

PMBOK® Guide, Page 6, Section 1.3

114.
Answer: B

PMBOK® Guide, Page 9, Section 1.4.1

115.
Answer: A

PMBOK® Guide, Page 8, Section 1.4, Table 1-1,

116.
Answer: A

PMBOK® Guide, Page 11, Section 1.4.4

117.
Answer: D

PMBOK® Guide, Page 29, Section 2.1.5

118.
Answer: B

PMBOK® Guide, Page 132, Section 5.4.3.1

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119.
Answer: C

PMBOK® Guide, Pages 136-137, Section 5.6; and page 139, Section 5.6.2.1

120.
Answer: D

PMBOK® Guide, Pages 149-151, Figure 6.5 and Section 6.2.1

121.
Answer: C

PMBOK® Guide, Pages 179-180, Section 6.6.2.4; and page 189, Section 6.7.2.3

122.
Answer: D

PMBOK® Guide, Page 178, Section 6.6.2.3; and Figure 6-19

123.
Answer: B

PMBOK® Guide, Page 193, Introduction; and page 194, Figure 7-1

124.
Answer: C

PMBOK® Guide, Pages 218-219, Section 7.4.2.1; and Figure 7-12

125.
Answer: B

PMBOK® Guide, Page 218, Section 7.4.2.1

126.
Answer: D

PMBOK® Guide, Pages 218-219, Section 7.4.2.1; and Figure 7-12

127.
Answer: D

PMBOK® Guide, Pages 219, Section 7.4.2.1; and Figure 7-12

128.
Answer: D

PMBOK® Guide, Page 235, Section 8.1.2.2; and Figure 8-5

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PMP® Certification Work Book

129.
Answer: D

PMBOK® Guide, Page 239, Section 8.1.2.4

130.
Answer: A

PMBOK® Guide, Page 229, Introduction; and page 235, Figure 8-5

131.
Answer: A

PMBOK® Guide, Page 229, Introduction; and page 235, Figure 8-5

132.
Answer: C

PMBOK® Guide, Page 283, Section 9.4.2.3

133.
Answer: C

PMBOK® Guide, Page 283-284, Section 9.4.2.4; and Appendix X3

134.
Answer: B

PMBOK® Guide, Page 238, Section 8.1.2.3; and Page 239, Figures 8-7

135.
Answer: B

PMBOK® Guide, Glossary, and Page 345, Section 11.5.2.17

136.
Answer: C Also called slack.

PMBOK® Guide, Glossary

137.
Answer: B

PMBOK® Guide, Glossary, Page 78, Section 4.2.3.1; and page 96 Section 4.5

138.
Answer: D

PMBOK® Guide, Glossary, and Page 13, Section 1.5.1

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PMP® Certification Work Book

139.
Answer: A

PMBOK® Guide, Glossary

140.
Answer: A

PMBOK® Guide, Glossary

141.
Answer: C

PMBOK® Guide, page 18, Section 1.8

142.

Answer: D

PMBOK® Guide, Page 20, Section 2.1.1

143.
Answer: B

PMBOK® Guide, Page 34, Section 2.2.2

144.
Answer: C

PMBOK® Guide, Pages 157-158, Section 6.3.2.2

145.
Answer: A

PMBOK® Guide, Page 63, Introduction; and page 65, Figure 4-1

146.

Answer: B

This is a difficult question. While final performance reporting resides in the “Close
Project or Phase” process, that’s the final report for future projects and not oriented to
improvements hare and now on the current project. You also might think that
recommendations from improvements would naturally come out of defect tracking and
analysis activities, and therefore be performed in the Monitoring and Controlling process
group. However, the PMBOK puts “continuous improvement” activities in the Executing
process group in the Manage Project Team” process.

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PMP® Certification Work Book

147.
Answer: C

Contingency reserve is allocated by project managers to account for the cost of known
risks.

Management reserve is an arbitrary amount used to account for unknown or unidentified

risks.

148.
Answer: C

PMBOK® Guide, Process Group: Planning and the Knowledge Area is Scope

149.
Answer: D

The term Kaizen is more associated with continuously improvement than root cause
analysis. PMBOK® Guide, Process Group: Monitoring and Controlling and the
Knowledge Area is Quality

150.
Answer: C

This is a pull communication method and not a push communication method. PMBOK®
Guide, Process Group: Executing and the Knowledge Area is Communications

151.
Answer: D

PMBOK® Guide, Page 96, Knowledge Area: Integration

152.
Answer: C

SPI = EV / PV = 0.80, the project is 80% on schedule, meaning 20% behind. Therefore,
corrective actions most likely will be required to bring the project back on track.

153.
Answer: A

Project performance measurements are used to assess the degree of difference between
the baseline and actual performance.

PMBOK® Guide, Page 139, Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling and the Knowledge
Area is Scope

154.
Answer: D

PDCA is a basis for quality improvement all others are process improvement models.

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PMP® Certification Work Book

155.
Answer: A

The three key team members are considered pre-assigned because their assignments to
the project are known in advance.

PMBOK® Guide, Page 270, Process Group: Executing and the Knowledge Area is Human
Resource Management

156.

Answer: A

Delphi Technique sessions generates ideas on potential project risks.

PMBOK® Guide, Page 324, Process Group: Planning and the Knowledge Area is Risk

157.
Answer: B

With all other things being equal, a project with a higher EMV is more favourable than a
project with a lower EMV. EMV, a statistical concept used in quantitative analysis, is used
to analyse potential outcomes based on uncertain conditions.
PMBOK® Guide, Page 339, Process Group: Planning and the Knowledge Area is Risk.

158.
Answer: D

PMBOK® Guide, Pages 345-346, Process Group: Planning and the Knowledge Area is
Risk

159.
Answer: C

Prepared by the sellers, proposals highlight their ability and willingness to supply a
product, service, or result to the buyer. The proposal constitutes a contract if accepted
by the buyer. PMBOK® Guide, Page 373, Process Group: Executing and the Knowledge
Area is Procurement

160.
Answer: A

Project managers play the role of project coordinator or expeditor in a weak matrix
organization. In contrast, strong matrix organizations give project managers moderate to
high authority. In terms of authority, project managers in balanced organizations are
somewhere in between. They act as project leaders instead of just project coordinators
or expeditors.

PMBOK® Guide, Page 22

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PMP® Certification Work Book

161.
Answer: D

It is a mandatory standard of honesty not to engage in dishonest behaviours. The others

are aspirational standards of honesty.

Code of Ethics, page 6

162.
Answer: B

The best way to resolve conflicting duties of loyalty is to fully disclose the conflict.

Code of Ethics, page 6

163.
Answer: A

Code of Ethics, page 6

164.
Answer: B

PMBOK® Guide, Page 114

165.
Answer: C

The Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct states to report only ethical complaints
that can be substantiated by facts.

Code of Ethics, page 3

166.
Answer: C

The business case contains the business need and cost-benefit analysis that justifies the
go-ahead of the project, and it is created as a result of market demand, organizational
need, customer request, technological advance, social need, or legal requirement. All
other options refer to the other inputs used within Develop Project Charter process.

PMBOK® Guide, Page 69

167.
Answer: B

Situational action is a made up term.

PMBOK® Guide, Pages 92-93

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PMP® Certification Work Book

168.
Answer: C

The Direct and Manage Project Work process has a number of inputs defined. All of
these are approved documents or actions. The correct option is approved change
requests. The other options are not inputs to the execution process.

PMBOK® Guide, Page 82, Process Group: Executing and the Knowledge Area is
Integration

169.
Answer: C

Comparing actual activity performance against the project management plan identifies
deviations and problems early.

PMBOK® Guide, Page 88; Process Group: Monitoring and Controlling and the
Knowledge Area is Integration

170.
Answer: B

Project closure documents are formal documents that indicate the completion or
termination of a project. Contract closure and administrative closure are separate
activities.

PMBOK® Guide, Page 102, Process Group: Closing and the Knowledge Area is
Integration

171.
Answer: C

The Project Scope Management knowledge area defines and controls what is and what is
not included in the project. Project documentation management and project change
control are procedures that allow the control of changes to the project.

PMBOK® Guide, Page 105, Process Group: Planning and the Knowledge Area is Scope

172.
Answer: C

Inspection is the process of measuring, examining, and verifying that the work and
deliverables meet the product and acceptance criteria.

PMBOK® Guide, Page 133, Process Group: Monitoring and Controlling and the
Knowledge Area is Scope

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PMP® Certification Work Book

173.

Answer: D

Along with the Validate Scope process, the Control Scope process is part of the Project
Management knowledge area. Specifically, these processes occur as part of the
Monitoring and Controlling process group.

PMBOK® Guide, Page 136-137, Process Group: Monitoring and Controlling and the
Knowledge Area is Scope

174.
Answer: D

A list that identifies and describes the types and quantities of each resource required to
complete activities is known as activity resource requirements. The resource calendar,
project document updates, and resource breakdown structure are other outputs of the
Estimate
… Activity Resources process.
PMBOK® Guide, Page 165, Process Group: Planning and the Knowledge Area is Time

175.
Answer: C

Gathering actual start and finish dates of activities, along with remaining durations for
work in progress, is known as a performance review. Cost variances analysis compares
baseline to actual data. Performance measurement is a specific earned value technique.
Critical path analysis is a planning tool.

PMBOK® Guide, Page 188-189, Process Group: Monitoring and Controlling and the
Knowledge Area is Time

176.
Answer: C

The ETC requires the budget at completion (BAC), earned value (EV), and actual costs
(AC) to date. EAC = AC + (BAC – EV).

PMBOK® Guide, Page 220, Process Group: Monitoring and Controlling and the
Knowledge Area is Cost

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PMP® Certification Work Book

177.
Answer A

Building a new mobile app: net path value for positive reviews = $200k -$120k = $80k; net
path for not so positive reviews = $90k - $120k = $30k; expected monetary value = .60
($80k) = 0.40 (-$30k) = $36k.

Enhancing an existing mobile app: net path value for positive reviews = $120k - $50k =
$70k; net path value for not so positive reviews = $60k - $50k = $ 10k; expected monetary
value for building a new mobile app = 0.60 ($70k) = 0.40 ($10K) = $46K

The decision expected monetary value is the larger of the two decision nodes which is
$46K PMBOK® Guide, Page 339, Process Group: Planning and the Knowledge Area is
Risk

178.

Answer: A

Making decisions and acting impartially and objectively is defined as the value of
fairness. The Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct, page 5

179.
Answer: B

PMBOK® Guide, Page 39

180.
Answer: A

Adapting approved changes into the project scope, plans, and environments is part of
directing and managing project execution, not monitoring and controlling activities.

PMBOK® Guide, Page 88

181.
Answer: A

Raising problem reports for nonperforming parts of the system is part of the Perform
Integrated Change Control process, which belongs to the Monitoring and Controlling
process group. The Closing process group includes project administrative closure
procedures involve archiving project information for future use, gathering Lessons
learned, and validating that completion and exit criteria have been met.

PMBOK® Guide, Page 101, Process Group: Closing and the Knowledge Area Integration

182.
Answer: B

PMBOK® Guide, Page 115, Process Group: Planning and the Knowledge Area is Scope

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PMP® Certification Work Book

183.

Answer: A

Component, deliverable, and work item are term that can be used at any level in a WBS.
A work package is at the lowest level of the WBS represents a manageable work effort.
PMBOK® Guide, Page 128, Process Group: Planning and the Knowledge Area is Scope

184.
Answer: D

Based on this question, it is clear that Task A must finish before Task B can start so this
can be achieved by a Finish-to-start (FS) dependency: Task A FS Task B. However, there
is an extra constraint that Task B must start three days before the end of Task A so a
lead (not lag) of three days should be added. Task A FS – 3 Task B. Using finish-to-finish
(FF is incorrect because that will add a dependency that will require both tasks to finish
at the same time. Task A FS – 2 Task B is incorrect because the lead is only two days.

PMBOK® Guide, Page 156-158, Process Group: Planning and the Knowledge Area is
Time

185.
Answer: B

The Develop Schedule process analyses activity sequences, durations, constraints, and
other factors before the schedule can be finalized. Given this, schedule development is
an iterative process. The other options are incorrect because they are simply false
statements.

PMBOK® Guide, Page 172-174, Process Group: Planning and the Knowledge Area is
Time

186.
Answer: B

Deals with the work times applicable for all human and equipment resources, refers to
project calendars. Resource calendars override project calendars with regard to resource
availability (resource pools) for such things as vacation and training time.

PMBOK® Guide, Page 163, Process Group: Planning and the Knowledge Area is Time

187.
Answer: B

Corrective action is anything done to bring expected future project performance in line
with the project management plan. As the name implies, preventive action is preventive
but the question is looking for something to correct an existing situation. Adjustment
and response action are made up terms
PMBOK® Guide, Page 92-93, Process Group: Monitoring and Controlling and the
Knowledge Area is Integration.

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PMP® Certification Work Book

188.
Answer: C

Configuration identification, configuration status, and configuration verification and

audit are activities of a configuration management system with an approved change
control process. The configuration management plan is not an activity but a subsidiary
plan of the project management plan.

PMBOK® Guide, Page 96-97, Process Group: Monitoring and Controlling and the
Knowledge Area is Integration

189.
Answer: D

The Perform Integrated Change Control process is concerned with influencing the
factors that create changes to endure that changes are agreed upon, determining that a
change has occurred, and managing the actual changes when and as they occur. The
other statements are correct but they are not relevant to the focus of the question:
integrated change control.

PMBOK® Guide, Page 94-97, Process Group: Monitoring and Controlling and the
Knowledge Area is Integration.

190.
Answer: C

It is expected that you always maintain and respect the confidentiality of sensitive
information.

Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct, page 3

191.
Answer: D

Documenting project planning assumptions and decisions about chosen alternatives is

important to Lessons Learned but not performance reporting. Defining required
communications tasks and defining the key management reviews are necessary for this
requirement but require the baselines in order to measure actual progress against
planned progress. Although several of the responses could be correct under specific
circumstances, there is only one best answer.
PMBOK® Guide, Page 88-89, Process Group: Monitoring and Controlling and the
Knowledge Area is Integration

192.
Answer: A

Probability = product of all individual probabilities = 0.90 x 0.90 x 0.80 = 0.65

PMBOK® Guide, Page 339, Process Group: Planning and the Knowledge Area is Risk

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PMP® Certification Work Book

193.
Answer: A

Inputs to the Close Project or Phase process are project management plan, accepted
deliverables, and organizational process assets.

PMBOK® Guide, Page 65, Process Group: Closing and the Knowledge Area is Integration

194.
Answer: D

Pareto chart rank-orders the problems from high to low so the correct answer is 350, 250,
200, and 180 (B, E, C and D).

PMBOK® Guide, Pages 237, 239, 548, Process Group: Monitoring and Controlling and the
Knowledge Area is Quality

195.
Answer: B

The company’s risk tolerance level, obtained from the enterprise environmental factors
and documented in the risk management plan, is the only criterion appropriate for this
situation. The other options are incorrect because they are tools and techniques.

PMBOK® Guide, Page 311, Knowledge Area is Risk

196.
Answer: B

Paying $500 in local currency to get a key shipment released from customs is allowed if
it is the cultural norm in the country where you are working. Only this situation is
covered by the proviso unless the other situations conform to applicable laws or
customs of the country where project management services are being provided.

Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct, page 3

197.
Answer: A

Squealing and snitching are more derogatory terms and not generally employed.
Divulgence implies disclosure of private or confidential matters not related to unethical
behaviour. For this question, you are expected to know the definition. However, this is
tricky because the definition of “divulgence” is not in the PMBOK® Guide.

Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct, page 3

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PMP® Certification Work Book

198.
Answer: A

The nominal group technique allows for brainstorming of ideas in small groups and
those ideas are later reviewed by a larger group. The other are used to refine the quality
requirements and to prepare effective quality management activities.

PMBOK® Guide, Page 171, 547, Process Group: Planning and the Knowledge Area is
Quality

199.
Answer: B

“Selecting official biases” is a made up phrase and it used simply as a distracter. Source
selection criteria includes understanding of needs, overall or life cycle cost, technical
capability, risk, management approach, technical approach, warranty, financial capacity,
production capacity and interest, business size and type, past performance of sellers,
references, intellectual property rights, and property rights.

PMBOK® Guide, Page 368-369, Process Group: Planning and the Knowledge Area is
Procurement

200.
Answer: D

More specifically, this is an example of analogous estimating, which is one of the top
down estimating techniques. Analogous estimating entails using the parameters of
previous, similar activity (for example, size, weight, quantity, and so forth) to arrive at an
estimate for a comparable parameter or to measure future activity.

PMBOK® Guide, Pages 204-205, Process Group: Planning and the Knowledge Area is
Cost

Reference Section

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK® Guide), Fifth Edition,
Newton Square, Pennsylvania USA; Project Management Institute, Inc. , 2013.

Project Management Institute Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct, Project Management
Institute, Inc., 2010. http://www.pmi.org/PDF/ap_pmicodeofethics.pdf.

Sample Exam Questions: PMI® Project Management Professional (PMP®), Fifth Edition

Q & As for the PMBOK® Guide Fifth Edition, Newton Square, Pennsylvania USA, Project
Management Institute, Inc., 2013

PMBOK® Guide Edition Five 200 – Questions Sample PMP Exam by John Tracy, 201

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PMP® Certification Work Book

Answers for the PMP iCert Global Practice Test

Answer R/W Answer R/W Answer R/W Answer R/W

1 26 51 76

2 27 52 77

3 28 53 78

4 29 54 79

5 30 55 80

6 31 56 81

7 32 57 82

8 33 58 83

9 34 59 84

10 35 60 85

11 36 61 86

12 37 62 87

13 38 63 88

14 39 64 89

15 40 65 90

16 41 66 91

17 42 67 92

18 43 68 93

19 44 69 94

20 45 70 95

21 46 71 96

22 47 72 97

23 48 73 98

24 49 74 99

25 50 75 100

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PMP® Certification Work Book

Answer R/W Answer R/W Answer R/W Answer R/W

101 126 151 176

102 127 152 177

103 128 153 178

104 129 154 179

105 130 155 180

106 131 156 181

107 132 157 182

108 133 158 183

109 134 159 184

110 135 160 185

111 136 161 186

112 137 162 187

113 138 163 188

114 139 164 189

115 140 165 190

116 141 166 191

117 142 167 192

118 143 168 193

119 144 169 194

120 145 170 195

121 146 171 196

122 147 172 197

123 148 173 198

124 149 174 199

125 150 175 200

Questions right:
Questions wrong:
Grade %

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PMP® Certification Work Book

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