CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM

1. Which of the following nursing diagnosis would be appropriate for the

client with heart failure?

a. Ineffective tissue perfusion related to decreased peripheral blood

flow secondary to decreased cardiac output

b. Activity intolerance related to increased cardiac output

c. Pain related to break up

d. Impaired gas exchange related to decreased symphatetic nervous

system

2. Which is considered to be manifestation of left sided heart failure?

a. Weight gain

b. Portal hypertension

c. Polycythemia

d. Distended jugular veins

3. The major goal of therapy for client with heart failure and pulmonary
edema would be?

a. Increased cardiac output

b. Improve respiratory status

c. Decreased peripheral edema

d. Enhance comfort

4. In which of the ff positions should the nurse place a client with

suspected heart failure?

a. Semi sitting

b. Lying on right side

c. Sitting almost upright

d. Lying on the back with the head lowered

5. Dioixin is administered intravenously to a client with heart failure,
primarily because the drug acts to?

a. Dilate coronary arteries

b. Increased myocardial contractility

c. Decreased cardiac dysrhythmias

d. Decreased electrical conductivity of the heart

6. The nurse should be especially alert for signs and symptoms of digitalis
toxicity if serum levels indicate that the client has a?

a. Low sodium

b. High glucose

c. High calcium

d. Low potassium

7. Furosemide is administered IV to a client with heart failure. How soon

after the administration should the nurse begin to see evidence of
drug’s desired effect?

a. 5 – 10 minutes

b. 30 – 60 minutes

c. 2 – 4 hours

d. 6 – 8 hours

8. Which of the ff foods should the nurse teach client with heart failure to
avoid or limit when ff a 2gm diet of sodium?

a. Apples

b. Tomato juice

c. Whole wheat bread

d. Beef tenderloin

9. If the client who was admitted for MI develops cardiogenic shock,

which characteristic sign should the nurse expect to observe?
 a. Bradycardia

b. Oliguria

c. Elevated BP

d. Fever

10. What is the best position in a client with shock?

a. Military position

b. T- burg position

c. Elevate the legs and the head is slightly elevated

d. High fowlers position

11. Essential HPN would be diagnosed in a 40 yr old man whose

blood pressure readings were consistently at or above, which of the
following?

a. 120/90

b. 130/85

c. 140/90

d. 160/80

12. Which of the ff is not a manifestation of essential HPN?

a. Epistaxis

b. Headache and dizziness

c. Diastolic pressure above 120 – 140 mmHg

d. Palpitations

13. The client with HPN is prone to long term complications of the
diseases. Which of the ff is a long term complication of HPN?

a. Renal insufficiency and failure

b. Valvular heart disease

c. Endocarditis
 d. Peptic ulcer disease

14. Who among theses pt is most predisposed to coronary artery

disease?

a. The pt with history of 20 pack years of smoking

b. A pt whose father and brother died of MI

c. The accountant pt who sits 8 hrs/ day

d. The pt who had menopause 5 years ago

15. To assess jugular vein distention the head of bed should be?

a. 30 degrees

b. 25 degrees

c. 20 degrees

d. 15 degrees

16. The pt on heparin therapy has APTT result of 80 seconds. This

indicates that:

a. The pt is prone to bleeding

b. It is the therapeutic effect of drug

c. The pt may develop thromboembolism

d. The pt is not receiving adequate dose of the drug

17. Which of the ff findings indicate low cardiac output?

a. BUN - 40mg/dl

b. BUA – 5mg/dl

c. Hourly urine output of 50ml

d. Serum K – 4.5meaq/L

18. The ff results of enzymes studies indicate MI except?

a. Elevated AST

b. Elevated ALT
 c. Elevated CK-MB

d. Elevated LDH

19. Which of the ff ECG changes indicates hypokalemia?

a. Elevated ST segment

b. Prolonged QRS complex

c. Peaked T wave

d. Presence of u wave

20. The client undergoes right sided cardiac catheterization. Which

of the ff should not be included in pt teaching?

a. You have to fast 6-8 hrs before the procedure

b. You will feel warm or flushing sensation as contrast medium is

injected

c. You will under general anesthesia

d. You have to tell me if you have allergy to seafood

21. The client is evaluated to more likely experiencing hypervolemia

if the CVP reading is?

a. 10cm H2O

b. 8cm H2O

c. 6cm H2O

d. 14cmH2O

22. Which of the ff is a characteristic of chest pain in angina

pectoris?

a. It is experience while sitting and watching TV

b. It is localized on the left chest

c. It is precipitated by eating large meal

d. It occurs for more than an hour

23. The ff are correct nursing interventions when administering NTG,
except:

a. Take a maximum dose of 3 tablets at 5mins interval

b. Sit at the edge of bed before standing

c. Take sips of water after placing the tablet under the tongue

d. Always carry 3 tablets in the packet

24. The pt will undergo PTCA this procedure is done by?

a. Surgical stripping of atheroma

b. Insertion of balloon tipped catheter to compress atheroma

c. Using native graft for revascularization of the heart

d. Insertion of stent into coronary vessels

25. Which of the ff is not a characteristic of chest pain in MI?

a. It is described as crushing

b. The pain radiates to one or both arms, the neck and the back

c. The pain is relieved by rest

d. The pain is prolonged

26. Which of the ff nursing intervention is not included in the prevention of

vasovagal stimulation in pt with MI?

a. Avoid giving very hot or cold drinks

b. Encouraged use of bedpan on defecation

c. Administer laxatives as ordered

d. Advise pt to avoid holding his breath when turning to side

27. What is the most common cause of death in the period of MI?

a. Cardiogenic shock

b. Ventricular dysrhytmias

c. Pulmonary embolism
 d. Cardiac tamponade

28. Which of the ff is the first line of drug to reduce PVC’s?

a. Digoxin

b. Lidocaine

c. Pheytoin

d. Procainamide

29. The priority nursing diagnosis for pt with dysrhytmias is?

a. Decreased cardiac output

b. Decreased tissue perfusion

c. Alteration in comfort

d. Activity intolerance

30. The type of artificial cardiac pacemaker which provides electrical

findings when the HR becomes slow is?

a. Fixed rate

b. Demand rate

c. Temporary

d. Permanent

31. Which of the ff is true on cardioversion?

a. It is done to revert cardiac arrest

b. The electrical shock is applied during R wave

c. It involved unsynchronized application of electrical shock to the

heart

d. It is done on T wave

32. Which of the ff is not a sign of left sided CHF?

a. Orthopnea

b. Clubbing of fingers
 c. Ascites

d. Hemoptysis

33. The nurse administers digoxin to the client. The nurse should
take first?

a. Check pulse rate

b. Check blood pressure

c. Check respiratory rate

d. Check apical rate

34. The pt is given digitalis and furosemide. Which of the ff foods

should be included to prevent adverse reaction of the drugs?

a. Whole milk

b. Citrus fruits

c. Canned tuna

d. Eggs

35. When rotating tourniquets are applied to extremities to relieve

symptoms of pulmonary edema, the ff are appropriate nursing
intervention, except?

a. Rotate tourniquets clockwise every 15mins

b. Occlude one extremity at a time

c. Apply tourniquets at a maximum 45mins for each extremity

d. Remove tourniquet one at a time, every 15mins

36. The ff are nursing diagnoses for the pt with left sided heart
failure, except?

a. Impaired gas exchanged

b. Decrease cardiac output

c. Decreased tissue perfusion

d. Fluid volume deficit

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Mine06/24/2010