1

THE ECE HANDBOOK

General
Engineering
AND

Applied
Sciences
SECOND EDITION 2011
CHEMISTRY, PHYSICS, THERMODYNAMICS, ENGINEERING MECHANICS,
STRENGTH OF MATERIALS, ENGINEERING MATERIALS, LAWS & ETHICS,
ENGINEERING ECONOMICS, ENGINEERING MANAGEMENT

Jaime R. Tiong
Jaime C. Tiong Jr.
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TABLE OF CONTENTS

I. CHEMISTRY
-Objective Questions 4- 89
-Answer Keys 90- 93
-Problems 94- 102
-Answer Keys 103

II. PHYSICS
-Objective Questions 104- 173
-Answer Keys 174- 177
-Problems 178- 189
-Answer Keys 190

III. THERMODYNAMICS
-Objective Questions 191- 233
-Answer Keys 234- 235
-Problems 236- 246
-Answer Keys 247

IV. ENGINEERING MECHANICS

--Objective Questions 248- 258
-Answer Keys 259
-Problems (Statics) 260- 269
-Answer Keys 270
--Problems (Dynamics) 271- 281
-Answer Keys 282

V. STRENGTH OF MATERIALS
-Objective Questions 283- 292
-Answer Keys 293
-Problems 294- 301
-Answer Keys 302

VI. ENGINEERING MATERIALS

-Objective Questions 303- 364
-Answer Keys 365- 367
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VII. ENGINEERING ECONOMICS

-Objective Questions 368- 403
-Answer Keys 404- 405
-Problems 406- 417
-Answer Keys 418

VIII. ENGINEERING MANAGEMENT

-Objective Questions 419- 439
-Answer Keys 440

IX. LAWS AND ETHICS

-Objective Questions 441- 487
-Answer Keys 488- 489
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CHEMISTRY OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS

1. Which of the following best describes a scientific law?

A. It describes and observes physical results.
B. It implies something accurate.
C. It implies experimentation results.
D. It summarizes observed facts.

2. What are found in the nucleus of an atom?

A. Electrons and protons
B. Protons and neutrons
C. Cations and anions
D. Electrons and neutrons

3. What is the negatively charged particle of an atom?

A. Electrons
B. Protons
C. Neutrons
D. Molecule

4. What is the positively charged particle of an atom?

A. Electrons
B. Protons
C. Neutrons
D. Molecule

5. What is the particle of an atom that has no electric charge?

A. Electrons
B. Protons
C. Neutrons
D. Molecule

6. The word “atom” comes from Greek “Atomos” which means what?
A. Extremely small
B. Invisible
C. Indivisible
D. Microscopic
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7. Who is regarded as the father of modern chemistry?

A. Aristotle
B. Robert Boyle
C. Antoine Lavoisier
D. John Dalton

8. Who was the first person to proposed that atoms have weights?
A. Ernest Rutherford
B. Democritus
C. John Dalton
D. Joseph John Thomson

9. Which of the following best describes a “Dalton”?

A. It is a unit of molecular mass.
B. It is a unit of molecular energy.
C. It is a unit of nuclear mass.
D. It is a unit of molecular kinetic energy.

10. Who discovered the electron?

A. Joseph John Thomson
B. John Dalton
C. Humphrey Davy
D. Ernest Rutherford

11. Who discovered the proton?

A. Eugene Goldstein
B. Pierre Curie
C. Ernest Rutherford
D. Michael Faraday

12. Who discovered the neutron?

A. James Chadwick
B. Eugene Goldstein
C. Niels Bohr
D. Julius Lothar Meyer
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13. What is anything that occupies space and has mass?

A. Element
B. Ion
C. Matter
D. Molecule

14. All forms of matter are composed of the same building blocks called _____.
A. Molecules
B. Atom
C. Elements
D. Ions

15. What element has the smallest atom?

A. Hydrogen
B. Nitrogen
C. Oxygen
D. Magnesium

16. Hydrogen exists in three isotropic forms of which Tritium is one of them. How many
neutrons does a Tritium have?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

17. How are substances classified?

A. Elements or compounds
B. Metals or non- metals
C. Acids or bases
D. Homogeneous or heterogeneous

18. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of non- metals?

A. Non- metals form positive ions.
B. Non- metals have high electron affinities.
C. Non- metals have negative oxidation number.
D. Non- metals are oxidizing agents.
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19. What element is the only non- metal that is in the liquid state at room temperature?
A. Chlorine
B. Bromine
C. Sodium
D. Mercury

20. What is a substance that cannot be broken down into simpler substances?
A. Ion
B. Atom
C. Molecule
D. Element

21. What is the result from the combination in definite proportion of mass of two or more
electrons?
A. Mixture
B. Compound
C. Substance
D. Chemical reaction

22. How are mixtures are classified?

A. Elements or compounds
B. Metals, non- metals or metalloids
C. Homogeneous or heterogeneous
D. Suspension, colloids or solutions

23. Which of the following is a mixture?

A. Sodium chloride
B. Brass
C. Lead
D. Charcoal

24. The mixture of soil and water is an example of what classification of a mixture?
A. Homogeneous
B. Suspension
C. Colloid
D. Solution
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25. Honey is a mixture of _____.

A. Fructose and sucrose
B. Fructose and galactose
C. Glucose and galactose
D. Fructose and glucose

26. A very fine particle of soil when mixed to water will form a cloudy mixture. How is this
mixture classified?
A. Colloid
B. Suspension
C. Solution
D. Compound

27. The particles of sugar dispersed in water are so small that a clear homogeneous mixture
results. What is this homogeneous mixture called?
A. Colloid
B. Compound
C. Suspension
D. Solution

28. What refers to a very common colloidal substance that contains collagen and comes from
bones of animals?
A. Gel
B. Gelatin
C. Emulsion
D. Amino acid

29. What element is used to build DNA molecules?

A. Magnesium
B. Zinc
C. Iodine
D. Potassium

30. How are elements classified?

A. Metals, non- metals or metalloids
B. Homogeneous or heterogeneous
C. Suspension, colloid, solution
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31. Gases, solids or approximately what percentage of the elements in the periodic table are
metals?
A. 60 %
B. 70 %
C. 80 %
D. 90 %

32. What are the three states of matter?

A. Solid, liquid and gas
B. Metals, non- metals and metalloids
C. Suspension, colloid and solution
D. Quarks, photons and quasar

33. Which of the following statements is TRUE?

A. The coefficient of collision of expansion of gases varies at different temperature.
B. All liquids have approximately the same coefficient of expansion.
C. All solids have approximately the same coefficient of expansion.
D. All gases have approximately the same coefficient of expansion.

34. Compounds are mostly classified as:

A. Homogeneous and heterogeneous
B. Acids and bases
C. Gases, liquids and solids
D. Metals and nonmetals

35. What is the property of metals that allow them to be rolled without breaking?
A. Ductility
B. Malleability
C. Luster
D. Elasticity

36. What is the property of metals that reflect the light that strikes either surfaces making
them appear shiny?
A. Malleability
B. Ductility
C. Luster
D. Plasticity
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37. Which of the following is NOT a property of metals?

A. Metals are neither malleable nor ductile.
B. Metals have high thermal conductivity.
C. Metals have high electrical conductivity.
D. Metals have more lusters.

38. What refers to the property of matter which states that “two objects cannot occupy the
same place at the same time”?
A. Impregnability
B. Impenetrability
C. Malleability
D. Uninterchangeability

39. What are elements that have properties intermediate between metals and nonmetals?
A. Gases
B. Solids
C. Liquids
D. Metalloids

40. Which of the following is NOT a property of acids?

A. Taste sour
B. Feel slippery on the skin
C. Turn litmus paper to red
D. Dissolve metals producing various salts and hydrogen gas

41. Which of the following is NOT a property of base?

A. Feel slippery on the skin
B. Turn litmus paper to blue
C. Taste bitter
D. Dissolve metals producing various salts and hydrogen gas

42. An acid can react with a base to produce a _____.

A. Hydrogen gas
B. Salt
C. Oxide
D. Hydroxide
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43. Hydrogen will act as an oxidizing agent when it is made to react to what element?
A. Helium
B. Calcium
C. Nitrogen
D. Sulfur

44. Vinegar is a solution of water and what acid?

A. Phosphoric acid
B. Sulfuric acid
C. Nitric Acid
D. Acetic acid

45. What acid is added to carbonated drinks to produce a tart test?

A. Citric acid
B. Phosphoric acid
C. Sulfuric acid
D. Nitric acid

46. What type of acid is used in soft drinks?

A. Acetic acid
B. Phosphoric acid
C. Hydrochloric acid
D. Nitric acid

47. Table salt may be formed by the reaction of:

A. Hydrochloric acid and sodium bicarbonate
B. Sodium and chlorine
C. Hydrochloric acid and sodium carbonate
D. Hydrochloric acid and sodium hydroxide

48. What is the composition of common table salt?

A. Sodium chloride
B. Sodium fluoride
C. Potassium chloride
D. Magnesium fluoride
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49. What occurs when a substance is transformed into another substance with a totally
different composition and properties?
A. Physical change
B. Chemical change
C. Catalyst
D. Chemical solution

50. What occurs when a substance changes its appearance without changing its composition?
A. Chemical reaction
B. Chemical change
C. Physical change
D. Catalyst

51. What is another term for “chemical change”?

A. Chemical reaction
B. Phase change
C. State change
D. Composition change

52. What describes the number of different homogeneous materials in a sample?

A. Phase
B. State
C. Atomic number
D. Atomic mass

53. A material is said to be ___________ if its composition and properties are uniform
throughout.
A. Homogeneous
B. Heterogeneous
C. Pure substance
D. Pure compound

54. A material is said to be ___________ if its composition and properties are not uniform
throughout.
A. Unpure
B. Homogeneous
C. Heterogeneous
D. Malleable
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55. The properties of a material that changes when the amount of substance changes are
called ________ properties.
A. Intensive
B. Extensive
C. Physical
D. Chemical

56. The properties of a material that do not change when the amount of substance changes
are called ________ properties.
A. Intensive
B. Extensive
C. Physical
D. Chemical

57. Which of the following is NOT an intensive property of a material?

A. Color
B. Surface area
C. Melting point
D. Taste

58. Which of the following is NOT an extensive property of a material?

A. Length
B. Volume
C. Density
D. Weight

59. “When two or more elements form more than one compound, the ratio of the masses of
one element that combine with a given mass of another element in the different
compounds is a ratio of a small whole numbers.” This is known as:
A. Graham‟s law of diffusion
B. The uncertainty principle
C. Law of definite proportion
D. Law of multiple proportion
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60. “The masses of elements in a pure compound are always in the same proportion”. This
statement is known as _________.
A. Law of multiple proportion
B. Law of definite proportion
C. The periodic law
D. Dalton‟s atomic theory

61. Who formulated the atomic theory?

A. John Dalton
B. Humphrey Davy
C. Henri Becquerel
D. Ernest Rutherford

62. Who revised the atomic theory by replacing the hard, indestructible spheres imagined by
Dalton and proposed the “raisin bread model” of the atom?
A. Pierre Curie
B. Robert Andrews Millikan
C. Joseph John Thomson
D. Humphrey Davy

63. How does John Thomson call his model if the atom?
A. Orbital model
B. Planetary model
C. Radioactive model
D. Plum-pudding model

64. The discovery of radioactivity further confirms the existence of subatomic particles. Who
discovered radioactivity?
A. Henri Becquerel
B. Marie Curie
C. Pierre Curie
D. Niels Bohr

65. What is the common unit used to indicate the mass of a particle?
A. Atomic mass unit (amu)
B. Charge unit
C. Coulomb
D. Gram
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66. What is the unit for the charge of a particle?

A. Coulomb
B. Charge unit
C. Atomic mass unit
D. Lepton

67. What is the charge of an electron in coulombs?

A. – 1.70217733 x 10-19
B. – 1.60217733 x 10-19
C. – 1.50217733 x 10-19
D. – 1.40217733 x 10-19

68. What is the charge of an electron in charge unit?

A. 0
B. 1 +
C. 1 –
D. 0 –

69. What is the charge of a proton in coulombs?

A. 1.70217733 x 10-19
B. 1.60217733 x 10-19
C. 1.50217733 x 10-19
D. 1.40217733 x 10-19

70. What is the charge of a proton in charge unit?

A. 0
B. 1 +
C. 1 –
D. 0 –

71. What is the mass of an electron in gram?

A. 5.910203 x 10-23
B. 8.218290 x 10-25
C. 1.672623 x 10-24
D. 9.109387 x 10-26
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72. What is the mass of electron in amu?

A. 2.490210 x 10-4
B. 3.890140 x 10-4
C. 1.007276 x 10-4
D. 5.485799 x 10-4

73. What is the mass of electron at rest in MeV?

A. 0.51
B. 0.54
C. 0.57
D. 0.59

74. The size of an electron is very small. It is believed to have a diameter of about how many
Angstrom?
A. 0.0001
B. 0.001
C. 0.01
D. 0.1

75. What is the mass of a proton in gram?

A. 2.499010 x 10-24
B. 3.496140 x 10-24
C. 1.672623 x 10-24
D. 5.929709 x 10-24

76. What is the mass of a proton in amu?

A. 1.0052981
B. 1.0072765
C. 1.0086600
D. 1.0066241

77. What is the mass of a neutron in grams?

A. 1.47495 x 10-24
B. 1.37495 x 10-24
C. 1.67495 x 10-24
D. 1.77495 x 10-24
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78. What is the mass of a neutron in amu?

A. 1.00866
B. 1.00521
C. 1.00324
D. 1.00000

79. The protons and neutrons are not considered as fundamental particles because they
consist of smaller particles called __________.
A. Bosons
B. Quarks
C. Leptons
D. Fermions

80. The atomic number of an element is:

A. The sum of the number of protons and electrons
B. The number of protons in the nucleus
C. The number of electrons
D. The sum of the number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus

81. Atoms of the same element which have different masses are called _________.
A. Molecules
B. Ions
C. Nuclides
D. Isotopes

82. Nuclei of isotopes differ from one another only in ________.

A. The number of neutrons
B. Reacting with other nucleus
C. The number of protons
D. The number of protons and neutrons

83. Two isotopes of the same element contains the same number of:
A. Protons and neutrons but different number of electrons
B. Protons and electrons but different number of neutrons
C. Neutron and electrons but different number of protons
D. Protons, electrons and neutrons
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84. What is an atom of specific isotope called?

A. Nuclide
B. Ion
C. Molecule
D. Fermion

85. The number of ________ in an atom defines what element the atom is.
A. Neutrons
B. Electrons
C. Protons
D. Protons and electrons

86. The number of __________ in an atom defines the isotopes of an element.

A. Neutrons
B. Protons
C. Electrons
D. Protons and neutrons

87. If electrons are removed from or added to a neutral atom, a charged particle of the same
element called __________ is formed.
A. Ion
B. Cation
C. Anion
D. Isotope

88. A negatively charged ion which results when an electron is added to an atom is called
____________.
A. Boson
B. Fermion
C. Cation
D. Anion

89. A positively charged ion which results when an electron is removed from an atom is
called _________.
A. Anion
B. Cation
C. Fermion
D. Lepton
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90. What is the “identity number” of an atom?

A. Atomic number
B. Mass number
C. Atomic mass
D. Atomic weight

91. The ________ of an atom is the sum of the number of protons and neutrons in the
nucleus of an atom.
A. Mass number
B. Atomic weight
C. Atomic mass
D. Atomic number

92. A certain element has an atomic number and mass number of 16 and 40, respectively.
The number of protons, electrons and neutrons present in a single ionized atom of this
element are _________, ________ and _________.
A. 16, 16, 24
B. 16, 24, 16
C. 16, 24, 16
D. 16, 16, 40

93. “When the elements are arranged in the order of increasing atomic number, elements with
similar properties appear at periodic intervals”. This statement is known as _________.
A. Law of multiple proportion
B. Law of definite proportion
C. The periodic law
D. Dalton‟s atomic theory

94. Who are the two chemists credited for the discovery of the periodic law?
A. Julius Lothar Meyer and Demitri Ivanovich Mendeleev
B. Humphrey Davy and Henri Becquerel
C. Henri Becquerel and Ernest Rutherford
D. Ernest Rutherford and Julius Lothar Meyer

95. The elements with similar properties are placed in columns of the periodic table. These
columns are commonly called __________.
A. Periods
B. Groups
C. Families
D. Groups of families
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96. What are the rows in the periodic table called?

A. Periods
B. Transitions
C. Groups
D. Families

97. The elements in the group in the periodic table are called ________.
A. Affinities
B. Cogeners
C. Representatives
D. Families

98. Elements in Group IA in the periodic table are _______.

A. Boron group
B. Alkaline earth metals
C. Alkali metals
D. Carbon group

99. Elements in Group IIA in the periodic table are _________.

A. Halogens
B. Alkaline earth metals
C. Alkali metals
D. Nitrogen group

100. The boron group is what group in the periodic table?

A. Group IIIA
B. Group IVA
C. Group VA
D. Group VIA

101. What group in the periodic table is the carbon group?

A. Group IIIA
B. Group IVA
C. Group VA
D. Group VIA
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102. What group in the periodic table is the nitrogen group?

A. Group VA
B. Group VIA
C. Group VIIA
D. Group IVA

103. The chalcogens are elements in what group in the periodic table?
A. Group VA
B. Group VIA
C. Group VIIA
D. Group IVA

104. Halogens belong to what group in the periodic table?

A. Group IVA
B. Group VA
C. Group VIA
D. Group VIIA

105. The elements germanium and silicon, which are commonly used for
semiconductors belongs to what group of elements?
A. Boron group
B. Carbon group
C. Nitrogen group
D. Halogens

106. What group in the periodic table are the noble gases?
A. Group 0
B. Group VIIIA
C. Group VIIA
D. Group 0 or VIIIA

107. The first period in the periodic table contains how many elements?
A. One
B. Two
C. Four
D. Eight
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108. Which of the following is NOT a noble gas?

A. Argon
B. Xenon
C. Radon
D. Antimony

109. What is another term for noble gases?

A. Special gases
B. Inert gases
C. Transuranic gases
D. CFC gases

110. What is the atomic number of oxygen?

A. 6
B. 7
C. 8
D. 9

111. What is the atomic number of germanium?

A. 14
B. 32
C. 18
D. 23

112. What is the atomic number of carbon?

A. 6
B. 7
C. 8
D. 10

113. Which of the following carbon atoms is the most abundant on Earth?
A. Carbon-4
B. Carbon-8
C. Carbon-12
D. Carbon-14
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114. Which alkaline earth metal has the smallest atomic number?
A. Beryllium
B. Magnesium
C. Calcium
D. Barium

115. Which noble gas has the smallest atomic number?

A. Argon
B. Krypton
C. Neon
D. Helium

116. What is the most abundant element in terms of the number of atoms?
A. Hydrogen
B. Helium
C. Oxygen
D. Nitrogen

117. What are the two most abundant elements in terms of the number of atoms?
A. Carbon and oxygen
B. Oxygen and silicon
C. Hydrogen and silicon
D. Hydrogen and nitrogen

118. Which of the following elements is the most abundant?

A. Gold
B. Iron
C. Aluminum
D. Copper

119. Silicon makes up over ________ of the earth‟s elements.

A. 10%
B. 25%
C. 5%
D. 20%
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120. Phosphorous makes up about what percent of the earth‟s resources?

A. 1%
B. 3%
C. 5%
D. 7%

121. What is the most abundant element in the human body?

A. Carbon
B. Hydrogen
C. Oxygen
D. Calcium

122. The human body is composed of how many percent oxygen?

A. 65%
B. 70%
C. 75%
D. 60%

123. What is the second most abundant element in the human body>
A. Carbon
B. Hydrogen
C. Oxygen
D. Nitrogen

124. To form an ammonia, nitrogen must be made to react with what element?
A. Oxygen
B. Sodium
C. Helium
D. Hydrogen

125. Which of the following is NOT a metalloid?

A. Antimony
B. Boron
C. Magnesium
D. Silicon
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126. Caustic soda is used in making soap, textiles and paper. What is another term for
caustic soda?
A. Sodium benzoate
B. Sodium hydroxide
C. Potassium chlorate
D. Cesium bromide

127. What is used for the manufacture of explosives and fireworks?

A. Magnesium hydroxide
B. Potassium chlorate
C. Potassium perchlorate
D. Cesium bromide

128. All alkaline metals will tarnish in air except _______.

A. Magnesium
B. Barium
C. Radium
D. Beryllium

129. What alkali metal is usually used for x-ray apparatus because of its ability to
allow x-rays to pass through with minimum absorption?
A. Magnesium
B. Radium
C. Beryllium
D. Barium

130. A chemical reaction between a metal and a non-metal usually forms ionic
compounds. Which of the following is NOT an ionic compound?
A. NaCl
B. C6H12O6
C. MgBr2
D. AlCl3

131. What element is used as a coating for iron to make galvanized iron a corrosion-
resistant material?
A. Magnesium
B. Titanium
C. Zinc
D. Chromium
 26

132. The combination of iron and zinc produces what kind of metal?
A. Galvanized metal
B. Gray-iron
C. White-iron
D. Wrought-iron

133. What is the color of zinc?

A. Bluish-white
B. Milkish-white
C. Silvery-white
D. Grayish-white

134. What element is used as electric power source for pacemakers and artificial
bearts?
A. Promethium
B. Neodymium
C. Uranium
D. Plutonium

135. What element is commonly used in making lasers?

A. Chromium
B. Neodymium
C. Promethium
D. Terbium

136. What is regarded as the most unique element in the periodic table?
A. Hydrogen
B. Oxygen
C. Carbon
D. Uranium

137. What is the most abundant element in the atmosphere?

A. Oxygen
B. Nitrogen
C. Helium
D. Inert gases
 27

138. What is the approximate percentage of nitrogen in air by volume?

A. 70%
B. 78%
C. 72%
D. 76%

139. What is the only gas in Group VIA in the periodic table?
A. Argon
B. Krypton
C. Oxygen
D. Helium

140. What is the second most abundant element in the atmosphere?

A. Argon
B. Krypton
C. Oxygen
D. Nitrogen

141. What element is used in advertising signs?

A. Neon
B. Helium
C. Sodium
D. Xenon

142. What principle states about the fundamental limitation that for a particle as small
as the electrons, one cannot know exactly where it is and at the same time know its
energy or how it is moving?
A. Aufbau principle
B. Uncertainty principle
C. Pauli exclusion principle
D. Kinetic molecular theory

143. Who discovered the uncertainty principle?

A. Werner Karl Heisenberg
B. Louie de Broglie
C. Albert Einstein
D. John Newlands
 28

144. What principle states that the electrons fill the orbitals, one at a time, starting with
the lowest energy orbital then proceeding to the one with higher energy?
A. Aufbau principle
B. Uncertainty principle
C. Pauli exclusion principle
D. Kinetic molecular theory

145. What principle states that no two electrons in the same atom can have the same
set of four quantum numbers?
A. Aufbau principle
B. Uncertainty principle
C. Pauli exclusion principle
D. Kinetic molecular theory

146. What describes how the electrons are distributed among the orbitals?
A. Electronegativity of the element
B. Electron configuration of an atom
C. Energy state of the atom
D. Pauli exclusion principle

147. Which of the following would be different in a ground state and an excited state
of neon atom?
A. The electronic configuration
B. The number of electrons
C. The atomic weight
D. The number of neutrons

148. What refers to the spatial arrangement of the groups attached to a chiral carbon
atom?
A. Absolute configuration
B. Partial configuration
C. Electron configuration
D. Element configuration

149. The ________ of the atom describes the atom as having a nucleus at the center
around which electrons move?
A. Spin number
B. Quantum mechanical model
C. Quantum number
D. Azimuthal number
 29

150. Who produced the mathematical theory of wave mechanics where the solutions to
his equations involve assigning integers to the different parameters (quantum numbers) to
describe the arrangement of electrons in the atoms?
A. Louie de Broglie
B. John Newlands
C. Edwin Schrodinger
D. Wolfgang Pauli

151. The spin quantum number is what quantum number?

A. First quantum number
B. Second quantum number
C. Third quantum number
D. Fourth quantum number

152. What are the main energy levels where the valence electrons belong called?
A. Valence shells
B. Azimuthal shells
C. Spin shells
D. Quantum shells

153. In an atom, ______ are electrons that are contained within the filled inner shells.
A. Valence electrons
B. Core electrons
C. Focused electrons
D. Orbital electrons

154. Which of the following elements react by losing one electron?

A. Noble gases
B. Halogens
C. Alkali metals
D. Alkaline earth metals

155. The elements of groups IA, IIA, IIIA, IVA, VA, VIA, VIIA and VIIIA are called
main group elements or ______________.
A. Transitions
B. Representatives
C. Inner transitions
D. Metals or non-metals
 30

156. Group A elements in the periodic table are known as ________ elements.
A. Transition metals
B. Representative
C. Non-metals
D. Metalloids

157. What is another term for lanthanides and actinides?

A. Heavy metals
B. Light metals
C. Inner transition metals
D. Outer transition metals

158. What refers to the elements found at the center of the new periodic table?
A. Heavy metals
B. Alkali metals
C. Alkaline metals
D. Transition metals

159. For the representative elements, the number of valence electrons is the same as
the _______.
A. Number of electrons
B. Number of neutrons
C. The rightmost digit of the group number of element
D. Number of electrons less the number of neutrons

160. For the transition elements, the number of valence electrons is the same as
_______.
A. The group number
B. The rightmost digit of the group number of element
C. The number of electrons less the number of neutrons
D. The number of electrons less the number of protons

161. The size of the atom is dependent on which of the following:

A. The size of the nucleus
B. The region of space occupied by its electrons
C. The number of protons and neutrons
D. All of the choices above
 31

162. What happens to the atomic size of the elements in a group when you go from top
to bottom of the group?
A. It remains the same
B. It increases
C. It decreases
D. It becomes zero

163. Who first predicted the Bose-Einstein condensate (BEC) in 1924?

A. Albert Einstein
B. Satyendra Nath Bose
C. Carl Wieman
D. Wolfgang Ketterle

164. The ionization energy is __________ to the atomic size of atom.

A. Directly proportional
B. Inversely proportional
C. Equal to
D. Not related

165. What refers to the measure of the atom‟s tendency to attract an additional
electron?
A. Period number
B. Electron affinity
C. Ionization energy
D. Electronegativity

166. The process of gaining or losing an electron results in the formation of a charged
atom or molecule called ___________.
A. Ion
B. Cation
C. Anion
D. Crystal

167. Aside from the liquid, gas and solid, there are two other states of matter. What are
they?
A. Plasma and Quark
B. Quartz and Plasma
C. Quartz and Quasar
D. Plasma and Bose-Einstein condensate
 32

168. Who first identified the plasma in 1879?

A. William Crookes
B. Irving Langmuir
C. Albert Einstein
D. Eric Cornell

169. Who coined the term “plasma” in 1928?

A. William Crookes
B. Irving Langmuir
C. Albert Einstein
D. Eric Cornell

170. What is made of gas atoms that have been cooled to near absolute zero at which
temperature the atoms slow down, combine and forms a single entity known called a
superatom?
A. Ionized gas
B. Bose-Einstein condensate (BEC)
C. Plasma
D. Quark

171. The fifth state of matter, the BEC (Bose-Einstein condensate) was first created in
what year?
A. 1992
B. 1993
C. 1994
D. 1995

172. What is a high-energy, electrically charged gas produced by heating the gas until
the electrons in the outer orbitals of the atoms separate, leaving the atoms with a positive
charge?
A. Quartz
B. Quark
C. BEC
D. Plasma

173. Water has the biggest density when it is in what state?

A. Liquid
B. Gas
C. Solid
D. Vapor
 33

174. What is the temperature of water in solid state at 1 atm?

A. 4°C
B. 25°C
C. 0°C
D. 5°C

175. The density of water is the largest at what temperature?

A. 2°C
B. 1°C
C. 3°C
D. 4°C

176. Which of the following elements has the highest density?

A. Silver
B. Gold
C. Lead
D. Copper

177. Which of the following elements has the highest density?

A. Wood
B. Plastic
C. Magnesium
D. Aluminum

178. In purifying water, offensive odor and taste are removed through which process?
A. Aeration
B. Chlorination
C. Filtration
D. Sedimentation

179. The procedure for separating a liquid from a mixture by vaporizing the liquid and
condensing the vapor is called __________.
A. Evaporation
B. Aeration
C. Sedimentation
D. Distillation
 34

180. The process in which atmosphere water vapor condenses on a highly soluble solid
and the solid dissolves in the water to produce an aqueous solution is called
___________.
A. Deionization
B. Deliquescence
C. Denaturation
D. Distillation

181. The process, similar to osmosis, in which ions or molecules in solution pass
through a semipermeable membrane but colloidal particles do not is called________.
A. Deionization
B. Deliquescence
C. Denaturation
D. Dialysis

182. What is an elementary process involving the collision of two molecules?

A. Bimolecular process
B. Binary process
C. Molecular process
D. Duomolecular process

183. What element has a very high melting point and ideal for filaments of light bulbs?
A. Barium
B. Aluminum
C. Tungsten
D. Titanium

184. Metals can be drawn into wires. This illustrates what property of metals?
A. Malleability
B. Ductility
C. Rigidity
D. Plasticity

185. Steel is the widely used construction material because of its high tensile strength.
It is a combination of what element?
A. Iron and carbon
B. Iron and aluminum
C. Lead and carbon
D. Lead and aluminum
 35

186. What refers to the electrostatic attraction that holds together the oppositely
charged ions, the cations and anions, in the solid compound?
A. Electronic bond
B. Metallic bond
C. Covalent bond
D. Ionic bond

187. What states the atoms tend to gain, lose or share electrons until they are
surrounded by eight valence electrons?
A. Figure of 8 rule
B. Octet rule
C. Ionic rule
D. Lewis rule

188. What indicates the number of valence electrons in the atom represented by dots
scattered on four sides of the atomic symbol?
A. Electron dot structure
B. Lewis structure
C. Crystalline structure
D. Electron dot structure or Lewis structure

189. What is formed by the sharing of electrons between atoms?

A. Covalent bond
B. Ionic bond
C. Metallic bond
D. Electronic bond

190. What is the distance between the nuclei of two bonded atoms called?
A. Bond length
B. Molecular length
C. Atomic distance
D. Atomic radius

191. Which of the following elements has the smallest atomic radius?
A. Silicon
B. Chlorine
C. Sulfur
D. Aluminum
 36

192. What is the radius of a spherical ion called?

A. Ionic radius
B. Isotopic radius
C. Molecular radius
D. Atomic radius

193. Which of the following elements has an ionic radius that is larger than its atomic
radius?
A. Calcium
B. Magnesium
C. Sodium
D. Chlorine

194. The overall shape of a molecule is described by which two properties?

A. Bond distance and bond size
B. Bond distance and bond angle
C. Bond radius and bond angle
D. Bond angle and bond size

195. What is an angle made by the lines joining the nuclei of the atom in the molecule?
A. Atomic angle
B. Bond angle
C. Molecular angle
D. Ionic angle

196. A pair of electrons involved in covalent bond formation is called ________.

A. Bond elements
B. Bond electrons
C. Bond pair
D. Bond order

197. _________ is one-half the difference between the number of electrons iin bonding
and in anti-bonding molecular orbitals in the covalent bond.
A. Bond pair
B. Bond order
C. Bond angle
D. Bond length
 37

198. What is the quantity of energy required to break one mole of covalent bonds in a
gaseous species?
A. Bond order energy
B. Bond dissociation energy
C. Bond pair energy
D. Bond distance energy

199. Bond dissociation energy is usually expressed in ________.

A. kcal/mole
B. kJ/mole
C. Btu/mole
D. J-s/mole

200. “The best arrangement of a given number of shared and unshared electrons is the
one that minimizes the repulsion among them”. This is known as __________.
A. Valence bond theory
B. Electron group theory
C. Molecular polarity theory
D. Valence-shell electron-pair repulsion theory

201. “A covalent bond is formed by the overlap of atomic orbitals.” This statement is
the basic idea of which theory?
A. Valence bond theory
B. Electron group theory
C. Molecular polarity theory
D. Valence-shell electron-pair repulsion theory

202. What refers to a simple model to account for molecular geometry which is based
on simple repulsion of electron pairs?
A. Valence shell electron pair repulsion theory
B. Rule of detect
C. Electron bonding theory
D. Molecular polarity theory

203. What theory provides quantum-mechanical descriptions of molecular bonding

which focuses attention on the bond formation?
A. Pauli‟s exclusion principle
B. Quantum bond theory
C. Valence bond theory
D. Molecular bond theory
 38

204. What refers to the ability of an atom in a molecule to attract shared electrons?
A. Electronegativity
B. Electron affinity
C. Ionization energy
D. Periodic number

205. Electronegativity is the ability of an atom in a compound to attract an electron

towards itself. It is a measure on an arbitrary scale of ________.
A. 0 – 2
B. 0 – 3
C. 0 – 4
D. 0 – 5

206. What type of bond occurs when the difference in electronegativity ids greater than
or equal to 2?
A. Ionic
B. Nonpolar covalent
C. Polar covalent
D. Either nonpolar covalent of polar covalent

207. Nonpolar covalent bond occurs if the difference in electronegativity ranges from:
A. 0.00 to 0.40
B. 0.50 to 1.90
C. 1.90 to 2.00
D. 2.00 and up

208. When can we say that a molecule is polar?

A. When the centers of positive and negative charge do not coincide
B. When the centers of positive and negative charge coincide
C. When there is no positive nor negative charge
D. When there is only one charge, either negative or positive

209. What is the sum of the masses of the atoms in the molecule of the substance
called?
A. Atomic mass
B. Molecular mass
C. Formula mass
D. Atomic weight
 39

210. What refers to the number of atoms in exactly 12 grams of carbon-12??

A. Avogadro‟s number
B. Mole
C. Molar mass
D. amu

211. Which one is the Avogadro‟s number?

A. 6.20 x 1023
B. 6.02 x 1023
C. 6.32 x 1023
D. 6.22 x 1023

212. What is defined as the amount of substance that contains 6.02 x 1023 particles of
that substance?
A. Mole
B. Molar mass
C. Avogadro‟s number
D. amu

213. “The volume of gas is proportional to the amount of substances in moles at

constant pressure and temperature.” This statement is known as __________.
A. Avogadro‟s principle
B. Rutherford‟ s principle
C. Archimedes‟ principle
D. Bohr‟s principle

214. What refers to the mass in grams of one mole of a substance?

A. Molar mass
B. Molecular mass
C. Atomic mass
D. Atomic weight

215. What is the unit of molar mass?

A. amu
B. Mole
C. Grams
D. Grams per mole
 40

216. “The total pressure of a mixture of gases equals the sum of the partial pressures of
each of the gases in the mixture”. This statement is known as _________.
A. Dalton‟s law of partial pressure
B. Gay-Lussac law
C. Boyle‟s law
D. Charles„ law

217. What law states that “the total volume of a mixture of non-reacting gases is equal
to the sum of the partial volumes”?
A. Azamat‟s law
B. Dalton‟s law
C. Charles‟ law
D. Matthiessen‟s law

218. The dry air is composed of how many percent nitrogen?

A. 73.1%
B. 74.4%
C. 76.1%
D. 78.1%

219. The dry air is composed of how many percent oxygen?

A. 20.9%
B. 21.2%
C. 22.1%
D. 23.7%

220. How much carbon dioxide is present in dry air?

A. 0.003%
B. 0.03%
C. 0.3%
D. 3%

221. What is the mixing of gases due to molecular motion called?

A. Diffusion
B. Effusion
C. Fission
D. Fusion
 41

222. What refers to the passage of molecules of a gas from one container to another
through a tiny opening between the containers?
A. Diffusion
B. Effusion
C. Fusion
D. Fission

223. What refers to the process of spreading out spontaneously to occupy a space
uniformly?
A. Compression
B. Diffusion
C. Dissolution
D. Dilusion

224. The rate of effusion of gas is inversely proportional to the square root of its molar
mass. Who discovered this?
A. Gilbert Lewis
B. John Tyndall
C. Robert Brown
D. Thomas Graham

225. What law states that the rate of effusion of a gas, which is the amount of gas that
moves through the hole in a given amount of time, is inversely proportional to the square
root of its molar mass?
A. Henry‟s law
B. Graham‟s law of effusion
C. Hund‟s law
D. Lewis theory

226. What is a poisonous gas generated mostly by motor vehicles?

A. Carbon monoxide
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Hydroxide
D. Nitric acid

227. What is considered as one of the pollutants responsible for smog and acid rain?
A. Sulfur dioxide
B. Nitrogen dioxide
C. Carbon dioxide
D. Hydroxide
 42

228. What refers to the forces of attraction that exist between molecules in a
compound?
A. Interaction forces
B. Dispersion forces
C. Intermolecular forces
D. Induction forces

229. All are basic types of van der Waals forces except one. Which one?
A. Dipole-dipole interaction
B. London dispersion forces
C. Heat bonding
D. Hydrogen bonding

230. What forces hold molecules together in crystals?

A. Ionic forces
B. Cohesive forces
C. Van der waals forces
D. Diffusive forces

231. The three types of intermolecular forces exist in neutral molecules are collectively
known as van der waals forces. This is named after _________.
A. Diderik van der Waals
B. Derick van der Waals
C. Doe van der Waals
D. Eric van der Waals

232. A dipole has how many electrically charged pole(s)?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

233. Compound containing hydrogen and other element are known as __________.
A. Hydroxides
B. Hydrides
C. Hydros
D. Hydrates
 43

234. What is a special kind of dipole-dipole interaction formed when a hydrogen atom
bonded to a highly electronegative atom is attracted to the lone pair of a nearby
electronegative atom?
A. Hydride bond
B. Hydro bond
C. Hydrogen bond
D. Hydrate bond

235. What is the process of changing from gas state to liquid state?
A. Sublimation
B. Condensation
C. Deposition
D. Vaporization

236. What is the process of changing from liquid state to solid state?
A. Melting
B. Freezing
C. Sublimation
D. Condensation

237. What is the process of changing from liquid state to gas state?
A. Vaporization
B. Sublimation
C. Deposition
D. Condensation

238. What is the process of changing from solid state to gas state?
A. Vaporization
B. Deposition
C. Sublimation
D. Condensation

239. What is the process of changing from gas state to solid state?
A. Deposition
B. Vaporization
C. Condensation
D. Sublimation
 44

240. What is the process of changing from solid state to liquid state?
A. Freezing
B. Melting
C. Condensation
D. Vaporization

241. Sublimation is the kinetic molecular theory of water defined as the direct transfer
from ________ state to _________ state.
A. Solid, liquid
B. Liquid, gaseous
C. Solid, gaseous
D. Gaseous, liquid

242. What refers to the amount of heat absorbed by one mole of a substance be change
from solid to liquid?
A. Molar heat of vaporization
B. Molar heat of solidification
C. Molar heat of fission
D. Molar heat of fusion

243. What refers to the amount of heat released by one mole of a substance when it
changes from liquid to solid?
A. Molar heat of vaporization
B. Molar heat of solidification
C. Molar heat of fission
D. Molar heat of fusion

244. What refers to the amount of heat required by one mole of a substance to change
from liquid to gas?
A. Molar heat of vaporization
B. Molar heat of solidification
C. Molar heat of fission
D. Molar heat of fusion

245. What refers to the amount of heat required by one mole of a substance to change
from gas to liquid?
A. Molar heat of vaporization
B. Molar heat of solidification
C. Molar heat of fission
D. Molar heat of fusion
 45

246. Liquid that vaporizes easily are called ________ liquids.

A. Volatile
B. Nonvolatile
C. Surfactant
D. Hydrophilic

247. What refers to the temperature above which a gas cannot be liquefied by an
increase in pressure?
A. Absolute temperature
B. Absolute zero
C. Critical temperature
D. Maximum temperature

248. What is a homogenous mixture made of particle that exist as individual molecules
or ions?
A. Solution
B. Solute
C. Solvent
D. Colloid

249. What is the component of the solution that is dissolved?

A. Solvent
B. Solute
C. Catalyst
D. Colloid

250. What is the component of the solution in which the solute is dissolved?
A. Solvent
B. Catalyst
C. Reactant
D. Medium

251. Bronze is a solid solution of copper and tin. Which of the following is true?
A. Tin is the solvent
B. Copper is the solute
C. Copper is the solvent
D. The solution is called aqueous solution
 46

252. When the solvent of the solution is water, it is a/an __________ solution.
A. Wet
B. Liquid
C. Aqueous
D. Fluid

253. What is the most common solvent in medicines?

A. Paracetamol
B. Acid
C. Ethanol
D. Starch

254. What is the term generally used to describe the combination of solute molecules
or ions with solvent molecule?
A. Solubility
B. Solvation
C. Saturation
D. Transformation

255. What is the term used to describe the maximum amount of solute that a given
solvent can dissolve to give a stable solution at a given temperature?
A. Solubility
B. Solvation
C. Saturation
D. Transformation

256. When the maximum amount of solute is dissolved in the given solvents at a stated
temperature, the solution formed is ___________.
A. Unsaturated
B. Saturated
C. Supersaturated
D. Undersaturated

257. When the solution contains less solute particles than the maximum amount of the
solvent can dissolve at that temperature, the solution is ___________.
A. Unsaturated
B. Saturated
C. Supersaturated
D. Undersaturated
 47

258. When the solution contains more solute particles than the solvent can normally
hold, the solution is __________.
A. Unsaturated
B. Saturated
C. Supersaturated
D. Undersaturated

259. What is the most common solution on earth?

A. Air
B. Seawater
C. Blood
D. Freshwater

260. Solutions composed of two or more metals are called _________.

A. Saturated solutions
B. Supersaturated solutions
C. Unsaturated solutions
D. Alloys

261. The solubility of a substance in another substance is affected by the following

factors except _________.
A. Nature of solute and solvent
B. Pressure
C. Volume
D. Temperature

262. Liquids that do not mix are said to be _________.

A. Miscible
B. Immiscible
C. Soluble
D. Nonsoluble

263. Water and alcohol are both liquids that can be mixed in any proportion. They are
said to be _________.
A. Miscible
B. Immiscible
C. Soluble
D. Nonsoluble
 48

264. How will an increase in temperature in solids affect solubility?

A. It will cause a decrease in solubility
B. It will not affect solubility at all.
C. It will slightly affect solubility
D. It will cause an increase in solubility

265. How will an increase in temperature of gases dissolving in liquids affect

solubility?
A. It will cause a decrease in solubility
B. It will not affect solubility at all.
C. It will slightly affect solubility
D. It will cause an increase in solubility

266. How does pressure affects the solubility of gases in liquids?

A. It decreases solubility
B. It does not affect solubility at all
C. It slightly affect solubility
D. It increases solubility

267. How does pressure affects the solubility in liquids or of liquids in another liquid?
A. It decreases solubility
B. It does not affect solubility at all
C. It slightly affect solubility
D. It increases solubility

268. “The solubility of gas in a liquid is directly proportional to the partial pressure of
the gas above the solution”. This is known as _________.
A. Hund‟s law
B. Pascal‟s law
C. Henry‟s law
D. Dalton‟s law

269. What refers to the measure of how fast a substance dissolves?

A. Rate of solubility
B. Rate of agitation
C. Rate of dissolution
D. Rate of solution
 49

270. How can the rate of dissolution be increased?

A. Reduce particle size
B. Agitation
C. Application of heat
D. All of the above

271. ____________ means there is only a little amount of solute dissolved in a

solution.
A. Concentrated
B. Dilute
C. Saturated
D. Unsaturated

272. ___________ means there is a large amount of solute dissolved in the solution.
A. Concentrated
B. Dilute
C. Saturated
D. Unsaturated

273. What is the ratio of the number of moles of one component of a solution to the
total number of moles of all the components?
A. Molarity
B. Molality
C. Formality
D. Mole fraction

274. What is the ratio of the number of moles of solute to the volume of the solution in
liters?
A. Molarity
B. Molality
C. Formality
D. Mole fraction

275. What is the ratio of number of moles of solute per kilogram of solvent?
A. Molarity
B. Molality
C. Formality
D. Mole fraction
 50

276. What is the process of making a solution less concentrated as in the addition of
more solvent?
A. Concentration
B. Dilution
C. Saturation
D. Colligation

277. What is the process of changing liquid to gas that is usually accompanied by the
production of bubbles of vapor in the liquid?
A. Vaporizing
B. Boiling
C. Condensing
D. Sublimation

278. What is the temperature at which the vapor pressure of the liquid equals the
prevailing atmospheric pressure?
A. Boiling point
B. Triple point
C. Saturation point
D. Critical point

279. What is the temperature at which liquid and solid are in equilibrium?
A. Boiling point
B. Resting point
C. Freezing point
D. Critical point

280. What refers to the decrease in the freezing point of a pure liquid when another
substance is dissolved in the liquid?
A. Freezing point compression
B. Freezing point extension
C. Freezing point depression
D. Freezing point dilution

281. If two solutions have the same concentration of solute, they are _________.
A. Hypertonic
B. Hypotonic
C. Isotonic
D. Photonic
 51

282. If one of the two solutions has a higher concentration of solute particles than the
other, the one with the higher concentration is described as ________.
A. Hypertonic
B. Hypotonic
C. Isotonic
D. Photonic

283. If one of the two solutions has a higher concentration of solute particles than the
other, the one with the lower concentration is described as ________.
A. Hypertonic
B. Hypotonic
C. Isotonic
D. Photonic

284. The movement of solvent particles through a semi-permeable membrane from the
region of lower solute concentration to the region of higher solute concentration is called
__________.
A. Osmosis
B. Hymolysis
C. Crenation
D. Dialysis

285. The term “colloid” comes from the Greek “kolla” and “oidos” which means
____________.
A. Cloudy appearance
B. Cloudy shape
C. Glue appearance
D. Glue color

286. What are suspensions of liquid or solid particles in a gas called?

A. Emulsions
B. Aerosols
C. Foams
D. Sols

287. What is in some aerosol products that can cause harm to the atmosphere?
A. Smog
B. Chlorofluorocarbons (CFC)
C. Emulsifying agent
D. Hydrocarbons
 52

288. What are colloidal dispersions of gas bubbles in liquids or solids?

A. Emulsions
B. Aerosols
C. Foams
D. Sols

289. What is a colloidal dispersion of a liquid in either a liquid or a solid?

A. Emulsions
B. Gels
C. Foams
D. Sols

290. What is a solid dispersed in either a solid or a liquid?

A. mulsions
B. Gels
C. Foams
D. Sols

291. What is a colloidal system in which the dispersed phase consists of fibrous,,
interwoven particles called fibrils which exert a marked effect on the physical properties
of the dispersing medium?
A. Emulsions
B. Gels
C. Foams
D. Sols

292. Most cosmetics and ointments and creams used in medicines are __________.
A. Emulsions
B. Gels
C. Foams
D. Sols

293. The substance usually used in cleaning toilet bowls and tiles is muriatic acid.
What is another term for this?
A. Nitric acid
B. Sulfuric acid
C. Hydrochloric acid
D. Phosphoric acid
 53

294. What acid is an oxide that reacts with water to form ternary acid as the sole
product?
A. Acid salt
B. Acid anhydride
C. Acid hydride
D. Aliphatic acid

295. The term “anhydride” means __________.

A. With water
B. With air
C. Without water
D. Without air

296. “Upon dissociation in water, acids yield hydrogen ions while gases yield
hydroxide ions”. What is this statement commonly called?
A. Arrhenius theory
B. pH concept
C. Bronsted-Lowry theory
D. Le Chatelier‟s principle

297. What is defined as a substance which upon reaction with water causes an increase
in the concentration of the solvent cation, H3O+?
A. Lewis acid
B. Lewis base
C. Arrhenius base
D. Arrhenius acid

298. What is defined as a substance which upon dissolution in or reaction with water
causes an increase in the concentration of the solvent anion, OH-?
A. Lewis acid
B. Lewis base
C. Arrhenius base
D. Arrhenius acid

299. What is the dissolution constant of water at 25°C?

A. 1.8 x 10-15
B. 1.8 x 10-16
C. 1.8 x 10-17
D. 1.8 x 10-18
 54

300. What theory states that an acid is any substance that donates a proton to another
substance, and a base is any substance that can accept a proton from any other substance?
A. Arrhenius theory
B. Bronsted-Lowry theory
C. Lewis theory
D. pH concept

301. What theory states that an acid is a substance that can accept a lone pair from
another molecule, and a base is a substance that has a lone pair of electrons?
A. Arrhenius theory
B. Bronsted-Lowry theory
C. Lewis theory
D. pH concept

302. An acid described as an electron pair acceptor is the ________ acid.

A. Arrhenius
B. Pure
C. Lewis
D. Bronsted-Lowry

303. The Bronsted-Lowry acid is:

A. A proton donor
B. A proton acceptor
C. An electron pair acceptor
D. An electron pair donor

304. The Bronsted-Lowry base is:

A. A proton donor
B. A proton acceptor
C. An electron pair acceptor
D. An electron pair donor

305. According to Gilbert Lewis, an acid-base reaction as the sharing of an electron

pair will form what type of bond?
A. Coordinate ionic bond
B. Coordinate covalent bond
C. Coordinate metallic bond
D. Coordinate bond
 55

306. What is the type of covalent bond in which the shared electrons are donated by
one, not both, of the atoms involved?
A. Synchronous covalent bond
B. Coordinated covalent bond
C. Asynchronous covalent bond
D. Translating covalent bond

307. What is the term used for the product of a Lewis acid-base reaction?
A. Oxyacids
B. Binary acid
C. Acibas
D. Adduct

308. Acids composed of only two elements, hydrogen and nonmetal, are called
__________.
A. Binary acids
B. Ternary acids
C. Oxyacids
D. Organic acids

309. What is added to hydrochloride to form hydrochloric acid?

A. Oxygen
B. Sulfur
C. Water
D. Carbon

310. Acids consist of three elements, hydrogen and two nonmetals are called
____________..
A. Triacids
B. Ternary acids
C. Oxyacids
D. Organic acids

311. If one of the two nonmetals of a ternary acid is oxygen, the acid is called
_____________.
A. Oxide
B. Oxiyacid
C. Axide acid
D. Acidic oxide
 56

312. Which of the following can behave either an acid or a basic oxide?
A. Amphoteric oxide
B. Hydrogen peroxide
C. Isothropic oxide
D. Isodermic oxide

313. Which of the following is the formula of sulfuric acid?

A. H2SO4
B. H2SO3
C. H4SO2
D. H2SO2

314. Which of the following is the formula of nitric acid?

A. HNO4
B. H2NO3
C. HNO2
D. HNO3

315. What acid is usually used in vinegars?

A. Sulfuric acid
B. Acetic acid
C. Nitric acid
D. Carbonic acid

316. What acid is used in glass itching?

A. Acetylsalicylic acid
B. Hydrofluoric acid
C. Phosphoric acid
D. Hydrochloric acid

317. What acid is usually present in some fruits?

A. Citric acid
B. Carbonic acid
C. Organic acid
D. Nitric acid
 57

318. What acid is used in carbonated drinks?

A. Carbonic acid
B. Hydrofluoric acid
C. Nitric acid
D. Citric acid

319. What acid usually used to reduce pain and inflammation such as aspirin and other
pain relievers?
A. Carbonic acid
B. Acetylsalicylic acid
C. Nitric acid
D. Phosphoric acid

320. What acid is usually used in the manufacture of fertilizers?

A. Carbonic acid
B. Acetylsalicylic acid
C. Sulfuric acid
D. Phosphoric acid

321. What acid is usually used in the manufacture of explosives?

A. Carbonic acid
B. Acetylsalicylic acid
C. Nitric acid
D. Phosphoric acid

322. What acid is used in the batteries of cars or automobiles?

A. Carbonic acid
B. Acetylsalicylic acid
C. Sulfuric acid
D. Phosphoric acid

323. Bases are compounds consisting of:

A. Metal and oxide ion
B. Nonmetal and oxide ion
C. Metal and hydroxide ion
D. Nonmetal and hydroxide ion
 58

324. Which base is used to remove carbon dioxide from air?

A. Lithium hydroxide
B. Sodium hydroxide
C. Aluminum hydroxide
D. Magnesium hydroxide

325. What base is used as an antacid with no dosage restriction?

A. Magnesium hydroxide
B. Sodium hydroxide
C. Aluminum hydroxide
D. Lithium hydroxide

326. Magnesium hydroxide is a base used as antacid if consumed in small amounts and
laxative if consumed in large dosage. What is common term for magnesium hydroxide?
A. Skim of magnesia
B. Oil of magnesia
C. Cream of magnesia
D. Milk of magnesia

327. What is the most convenient way of expressing hydronium ion concentration?
A. Hydrometer reading
B. pH scale
C. alkalinity
D. basicity

328. Who proposed the pH scale in 1909?

A. Albert Einstein
B. J. Willard Gibbs
C. Henri Hess
D. Soren Sorensen

329. What does the symbol of “pH” stands for?

A. Power of the hydroxide compound
B. Power of the hydroxide ion
C. Power of the hydrogen ion
D. Power of hydrogen
 59

330. What is the pH of pure water?

A. 6.1
B. 6.5
C. 7
D. 7.4

331. Which two substances have the same pH, which is 6.5?
A. Saliva and milk
B. Orange juice and tomato juice
C. Vinegar and calamansi juice
D. Urine and apple juice

332. Which is the most acidic?

A. Vinegar
B. Calamansi juice
C. Carbonated drink
D. Orange juice

333. Which is the best description of strong acids?

A. They dissociate or ionize completely in water
B. They don‟t dissociate or ionize completely in water
C. They are normally found in vinegars
D. They are the acids that do not contain hydrogen

334. Which is the best description of weak acids?

A. They dissociate or ionize completely in water
B. They don‟t dissociate or ionize completely in water
C. They are normally found in vinegars
D. They are the acids that do not contain hydrogen

335. What is a measure of the H3O+ concentration of a solution?

A. pH
B. pOH
C. indicator
D. OH-
 60

336. What is a measure of the OH- concentration of a solution?

A. pH
B. pOH
C. indicator
D. H3O+

337. What is the pH of a neutral solution?

A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8

338. Which of the following pH is the most basic?

A. pH 8
B. pH 9
C. pH 11
D. pH 13

339. What is a substance that changes color at a certain pH range?

A. Litmus paper
B. Indicator
C. Balancer
D. Lichen

340. What refers to the reaction between an acid and a base forming salt and water?
A. Neutralization
B. Titration
C. Hydrolysis
D. Buffer

341. What is the process of measuring the concentration of an acid or base in one
solution by adding a base or acid solution of known concentration until the acid or base in
the solution of unknown concentration is fully neutralized?
A. Neutralization
B. Titration
C. Hydrolysis
D. Buffer
 61

342. What refers to the point at which the added base or acid solution in titration is
enough to fully neutralize the acid or base?
A. Neutral point
B. Titrant point
C. Central point
D. Equivalence point

343. What refers to the reaction between the ions of a salt and the ions of water?
A. Salt titration
B. Salt buffering
C. Salt neutralization
D. Salt hydrolysis

344. What is a solution consisting of a weak acid and its conjugate base, as of weak
base and its conjugate acid?
A. Seawater
B. Salt
C. Buffer
D. Aqueous solution

345. What refers to sets of compound that react with and occupy hydrogen and
hydroxide ions?
A. Buffer
B. Catalyst
C. Salt
D. Oxide

346. What refers to the amount of acid and/or base that a buffer solution can neutralize
while maintaining an essentially constant pH?
A. Buffer limit
B. Buffer capacity
C. Buffer tolerance
D. Buffer index

347. Who discovered buffer as set of compounds that reacts with and occupy hydrogen
and hydroxide ions?
A. Johannes Bronsted and Thomas Lowry
B. Johannes Bronsted and Antoine Lavoisier
C. Thomas Lowry and Antoine Lavoisier
D. John Dalton and Thomas Lowry
 62

348. What is the most common chemical reaction, which is the reaction of materials
with oxygen accompanies by the giving off of energy in the form of heat?
A. Combustion
B. Exothermic reaction
C. Endothermic reaction
D. Kinetic reaction

349. What is the area of chemistry that concerns with the rate at which chemical
reactions occur?
A. Chemical collision theory
B. Chemical dynamics
C. Chemical kinematics
D. Chemical kinetics

350. What will increase if the temperature of a chemical reaction is increased?

A. The number of molecular collisions
B. The activation energy
C. Both the number of molecular collisions and the activation energy
D. The kinetic energy of the molecules

351. What is the minimum amount of energy need for a chemical reaction to occur
called?
A. Initial energy
B. Activation energy
C. Ignition energy
D. Catalystic energy

352. What must be done to increase the rate of reaction?

A. Reduce the activation level
B. Decrease the temperature
C. Reduce the concentration of reactant in the reaction container
D. Increase the volume of the reaction container

353. If the energy is released as the reaction occurs, it is a __________ reaction.

A. Instantaneous
B. Spontaneous
C. Exothermic
D. Endothermic
 63

354. If the energy is absorbed during the reaction, it is a _________ reaction.

A. Instantaneous
B. Spontaneous
C. Exothermic
D. Endothermic

355. What type of chemical reaction which occurs when the heat of a solution is
positive and heat is absorbed when the solute dissolves in the solvent?
A. Exothermic reaction
B. Spontaneous reaction
C. Thermionic reaction
D. Endothermic reaction

356. What is a substance that when added to a reaction mixture, increases the rate of
the reaction but is itself unchanged after the reaction is done?
A. Hydroxide ions
B. Accelerators
C. Catalyst
D. Neutral subtrance

357. What is a substance that slows down a chemical reaction?

A. Inhibitors
B. Retardant
C. Catalyst
D. Deccelerators

358. How are catalysts classified?

A. Homogenous and heterogeneous
B. Slow and fast
C. Pure and composite
D. Acidic and basic

359. What type of catalyst exists in the same phase as the reactants in a reaction
mixture?
A. Homogeneous catalyst
B. Heterogeneous catalyst
C. Pure catalyst
D. Composite catalyst
 64

360. What type of catalyst exists in separate phase as the reactants in the reaction
mixture?
A. Homogeneous catalyst
B. Heterogeneous catalyst
C. Pure catalyst
D. Composite catalyst

361. Most heterogeneous catalysts are ________.

A. Liquids
B. Solids
C. Gases
D. Plasma

362. What parameter involved in a chemical reaction will change with the addition of a
catalyst?
A. Rate constant
B. Heat exchange
C. Enthalpy
D. Entropy

363. What refers to the location at which catalyst occurs, whether on the surface of a
heterogeneous catalyst or an enzyme?
A. Active site
B. Passive site
C. Neutral site
D. Yield site

364. Gases are solid when combined with what elements?

A. Lead
B. Zinc
C. Lead or zinc
D. Nitrogen

365. Which one is a factor that affects the rate of chemical reactions?
A. Temperature
B. Concentration and surface area of reactants
C. Presence of a catalyst
D. All of the above
 65

366. What refers to the state at which the rates of the forward and backward reactions
are equal?
A. Chemical equilibrium
B. Reversible equilibrium
C. Reaction equilibrium
D. Haber equilibrium

367. What is the study of heat formed or required by the chemical reaction?
A. Stoichemistry
B. Thermochemistry
C. Thermodynamics
D. Enthalpy

368. What refers to the quantitative measurements and relationships involving

substances and mixtures of chemical interests?
A. Stoichemistry
B. Thermochemistry
C. Quantitative chemistry
D. Inorganic chemistry

369. What is the ratio of the equilibrium concentration of the products to the
equilibrium concentrations of the reactants with each species concentration raised to the
corresponding stoichiometric coefficient found in the balanced reaction?
A. Equilibrium constant
B. Equilibrium concentration
C. Chemical equilibrium
D. Reaction quotient

370. What term is used as a qualitative description of the extent of a chemical reaction?
A. Equilibrium position
B. Chemical equilibrium
C. Equilibrium
D. Reaction equilibrium

371. What quantity is used to determine how far from equilibrium the chemical
reaction is?
A. Reaction index
B. Chemical quotient
C. Equilibrium quotient
D. Reaction quotient
 66

372. What states that if a change in conditions is imposed on a system at equilibrium,,

the equilibrium position will shift in the direction that tends to reduce the effects of that
change?
A. Hess‟ principle
B. Catalyst effect
C. Haber process principle
D. Le Chatelier‟s principle

373. What refers t the reaction of oxygen with an element or compound?

A. Reduction
B. Oxidation
C. Oxygenation
D. Oxygenization

374. The loss of electron by a substance is known as ___________.

A. Oxidation
B. Covalent process
C. Reduction
D. Ionic process

375. The gain of electrons by a substance is known as __________.

A. Oxidation
B. Covalent process
C. Reduction
D. Ionic process

376. What represents the charge that the atom would have if the electrons in each bond
belonged entirely to the more electronegative atom?
A. Oxidation number
B. Atomic number
C. Atomic weight
D. Electron affinity

377. A reduced substance is what type of agent?

A. Oxidizing agent
B. Redox agent
C. Reducing agent
D. Nonredox agent
 67

378. The oxidized substance is what type of agent?

A. Oxidizing agent
B. Redox agent
C. Reducing agent
D. Nonredox agent

379. What reaction does not involve any change in oxidation number?
A. Redox reaction
B. Nonredox reaction
C. Reducing reaction
D. Oxidizing reaction

380. What is an apparatus that uses a spontaneous redox reaction to generate

electricity?
A. Voltaic cell
B. Fuel cell
C. Lead cell
D. Nickel cadmium cell

381. What is a branch of chemistry which is the study of carbon-containing molecules

known as organic compounds?
A. Organic chemistry
B. Inorganic chemistry
C. Stoichemistry
D. Biochemistry

382. Which of the following is a crystalline form of carbon?

A. Diamond
B. Graphite
C. Fullerenes
D. All of the above

383. What crystalline carbon is soft, black, slippery solid that possess metallic luster
and conduct electricity?
A. Charcoal
B. Graphite
C. Diamond
D. Coke
 68

384. What is formed when hydrocarbons such as methane are heated in the presence of
very little oxygen?
A. Carbon black
B. Charcoal
C. Coke
D. Diamond

385. What type of carbon id produced when wood is heated intensely in the absence of
air?
A. Carbon black
B. Charcoal
C. Coke
D. Diamond

386. What type of carbon is used to remove undesirable odors from air?
A. Carbon black
B. Charcoal
C. Coke
D. Diamond

387. What carbon is produced when coal is strongly heated in the absence of air?
A. Carbon black
B. Charcoal
C. Coke
D. Diamond

388. What type of carbon is used in the manufacture of car tires?

A. A. Carbon black
B. Charcoal
C. Coke
D. Diamond

389. Which of the following is NOT a property of inorganic compounds?

A. High melting and boiling points
B. Mostly soluble in water
C. Conduct electric current
D. Usually flammable and combustible
 69

390. Organic compounds:

A. Are generally soluble in non-polar solvents
B. Are usually flammable and combustible
C. Have presence of covalent bond
D. All of the above

391. Inorganic compounds:

A. are rarely soluble in non-polar solvents
B. Are generally non-flammable
C. Have presence of ionic bond
D. All of the above

392. The organic compounds are related to each other by a common feature involving
a certain arrangement of atoms called ___________.
A. Hydrocarbons
B. Chain
C. Functional groups
D. Alkanes

393. What is the simplest and most commonly encountered class of organic
compounds?
A. Carbides
B. Oxides
C. Carbon oxides
D. Hydrocarbons

394. Based on the type of bond existing between two carbon atoms, how do
hydrocarbon classified?
A. Saturated and unsaturated
B. Pure and unpure
C. Organic and inorganic
D. Natural and artificial

395. What hydrocarbons contain only single bond?

A. Alkanes
B. Alkyne
C. Alkene
D. Benzene
 70

396. When a hydrocarbon consists of carbon links that form long straight or branched
chain, it is classified as ___________ type.
A. Cyclic
B. Chain
C. Pole
D. Linear

397. When hydrocarbon consists of carbon links that form a ring, it is classified as
___________ type.
A. Cyclic
B. Chain
C. Pole
D. Linear

398. The aromatic hydrocarbons contain the structural unit called ___________.
A. Alkyne
B. Benzene
C. Alkene
D. Alkane

399. What is a six-carbon ring with three alternating double bonds, or closely related
rings of=r rings of similar nature where nitrogen replaces carbon in one or more ring
positions?
A. Alkyne
B. Benzene
C. Alkene
D. Alkane

400. What is another term for “Alkanes”?

A. Olefins
B. Acetylene
C. Paraffins
D. Methyl

401. What is the simplest alkane which is a major component of nature gas?
A. Methane
B. Octane
C. Olefin
D. Acetylene
 71

402. What are hydrocarbons that contain one or more double bonds?
A. Alkyne
B. Benzene
C. Alkene
D. Alkane

403. What is another term for “Alkenes”?

A. Olefins
B. Ethene
C. Paraffins
D. Methyls

404. What is the simplest alkene, which is a plant hormone that plays important role in
seed germination and ripening of fruits?
A. Anthracene
B. Propyl
C. Ethyne
D. Ethene

405. What are hydrocarbons that contain one or more triple bonds?
A. Alkyne
B. Benzene
C. Alkene
D. Alkane

406. What is the simplest alkyne which is highly reactive molecule?

A. Ethene
B. Acetylene or ethyne
C. Propyl
D. Alkyl

407. The compounds, benzene, naphthalene and anthracene are examples of what
hydrocarbon?
A. Aliphatic hydrocarbons
B. Aromatic hydrocarbons
C. Alkenes
D. Alkynes
 72

408. What aromatic hydrocarbon is used as a component of mothballs?

A. Benzene
B. Naphthalene
C. Anthracene
D. Methyl

409. In 1956, the International Union of Pure and Applied Chemistry (IUPAC) devised
a systematic way of naming organic compound. What is this called?
A. System of nomenclature
B. System of identification
C. System of verification
D. System of unification

410. What refers to the system of naming chemical compounds?

A. Chemical unification
B. Chemical identification
C. Chemical standard
D. Chemical nomenclature

411. In naming of hydrocarbons, what refers to a side chain that is formed by removing
a hydrogen atom from an alkane?
A. Alkyl group
B. Alken group
C. Methyl group
D. Alkyn group

412. Compounds that contain halogens are called __________.

A. Amines
B. Halides
C. Ethers
D. Aldehydes

413. The organic compounds that contain oxygen but not in the carbonyl group are
called ___________.
A. Alcohols and ethers
B. Amines and amides
C. Halide
D. Aldehydes
 73

414. What organic compounds contain the hydroxyl as the functional group and are
considered derivatives of water?
A. Alcohols
B. Ethers
C. Aldehydes
D. Ketones

415. What organic comounds contain nitrogen?

A. Halides
B. Amines and amides
C. Alcohols
D. Ethers

416. What organic compounds in which two hydrocarbon groups that can be aliphatic
or aromatic are attached to one oxygen atom?
A. Amines
B. Alcohols
C. Ethers
D. Halides

417. Which of the following gases is usually used as a refrigerant?

A. Ketone
B. Muscone
C. Propyl ether
D. Dimethyl ether

418. Which of the following statements regarding organic substances is FALSE?

A. Organic substances generally dissolve in high concentration acids.
B. All organic matter contains carbon.
C. Organic matter is generally stable at very high temperatures.
D. Organic substances generally do not dissolve in water.

419. A substance that dissociates in solutions to produce positive and negative ions is
called __________.
A. Base
B. Acid
C. Electrolyte
D. Solvent
 74

420. A substance that is essentially non-ionized, both in the pure state and in solution
is called __________.
A. Electrolyte
B. Deionized substance
C. Nonelectrolyte
D. Amphoteric substance

421. Which of the following is most likely to prove that a substance is inorganic?
A. The substance evaporates in room temperature and pressure
B. The substance is heated together with copper oxide and the resulting gases are found
to have no effect on limestone
C. Analysis shows that the substance contains hydrogen
D. The substance floats in water

422. Which of the following elements and compounds is unstable in its pure form?
A. Helium
B. Neon
C. Carbon dioxide
D. Sodium

423. What element is known as the lightest metal?

A. Aluminum
B. Manganese
C. Magnesium
D. Lithium

424. What refers to the attraction between like molecules?

A. Absorption
B. Diffusion
C. Adhesion
D. Cohesion

425. Which of the following is the strongest type of bonds?

A. Van der Waals
B. Metallic
C. Covalent
D. Ionic
 75

426. When all of the atoms of a molecule are the same, the substance is called a/an
_____________.
A. A compound
B. A chemical
C. An element
D. An ion

427. Reactions generally proceed faster at high temperatures because of which of the
following?
A. The molecules are less energetic
B. The molecules collide more frequently
C. The activation energy is less
D. The molecules collide more frequently and the activation energy is less

428. The condition of a liquid electrolyte is measure in terms of its:

A. Specific gravity
B. Acid content
C. Voltage output
D. Current value

429. An element may be defined as a substance with all atoms of which have the same
_________.
A. Number of neutrons
B. Radioactivity
C. Atomic weight
D. Atomic number

430. The device which measures the acid content of the cell is called
_______________.
A. Acid meter
B. Hydrometer
C. Hygrometer
D. Pyrometer

431. In a copper atom, the valence ring contains how many electrons?
A. No electron
B. One electron
C. Two electrons
D. Four electrons
 76

432. A ____________ is a cell designed to produce electric current and can be

recharged.
A. Secondary cell
B. Electrolytic cell
C. Chemical cell
D. Battery

433. Which of the following statement is FALSE?

A. In general, as reaction products are formed, they react with each other and reform
reactants.
B. At equilibrium, the net reaction rate is zero.
C. The differential ratio is the mathematical expression that shows how the rate of a
reaction depends on volume.
D. The net rate at which a reaction proceeds from left to right is equal to the forward rate
minus the reverse rate.

434. What is the opposite of alkali?

A. Acid
B. Fluid
C. Carbon
D. Oxide

435. The amount of electricity a battery can produce is controlled by the __________.
A. Thickness of the plate
B. Plate surface area
C. Strength of the acid
D. Discharge load

436. What represents the number of protons in the nucleus of an atom?

A. Molecular number
B. Proton number
C. Mass number
D. Atomic number

437. Neutron number is equal to the ___________.

A. Atomic number minus mass number
B. Mass number minus atomic number
C. Atomic weight minus mass number
D. Mass number minus atomic weight
 77

438. The electrolyte is a solution of water and ______________.

A. Sulfuric acid
B. Uric acid
C. Nitric acid
D. Formic acid

439. What is a deuteron?

A. A neutron plus two protons
B. A nucleus containing a neutron and a proton
C. An electron with a positive charge
D. A helium nucleus

440. Which of the following elements is NOT radioactive?

A. Plutonium
B. Californium
C. Uranium
D. Cobalt

441. What was the first person to use the word “radioactive”?
A. Meyer
B. Curie
C. Thomson
D. Rutherford

442. The formula for dinitrogen pentoxide is:

A. N2O5
B. NO3
C. NO
D. N3O4

443. One of the following statements is wrong. Which one is it?

A. Electron is an elementary quantity of negative electricity
B. Proton is an elementary quantity of positive electricity
C. An atom is composed of a central nucleus and orbital electrons
D. The mass of an electron is heavier than that of a proton
 78

444. What are compounds with the same molecular formula but with different
structural formula?
A. Aldehydes
B. Amines
C. Isomers
D. Esters

445. What is formed when a carboxylic acid and an alcohol react, with water as a by-
product?
A. Amine
B. Ester
C. Polymer
D. Teflon

446. What common carboxylic acid is found in yogurt?

A. Lactic acid
B. Citric acid
C. Tartaric acid
D. Lauric acid

447. What carboxylic acid is found in grapes?

A. Lactic acid
B. Citric acid
C. Tartaric acid
D. Lauric acid

448. What carboxylic acid is found in coconut oil?

A. Lactic acid
B. Citric acid
C. Tartaric acid
D. Lauric acid

449. What do you call the distinct pattern in space which the atoms of metal arranged
themselves when they combine to produce a substance of recognizable size?
A. Space-lattice
B. Crystal
C. Grain
D. Unit cell
 79

450. When a solid has a crystalline structure, the atoms arranged in repeating structures
called ________.
A. Lattice
B. Unit cell
C. Crystal
D. Domain

451. What refers to the smallest group of atoms showing the characteristic lattice
structure of a particular metal?
A. Basic cell
B. Unit cell
C. Alpha cell
D. Atomic cell

452. What refers to a crystal imperfection characterized by regions of severe atomic

misfit where atoms are not properly surrounded by neighbor atoms?
A. Discrystallization
B. Dislocation
C. Slip step
D. Dispersion

453. In electrochemistry, oxidation is a loss of _____________.

A. Ion
B. Electron
C. Proton
D. Anode

454. What is the process of putting back the lost electrons to convert the ion back to a
metal?
A. Oxidation
B. Corrosion
C. Reduction
D. Ionization

455. Oxidation in an electrochemical cell always takes place where?

A. At the anode
B. At the cathode
C. At the electrode
D. At both cathode and anode
 80

456. Reduction in an electrochemical cell always takes place where?

A. At the anode
B. At the cathode
C. At the electrode
D. At both cathode and anode

457. What is equal to the fraction of the isotope in a naturally occurring sample of the
element?
A. The chemical atomic weight of the isotope
B. The relative abundance of the isotope
C. The electromagnetivity of the isotope
D. The quantum number of the isotope

458. What refers to salts of weak bases dissolving in water to form acidic solution?
A. Hydrolysis
B. Neutralization
C. Bufferization
D. Titration

459. Which of the following elements has the highest atomic number
A. Titanium
B. Plutonium
C. Uranium
D. Radium

460. All are properties of gaseous state except one. Which one?
A. May be expanded or may be compressed
B. Have low densities
C. Indefinite shape
D. Mixed uniformly when soluble in one another

461. All are properties of liquid state except one. Which one?
A. Do not expanded nor compress to any degree
B. Usually flow readily
C. Indefinite shape but fixed volume
D. Do not mix by diffusion
 81

462. What type of hydrocarbons that do not contain the benzene group or the benzene
ring?
A. Aromatic hydrocarbon
B. Aliphatic hydrocarbon
C. Simple hydrocarbon
D. Carbon hydrocarbon

463. What is an organic compound that contains the hydroxyl group?

A. Base
B. Acid
C. Alcohol
D. Wine

464. Which is a reaction in which one molecule adds to another?

A. Partial reaction
B. Monomolecular reaction
C. Molecular reaction
D. Additional reaction

465. What refers to the minimum amount of energy required to initiate a chemical
reaction?
A. Atomic energy
B. Activation energy
C. Initial energy
D. Reaction energy

466. Oxygen comprises what percent in mass in the earth‟s crust?

A. 50.5
B. 49.5
C. 48.5
D. 47.5

467. What percent of the human body is carbon?

A. 22%
B. 20%
C. 18%
D. 16%
 82

468. What refers to how closely a measure value agrees with the correct value?
A. Accuracy
B. Precision
C. Relative precision
D. Relative accuracy

469. What refers to how closely individual measurements agree with each other?
A. Accuracy
B. Precision
C. Relative precision
D. Relative accuracy

470. What is the physical appearance of sodium?

A. Silver metal
B. Yellowish gas
C. White crystal
D. Reddish gas

471. What is the physical appearance of chlorine?

A. Silver metal
B. White crystal
C. Yellowish gas
D. White metal

472. What is the physical appearance of sodium chloride?

A. Silver metal
B. White crystal
C. Yellowish gas
D. White metal

473. Who proposed the quantum theory in 1900?

A. JJ. Thomson
B. Neils Bohr
C. Max Planck
D. Ernest Rutherford
 83

474. What is a general term that refers to an allowed energy state for an electron in the
atom?
A. Quantum orbital level
B. Quantum energy level
C. Orbital
D. Quantum theory

475. Who performed an experiment in 1887 that yielded the charge-to-mass ratio of the
electrons?
A. Neils Bohr
B. Ernest Rutherford
C. JJ. Thomson
D. Max Planck

476. What is an alloy of mercury with another metal or metals?

A. Amalgram
B. Amine
C. Allotrope
D. Alkynes

477. A compound that contains at least one amino group and at least one carboxyl
group is called _________.
A. Allotrope
B. Amino acid
C. Alkenes
D. Alkynes

478. What refers to the different atomic arrangement of the same atom?
A. Polymorph
B. Bond
C. Crystal
D. Alpha arrangement

479. What is another term for polymorph?

A. Alpha arrangement
B. Omega arrangement
C. Allotrope
D. Crystalline arrangement
 84

480. A molecular orbit that is of higher energy and lower stability than the atomic
orbitals from which it was formed is called ______________.
A. Main molecular orbital
B. Partial molecular orbital
C. Bonding molecular orbital
D. Anti-bonding molecular orbital

481. A molecular orbit that is of lower energy and greater stability than the atomic
orbitals from which it was formed is called ______________.
A. Main molecular orbital
B. Partial molecular orbital
C. Bonding molecular orbital
D. Anti-bonding molecular orbital

482. An ion containing a central metal cation bonded to one or more molecules or ions
is called ___________.
A. Compound ion
B. Complex ion
C. Simplex ion
D. Buffer ion

483. Compounds containing CN- ion are called ______________.

A. Cyanides
B. Cycloalkanes
C. Carbides
D. Carboxylic acids

484. A molecule that does not possess a dipole moment is called _________________.
A. Polar molecule
B. Nonpolar molecule
C. Nonelectrolytic molecule
D. Electrolytic molecule

485. What refers to a substance that when dissolved in water, gives a solution that is
not electrically conducting?
A. Nonpolar
B. Electrolyte
C. Nonelectrolyte
D. Polar
 85

486. What refers to a chemical formula that shows how atoms are bonded to one
another in a molecule?
A. Molecular formula
B. Structural formula
C. Standard formula
D. Bonding formula

487. What formula provides the number of each elemental atom in a molecule?
A. Molecular formula
B. Chemical formula
C. Empirical formula
D. Structural formula

488. What formula in chemistry indicates the total number of atoms of the elements in
a compound?
A. Molecular formula
B. Empirical formula
C. Nodal formula
D. Structural formula

489. What formula provides the whole number ratio of elements in a compound?
A. Molecular formula
B. Chemical formula
C. Empirical formula
D. Structural formula

490. What refers to ions that are not involved in the overall reaction?
A. Guest ions
B. Special ions
C. Spectator ions
D. Extra ions

491. A compound distinguished by a high molar mass, ranging into thousands and
millions of grams, and made up of many repeating cells is called ___________.
A. Electrolyte
B. Polymer
C. Nucleotide
D. Oxoacid
 86

492. What refers to a molecule that is differently colored in its acid and its conjugate
based form?
A. Litmus molecular indicator
B. Acid-base indicator
C. pH indicator
D. Titration indicator

493. What refers to the process in which two gases chemically reacted to produce a
thin coating of the reaction product, a solid, on the surface of the workplace?
A. Chemical vapor deposition
B. Vapor solidification
C. Vritrification
D. Chemical dissolution

494. Deuterium is referred to as __________ hydrogen atom.

A. Heavy
B. Light
C. Medium-weight
D. Extra-light

495. Deuterium has ____ proton(s) and _____ neutron(s).

A. One, one
B. One, two
C. Two, one
D. Two, two

496. What refers to substances that flow like liquids even though their molecules are
still orderly?
A. Liquid crystals
B. Fluid crystals
C. Plastic crystals
D. Elastic crystals

497. What refers to the type of liquid crystals whereby the molecules (shaped like
rods) remain parallel to each other as they move back and forth in the liquid?
A. Cholistic substance
B. Sub-cooled substance
C. Nematic substance
D. Amectic substance
 87

498. What refers to the ratio of the volume of an atom to the cell volume?
A. Frenkel factor
B. Packing factor
C. Cell factor
D. Cell index

499. Which of the following is cannot be used as solvent for chromatography of green
extract?
A. Water
B. Methylated spirits
C. Propane
D. Ethanol

500. What refers to the warming of Earth that results from an accumulation in the
atmosphere of gases such as CO2 that absorb infrared radiation radiated from Earth‟s
surface?
A. Global warming
B. Greenhouse effect
C. Ozone layer warming
D. Greenhouse warming

501. The buffer solution can be prepared using a mixture of sodium acetate and
____________ in water.
A. Ammonium hydroxide
B. Sulfuric acid
C. Acetic
D. Sodium hydroxide

502. What group in the periodic table contains the alkaline earth?
A. Group I
B. Group II
C. Group III
D. Group IV

503. Which of the following statements is not true?

A. Organic acids are stronger than inorganic acids.
B. Oils and fats are insoluble in water
C. Esters possess pleasant odor
D. Esters are good organic solvent
 88

504. Which of the following resembles water as a solvent?

A. Carbon disulfide
B. Benzene
C. Carbon hydrochloride
D. Liquid ammonia

505. Two solutions are said to be isotonic when they have:

A. Equal vapor pressure
B. Equal concentration
C. The same osmotic pressure
D. Similar solute dissolved in the solutions

506. Why do certain isotopes have all unstable nuclei?

A. Because the number of protons outweigh the number of electrons
B. Because the number of protons outweigh the number of neutrons
C. Because the number of electrons outweigh the number of protons
D. Because the neutrons outweigh the number of protons

507. What is the purpose of the salt bridge in an electro-chemical cell?

A. To allow neutron integration
B. To allow electron integration
C. To allow ion movement
D. All of the above

508. Homogeneous mixtures can be separated by the following processes except one.
Which one?
A. Filtration
B. Distillation
C. Crystallization
D. Chromatography

509. Which of the following have one double bond between two carbons
A. Alkynes
B. Alkenes
C. Alkanes
D. Propane
 89

510. What is the pH level for base?

A. Exactly 7
B. Greater than 14
C. Greater than 7
D. Less than 7

511. Compound of carbons uses what type of bonding?

A. Covalent
B. Non-metallic
C. Ionic
D. Van der Waals

512. A certain atom contains 7 electrons, 7 protons and 8 neutrons. What is its mass
number?
A. 22
B. 15
C. 14
D. 7
 90

ANSWER KEYS

1. D 40. B 79. B 118. C

2. B 41. D 80. B 119. B
3. A 42. B 81. D 120. B
4. B 43. B 82. A 121. C
5. C 44. D 83. B 122. A
6. C 45. B 84. B 123. A
7. C 46. B 85. C 124. D
8. C 47. D 86. A 125. C
9. A 48. A 87. A 126. B
10. A 49. B 88. D 127. C
11. C 50. C 89. B 128. D
12. A 51. A 90. A 129. C
13. C 52. A 91. A 130. B
14. B 53. A 92. A 131. C
15. A 54. C 93. C 132. A
16. A 55. B 94. A 133. A
17. A 56. A 95. D 134. A
18. A 57. B 96. A 135. B
19. B 58. C 97. B 136. C
20. D 59. D 98. C 137. B
21. B 60. B 99. B 138. B
22. D 61. A 100. A 139. C
23. B 62. C 101. B 140. C
24. B 63. D 102. A 141. A
25. D 64. A 103. B 142. B
26. A 65. A 104. D 143. A
27. D 66. B 105. B 144. A
28. B 67. B 106. D 145. C
29. B 68. C 107. B 146. B
30. A 69. B 108. D 147. A
31. C 70. B 109. B 148. A
32. A 71. D 110. C 149. B
33. D 72. D 111. B 150. C
34. B 73. A 112. A 151. D
35. B 74. A 113. C 152. A
36. C 75. C 114. A 153. B
37. A 76. B 115. D 154. C
38. B 77. C 116. C 155. B
39. D 78. A 117. B 156. B
 91

157. C 197. B 237. A 277. B

158. A 198. B 238. C 278. A
159. C 199. B 239. A 279. C
160. A 200. D 240. B 280. C
161. B 201. A 241. C 281. C
162. B 202. A 242. D 282. A
163. A 203. C 243. B 283. B
164. B 204. A 244. A 284. A
165. B 205. C 245. C 285. C
166. A 206. A 246. A 286. B
167. D 207. B 247. C 287. B
168. A 208. A 248. A 288. C
169. B 209. B 249. B 289. A
170. B 210. A 250. A 290. D
171. D 211. B 251. C 291. B
172. D 212. A 252. C 292. A
173. A 213. A 253. C 293. C
174. C 214. A 254. B 294. B
175. D 215. D 255. A 295. C
176. B 216. A 256. B 296. A
177. D 217. A 257. A 297. D
178. A 218. D 258. C 298. C
179. D 219. A 259. B 299. B
180. B 220. B 260. D 300. B
181. D 221. A 261. C 301. C
182. A 222. B 262. B 302. C
183. C 223. B 263. A 303. A
184. B 224. D 264. D 304. B
185. A 225. B 265. A 305. B
186. D 226. A 266. D 306. B
187. B 227. B 267. C 307. D
188. D 228. C 268. C 308. A
189. A 229. C 269. C 309. C
190. A 230. C 270. D 310. B
191. B 231. A 271. B 311. B
192. A 232. B 272. A 312. A
193. D 233. B 273. D 313. A
194. B 234. C 274. A 314. D
195. B 235. B 275. B 315. B
196. C 236. B 276. B 316. B
 92

317. A 357. A 397. A 437. B

318. A 358. A 398. B 438. A
319. B 359. A 399. B 439. B
320. D 360. B 400. C 440. D
321. C 361. B 401. A 441. B
322. C 362. A 402. C 442. A
323. C 363. A 403. A 443. D
324. A 364. C 404. D 444. C
325. C 365. D 405. A 445. B
326. D 366. A 406. B 446. A
327. B 367. B 407. B 447. C
328. D 368. A 408. B 448. D
329. D 369. A 409. A 449. A
330. C 370. A 410. D 450. B
331. A 371. D 411. A 451. B
332. B 372. D 412. B 452. B
333. A 373. B 413. A 453. B
334. B 374. A 414. A 454. C
335. A 375. C 415. B 455. A
336. B 376. A 416. C 456. B
337. C 377. A 417. D 457. B
338. D 378. C 418. C 458. A
339. B 379. B 419. C 459. C
340. A 380. A 420. C 460. D
341. B 381. A 421. B 461. D
342. D 382. D 422. D 462. B
343. D 383. B 423. D 463. C
344. C 384. A 424. D 464. D
345. A 385. B 425. C 465. B
346. B 386. B 426. A 466. B
347. A 387. C 427. D 467. C
348. A 388. A 428. A 468. A
349. D 389. D 429. D 469. B
350. D 390. D 430. B 470. A
351. B 391. D 431. B 471. C
352. A 392. C 432. A 472. B
353. C 393. D 433. C 473. C
354. D 394. A 434. A 474. B
355. D 395. A 435. C 475. C
356. C 396. B 436. D 476. A
 93

477. B 486. B 495. A 504. D

478. A 487. A 496. A 505. C
479. C 488. A 497. C 506. D
480. D 489. C 498. D 507. C
481. C 490. C 499. A 508. A
482. B 491. B 500. A 509. B
483. A 492. B 501. C 510. C
484. B 493. A 502. B 511. A
485. C 494. A 503. A 512. B
 94

CHEMISTRY PROBLEMS

1. What volume of concentrated sulfuric acid would weigh 0. 82 kg if its density is 1. 85 g/

ml?
A. 234. 56 ml
B. 326. 84 ml
C. 443. 24 ml
D. 458. 34 ml

2. Under a pressure of 770 torr, 150 ml of gas is enclosed inside a cylinder. What will be
the volume in liters of the same amount of gas if the pressure is increased to 1500 torr?
A. 0. 077 L
B. 0. 77 L
C. 7. 7 L
D. 77 L

3. In a nuclear explosion, one cubic foot of air is heated from 0° C to 500, 000° C. To what
volume does the air expand?
A. 578 ft 3
B. 1245 ft 3
C. 1832 ft 3
D. 2560 ft 3

4. What is the pressure required to compress 3 liters of a gas at 720 mm of pressure and 20°
C temperature into a vessel with a 0. 5 liter capacity at a temperature of -100° C?
A. 2551 mm
B. 2956 mm
C. 3314 mm
D. 3585 mm

5. A chemist has a gas under a pressure if 30 atm and it occupies a volume of 25 liters at
300° C. For his research, the gas must be at standard conditions. Once he will perform his
experiments, what will the volume of the gas be?
A. 136 liters
B. 219 liters
C. 278 liters
D. 358 liters
 95

6. Phosgene (COCI2) was a gas used by German troops in World War 2 to poison American
and British soldiers. How many molecules of this gas are there in a mass of 1 x 108 kg?
A. 6. 1 x 1032 molecules
B. 6. 3 x 1032 molecules
C. 6. 5 x 1032 molecules
D. 6. 7 x 1032 molecules

7. An old car traveling at a speed of 15 miles per hour produces 0. 50 lb of carbon

monoxide gas per mile. How many moles of carbon monoxide are produced per mile?
A. 7. 56 moles/ miles
B. 8. 11 moles/ miles
C. 8. 67 moles/ miles
D. 9. 02 moles/ miles

8. A gas vessel containing hydrogen gas was sealed and its pressure was measured to be 1
atm. At this pressure, the mass of the gas is 0. 0042 kg. Calculate the number of
molecules present in the hydrogen gas?
A. 1.2 x 1023 molecules
B. 1.3 x 1023 molecules
C. 1.4 x 1023 molecules
D. 1. 5 x 1023 molecules

9. How many moles of hydrogen gas are there in a 100- liter container if the pressure is 15
atm and the temperature is 25° C?
A. 51. 3 moles
B. 56. 3 moles
C. 61. 3 moles
D. 66. 3 moles

10. What is the molecular weight of a gas if 5. 0 grams of it occupies a volume of 10 liters at
800 torr and a temperature of 150° C?
A. 16. 54 grams/ mole
B. 19. 43 grams/ mole
C. 21. 45 grams/ mole
D. 24. 56 grams/ mole

11. A gas vessel contains oxygen gas at a pressure of 15 atm and a temperature of 25° C. If
the volume of the gas vessel is 15 liters, what is the mass of the oxygen gas?
A. 214. 56 grams
B. 225. 71 grams
C. 278. 98 grams
D. 294. 29 grams
 96

12. An unknown gaseous compound has a mass of 1 gram and is made up of Boron (atomic
weight= 10. 8 g/ mol) and Hydrogen (atomic weight= 1 g/ mol) atoms. What is the
molecular formula of this compound if it occupies 0. 82 liters at 1 atm pressure and 276
K absolute temperature?
A. BH3
B. BH4
C. B2H6
D. B3H4

13. What is the mole fraction of ethyl alcohol (C2H5OH) if 15 grams of this compound is
dissolved I. 36 grams of water?
A. 0. 12
B. 0. 14
C. 0. 86
D. 0. 88

14. A mixture of nitrogen gas and oxygen gas is collected by displacement of water at 30° C
and a pressure of 750 torr. If the partial pressure of nitrogen is 580 torr, what is the partial
pressure of oxygen? Assume that the vapor pressure of H2O at a temperature of 30° C is
38 torr?
A. 132 torr
B. 164 torr
C. 168 torr
D. 178 torr

15. If 50 liters of nitrogen gas are collected at 25°C over water at a pressure of 0. 95 atm,
what is the volume of dry nitrogen a STP?
A. 44 liters
B. 48 liters
C. 54 liters
D. 58 liters

16. Under standard temperature and pressure, what is the rate of diffusion of the inert gas,
Argon?
A. 0. 1438
B. 0. 1487
C. 0. 1534
D. 0. 1582
 97

17. Two gas compounds, HBr and CH4, have molecular weights of 81 and 16, respectively.
The HBr compound diffuses through a small opening at a rate of 4 ml/ s. At what rate in
ml/ s will the other compound diffuse through the same opening?
A. 3
B. 9
C. 16
D. 18

18. Freshwater salmon is said to contain 0. 15 ppm of mercury. How many mercury atoms
would there be in a 500- gram fillet of freshwater salmon?
A. 1. 25 x 1016 atoms
B. 2. 25 x 1017 atoms
C. 3. 00 x 1016 atoms
D. 3. 25 x 1017 atoms

19. How many molecules are there in a drop of water that weighs 0.15 g?
A. 3 x 1021
B. 4 x 1021
C. 5 x 1021
D. 6 x 1021

20. How many carbon atoms are there in 5. 0 grams of C- 13 isotope?

A. 1. 35 x 1023 atoms
B. 1. 87 x 1023 atoms
C. 2. 13 x 1023 atoms
D. 2. 32 x 1023 atoms

21. How many moles are there in 210 grams of H2SO4?

A. 1. 24
B. 1. 42
C. 2. 14
D. 2. 41

22. How many moles are there in 100 grams of calcium carbonate?
A. 1 mole
B. 1. 5 moles
C. 2 moles
D. 2. 5 moles
 98

23. A sample of a pure compound contains 9. 81 grams of zinc, 1. 8 x 1023 atoms of

chromium and 0. 60 moles of oxygen atoms. What is the simplest chemical formula?
A. Zn2CrO
B. Zn2CrO3
C. ZnCr2O4
D. ZnCrO3

24. What is the equivalent length in water of oxygen if its atomic weight was 100?
A. 25
B. 50
C. 75
D. 100

25. There is a compound that is made of vanadium and oxygen atoms. This compound is
found to be 56% vanadium. What is the equivalent weight of vanadium in this
compound?
A. 9. 8
B. 10. 2
C. 11. 4
D. 14. 2

26. Determine the simplest formula of a compound that has 72. 4% iron and 27. 6% oxygen
by weight?
A. Fe2O3
B. Fe3O2
C. Fe3O4
D. Fe4O3

27. What is the empirical formula of an unknown compound that is made up of 82. 98%
potassium and 17. 02% oxygen?
A. KO
B. K2O
C. KO3
D. K2O3

28. What is the percentage weight of magnesium in the compound, magnesium chloride
(MgCl2)?
A. 25. 53
B. 35. 56
C. 64. 44
D. 74. 47
 99

29. A certain solution contains 5% FeSO4. How many pounds of Fe can be obtained from 1
ton of this solution?
A. 10 lb
B. 50 lb
C. 100 lb
D. 150 lb

30. What is the mass of 1 liter of carbon monoxide at standard conditions?

A. 1. 25 g
B. 1. 50 g
C. 1. 75 g
D. 2. 00 g

31. A person dropped a 250- gram object inside a tank filled with water. If displaced 50 ml of
water when it sunk to the bottom of the tank. In a similar experiment, it displaced only 30
g of oil into which it was dropped. What is the density of oil?
A. 0.6 g/ ml
B. 0. 8 g/ ml
C. 3. 5 g/ ml
D. 5. 0 g/ ml

32. What is the mole fraction of the solute in a solution made by dissolving 100 grams of
H2SO4 (molecular weight= 98 grams/ mole) in 250 grams of water?
A. 0. 069
B. 0. 56
C. 0. 035
D. 0. 87

33. What is the molality of a solution in which 32 grams of H2SO4 (molecular weight= 98
grams/ mole) is dissolved in quarter of a kilo of water?
A. 1. 23
B. 1. 28
C. 1. 31
D. 1. 46

34. Determine the mass of sulfuric acid in 5. 0 liters of a 0.1 molar solution. (MW of sulfuric
acid is 98. 1 grams/ mole?
A. 35. 67 g
B. 44. 43 g
C. 68. 78 g
D. 73. 58 g
 100

35. What is the molarity of a hydrogen peroxide solution prepared by mixing 13. 0 grams of
hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) per 300 ml of solution?
A. 1. 27 M
B. 1. 38 M
C. 2. 18 M
D. 3. 44 M

36. Determine the number of moles present in 151. 99 grams of Magnesium?

A. 3. 45 moles
B. 5. 68 moles
C. 6. 25 moles
D. 9. 88 moles

37. How many moles of Cobalt are there in 6 billion atoms of the same lement?
A. 10 x 10-8 moles
B. 10 x 10-12 moles
C. 10 x 10-15 moles
D. 10 x 10-18 moles

38. Determine the molecular mass of CH4O in amu.

A. 16 amu
B. 28 amu
C. 32 amu
D. 36 amu

39. An unknown gas occupies a volume of 100 ml at a temperature of 25° C. if the pressure
remains constant, what will be its volume at 15° C?
A. 96. 6 ml
B. 97. 8 ml
C. 98. 3 ml
D. 99. 4 ml

40. A certain gas occupies a volume of 1. 0 liter at a temperature of 25° C and a pressure of
500 torr. What is the volume of the gas if the temperature is changed to 55° C and the
pressure in increased to 700 torr?
A. 0. 79 ml
B. 0. 98 ml
C. 1. 24 ml
D. 1. 48 ml
 101

41. A sample of gas occupies a 14. 3 liter container at a temperature of 100° C and a pressure
of 780 mmHg. Determine the number of moles of the gas present.
A. 0. 32 moles
B. 0. 48 moles
C. 0. 63 moles
D. 0. 72 moles

42. A block of solid wood has dimensions 30 cm x 0. 50 cm x 500 cm and weighs 500 kg.
Calculate its density in grams per cubic centimeters?
A. 40
B. 59. 8
C. 65
D. 98. 7

43. If a certain amount of carbon has a mass of 1 x 10-6 grams, how many atoms are in there?
A. 5 x 1012 atoms
B. 5 x 1014 atoms
C. 5 x 1016 atoms
D. 5 x 1018 atoms

44. Phosphorus, with an atomic weight of 30. 97, is combined with another element such that
1 g of phosphorus requires 0. 7764 g of the other element. If the atomic ratio of
phosphorus to the other element is 4:3, what is the atomic weight of the other element?
A. 32. 1 grams per mole
B. 46. 7 grams per mole
C. 51. 2 grams per mole
D. 67. 8 grams per mole

45. The density of one battle of alcohol is 0. 85 g/ ml. what is the weight of the alcohol if the
volume of the bottle is 50 ml?
A. 15 g
B. 50 g
C. 85 g
D. 100 g

46. What is the mole fraction of the solute in a 40% by mass ethanol solution in water? 1 mol
of ethanol has a mass of 46 grams while 1 mol of water has a mass of 18 grams?
A. 0. 36 mol
B. 0. 29 mol
C. 0. 21 mol
D. 0. 15 mol
 102

47. A 40 g methanol sample is mixed with 60 g ethanol sample. One mole of methanol and
ethanol has a mass of 32 g and 46 g, respectively. What is the mole fraction of the
solvent?
A. 0. 58 mol
B. 0. 51 mol
C. 0. 48 mol
D. 0. 42 mol

48. What is the molality of a solution containing 75. 5 g sucrose (molar mass= 342 g/ mol) in
400. 0 g of water?
A. 0. 553 mol/ kg
B. 0. 421 mol/ kg
C. 0. 386 mol/ kg
D. 0. 215 mol/ kg

49. What volume will 1. 27 mol of helium gas occupy at STP? Gas constant 0. 0821 L-
atm/mol- K?
A. 26. 9 liters
B. 27. 3 liters
C. 28. 5 liters
D. 29. 1 liters

50. The diameter of carbon atom is 1. 5 angstrom. How many carbon atoms, each with said
diameter could be aligned side by side in a straight line across width of a pencil line that
is 0. 20 mm wide?
A. 1, 900, 000 atoms
B. 1, 700, 000 atoms
C. 1, 500, 000 atoms
D. 1, 300, 000 atoms
 103

ANSWER KEYS 25. B

26. C
1. C 27. B
2. A 28. A
3. C 29. C
4. A 30. A
5. D 31. A
6. A 32. A
7. B 33. C
8. B 34. D
9. C 35. A
10. A 36. C
11. D 37. C
12. C 38. C
13. B 39. A
14. A 40. A
15. A 41. B
16. D 42. A
17. B 43. C
18. B 44. A
19. C 45. C
20. D 46. C
21. C 47. B
22. A 48. A
23. C 49. C
24. B 50. D
 104

PHYSICS OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS

1. The number 175.00 has how many significant figures?

A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 2

2. How many basic units are there in the International System of Units?
A. 6
B. 7
C. 8
D. 9

3. What prefix is equivalent to 10 to the power of -24?

A. Yocto
B. Zepto
C. Atto
D. Yotta

4. What prefix is equivalent to 10 to the power of 21?

A. Yotta
B. Zetta
C. Zepto
D. Yocto

5. The prefix “exa” is equivalent to the power ______.

A. 15
B. 18
C. 21
D. 24

6. What is the standard unit of mass?

A. Kilogram
B. Pound
C. Gram
D. Newton

7. The International Standards of mass equal to 1kg or 1000 grams, refers to a cylinders of
what elements?
A. Iridium- cesium
B. Platinum- cesium
C. Kryptin- cesium
D. Platinum- iridium
 105

8. The “second” is defined as 9,192,631,770 times the period of vibration of radiation from
what atom?
A. Cesium
B. Hydrogen
C. Helium
D. Platinum

9. What is defined as the distance the light travels in a vacuum in 1/299,792,458 second?
A. Yard
B. Feet
C. Meter
D. Inch

10. What is the SI unit of work?

A. Newton
B. Watt
C. Newton- second
D. Joule

11. What is the SI unit of power?

A. Newton
B. Watt
C. Newton- second
D. Joule

12. What is the SI unit of temperature?

A. Fahrenheit
B. Kelvin
C. Celsius
D. Rankine

13. What is the SI unit of luminous intensity?

A. Candela
B. Lumens
C. Lux
D. Candlepower

14. What is the SI unit of relative density?

A. Pa
B. N- m
C. N- m/s
D. Unit less
 106

15. What is the SI unit of pressure?

A. Pa
B. N- m
C. N/ m
D. N- m/s

16. Which one is equivalent of the unit “pascal” ?

A. N/ mm2
B. N/ m2
C. N/ m
D. N/ mm

17. The pressure of 1 bar is equivalent to how many pascals?

A. 1,000,000
B. 100,000
C. 10,000
D. 1,000

18. In Acoustics, the sound pressure level is measured in microbar. One microbar is equal to
_____ N/ m2.
A. 0.0001
B. 0.10
C. 0.001
D. 0.01

19. What is the SI unit of intensity?

A. Joule/ m2
B. Kg/ m2
C. N/ m2
D. Watt/ m2

20. What is the SI unit of intensity?

A. Watt
B. Coulomb
C. Volt
D. Weber

21. Which one of the following is equivalent to a volt?

A. Watt/ coulomb
B. Joule/ coulomb
C. Joule/ watt
D. Watt/ joule
 107

22. Which of the following units for measurements is NOT an SI based or derived units?
A. °C
B. Pascal
C. Joule
D. Kelvin

23. One electron volt is equivalent to _____joules.

A. 1.6 x 10-17
B. 1.6 x 10-18
C. 1.6 x 10-19
D. 1.6 x 10-20

24. What is the SI unit of capacitance?

A. Farad
B. Weber
C. Coulomb
D. Gauss

25. Which of the following is equivalent to the unit “farad”?

A. Coulomb/ volt
B. Joule/ volt
C. Joule/ coulomb
D. Coulomb/ joule

26. What is the SI unit of electric current?

A. Volt
B. Watt
C. Ampere
D. Coulomb

27. Which of the following is equivalent to the unit “ampere”?

A. Joule/ second
B. Volt/ second
C. Coulomb/ second
D. Watt/ second

28. What is the SI unit of resistance?

A. Ohm
B. Watt
C. Volt
D. Ampere

29. Ohm is equivalent to which of the following?

 108

A. Coulomb/ ampere
B. Watt/ ampere
C. Volt/ ampere
D. Joule/ ampere

30. What is the SI unit of luminous intensity?

A. Foot candle
B. Lumen
C. Candela
D. Lux

31. What is the SI unit of luminous flux?

A. Candela
B. Lumen
C. Lux
D. Foot candle

32. Which of the following is equivalent to the unit “candela”?

A. Lumen/ m2
B. Foot candle/ steradian
C. Lux/ steradian
D. Lumen/ steradian

33. What is the SI unit of luminous efficiency?

A. Lumen/ watt
B. Lumen/ volt
C. Lumen/ ampere
D. Lumen/ coulomb

34. What is the unit of illumination?

A. Lux
B. Lumen
C. Candela
D. Lumen/ watt

35. Lux is equivalent to which combination of units?

A. Lumen/ cm2
B. Lumen/ ft2
C. Lumen/ m2
D. Lumen/ in2

36. In magnetism, a “Gauss” is a unit of _____.

A. Flux density
 109

B. Permeability
C. Magnetic flux
D. Magnetic line of force

37. What is the SI unit of kinematic viscosity?

A. M2/ s
B. N/ m2-s
C. Poise/ s
D. N- m/s

38. Footcandle is equivalent to which combination of units?

A. Lumen/ cm2
B. Lumen/ ft2
C. Lumen/ m2
D. Lumen/ in2

39. How many dynes are there in one newton?

A. 10,000
B. 100,000
C. 1,000,000
D. 1,000

40. What is an elemental unit of energy?

A. Quartz
B. Quark
C. Photon
D. Quantum

41. What refers to the mass which is accelerated at the rate of one foot per second per second
when acted on by a force of one pound?
A. Slug
B. Erg
C. Dyne
D. BTU

42. The size of some bacteria and living cells is in the order of _____.
A. Centimeter
B. Millimeter
C. Nanometer
D. Micrometer

43. The size of the largest atom is in the order of _____.

A. Centimeter
B. Millimeter
 110

C. Nanometer
D. Micrometer

44. The mass of grain of salt is in the order of _____.

A. Milligram
B. Gam
C. Microgram
D. Nanogram

45. Which one is equivalent to the unit “joule”?

A. Newton- second
B. Newton- meter
C. Newton- meter per second
D. Newton- per meter squared

46. Which of the following combination of units is called a joule?

A. Kg2/ m2
B. Kg- m/ s2
C. Kg- m2/ s2
D. Kg- m2/ s

47. Which one is equivalent to the unit “watt”?

A. Newton- second
B. Newton- meter
C. Newton- meter per second
D. Newton- meter per second squared

48. One horsepower is equivalent to how many watts?

A. 550
B. 746
C. 33,000
D. 250

49. The “kilowatt- hour” is a unit of _____.

A. Work
B. Energy
C. Power
D. Work or energy

50. The “kilowatt- hour” is a unit of _____.

A. Work
B. Energy
C. Power
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D. Work or energy

51. The unit N- m/s is a unit of _____.

A. Work
B. Force
C. Power
D. Energy

52. The English unit “slug” is a unit of _____.

A. Mass
B. Weight
C. Force
D. Energy

53. How is sound intensity measured?

A. In beats
B. In decibels
C. In phones
D. In sones

54. Which of the following is a unit of sound intensity?

A. Dyne/ cm2
B. w/ cm2
C. lb/ cm2
D. kg/ cm2

55. An electron volt is the energy required by an electron that has been accelerated by a
potential difference of how many volts?
A. 1 volt
B. 0.1 volts
C. 10 volts
D. 0.01 volts

56. A “barrel of oil” is equivalent to how many US gallons of petroleum?

A. 40
B. 42
C. 44
D. 46

57. What is the derived SI unit of absorbed dose, defined as the absorbed dose in which the
energy per unit mass imparted to the matter by ionizing radiation?
A. Rem
B. Rad
C. Gray
D. Curie
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58. The unit “Gray” is expressed in _____.

A. J/ m
B. J/ kg
C. J- s/ m
D. N- s/ m

59. What refers to the time interval between successive appearances of the Sun at the highest
point it reaches in the sky each day?
A. Lunar day
B. Standard day
C. Solar day
D. Sidereal day

60. What is a vector with a magnitude of one and with no unit?

A. Single vector
B. Unit vector
C. Dot vector
D. Scalar vector

61. What is the purpose of a unit vector?

A. To describe the direction in space
B. To indicate a magnitude without reference to direction
C. To serve as comparison with other vectors
D. To set a standard among vectors

62. What is another term for a scalar product of two vectors?

A. Cross product
B. Vector product
C. Dot product
D. Plus product

63. What is another term for a vector product of two vectors?

A. Cross product
B. Vector product
C. Dot product
D. Plus product

64. The scalar product of two perpendicular vectors is always _____.

A. Equal to 1
B. Greater than 1
C. Less than 1
D. Equal to 0
 113

65. The vector product of two parallel or antiparallel vectors is always _____.
A. Equal to 1
B. Greater than 1
C. Less than 1
D. Equal to 0

66. The vector product of any vector with itself is _____.

A. Equal to 1
B. Greater than 1
C. Less than 1
D. Equal to 0

67. What refers to physical quantities that are completely specified by just a number and a
unit or physical quantities that have magnitudes only?
A. Scalar quantities
B. Vector product
C. Dot product
D. Vector quantities

68. What refers to physical quantities that have a magnitude and a direction?
A. Scalar product
B. Vector product
C. Dot product
D. Vector quantities

69. Which is NOT a vector quantity?

A. Displacement
B. Velocity
C. Acceleration
D. Time

70. Which is NOT a fundamental physical quantity of mechanics?

A. Length
B. Mass
C. Volume
D. Time

71. What is an arrowed line whose length is proportional to the magnitude of some vector
quantity and whose direction is that of the quantity?
A. Vector diagram
B. Vector
C. Component
D. Resultant
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72. What is a scaled drawing of the various forces, velocities or other vector quantities
involved in the motion of a body?
A. Vector diagram
B. Vector
C. Component
D. Resultant

73. In physics, motion is categorized as _____.

A. Translational and rotational
B. Translational and curvilinear
C. Translational, rotational and vibrational
D. Translational, curvilinear and rotational

74. The _____of a moving object is the distance it covers in a time interval divided by the
time interval.
A. Acceleration
B. Instantaneous speed
C. Average speed
D. Instantaneous velocity

75. The _____ of a particle is defined as its change in position in some time interval.
A. Distance
B. Displacement
C. Speed
D. Acceleration

76. The rate at which velocity changes with time is known as _____.
A. Acceleration
B. Instantaneous speed
C. Average speed
D. Instantaneous velocity

77. Which quantity is equal to the derivative of the velocity with respect to time?
A. Instantaneous velocity
B. Average acceleration
C. Instantaneous acceleration
D. Average velocity

78. Which of the following statements is NOT true about acceleration?

A. Acceleration is uniform for straight line motion.
B. For circular motion, acceleration is constant in magnitude and direction.
C. Acceleration is uniform if the velocity changes by equal amount in equal time.
D. The average acceleration cannot be used in précised calculations unless the
acceleration is uniform.
 115

79. An apparatus for increasing the kinetic energies of charged particles, used for research in
nuclear and particles physics is called a/ an _____.
A. Accelerator
B. Acceptor
C. Thyratron
D. Atwood‟s machine

80. A weight and pulley system used to measure the acceleration due to gravity of Earth‟s
surface by measuring the net acceleration of a set of weights of known mass around a
frictionless pulley is called _____.
A. Accelerator
B. Pulley system
C. Atwood‟s machine
D. Newton‟s machine

81. The _____ acting on an object is defined as the vector sum of all forces acting on the
object.
A. Net force
B. Gross force
C. Total force
D. Contact force

82. Which of the following is true if the net force exerted on an object is zero?
A. The acceleration is zero and the velocity is zero.
B. The acceleration is zero and the velocity is remains constant.
C. The acceleration is zero and the velocity is variable.
D. Both the acceleration and velocity are variable.

83. Since forces behave as vectors, one must use the rules 0f _____ to obtain the net force on
an object.
A. Vector addition
B. Vector subtraction
C. Vector multiplication
D. Vector division

84. “The work done by the net force on a particle equals the change in the particle‟s kinetic
energy”. The statement is known as _____.
A. Law of conservation of energy
B. Work- energy theorem
C. Law of conservation of work
D. Total work theorem
 116

85. The _____ of a particle equal to the total work that particle can do in the process of being
brought to rest.
A. Kinetic energy
B. Potential energy
C. Total energy
D. Mechanical energy

86. Work is defined as the product of:

A. Force and displacement
B. Force and time
C. Displacement and time
D. Power and time

87. What is defined as the time rate at which work is done?

A. Impulse
B. Momentum
C. Power
D. Energy

88. What is defined as any influence that can change the velocity of an object?
A. Impulse
B. Force
C. Energy
D. Work

89. What is the measure of inertia of an object?

A. Density
B. Weight
C. Mass
D. Force

90. What is the property of matter which is the reluctance to change its state of rest or of
uniform motions?
A. Impulse
B. Momentum
C. Inertia
D. Equilibrium

91. “If no net force acts on it, an object at rest will remain at rest and an object in motion will
remain in motion as constant velocity”. This statement is the _____.
A. First law of motion
B. Second law of motion
C. Third law of motion
D. D‟ Alembert‟s principle
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92. “The net force acting on an object equals the product of the mass and the acceleration of
the object. The direction of the force is the same as that of the acceleration”. This
statement is the _____.
A. First law of motion
B. Second law of motion
C. Third law of motion
D. D‟ Alembert‟s principle

93. “When an object exerts a force on another object, the second object exerts on the first a
force of the same magnitude but in the opposite direction”. This statement is the _____.
A. First law of motion
B. Second law of motion
C. Third law of motion
D. D‟ Alembert‟s principle

94. Which of the following is the Newton‟s first law of motion?

A. Law of impulse and momentum
B. Law of acceleration
C. Law of inertia
D. Law of reaction

95. What refers to the force with which the earth attracts an object?
A. Gravitational pull
B. Mass
C. Weight
D. Al of the above

96. How many kilograms are there in 1 slug?

A. 11.9
B. 12.5
C. 13.2
D. 14.6

97. What refers to an actual force that arises to oppose relative motion between contacting
the surfaces?
A. Action force
B. Reaction force
C. Friction
D. Drag

98. What refers to the force between two stationary forces in contact that prevents motion
between them?
A. Kinetic friction
B. Sliding friction
C. Starting friction
D. Static friction
 118

99. What is the maximum value of the static friction?

A. Starting friction
B. Sliding friction
C. Kinetic friction
D. Dynamic friction

100. What is TRUE between kinetic friction and static friction?

A. Kinetic friction is always equal to static friction.
B. Kinetic friction is always less than static friction.
C. Kinetic friction is always greater than static friction.
D. Kinetic friction is equal to or greater than static friction.

101. What is another term for kinetic friction?

A. Dynamic friction
B. Starting friction
C. Sliding friction
D. All of the above

102. For the same materials in contact, what is TRUE between coefficient of static
friction and coefficient of kinetic friction?
A. Coefficient of static friction is always less than the coefficient of kinetic friction.
B. Coefficient of static friction is always equal to the coefficient of kinetic friction.
C. Coefficient of static friction is always greater than the coefficient of kinetic friction.
D. Coefficient of static friction is maybe greater than or less than the coefficient of
kinetic friction.

103. Efficiency of a machine is the ratio of:

A. Power output to power input
B. Power input to power output
C. Total work done total energy
D. Total energy to total power

104. What is the energy of something possesses by virtue of its motion?

A. Kinetic energy
B. Potential energy
C. Rest energy
D. Mechanical energy

105. What is the energy of something possesses by virtue of its mass?

A. Kinetic energy
B. Potential energy
C. Rest energy
D. Mechanical energy
 119

106. What is the energy of something possesses by virtue of its position?

A. Kinetic energy
B. Potential energy
C. Rest energy
D. Mechanical energy

107. The negative value of the work done by gravity on the body is the ________ of
the body.
A. Negative gravitational energy
B. Gravitational potential energy
C. Net gravitational energy
D. Gravitational kinetic energy

108. In which of the following does sound wave travels faster?

A. Liquids
B. In vacuum
C. In air
D. In solids

109. Considering the law of conservation of mechanical energy, which of the following
is the example of non-conserving force?
A. Compressive force
B. Elastic force
C. Frictional force
D. Gravitational force

110. When the vector sum of the external forces acting on the system of particles
equals zero, the total linear momentum of the system ________.
A. Becomes zero
B. Maximizes
C. Changes abruptly
D. Remains constant

111. What will happen to the kinetic energy of a body if its linear momentum is
doubled?
A. It will increase four times.
B. It will decrease four times
C. It will double
D. It will become half the value

112. Which of the following is conserved in measuring the velocity of a bullet on

impact by using a ballistic pendulum?
A. Kinetic energy
B. Linear momentum
 120

C. Angular momentum
D. Dynamic energy

113. What is conserved in an elastic collision?

A. Kinetic energy
B. Potential energy
C. Rest energy
D. Mechanical energy

114. In inelastic collision, kinetic energy is conserved. This statement is:

A. True
B. False
C. Is either true or false, depending upon the colliding bodies
D. Is either true or false, depending on the impact of the two colliding bodies

115. When can we say that a collision is a completely inelastic collision?

A. When the kinetic energy lost is minimum.
B. When the kinetic energy is conserved
C. When the two colliding objects stick together after impact
D. When the two colliding objects will separate after impact

116. What will happen to the kinetic energy if it is a completely inelastic collision?
A. It is conserved
B. It is lost to maximum value
C. It is gained from the loss of potential energy
D. It is lost to minimum value

117. Coefficient of restitution is the ratio of:

A. Relative speed after collision to relative speed before collision
B. Relative speed before collision to relative speed after collision
C. Relative speed to absolute speed
D. Absolute speed to relative speed

118. What is the coefficient of restitution for a perfectly elastic collision?

A. 0
B. 1
C. Less than 1
D. Greater than 1

119. What is the coefficient of restitution for a perfectly inelastic collision?

A. 0
B. 1
C. Less than 1
D. Greater than 1
 121

120. What is the coefficient of restitution always applies _____________?

A. To only one of the colliding objects
B. To neither of the colliding objects
C. Jointly to the colliding objects
D. To the bigger colliding objects

121. What refers to a collision between two bodies which occurs in a very infinitesimal
interval of time during which they exert a relatively large force on each other?
A. Elastic collision
B. Explosive collision
C. Collision-impact
D. Static collision

122. "When the vector sum of the external forces acting on a system of particles equals
zero, the total linear momentum of the system remains constant.” This statement is
known as:
A. Law of universal gravitational
B. Law of conservation of impulse
C. Law of conservation of momentum
D. Law of conservation of energy

123. What refers to the product of the force and the time during which a force acts?
A. Impulse
B. Momentum
C. Power
D. Energy

124. Momentum is the product of:

A. Mass and time
B. Velocity and mass
C. Force and time
D. Force and mass

125. “It is impossible simultaneously to determine exactly both the position of an

object and its momentum, or any quantity related to momentum.” This statement refers to
the _________.
A. Uncertainty principle
B. Rutherford‟s principle
C. Precession principle
D. Thomson‟s principle

126. The coefficient of restitution always applies _________.

A. To only one of the colliding objects
B. To neither of the colliding objects
 122

C. Jointly to the colliding objects

D. To the bigger colliding object

127. What refers to the force perpendicular to the velocity of an object moving along a
curve path?
A. Centrifugal force
B. Centripetal force
C. Reverse-effective force
D. Gravitational force

128. The centripetal force:

A. Directed away from the center of the curvature of the path
B. Directed toward the center of the curvature of the path
C. Tangent to the curvature of the path
D. Either directed away or toward the center of curvature of the path

129. You swing a stone tied to a string in a horizontal circular motion. You increase
the length of the string to two times of its original length. Assuming the same speed, what
will happen to the force on the string?
A. The force will increase 4 times
B. The force will increase 2 times
C. The force will reduce by one-fourth
D. The force will reduce by one-half

130. You swing a stone tied to a string in a horizontal circular motion. You increase
the speed twice that of the original speed. What effect does it have on the tension of the
string?
A. The tension is increased 8 times
B. The tension is increased 2 times
C. The tension remains the same
D. The tension is increased 4 times

131. Two identical satellites are orbiting the Earth in circular orbits. The speed of the
first satellite is four times the speed of the second satellite. The orbital radius of the first
satellite is approximately ____________ of the orbital radius of the second satellite.
A. One-fourth
B. One-half
C. One-eighth
D. One-sixteenth

132. What will happen to the gravitational attraction of Earth for the satellite if the
distance between the orbiting satellite and the center of the Earth is increased by two
times?
A. It will increase 2 times
B. It will reduce to one-half
C. It will reduce to one-fourth
 123

D. It will increase four times

133. What refers to the time needed by an object in uniform circular motion to
complete an orbit?
A. Path time
B. Orbit time
C. Revolution
D. Period

134. The centripetal acceleration of a particular uniform motion is ___________ to the

radius of its path.
A. Directly proportional
B. Inversely proportional
C. Equal
D. Not related in any way.

135. An old phonograph with a record turning at a constant speed. Two flies are on top
of the spinning record with one near the outer edge while the other is near the center. The
centripetal acceleration of the fly near the edge is __________ the one near the center.
A. Less than
B. Equal to
C. Greater than
D. Either less than or greater than

136. The rate of rotary motion is called _______.

A. Angular displacement
B. Angular motion
C. Angular velocity
D. Angular acceleration

137. What refers to the acceleration produce when a particle moves away from its
center of rotation?
A. Centrifugal acceleration
B. Coriolis
C. Tangential acceleration
D. Centripetal acceleration

138. Gravitation occurs between all objects in the universe by virtue of their
___________.
A. Mass
B. Density
C. Weight
D. Volume
 124

139. “Every object in the universe attracts every other object with a force directly
proportional to the product of their masses and inversely proportional to the square of the
distance separating them. “ This statement is known as:
A. Law of conservation of energy
B. Law of universal gravitation
C. Law of conservation of momentum
D. Law of conservation of impulse

140. The gravitational force of the Earth on an object varies of the ________ the
distance of the object from the center of the Earth.
A. Inversely as
B. Inversely as the square of
C. Directly as
D. Directly as the square of

141. What factor is necessary in order to be able to compute the period of a satellite
orbiting the Earth?
A. Shape of the orbit
B. Centripetal force in the orbit
C. Gravitational force present in the orbit
D. Radius of the orbit

142. A rotating body has kinetic energy. This statement is ______.

A. Sometimes true
B. Sometimes false
C. Always true
D. Always false

143. What type of energy is usually transmitted by rotary motion?

A. Kinetic energy
B. Potential energy
C. Mechanical energy
D. Rest energy

144. Angular momentum is the product of:

A. Moment of inertia and linear speed
B. Moment of area and angular speed
C. Moment of inertia and angular speed
D. Moment of area and angular speed
 125

145. “When the sum of the external torques acting on a system of particles is zero, the
total angular momentum of the system remains constant.” This statement is also known
as:
A. Conservation of energy
B. Conservation of impulse
C. Conservation of linear momentum
D. Conservation of angular momentum

146. What particles will experience tangential acceleration?

A. Those particles whose angular speed changes.
B. Those particles whose angular speed remains constant
C. All particles
D. Those particles whose angular speed is zero

147. The ___________ of a body about a given axis is the rotational analog of mass of
the body is distributed about the axis.
A. Moment of mass
B. Moment of area
C. Moment of inertia
D. Torque

148. The __________ of a force about a particular axis is the product of the magnitude
of the force and the perpendicular distance from the line of action of the force to the axis.
A. Inertia
B. Mass moment
C. Torque
D. Moment

149. When the forces that act on an object have a vector sum of zero, the object is said
to be in ________.
A. Unstable equilibrium
B. Stable equilibrium
C. Rotational equilibrium
D. Translational equilibrium

150. Which of the following is an example of a neutral equilibrium?

A. A cone balanced on its apex
B. A cone balanced on its base
C. A cone on its side
D. A cone balanced on the circumference of its base

151. Which of the following is an example of a stable equilibrium?

A. A cone balanced on its apex
B. A cone balanced on its base
C. A cone on its side
D. A cone balanced on the circumference of its base
 126

152. A device that transmits force or torque is called __________.

A. Mechanical tool
B. Machine
C. Axle
D. Wedge

153. If a cone is balanced on its apex, it illustrates what type of equilibrium?

A. Stable equilibrium
B. Neutral equilibrium
C. Unstable equilibrium
D. Translational equilibrium

154. When the net torque acting on an object is zero, the object is in ___________.
A. Unstable equilibrium
B. Stable equilibrium
C. Rotational equilibrium
D. Translational equilibrium

155. Which of the following is NOT a basic machine?

A. Lever
B. Incline plane
C. Hydraulic press
D. Wedge

156. Where is center of gravity of an object located?

A. It is always inside the object
B. It is always outside the object
C. It is always at its geometric center
D. It may sometimes be inside the object and sometimes outside the object

157. What is defined as the mass per unit volume?

A. Density
B. Weight density
C. Relative density
D. Specific gravity

158. What is defined as the weight per unit volume?

A. Density
B. Weight density
C. Relative density
D. Specific gravity
 127

159. All are values of the density of water except one. Which one?
A. 1000 kg/m3
B. 62.4 lb/ft3
C. 10 g/cm3
D. 9.81 kN/m3

160. Water has its maximum mass density at what temperature?

A. 274 K
B. 277 K
C. 281 k
D. 287 k

161. The ___________ of a substance is its density relative to that of water.

A. Density
B. Weight density
C. Viscosity
D. Specific gravity

162. What is another term for specific gravity?

A. Density
B. Weight density
C. Relative density
D. Viscosity

163. What is the average pressure of the earth‟s atmosphere at sea level?
A. 1.042 bar
B. 1.021 bar
C. 1.013 bar
D. 1.037 bar

164. What principle states that “for a horizontal flow of a fluid through a pipe, the sum
of the pressure and the kinetic energy per unit volume of the fluid is constant”?
A. Bernoulli‟s principle
B. Pascal‟s principle
C. Archimedes‟ principle
D. Torricelli‟s principle

165. “An external pressure exerted on a fluid is transmitted uniformly throughout the
volume of the fluid.” This statement is known as _____________.
A. Bernoulli‟s principle theorem
B. Pascal‟s principle
C. Archimedes‟ principle
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D. Torricelli‟s theorem

166. “The hydrostatic pressure a fluid exerts on an immersed object or on container

walls is a function only a fluid depth.” This is known as the ____________.
A. Hydrostatic paradox
B. Pascal‟s principle
C. Bernoulli‟s theorem
D. Archimedes‟ principle

167. The buoyant force of a body immersed in a fluid is equal to the weight of the fluid
displaced.” This statement is known as ___________.
A. Hydrostatic paradox
B. Archimedes‟ principle
C. Bernoulli‟s theorem
D. Pascal‟s principle

168. The hydraulic press in an instrument which uses one of the following theorems.
Which one?
A. Bernoulli‟s energy theorem
B. Pascal‟s principle
C. Archimedes‟ principle
D. Reynold‟s principle

169. The hydrometer is an instrument which uses one of the following theorems.
Which one?
A. Bernoulli‟s energy theorem
B. Pascal‟s principle
C. Archimedes‟ principle
D. Reynold‟s principle

170. The hydrometer is an instrument used to measure ____________.

A. Pressure of a liquid
B. Density of a liquid
C. Reynold‟s number
D. Viscosity of a liquid

171. What is used to determine the type of flow of a liquid?

A. Reynold‟s number
B. Kutter‟s number
C. Froude‟s number
D. Bernoulli‟s number

172. Reynold‟s number is the ratio of _______ to _________ in a liquid.

A. Inertial force; viscous force
B. Viscous force; inertial force
C. Newtonian force; hydrostatic force
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D. Inertial force; Newtonian force

173. Which of the following most accurately describe the Newtonian fluids?
A. Newtonian fluids have varied values of shear strain.
A. The shear stress of Newtonian fluids is proportional to strain.
B. The shear stress of Newtonian fluids is proportional to the rate of strain.
C. The viscosity of Newtonian fluids is zero.

174. Kinematic viscosity is defined as the ratio of absolute viscosity to __________.

A. Density
B. Mass
C. Specific gravity
D. Specific volume

175. The viscosity force between different layers of a liquid flowing through a tube is
________.
A. Proportional to the area of the layer and the velocity gradient
B. Inversely proportional to the area of the layer and the velocity gradient
C. Inversely proportional to the area of the layer and directly proportional to the velocity
gradient
D. Proportional to the area of the layer and inversely proportional to the velocity
gradient

176. The maximum displacement of an object undergoing harmonic motion on either

side of its equilibrium position is called the ________ of the motion.
A. Frequency
B. Oscillation
C. Period
D. Amplitude

177. The energy stored in a spring, when a stone and spring is made to oscillate in a
vertical direction, neglecting friction is maximum at __________.
A. The upper vertical extremes
B. The lower vertical extremes
C. Both the upper and lower vertical extremes
D. Both the vertical and horizontal extremes

178. What quantity is often used in describing harmonic motion?

A. Amplitude
B. Frequency
C. Period
D. Oscillation

179. The period of the simple harmonic motion is ______________ its amplitude.
A. Directly proportional to
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B. Inversely proportional to
C. Equal to
D. Independent of
180. What refers to an oscillatory motion that occurs whenever a restoring force acts
on a body in the opposite direction to its displacement from its equilibrium position, with
the magnitude of the restoring force proportional to the magnitude of the displacement?
A. Damped harmonic motion
B. Pendulum
C. Simple harmonic motion
D. Damped harmonic oscillation

181. In a damped harmonic oscillator, what reduces the amplitude of the vibration?
A. Force
B. Period
C. Frequency
D. Friction

182. A musical instrument produced one harmonic note that has a certain wavelength
and associated frequency. If the wavelength of another harmonic of this note is doubled
what will happen to the associated frequency?
A. It will be one-half of the original associated frequency
B. It will be 4 times of the original associated frequency
C. It will be one-fourth of the original associated frequency
D. It will be twice the original associated frequency

183. The ___________ of a pivotal object is that point at which it can be struck
without producing a reaction force on its pivot.
A. Center of gravity
B. Center of oscillation
C. Axis of oscillation
D. Center of mass

184. What is a longitudinal wave phenomenon that results in periodic pressure

variations?
A. Sound
B. Resonance
C. Wave
D. Beat

185. Sound interference is needed to produce what phenomenon?

A. Echo
B. Resonance
C. Beat
D. Reverberation
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186. What occurs when periodic impulses are applied to a system at a frequency equal
to one of its natural frequencies of oscillation?
A. Beat
B. Resonance
C. Doppler effect
D. Shock

187. In the study of waves, what refers to the efficient transfer of energy that takes
place at a neutral frequency?
A. Beats
B. Echo
C. Doppler‟s effect
D. Resonance

188. The fundamental frequency of a standing wave on a string has node(s) and
_________ antinode(s).
A. One, one
B. One, two
C. Two, one
D. Two, two

189. Two vibrating sound systems are said to be in resonance if ________________.

A. The frequency of one is an integral multiple of the other
B. Their frequencies are equal
C. Their amplitudes are equal
D. Their waveform are similar

190. What refers to a shell of high pressure produced by the motion of an object whose
speed exceeds that of sound?
A. Shock wave
B. Mach wave
C. Beat wave
D. Sonic wave

191. What refers to the change in frequency of a wave when there is relative motion
between its source and an observer?
A. Superposition principle
B. Shock effect
C. Doppler effect
D. Wave motion
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192. According to Doppler effect, waves emitted by moving object as received by an

observer will be ____________ if approaching.
A. Blueshifted
B. Redshifted
C. Blackshifted
D. Whiteshifted

193. According to Doppler effect, waves emitted by moving object as received by an

observer will be ____________ is receding.
A. Blueshifted
B. Redshifted
C. Blackshifted
D. Whiteshifted

194. Doppler effect occurs only in what phenomenon?

A. Sound
B. Electromagnetic
C. Both sound and electromagnetic
D. Sound, electromagnetic and electrostatic

195. What occur when the individual particles of a medium vibrate back and forth in
the direction in which the waves travel?
A. Longitudinal waves
B. Transverse waves
C. Wave motions
D. Shock waves

196. Infrasound refers to sounds whose frequencies are below __________.

A. 20 Hz
B. 30 Hz
C. 40 Hz
D. 50 Hz

197. Ultrasound refers to sound whose frequencies are above _____________.

A. 10,000 Hz
B. 20,000 Hz
C. 30,000 Hz
D. 40,000 Hz

198. What occur when the individual particles of a medium vibrate from side to side
perpendicular to the direction in which the waves travel?
A. Longitudinal waves
B. Transverse waves
C. Wave motions
D. Shock waves
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199. “When two or more waves of the same nature travel past a given point at the same
time, the amplitude at the point is the sum of the amplitudes of the individual waves.”
This statement is known as “When two or more waves of the same nature travel past a
given point at the same time, the amplitude at the point is the sum of the amplitudes of
the individual waves.” This statement is known as __________.
A. Mach principle
B. Doppler principle
C. Principle of superposition
D. Wave motion principle

200. What occurs when the resulting composite wave has an amplitude greater than
that either of the original waves?
A. Local interference
B. Ordinary interference
C. Constructive interference
D. Destructive interference

201. What occurs when the resulting composite wave has an amplitude less than that
either of the original waves?
A. Local interference
B. Ordinary interference
C. Constructive interference
D. Destructive interference

202. The rate of which wave of any kind carries energy per unit cross-sectional area is
called ________.
A. Beats
B. Frequency
C. Gain
D. Intensity

203. What refers to the study of sound and sound waves?

A. Sound science
B. Acoustics
C. Wave science
D. Spectrum science

204. At what intensity will sound wave starts to damage the ear of humans.
A. 10 W/m2
B. 0.1 W/m2
C. 1 W/m2
D. 0.01 W/m2
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205. For a 1 kHz sound wave to be audible, it must have a minimum intensity of
_______ W/m2.
A. 10-10
B. 10-11
C. 10-12
D. 10-13

206. How many decibels should a sound be to be barely audible?

A. 0
B. 1
C. 0.1
D. 1.5

207. Which of the following about the speed of sound is correct?

A. The speed of sound in moist air is greater than in dry air.
B. The speed of sound increases with the increase of the gas density.
C. The speed of sound increases with the density of the medium
D. The speed of sound decreases with increasing temperature

208. The ratio of a speed of an object and the speed of sound is called the __________.
A. Wave factor
B. Supersonic number
C. Sonic number
D. Mach number

209. “The net electric charge in an isolated system remains constant.” This statement is
known as _________.
A. Principle of conservation of attraction
B. Principle of conservation of charge
C. Coulomb‟s law
D. Principle of superconductivity

210. “The force one charge exerts on another is directly proportional to the magnitudes
of the charges and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them.”
This statement is known as __________.
A. Coulomb‟s law
B. Kirchhoff‟s law
C. Lenz‟ law
D. Faraday‟s law

211. What states that the line integral of the magnetic flux around a closed curve is
proportional to the algebraic sum of electric currents flowing that closed curve?
A. Joule‟s law
B. Ampere‟s law
C. Kirchhoff‟s law
D. Faraday‟s law
 135

212. What law describes the contributions to a magnetic field by an electric current and
is analogous to Coulomb‟s law?
A. Balmer‟s law
B. Biot-savart law
C. Ampere‟s law
D. Faraday‟s law

213. What law states that the amount of chemical change during electrolysis is
proportional to the charge passed?
A. Faraday‟s first law of electrolysis
B. Faraday‟s second law of electrolysis
C. Faraday‟s first law of electromagnetic induction
D. Faraday‟s second law of electromagnetic induction

214. What law states that the charge required to deposits or liberates a mass is
proportional to the charge of the ion, the mass and inversely proportional to the relative
ionic mass?
A. Faraday‟s first law of electrolysis
B. Faraday‟s second law of electrolysis
C. Faraday‟s first law of electromagnetic induction
D. Faraday‟s second law of electromagnetic induction

215. “The sense of the induced electromotive force depends on the direction of the rate
of change of the field.” This is known as _____.
A. Faraday‟s first law of electrolysis
B. Faraday‟s second law of electrolysis
C. Faraday‟s first law of electromagnetic induction
D. Faraday‟s second law of electromagnetic induction

216. “The magnitude of the electromotive force is proportional to the rate of change of
the field.” This is known as _____.
A. Faraday‟s first law of electrolysis
B. Faraday‟s second law of electrolysis
C. Faraday‟s first law of electromagnetic induction
D. Faraday‟s second law of electromagnetic induction

217. “An electromotive force is induced in a conductor when the magnetic field
surrounding it changes.” This statement is known as _____.
A. Faraday‟s first law of electrolysis
B. Faraday‟s second law of electrolysis
C. Faraday‟s first law of electromagnetic induction
D. Faraday‟s second law of electromagnetic induction
 136

218. Which law states that the electric flux through a closed surface is proportional to
the algebraic sum of electric charges contained within that closed surface?
A. Faraday‟s law
B. Coulomb‟s law
C. Gauss‟ law
D. Maxwell‟s law

219. Considering the effects on body currents, what value of electric current (60 Hz, 1
s) will cause cardiac arrest on humans?
A. Above 1 A
B. Above 2 A
C. Above 3 A
D. Above 4 A

220. What refers to a region of space at every point of which an appropriate test object
would experience a force?
A. Energy field
B. Electric field
C. Magnetic field
D. Force field

221. The _____ of an electric field is the electric potential energy per unit volume
associated with it.
A. Capacitance
B. Polar energy
C. Energy density
D. Dielectric constant

222. What is the unit for electric field strength?

A. Newton- meter2 per coulomb
B. Newton-meter per coulomb
C. Newton per coulomb
D. Newton per volt

223. When charged particles flow through a tube which has both an electric field and
magnetic field ( perpendicular to the electric field) present in it, only certain velocities of
the charged particles are preferred, and will make it undeviated to the tube; the rest will
be deflected into the side. What is this effect called?
A. Hawking effect
B. Einstein effect
C. Hail effect
D. Gauss effect
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224. What is the ratio between the charge on either plates of a capacitor and the
potential difference between the plates?
A. Resistance
B. Inductance
C. Capacitance
D. Potential difference

225. What refers to the measure of how effective a material is in reducing an electric
field set up across a sample of it?
A. Electronegativity
B. Potential difference
C. Dielectric constant
D. Energy density

226. Which of the following has the highest electric constant at room temperature?
A. Porcelain
B. Teflon
C. Transformer oil
D. Natural rubber

227. What is the dielectric constant of vacuum at room temperature?

A. 1
B. 1.01
C. 1.001
D. 1.0001

228. Which of the following material has the largest electrical resistivity at room
temperature?
A. Aluminum
B. Iron
C. Platinum
D. Tungsten

229. What is the electrical resistivity of annealed copper at room temperature in ohm-
meter?
A. 1.0 x 10-7
B. 1.72 x 10-8
C. 1.59 x 10-8
D. 2.82 x 10-8

230. The potential difference across a battery, a generator or other source of electric
energy when it is not connected to any external circuit is called its ___________
A. Electromechanical force
B. Electrostatic force
C. Electromotive force
D. Internal resistance
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231. What is defines as luminous flex per unit?

A. Luminous intensity
B. Luminous efficiency
C. Illumination
D. Lumen

232. What refers to the brightness of a light source?

A. Luminous intensity
B. Illumination
C. Luminous flex
D. Luminous efficiency

233. What is the approximate luminous intensity of a candle?

A. 1 candela
B. 1 lux
C. 1 lumen
D. All of the above

234. What unit is defined in terms of the light emitted by a small pool of platinum at its
melting point?
A. Footcandle
B. Candela
C. Lux
D. Lumen

235. Candela is the fundamental SI unit of luminous intensity defined as the luminous
intensity in a given direction of a source that emits monochromatic photons of what
frequency?
A. 520 x 10 11 Hz
B. 530 x 1010 Hz
C. 340 x 1012 Hz
D. 350 x 1013 Hz

236. What refers to the total amount of visible light given off by a light source?
A. Luminous intensity
B. Luminous flux
C. Luminous efficiency
D. Illumination

237. Lumen is defined as the luminous flux that falls on each square meter of a sphere
1 meter in radius at whose center is a _____ light source that radiates equally well in all
directions.
A. 0.1 candela
B. 1.0 candela
C. 10 candela
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D. 100 candela

238. What is the total luminous flux radiated by a candela source?

A. 2π lm
B. 4 π lm
C. 8 π lm
D. Π lm

239. What refers to the luminous flux emitted by a light source per watt of power
input?
A. Luminous factor
B. Luminous efficiency
C. Luminous intensity
D. Illumination

240. Keeping the partial pressure of water vapor constant while increasing the
temperature will cause the relative humidity in air to _____.
A. Stabilize
B. Reach its saturation point
C. Decrease its value
D. Increase its value

241. What is another name for gease- spot photometer?

A. Photo- electric photometer
B. Joule photometer
C. Bunsen photometer
D. Spherical photometer

242. What coating material is used in the inside of the fluorescent lamp which emits
visible light when it is excited by an ultraviolet radiation?
A. Mercury
B. Inert gas
C. Phosphor
D. Argon

243. What refers to the ratio between the sped of the light in free space and its speed in
a particular medium?
A. Index of reflection
B. Total internal reflection
C. Index of dispersion
D. Index of refraction

244. What refers to the ratio between the sped of the light in an empty space to the
speed of light in a medium?
A. Relative index of refraction
B. Total index of refraction
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C. Absolute index of refraction

D. Critical index of refraction
245. “The ratio of the sines of the angles of incidence and refraction is equal to the
ratio of the speeds of light in the two media”. This statement is known as _____.
A. Huygen‟s principle
B. Snell‟s law
C. Maxwell‟s hypothesis
D. Doppler‟s effect

246. Light ray that passes at an angle from one medium to another is deflected at the
surface between the two media. What is this phenomenon called?
A. Dispersion
B. Reflection
C. Refraction
D. Incidence

247. “Every point on the wave front can be considered as a source of secondary
wavelets that spread out in all directions with the wave speed of the medium. The wave
front at any time is the envelope of these wavelets”. This statement is known as _____.
A. Huygen‟s principle
B. Snell‟s law
C. Maxwell‟s hypothesis
D. Doppler‟s effect

248. Which one that states that each point on a wave front maybe regarded as new
source of disturbance?
A. Foucault‟s theory
B. Huygen‟s principle
C. Newton‟s wave theory
D. Hertz‟ s theory of wave motion

249. What is an imaginary surface the joins points where all the waves from a source
are in the same phase of oscillation?
A. Gamma ray
B. Wave front
C. Electromagnetic wave
D. Microwave

250. What refers to the effect when a beam containing more than one frequency is split
into a corresponding number of different beams when it is refracted?
A. Flux
B. Refraction
C. Reflection
D. Dispersion
 141

251. What refers to the band of colors that emerges from the prism?
A. Spectrum
B. Luminance
C. Facet
D. Reflection

252. What is the index of refraction of air?

A. 1.3
B. 1.03
C. 1.003
D. 1.0003

253. What is the index of refraction of water?

A. 1.33
B. 1.63
C. 1.43
D. 1.53

254. What type of lens deviate parallel light onward as though it originated at a single
virtual power point?
A. Magnifying lens
B. Convergent lens
C. Divergent lens
D. Microscopic lens

255. What type of lens brings parallel light to a single real local point?
A. Magnifying lens
B. Convergent lens
C. Divergent lens
D. Microscopic lens

256. Which one best describes the meniscus lens?

A. It has only concave surfaces
B. It has only convex surfaces
C. It has no concave surface and no convex surface
D. It has one concave surface and one convex surface

257. What is the distance from a lens to its focal point called?
A. Focal index
B. Focal factor
C. Focal length
D. All of the above
 142

258. In optical system, what refers to the ration of the image height to the object
height?
A. Linear magnification
B. Object magnification
C. Image magnification
D. Height magnification

259. If the linear magnification of an optical system is less than one, it means that:
A. The image and the object are of the same size
B. The image is larger than the object
C. The image is smaller than the object
D. The image may be larger or smaller than the object

260. A camera usually uses what type of lens to form an image on a light sensitive
photographic film?
A. Magnifying lens
B. Convergent lens
C. Divergent lens
D. Microscopic lens

261. One of the common defects of vision is _____ commonly known as

nearsightedness.
A. Hyporopia
B. Hyperopia
C. Myopia
D. Minorpia

262. One of the common defects of vision is _____ commonly known as

farsightedness.
E. Hyporopia
F. Hyperopia
G. Myopia
H. Minorpia

263. What lens is commonly used to correct nearsightedness?

A. Magnifying lens
B. Convergent lens
C. Divergent lens
D. Microscopic lens

264. What lens is commonly used to correct farsightedness?

E. Magnifying lens
F. Convergent lens
G. Divergent lens
H. Microscopic lens
 143

265. What is a defect of vision caused by the cornea having different curvatures in
different planes?
A. Astigmatism
B. Myopia
C. Hyperopia
D. Presbyopia

266. In telescopes, what refers to the ratio between the angle subtended at the eye by
the image and the angle subtended at the eye by the object seen directly?
A. Magnifying power
B. Linear magnification
C. Angular magnification
D. Object magnification

267. What is expected nature of the image if the distance of the object from the lens is
beyond two times the focal length when using concave lens?
A. Vertical but inverted
B. Real, diminished in size and inverted
C. Vertical and upright
D. Real and enlarged

268. What type of mirror that curves inward its center and converges parallel light to a
single real focal point?
A. Convex mirror
B. Concave mirror
C. Spherical mirror
D. Chromatic mirror

269. What type of mirror that curves outward toward its center and diverged parallel
light as though the reflected light came from a single virtual focal point behind the
mirror?
A. Convex mirror
B. Concave mirror
C. Spherical mirror
D. Chromatic mirror

270. In which of the following mirrors is the image always vertical and erect?
A. Concave- spherical mirror
B. Convex- spherical mirror
C. Magnifying mirror
D. Diverging mirror
 144

271. Which of the following is TRUE about spherical mirrors?

A. The focal length is positive for a concave mirror and negative for a convex mirror.
B. The object distance is always positive.
C. The image distance is positive when the image is on the same side of the mirror as the
object, negative when on the side opposite the object.
D. All of the above.

272. What refers to the apparent change in position of a light- emitting object due to
the constancy of the speed of the light and the motion of the observer relative to the
emitter?
A. Illusion
B. Aberration
C. Absorption
D. Absorptance

273. Not all rays parallel to the principal axis of a spherical mirror are reflected to a
single focus. The ray father from the axis is reflected to cross the axis nearer to the mirror
than those close to the axis. What do you call this imperfection?
A. Optical illusion
B. Optical aberration
C. Spherical aberration
D. Spherical error

274. Which of the following statements is TRUE about a compound microscope that
uses two lenses, namely the eyepiece and the objective lens?
A. The focal length of the eye piece is greater than the objective.
B. Sometimes, the focal lengths of the eye piece and the objectives are equal.
C. Depending on the intent usage, focal length of the objectives is made greater than the
eyepiece.
D. The focal length of the eyepiece is shorter than the objective.

275. What refers to an artificially made polarizing material that transmit light with only
a single plane of polarization?
A. Quartz
B. Fiber optic
C. Polaroid
D. Tourmaline

276. In optical system, what refers to its ability to produce separate images of nearby
objects?
A. Coherent power
B. Brewster‟s power
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C. Polarization power
D. Resolving power

277. The resolving power of an optical system is _____ the objective lens of the optical
system?
A. Directly proportional
B. Inversely proportional
C. Equal
D. Not related to

278. What refers to the ability of waves to bend around the edges of obstacles to their
paths?
A. Coherence
B. Reflection
C. Refraction
D. Diffraction

279. What refers to a series of parallel slits that produces a spectrum through the
interference of light that is diffracted?
A. Diffraction grating
B. Polarization
C. Coherent waves
D. Reflection

280. The polarization behavior of light is best explained by considering light to be a

_____.
A. Charged particle
B. Transverse wave
C. Longitudinal wave
D. Either transverse wave or longitudinal wave

281. The emission of electrons from a metal surface when light shines on it is called
_____.
A. Absorption effect
B. Spectrum emission
C. Quantum effect
D. Photoelectric effect

282. What refers to the wavelength of a particle given as the ratio of Planck‟s constant
to momentum?
A. Huygen wavelength
B. De Broglie wavelength
C. Thompson wavelength
 146

D. Doppler wavelength

283. What are high- frequency electromagnetic waves emitted when fast electrons
impinge on matter?
A. Beta rays
B. Alpha rays
C. X- rays
D. De Broglie waves

284. What is the wavelength range of x- rays in electromagnetic spectrum?

A. 1 pm- 1 nm
B. 1 nm- 500 nm
C. 1 pm- 500 nm
D. 1 pm- 10 nm

285. What refers to the substance that results when you heat a gas to a very high
temperature, consisting now of mixture of electrons and positive ions?
A. Liquefied gas
B. Quanta
C. Plasma
D. Quark

286. The fundamental particles that make up matter are divided into two groups
namely that particle of matter and the particle that transmit forces. What do the particles
of matter called?
A. Cations
B. Anions
C. Fermions
D. Quarks

287. What refers to the increase in the measured mass of an object when it is moving
relative to an observer?
A. Exclusion principle
B. Quantum theory of mass
C. State of mass
D. Relativity of mass

288. The allowed discrete energy levels that bound particles may occupy is called
_____ energies?
A. Quantum
B. State
C. Photon
D. Fermion
 147

289. What is a set of numbers that describes the quantum state of a particle, such an
electron in an atom?
A. Fermi number
B. Quantum number
C. State number
D. Dirac number

290. What refers to a particular state of electron that may be described by a set of
quantum numbers?
A. Quantum state‟
B. Fermi- dirac state
C. Dirac state
D. Fermi state
291. What device is used for producing a narrow, monochromatic, coherent beam of
light?
A. Spectral device
B. Prism
C. Fiber optic
D. Laser

292. What refers to the spectrum formed by the dispersion of light from an
incandescent solid, liquid or gas?
A. Light spectrum
B. Dispersed spectrum
C. Excited spectrum
D. Emission spectrum

293. What consist of various wavelengths of light emitted by an excited substance?

A. Excited spectrum
B. Light spectrum
C. Absorption spectrum
D. Emission spectrum

294. What consist of various wavelengths of light absorbed by an excited substance

when white light is passed through it?
A. Excited spectrum
B. Light spectrum
C. Absorption spectrum
D. Emission spectrum

295. What is the range of wavelength of light visible to human eye?

A. 4000 Angstrom to 9000 Angstrom
B. 4000 Angstrom to 8000 Angstrom
C. 4000 Angstrom to 7000 Angstrom
D. 4000 Angstrom to 6000 Angstrom
 148

296. Light wavelengths are usually expressed in microns or Angstrom. How many
centimeters is equivalent to the one Angstrom?
A. 10-6
B. 10-7
C. 10-8
D. 10-9

297. Which law expresses the relationship between heat of body and wavelength?
A. Boltzmann‟s law
B. Wien‟s law
C. Doppler‟s law
D. Huygen‟s law

298. Every electron has a certain amount of angular momentum called its _____.
A. Spin
B. Shell
C. State
D. Quantum number

299. What is the distance from a lens to its focal point called?
A. Focal index
B. Focal factor
C. Focal length
D. All of the above

300. What does LASER stands for?

A. Light amplification by spectral emission of radiation
B. Light amplification by state emission of radiation
C. Light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation
D. Light amplification by saturated emission of radiation

301. A free falling body is acted upon by which of the following?

A. Weight of the body
B. Air resistance and gravitational pull
C. Gravitational pull
D. Air resistance

302. If the forces acting on a falling body balance one another, the body continues to
fall at a constant velocity. What is this constant velocity called?
A. Instantaneous velocity
B. Free- falling velocity
C. Gravitational velocity
D. Terminal velocity
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303. The first law of motion is also known as _____.

A. Law of acceleration
B. Law of inertia
C. Law of interaction
D. Law of momentum

304. The second law of motion is also known as _____.

A. Law of acceleration
B. Law of inertia
C. Law of interaction
D. Law of momentum

305. The third law of motion is also known as _____.

A. Law of acceleration
B. Law of inertia
C. Law of interaction
D. Law of momentum

306. Air exerts a force that is opposites of the car‟s motion. What is this force called?
A. Reverse effective force
B. Terminal force
C. Drag force
D. Aerodynamic force

307. What instrument is used to measure blood pressure of human beings?

A. Strop manometer
B. Pump manometer
C. Electro manometer
D. Sphyg manometer

308. What do light, radio waves, microwaves and x- rays have in common?
A. These waves were predicted by only one person, James Maxwell.
B. These do not need a medium to travel in.
C. These waves are all mechanical waves.
D. These waves are all serendipitous discoveries.

309. Who predicted the existence of electromagnetic waves in 1865?

A. Roentgen
B. Maxwell
C. Tesla
D. Doppler
 150

310. What is the velocity of light in meters per second?

A. 3 x 10 6
B. 3 x 10 9
C. 3 x 10 7
D. 3 x 10 8

311. What is the sound level of the threshold of pain?

A. 100 dB
B. 110 dB
C. 120 dB
D. 130 dB

312. What is the intensity in W/m2 of the threshold of pain?

A. 1
B. 10
C. 0.1
D. 0.01

313. What is the intensity of hearing in W/m2 ?

-12
A. 10
B. 10 -10
C. 10 -8
D. 10 -6

314. What refers to a measure of the energy of the sound?

A. Intensity
B. Loudness
C. Pitch
D. Stone

315. What refers to the sensation in the ear which depends on the energy in the sound
wave?
A. Pitch
B. Intensity
C. Loudness
D. Timbre

316. How can loudness of sound be increased?

A. By increasing the energy of sound.
B. By preventing sound waves to spread in different directions.
C. By collecting and focusing sound waves at the receiving end.
D. All of the choices.
 151

317. Which of the following is independent upon the frequency of the sound
vibrations?
A. Timbre
B. Loudness
C. Intensity
D. Pitch

318. The “Doppler effect” is named after which scientist?

A. Christopher Jacques Doppler
B. Christian Jacques Doppler
C. Christopher Jason Doppler
D. Christian Johann Doppler

319. When a person tells you that the pitch of your voice high, he is referring to _____.
A. The intensity of your voice
B. The number of sound waves you are sending out per second
C. The loudness of your voice
D. The quality of your voice

320. At what intensity level will a noise be considered pollutant in the environment?
A. Above 50 dB
B. Above 100 dB
C. Above 120 dB
D. Above 150 dB

321. The velocity of sound in air increases by how many m/s for every 1° C increase in
temperature?
A. 0. 2
B. 0. 4
C. 0. 6
D. 0. 8

322. What is the speed of sound in air at 0 degree Celcius?

A. 300 m/ s
B. 330 m/ s
C. 332 m/ s
D. 338 m/ s

323. Why is sound wave travel faster in water than air?

A. Because water has greater density than air.
B. Because water has greater bulk modulus than air.
C. Because water has more in terms of number of molecules than air.
D. Because has more in volume than air.
 152

324. What will happen to the wavelength if the velocity and frequency of a wave are
both reduced to one- half?
A. It will double
B. It will reduce in half
C. It will quadruple
D. It will remain the same

325. Which of the following statements is TRUE?

A. A high- frequency sound has high pitch.
B. A high- frequency sound has low pitch.
C. A high- frequency sound has low energy.
D. A high- frequency sound has low pitch and low energy.

326. What part of the human ear where sound energy is converted into electrical
energy?
A. Ear drum
B. Cochlea
C. Tympanum
D. Ear canal

327. In which medium do sound waves travel the fastest?

A. Liquids
B. Solids
C. Gases
D. Vacuum

328. Who provide evidence that light and electromagnetic waves have the same nature
and that they travel at the same speed and exhibit the same properties such as refraction,
reflection and interference?
A. Townes
B. Maxwell
C. Hertz
D. Huygens

329. Which of the following has the smallest wavelength band?

A. Blue
B. Indigo
C. Green
D. Yellow

330. What color has the longest wavelength?

A. Orange
B. Red
C. Yellow
D. Green
 153

331. What color has the shortest wavelength?

A. Indigo
B. Violet
C. Blue
D. Green

332. What is the wavelength band of orange?

A. 550 nm- 600 nm
B. 600 nm- 650 nm
C. 650 nm- 700 nm
D. 500 nm- 550 nm

333. What is the wavelength band in nanometer of visible light?

A. 350- 700
B. 350- 800
C. 300- 700
D. 300- 800

334. Considering some typical radiations and near the visible spectrum, what is the
wavelength of near ultraviolet in meters?
A. 3.0 x 10-7
B. 4.0 x 10-8
C. 5.0 x 10-9
D. 6.0 x 10-6

335. What refers to the particle- like packet of electromagnetic energy?

A. Photon
B. Quanta
C. Quark
D. Muon

336. What refers to the particle- like packet of thermal radiation?

A. Photon
B. Quanta
C. Muon
D. Lepton

337. Using E as energy in photons and h as the Planck‟s constant, what equations is
used to determine the frequency of a particular color of light?
A. h/ E
B. Eh
C. E/ h
D. Eh/ 2
 154

338. What is the value of the Planck constant in joule- second?

A. 6. 238 x 10-35
B. 6. 321 x 10-32
C. 6. 626 x 10-34
D. 6. 782 x 10-35

339. What constant describes the relationship between temperature and kinetic energy
for molecules of ideal gas?
A. Planck constant
B. Balmer constant
C. Biot constant
D. Boltzmann constant

340. What is the value of Boltzmann constant in joule/ Kelvin?

A. 1. 214521 x 10-22
B. 1. 380622 x 10-23
C. 1. 412889 x 10-24
D. 1. 526610 x 10-25

341. What refers to the electric charge carried by one mole of electron or singly-
ionized ions?
A. Boltzmann constant
B. De Broglie constant
C. Faraday constant
D. Helmholtz constant

342. Faraday constant is the product of the absolute value of the charge on an electron
and the _____.
A. Avogadro constant
B. Boltzmann constant
C. De Broglie constant
D. Planck constant

343. What is the value of the Stefan- Boltzmann constant in W/ m2/ K4

A. 5. 6697 x 10-8
B. 4. 6817 x 10-8
C. 3. 8997 x 10-8
D. 2. 7808 x 10-8

344. What relation is used to measure photons, the energy of the particle of light?
A. Einstein‟s relation
B. Helmholtz‟s relation
C. De Broglie relation
D. Planck‟s relation
 155

345. What term is used to describe the angular opening of a sphere that encloses the
mirror?
A. Angle of curvature
B. Focal point
C. Aperture
D. Vertex

346. What makes the sun visible even before it is in line with the horizon?
A. Diffraction
B. Reflection
C. Refraction
D. Diffusion

347. When the white light is passed through a prism, the different lights are vent to
varying degrees and are dispersed into different colors. Which of these colors bends the
most?
A. Violet
B. Red
C. Orange
D. Green

348. When the white light is passed through a prism, the different lights are vent to
varying degrees and are dispersed into different colors. Which of these colors bends the
least?
E. Violet
F. Red
G. Orange
H. Green

349. The formation of rainbow in the sky is due to _____.

A. Diffraction
B. Reflection
C. Refraction
D. Diffusion

350. What refers to the defect in lenses which causes unequal refraction of the different
colors?
A. Chromatic diffraction
B. Chromatic polarization
C. Chromatic aberration
D. Chromatic dispersion
 156

351. What property of a light wave is determined by its wavelength?

A. Color
B. Shape
C. Size
D. Density

352. What is diffraction?

A. It is the scattering of white light behind an obstruction.
B. It is the separation of white light into its component colors.
C. It is the merging of the component colors into white light.
D. It is the absorption of white light in the atmosphere.

353. What is dispersion?

A. It is the scattering of white light behind an obstruction.
B. It is the separation of white light into its component colors.
C. It is the merging of the component colors into white light.
D. It is the absorption of white light in the atmosphere.

354. What are primary colors?

A. Blue, red and white
B. Light colors
C. Colors which when combined white light
D. Blue, red and green

355. What device used to measure atmospheric pressure and consist of a glass tube
sealed at one end and filled with mercury and a slide with a vernier scale?
A. Bourdon gage
B. Android barometer
C. Mercury barometer
D. Manometer

356. Waves that need a material medium through which it can travel as it transfer
energy?
A. Electromagnetic wave
B. Radio wave
C. Microwave
D. Mechanical wave

357. What refers to the band of colors produced when sunlight passes through a prism?
A. Light spectrum
B. Solar spectrum
C. White spectrum
D. Visible spectrum
 157

358. What refers to the property of some media to transmit light wave in a diffused
matter to make objects behind them undistinguishable?
A. Lucidity
B. Limpidity
C. Transparent
D. Translucent

359. What refers to the invisible electromagnetic waves shorter than the visible violet
wave but longer than the Roentgen ray?
A. Beta ray
B. Ultraviolet ray
C. Alpha ray
D. X- ray

360. What refers to the part of the shadow front which all light is excluded?
A. Footprint
B. Lumbra
C. Umbra
D. Sunspot

361. The range of the projectile is:

A. Directly proportional to the gravitational acceleration
B. Directly proportional to the square of the velocity
C. Directly proportional to the velocity
D. Inversely proportional to the velocity

362. Ignoring air resistance, an object falling towards the surface of the Earth has a
velocity that is _____.
A. Dependent on the weight of the object
B. Increasing
C. Decreasing
D. Constant

363. What instrument is used to measure humidity of air?

A. Hydrometer
B. Hygrometer
C. Lactometer
D. Radiometer

364. “The radius vector drawn from the sum to the planet sweeps out equal areas in
equal interval of time”. This statement is known as _____.
A. Kepler‟s first law of planetary motion
B. Kepler‟s second law of planetary motion
C. Kepler‟s third law of planetary motion
D. Law of universal gravitation
 158

365. “The planet revolves around the earth in elliptical orbits, the sun being one of the
foci of the ellipse”. This statement is known as _____.
A. Kepler‟s first law of planetary motion
B. Kepler‟s second law of planetary motion
C. Kepler‟s third law of planetary motion
D. Law of universal gravitation

366. “The ratio of the square of the time required by a planet to complete one
revolution about the sun to the cube of the distance of the planet to the sun is the same for
all planets in the solar system”. This is known as _____.
A. Kepler‟s first law of planetary motion
B. Kepler‟s second law of planetary motion
C. Kepler‟s third law of planetary motion
D. Law of universal gravitation

367. Kepler‟s second law of motion is based on which of the following?

A. Law of universal gravitation
B. Law of conservation of angular momentum
C. Theory of relativity
D. Law of conservation of energy

368. According to Kepler‟s laws of planetary motion, what parameter of the planet will
always remain constant?
A. Gravitation force
B. Gravitational resistance
C. Angular momentum
D. Centrifugal force

369. Kepler‟s third law states that the period of a planet‟s motion and its distance from
the sun as _____.
A. Radius squared divided by period squared equals a constant
B. Radius raised to the 3rd power divided by period raised to the 3rd power equals a
constant
C. Radius raised to the 3rd power over the period squared equals to a constant
D. Radius raised to the 4th power divided by period raised to the 3rd power is a constant

370. According to Kepler‟s law of planetary motion, if “t” is the time required by a
planet to complete one revolution about the Sun, and “R” is the distance of the planet
from the Sun, which one below is a constant value?
A. T squared over R squared
B. T squared over R raised to third power
C. T raised to third power over R raised to third power
D. T raised to third power over R squared
 159

371. Who enunciated the famous three laws of planetary motion?

A. James Kepler
B. Johannes Kepler
C. Joseph Kepler
D. Joshua Kepler

372. The velocity of projection of a body which takes it beyond the earth‟s
gravitational attraction is called _____ of the body.
A. Terminal velocity
B. Drag velocity
C. Escape velocity
D. Geostationary velocity

373. Which of the following is the law of reflection?

A. The angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection.
B. The incident ray, the reflected ray and the normal to the surface are all in the same
plane.
C. Neither A or B above.
D. Both A and B above.

374. “The incident ray, the reflected ray and the normal to the reflecting surface, lie in
the same place.” This is known as _____.
A. First law of reflection
B. Huygen‟s law on light
C. Newton‟s law of reflection
D. Second law of reflection

375. The escape velocity is:

A. The same for all bodies
B. Dependent on the mass of the body
C. Inversely proportional to the gravitational constant
D. Dependent on the distance of the body from the surface of the earth

376. What is the value of the escape velocity on Earth in km/ s?

A. 11. 2
B. 12. 1
C. 13. 2
D. 14. 1

377. What is the value of escape velocity on moon?

A. 1, 200 m/ s
B. 1, 600 m/ s
C. 2, 200 m/ s
D. 2, 400 m/ s
 160

378. The speed of sound is _____ the density of a gas?

A. Directly proportional to
B. Inversely proportional to
C. Independent of
D. Speed of light divided by

379. When light is incident at the critical angle, it is refracted at what angle?
A. 45° C
B. 60° C
C. 90° C
D. 30° C

380. The velocity of sound in air is equal to the square root of the ratio of the pressure
of the gas to the density of the medium. This equation is known as:
A. Maxwell‟s formula
B. Huygen‟s formula
C. Laplace formula
D. Newton‟s formula

381. According to Newton, the velocity of sound in air is equal to the square root of
the ratio of:
A. Volume of gas to density of medium
B. Density of medium to volume of gas
C. Pressure of gas to density of medium
D. Density of medium to pressure of gas

382. Indicate the FALSE statement.

A. Sound travels faster in hydrogen than nitrogen.
B. Sound travels faster in low density gases.
C. Speed of sound increases with the increase in temperature.
D. Speed of sound in dry air is more than the speed of sound in moist air.

383. The velocity of sound os _____ the pressure of gas.

A. Directly proportional to
B. Inversely proportional to
C. Independent of
D. The speed of light divided by

384. At what temperature reading do the Celsius scale and Fahrenheit scale have the
same temperature?
A. -40
B. -30
C. -20
D. -25
 161

385. The of the source is the luminous flux per unit area of the source.
A. Luminous emittance
B. Luminous efficiency
C. Luminous intensity
D. Illumination

386. Brightness is the same as _____.

A. Luminous emittance
B. Luminous efficiency
C. Luminous intensity
D. Illumination

387. What refers to the ratio of the radiant or luminous flux absorbed by a body to the
flux falling on it?
A. Luminous emittance
B. Absorptance
C. Luminous absorption
D. Black body

388. What is a monochromatic light?

A. Light with only one color
B. Light with only one wavelength
C. Light with only one color and one wavelength
D. Light with many colors

389. What is a three- dimensional image of an object illuminated by a broad band of

coherent light?
A. Hologram
B. Polygram
C. Opaque image
D. Translucent image

390. In opaque material,

A. Light is able to pass through
B. The refracted energy is absorbed within a very thin layer and converted to heat
C. Light is partially absorbed
D. The refracted energy is absorbed within a thick layer and converted to heat

391. In translucent material,

A. Light is able to pass through
B. The refracted energy is absorbed within a very thin layer and converted to heat
C. Light is partially absorbed
D. The refracted energy is absorbed within a thick layer and converted to heat
 162

392. In transparent material,

A. Light is able to pass through
B. The refracted energy is absorbed within a very thin layer and converted to heat
C. Light is partially absorbed
D. The refracted energy is absorbed within a thick layer and converted to heat

393. What refers to the property of transparent material which is an inverse measure of
the speed of light through the material?
A. Optical density
B. Optical wavelength
C. Optical frequency
D. Optical index

394. The ratio of the speeds of the light in two different media is known as _____.
A. Index of refraction
B. Index of diffraction
C. Relative index of refraction
D. Index of diffusion

395. What occurs when two waves combine so that one subtracts from the other?
A. Interference
B. Superposition
C. Reinforcement
D. Polarization

396. What type of waves is produced in the stem when a tuning fork vibrates?
A. Transverse wave
B. Longitudinal wave
C. Neither transverse wave nor longitudinal wave
D. Both transverse wave and longitudinal wave

397. The moment of inertia of an object is dependent on which of the following?

A. The object‟s size and shape
B. The object‟s mass
C. The location of the axis of rotation
D. All of the above

398. Which of the following statements about center of gravity is TRUE?

A. It may be outside the object.
B. It is always at its geometrical center.
C. It is always in the interior of the object.
D. It is sometimes arbitrary.
 163

399. A diatonic scale is a musical scale buildup of how many major chords?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

400. A chromatic scale is a diatonic scale with how many added half tones?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

401. What refers to two colors which combine to form white light?
A. Complementary colors
B. Secondary colors
C. Primary colors
D. Elementary colors

402. A spectrum consisting of a wide range of unseparated wavelengths is called

_____.
A. Visible spectrum
B. Continuous spectrum
C. Emission spectrum
D. Discontinuous spectrum

403. Mechanical energy is conserved provided that _____ work is done by

nonconservative forces.
A. Either positive or negative
B. No positive
C. No negative
D. No net

404. When sunlight passes through a slit and is dispersed by a prism, there occur
superimposed on the continuous band of colors, a number of sharp dark lines that
correspond to individual images of the slit. What do you call these lines?
A. Prismatic lines
B. Chromatic lines
C. Fraunhofer lines
D. Spectrum lines

405. The six colors of which sunlight is composed are called _____.
A. Secondary colors
B. Primary colors
C. Complementary colors
D. Elementary colors
 164

406. A spectrum formed by the dispersion of light from an incandescent solid, liquid
and gas is called _____.
A. Visible spectrum
B. Continuous spectrum
C. Emission spectrum
D. Discontinuous spectrum

407. What is the type of force which binds the protons and neutrons together in the
nucleus of an atom?
A. Drag force
B. Bind force
C. Exchange force
D. Intact force
408. The “f” number of the lens os the ratio of the:
A. Focal length of the lens to the effective aperture
B. Effective aperture to the focal length of the lens
C. Magnifying power of lens to effective aperture
D. Effective aperture to magnifying power of the lens

409. What refers to the length of time during which half oa given number of
radioactive nuclei will disintegrate?
A. Active life
B. Half cycle
C. Half life
D. Half period

410. What defined as the spontaneous uncontrollable disintegration of the nucleus of

an atom with emission of particles and rays?
A. Nuclear disintegration
B. Fusion
C. Fission
D. Radioactivity

411. An isotope is said to be “radioactive” if its atomic number is ______.

A. Between 60 and 63
B. Less than 60
C. Greater than 83
D. Between 53 and 73

412. What refers to the number of disintegrations per second which occur in a
radioactive force?
A. Life cycle
B. Activity
C. Radioactivity
D. Radiation
 165

413. What is the SI unit of activity?

A. Rem
B. Becquerel
C. Curie
D. Rad

414. What is the SI unit of biological equivalent dose?

A. Sievert
B. Curie
C. Rem
D. Becquerel

415. What refers to a measure of radiation that considers the biological effect resulting
from the radiation?
A. Rem
B. Roentgen
C. Curie
D. Rad

416. What refers to the lowest pitch produced by a musical tone source?
A. Treble
B. Bass
C. Octave
D. Fundamental

417. What is an electromagnetic radiation of very short wavelength emitted from the
nucleus of a radioactive atom?
A. Beta ray
B. Alpha ray
C. Gamma ray
D. X- ray

418. What is the typical wavelength of gamma rays?

A. 10-10 m
B. 10-11 m
C. 10-12 m
D. 10-13 m

419. What is the frequency of gamma rays in Hertz?

19
A. 10
B. 1020
C. 1021
D. 1022
 166

420. What is an instrument used to detect and measure radioactivity?

A. Edison counter
B. Radioactive counter
C. Fraunhofer counter
D. Geiger counter

421. What refers to the fundamentals and the tones whose frequencies are whole
number multiples of the fundamentals?
A. Harmony
B. Beats
C. Treble and bass
D. Harmonics
422. A spectrum consisting of monochromatic slit images having wavelength
characteristic of the atoms parent is called _____.
A. Line spectrum
B. Continuous spectrum
C. Slit spectrum
D. Image spectrum

423. What is an instrument used to determine the mass of atomic particles?

A. Mass indicator
B. Mass spectrograph
C. Mass counter
D. Mass technograph

424. Which of the following is the fundamental atomic constant?

A. Velocity of light
B. Mass and charge of electron
C. Planck‟s constant
D. All of the above

425. What is nucleon?

A. A proton in the nucleus of an atom.
B. An electron in the nucleus of an atom.
C. A neutron in the nucleus of a atom.
D. A proton or a neutron of an atom.

426. What is a glass bottle used to determine the specific gravity of liquids?
A. Beaker
B. Flask
C. Pycnometer
D. Graduated cylinder
 167

427. What is an instrument used to determine the angle of rotation of the plane of
polarized light?
A. Polariscope
B. Polarimeter
C. Polargraph
D. Polargram

428. What refers to the property of sound waves which depends on the number of
harmonics present and on their prominence?
A. Pitch
B. Quality
C. Harmonic
D. Fundamental

429. What refers to the failure of one set of color receptors in the eye to be stimulated?
A. Retinal failure
B. Retinal fatigue
C. Pupil imperfection
D. Astigmatism

430. The theory that the retina of the eye is provided with three sets of receptors, each
of which is sensitive to one of the three primary colors is known as _____.
A. True color vision theory
B. Young- Helmholtz color vision theory
C. Primary vision theory
D. Young- Huygen‟a primary vision theory

431. What is a probable explanation for observe phenomena which is supported by

abundant data?
A. Theory
B. Hypothesis
C. Axiom
D. Conclusion

432. A thoroughly tested model that explains why experiments give certain results is a
____.
A. Scientific observation
B. Scientific law
C. Theory
D. Hypothesis
 168

433. A tempered scale is a musical scale with _____ equal frequency ration intervals
between the successive notes of an octave.
A. 9
B. 10
C. 11
D. 12

434. What is a unifying theory applicable to the divergent phenomena of light which
assumes that the transfer energy between light and matter occurs only in discrete
quantities proportional to the frequency of the energy transferred?
A. Quantum theory
B. Radioactive theory
C. Nuclear theory
D. Quark theory

435. In nuclear physics, protons and neutrons, being baryons consists of how many
quarks?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
436. In nuclear physics, alpha particles consist of _____proton (s) and )_____ neutron
(s)?
A. 1, 1
B. 2, 2
C. 3, 3
D. 4, 4

437. What is the unit charge of alpha particles?

A. +2
B. -2
C. +1
D. -1

438. Alpha particles travel at what speed compared to the speed of light?
A. 1/ 5 speed of the light
B. 1/ 2 speed of the light
C. 1/ 10 speed of the light
D. 1/ 20 speed of the light

439. Who proposed that part of the energy of beta particle is carried away by another
particle called neutrino?
A. Wolfgang Pauli
B. Neils Bohr
C. Max Planck
D. Ernest Rutherford
 169

440. The number of electron neutrinos that reach the Earth from the sun is smaller in
number than what has been absorbed. This is due to what effect?
A. Neutrino absorption effect
B. Neutrino imbalance effect
C. Neutrino oscillation effect
D. Neutrino frequency effect

441. In nuclear physics, the used fuel rods from a nuclear reactor contain how many
percent of usable uranium and plutonium?
A. 90 %
B. 92 %
C. 94 %
D. 96 %

442. What refers to a quantum- mechanic principle with the consequence that the
position and momentum of an object cannot be precisely determined?
A. Heisenberg uncertainty principle
B. Bose uncertainty principle
C. Helmholtz uncertainty principle
D. Huygen‟s uncertainty principle

443. The Heisenberg uncertainty principle is used to determine the _____.

A. Total number of electrons
B. Number of orbiting electrons in each orbit
C. Number of electronegative ions
D. Size of the atom

444. According to the Plate Tectonic Theory, the spreading of sea floor takes place at
what boundary?
A. Convergent boundary
B. Divergent boundary
C. Fault boundary
D. Base boundary

445. The time is 2: 00 P. M. What does P. M. mean?

A. Post-midnight
B. Post morning
C. Fault boundary
D. Base boundary

446. The time is 8: 00 A. M. What does A. M. mean?

A. Post-midnight
B. Post morning
C. After the meridian
D. Before the meridian
 170

447. How many times a year will the sun appears directly above the equator?
A. Once
B. Twice
C. Four times
D. Twelve times

448. What is the approximate radius of the Sun?

A. 6. 960 x 108 m
B. 6. 960 x 109 m
C. 6. 960 x 1010 m
D. 6. 960 x 1011 m

449. The expansion or collapse of the universe into another “big bang” is dependent on
the _____.
A. Density of matter in the universe
B. Presence of a number of black holes
C. Age of galaxies
D. All of the above

450. The mass of a nucleus is always less than the combined mass of its constituent
particles by an amount called _____ which is equivalent to nuclear binding energy.
A. Point defect
B. Mass defect
C. Volume defect
D. Weight defect

451. An increase in temperature of a reaction will result to an increase in the :

A. Kinetic energy of the molecules
B. Activation energy
C. Number of collisions
D. All of the above

452. In nuclear physics, most of the energy liberated during fission appears:
A. As kinetic energy of the emitted neutrons
B. As alpha rays
C. As kinetic energy of the fission fragments
D. As gamma rays

453. What will happen if a convex lens is immersed in a liquid whose refractive index
is greater than that of glass?
A. It will act like a magnifying lens.
B. It will act like a convergent lens.
C. It will act like a spherical lens.
D. It will act like a divergent lens.
 171

454. For particles falling slowly through a viscous fluid, the differential equation of
motion and its solution are derived from _____.
A. Reynold‟s theorem
B. Bernoulli‟s theorem
C. Newton‟s first law
D. Newton‟s second law

455. A satellite moving around the earth with uniform speed has _____.
A. Variable acceleration
B. Zero acceleration
C. Uniform acceleration
D. Increasing acceleration

456. What is the viscosity of water in poiseuille at ° C?

A. 1.2 x 10-3
B. 1.8 x 10-3
C. 1.4 x 10-3
D. 1.6 x 10-3

457. In nuclear physics, what is the equivalent energy of one hydrogen atom?
A. 937. 9 MeV
B. 938. 8 MeV
C. 939. 7 MeV
D. 936. 8 MeV

458. Which of the following quantities will not change when the amplitude of a system
moving in simple harmonic motion is increased to twice its original value?
A. Potential energy
B. Kinetic energy
C. Maximum acceleration
D. Period

459. Which of the following is the unit of kinematic viscosity?

A. Ft2/ s
B. Ft/ s
C. Ft/ s2
D. Ft- s

460. The total mechanical energy of an object is proportional to the _____.

A. Speed of the object
B. Square of the speed of the object
C. Mass of the object
D. Height of the object
 172

461. What is a natural unit for electron magnetic dipole moment used in atomic
physics?
A. Rutherford magneton
B. Einstein magneton
C. Bohr magneton
D. Gauss magneton

462. The magnitude of an electron‟s spin magnetic moment is approximately how

many Bohr magneton?
A. 0. 1
B. 1. 0
C. 10
D. 100

463. What refers to the effect that is due to the enhancement of a spark- discharge
caused by passing ultraviolet light to promote ionization?
A. Hertz effect
B. Luminous effect
C. Sparking effect
D. Ultraviolet effect

464. What will happen to the kinetic energy of a body if you increase the speed of the
body two times?
A. It will reduce to half.
B. It will increase 4 times.
C. It will double
D. It will reduce to one- fourth.

465. Which of the following lenses resembles that of a binocular?

A. Galilean telescope
B. Terrestrial telescope
C. Astronomical telescope
D. All of the above.

466. What do you call the part of the human ear that connects sound energy into
electrical energy and sends to the brain as nerve pulses?
A. Ear follicles
B. Ear drum
C. Tympanic membrane
D. Cochlea
 173

467. In capillarity, what is expected to happen when the adhesive force is greater than
the cohesive force?
A. The liquid flows slowly.
B. The liquid flows freely.
C. The liquid tends to stick to the solid..
D. All of the above.
 174

ANSWER KEYS

1. C 40. D 79. A
2. B 41. A 80. C
3. A 42. D 81. A
4. B 43. C 82. B
5. B 44. A 83. A
6. A 45. B 84. B
7. D 46. C 85. A
8. A 47. C 86. A
9. C 48. B 87. C
10. D 49. D 88. B
11. B 50. D 89. C
12. B 51. C 90. C
13. A 52. A 91. A
14. D 53. B 92. B
15. A 54. B 93. C
16. B 55. A 94. C
17. B 56. B 95. C
18. B 57. C 96. D
19. D 58. B 97. C
20. C 59. C 98. D
21. B 60. B 99. A
22. A 61. A 100. B
23. C 62. C 101. C
24. A 63. A 102. C
25. A 64. D 103. A
26. C 65. D 104. A
27. C 66. D 105. C
28. A 67. A 106. B
29. C 68. D 107. B
30. C 69. D 108. A
31. B 70. C 109. C
32. D 71. B 110. D
33. A 72. A 111. A
34. A 73. C 112. B
35. C 74. C 113. A
36. A 75. B 114. B
37. A 76. A 115. C
38. B 77. C 116. C
39. B 78. B 117. A
 175

118. B 158. B 198. B

119. A 159. C 199. C
120. C 160. B 200. C
121. C 161. D 201. D
122. C 162. C 202. D
123. A 163. C 203. B
124. B 164. A 204. C
125. A 165. B 205. C
126. C 166. A 206. A
127. A 167. B 207. A
128. B 168. B 208. D
129. D 169. C 209. B
130. B 170. B 210. A
131. D 171. A 211. B
132. C 172. A 212. B
133. D 173. C 213. A
134. B 174. A 214. B
135. C 175. A 215. D
136. C 176. D 216. C
137. B 177. C 217. B
138. A 178. B 218. C
139. B 179. D 219. C
140. B 180. C 220. D
141. D 181. D 221. C
142. C 182. A 222. C
143. C 183. B 223. C
144. C 184. A 224. C
145. D 185. C 225. C
146. A 186. B 226. A
147. C 187. D 227. A
148. C 188. C 228. D
149. D 189. B 229. C
150. C 190. A 230. C
151. B 191. C 231. C
152. B 192. A 232. A
153. C 193. B 233. A
154. C 194. C 234. B
155. D 195. A 235. C
156. D 196. A 236. B
157. A 197. B 237. B
 176

238. B 278. D 318. D

239. B 279. A 319. B
240. C 280. B 320. C
241. C 281. D 321. C
242. C 282. B 322. C
243. D 283. C 323. B
244. C 284. D 324. D
245. B 285. C 325. A
246. C 286. C 326. B
247. A 287. D 327. B
248. B 288. A 328. C
249. B 289. B 329. B
250. D 290. A 330. B
251. A 291. D 331. B
252. D 292. D 332. B
253. A 293. D 333. A
254. C 294. C 334. A
255. B 295. C 335. A
256. D 296. C 336. B
257. C 297. B 337. C
258. A 298. A 338. C
259. C 299. C 339. D
260. B 300. C 340. B
261. C 301. B 341. C
262. B 302. D 342. A
263. C 303. B 343. A
264. B 304. A 344. A
265. A 305. C 345. C
266. C 306. C 346. C
267. B 307. D 347. A
268. B 308. B 348. B
269. A 309. B 349. C
270. B 310. D 350. C
271. D 311. C 351. A
272. B 312. A 352. A
273. C 313. A 353. B
274. A 314. A 354. C
275. C 315. C 355. C
276. D 316. D 356. D
277. A 317. D 357. B
 177

358. D 395. A 432. C

359. B 396. B 433. D
360. C 397. D 434. A
361. B 398. A 435. B
362. B 399. B 436. B
363. B 400. D 437. A
364. B 401. A 438. C
365. A 402. B 439. A
366. C 403. D 440. C
367. B 404. C 441. D
368. C 405. D 442. A
369. C 406. C 443. D
370. B 407. C 444. B
371. B 408. A 445. C
372. C 409. C 446. D
373. D 410. D 447. B
374. D 411. C 448. A
375. A 412. B 449. A
376. A 413. B 450. B
377. D 414. A 451. A
378. B 415. A 452. C
379. C 416. D 453. D
380. D 417. C 454. D
381. C 418. D 455. C
382. D 419. C 456. B
383. C 420. D 457. B
384. A 421. D 458. D
385. A 422. A 459. A
386. A 423. B 460. C
387. B 424. D 461. C
388. C 425. D 462. B
389. A 426. C 463. A
390. B 427. A 464. B
391. C 428. B 465. B
392. A 429. B 466. D
393. A 430. B 467. C
394. C 431. A
 178

PHYSICS PROBLEMS

1. Find the rate at which pulses will propagate along a strip that has a mass per unit length
of 150 grams/meter when it is under a tension of 50 N?
A. 15.39 m/s
B. 16.74 m/s
C. 17.12 m/s
D. 18.26 m/s

2. A horizontal string 4 m long has a mass of 20 grams. What is the tension on the string if
the wavelength of a 100 Hz wave on the string is 40 cm?
A. 9 N
B. 8 N
C. 7 N
D. 6 N

3. What is the speed of sound in air at 0 C?

A. 332.165 m/s
B. 337.718 m/s
C. 330.281 m/s
D. 331.671 m/s

4. What is the velocity of sound at room temperature which is at 27 C?

A. 347.1 m/s
B. 345.9 m/s
C. 346.8 m/s
D. 348.2 m/s

5. What is the frequency of a 4 cm sound wave in air? Speed of sound in air is 332 m/s.
A. 8250 Hz
B. 8300 Hz
C. 8350 Hz
D. 8400 Hz

6. A sound wave on a certain material has a wavelength of 10 cm and frequency of 2000

Hz. What is the velocity of the sound wave?
A. 202 m/s
B. 208 m/s
C. 212 m/s
D. 200 m/s
 179

7. The world famous University of the Visayas chorale consists of 25 singers, including its
lead soloist, all whom can sing with the same intensity. Its lead soloist sings a certain
stanza of the contest piece and then is joined by the rest of the group for a repeat of the
stanza. Find the difference in the sound intensity level of the two instances.
A. 13.98 dB
B. 14.62 dB
C. 15.32 dB
D. 16.82 dB

8. A jet plane flying at Mach 0.4 carries a sound source that emits 800 Hz signal. Assuming
that the listener is directly at the jet plane‟s path, what sound frequency is heard before
the jet plane pass the listener?
A. 1400.00 Hz
B. 1366.66 Hz
C. 1333.33 Hz
D. 1420.50 Hz

9. A jet plane flying at Mach 0.4 carries a sound source that emits 800 Hz signal. Assuming
that the listener is directly at the jet plane‟s path, what sound frequency is heard after the
jet plane pass the listener?
A. 571.43 Hz
B. 574.34 Hz
C. 576.33 Hz
D. 587.12 Hz

10. A light ray is incident at an angle of 20 on the surface between air and water. At what
angle does the refracted ray make with the perpendicular to the surface when the ray is
incident from the air side? Use index of refraction for air as 1.000 while water 1.333
A. 13.12
B. 13.76
C. 14.26
D. 14.87

11. A light ray is incident at an angle of 25 on one side of a glass plate. At what angle will
the light ray emerges from the other side of the glass plate? Index of refraction of glass
and air are 1.6 and 1.0, respectively.
A. 14.3
B. 15.3
C. 16.3
D. 12.3
 180

12. Find the angle of refraction of light as a beam of parallel light enters a block of ice at an
incident angle of 35 . Use index of refraction of air and ice as 1.0 and 1.31, respectively.
A. 29
B. 28°
C. 27°
D. 26°

13. What is the index of refraction of a certain medium if the speed of light in that medium is
only half the speed of light vacuum?
A. 2.00
B. 1.85
C. 2.21
D. 1.80

14. A flint glass plate (index of refraction = 1.8) has a thickness of 20 mm. How long will it
take for a pulse of light to pass through the glass plate?
A. 4.2 x
B. 2.2 x
C. 1.2 x
D. 3.2 x

15. A ray of light passes from heavily flint glass to water. What is the critical angle for this
ray of light to pass the glass? Use index of refraction of heavy flint glass and water as
1.650 and 1.33, respectively.
A. 50.81°
B. 51.71°
C. 52.81°
D. 53.71°

16. A light ray passing through air, strikes a glass surface at an angle of 50° from the normal
surface. What is the angle between the glass surface and the reflected light ray?
A. 42°
B. 36°
C. 38°
D. 40°
 181

17. A light source emits a total luminous flux of 500 lumens. The light is distributed over
30% of a sphere. What is the luminous intensity from the light source?
A. 132.6 candles
B. 133.7 candles
C. 134.8 candles
D. 135.9 candles

18. A 100-watt incandescent lamp has a mean spherical luminous intensity of 80 candles.
What is the total luminous flux radiated by the lamp?
A. 1004.4 lumens
B. 1005.3 lumens
C. 1006.6 lumens
D. 1007.5 lumens

19. A 100-watt lamp has a mean spherical luminous intensity of 80 candelas. What is the
luminous efficiency of this lamp?
A. 10.053 lumen/s
B. 11.700 lumen/s
C. 12.046 lumen/s
D. 13.072 lumen/s

20. A light source emits a total luminous flux of 2000 lumens. What is the illuminance at a
distance of 2.0 m if the light source is distributed uniformly over a hemisphere?
A. 79.6
B. 78.2
C. 77.1
D. 76.5

21. What is the illumination on a surface 6 feet from a 100-cd source if the surface makes an
angle of 20° with the rays?
A. 0.82
B. 0.64
C. 0.73
D. 0.95
 182

22. A light bulb is used to light a bunker 9 feet below. A man stands on the floor of the
bunker 2 feet from the spot directly below the light bulb. What is the illumination on the
floor around the man if the luminous intensity is 100 candles?
A. 1.32 footcandles
B. 1.26 footcandles
C. 1.18 footcandles
D. 1.04 footcandles

23. Find the distance from which a 30-cd lamp provides the same illumination as a standard
100-cd lamp placed 15 feet from the screen?
A. 8.22 ft
B. 8.86 ft
C. 9.12 ft
D. 9.43 ft

24. After passing through an analyzer, a beam of polarized light has intensity of 1/10 of its
initial intensity. Find the angle between the axis of the analyzer and the initial amplitude
of the beam.
A. 72.78°
B. 71.57°
C. 70.67°
D. 69.80°

25. Find the location of the image of an object placed 10 cm to the left of the lens that has a
focal length of 6 cm.
A. 13 cm
B. 15 cm
C. 12 cm
D. 14 cm

26. An object is placed 8 cm from the lens with a focal length of 10 cm. where is the image
located from the lens?
A. – 30 cm
B. – 35 cm
C. – 40 cm
D. – 45 cm
 183

27. A converging lens of focal length of 15 cm is placed 30 cm in front of a screen. At what

distance should the object be placed in order that the image will appear exactly on the
screen?
A. 30 cm
B. 35 cm
C. 40 cm
D. 45 cm

28. A double convex lens has a faces of radii 15 cm and 30 cm. When an object is 20 cm
from the lens, a real image is formed 25 cm from the lens. What is the focal length of this
double convex lens?
A. 12.81
B. 12.12
C. 11.81
D. 11.11

29. A converging lens of focal length of 10 cm forms images of luminous object on a screen
located 40 cm from the object. Find the location of the object from the lens.
A. 24 cm
B. 22 cm
C. 20 cm
D. 18 cm

30. A glass lens (refractive index of 1.6) has a convex surface of radius 15 cm and a concave
surface of radius 30 cm. Find the focal length of the lens.
A. 50 cm
B. 45 cm
C. 40 cm
D. 35 cm

31. A double convex lens has faces of radii 20 cm and 24 cm. What is the refractive index of
the lens material if an object 30 cm from the lens, will form a real image 45 cm from the
lens?
A. 1.606
B. 1.732
C. 1.818
D. 1.910
 184

32. A plano-convex lens has a focal length of 30 cm. What is the radius of the convex surface
if its index of refraction is 1.55?
A. 15.5 cm
B. 16.5 cm
C. 18.5 cm
D. 17.5 cm

33. An object is placed 10 cm to the left of the lens that has a focal length of 6 cm. What is
the magnification of the lens?
A. – 1.0
B. – 1.5
C. – 2.5
D. – 2.0

34. A lens with a focal length of 0.6 cm is used as the objective in a microscope whose
eyepiece has a focal length of 1.8 cm. If the image distance is 15 cm, find the
magnification of this microscope?
A. – 343.18
B. – 345.89
C. – 340.12
D. – 347.22

35. A concave shaving mirror has a focal length of 40 cm. How far away from it should one‟s
face be for reflected image to be erect and twice its actual size?
A. 18 cm
B. 20 cm
C. 22 cm
D. 24 cm

36. Ms. Kyamko, a farsighted person, cannot see an object when the object is closer than I in
from her eyes. In order for him to read a letter 30 cm away, a correcting lens is necessary.
What should be the power of the correcting lens?
A. 3.82 diopters
B. 3.28 diopters
C. 2.82 diopters
D. 2.32 diopters
 185

37. A planoconvex lens of focal length 5.0 cm is used in a reading lamp to focus light from a
bulb on a book. If the lens is 60 cm from the book, how far should it be from the bulb‟s
filament?
A. 5.9 cm
B. 5.5 cm
C. 4.6 cm
D. 6.4 cm

38. Find the value of rest energy of electron equivalent to its rest mass.
A. 0.672 MeV
B. 0.483 MeV
C. 0.589 MeV
D. 0.512 MeV

39. Find the frequency of a photon having an energy of 3 eV?

A. 724 THz
B. 732 THz
C. 741 THz
D. 755 THz

40. NASA spaceship moves away from the Earth at a velocity of 0.8c with respect to the
Earth. A rocket is launched from the spaceship in the direction away from the Earth.
What is the velocity of the rocket with respect to the Earth if it attains a velocity of 0.6c
with respect to the spaceship?
A. 0.834c
B. 0.946c
C. 0.712c
D. 0.905c

41. A uniform steel beam is 12 feet long is suspended from one end by a construction crane.
Determine the period of oscillation of the beam.
A. 3.13 sec
B. 4.13 sec
C. 5.13 sec
D. 6.13 sec
 186

42. When a ball is suspended from a spring, the spring stretches by 8 cm. What is the
frequency of the ball if it oscillates up and down?
A. 2.8 Hz
B. 2.3 Hz
C. 1.4 Hz
D. 1.7 Hz

43. A 3-lb weight hangs at the end of a spring (k = 30 lb/ft). At what frequency will it vibrate
if the weight is displaced slightly and released?
A. 2.86 Hz
B. 2.46 Hz
C. 1.46 Hz
D. 1.86 Hz

44. For pendulum to have a period of 2 seconds, it must have a length of how many feet?
A. 2.42 ft
B. 2.86 ft
C. 3.86 ft
D. 3.26 ft

45. The Mariana Trench, which is also known as the Philippine Deep measures 10,863 m
depth. What is the pressure at the bottom of the Mariana Trench? Use specific gravity of
sea water = 1.03.
A. 1.320 x Pa
B. 1.432 x Pa
C. 1.098 x Pa
D. 1.500 x Pa

46. What is the absolute pressure (in Pascals) if a pressure gauge registers 60 psig in a region
where the barometer is 14.30 psia?
A. 530128 Pa
B. 512283 Pa
C. 541290 Pa
D. 521830 Pa
 187

47. An iceberg (sp. gr. = 0.92) floats in seawater (sp. gr. = 1.03). What percentage is the
submerged volume to the total volume of the iceberg?
A. 85%
B. 91%
C. 87%
D. 89%

48. A ship‟s anchor ( is submerged in seawater ( . Determine

the amount of force needed to lift the anchor if it weighs 610 lbs in air.
A. 518.32 lb
B. 528.72 lb
C. 538.62 lb
D. 532.90 lb

49. A 2000-kg truck accelerates from 20 kph to 120 kph in 10 seconds. Find its engine‟s
power output in watts.
A. 104997.53 watts
B. 105997.53 watts
C. 106997.53 watts
D. 107997.53 watts

50. The elevator at Excel Review Center‟s building is powered by an electric motor with an
output of 10 kW. Determine the minimum time required for it to rise the 18 m from
ground floor to roof deck, if the total mass of the loaded elevator is 800 kg.
A. 13.22 sec
B. 14.13 sec
C. 15.68 sec
D. 16.80 sec

51. During a race, Jan Michael‟s sports car develops a 250 hp at 4000 rpm. What is the
amount of torque exerted on the crankshaft?
A. 328.25 ft-lb
B. 342.78 ft-lb
C. 332.12 ft-lb
D. 350.80 ft-lb
 188

52. Tiger Woods hit a golf ball at a velocity of 80 m/s. The head of his club was in contact
with the 50 g ball for 0.40 ms. What is the average force acting on the golf ball during
impact?
A. 25 kN
B. 20 kN
C. 10 kN
D. 15 kN

53. The tennis racket is in contact with a 60-g tennis ball for 0.7 ms and as a result the ball
flies off at a speed of 80 m/s. What is the average force acting on the ball during impact?
A. 6583.29 N
B. 6659.30 N
C. 6753.21 N
D. 6857.14 N

54. A marksman holds a 3.5 kg rifle loosely in his hands and fires a 5.0-g bullet into the air
with a muzzle velocity of 250 m/s. Find the rifle‟s recoil velocity.
A. – 0.277 m/s
B. – 0.357 m/s
C. – 0.489 m/s
D. – 0.521 m/s

55. An astronaut in orbit outside an orbiting space station throws away a 0.3 kg stone at a
speed of 8 m/s. How far away from the space station will the astronaut be after 30 minute
if his mass is 120 kg (suit included).
A. 36 m
B. 42 m
C. 32 m
D. 46 m

56. An apple can provide a person about 20000 J of work. To what height can a 50-kg man
climb upstairs if he eats one apple?
A. 36.8 m
B. 38.6 m
C. 40.8 m
D. 42.6 m
 189

57. Using a wheel and axle, a 500 N load can be raised by a force of 60 N applied to the rim
of the wheel. What is the efficiency of the machine if the radii of the wheel and axle are
80 cm and 5 cm, respectively?
A. 50%
B. 52%
C. 54%
D. 56%

58. A rubber ball is dropped to the floor from a height of 3 m. It rebounds to height of 1.8 m.
What is the coefficient of restitution?
A. 0.625
B. 0.825
C. 0.665
D. 0.775

59. A 70 kg man puts a 150 kg of metal block under the pan of his weighing scale. He then
stands on the weighing scale. By how much does this increase of reading of the scale if
the distance between the centers of mass of man and the metal is 0.6 m?
A. 0.000198 g
B. 0.000385 g
C. 0.000585 g
D. 0.000698 g

60. At what height above the surface of the Earth will your weight be half your weight on the
surface of the Earth? Radius of Earth = 3960 miles.
A. 5800 miles
B. 5700 miles
C. 5600 miles
D. 5500 miles

61. An object weighs 150 lbs on the earth‟s surface. At what height about the surface of the
earth would it weigh half of its original weight? Use radius of earth, = 3960 miles.
A. 1340 miles
B. 1440 miles
C. 1540 miles
D. 1640 miles
 190

ANSWER KEYS

1. D 17. A 33. B 49. D

2. B 18. B 34. D 50. B
3. A 19. A 35. B 51. A
4. D 20. A 36. D 52. C
5. B 21. D 37. B 53. D
6. D 22. C 38. D 54. B
7. A 23. A 39. A 55. A
8. C 24. B 40. B 56. C
9. A 25. B 41. A 57. B
10. D 26. C 42. D 58. D
11. B 27. A 43. A 59. A
12. D 28. D 44. D 60. C
13. A 29. C 45. C 61. D
14. C 30. A 46. B
15. D 31. A 47. D
16. D 32. B 48. B
 191

THERMODYNAMICS OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS

1. The term “thermodynamics” comes from Greek words “therme” and “dynamics” which
means _____.
A. Heat power
B. Heat energy
C. Heat energy
D. Heat motion

2. The term “thermodynamics” was first used in 1849 in the publication of:
A. Rudolph Clausius
B. William Rankine
C. Lord Kelvin
D. Thomas Savery

3. What law asserts that energy is a thermodynamic property?

A. First law of thermodynamics
B. Second law of thermodynamics
C. Third law of thermodynamics
D. Zeroth law of thermodynamics

4. What law asserts that energy has quality as well as quantity?

A. First law of thermodynamics
B. Second law of thermodynamics
C. Third law of thermodynamics
D. Zeroth law of thermodynamics

5. The macroscopic approach to the study of thermodynamics that does not require a
knowledge of the behavior of individual particles is called _____.
A. Dynamic thermodynamics
B. Static thermodynamics
C. Statistical thermodynamics
D. Classical thermodynamics

6. What is the more elaborate approach to the study of thermodynamics and based on the
average behavior of large groups of individual particles?
A. Dynamic thermodynamics
B. Static thermodynamics
C. Statistical thermodynamics
D. Classical thermodynamics
 192

7. What is defined a region in space chosen for study?

A. Surroundings
B. System
C. Boundary
D. Volume

8. The first law of thermodynamics is based on which of the following principles?

A. Conservation of mass
B. Conservation of energy
C. Action and reaction
D. The entropy- temperature relationship

9. What is the mass or region outside the system called?

A. Surroundings
B. Boundary
C. Volume
D. Environment

10. What is the real or imaginary surface that separates the system from the its surroundings/
A. Division
B. Wall
C. Boundary
D. Interface

11. A system which consists of fixed amount of mass and no mass can cross its boundary is
called _____.
A. Equilibrium system
B. Thermal equilibrium system
C. Open system
D. Closed system

12. A system in which there is a flow of mass is known as _____.

A. Closed system
B. Exclusive system
C. Isolated system
D. Closed system
 193

13. A system in which there is a flow of mass is known as _____.

A. Equilibrium system
B. Isolated system
C. Open system
D. Closed system

14. Open system usually encloses which f the following devices?

A. Compressor
B. Turbine
C. Nozzle
D. All of the above

15. The boundary of a control volume which may either real or imaginary is called _____.
A. Control boundary
B. Control system
C. Interface
D. Control surface

16. Any characteristics of a thermodynamics system is called a _____.

A. Property
B. Process
C. Phase
D. Cycle

17. How are thermodynamic properties classified?

A. Physical and chemical
B. Intensive and extensive
C. Real and imaginary
D. Homogenous and heterogeneous

18. The thermodynamic properties that are independent on the size of the system is called
_____.
A. Extensive property
B. Intensive property
C. Open property
D. Closed property
 194

19. The thermodynamic properties that are dependent on the size or extent of the system is
called _____.
A. Extensive property
B. Intensive property
C. Open property
D. Closed property

20. Which is NOT an intensive property of thermodynamics?

A. Temperature
B. Mass
C. Pressure
D. Density

21. Which is NOT an extensive property of thermodynamics?

A. Density
B. Mass
C. Volume
D. Energy

22. Which of the following is NOT an extensive property of a substance?

A. Charge
B. Temperature
C. Mass
D. Volume

23. Extensive properties per unit mass are called_____.

A. Specific properties
B. Relative properties
C. Unit properties
D. Phase properties

24. A system is in _____equilibrium if the temperature is the same throughout the entire
system.
A. Static
B. Thermal
C. Mechanical
D. Phase
 195

25. A system is in _____equilibrium if there is no change in pressure of any point of the

system with time.
A. Static
B. Thermal
C. Mechanical
D. Phase

26. If a system involves two phase, it is in _____ equilibrium when the mass of each phase
reaches an equilibrium level and stays there.
A. Chemical
B. Thermal
C. Mechanical
D. Phase

27. A system is in _____ equilibrium of its chemical composition does not change with time,
i. e, no chemical reaction occurs.
A. Chemical
B. Thermal
C. Mechanical
D. Phase

28. “The state of a simple compressible syetem is completely specified by two independent,
intensive properties”. This is known as _____.
A. Equilibrium postulate
B. State postulate
C. Environment postulate
D. Compressible system postulate

29. What is the unit of total energy of a system?

A. kJ
B. kJ/ kg
C. kg
D. g

30. What is the unit of specific impulse?

A. kJ/ s
B. seconds
C. kJ/ mole
D. N/ s- m
 196

31. Without electrical, mechanical, gravitational, surface tension and motion effects, a system
is called _____ system.
A. Simple
B. Simple compressible
C. Compressible
D. Independent

32. What refers to any change that a system undergoes from one equilibrium state to another
equilibrium state to another equilibrium state?
A. Process
B. Path
C. Phase
D. Cycle

33. What refers to the series of states through which a system passes during a process?
A. Path
B. Phase
C. Cycle
D. Direction

34. How many independent properties are required to completely fix the equilibrium state of
a pure gaseous compound?
A. 4
B. 3
C. 2
D. 1

35. What is a process in which the system remains infinitesimally closed to an equilibrium
state at all times?
A. Path equilibrium process
B. Cycle equilibrium process
C. Phase equilibrium process
D. Quasi- state or quasi- equilibrium process

36. A closed system may refer to _____.

A. Control mass
B. Control volume
C. Control energy
D. Control temperature
 197

37. An open system may refer to _____.

A. Control mass
B. Control volume
C. Control energy
D. Control temperature

38. A system is said to be in thermodynamic equilibrium if it maintains _____ equilibrium.

A. Mechanical and phase
B. Thermal and chemical
C. Thermal, mechanical and chemical
D. Thermal, phase, mechanical and chemical

39. What is a process with identical end states called?

A. Cycle
B. Path
C. Phase
D. Either path or phase

40. What is a process during which the temperature remains constant?

A. Isobaric process
B. Isothermal process
C. Isochoric process
D. Isometric process

41. What is a process during which the pressure remains constant?

A. Isobaric process
B. Isothermal process
C. Isochoric process
D. Isometric process

42. What is the variation of pressure in an isobaric process?

A. It is directly proportional to the volume and temperature.
B. It varies linearly with temperature.
C. It is zero.
D. It is inversely proportional with respect to temperature.
 198

43. What is a process during which the specific volume remains constant?
A. Isobaric process
B. Isothermal process
C. Isochoric process or isometric process
D. Isovolumetric process

44. The prefix “iso” used to designate a process means _____.

A. cannot be interchanged
B. remains constant
C. approximately equal
D. slight difference

45. What does the term “steady” implies?

A. No change with volume
B. No change with time
C. No change with location
D. No change with mass

46. What does the term “uniform” implies?

A. No change with volume
B. No change with time
C. No change with location
D. No change with mass

47. What is defines as a process during which a fluid flows through a control volume
steadily?
A. Transient- flow process
B. Steady and uniform process
C. Form Uniform- flow process
D. Steady- flow process

48. The sum of all the microscopic form of energy is called _____.
A. Total energy
B. Internal energy
C. System energy
D. Phase energy
 199

49. What type of system energy is related to the molecular structure of a system?
A. Macroscopic form of energy
B. Microscopic form of energy
C. Internal energy
D. Kinetic energy

50. What form of energy refers to those a system possesses as a whole with respect to some
outside reference frame, such as potential and kinetic energies?
A. Macroscopic form of energy
B. Microscopic form of energy
C. Internal energy
D. External energy

51. Who coined the word “energy” in 1807?

A. William Kankine
B. Rudolph Clausius
C. Lord Kelvin
D. Thomas Young

52. The molecules of gas moving through space with some velocity possess what kind of
energy?
A. Translational energy
B. Spin energy
C. Rotational kinetic energy
D. Sensible energy

53. The electronics in an atom which rotate about the nucleus possess what kind of energy?
A. Translational energy
B. Spin energy
C. Rotational kinetic energy
D. Sensible energy

54. The electrons which spin about its axis will possess what kind of energy?
A. Translational energy
B. Spin energy
C. Rotational kinetic energy
D. Sensible energy
 200

55. What refers to the portion of the internal energy of a system associated with the kinetic
energies of the molecules?
A. Translational energy
B. Spin energy
C. Rotational kinetic energy
D. Sensible energy

56. What is the internal energy associated with the phase of a system called?
A. Chemical energy
B. Latent energy
C. Phase energy
D. Thermal energy

57. What is the internal energy associated with the atomic bonds in a molecule called?
A. Chemical energy
B. Latent energy
C. Phase energy
D. State energy

58. What is the extremely large amount of energy associated with the strong bonds within the
nucleus of the atom itself called?
A. Chemical energy
B. Latent energy
C. Phase energy
D. Nuclear energy

59. What are the only two forms of energy interactions associated with a closes system?
A. Kinetic energy and heat
B. Heat transfer and work
C. Thermal energy and chemical energy
D. Latent energy and thermal energy

60. What states that if two bodies are in thermal equilibrium with a third body, they are also
in thermal equilibrium with each other
A. Zeroth law of thermodynamics
B. First law of thermodynamics
C. Second law of thermodynamics
D. Third law of thermodynamics
 201

61. Who formulated the zeroth law of thermodynamics in 1931?

A. A. Celsius
B. A. Einstein
C. R. H. Fowler
D. G. Fahrenheit

62. What is the thermodynamics temperature scale in the SL system?

A. Kelvin Scale
B. Celsius Scale
C. Fahrenheit scale
D. Rankine Scale

63. What is the thermodynamic temperature scale in the English system?

a. Kelvin Scale
b. Celsius Scale
c. Fahrenheit scale
d. Rankine Scale

64. What temperature scale is identical to the Kelvin scale?

A. Ideal gas temperature scale
B. Ideal temperature scale
C. Absolute gas temperature scale
D. Triple point temperature scale

65. The temperatures of the ideal gas temperature scale are measured by using a ______.
A. Constant- volume gas thermometer
B. Constant- mass gas thermometer
C. Constant- thermometer gas thermometer
D. Constant- pressure gas thermometer

66. Which of the following thermometers has the widest range?

A. Thermoelectric
B. Radiation type
C. Optical pyrometer
D. Mercury thermometer
 202

67. Mercury thermometer is used to measure temperature based on the expansion of mercury
as the temperature increases. What is the temperature range of mercury thermometer?
A. -35° C to 350° C
B. 0° C to 100° C
C. -35° C to 212° C
D. -38° C to 350° C

68. What type or thermometer is used principally at temperatures above the first visible “red
heat”?
A. Radiation type
B. Mercury temperature
C. Pyrometer
D. Thermoelectric

69. What is the approximate temperature of the first visible “red heat”?
A. 100° C
B. 312° C
C. 500° C
D. 273° C

70. What refers to the strong repulsion between the positively charged nuclei which makes
fusion reaction difficult attain?
A. Atomic repulsion
B. Nuclear repulsion
C. Coulomb repulsion
D. Charge repulsion

71. What gas thermometer is based on the principle that at low pressure, the temperature of a
gas is proportional to its pressure as constant volume?
A. Constant- pressure gas thermometer
B. Isobaric gas thermometer
C. Isometric gas thermometer
D. Constant- volume gas thermometer

72. All three phases of water coexist in equilibrium in which state?

A. Tripoint of water
B. Triple point of water
C. Triple phase point of water
D. Phase point of water
 203

73. What is the pressure of water at tripoint?

A. 0.00412 atm
B. 0.00592 atm
C. 0.00671 atm
D. 0.00781 atm

74. What is defined as the force per unit area?

A. Pressure
B. Energy
C. Work
D. Power

75. The unit “pascal” is equivalent to _____.

A.
B.
C. N- m
D. N- m2

76. Which of the following is NOT a value of the standard atmosphere pressure?
A. 1 bar
B. 1 atm
C. A kgf/ cm2
D. 14. 223 psi

77. What is the SI unit of pressure?

A. Atm
B. Bar
C. Pa
D. Psi

78. 1 bar is equivalent to how many pascals?

A. 103
B. 104
C. 105
D. 106
 204

79. 1 atm is equivalent to how many pascals?

A. 101, 325
B. 101, 689
C. 101, 102
D. 101, 812

80. What is considered as the actual pressure at a given position and is measured relative to
absolute vacuum?
A. Gage pressure
B. Absolute pressure
C. Atmospheric pressure
D. Vacuum pressure

81. What is the pressure below atmospheric pressure called?

A. Gage pressure
B. Absolute pressure
C. Atmospheric pressure
D. Vacuum pressure

82. The difference between the absolute pressure and the atmosphere pressure is called the
______ pressure.
A. Gage
B. Normal
C. Standard
D. Vacuum

83. Which of the following is NOT an instrument used to measure pressure?

A. Bourdon tube
B. Pitot tube
C. Aneroid
D. Manometer

84. What instrument is used to measure atmospheric pressure?

A. Bourdon tube
B. Pitot tube
C. Aneroid
D. Manometer
 205

85. Another unit used to measure atmospheric pressure is the torr “. This is named after the
Italian physicist. Evangelista Torricelli. An average atmospheric pressure is how many
torr?
A. 740
B. 750
C. 760
D. 770

86. What states that for a confined fluid, the pressure at a point has the same magnitude in all
directions?
A. Avogadro‟s law
B. Amagat law
C. Pascal‟s law
D. Bernoulli‟s theorem

87. What pressure measuring device, consists of a coiled hollow tube that tends to straighten
out when the tube is a subjected to an internal pressure?
A. Aneroid
B. Manometer
C. Bourdon pressure gage
D. Barometer

88. What is an energy that can be transferred from one object to another causing a change in
temperature of each object?
A. Power
B. Heat transfer
C. Heat
D. Work

89. What is the SI unit of energy?

A. Newton
B. BTU
C. Calorie
D. Joule
 206

90. One joule is equivalent to one _____.

A.

B.

C.
D.

91. One calorie is equivalent to how many joules?

A. 4.448
B. 4.184
C. 4.418
D. 4.814

92. One erg is equivalent to how many joules?

A. 10-8
B. 10-7
C. 10-6
D. 10-5

93. The first law of thermodynamics is the:

A. Law of conservation of momentum
B. Law of conservation of mass
C. Law of conservation of power
D. Law of conservation of energy

94. What is the study of energy and its transformations?

A. Thermostatics
B. Thermophysics
C. Thermochemistry
D. Thermodynamics

95. What is considered as the heat content of a system?

A. Enthalpy
B. Entropy
C. Internal heat
D. Molar heat
 207

96. The thermodynamic variable that is a function of enthalpy and entropy of the system is
the _____
A. Thomson‟s
B. Young‟s
C. Gibb‟s
D. Miller‟s

97. Fba
A. Enthalpy and temperature
B. Enthalpy and pressure
C. Entropy and volume
D. Entropy and temperature

98. What theorem states that “the total property of a mixture of ideal gases is the sum of the
properties that the individual gases would have if each occupied the same temperature”?
A. Amagat‟s theorem
B. Azamat‟s theorem
C. Dulong and petit theorem
D. Gibb‟s theorem

99. What refers to the amount of heat needed to raise the temperature of an object by one
degree Celsius or 1K?
A. Heat capacity
B. Specific heat
C. Latent heat
D. Molar heat

100. What is the heat capacity of one mole of a substance?

A. Molecular heat
B. Specific heat
C. Latent heat
D. Molar heat
101. What is the heat capacity of one gram of a substance?
A. Molecular heat
B. Specific heat
C. Latent heat
D. Molar heat
 208

102. For specific heat values, to change Btu/ lbm- ° F to kJ/ kg- K, multiply the value
by what number?
A. 4. 1868
B. 4. 2318
C. 4. 3168
D. 4. 4898

103. Which of the following has the highest specific heat?

A. Lead
B. Water
C. Mercury
D. Silver

104. What refers to the product of the mass of the body and its specific heat?
A. Thermal factor
B. Thermal density
C. Thermal index
D. Thermal capacity

105. What refers to the energy that changes the temperature of a substance?
A. Molar heat
B. Specific heat
C. Latent heat
D. Sensible heat

106. “The enthalpy change for any chemical reaction is independent of the
intermediate stages, provided the initial and final conditions are the same for each route.”
This statement is known as:
A. Dulong‟ s law
B. Dalton‟s law
C. Hess‟ s law
D. Petit law

107. What refers to the measure of the disorder present in a given substance or system?
A. Enthalpy
B. Entropy
C. Heat capacity
D. Molar heat
 209

108. Entropy is measured in ______.

A.
B.
C.
D.

109. _____ is a measure of the energy that is no longer available to perform useful
work within the current environment.
A. Relative entropy
B. Absolute entropy
C. Relative enthalpy
D. Absolute enthalpy

110. What is the energy absorbed during chemical reaction under constant volume
conditions?
A. Entropy
B. Ion exchange
C. Enthalpy
D. Enthalpy of reaction

111. When water exists in the liquid phase and is not about to vaporize, it is considered
as _____ liquid.
A. Saturated
B. Compressed or subcooled
C. Superheated
D. Unsaturated

112. A liquid that is about to vaporize is called _____ liquid.

A. Saturated
B. Compressed or subcooled
C. Superheated
D. Unsaturated

113. A vapor that is about to condense is called _____ vapor.

A. Saturated
B. Compressed or subcooled
C. Superheated
D. Unsaturated
 210

114. A vapor that is not about to condense is called _____ vapor.

A. Saturated
B. Compressed or subcooled
C. Superheated
D. Unsaturated

115. What substance has a fixed chemical composition?

A. Monoatomic substance
B. Heterogeneous substance
C. Homogeneous substance
D. Pure substance

116. What refers to the temperature at which a pure substance changes phase, at a
given pressure?
A. Equilibrium temperature
B. Saturation temperature
C. Superheated temperature
D. Subcooled temperature

117. What refers to the pressure at which a pure substance changes phase, at a given
temperature?
A. Equilibrium pressure
B. Saturation pressure
C. Superheated pressure
D. Subcooled pressure

118. What is the amount of heat needed to turn 1 kg of the substance at its melting
point from the solid to the liquid state?
A. Heat of fusion
B. Heat of vaporation
C. Heat of condensation
D. Heat of fission

119. What is the amount of heat needed to turn 1 kg of the substance at boiling point
from the liquid to the gaseous state?
A. Heat of fusion
B. Heat of vaporation
C. Heat of condensation
D. Heat of fission
 211

120. What refers to the amount of energy absorbed or released during a phase- change
process?
A. Molar heat
B. Latent heat
C. Vaporization heat
D. Condensation heat

121. What is the heat of fusion of ice in cal/ g?

A. 80
B. 90
C. 60
D. 70

122. What is the heat of fusion of ice in Btu/ lb?

A. 134
B. 144
C. 154
D. 164

123. What is the latent heat of fusion of water at 1 atm?

A. 331. 1 kJ/ kg
B. 332. 6 kJ/ kg
C. 333. 7 kJ/ kg
D. 330. 7 kJ/ kg

124. What is the latent heat of vaporization of water at 1 atm?

A. 2314. 8 kJ/ kg
B. 2257. 1 kJ/ kg
C. 2511. 7 kJ/ kg
D. 2429. 8 kJ/ kg

125. What is the heat of vaporization of water at its normal boiling point in Btu/ lb?
A. 940
B. 950
C. 960
D. 970
 212

126. Which of the following can raise the boiling point of a liquid?
A. Increase the heat supply
B. Increase the pressure
C. Add more liquid
D. Reduce the pressure

127. What is the reason why latent heat is considered “hidden”?

A. Because it is a form of internal kinetic energy.
B. Because it goes into or come out of internal potential energy
C. Because it does not actually exist.
D. All of the above

128. What is the freezing point of water in absolute temperature?

A. 0K
B. 273 K
C. -273 K
D. 4K

129. What refers to the point at which the saturated liquid and saturated vapor states
are the same or identical?
A. Triple point
B. Inflection point
C. Maximum point
D. Critical point

130. What is defined as the direct conversion of a substance from the solid to the vapor
state, or vice versa, without passing the liquid state?
A. Condensation
B. Vaporization
C. Sublimation
D. Cryogenation

131. The amount heat required to raise the temperature of 1 kg of water through 1° C is
called _____.
A. Calorie
B. Joule
C. BTU
D. Kilocalorie
 213

132. The amount heat required to raise the temperature of 1 pound of water by 1° F is
called _____.
A. Calorie
B. Joule
C. BTU
D. Kilocalorie

133. 1 British thermal unit (BTU) is equivalent to how many joules?

A. 1016
B. 1043
C. 1023
D. 1054

134. Which of the following is a set of common units of heat?

A. Calorie, BTU, Joule/ C
B. Calorie, Weber, BTU
C. BTU, Joule, Weber
D. Calorie, Joule, BTU

135. The term “enthalpy” comes from Greek “enthalpien” which means _____.
A. Warm
B. Hot
C. Heat
D. Cold

136. The ratio of the mass of vapor to the total mass of the mixture is called _____.
A. Vapor ratio
B. Vapor content
C. Vapor index
D. Quality

137. The “equation of state” refers to any equation that relates the _____ of the
substance.
A. Pressure and temperature
B. Pressure, temperature and specific weight
C. Temperature and specific weight
D. Pressure, temperature and specific volume
 214

138. In the equation Pv= RT, the constant of proportionality R is known as _____.
A. Universal gas constant
B. Gas constant
C. Ideal gas factor
D. Gas index

139. The gas constant of a certain gas is the ratio of:

A. Universal gas constant to molar mass
B. Universal gas constant to atomic weight
C. Universal gas constant to atomic number
D. Universal gas constant to number of moles

140. What is the value of the universal gas constant in kJ/ kmol· K?
A. 10. 73
B. 1. 986
C. 8. 314
D. 1545

141. What is the value of the universal gas constant in Btu/ lbmole- °R?
A. 10. 73
B. 1. 986
C. 8. 314
D. 1545

142. The mass of one mole of a substance in grams is known as _____.

A. Molar weight
B. Molar mass
C. Molar volume
D. Molar constant

143. What is defined as the energy required to raise the temperature of a unit mass of a
substance by one degree?
A. Latent heat of fusion
B. Molar heat
C. Specific heat capacity
D. Specific heat
 215

144. The _____ of a substance is the amount of heat that must be added or removed
from a unit mass of the substance to change its temperature by one degree.
A. Latent heat of fusion
B. Molar heat
C. Specific heat capacity
D. Specific heat

145. What is the specific heat capacity of water in J/ kg· °C?

A. 4581
B. 4185
C. 4518
D. 4815

146. What is the SI unit of specific heat capacity?

A. J/ kg
B. J/ kg·°F
C. J/ kg·°C
D. J/°C

147. What is constant for a substance that is considered “incompressible”?

A. Specific volume of density
B. Pressure
C. Temperature
D. All of the above

148. If there is no heat transferred during the process, it is called a _____ process.
A. Static
B. Isobaric
C. Polytropic
D. Adiabatic

149. The term “adiabatic” comes from Greek “aduabatos” which means _____.
A. No heat
B. No transfer
C. Not to be passed
D. No transformation
 216

150. How is heat transferred?

A. By conduction
B. By convection
C. By radiation
D. All of the above

151. Which is true about mode of heat transfer in core reactors?

A. It occurs mostly in air and in water.
B. It occurs only in air.
C. It occurs only in water.
D. It rarely occur in non- metals.

152. What refers to the transfer of energy due to the emission of electromagnetic
waves or photons?
A. Conduction
B. Convection
C. Radiation
D. Electrification

153. What refers to the transfer of energy between a solid surface and the adjacent
fluid that is in motion?
A. Conduction
B. Convection
C. Radiation
D. Electrification

154. What refers to the transfer of energy from the more energetic particles of a
substance to the adjacent less energetic ones as a result of interaction between particles?
A. Conduction
B. Convection
C. Radiation
D. Electrification

155. Energy transfer is classified as what function?

A. Polytropic function
B. Point function
C. Intrinsic function
D. Extrinsic function
 217

156. What states that the net mass transfers to or from a system during a process is
equal to the net change in the total mass of the system during that process?
A. Third law of thermodynamics
B. Conservation of energy principle
C. Second law of thermodynamics
D. Conservation of mass principle

157. Which statement is TRUE for an ideal gas, but not for a real gas?
A. PV= nRT
B. An increase in temperature causes an increase in the kinetic energy of the gas.
C. The total volume of molecules on a gas is nearly the same as the volume of the gas as
a whole.
D. No attractive force exists between the molecules of a gas.

158. How does an adiabatic process compare to an isentropic process?

A. Adiabatic: heat transfer is not equal to zero; isentropic: heat transfer is zero.
B. Both: heat transfer= 0; isentropic: reversible.
C. Adiabatic: heat transfer= 0; isentropic: heat transfer is not equal to zero.
D. Both: heat transfer is not equal to zero; isentropic: irreversible.

159. Which of the following cannot be used to supply heat to a thermodynamics

system?
A. Convection of heat
B. Conduction of heat
C. Adiabatic heat expansion
D. Radiation of heat

160. Which of the following is the Ideal gas law (equation)?

A.
B.
C.
D.

161. What is a measure of the ability of a material to conduct heat?

A. Specific heat
B. Coefficient of thermal expansion
C. Coefficient of thermal conductivity
D. Thermal conductivity
 218

162. What refers to the heating of the earth‟s atmosphere not caused by direct sunlight
by infrared light radiated by the surface and absorbed mainly by atmospheric carbon
dioxide?
A. Greenhouse effect
B. Global warming
C. Thermal rise effect
D. Ozone effect

163. What is a form of mechanical work which is related with the expansion and
compression of substances?
A. Boundary work
B. Thermodynamic work
C. Phase work
D. System work

164. Thermal radiation is an electromagnetic radiation with wavelengths in _____

range.
A. 1 to 100 µm
B. 0. 1 to 100 µm
C. 0. 1 to 10 µm
D. 10 to 100 µm

165. What refers to the rate of thermal radiation emitter per unit area of a body?
A. Thermal conductivity
B. Absorptivity
C. Emissivity
D. Emissive power

166. What states that for any two bodies in thermal equilibrium, the ratio of emissive
power to absorptivity is equal?
A. Kirchhoff‟ s radiation law
B. Newton‟ s law of cooling
C. Stefan- Boltzmann law
D. Hess‟s law
 219

167. “For small temperature differences, the rate of cooling due to conduction,
convection and radiation combined is proportional to the difference in temperature.” This
is known as ______.
A. Newton‟s law of cooling
B. Plank‟s law of cooling
C. Stefan‟s law of cooling
D. Boltzmann‟s law of cooling

168. What is considered as a perfect absorber as well as a perfect emitter?

A. Gray body
B. Black body
C. Real body
D. White body

169. What is a body that emits a constant emissivity regardless of the wavelength?
A. Gray body
B. Black body
C. Real body
D. White body

170. What law states that the ratio of the emissive power to the absorptive power of all
bodies, is the same and is equal to the emissive power of a perfect black body?
A. Newton‟ law
B. Boltzmann‟ s law
C. Pascal‟s law
D. Kirchhoff‟s law

171. At same temperature, the radiation emitted by all real surface is _____ the
radiation emitted by a black body.
A. Less than
B. Greater than
C. Equal to
D. Either less than or greater than

172. Which is NOT a characteristic of emissivity?

A. It is high with most nonmetals.
B. It is directly proportional to temperature.
C. It is independent with the surface condition of the material.
D. It is low with highly polished metals.
 220

173. What is the emissivity of a black body?

A. 0
B. 1
C. 0. 5
D. 0. 25

174. What is the absorptivity of a black body?

A. 0
B. 1
C. 0. 5
D. 0. 25

175. What is sometimes known as the “Fourth- power law”?

A. Kirchhoff‟s radiation law
B. Newton‟ s law of cooling
C. Stefan- Boltzmann law
D. Hess‟ s law

176. What states that the net change in the total energy of the system during a process
is equal to the difference between the total energy entering and the total energy leaving
the system during that process?
A. Third law of thermodynamics
B. Conservation of energy principle
C. Second law of thermodynamics
D. Conservation of mass principle

177. The equation is known as _____.

A. Energy conservation
B. Energy equation
C. Energy balance
D. Energy conservation equation

178. What remains constant during a steady- flow process?

A. Mass
B. Energy content of the control volume
C. Temperature
D. Mass and energy content of the control volume
 221

179. Thermal efficiency is the ratio of:

A. Net work input to total heat input
B. Net work output to total heat output
C. Net work output to total heat input
D. Net work input to total heat output

180. What law states that it is impossible to operate an engine operating in a cycle that
will have no other effect than to extract heat from a reservoir and turn it in not an
equivalent amount of work?
A. Zeroth law of thermodynamics
B. First law of thermodynamics
C. Second law of thermodynamics
D. Third law of thermodynamics

181. Which statement of the second law of thermodynamics states that no heat engine
can have a thermal efficiency of 100 percent?
A. Kelvin- Planck statement
B. Clausius statement
C. Kevin statement
D. Rankine statement

182. What is the ratio of the useful heat extracted to heating value?
A. Combustion of efficiency
B. Phase efficiency
C. Heat efficiency
D. Work efficiency

183. What is defined as the ratio of the net electrical power output to the rate of fuel
energy input?
A. Combustion of efficiency
B. Thermal efficiency
C. Overall efficiency
D. Furnace efficiency

184. What refers to the amount of heat removed from the cooled space in BTS‟s for 1
watt- hour of electricity consumed?
A. Cost efficiency rating
B. Energy efficiency rating
C. Coefficient of performance
D. Cost of performance
 222

185. What law states that it is impossible to build a device that operates in a cycle and
produces no effect other than the transfer of heat from a lower- temperature body a
higher- temperature body?
A. Zeroth law of thermodynamics
B. First law of thermodynamics
C. Second law of thermodynamics
D. Third law of thermodynamics

186. What statement of the second law of thermodynamics states that it is impossible
to build a device that operates in a cycle and produces no effect other than the transfer of
heat from a lower- temperature body a higher- temperature body?
A. Kelvin- Planck statement
B. Clausius statement
C. Kevin statement
D. Rankine statement

187. A device that violates either the first law of thermodynamics or the second law of
thermodynamics is known as _____.
A. Ambiguous machine
B. Universal machine
C. Perpetual- motion machine
D. Unique machine

188. A device that violates the first law of thermo dynamics is called a _____.
A. Perpetual- motion machine of the first kind
B. Universal machine of the first kind
C. Ambiguous machine of the first kind
D. Unique machine of the first kind

189. A device that violates the second law of thermo dynamics is called a _____.
A. Perpetual- motion machine of the first kind
B. Universal machine of the first kind
C. Ambiguous machine of the first kind
D. Unique machine of the first kind

190. Carnot cycle is the best known reversible cycle which was proposed in what year?
A. 1842
B. 1824
C. 1832
D. 1834
 223

191. Who proposed the Carnot cycle?

A. Sammy Carnot
B. Sonny Carnot
C. Sadi Carnot
D. Suri Carnot

192. The Carnot cycle is composed of how many reversible processes?

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

193. The Carnot cycle is composed of _____ processes.

A. One isothermal and one adiabatic
B. One isothermal and two adiabatic
C. Two isothermal and one adiabatic
D. Two isothermal and two adiabatic

194. If a Carnot cycle is made to run backwards, it will work as a _____.

A. An aircon unit
B. A heat turbine
C. A liquid pump
D. A refrigerator

195. What is the highest efficiency of heat engine operating between the two thermal
energy reservoirs at temperature limits?
A. Ericson efficiency
B. Otto efficiency
C. Carnot efficiency
D. Stirling efficiency

196. What is a heat engine that operates on two reversible Carnot cycle called?
A. Carnot heat engine
B. Ideal heat engine
C. Most efficient heat engine
D. Best heat engine
 224

197. The efficiency of any engine is _____ the Carnot efficiency if the process is
_____.
A. Less than, irreversible
B. Greater than, irreversible
C. Greater than, reversible
D. Less than, reversible

198. Which states that the thermal efficiencies of all reversible heat engines operating
between the same two reservoirs are the same and that no heat engine is more efficient
than a reversible one operating between the same two reservoirs?
A. Ericson principle
B. Carnot principle
C. Otto principle
D. Stirling principle

199. The automobile engine works in a cyclic thermodynamic process consisting of

five steps. What is the third step?
A. Power stroke
B. Exhaust stroke
C. Ignition
D. Compression

200. Who discovered the thermodynamic property “Entropy” in 1865?

A. Zeroth law of thermodynamics
B. First law of thermodynamics
C. Second law of thermodynamics
D. Third law of thermodynamics

201. A process during which entropy remains constant is called _____ process.
A. Isometric
B. Isochoric
C. Isobaric
D. Isentropic

202. “A reversible adiabatic process is necessarily isentropic but an isentropic process

is not necessarily reversible adiabatic process.” This statement is:
A. True
B. False
C. May be true may be false
D. Absurd
 225

203. The term “isentropic process” used in thermodynamics implies what?

A. Reversible adiabatic process
B. Externally reversible, adiabatic process
C. Internally reversible, adiabatic process
D. Irreversible, adiabatic process

204. What states that the entropy of a pure crystalline substance at absolute xero
temperature is zero?
A. Zeroth law of thermodynamics
B. First law of thermodynamics
C. Second law of thermodynamics
D. Third law of thermodynamics

205. What law provides an absolute reference point for the determination of entropy?
A. Zeroth law of thermodynamics
B. First law of thermodynamics
C. Second law of thermodynamics
D. Third law of thermodynamics

206. “The entropy change of a system during a process is equal to the net entropy
transfer through the system boundary and the entropy generated within the system”. This
statement is known as:
A. Entropy generation
B. Entropy change of a system
C. Entropy balance relation
D. Third law of thermodynamics

207. What law staes that entropy can be created but it cannot be destroyed?
A. Zeroth law of thermodynamics
B. First law of thermodynamics
C. Second law of thermodynamics
D. Third law of thermodynamics

208. Entropy is transferred by _____.

A. Work
B. Heat
C. Energy
D. Work and heat
 226

209. During adiabatic, internally reversible process, what is true about the change in
entropy?
A. It is temperature- dependent
B. It is always that zero
C. It is always zero
D. It is always less than zero

210. Water boils when:

A. Its saturated vapor pressure equals to the atmospheric pressure.
B. Its vapor pressure equals 76 cm of mercury
C. Its temperature reaches 212 degree Celsius
D. Its vapor pressure is 1 gram per sq. cm

211. Which of the following is standard temperature and pressure (STP) ?

A. O degree Celsius and one atmosphere
B. 32 degree Fahrenheit and zero pressure
C. O degree Kelvin and one atmosphere
D. O degree Fahrenheit and zero pressure

212. What is defined as the temperature at which carbon or graphite undergoes a

weight loss of less than 1 percent in 24 hours when exposed to the atmosphere?
A. Threshold temperature
B. Thermal decay
C. Oxidizing temperature
D. Specific temperature

213. The temperature of a gas is proportional to .

A. The average kinetic energy of the gas molecules
B. The internal potential energy of the gas
C. The number of gas molecules in a sample
D. The average velocity of the gas molecules

214. What is the value of the work done for a closed, reversible isometric system?
A. Zero
B. Positive
C. Negative
D. Positive or negative
 227

215. “At constant temperature, the volume of a gas in inversely proportional to the
pressure”. This is known as _____.
A. Boyle‟ s law
B. Charle‟ s law
C. Gay- Lusaac law
D. Ideal gas law

216. Which of the following is the mathematical representation of the Charles‟ s law?
A.

B.

C.
√
D.
√

217. The gas law formula P= kT where P is pressure, k is the constant of

proportionality and T is temperature in Kelvin, is also known as _____.
A. Gay- Lusaac‟ s law
B. Boyle‟ s law
C. Charle‟ s law
D. Graham‟ s law

218. Which of the following is the formula for thermal resistance?

A.

B.

C.
D. Thickness of material x thermal conductivity of material

219. In the process of radiation, energy is carried by electromagnetic waves. What is

the speed of electromagnetic waves?
A. 182, 000 miles/ second
B. 184, 000 miles/ second
C. 186, 000 miles/ second
D. 188, 000 miles/ second
 228

220. For heat engine operating between two temperatures (T1>T2), what is the
maximum efficiency attainable?
A.

B.
C.
D.

E.
221. The work that a heat engine is able to accomplish is ideally equivalent to the
_____.
A. Sum of heat input and heat output
B. Difference between the heat supplied and the heat rejected
C. Heat extracted from the exhaust
D. Heat produced in the cycle

222. Which one is the correct relation between energy efficiency ratio (EER) and
coefficient of performance (COP)?
A. EER= 2. 34 COP
B. EER= 3. 24 COP
C. EER= 3. 42 COP
D. EER= 4. 23 COP

223. The coefficient of performance (COP) is the ratio between the:

A. Power consumption in watts and heat absorbed per hour
B. Heat absorbed per hour and the power consumption in watts
C. Work required and the absorbed heat
D. Absorbed heat and the work required

224. What predicts the approximate molar specific heat at high temperatures from the
atomic weight?
A. Third law of thermodynamics
B. Law of Dulong and Petit
C. Mollier diagram
D. Pressure- enthalpy diagram
 229

225. Considering one mole of any gas, the equation of state of ideal gases is simply
the __________ law.
A. Gay-Lussac
B. Dulong and Petit
C. Avogadro‟s
D. Henry‟s

226. An ideal gas whose specific heats are constant is called ___________.
A. Perfect gas
B. Natural gas
C. Artificial gas
D. Refined gas

227. What are the assumptions of the kinetic gas theory?

A. Gas molecules do not attract each other.
B. The volume of the gas molecules are negligible compared to the volume of the gas.
C. The molecules behave like hard spheres.
D. All of the above.

228. The kinetic gas theory also assumes that the container volume is _________ that
interactions with the wall are not a predominant activity of the molecules.
A. Large enough
B. Just enough
C. Small
D. Too small

229. “The total volume of a mixture of nonreacting gases is equal to the sum of the
partial volume”. The statement is known as ___________.
A. Law of Dulong and Petit
B. Maxwell-Boltzmann law
C. Amagat‟s law
D. Avogadro‟s law

230. An adiabatic process in which there is no change in system enthalpy but for
which there is a significant decrease in pressure is called _______________.
A. Isochoric process
B. Isobaric process
C. Throttling process
D. Quasistatic process
 230

231. What is defined as the ratio of the change in temperature to the change in pressure
when a real gas is throttled?
A. Rankine coefficient
B. Kelvin coefficient
C. Maxwell-Boltzmann coefficient
D. Joule-Thomson coefficient

232. The low temperature of reservoir of heat reservoirs is known as ___________.

A. Source reservoir
B. Heel reservoir
C. Toe reservoir
D. Sink reservoir

233. A ___________is a flow in which the gas flow is adiabatic and frictionless and
entropy change is zero.
A. Isentropic flow
B. Isobaric flow
C. Steady flow
D. Uniform flow

234. What refers to the minimum temperature in which combustion can be sustained?
A. Burn temperature
B. Kindle temperature
C. Spark temperature
D. Ignition temperature

235. The ____________ is the temperature in which the water vapour in the flue gas
begins to condense in a constant pressure process.
A. Tripoint
B. Dew point
C. Vapour point
D. Gas point

236. What law predicts the dew point of moisture in the flue gas?
A. Dalton‟s law
B. Law of Dulong and Petit
C. Ringelman law
D. Avagat‟s law
 231

237. If the temperature of an ideal gas is doubled and pressure is held constant, the
rms speed of the molecules is ___________ the original speed.
A. The square root of two times
B. Two times
C. Four times
D. The same as

238. Which is not a correct statement?

A. A superheated vapour will not condense when small amount of heat are removed.
B. An ideal gas is a gas that is not a superheated vapour.
C. A saturated liquid can absorb as much heat as it can without vaporizing.
D. Water at 1 atm and room temperature is subcooled.

239. The amount of water which require the same amount of heat as the substance to
be heated through the same temperature is called ______________ of a substance.
A. Water equivalent
B. Water coefficient
C. Water gradient
D. Water relativity

240. What two elements are used in thermocouple in order to produce higher thermo-
electromotive force?
A. Antimony and Bismuth
B. Bismuth and Boron
C. Antimony and Boron
D. Antimony and Argon

241. How are engines that use gas as fuel classified?

A. Otto engines
B. Internal combustion engines
C. External combustion engines
D. Carnot engines

242. Considering the thermodynamic equation Q – W = ΔU, where Q = heat,

W = work, and U is the internal energy, which of the statements is correct?
A. Work and heat transfer represent energy crossing a boundary
B. Work and heat transfer are integral of a path.
C. For a given cycle, the net work and heat transfer are equal
D. All of the above.
 232

243. An increase in temperature of a reaction will result in an increase of

__________________.
A. The kinetic energy of molecules
B. The activation energy
C. The saturation energy
D. All of the above

244. Which of the following explains the theory of combustion as a result of loss of a
substance?
A. Burning
B. Fission
C. Phlogiston
D. Combustion

245. Which one refers to the statement that no heat engine can have a thermal
efficiency of 100% or as far as a power plant operates is concern, the working fluid must
exchange heat with the environment as well as the furnace?
A. Kelvin-Planck statement
B. Planck statement
C. Clausius-Planck statement
D. Kelvin statement

246. The equation T = dQ/dS (where Q is heat, T is temperature and S in entropy) is

used in what process?
A. Adiabatic process
B. Isometric process
C. Irreversible process
D. Reversible process

247. The variation of heat of reaction with temperature is best described in

_____________ equation.
A. Hoff‟s
B. Kirchhoff‟s
C. Joule‟s
D. Van der Waal‟s
 233

248. Who developed the third law of thermodynamics during the years 1906-1912?
A. Gilbert Lewis
B. Merle Randall
C. Walther Nernst
D. Martin Goldstein
 234

ANSWER KEYS

1. A 40. B 79. A 118. A

2. B 41. A 80. B 119. B
3. A 42. C 81. D 120. B
4. B 43. C 82. A 121. A
5. D 44. B 83. B 122. B
6. C 45. B 84. C 123. C
7. B 46. C 85. C 124. B
8. B 47. D 86. C 125. D
9. A 48. B 87. C 126. B
10. C 49. B 88. C 127. B
11. D 50. A 89. D 128. B
12. C 51. D 90. B 129. D
13. C 52. A 91. B 130. C
14. D 53. C 92. B 131. D
15. D 54. B 93. D 132. C
16. A 55. D 94. D 133. D
17. B 56. B 95. A 134. D
18. B 57. A 96. C 135. C
19. A 58. D 97. D 136. D
20. B 59. B 98. D 137. D
21. A 60. A 99. A 138. B
22. B 61. C 100. D 139. A
23. A 62. A 101. B 140. C
24. B 63. D 102. A 141. B
25. C 64. A 103. B 142. B
26. D 65. A 104. D 143. D
27. A 66. A 105. D 144. C
28. B 67. D 106. C 145. B
29. A 68. C 107. B 146. C
30. B 69. C 108. A 147. A
31. B 70. C 109. B 148. D
32. A 71. D 110. D 149. C
33. A 72. B 111. B 150. D
34. C 73. B 112. A 151. A
35. D 74. A 113. A 152. C
36. A 75. A 114. C 153. B
37. B 76. D 115. D 154. A
38. D 77. C 116. B 155. B
39. A 78. C 117. B 156. D
 235

157. A 180. C 203. C 226. A

158. B 181. A 204. D 227. D
159. C 182. A 205. D 228. A
160. D 183. C 206. C 229. C
161. D 184. B 207. C 230. C
162. A 185. C 208. B 231. D
163. A 186. B 209. C 232. D
164. B 187. C 210. A 233. A
165. D 188. A 211. A 234. D
166. A 189. A 212. A 235. B
167. A 190. B 213. A 236. A
168. B 191. C 214. A 237. A
169. A 192. C 215. A 238. B
170. D 193. D 216. B 239. A
171. A 194. D 217. A 240. C
172. C 195. C 218. A 241. B
173. B 196. A 219. C 242. D
174. B 197. A 220. A 243. A
175. C 198. B 221. B 244. C
176. B 199. C 222. C 245. A
177. C 200. C 223. D 246. D
178. D 201. D 224. B 247. B
179. C 202. A 225. C 248. C
 236

THERMODYNAMICS PROBLEMS

1. A chef heated a bowl of soup of 30° C to 45° C, what is the change in temperature in
the Fahrenheit scale?

A. 15° C
B. 27° C
C. 30° C
D. 42° C

2. A new temperature scale is being developed in a certain laboratory. On this new scale, the
freezing point of water and the boiling point of water are 150° X and 300° X,
respectively. What is the temperature in the Fahrenheit- scale that is equivalent to 470°
X?
A. 200° C
B. 206. 7° C
C. 213. 3° C
D. 219. 8° C

3. What is the new length of the bar made of pure gold at 75° C if it has a length of 0. 3
meters at 10° C?
A. 0. 30273 m
B. 0. 3273 m
C. 0. 30385 m
D. 0. 3385 m

4. A steel tank is filled 15 gallons of gasoline when the temperature is 22° C. The tank and
the gasoline inside are then heated by the Sun‟ s rays to a temperature of 40° C. How
much of the gasoline will spill from the tank? (αsteel= 12 x 10-6; βgasoline= 0. 95 x 10-3)
A. 0. 1389 gallons
B. 0. 1938 gallons
C. 0. 2479 gallons
D. 0. 2565 gallons

5. What is the increase in temperature necessary for a hydrogen gas, initially at 0° C, to

increase its volume by 5% at constant pressure?
A. 4. 5° C
B. 7. 8° C
C. 12. 5° C
D. 13. 7° C
 237

6. On a very hot day in Manila, an oil tanker loaded 50, 000 liters of fuel. It traveled to
Baguio, which was 20 K colder than Manila. How many liters were delivered to Baguio
(βgasoline= 0. 95 x 10-3)
A. 49, 000 liters
B. 49, 050 liters
C. 50, 950 liters
D. 51, 000 liters

7. For breakfast, a 100- kg student ate 2 slices of bacon (35 calories each), scrambled egg (75
calories each) and 2 pieces of bread (70 calories each). Aside from that, he also drank 1
glass of milk (165 calories). Believing that this is getting him fat, he wishes to do an
equivalent amount of work at school by using the stairs on his way to the classrooms.
Assuming that one step of the stairways is 0. 2 meters, how many steps must he make?
A. 5000 steps
B. 6500 steps
C. 8000 steps
D. 9600 steps

8. How much heat (calories) is requires to raise the the temperature of 5 liters of acetone
from 20° C to 40° C? (Density of acetone is 0. 58 grams per cubic centimeter; specific
heat of methyl alcohol is 2118 J/ kg- deg)
A. 25 kcal
B. 29 kcal
C. 32 kcal
D. 40 kcal

9. A tank contains 2. 0 kg of water at 25° C. Into this tank, a person dropped a 0. 90- kg
piece of metal that has a temperature of 75° C. What will be the equilibrium temperature
of the mixture? (Specific heat of the metal is 448 J/ kg- deg)
A. 27. 3° C
B. 29. 5° C
C. 34. 6° C
D. 38. 1° C
 238

10. A glass beaker has a mass of 200 g and a heat capacity of 0. 2 kcal/ kg-° C. After 500 g of
water is poured into the beaker, the system is allowed to reach a temperature of 25° C.
Next, 400 g of ethyl alcohol (heat capacity of 0. 572 kcal/ kg-° C) at 70° C is poured into
the beaker. If there are no heat losses from the beaker- water alcohol system, what will be
the final temperature?
A. 38. 4° C
B. 40. 2° C
C. 42. 4° C
D. 45. 8° C

11. How much heat is required to raise the temperature of 1 mol of nitrogen gas by 1 degree
at constant pressure? (Cp= 1037 J/ kg-° C; Cv= 739 J/ kg-° C)
A. 25 J
B. 29 J
C. 38 J
D. 45 J

12. How much heat is required to transform a 500- gram ice at -15° C into liquid water at 55°
C?
A. 280 kJ
B. 297 kJ
C. 304 kJ
D. 453 kJ

13. A 5- liter amount of water at a temperature of 25° C will be raised to what temperature if
3000 calories of heat is applied?
A. 25. 05° C
B. 25. 15° C
C. 25. 60° C
D. 25. 45° C

14. What is the specific heat of an unknown substance if the temperature of 30° C doubles
after applying an energy rated at 50 kilocalories?
A. 1. 67 kcal/ kg° C
B. 2. 14 kcal/ kg° C
C. 2. 56 kcal/ kg° C
D. 3. 12 kcal/ kg° C
 239

15. Using the first law of thermodynamics, what is the change in internal energy of a
substance if it does 300 J of work while absorbing 450 J of heat?
A. 150 J
B. 300 J
C. 450 J
D. 700 J

16. What is the change in internal energy of an ice with mass of 0. 5 kg that is melted at
freezing point and its transformed to water at 10° C?
A. 135. 6 J
B. 156. 8 J
C. 165. 7 J
D. 187. 4 J

17. What is the change in internal energy of an ideal gas if it expands by 20 liters after
applying 5 kJ of heat? Assume that this is a constant- pressure process?
A. 2. 03 kJ
B. 2. 97 kJ
C. 3. 75 kJ
D. 5. 00 kJ

18. Determine the work done on a 0. 5 m3 gas if it is compressed at constant temperature to 0.

3 m3. When the gas was at its initial state, the pressure was 5 atm while the temperature
was at 20° C room temperature?
A. -24. 56 kJ
B. -25. 13 kJ
C. -25. 88 kJ
D. -26. 78 kJ

19. How much heat is required to convert 4 kg of water at 20° C into vapor at 100° C?
A. 1. 34 kJ
B. 1. 34 kcal
C. 3. 17 kJ
D. 3. 17 kcal
 240

20. An aluminum rod has a diameter of 4 cm and a length 0f 0. 8 cm. One end of the rod is
placed in boiling water and the end is placed in an ice bath. How much heat in calories is
conducted through the bar in 1 minute? The thermal conductivity of aluminum is 205 J/
m- s- deg.
A. 4. 62 kcal
B. 8. 97 kcal
C. 15. 75 kcal
D. 19. 33 kcal

21. What temperature gradient must be applied to a gold bar (2 cm x 4 cm) if the heat flow is
to be 100 J/ s? The thermal conductivity of gold is 397 J/ m- s- deg.
A. 245 ° C/ m
B. 289 ° C/ m
C. 315 ° C/ m
D. 362 ° C/ m

22. An ordinary incandescent electric light bulb contains a fine tungsten wire that is heated to
a high temperature by passing an electric current through it. A typical filament has a
surface area of about 1 square centimeter ( 10-4 square meters) and is heated to a
temperature of approximately 2000 ° C. At this temperature, the emissivity of tungsten is
0. 30. What is the radiated power of the light bulb?
A. 35. 6 W
B. 39. 7 W
C. 45. 4 W
D. 49. 7 W

23. A gas cylinder contains 15 L of oxygen gas at room temperature and 15 atm. The
temperature is doubled and the volume is reduced to half of the original volume. What is
the final pressure (in atm) assuming the gas resembles ideal condition?
A. 7. 5 atm
B. 15. 8 atm
C. 32. 1 atm
. 44. 6 atm

24. An ideal gas at 100 ° F has a pressure 0f 32 psig. It is heated in a fixed, rigid and closed
vessel to raise its temperature of 160 ° F. what is its final pressure?
A. 24 psia
B. 52 psia
C. 64 psia
D. 67 psia
 241

25. What is the rms velocity of oxygen gas molecules at room temperature?
A. 274 m/ s
B. 478 m/ s
C. 696 m/ s
D. 773 m/ s

26. Compute the average kinetic energy in electron volts of any gas molecules at room
temperature?
A. 0. 038 eV
B. 0. 075 eV
C. 0. 135 eV
D. 0. 189 eV

27. A cylinder contains 5 mol of Hydrogen gas ( Cv= 12. 5 J/ mol- K and Cp= 20. 8 J/ mol-
K) at a temperature 0f 300 K. How much energy through heat is applied to the system,
for a constant- volume process, to double the temperature of the gas?
A. 3. 56 kJ
B. 4. 78 kJ
C. 5. 65 kJ
D. 6. 89 kJ

28. What is the mass of the air inside a closed vessel with dimensions 2. 5 m x 5 cm x 8 cm
at a temperature and pressure of 50° C and 500, 000 Pa, respectively?
A. 144 kg
B. 298 kg
C. 456 kg
D. 540 kg

29. An engine transfers 2500 J of energy from a hot reservoir during the cycle and transfers
2000 J of energy to the cold reservoir. What is the power output of the engine if it is
operates at 2000 revolutions per minute assuming there is one thermodynamic cycle per
revolution?
A. 16. 67 kW
B. 23. 33 kW
C. 43. 33 kW
D. 46. 67 kW
 242

30. What is the coefficient of performance of a brand new refrigerator which as a capacity of
3500 W and an input rating of 750 W?
A. 3. 56
B. 4. 67
C. 5. 87
D. 8. 93

31. What is the efficiency of a Carnot engine operating between 500° F and 1700° F?
A. 32%
B. 44%
C. 56%
D. 68%

32. A steam engine has a boiler that operates at 600 K. the energy from the burning fuel
changes water to steam, and this steam then drives the piston. The cold reservoir‟s
temperature is that of the outside air, which is estimated to be 300 K? What is the
maximum thermal efficiency of this steam engine?
A. 50%
B. 75%
C. 80%
D. 100%

33. The highest theoretical efficiency of a steam engine is 40%. If this engine uses the
atmosphere (300 K) as the cold reservoir, what is the temperature in Celsius of the hot
reservoir?
A. 227° C
B. 342° C
C. 458° C
D. 500° C

34. A piston- cylinder device contains liquid- vapor mixture at 300 K. During a constant
pressure process, 800 kJ of heat was transferred to the water. As a result, part of the
liquid in the cylinder vaporized. The change in entropy of the water during the whole
process is closest to which of the following values?
A. 0. 38
B. 1. 38
C. 2. 67
D. 4. 22
 243

35. What is the pressure in MPa of 75 kg of nitrogen gas confined to a volume of 0. 4 cubic
meters at 20° C?
A. 1. 52
B. 152
C. 15, 200
D. 152, 000

36. A 500- liter tank contains air at a pressure of 3 atm when the temperature is° C. What will
be the pressure if the tank is heated to a temperature of 120° C?
A. 3. 2 atm
B. 3. 8 atm
C. 4. 1 atm
D. 4. 3 atm

37. A high- altitude balloon that is designed to carry a 500- kg payload to an altitude of 30
km is filled with 400 cubic meters of helium at sea level when the temperature is 15° C.
How many times will the volume of the balloon increases when it reaches maximum
altitude? At an altitude of 30 km, the pressure is about 1% of the sea level pressure and
temperature may reach as low as -50 centigrade.
A. 34 times
B. 55 times
C. 62 times
D. 74 times

38. What is the Carnot engine efficiency if a certain heat engine is operated between 500° C
and 1600° C?
A. 31%
B. 41%
C. 59%
D. 69%

39. At a temperature of 20° C and a pressure of 7000 mm hg, there is 500- cm3 volume of air.
What will be the volume of the same amount of air if the temperature is lowered to 0° C
and the pressure is increased to 750 mm Hg?
A. 435 cm3
B. 520 cm3
C. 588 cm3
D. 607 cm3
 244

40. If 60, 000 gallons of water enters a heat exchanger and absorbs 30, 000, 000 BTU
resulting in an exit temperature of 150° F, what is the entrance water temperature?
A. 49° F
B. 62° F
C. 84° F
D. 90° F

41. What is the sonic velocity at 50, 000 feet altitude in the upper standard atmosphere with a
frequency of -70° F and a pressure of 1. 7 psi?
A. 560 ft/ s
B. 770 ft/ s
C. 840 ft/ s
D. 970 ft/ s

42. What is the final volume (in cu. Feet) for an isentropic compression of an air with initial
volume of 2 cu. Of Feet, initial pressure of 5 psi, final pressure of 15 psi and Cp/ Cv ratio
of 1. 40?
A. 0. 867
B. 0. 912
C. 0. 985
D. 1. 354

43. An 85- kg sick person has a body temperature that is 2° C above normal temperature.
Assuming that the body is composed mostly of water, how much heat is required to raise
the person‟s temperature by that amount?
A. 150 kcal
B. 160 kcal
C. 170 kcal
D. 180 kcal

44. In a certain gas stove, 40% of the energy released in the burning fuel is used to heat the
water in the pot that is placed above the stove. If 1. 5 kg of water is heated from 35° C to
100° C and boil 0. 55 kg of it away, how much gasoline was burned in the process
assuming each gram of gasoline releases 50 kJ of energy?
A. 82. 5 g
B. 87. 5 g
C. 92. 5 g
D. 97. 5 g
 245

45. What is the rate of radiation of energy of a thin square steel plate with a side of 15 cm
each if it is heated to a temperature of 850° C? The emissivity is assumed to be 0. 65.
A. 0. 65 kW
B. 0. 98 kW
C. 1. 15 kW
D. 1. 32 kW

46. What is the whole volume in cubic meters of the vessel required if you want to keep a
mole of an ideal gas at STP?
A. 0. 0224
B. 0. 224
C. 2. 24
D. 22. 4

47. What is the average translational kinetic energy of a molecule of an ideal gas at a
temperature of 29. 6° C?
A. 0. 015 eV
B. 0. 040 eV
C. 0. 265 eV
D. 0. 389 eV

48. 2 kilograms of ice is melted into liquid water at 0° C. What is the change in entropy, in
kJ/ K?
A. 2. 14
B. 2. 35
C. 2. 43
D. 2. 76

49. 5 kilograms of water, initially at a temperature of 0° C, is heated until it reaches 100° C.

What is the change in entropy of the substance?
A. 5611 J/ K
B. 6532 J/ K
C. 11845 J/ K
D. 15678 J/ K
 246

50. What is the thermal efficiency in an otto cycle using air if it has a compression constant
of 0. 8?
A. 24. 5%
B. 34. 7%
C. 48. 9%
D. 56. 5%
 247

ANSWER KEYS

1. B 26. A
2. C 27. A
3. A 28. D
4. C 29. A
5. D 30. B
6. B 31. C
7. D 32. A
8. B 33. A
9. A 34. C
10. A 35. A
11. B 36. D
12. B 37. D
13. C 38. C
14. A 39. A
15. A 40. D
16. D 41. D
17. B 42. B
18. C 43. C
19. A 44. A
20. A 45. D
21.C 46. A
22. C 47. B
23. C 48. C
24. B 49. D
25. B 50. D
 248

ENGINEERING MECHANICS OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS

1. In Mechanics, what refers to the study of stationary rigid body?

A. Statics
B. Kinetics
C. Kinematics
D. Dynamics

2. What is the study of rigid body in motion under the action of forces?
A. Statics
B. Strength of materials
C. Kinematics
D. Dynamics

3. What is the branch of engineering mechanics which refers to the study of rigid body in
motion without reference to the force that causes the motion?
A. Statics
B. Kinematics
C. Kinematics
D. Dynamics

4. What refers to the force that holds part of the rigid body together?
A. Natural force
B. External force
C. Internal force
D. Concentrated force

5. What refers to a pair of equal, opposite and parallel forces?

A. Couple
B. Moment
C. Torque
D. All of the above

6. What is a concurrent force system?

A. All forces act at the same point.
B. All forces have the same line of action.
C. All forces are parallel with one another.
D. All forces are in the same plane.

7. When will a three-force member be considered in equilibrium?

A. When the sum of the two forces is equal to the third force.
B. When they are concurrent or parallel.
C. When they are coplanar.
D. All of the above
 249

8. A roller support has how many reactions?

A. None
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3

9. A link or cable support has how many reactions?

A. None
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3

10. A build-in, fixed support has how many reactions and moment?
A. 1 reaction and 1 moment
B. 2 reactions and 1 moment
C. 1 reaction and 2 moments
D. 2 reactions and no moment

11. Which support has one moment?

A. Frictionless guide
B. Pin connection
C. Fixed support
D. Roller

12. What is the science that describes and predicts the effect on bodies at rest or in motion by
forces acting on it?
A. Engineering mechanics
B. Theory of structures
C. Mechanics of materials
D. Strength of materials

13. What refers to a negligible body when compared to the distances involved regarding its
motion?
A. Particle
B. Atomic substance
C. Element
D. Quarks

14. The resulting force of a distributed load is always acting at:

A. The center of the beam subjected to the distributed load
B. The centroid of the area of the loading curve
C. The 1/3 point from the higher intensity side of the loading curve
D. The 2/3 point from the higher intensity side of the loading curve
 250

15. The resultant force of a distributed load is always equal to:

A. Twice the area under the loading curve
B. Half the area under the loading curve
C. the area under the loading curve
D. one-fourth the area under the loading curve

16. When a body has more supports than are necessary to maintain equilibrium, the body is said
to be ___________.
A. In static equilibrium
B. In dynamic equilibrium
C. Statically determinate
D. Statically indeterminate

17. What equilibrium state exists when a body remains in its displaced state after being moved
from its original equilibrium position?
A. Neutral
B. Stable
C. Static
D. Dynamic

18. What are the three types of equilibrium position?

A. Neutral, stable, unstable
B. Static, kinetic, dynamic
C. Kinetic, kinematic, dynamic
D. Static, kinetic, kinematic

19. What does an equation be considered “dimensionally homogeneous”?

A. When it is unitless
B. When the dimensions of the various terms on the left side of the equation is not the same
as the dimension of the various terms on the right side.
C. When the degree of the left side of the equation is the same as the right side.
D. When the dimensions of the various terms on the left side of the equation is the same as
the dimension of the various terms on the right side.

20. What refer to the branch of mathematics which deals with the dimensions of quantities?
A. Unit analysis
B. Dimensional analysis
C. System analysis
D. Homogeneity analysis

21. What is a “simple beam”?

A. A beam supported only at its ends.
B. A beam supported with a fixed supports at one end and non on the other end.
C. A beam with more than two supports.
D. A beam with only one supports at the midspan.
 251

22. What assumption is used in the analysis of uniform flexible cable?

A. Cable is flexible
B. Cable is inextensible
C. The weight of the cable is very small when compared to the loads supported by the cable
D. All of the above

23. “The sum of individual moments about a point caused by multiple concurrent forces is equal
to the moment of the resultant force about the same point”. This statement is known as
__________.
A. Pappus proposition
B. D‟Alembert‟s principle
C. Varignon‟s theorem
D. Newton‟s method

24. “Two forces acting on a particle may be replaced by a single force called resultant which can
be obtained by drawing diagonal of parallelogram, which has the sides equal to the given
forces”. This statement is known as __________.
A. Pappus propositions
B. principle of transmissibility
C. parallelogram law
D. Varignon‟s theorem

25. “The condition of equilibrium or motion of a rigid body remains unchanged if a force acting
at a given point of the rigid body is replaced by a force of same magnitude and direction, but
acting at a different point provided that the two forces have the same line of action”. This
statement is known as ___________.
A. Pappus propositions
B. principle of transmissibility
C. parallelogram law
D. Varignon‟s theorem

26. “If two forces acting simultaneously on a particle can be represented by the two sides of a
triangle taken in order that the third side represents the resultant in the opposite order”. This
statement is known as ___________.
A. principle of transmissibility
B. parallelogram law
C. Varignon‟s theorem
D. Triangle Law of Forces
 252

27. “If a number of concurrent force acting simultaneously on a particle, are represented in
magnitude and direction by the sides of polygon taken in order, then the resultant of this
system is represented by the closing side of the polygon in the opposite order”. This
statement is known as ___________.
A. principle of transmissibility
B. parallelogram law
C. Polygon Law
D. Triangle Law of Forces

28. The forces acting internally on rigid bodies are due to __________.
A. Electrostatic forces holding the molecules together.
B. Intermodular forces
C. Compressive and tensile forces holding the bodies together
D. Atomic bondage

29. A beam with more than one supports is called ____________.

A. Cantilever beam
B. Simple beam
C. Complex beam
D. Continuous beam

30. A truss consisting of coplanar members is called ___________.

A. Plane truss
B. Space truss
C. Ideal truss
D. Rigid truss

31. A truss consisting of non-coplanar members is called __________.

A. Plane truss
B. Space truss
C. Ideal truss
D. Rigid truss

32. What method of determining the bar force of a truss if only few members are required?
A. Method of joints
B. Method of section
C. Maxwell‟s diagram
D. Method of superposition

33. If bar force of all members of a truss is required, which method is best used?

A. Method of sections
B. Sectional analysis
C. Method of joints
D. Nodal method
 253

34. Which of the following statements about the friction is FALSE?

A. The direction of frictional force on a surface is such as to oppose the tendency of one
surface to slide relative to the other.
B. The total frictional force is dependent on the area of contact between the two surfaces.
C. The magnitude of the frictional force is equal to the force which tends to move the body
till the limiting value is reached.
D. Friction force is always less than the force required to prevent motion.

35. In the analysis of friction, the angle between the normal force and the resultant force
____________ the angel of friction.
A. May be greater than or less than
B. Is greater than
C. Is less than
D. Is equal to

36. When a block is placed on an inclined plane, its steepest inclination to which the block will
be in equilibrium is called __________.
A. Angle of friction
B. Angle of reaction
C. Angle of normal
D. Angle of repose

37. The frictional force is _________ the area of contact.

A. Inversely proportional to
B. Dependent on
C. Independent on
D. Directly proportional to

38. What is usually used to move heavy loads by applying a force which is usually smaller than
the weight of the load?
A. Axle
B. Incline plane
C. Wedge
D. Belt

39. The angle of inclined plane of a jack screw is also known as _________
A. angle of thread
B. angle of lead
C. angle of friction
D. angle of pitch
 254

40. Center of gravity for a two dimensional body is the point at which the entire ________ acts
regardless of the orientation of the body.
A. Mass
B. Weight
C. Mass or weight
D. Volume

41. Second moment of area is the product of:

A. Area and square of the distance from the reference axis
B. Area and distance from the reference axis
C. Square of the area and distance from the reference axis
D. Square of the area and square of the distance from the reference axis

42. Moment of inertia of an area about an axis is equal to the sum of moment of inertia about an
axis passing through the centroid parallel to the given axis and ___________.

A. Area and square of the distance between two parallel axes

B. Area and distance between two parallel axes
C. Square of the area and distance between two parallel axes
D. Square of the area and square of the distance between two parallel axes

43. The moment of inertia of an object is dependent to all of the following except one. Which
one?
A. Location of object‟s axes of rotation
B. Mass of the object
C. Object‟s angular velocity
D. Object‟s size and shape

44. What is the unit of mass moment of inertia?

A. kg-m4
B. kg-m3
C. kg-m
D. kg-m2

45. Assuming the same mass and the same radius, which of the following has the greatest
moment of inertia?
A. a hollow cylinder
B. a cardioid shaped sphere
C. a hollow sphere
D. a solid sphere
 255

46. The number of independent degrees of freedom is:

A. square root of the square of the difference of total degrees of freedom – number of
constraint equations
B. square root of the total degrees of freedom – number of constraint equations
C. total degrees of freedom – number of constraint equations
D. total degrees of freedom – half the number of constraint equations

47. To completely specify the dynamic state of a body, the number of coordinates required is the
number of ________________.
A. degrees of movability
B. degrees of freedom
C. spatial determinants
D. spatial coordinates

48. What refers to the shift in the axis of spin of a rotating body such as when two equal forces
are applied to a disk at the ends of the axle?
A. inertial shift
B. axial shift
C. precession
D. gyro motion

49. What velocity is normally referred to as the derivative of position vector with respect to
time?
A. decreasing velocity
B. average velocity
C. instantaneous velocity
D. increasing velocity

50. What refers to a force by which work done on a particle as it moves around any closed path
is zero?
A. natural force
B. virtual force
C. conservative force
D. non-conservative force

51. When a force causes a change in mechanical energy when it moves around a closed path, it
is said to be _________ force.
A. natural
B. virtual
C. conservative
D. non-conservative
 256

52. The following are quantities that describe motion and uses Newton‟s law of motion and
d‟Alembert‟s principle except one. Which one?
A. time
B. mass
C. acceleration
D. force

53. Which of the following set of quantities that describe motion and uses the principle of work
and energy?
A. force, mass, velocity, time
B. force, mass, acceleration
C. force, mass, distance, velocity
D. force, weight, distance, time

54. Which of the following set of quantities that describe motion and uses the principle of
impulse and momentum?
A. force, mass, velocity, time
B. force, mass, acceleration
C. force, mass, distance, velocity
D. force, weight, distance, time

55. The principles of kinetics of particles are derived from which law?
A. Newton‟s first law
B. Newton‟s second law
C. Newton‟s third law
D. d‟Alembert‟s principle

56. What type of impact is when the motion of one or both of the colliding bodies is not directed
along the line of impact?
A. Central impact
B. Eccentric impact
C. Direct impact
D. Oblique impact

57. What type of impact is when the centers of mass of colliding bodies are not located on the
line of impact?
A. Central impact
B. Eccentric impact
C. Direct impact
D. Oblique impact

58. If the coefficient of restitution is zero, the impact is ____________.

A. Partially plastic
B. Perfectly inelastic
C. Perfectly elastic
D. Partially elastic
 257

59. A uniform circular motion can be considered as a combination of ________.

A. Linear velocity and impulse
B. Simple harmonic motion and momentum
C. Two simple harmonic motions
D. Rectilinear translation and curvilinear translation

60. Which of the following uses string polygon to solve problems in Engineering Mechanics
graphically?
A. Parallel polygon
B. Funicular polygon
C. Mohr‟s polygon
D. Force polygon

61. What are the three types of equilibrium?

A. Static, kinetic and stable equilibrium
B. Kinematic, kinetic and stable equilibrium
C. Neutral, stable, and unstable equilibrium
D. Static, dynamic and kinetic equilibrium

62. What refers to the statement that says that the external effect of a force of a body is the same
for all points of application along its line of action?
A. Mechanics
B. Equilibrium
C. Transmissibility
D. Statistically determinate

63. What law states that the condition of equilibrium or of motion of rigid body is reflected by a
force of the same magnitude and direction, but acting at a different point, provided that the
two bodies have the same line of action?
A. Principle of volition
B. Principle of motion
C. Kinematics principle
D. Principle of transmissibility

64. In rectilinear motion, the stopping distance is the distance traveled during a drivers reaction
time known as PIEV time. What does V in the PIEV stands for?
A. Vision
B. Velocity
C. Volition
D. Vector
 258

65. PIEV time refers to the time resulting from a driver‟s reaction as it travels the stopping
distance of his vehicle. What does PIEV stand for?
A. Perception, Initiative, Estimation, Vision
B. Perception, Initiative, Emotion, Volition
C. Perception, Identification, Emotion, Vision
D. Perception, Identification, Emotion, Volition

66. What is the typical value of the coefficient of dynamic friction for dry condition of plastic on
steel?
A. 0.35
B. 0.45
C. 0.55
D. 0.65

67. The load that acts on a body with some velocity causing loss of potential energy and kinetic
energy is known as __________.
A. Moving load
B. Impact load
C. Apparent load
D. Impulse load

68. A measure of pulling and pushing force is known as ________.

A. Concentrated force
B. Axial force
C. Impact force
D. Eccentric force

69. In a trajectory, at what angle will the object be fired in order to reach a maximum range?
A. 45 degrees
B. 30 degrees
C. 60 degrees
D. 75 degrees

70. Considering the properties of areas, what is the area for a second degree curve with
perpendicular sides b and h, respectively?
A. bh/5
B. bh/4
C. bh/2
D. bh/3
 259

ANSWER KEYS

1. A 36. D
2. D 37. C
3. C 38. C
4. C 39. B
5. A 40. B
6. A 41. A
7. B 42. A
8. B 43. C
9. B 44. D
10. B 45. A
11. C 46. C
12. A 47. B
13. A 48. C
14. B 49. C
15. C 50. C
16. A 51. D
17. A 52. A
18. A 53. C
19. D 54. A
20. B 55. B
21. A 56. D
22. D 57. B
23. C 58. B
24. C 59. C
25. B 60. B
26. D 61. C
27. C 62. C
28. C 63. D
29. D 64. C
30. A 65. D
31. B 66. A
32. B 67. B
33. C 68. B
34. B 69. A
35. C 70. D
 260

ENGINEERING MECHANICS PROBLEMS

(STATICS)

1. What is the magnitude and direction of the resultant of two forces, both with 50-N
magnitude, but with different directions, the first one at 30° while the other one is at 50°.
A. 98.48N at 40°
B. 98.48N at 10°
C. 94.84N at 40°
D. 94.84N at 10°

2. If the resultant of the vectors is 2 kN and is acting vertically to the south, what is the
magnitude and direction of the second force if the first force is 1 kN acting directly to the
east?
A. 2.24 kN, 63.49 south of west
B. 2.24 kN, 63.49 west of south
C. 2.24 kN, 63.49 south of east
D. 2.24 kN, 63.49 east of south

3. If two forces, 30 kN and 20 kN are separated by 50 degrees, what is the resultant force?
A. 43.54 kN
B. 44.45 kN
C. 45.51 kN
D. 46.63 kN

4. An airplane has a speed of 120 miles per hour and is heading in a direction due north.
There is a crosswind of 30 miles per 15 degrees east north. What is the speed of the
airplane and what is its direction relative to the ground?
A. 133.201 mph to the north
B. 133.201 mph, 3.23 degrees east of north
C. 133.201 mph, 3.23 degrees north of east
D. 133.201 mph, 26.77 degrees east of north

5. Given 3 vectors: Vector 1 is 500 N at 30°. Vector 2 is 300 N at 150° and Vector 3 is 400
N at 270°, what is the magnitude of the resultant vector?
A. 137.21 N
B. 143.71 N
C. 173.21 N
D. 177.31 N
 261

6. If you are given two forces at right angles to each other, what is the magnitude of the
resultant force if the two forces is at each 50 N?
A. 0 N
B. 50 N
C. 70.7 N
D. 100 N

7. A 100 kg box is being pulled by a 50 N force that is inclined 20° with respect to the
horizontal. What is the component of the force that is parallel with the surface in which
the box is being pulled?
A. 17.10 N
B. 27.10 N
C. 36.98 N
D. 46.98 N

8. If you are given two vectors: A = 5i + 8j + 3k and B = 35i + 4j – 9k, what is the angle of
the two vectors?
A. 30°
B. 35°
C. 45°
D. 60°

9. Two vectors, when combined, will have a resultant vector of 500 N with an angle of
150°. If the first vector is 250 N at 30°, what is the magnitude and direction of the second
vector?
A. 661.44 N at 10.89°
B. 661.44 N at 169.07°
C. 661.44 N at -10.89°
D. 661.44 N at -169.07°

10. What is the dot product of the vectors A = 6i + 4j – 5k and B = 5i + 3j + 7k?

A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7
 262

11. In a 10-feet cantilever beam, find the reactions if the two forces, each 50 lb, applied at a
point 3 feet and 6 feet from the end of the beam with the support?
A. HA = 0; VA = 100 lb; MA = 300lb∙ft
B. HA = 0; VA = 100 lb; MA = 450lb∙ft
C. HA= 100; VA = 0 lb; MA = 300lb∙ft
D. HA = 100; VA = 0 lb; MA = 450lb∙ft

12. What is the reaction at the roller if one end of a 10-meter beam is attached to a binge
while the other end is attached to a roller that is inclined to the horizontal at an angle of
20°? There is a 50 kN force concentrated halfway across the beam.
A. 9.1 kN
B. 25 kN
C. 26.6 kN
D. 29.9 kN

13. Find the reactions of a simply supported beam that is 10 meters in length with a
concentrated load of 250 N, 4 meters from the left end, and a uniformly distributed load
of 75 N/m.
A. 400 N and 600 N
B. 425 N and 575 N
C. 450 N and 550 N
D. 475 N and 525 N

14. Find the reactions of a simply supported beam with a length of 8 meters if it has a
uniformly varying load starting at 30 N/m at the left end and goes up to 60 N/m at the
right end.
A. 120 N and 240 N
B. 140 N and 220 N
C. 160 N and 200 N
D. 180 N and 180 N

15. When a boy is sitting 1 meter from the center of a see-saw, another boy must sit on the
opposite side 0.5 meter farther from the center compared to the first boy to maintain
balance. When the first boy carries an additional weight of 10 kg and sits 1.5 meters from
the center, the second boy must now move to 3 meters from the center to maintain
balance. What is the weight of the heavier boy?
A. 20 N
B. 139.6 N
C. 223.1 N
D. 294.3 N
 263

16. A box with a mass of 300 kg on top an inclined plane (with an angle to the horizontal of
30°) is held in place by a horizontal rope attached to a wall. What is the tension required
in the rope to keep the box from moving?
A. 1700 N
B. 2150 N
C. 2750 N
D. 3400 N

17. A block weighs 100kg and is resting on a plane that is incline to the horizontal at an angle
of 20°. What is the force that tends to move the block down the plane?
A. 336 N
B. 632 N
C. 922 N
D. 982 N

18. What is the maximum allowable magnitude of a horizontal force applied at the top of a
10 inch high, 5 inch wide box with a weight of 100 lb, if the coefficient of friction
between the block and the floor is 0.35? Assume equilibrium condition.
A. 15 lb
B. 20 lb
C. 25 lb
D. 35 lb

19. A 4000 lb truck is stationary. What are the normal forces exerted on the front tire and rear
tire, respectively. If the both tires are separated by 15 feet and the rear tire is 5 feet from
the end of the 25 foot truck?
A. 1500 lb, 2500 lb
B. 2000lb, 2000lb
C. 2500lb, 1500lb
D. 1000lb, 3000lb

20. To maintain the box in equilibrium, a 75 N tension in is required that is inclined at 45°
with respect to the horizontal. Calculate the value of the horizontal equilibrium.
A. 53.03 N
B. 56.75 N
C. 62.83 N
D. 75 N
 264

21. A 10 ft cantilever beam is under a load described by the equation 5x2 lb/ft. What is the
vertical reaction at the wall?
A. 833.33 lb
B. 1666.67 lb
C. 2133.67 lb
D. 2666.67 lb

22. An 80 kg acrobat is dangerously standing in balance at the middle of a lightly stretched

rope such that the angle that the rope makes with the horizontal is 7 degrees. What is the
tension in the rope?
A. 1620 N
B. 2480 N
C. 2750 N
D. 3220 N

23. A horizontal rod is 10 ft long. A 10 lb force is applied vertically downwards 3ft from the
right end. What is the sum of the magnitude of the torque about the two ends of the rod?
A. 10lb∙ft
B. 30lb∙ft
C. 70lb∙ft
D. 100lb∙ft

24. What is the center of mass (from the base) of a machine that consists of a disk with a
diameter of 5 inches and height of 3 inches, and a solid rod with a diameter of 4 inches
and a height of 10 inches? Assume that they are made of the same material.
A. 3.57 in
B. 3.69 in
C. 4.15 in
D. 4.85 in

25. A block is placed in an inclined plane at an angle ɵ with respect to the horizontal. What is
the value of ɵ such that the block will start to move down the plane at a constant
velocity? Coefficient of friction is 0.45 and of the mass of the block is 100kg.
A. 24.2°
B. 28.9°
C. 33.1°
D. 34.9°
 265

26. Solve the coefficient of friction between a 1500kg block and the surface if the block is
being pulled along the surface at uniform speed with a rope that is inclined at 30°.
Assume that the tension in the rope is 500 N.
A. 0.03
B. 0.08
C. 0.15
D. 0.30

27. Find the coefficient of static friction for a 50 lbf block resting on a horizontal surface
being pulled horizontally using a rope if it needs 10 lb of tension to start moving and only
needs around 6 lb of tension to keep on moving once it already started to move.
A. 0.12
B. 0.20
C. 0.25
D. 0.30

28. For the block on the previous problem, what is the coefficient of kinetic friction once it is
now moving at constant velocity?
A. 0.08
B. 0.10
C. 0.12
D. 0.18

29. A fisherman‟s boat moves at a speed of 15 kph in calm water. The fisherman steers the
boat straight across a river in which the current is 7 kph. What is the velocity of the boat?
A. 8.5 kph
B. 13.4 kph
C. 16.6 kph
D. 18.9 kph

30. A box is resting on a surface that is inclined to the horizontal at an angle of 25°. To move
the box up the plane, an upward force (parallel to the plane) is applied that is 5 times the
downward force (also parallel to the plane) needed if you want it to start moving down
the plane. What is the coefficient of static friction assuming the forces applied are always
parallel to the surface?
A. 0.35
B. 0.45
C. 0.60
D. 0.70
 266

31. What is the coefficient of the starting friction if the force required to move a mass of 100
kg over a rough surface is around 460 N?
A. 0.35
B. 0.47
C. 0.52
D. 0.59

32. Calculate the mass moment of inertia of a cylinder with a radius of 4 m and has a mass of
12 kg?
A. 96 kg∙m2
B. 192 kg∙m2
C. 288 kg∙m2
D. 312 kg∙m2

33. Solve for the second moment of area of a circle with respect to an axis 1 meter away from
the circumference. The radius of the circle is 3 units.
A. 257
B. 516
C. 624
D. 728

34. An 800 N box hangs on a vertical rope. A man pushes box horizontally until the rope
now hangs 45° with respect to the vertical. Solve for the tension in the rope.
A. 1131 N
B. 1435 N
C. 1600 N
D. 1895 N

35. What is the mass moment of inertia of a ball if it has a mass of 2 kg, radius of 0.3 meters
and is rotating at a speed of 15 rpm?
A. 0.036 kg∙m2
B. 0.048 kg∙m2
C. 0.060 kg∙m2
D. 0.072 kg∙m2
 267

36. A ball with a mass of 5 kg is suspended from a ceiling by means of a cord. When a
horizontal force F is applied to the ball, the ball hangs motionless with the cord making
an angle of 35° with respect to the vertical. What is the magnitude of the force F?
A. 32.57 N
B. 34.35 N
C. 47.68 N
D. 51.43 N

37. A block with a mass of 10 kg is pulled along horizontal surface at a constant velocity by a
force P whose magnitude is 50 N and which makes an angle of 25° with respect to the
horizontal. What is the coefficient of friction between the block and the plane?
A. 0.49
B. 0.59
C. 0.63
D. 0.68

38. What is the length of the vector (2, 4, 4)?

A. 6
B. 8
C. 10
D. 12

39. To maintain equilibrium condition, at what point (from the right end) should a uniform 1
meter beam with negligible mass be supported so that it can balance a 50 gram weight on
the left end, an 80 gram weight on the right end and a 60 gram weight 45 cm from the 50
gram weight?
A. 34.57 cm
B. 38.79 cm
C. 43.68 cm
D. 52.45 cm

40. From the previous problem, what is the value of supporting force?
A. 1.56 N
B. 1.86 N
C. 1.92 N
D. 2.14 N
 268

41. A 70 kg, 15 m beam is being lift horizontally by two men, one of whom is stronger than
the other. What is the distance from the end should the stronger man lift the beam if he
wishes to carry 50% more of the weight than the other man?
A. 1.5 m
B. 2.0 m
C. 2.5 m
D. 3.0 m

42. A rope is used to support a cantilever beam supporting a 100 kg load at the end. The
length of the beam is 8 meters and its weight is 20 kg. The supporting rope makes an
angle of 20° with the beam. What is the tension in the rope?
A. 1650 N
B. 1930 N
C. 2080 N
D. 2160 N

43. What is the mass moment of inertia of a 15kg solid cone whose circular base has a
diameter of 10 meters?
A. 112.5 kg∙m2
B. 156.7 kg∙m2
C. 254.8 kg∙m2
D. 268.5 kg∙m2

44. What is the second moment of area of an isosceles triangle with a 10 meter base and
height with respect to the line parallel to the base and 10 meters higher than the base?
A. 228 m4
B. 518 m4
C. 1250 m4
D. 2500 m4

45. A 15 meter rope passing through a pulley with a 0.5 meter diameter is being used to lift
an 80 kg box. What is the force needed to lift the box is the coefficient of friction
between the rope and the pulley is 0.45 and the angle of contract is 130°?
A. 2178.6 N
B. 3245.9 N
C. 4576.1 N
D. 4897.4 N
 269

46. A cable is suspended at the same height separated by a distance of 300 ft. what is the
length of the cable if there is a load applied that is 50 N per horizontal foot and the cable
sags by 20 ft?
A. 303.52 ft
B. 305.67 ft
C. 309.45 ft
D. 315.34 ft

47. What is the maximum tension in a cable if it sags by 50 ft because of its own weight at
0.5 lb/ft? Assume that the length of the cable is 1000 ft.
A. 723 lb
B. 812 lb
C. 1250 lb
D. 1874 lb

48. What is the mass moment of inertia of a 7.5 kg hollow cylinder with an outside diameter
of 10 meters and an inside diameter of 9 meters?
A. 16.56 kg-m2
B. 17.81 kg-m2
C. 19.85 kg-m2
D. 21.45 kg-m2

49. A 200 m long cable weighs 40 N/m and has the same elevation between its supports.
What is the sag of the maximum tension within the cable will not exceed 6000 N?
A. 38.2 m
B. 44.5 m
C. 49.1 m
D. 59.5 m

50. Calculate the moment of inertia of an ellipse with respect to an axis 4 meter below and
parallel the major axis if the length of the major axis is 10 meters and the length of the
minor axis is 8 meters.
A. 252 m4
B. 794 m4
C. 982 m4
D. 1256 m4
 270

ANSWER KEYS

1. A 26. A
2. A 27. B
3. C 28. C
4. B 29. C
5. C 30. D
6. C 31. B
7. D 32. A
8. D 33. B
9. B 34. A
10. D 35. D
11. B 36. B
12. C 37. B
13. D 38. A
14. C 39. C
15. D 40. B
16. A 41. C
17. A 42. D
18. C 43. A
19. B 44. D
20. A 45. A
21. B 46. A
22. D 47. B
23. D 48. B
24. A 49. A
25. A 50. D
 271

ENGINEERING MECHANICS PROBLEMS

(DYNAMICS)

1. A particle that moves such that its displacement (in centimeters) at any time t (in seconds),
measured from a fixed reference point along a straight line, is defined as: s = 5t3 + 18t2 – 8t +
3. How far will the particle travel during the fifth second?
A. 459 cm
B. 574 cm
C. 1038 cm
D. 1245 cm

2. Using the same definition for displacement given in the first problem, what is the
acceleration after 5 seconds?
A. 156 cm/s2
B. 168 cm/s2
C. 186 cm/s2
D. 204 cm/s2

3. If a particle moves in such a way that its velocity (in meters per second) at any time t (in
seconds) is defined as: v = 6t2 – 15t + 18, what is the displacement of the interval from t = 1
to t = 2?
A. 4.75 meters
B. 9.50 meters
C. 12.50 meters
D. 22.00 meters

4. Using the same definition for velocity given in the previous problem, what is the average
velocity and the average acceleration from t = 1 to t = 2?
A. 9.5 m/s ; 3 m/s2
B. 3 m/s ; 9. 5 m/s2
C. 22 m/s ; 12 m/s2
D. 12 m/s ; 22 m/s2

5. A particle has rectilinear motion such that its velocity is defined as v = 5s2, where v is in
meters per second and s is in meters. What is the position of the particle at t = 1 second if the
particle is 2 meters to the right of the origin at t = 0?
A. 0.20 meters
B. 0.22 meters
C. 0.40 meters
D. 0.44 meters
 272

6. A brand new Mercedes Benz is traveling at a highway with a speed of 40 mph and
accelerates to double its speed in just 10 seconds. How far (in meters) did the car travel
during the time it accelerated?
A. 152 meters
B. 166 meters
C. 246 meters
D. 267 meters

7. A car travels 52 mph for 6 minutes, 46 mph for 3 minutes, 40 mph for 15 minutes and 44
mph for the remaining time during a 30-minute journey. What is the average speed of the
car?
A. 21.9 mph
B. 29.5 mph
C. 43.8 mph
D. 46.5 mph

8. Two cars are traveling from the same place and in the same direction. The first car started
from rest and speeds up with a constant acceleration of 0.3 m/s2. The second car leaves 15
seconds after the first car and speeds up with a constant acceleration of 0.5m/s2. When will
the second cae overtake the first car?
A. 15.0 s
B. 51.5 s
C. 66.5 s
D. 75.5 s

9. A car is traveling at 60 kph in a straight road when he noticed that the traffic light 200 meters
ahead of him is turning red. The traffic light is programmed to stay red for 15 seconds and
stay green for 30 seconds. If the driver wants to pass the traffic light without stopping as it
will turn green again,, what is the velocity of the car as it passes the light?
A. 10 kph
B. 36 kph
C. 42 kph
D. 64 kph
 273

10. A bicycle, initially with a non-zero velocity, moves in a distance of 100 meters in 10 seconds
and 175 meters in the next 13 seconds. What is the velocity at the beginning of the second
interval if the acceleration is constant?
A. 52.97 m/s
B. 55.67 m/s
C. 64.34 m/s
D. 69.32 m/s

11. A taxicab drives at 50 kph from point A to point B in t seconds. The driver applies brakes for
5 seconds from point B to point C to decelerate the car and give it a velocity at point C of 32
kph. It will now travel at this constant velocity until point D for t seconds as well. What is the
distance from point A to point B if the total distance from point A to point D is 1 km?
A. 79 m
B. 360 m
C. 562 m
D. 922 m

12. In a motorcycle race, world champion Valentino Rossi started to accelerate after he passed
the post marking the start of the track. His acceleration is constant at 10 meters per square
second. At time, t = 0, he is 50 meters east of the starting line and is moving at 20 meters per
second, what is his position and velocity after 3 seconds?
A. 155 m ; 50 m/s
B. 255 m ; 50 m/s
C. 155 m ; 65 m/s
D. 255 m ; 65 m/s

13. Two cars travel at the same time from two places (A and B), which are 10 km apart. It takes
the first car 20 minutes to travel from A to B while it takes the other car 16 minutes to travel
from B to A. what is the time needed by the cars to meet each other if they travel at their
respective uniform velocities?
A. 8.89 minutes
B. 8.98 minutes
C. 9.80 minutes
D. 9.89 minutes
 274

14. What is the speed of a soccer ball after it has fell by 300 feet from a certain height? Assume
that is started from rest.
A. 139 ft/s
B. 193 ft/s
C. 319 ft/s
D. 931 ft/s

15. How long does it take for a ball tossed up along the y-axis to reach its maximum height if it
was given a vertical initial speed of 15 m/s?
A. 1.35 s
B. 1.53 s
C. 3.15 s
D. 5.13 s

16. A rock is dropped into an old well. After 4 seconds,, the sound of the rock splashing into the
water is heard. What is the depth of the well id the speed of sound is 330 meters per second?
A. 65.43 m
B. 70.34 m
C. 76.33 m
D. 82.54 m

17. A boy throws a ball vertically upward with an initial velocity of 3 m/s from the roof deck of a
building. The ball strikes the sidewalk at the ground level after 4 seconds. What is the
velocity with which the ball strikes the ground?
A. 24.56 m/s
B. 29.76 m/s
C. 33.45 m/s
D. 36.24 m/s

18. A rigid body is dropped from rest at a certain height. In just 1 second, it passes two points
that are 150 feet apart. What is the distance from the higher point where the body started to
fall?
A. 218 ft
B. 256 ft
C. 269 ft
D. 279 ft
 275

19. An elevator is going up with an initial velocity of 3 m/s and is accelerating constantly at a
rate of 0.5 m/s2. At the same instant, a ball is also dropped from a height of 50 meters above
the elevator. How many seconds after they started moving will the ball and the elevator
meet?
A. 2.18 s
B. 2.79 s
C. 3.18 s
D. 3.79 s

20. An object is released from a height of 72 feet and is given an initial horizontal velocity of 22
ft/s. When the object strikes the ground, how far has it traveled in the horizontal direction?
A. 32.45 ft
B. 36.74 ft
C. 46.53 ft
D. 52.34 ft

21. A ball is released from a window that is 10 meters above the ground. When the ball leaves
your hand, it is moving at 8 meters per second at an angle 30 degrees below the horizontal.
Ignoring the effect of air resistance, how far horizontally from the window will the ball hit
the ground?
A. 7.48 m
B. 8.62 m
C. 9.14 m
D. 10.88 m

22. An artillery is pointed upward at an angle of 30 degrees with respect to the horizontal with a
muzzle velocity of 1500 ft/s. Ignoring the effect of air resistance, to what height will the
projectiles rise and what will be its range?
A. 8,735 ft ; 54,567 ft
B. 8,735 ft ; 60,510 ft
C. 9,623 ft ; 54,567 ft
D. 9,623 ft ; 60,510 ft

23. New York Yankee Derek Jeter hits a baseball such that as it leaves the bat, it has a speed of
40 meters per second and has an angle of 44 degrees. What is the time that the ball reaches
the highest point of its flight?
A. 2.83 s
B. 3.82 s
C. 4.54 s
D. 6.92 s
 276

24. A ball is projected at such an angle that the horizontal range is three times the maximum
height. What is the angle of projection?
A. 27.13 degrees
B. 35.87 degrees
C. 53.13 degrees
D. 67.24 degrees

25. A gun is fired at a moving target. The bullet has a muzzle velocity of 1200 ft/s. The gun and
the target are both on level ground, with the target moving 60 mph away from the gun and
have a distance of 30,000 ft from the gun the moment the bullet was fired. What is the angle
of the projectile needed to hit the target?
A. 13.2 degrees
B. 18.9 degrees
C. 23.4 degrees
D. 26.1 degrees

26. In a gym with a ceiling height of 30 ft, a player throws a ball towards a wall that is 80 ft
away. If the ball was released from a height of 5 ft from the floor and has an initial velocity
of 55 ft/s, what is the highest point at which the ball could hit the wall?
A. 14.3 ft
B. 17.4 ft
C. 22.6 ft
D. 25.7 ft

27. What is the horizontal range of a projectile if the object is fired from a building 400 m high
and has an initial velocity of 350 m/s? The angle of elevation of the projectile is 25 degrees.
A. 10.4 km
B. 11.2 km
C. 12.6 km
D. 14.4 km

28. A car is driving at a speed of 80 mph in a circular track with a radius of 1500 ft. The driver
applied brakes to decelerate the car and after 6 seconds, the speed decreases to half the
original speed. What is the acceleration of the car at the instant after the brakes have been
applied?
A. 9.18 ft/s2
B. 9.78 ft/s2
C. 13.4 ft/s2
D. 14.3 ft/s2
 277

29. A car has an increasing speed at a rate of 1.5 m/s2 as it rounds a curve. What is the radius of
curvature at a point when the speed of the car is 60 kph and the magnitude of the total
acceleration is 4 m/s?
A. 65 m
B. 69 m
C. 75 m
D. 81 m

30. A weighing scale, which indicates the mass of a person in kilograms, is placed inside an
elevator. When the elevator is not moving, it reads 75 kg as the mass of the man standing on
the scale. What is the acceleration of the elevator if the weighing scale now reads 110 kg?
A. 4.58 m/s2
B. 5.67 m/s2
C. 7.24 m/s2
D. 8.88 m/s2

31. A 50-kg block is in a plane that is inclined at 30 degrees with respect to the horizontal. What
is the acceleration of the block if there is a 150 N horizontal force applied into it causing it to
move at 3 m/s up to the plane? The coefficient of friction between the block and the plane is
0.45.
A. 6.8 m/s2
B. 8.5 m/s2
C. – 6.8 m/s2
D. – 8.5 m/s2

32. What is the force (inclined at 20 degrees to the horizontal) required to move a 300 kg box
resting on a horizontal surface and give it an acceleration of 5 m/s2? Assume that the
coefficient of friction between the box and the horizontal plane is 0.50.
A. 2486 N
B. 2675 N
C. 2877 N
D. 2945 N

33. What is the force exerted by an 80-kg man if he is standing in an elevator that is moving at
2.75 m/s2 downward?
A. 220.0 N
B. 356.6 N
C. 564.8 N
D. 784.8 N
 278

34. A racetrack with a radius of 150 meters is elevated at 25 degrees with respect to the
horizontal. What is the frictional force acting on a car that weighs 2000 kg rounding the track
at a speed of 55 kph? Assume that the coefficient of friction between the track and the tires of
the car is 0.30.
A. 7114 N
B. 8934 N
C. 8221 N
D. 9545 N

35. A car moves with a constant speed of 70 mph around a track that is 2 miles in diameter. What
is the period in minutes of the car‟s motion?
A. 10.77 min
B. 13.56 min
C. 17.85 min
D. 22.54 min

36. Using the Bohr model of the hydrogen atom, an electron is considered to move in a circular
orbit around the nucleus that contains the proton. If the radius of the orbit is 0.53 x 10-10 m,
what is the velocity of this electron?
A. 1.28 x 106 m/s
B. 2.18 x 106 m/s
C. 2.81 x 106 m/s
D. 8.12 x 106 m/s

37. A Japanese astronaut working in the International Space Station is in a circular orbit around
the earth with a maintained altitude of 500 km from the surface of the earth. The space vessel
is moving with a constant speed of 8 kilometers per second. What is the acceleration (in
m/s2) of the astronaut? The radius of the earth is 6.37 x 106 m.
A. 9.316 m/s2
B. 12.845 m/s2
C. 23.564 m/s2
D. 18.983 m/s2
 279

38. In a canteen, a boy pushes a 0.75-kg food tray through the line with a constant 10-N push. As
the food tray moves, it then pushes a carton of milk with half the mass of the food tray. Both
the food tray and the carton of milk slide on a surface with negligible friction. What is the
force exerted by the tray of the carton?
A. 3 N
B. 3.33 N
C. 6.67 N
D. 10 N

39. During a 10-minutes period, a weightlifter lifts a 30-kg dumbbell 50 times, from the floor
level to a height of 1.75 meters. What is the average power (in horsepower) done by the
weightlifter?
A. 0.06 hp
B. 0.10 hp
C. 0.34 hp
D. 0.56 hp

40. A 5-kg block starts from rest and slides for 5 meters along a plane that is inclined to the
horizontal at an angle of 30 degrees. At the 5-meter position, the speed of the block is 3 m/s.
Determine the coefficient of friction between the block and the inclined plane.
A. 0.33
B. 0.39
C. 0.47
D. 0.56

41. One roller-coaster car in a famous Japanese theme park has a mass of 250 kg. When it is on
top of a 40-meter hill, its speed is 5 m/s. It dives down to the lowest point of the track and
then climbs up again to a height of 25 meters. What is the speed of the roller-coaster car at
this height assuming the friction between the wheels of the car and the track is negligible?
A. 17.9 m/s
B. 18.9 m/s
C. 19.3 m/s
D. 19.8 m/s

42. A free particle, which has a mass of 2 kg, is initially at rest. If a force of 10 N is applied for a
period of 10 s, what kinetic energy is acquired by the particle?
A. 2000 J
B. 2500 J
C. 3000 J
D. 3500 J
 280

43. A road is 35 ft wide and has an outer edge that is by 4 ft than its inner edge. If the outer edge
of this road forms an arc with a radius of 200 ft, for what speed is the road ideally banked?
A. 22 ft/s
B. 24 ft/s
C. 26 ft/s
D. 28 ft/s

44. How much work is required to raise a 0.1-kg block to a height of 2 m and simultaneously
give it a velocity of 3 m/s?
A. 1.42 J
B. 1.67 J
C. 2.12 J
D. 2.41 J

45. A 2.0 kg brick is moving at a speed of 6.0 m/s. How large is the force needed to stop the
brick in a time of 8 x 10-4 s?
A. 15 kN
B. – 15 kN
C. 30 kN
D. – 30 kN

46. A ball starting from rest accelerates at 0.5 m/s2 and is moving down an inclined plane that is
9.0 meters long. Once it reaches the bottom, it moves down in another plane, where, after
moving by 15 meters, it will now stop. What is the acceleration along the second plane?
A. 0.15 m/s2
B. – 0.15 m/s2
C. 0.3 m/s2
D. – 0.3 m/s2

47. A ball is thrown directly downward with an initial speed of 15 m/s coming from a height of
100 m, how many seconds will the ball hit the ground?
A. 1.6 s
B. 2.8 s
C. 3.2 s
D. 6.2 s
 281

48. A free-falling body needs 2.5 seconds to travel the last 50 meters before it hits the ground.
From what height above the ground did the body fall?
A. 85 m
B. 93 m
C. 98 m
D. 103 m

49. A taxi driver drives along a straight highway with a constant speed of 10 m/s. As he passed a
motorcycle police, the police officer started to accelerate at a rate of 2.2 m/s2 to overtake the
taxi driver. What is the time needed by the police officer to overtake the taxi?
A. 9 s
B. 11 s
C. 13 s
D. 15 s

50. In the Beijing Olympics, an 80-kg Filipino diver jumps into the pool from a height of 5
meters. It takes 0.35 seconds for the water to reduce his velocity to zero. What is the average
force exerted by the water on the diver?
A. 2.3 kN
B. – 2.3 kN
C. 3.2 kN
D. – 3.2 Kn
 282

ANSWER KEYS

1. A 26. B
2. C 27. A
3. B 28. C
4. A 29. C
5. B 30. A
6. D 31. C
7. C 32. B
8. C 33. C
9. B 34. A
10. D 35. A
11. C 36. B
12. A 37. A
13. A 38. B
14. A 39. A
15. B 40. C
16. B 41. A
17. D 42. B
18. D 43. B
19. A 44. D
20. C 45. B
21. A 46. D
22. B 47. C
23. A 48. D
24. C 49. A
25. C 50. B
 283

STRENGTH OF MATERIALS OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS

1. What is the ratio of the transverse strain to the corresponding axial strain in a body
subjected to uniaxial stress?
A. Poisson‟s ratio
B. Euler‟s ratio
C. Refractive index
D. Dielectric index

2. What is the range of Poisson‟s ratio for most metals?

A. 0. 25 to 0. 35
B. 0. 35 to 0. 45
C. 0. 10 to 0. 25
D. 0. 15 to 0. 20

3. What are the four basic forms of deformation of solid bodies?

A. Tension, compression, bonding and twisting
B. Tension, compression, elongation and bending
C. Tension, compression, plastic and elastic
D. Tension, compression, elongation, torsion

4. What is a structural member supported horizontally and carries transverse loading?

A. Beam
B. Column
C. Arch
D. Shaft

5. Which of the following structural member is used in the transmission of torque and twist?
A. Tube
B. Column
C. Panel
D. Shaft

6. What refers to a slender member which prevents parts of a structure moving toward each
other under compressive force?
A. Tie
B. Column
C. Strut
D. Arch
 284

7. A cylinder is said to be a “thin- walled” cylinder if the ratio of the wall thickness to the
internal diameter of the cylinder Is less than _____.
A. 1/ 10
B. 1/ 5
C. 1/2
D. 1/ 20

8. What refers to the point in which the bending moment changes sigh through a zero value?
A. Critical point
B. Point of inflection
C. Point of contra flexure
D. Point of zero stress

9. What is the unit of strain?

A. Pascal
B. Unit less
C. N- m
D. N- m/ s

10. If the total elongation is δ in an original gauge length L, the unit strain is expressed in
_____.
A. Inches/ inch
B. Inches/ inch2
C. Lb- inch/ inch
D. Inch2/ inch

11. What refers to the elongation of the materials with respect to the original length when
subjected to load?
A. Stress
B. Strain
C. Deformation
D. Elasticity

12. Volumetric strain is the:

A. Change in volume per unit time
B. Square root of difference of original volume and change in volume
C. Original volume minus change in volume
D. Ratio of change in volume to original volume
 285

13. What refers to the sum of the strains in three coordinated directions?
A. Dilation
B. Axial deformation
C. Eccentric strain
D. Volumetric strain

14. The energy per unit volume of a wire, stretched by a certain load is equal to _____ the
value of the product of stress and strain of the wire?
A. Twice
B. One- half
C. Thrice
D. One- third

15. What instrument is used to determine the actual stress experienced on the surface of a
member?
A. Euler load tester
B. Stress tester
C. Working load tester
D. Strain gage

16. What refers to the stress in the material at the elastic limit?
A. Working stress
B. Yield stress
C. Ultimate stress
D. Maximum stress

17. What is the ratio of the ultimate strength of a material to its specific weight?
A. Yield strength
B. Specific strength
C. Specific strain
D. Specific stress

18. What refers to a measure of the cohesive force between adjacent molecules over the
entire cross- sectional area of the material?
A. Yield strength
B. Compressive strength
C. Cohesive strength
D. Tensile strength
 286

19. A force applied so as to cause or tend to cause two adjacent parts of the same body to
slide relative to each other, in direction parallel to their plane of contact is called ______.
A. Compressive force
B. Tensile force
C. Shear force
D. Torque

20. What kind of stress is caused by a positive moment applied on a beam?

A. Compressive force
B. Tensile force
C. Shear force
D. Working stress

21. What refers to the normal stress associated with the plane of a part in a loaded specimen
where shear stress is zero?
A. Principal stress
B. Bending stress
C. Axial stress
D. Eccentric stress

22. What refers to the reduction in stress that occurs when a component is subjected to a
constant value of strain?
A. Limitation stress
B. Depression stress
C. Relaxation stress
D. Deformation stress

23. A stress that persists in a material that is free of external forces or temperature gradient is
called _____.
A. Residual stress
B. Limitation stress
C. Relaxation stress
D. Deformation stress

24. When an axial stress is applied eccentrically to a beam, the combined stress due to
compression and bending can be computed by _____.
A. Using frame theory
B. Using finite stress analysis
C. Adding the compression and bending stress
D. Using Maxwell‟s diagram
 287

25. Which of the following materials has the least modulus of elasticity?
A. Steel
B. Glass
C. Copper
D. Aluminum

26. What type of materials exhibits high modulus of elasticity?

A. Hard materials
B. Resilient materials
C. Tough materials
D. Soft materials

27. Within elastic limit, the shear stress is proportional to shear strain. What is the constant of
proportionality of this statement called?
A. Modulus of rigidity
B. Modulus of elasticity
C. Young‟s modulus
D. Bilk modulus

28. What is the unit of the modulus of elasticity?

A. N- m
B. Unitless
C. Pa
D. N- m/ s

29. Within elastic limit, the volumetric strain is proportional to the hydrostatic stress. What is
the constant that relates these two quantities called?
A. Modulus of rigidity
B. Modulus of elasticity
C. Young‟s modulus
D. Bilk modulus

30. What refers to the ratio of the volume stress to the volume strain?
A. Young‟s modulus
B. Modulus of resilience
C. Bulk modulus
D. Modulus of rigidity
 288

31. What is the ratio of the modulus of elasticity to the specific weight of a material?
A. Poisson‟s ratio
B. Young‟s modulus
C. Specific modulus
D. Tangent modulus

32. What is another term for modulus rigidity?

A. Shear modulus
B. Young‟s modulus
C. Bulk modulus
D. Modulus of elasticity

33. Which pair of metals below has about the same value of shear modulus?
A. Cast iron and steel
B. Copper and zinc
C. Cast iron and zinc
D. Cast iron and copper

34. What is defined as the work done on a unit volume of a material, as a simple tensile force
is gradually increased from zero to the value causing the material to rupture?
A. Tangent modulus
B. Modulus of toughness
C. Modulus of elasticity
D. Modulus of resilience

35. What is defined as the work done on a unit volume of a material, as a simple tensile force
is gradually increased from zero to the value that the proportional limit of the material is
reached?
A. Tangent modulus
B. Modulus of toughness
C. Modulus of elasticity
D. Modulus of resilience

36. What refers to the rate of change of stress with respect to strain?
A. Tangent modulus
B. Modulus of resilience
C. Modulus of elasticity
D. Modulus of rigidity
 289

37. Which one is the best description of tough materials?

A. Materials that exhibit high modulus of elasticity.
B. Materials that yield slowly.
C. Materials that yield greatly before breaking.
D. Materials that exhibit high resistance to strain.

38. What defect and imperfection help explain the discrepancy between the actual and
theoretical strength of materials?
A. Planar imperfection
B. Line defect
C. Point defect
D. Volume imperfection

39. How many times greater is the plastic range of strain as compared to the elastic range of
strain?
A. 100
B. 200
C. 300
D. 400

40. What does it means when the material is said to be “yielding”?

A. The material has pass through plastic range and enter the elastic range
B. The material has pass through elastic range and enter the plastic range
C. The material is in the elastic range only
D. The material is in the plastic range only

41. What refers to the point in the stress- strain curve at which the natural tangent is equal to
1 ½ times the tangent angle of the linear portion of the curve, with respect to the y- axis?
A. Young‟s modulus
B. Maxwell‟s modulus
C. Johnson‟s modulus
D. Hooke‟s modulus

42. The cycle stress level that a body is capable of withstanding is usually expressed in
_____.
A. Yield strength
B. Fracture resistance
C. Impact resistance
D. Fatigue strength
 290

43. What refers to the parallel axis theorem for second moment of area?
A. Mohr theorem
B. Steiner‟s theorem
C. Maxwell‟s theorem
D. Young‟s theorem

44. The elastic deformation of material is :

A. Directly proportional to cross- sectional area of the material
B. Inversely proportional to the modulus of elasticity of material
C. Inversely proportional to the force acting on the material
D. Inversely proportional to the initial length of the material

45. The strain energy of a member is:

A. Inversely proportional to the square of the force acting on the member
B. Directly proportional to the modulus of elasticity
C. Inversely proportional to the cross- sectional area of the member
D. Inversely proportional to the initial length of the member

46. Strain energy is a measure of _____.

A. Energy per unit volume stored in deformed material
B. Ratio of ultimate failure strain to yield strain
C. Total plastic strain at failure
D. Strain energy per unit volume to reach yield point

47. Stiffness is:

A. Ratio of force to deformation
B. Ratio of force to modulus elasticity
C. Ratio of product of cross- sectional area and initial length to deformation
D. Ratio of initial length to cross- sectional area

48. Which of the following substances has the least average coefficient of linear thermal
expansion?
A. Copper
B. Concrete
C. Steel
D. Tin
 291

49. Steel has a modulus of elasticity of _____Mpa.

A. 200
B. 2, 000
C. 20, 000
D. 200, 000

50. What is the reciprocal of the coefficient of volume elasticity?

A. Compressibility
B. Bulk modulus
C. Modulus of rigidity
D. Young‟s modulus

51. What is the maximum moment of a beam supported at both ends and carries a uniform
load of w throughout its length?
A.
B.

C.

D.

52. _____ is the stress beyond which the material will not return to its original shape when
unloaded but will retain a permanent deformation.
A. Elastic limit
B. Proportional limit
C. Yield limit
D. Yield strength

53. All are methods of determining the bar force of a truss member except one. Which one?
A. Method of joints
B. Method of section
C. Method of virtual work
D. Maxwell diagram

54. When using graphical analysis of trusses, what is used to determine the loads and stresses
of truss members?
A. Maxwell‟ s diagram
B. Applegate‟s diagram
C. Goodman‟s diagram
D. Stress- strain diagram
 292

55. What refers to the gradual extrusion of deformation of a non- elastic material under load?
A. Cold flow
B. Raptured flow
C. Elastic hysteresis
D. Damped flow

56. The relationship between yield strength and the endurance limit of engineering materials
was established graphically using _____.
A. Maxwell‟s diagram
B. Shear and moment diagram
C. Goodman‟s line
D. Stress- strain diagram

57. What is the disadvantage of using Goodman‟s line?

A. It is limited only to cast iron and other brittle materials.
B. You need to know the ultimate strength of the material.
C. The data secured is quite conservative.
D. It requires the use of larger factor of safety.

58. What is the unit of rigidity?

A. Kg/ m
B. N/ m
C. Pascal
D. Unitless

59. What is used to determine graphically the principle stresses of a material?

A. Mohr‟ s circle
B. Maxwell‟s diagram
C. Miller diagram
D. Shear and moment diagram

60. Which of the following is true regarding the effect of the grain size to the strength of the
material?
A. The bigger the grain size, the more ductile the material.
B. The smaller the grain size, the stronger the material.
C. The smaller the grain size, the more it becomes susceptible to dislocation.
D. The bigger the grain size, the more the material be subjected to embrittlement.
 293

ANSWER KEYS

1. A 31. C
2. A 32. A
3. A 33. D
4. A 34. B
5. D 35. D
6. C 36. A
7. A 37. C
8. C 38. B
9. B 39. C
10. A 40. B
11. B 41. C
12. D 42. D
13. A 43. B
14. B 44. B
15. D 45. C
16. B 46. A
17. B 47. A
18. D 48. C
19. C 49. D
20. A 50. A
21. A 51. C
22. C 52. A
23. A 53. D
24. C 54. A
25. B 55. A
26. A 56. C
27. A 57. B
28. C 58. A
29. D 59. A
30. C 60. B
 294

STRENGTH OF MATERIALS PROBLEM

1. Two circular shafts are made of the same material and have the same diameter, D. one of
them is solid and one is hollow, with an inner diameter, d, equal to half the outer
diameter. What is the ratio of the polar moment of inertia of the solid shaft to the polar
moment of inertia of the hollow shaft?
A. ½
B. 8/5
C. 5/12
D. 16/15

2. An old railroad track exposed under direct sunlight is subject to thermal expansion. At a
temperature of 20° F, the rails are 50 feet long with gaps of 0. 01 feet. What stress would
be induced in the rails at temperature of 3 times the initial temperature if they are to be
prevented from buckling? (coefficient of linear expansion for the rail is 6.5 x 10 -6/ F and
Young‟s modulus is 30 x 106)
A. 950 psi
B. 1400 psi
C. 1800 psi
D. 2500 psi

3. What is the maximum normal stress on an element of a thin hollow sphere with a radius
of 15 inches and a thickness of 0. 15 inches that is subjected to an internal pressure of
200 psi?
A. 5000 psi
B. 7500 psi
C. 10000 psi
D. 15000 psi

4. What is the maximum thickness of a steel plate in which a 4. 2 inch diameter hole can be
drilled? Assume that for this material, the maximum shearing strength is 50 ksi and the
maximum compressive strength is 60 ksi?
A. 1. 26 in
B. 1. 53 in
C. 2. 23 in
D. 2. 87 in
 295

5. Solve for the smallest hole diameter that can be drilled on a plate with maximum shear
strength of 50 ksi and a maximum compressive strength of 60 ksi. Assume that the
thickness of the plate is half an inch?
A. 1. 22 in
B. 1. 67 in
C. 2. 45 in
D. 1. 88 in

6. Solve for the maximum shear stress in a 10- meter solid steel rod if it should not twist by
more than 4° after subjecting it to a torque of 18 KN-m. G= 83 GPa for steel.
A. 13. 56 MPa
B. 25. 89 MPa
C. 33. 12 MPa
D. 38. 60 MPa

7. A 3 meter solid steel shaft, with an unknown diameter, twists by 5° as it is stressed by 60

MPa. What is the diameter of the solid steel shaft? G= 83 GPa.
A. 35 mm
B. 40 mm
C. 45 mm
D. 50 mm

8. A spring is made by turning a 15- mm diameter wire 25 times. If the radius of the turn is
100 mm, by how much will the spring elongate if a load of 1.5 kN is applied? Assume
that G= 83 GPa.
A. 457 mm
B. 571 mm
C. 613 mm
D. 667 mm

9. For a heavy string supporting a load og 3. 5 kN, solve for the maximum shearing stress if
it is made from a 30- mm diameter wire and is turned 35 times with a radius of 100 mm.
Assume that G= 83 GPa.
A. 65 MPa
B. 80 MPa
C. 85 MPa
D. 100 MPa
 296

10. A structure is made up of a steel rod 1. 5 high and 100 mm in diameter and is wrapped by
an iron shell that is 15 mm thick. What is the compressive force needed if the structure is
to be compressed by 1. 5 mm? For iron, E= 100 GPa.
A. 2113 kN
B. 2342 kN
C. 2785 kN
D. 2919 kN

11. A 20-m rod is suspended vertically from a ceiling. It has a cross section diameter of 300
mm and supports a tensile load of 10 kN. Find the total elongation if this rod is made of
steel and has a unit mass of 7850 kg/ m3?
A. 0. 078 mm
B. 0. 091 mm
C. 0. 156 mm
D. 0. 345 mm

12. A steel pipe is used to contain gas with a pressure of 5 MPa. The thickness of the pipe is
15 mm and the outside diameter is 200 mm. Assuming the pipe is covered at both ends,
what is the circumferential stress in the pipe?
A. 13. 88 MPa
B. 18. 74 MPa
C. 22. 45 MPa
D. 28. 33 MPa

13. Using the sample pipe mechanism in the previous problem, how many 15- mm diameter
bolts are needed to hold the cover of the pipe if the maximum stress in the bolts is 100
MPa and the initial stress is just half of the maximum stress?
A. 10
B. 13
C. 15
D. 18

14. For a steel shaft with a cross sectional diameter of 100 mm that is installed in between
fixed walls with a distance of 4 meters, solve for the stress in the shaft if the temperature
changes by 30° C. For steel, the coefficient of linear expansion is 11. 7 x 10-6/ ° C.
A. 35. 6 MPa
B. 53. 4 MPa
C. 70. 2 MPa
D. 88. 1 MPa
 297

15. What is the force required in you want a drill a 0. 75 in hole on a 1- in steel plate? For
this specific plate, the maximum shearing stress and the maximum compressive stress is
30, 000 psi and 60, 000 psi, respectively.
A. 40, 000 lb
B. 63, 000 lb
C. 71, 000 lb
D. 84, 000 lb

16. If a bar is under stress of 250 MPa, determine the elongation assuming it is made from
steel that is 10 m long.
A. 12. 5 mm
B. 23. 1 mm
C. 43. 5 mm
D. 50. 1 mm

17. For a certain steel shaft that is 1.5 m long, what is the maximum load that can be applied
if the elongation should not exceed 0. 5 inches? The steel shaft has a diameter of 50 mm.
A. 3325 kN
B. 5414 kN
C. 6844 kN
D. 8912 kN

18. What is the increase in length of a steel pipe, 10 m long, if it‟s temperature is doubled
from 20° C?
A. 2. 34 mm
B. 3. 45 mm
C. 4. 13 mm
D. 5. 86 mm

19. Solve for the angle of twist in degrees of a 5- meter solid steel shaft with a diameter of
250 mm and is subjected to a torque of 50 kN- m. Assume that for steel, the modulus of
elasticity is 200 GPa and the modulus of rigidity is 83 GPa.
A. 0. 45°
B. 0. 98°
C. 1. 23°
D. 1. 89°
 298

20. From the previous problem, solve for the maximum allowable shearing stress on the steel
shaft if it is subjected for twisting.
A. 8. 2 MPa
B. 12. 4 MPa
C. 14. 6 MPa
D. 16. 3 MPa

21. What is the diameter of a bolt if it is used to join two steel bars together under a tensile
force of 10 kN if the maximum bearing stress is 55 MPa? Assume that the thickness of
the plate is 10 mm.
A. 1. 5 mm
B. 1. 8 mm
C. 2. 3 mm
D. 2. 9 mm

22. Solve for the maximum shearing stress in a heavy helical spring that is made from a 25-
mm diameter wire turned 25 times with a radius of 150 mm. assume that the spring is
under a tensile load of 10 kN.
A. 315 MPa
B. 468 MPa
C. 547 MPa
D. 889 MPa

23. If a tank in the shape of a sphere with a diameter of 10 m contains gas with a pressure of
50 MPa, what should be the thickness if it is put under stress of 500 MPa?
A. 125 mm
B. 250 mm
C. 350 mm
D. 400 mm

24. Supposing two springs are connected in series under a single load with an unknown
value. The upper spring is made from a 35 mm diameter wire turned 18 times with a
radius of 150 mm. the lower spring is made from a 30 mm diameter wire turned 12 times
with a radius of 100 mm. if both springs are made from steel, what should be the value of
the load if the maximum sharing stress of both springs is 175 MPa?
A. 7. 6 kN
B. 8. 4 kN
C. 16. 1 kN
D. 20. 5 kN
 299

25. Using the same spring system in the previous problem, solve for the total elongation after
applying the load.
A. 138 mm
B. 245 mm
C. 289 mm
D. 327 mm

26. Solve for the length of the shortest steel cylinder with a diameter of 35 mm that can be
twisted by one complete turn without exceeding its maximum shear stress of 100 MPa.
For steel, G= 83 GPa.
A. 0. 43 m
B. 1. 32 m
C. 1. 67 m
D. 2. 13 m

27. What is the total stress in a 3-m long steel rod with a diameter of 35 mm if it is pulled at
both ends by a pair of 3500 N force at 20° C and the temperature is doubled?
A. 33. 4 MPa
B. 48. 7 MPa
C. 50. 4 MPa
D. 53. 1 MPa

28. Solve for the maximum internal pressure inside a thin- walled steel cylinder if the
maximum stress is 200 MPa. The 30- mm thick container has a diameter of half a mater
and has a length of 2. 5 m.
A. 12 MPa
B. 16 MPa
C. 20 MPa
D. 24 MPa

29. Determine the torque in a hollow steel shaft that has an inner diameter of 50 mm and a
thickness of 10 mm if the maximum shear stress is 150 MPa.
A. 3574 N- m
B. 5693 N- m
C. 7473 N- m
D. 9912 N- m
 300

30. What is the section modulus of a rectangle with a height of 12 m and a base of 4 m?
A. 24 m3
B. 29 m3
C. 54 m3
D. 96 m3

31. What is the angular twist in degrees of a solid steel shaft with a diameter of 100 mm and
a length of 1 m if the maximum torsional shear stress is 75 MPa?
A. 1. 04°
B. 2. 13°
C. 4. 56°
D. 4. 89°

32. Solve for the modulus of elasticity of a material if, during the stress- strain test, it was
found to have a stress 45 MPa at a unit deformation of 314 x 10-3 m.
A. 68. 7 MPa
B. 89. 1 MPa
C. 122. 1 MPa
D. 143. 3 MPa

33. What is the section modulus of a beam with a circle cross- section with a 0. 85- m radius?
A. 0. 48 m3
B. 0. 96 m3
C. 1. 45 m3
D. 2. 33 m3

34. What should be the thickness of a steel water tank with a diameter of 5 m and height of
15 m if the tank is stressed to 65 MPa in a completely- filled situation?
A. 3. 12 mm
B. 5. 66 mm
C. 6. 78 mm
D. 9. 12 mm

35. What is the stress in a 150- mm diameter steel pipe having a thickness of 10 mm and
under a static head of 15 m of water?
A. 1. 1 MPa
B. 1. 8 MPa
C. 3. 2 MPa
D. 4. 1 MPa
 301

36. Solve for the maximum moment induced in a simply supported beam with a length of 30
meters if there is a 150 N/ m force applied throughout the beam?
A. 5625 N- m
B. 6245 N- m
C. 6825 N- m
D. 8775 N- m

37. A steel rod, 8 m in length and 12 mm in diameter, has one end attached to a rigid support.
A 1200- kg block (about the mass of a small automobile) is suspended from the lower
end. By how much will the rod stretch?
A. 1. 45 mm
B. 2. 32 mm
C. 2. 89 mm
D. 4. 16 mm

38. Find the value of the bulk modulus for a gas at a normal atmospheric pressure and
constant temperature.
A. 0
B. Equal to the pressure
C. Equal to the pressure multiplied by the volume
D. Can‟t be determined

39. What must be the force constant of a spring if a compression of 6 cm stores 20 J of

potential energy?
A. 0. 45 kN/ m
B. 1. 11 kN/ m
C. 1. 56 kN/ m
D. 3. 45 kN/ m

40. What is the maximum moment of a 10- m beam with two 50- kN loads 3 m from both
ends?
A. 75 kN- m
B. 150 kN- m
C. 300 kN- m
D. 350 kN- m
 302

ANSWER KEYS

1. D 22. C
2. C 23. B
3. C 24. A
4. A 25. D
5. B 26. A
6. D 27. C
7. D 28. D
8. B 29. C
9. D 30. D
10. A 31. A
11. B 32. D
12. D 33. A
13. B 34. B
14. C 35. A
15. C 36. A
16. A 37. D
17. A 38. B
18. A 39. B
19. A 40. B
20. D
21. B
 303

ENGINEERING MATERIALS OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS

1. What are considered as the “building block” for engineering materials?

A. Atoms
B. Elements
C. Matters
D. Compound

2. What are the major classes of engineering materials?

A. Metal, ceramics and semiconductors
B. Polymers, metal and composites
C. Metal, ceramics, polymers and semiconductor
D. Metals, ceramics, polymers, semiconductor and composites

3. What types of materials behave like iron when placed in a magnetic field?
A. Crystals
B. Amorphous materials
C. Ferromagnetic materials
D. Metalloids

4. What do you call metals reinforced by ceramics or other materials, usually in fiber form?
A. Metalloids
B. Matrix alloys
C. Metal lattices
D. Metal matrix composites

5. What is a combination of one or more metals with a nonmetallic element?

A. Metalloid
B. Matrix composite
C. Inert
D. Ceramic

6. Polymer comes from Greek words “poly” which means” many” and “meros” which
means _____.
A. Metal
B. Material
C. Part
D. Plastic
 304

7. The engineering materials known as “plastic” are more correctly called _____.
A. .Polyvinyl chloride
B. Polymers
C. Polyethylene
D. Mers

8. Which of the following plastics does not burn but rather extinguishes itself?
A. Polyester
B. Acrylic
C. Nylon
D. Propylene

9. Which of the following plastics does not burn?

A. Carbonates
B. Acetals
C. Polyester
D. Fluorocarbons

10. Which of the following is an example of fluorocarbon?

A. Nylon
B. Acrylic
C. Styrene
D. Teflon

11. What is a combination of two or more materials that has properties that the components
materials do not have by themselves?
A. Compounds
B. Composite
C. Mixture
D. Matrix

12. What is a reference sheet for the elements that can be used to form engineering materials?
A. Periodic table
B. Truth table
C. Building blocks of materials
D. Structure of materials
 305

13. What physical property of a material that refers to the point at which a materials liquefies
on heating or solidifies on cooling?
A. Melting point
B. Curie point
C. Refractive index
D. Specific heat

14. What physical property of a material that refers to the temperature at which
ferromagnetic materials can no longer be magnetized by outside forces?
A. Melting point
B. Thermal conductivity
C. Thermal expansion
D. Curie point

15. What refers to the temperature at which a ferromagnetic materials reverts to being a
paramagnetic materials?
A. Ferromagnetic temperature
B. Paramagnetic temperature
C. Curie temperature
D. Tri-point temperature

16. What physical property of a material refers to the amount of weight gain (%) experienced
in a polymer after immersion in water for a specified length of time under a controlled
environment?
A. Dielectric strength
B. Electric resistivity
C. Water absorption
D. Thermal conductivity

17. What physical property of a material that refer to the rate of heat flow per unit time in a
homogeneous material under steady conditions, per unit area, per unit temperature
gradient in a direction perpendicular to area?
A. Thermal expansion
B. Thermal conductivity
C. Heat distortion temperature
D. Water absorption
 306

18. What refer to the ratio of thermal conductivity of a material to the product of electrical
conductivity and temperature?
A. Conductivity ratio
B. Matthiessen‟s ratio
C. Wiedemann-Frantz rule
D. Maxwell ratio

19. What states that the total electrical resistivity is the sum of the thermal resistivity and the
residual resistivity?
A. Matthiessen‟s rule
B. Nordheim‟s rule
C. Wiedemann‟s rule
D. Frentz‟s rule

20. What is caused by the local melting of a constituent or an impurity in the grain or
randomly oriented metal crystals boundary at a temperature below the melting point of
the metal itself?
A. Slip-sliding
B. Hot-shortness
C. Inclusion
D. Tempering

21. Which of the following elements has the highest thermal conductivity?
A. Zinc
B. Copper
C. Gold
D. Aluminum

22. Which of the following has the lowest electrical conductivity?

A. Quartz
B. Graphite
C. Glass
D. Ceramics

23. What type of bond in metallic compounds will enable them to possess electrical
conductivity property?
A. Crystalline bond
B. Covalent bond
C. Ionic bond
D. All of the above
 307

24. What refers to a covalent bond formed by overlap between two p- orbitals or different
atoms?
A. Pi bond
B. Omega bond
C. Delta bond
D. Sigma bond

25. The superimposition of pi bonds on sigma bonds results in the formation of what type of
bonds?
A. Beta- sigma bonds
B. Sigma- pi bonds
C. Pi- alpha bonds
D. Double bonds or triple bonds

26. What refers to interatomic and intermolecular bonds that are relatively weak and for
which bonding energies are relatively small?
A. Primary bond
B. Double bond
C. Secondary bond
D. Covalent bond

27. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of ionic compounds?

A. They have high melting point.
B. They are normally brittle crystalline solids.
C. They have low boiling point.
D. They are poor conductor of electricity when in the solid phase.

28. What physical property of a material refers to the highest potential difference (voltage)
that an insulting material of given thickness can withstand for a specified time without
occurrence of electrical breakdown through its bulk?
A. Thermal expansion
B. Conductivity
C. Dielectric strength
D. Electrical resistivity
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29. What is the percentage of copper content used for electrical wires, switches and
terminally normally supplied as ETP?
A. 90.95 %
B. 95. 95 %
C. 98. 95 %
D. 99. 95 %

30. What physical property of a material refers to the ratio of the amount of heat required to
raise the temperature of a unit mass of a substance 1 degree to the heat required to raise
the same mass of water to 1 degree?
A. Specific heat
B. Latent heat
C. Heat of fusion
D. Heat of fission

31. Which of the following materials has the highest specific heat?
A. Copper
B. Aluminum
C. Iron
D. Lead

32. What physical property of material refers to the temperature at which a polymer under a
specified load shows a specified amount of deflection?
A. Curie temperature
B. Specific heat
C. Heat distortion temperature
D. Thermal conductivity

33. What mechanical property of material refers to the nominal stress at fracture in a tension
test at constant load and constant temperature?
A. Creep strength
B. Stress rapture strength
C. Compressive yield strength
D. Hardness

34. What mechanical property of a material refers to the resistance to plastic deformation?
A. Rigidity
B. Plasticity
C. Ductility
D. Hardness
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35. What parameter is defined as the temperature at which the toughness of the material
drops below some predetermined value, usually 15 ft- lb?
A. Nil ductility temperature
B. Curie temperature
C. Thermal conductivity
D. Heat distortion temperature

36. What is obtained by repeatedly loading a specimen at given stress levels until it fails?
A. Elastic limit
B. Endurance limit or fatigue strength of material
C. Creep
D. All of the choices

37. What dimensional property of a material refers to the deviation from edge straightness?
A. Lay
B. Out of flat
C. Camber
D. Waviness

38. What dimensional property of a material refers to a wavelike variation from a perfect
surface, generally much wider in spacing and higher in amplitude than surface
roughness?
A. Lay
B. Waviness
C. Surface finish
D. Out of flat

39. Wood is composed of chains of cellulose molecules bonded together by another natural
polymer called _____.
A. Plastic
B. Lignin
C. Mer
D. Additive

40. What is a polymer production process that involves forming a polymer chain containing
two different monomers?
A. Copolymerization
B. Blending
C. Alloying
D. Cross- linking
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41. What refers to a linear copolymer in which identical repeat units are clustered in blocks
along a molecular chain?
A. Branched copolymer
B. Block copolymer
C. Clustered copolymer
D. Moleculed copolymer

42. What refers to a polymer having a molecular structure of secondary chains that extend
from the primary main chains?
A. Branched polymer
B. Block polymer
C. Secondary polymer
D. Extended polymer

43. A polymer in which two different repeat units are randomly distributed along the
molecular chain is called?
A. Uneven copolymer
B. Random copolymer
C. Specific copolymer
D. Even copolymer

44. What is the generic name of a class of polymer which is commercially known as”nylon”?
A. Polyacetals
B. Polyamide
C. Cellulose
D. Polyester

45. What is defined as a material being capable of recovering from large deformations
quickly?
A. Elastomer
B. Rubber
C. Cellulose
D. Polyester

46. For natural rubber, what refers to its base which is a milky- sap obtained from the inner
bark of a tropical tree?
A. Elastomer
B. Vulcanizer
C. Gum
D. Latex
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47. By definition, a rubber is a substance that has at least _____ elongation in tensile test and
is capable of returning rapidly and forcibly to its original dimensions when load is
removed.
A. 100 %
B. 150 %
C. 200 %
D. 250 %

48. What is a method of forming polymer sheets or films into three- dimensional shapes, in
which the sheet is clamped on the edge, heated until it softens and sags, drawn in contact
with the mold by vacuum and cooled while still in contact with the mold?
A. Calendaring
B. Blow molding
C. Thermoforming
D. Solid phase forming

49. What is a process of forming continuous shapes by forcing a molten polymer through a
metal die?
A. Calendaring
B. Thermoforming
C. Lithography
D. Extrusion

50. What does the word “refractory” mean when used to classify metals?
A. It is oxidation resistant.
B. It is sun rays resistant.
C. It is corrosion resistant.
D. It is heat resistant.

51. The following are classified as refractory metals except one. Which one?
A. Beryllium
B. Niobium
C. Tantalum
D. Molybdenum

52. What of the following metals is NOT a refractory metal?

A. Lead
B. Tungsten
C. Molybdenum
D. Niobium
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53. What chemical property of a material which refers to its ability to resist deterioration by
chemical or electrochemical reactions with environment?
A. Stereospecificity
B. Corrosion resistance
C. Conductivity
D. Electrical resistance

54. Corrosion refers to the deteriorative loss of a metal as a result of _____.

A. Too much applied force
B. Calcinations
C. Dissolution environmental reactions
D. All of the above

55. Corrosion refers to the deterioration of metals and ceramics. It plastics, corrosion is
usually called _____.
A. Oxidation
B. Deformation
C. Degradation
D. Deterioration

56. What refers to the tendency for polymers and molecular materials to form with an
ordered, spatial, three- dimensional arrangement of monometer molecules?
A. Stereospecificity
B. Conductivity
C. Retentivity
D. Special configuration

57. Which of the metal used as engineering materials uses face- centered cubic (fcc) atomic
arrangement?
A. Zirconium
B. Gold
C. Alpha- iron
D. Cadmium

58. Which of the following metals use hexagonal close- packed (hcp) atomic arrangement?
A. Cobalt
B. Chromium
C. Platinum
D. Tantalum
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59. The combination of slip- plane and its direction of slip is known as a slip system. Which
crystal has 3 slip systems?
A. Body- centered cubic crystal
B. Phase- centered crystal
C. Phase- body cubic crystal
D. Hexagonal close- packed crystal

60. Which of the following metals is NOT body- centered cubic (bcc) atomic arrangement?
A. Alpha iron
B. Aluminum
C. Molybdenum
D. Vanadium

61. Which of the following ferromagnets has a body- centered cubic (bcc) crystalline
structure?
A. Cd
B. Fe
C. Cu
D. Ni

62. What is the basic atomic crystalline structure of chromium?

A. Hexagonal close- packed
B. Body- centered cubic
C. Face- centered cubic
D. Cubic lattice- closed

63. What refers to a crystalline defect associated with one or at most several atomic sites?
A. Point defect
B. Line defect
C. Structure defect
D. Frenkel defect

64. What is the most common crystal defect?

A. Smoothness defect
B. Grain structure defect
C. Line defect
D. Point defect
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65. What refers to cation- vacancy and cation- interstitial pair in an ionic solid?
A. Line defect
B. Point defect
C. Dislocation defect
D. Frenkel defect

66. What refers to a defect consisting of a cation- vacancy and anion- vacancy pair in ionic
solid?
A. Line defect
B. Point defect
C. Frenkel defect
D. Schottky defect

67. What refers to a linear crystalline defect around which there is atomic misalignment?
A. Line defect
B. Point defect
C. Alignment defect
D. Dislocation defect

68. Which material below possesses the property of having very high conductivity but with
very low electrical conductivity?
A. Beryllia
B. Magnesia
C. Graphite
D. All of the above

69. The atomic crystal structure of silicon in which each atom has four nearest neighbors in a
tetrahedral configuration is called _____ lattice.
A. Ordinary
B. Cubic
C. Diamond
D. Graphite

70. What refers to a lattice structure identical to the diamond lattice except that there are two
times of atoms instead of one?
A. Graphite lattice
B. Dual lattice
C. Zincblende lattice
D. Mixed lattice
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71. What is the smallest unit cell that can be repeated to form a lattice?
A. Primitive cell
B. Tiny cell
C. Finite cell
D. Micro cell

72. What refers to a small volume of crystal that can be used to reproduce the entire crystal?
A. Mini cell
B. Micro cell
C. Unit cell
D. Finite cell

73. The set of integers used to describe a crystal plane is called _____.
A. Lattice indices
B. Crystal indices
C. Miller indices
D. Cell indices

74. What is the amount of energy required to fracture a given volume of material?
A. Impact strength
B. Endurance limit
C. Creep strength
D. Stress rupture strength

75. What mechanical property of a material which is a time- dependent permanent strain
under stress?
A. Elongation
B. Elasticity
C. Creep
D. Rupture

76. What refers to the stress at which a material exhibits a specified deviation from
proportionality of stress and strain?
A. Tensile strength
B. Shear strength
C. Yield strength
D. Flexural strength
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77. The greatest stress which a material is capable of withstanding without a deviation from
acceptable of stress to strain is called _____.
A. Elongation
B. Proportional unit
C. Yield point
D. Elastic limit

78. What is the maximum stress below which a material can theoretically endure an infinite
number of stress cycles?
A. Endurance state
B. Endurance test
C. Endurance limit
D. Endurance strength

79. What is a substance that attracts piece of iron?

A. Conductor
B. Semiconductor
C. Magnet
D. Semimetal

80. Which of the following a natural magnet?

A. Steel
B. Magnesia
C. Lodestone
D. Soft iron

81. Of the materials listed below, which one ranked third as good conductor of electric
current?
A. Silver
B. Copper
C. Gold
D. Aluminum

82. What silver is an alloy of silver and copper?

A. White silver
B. Nordic silver
C. Sterling silver
D. Red silver
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83. Sterling silver is composed of _____ copper and _____ silver.

A. 7. 5 %, 92. 5 %
B. 8. 5 %, 91. 5 %
C. 10 %, 90 %
D. 5 %, 95 %

84. Which of the following is an arrangement of good conductors of electricity from best to
least?
A. Silver, Copper, Gold, Aluminum
B. Aluminum, Gold, Silver, Copper
C. Gold, Silver, Copper, Aluminum
D. Aluminum, Silver, Gold, Copper

85. Which of the following engineering materials has the highest electrical conductivity at
room temperature?
A. Copper
B. Nickel
C. Silver
D. Cadmium

86. What is the electrical conductivity of aluminum m/ ohm- m?

A. 2. 57 x 107
B. 3. 57 x 107
C. 4. 57 x 107
D. 5. 57 x 107

87. What is the resistance of a material to plastic deformation?

A. Hardness
B. Stiffness
C. Creepage
D. Rigidity

88. Hardness is the measure of a material‟s resistance to deformation by _____.

A. Surface indentation
B. Abrasion
C. Tensile and compressive forces
D. Surface indentation or by abrasion
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89. Heat distortion is what property of plastics?

A. Physical property
B. Mechanical property
C. Chemical property
D. Structural property

90. Which of the following materials has permeability slightly less than that of free space?
A. Paramagnetic materials
B. Non- magnetic materials
C. Ferromagnetic materials
D. Diamagnetic materials

91. What materials has permeabilities slighter greater than that of free space?
A. Paramagnetic materials
B. Non- magnetic materials
C. Ferromagnetic materials
D. Diamagnetic materials

92. Which of the following materials has very high permeabilities?

A. Paramagnetic materials
B. Non- magnetic materials
C. Ferromagnetic materials
D. Diamagnetic materials

93. What refers to the weak form of induced or nonpermanent magnetism for which the
magnetic susceptibility is negative?
A. Ferromagnetism
B. Paramagnetism
C. Diamagnetism
D. Antimagnetism

94. What refers to arelatively weak form of magnetism that results from the independent
alignment of atomics dipoles with an applied magnetic field?
A. Paramagnetism
B. Ferromagnetism
C. Diamagnetism
D. Antimagnetism
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95. What is defined as the ASTM as a material that contains as an essential ingredient an
organic substance of large molecular weight, is solid in its finished state, and at some
stage in its manufactured or in its processing into finished articles, can be shaped by
flow?
A. Metal
B. Metalloid
C. Plastic
D. Ceramic

96. Cermit is a composite material consisting of a combination of ceramic and _____.

A. Non- metallic material
B. Polymer
C. Metallic material
D. Elastic material

97. Abrasive materials are hard and wear- resistant material that is used to _____ other
materials.
A. Wear
B. Grind
C. Cut away
D. All of the above

98. What type of substance that bonds together the surfaces of two other materials?
A. Abrasive
B. Adhesive
C. Amorphous
D. Anistropic

99. Some polymetric materials such as epoxies are formed by strong primary chemical bonds
called _____.
A. Metallic bond
B. Van der Waals bond
C. Cross linking
D. Covalent bond
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100. What do you call a polymer without additives and without blending with another
polymer
A. Homopolymer
B. Ethenic polymer
C. Polyethylene
D. Copolymer

101. A large molecule with two alternating mers is called as _____.

A. Monomer
B. Elastomer
C. Mers
D. Copolymer or interpolymer

102. A polymer that consists of two or more dissimilar repeat units in combination
along its molecular chains is called ______.
A. Elastomer
B. Branched polymer
C. Copolymer
D. Crosslinked polymer

103. A polymer in in which adjacent linear molecular chains are joined at various
positions by covalent bonds is called _____.
A. Elastomer
B. Branched polymer
C. Copolymer
D. Crosslinked polymer

104. A stable molecule from which a polymer is synthesized is called ______.

A. Monomer
B. High polymer
C. Elastomer
D. Copolymer

105. What refers to the ability of a solid material to exist in more than one form or
crystal structure?
A. Polycrystallination
B. Polymorphism
C. Polyamorphism
D. Coexistence
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106. What term is used to describe a polymer that has rubberlike properties?
A. Vulcanizer
B. Elasticmer
C. Polychloroprene
D. Elastomer

107. What is defined as an alloy of iron and carbon, with the carbon being restricted
within certain concentration limits?
A. Steel
B. Wrought iron
C. Cast iron
D. Tendons

108. Ordinary steel at high temperature has only one constituent which is iron holding
carbon in solid solution. What is the constituent?
A. Cementite
B. Austenite
C. Ferrite
D. Pearlite

109. The carbon content of cementite is approximately how many percent of its
compound?
A. 4. 7 %
B. 5. 7 %
C. 6. 7 %
D. 7. 7 %

110. What is the most popular steel refining process or technique which involves
casting of steel from the BOF or electric furnace into cylindrical ingots?
A. Vacuum are remelting (VAR)
B. Vacuum induction melting (VIM)
C. Electron beam refining
D. Electroslag refining chute

111. In what special refining process of steel where molten metal is poured down a
tundish (chute) into an ingot mold?
A. Electroslag refining
B. Vacuum are remelting
C. Vacuum induction melting
D. Electron beam refining
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112. What type of steel has carbon as its principal hardening agent?
A. Alloy steel
B. Stainless steel
C. Galvanized steel
D. Carbon steel

113. What type of steel has 0.8 % carbon and 100% pearlite?
A. Austenite
B. Eutectoid
C. Hyper- eutectoid
D. Stainless steel

114. Which type of steel does not contain nickel and can be hardened by heat
treatment?
A. Precipitation- hardening steel
B. Austenitic steel (200 and 300 series)
C. Martensitic steel (400 and 500)
D. Ferritic steel (400 series)

115. What group of steels are water- hardened tool steels?

A. Group S
B. Group W
C. Group O
D. Group T

116. What group of steels are molybdenum high- speed steels?

A. Group A
B. Group D
C. Group M
D. Group H

117. Steels that are used for axles, gears and similar parts requiring medium to high
hardness and high strength are known as?
A. Medium- carbon steel
B. Low- carbon steel
C. Very high- carbon steel
D. High- carbon steel

118. Galvanized steel are steel products coated with _____.

A. Carbon
B. Sulfur
C. Zinc
D. Nickel
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119. What is the most utilized metal for industry next only o iron, aluminum and
magnesium?
A. Zincis
B. Tin
C. Nickel
D. Lead

120. What ASTM test for tension designated for plastics?

A. A370
B. D638
C. E292
D. C674

121. What ASTM test for compression is designated for plastics?

A. D638
B. D695
C. D790
D. D732

122. What ASTM test for shear strength is designated for plastics?
A. D732
B. D790
C. D695
D. D638

123. What is the ASTM tension testing designation for standard methods for steel
products?
A. A370
B. E345
C. E8
D. C674

124. Low- quality steels with an M suffix on the designation intended for nonstructural
application is classified as _____.
A. Merchant quality
B. Commercial quality
C. Drawing quality
D. Special quality
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125. The use of acids to remove oxides and scale on hot- worked steel is known as
_____.
A. Tempering
B. Pickling
C. Machining
D. Galvanizing

126. What is the purpose of molybdenum in steel alloying?

A. To increase brittleness
B. To increase dynamic acid and high- temperature strength and hardness
C. To reduce brittleness, combine with sulfur
D. To increase corrosion and resistance

127. Which of the following statements is NOT true?

A. About 10 % of the earth‟s crust is iron.
B. Pure iron does not have significant industrial use because it is too weak and soft.
C. Steel is an alloy of carbon and iron with limits on the amount of carbon (less than 2
%)
D. Steel is made by reducing oxide ore of iron by thermochemical reactions in a blast
furnace or direct reduction vessel.

128. What prefix in steel identification means composition varies from normal limits?
A. E
B. H
C. X
D. B

129. What prefix in steel identification means it is made in an electric furnace?

A. E
B. H
C. X
D. B

130. What letter suffix in steel identification means that it is steel with boron as an
alloying element?
A. xxLxx
B. xxBxx
C. xxBxx
D. xxKxx
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131. What refers to the tin mill steel without a coating?

A. White plate
B. Tin steel free
C. Black plate
D. Dichromate tin

132. What combination of elements has high electrical resistance, high corrosion
resistance and high strength at red heat temperatures, making it useful in resistance
heating?
A. Aluminum bronze
B. Nichrome
C. Hastelloy
D. Alnico

133. A steel cannot qualify for stainless prefix until it has at least how many percent of
chromium?
A. 10 %
B. 20 %
C. 25 %
D. 5 %

134. What do you add to compensate for the remaining high iron oxide content of the
steel?
A. Deorizers
B. Deoxidizers
C. Deterrent
D. Detoxifiers

135. What graphite exists is largely in the form of flakes?

A. Gray cast iron
B. White cast iron
C. Wrought iron
D. Malleable cast iron

136. What is the reason for the name “gray” cast iron?
A. When it is broken the fractured path is along graphite path and has gray softy
appearance.
B. It is just called gray to differentiate with the white cast iron.
C. Because the outside appearance is gray even though its inner part is white.
D. Because it was the name given by the one who discovered this iron.
 326

137. Which of the following gray irons is called “ fully- gay iron”?
A. Perlistic gray iron
B. Masteritic gray iron
C. Flaby gray iron
D. Ferritic gray iron

138. Which of the following cast irons is a high- carbon, iron- carbon- silicon alloy?
A. Gray iron
B. Malleable iron
C. White iron
D. Alloy iron

139. Which of the following cast irons is heat- treated for conductivity?
A. Gray iron
B. Malleable iron
C. White iron
D. Ductile iron

140. Which cast iron is hard and wear resistant?

A. Gray iron
B. Ductile iron
C. White iron
D. Malleable iron

141. What is considered as the general purpose, oldest type and widely used cast iron?
A. Gray iron
B. Ductile iron
C. Alloy iron
D. Malleable iron

142. What is another term for nodular iron?

A. Malleable iron
B. Ductile iron
C. Wrought iron
D. White iron

143. What is the effect of manganese in cast iron?

A. To affect the machinability, ductility and shrinkage depending on form
B. To reduce hardness by combining with sulfur below 0.5 % and increase hardness
above 0.5 %
C. To deoxidize molten cast iron
D. To increase fluidity and lowers melting temperature
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144. What is the effect of aluminum in cast iron?

A. To increase hardness above 0.5 %
B. To deoxidize molten cast iron
C. To affect the machinability, ductility and shrinkage depending on form
D. To reduce hardness by combining with sulfur below 0. 5 %

145. What is added to nickel to improve its ductility?

A. Zinc
B. Copper
C. Iron
D. Manganese

146. What refers to a measure of a material‟s ability to undergo appreciable plastic

deformation before fracture?
A. Ductility
B. Malleability
C. Elasticity
D. Plasticity

147. Ductility is expressed in terms of _____.

A. Percent elongation
B. Percent area reduction from a tensile test
C. Percent elongation or percent area reduction from a tensile test
D. Percent strain

148. What is the effect of silicon in cast iron?

A. Reduce hardness by combining with sulfur below 0.5 % and increase hardness above
0.5 %
B. Increase fluidity and lowers melting temperature
C. Softens iron and increases ductility below 3. 25 % hardens iron above 3. 25 % and
increase acid and corrosion resistance above 13 %
D. Deoxidizes molten cast iron

149. Iron is said to be abundant in nature. About how many percent of the earth‟s crust
is iron?
A. 10 %
B. 5 %
C. 20 %
D. 8 %

150. What is the lowest- temperature diffusion hardening process and does not require
a quench?
A. Carburizing
B. Tempering
C. Nitriding
D. Heat- treating
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151. The following statements are true except one. Which one?
A. Carburizing does not harden steel.
B. Flame and induction hardening require the use of hardenable steels.
C. Quench- hardened steel does not require tempering to prevent brittleness.
D. Induction hardening is usually most efficient on small parts.

152. Which of the following is a characteristic or breaking of brittle materials/

A. Splinters in various forms will be produced.
B. Breaking takes place in perpendicular and parallel lines.
C. Breaking takes place in an oblique plane.
D. The cross- sectional area size.

153. What arbitrary strain value is used to differentiate ductile materials from brittle
materials?
A. 0. 05 inch per inch
B. 0. 025 inch per inch
C. 0. 50 inch per inch
D. 0. 25 inch per inch

154. For ductile materials, the material strength used is the _____.
A. Nominal strength
B. Average allowable strength
C. Ultimate strength
D. Yield strength

155. Which of the following is a requirement for hardening a steel?

A. Heating to the proper temperature
B. Sufficient carbon content
C. Adequate quench
D. All of the choices

156. What is the average hardening temperature for steel in degree Fahrenheit?
A. 1470 to 1580
B. 1670 to 1870
C. 1375 to 1575
D. 1575 to 1875

157. What field of study encompasses the procurement and production of metals?
A. Metallurgy
B. Geology
C. Material science
D. Metalgraphy
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158. What do you call earth and stone missed with the iron oxides?
A. Hematite
B. Magnetite
C. Gangue
D. Ore

159. What is a coal that has been previously burned in an oxygen- poor environment?
A. Tuyere
B. Coke
C. Diamond
D. Hematit
160. What is the most common alloying ingredient in copper?
A. Brass
B. Zinc
C. Nickel
D. Aluminum

161. What refers to the hardening of the outer space of a steel component by a
carburizing or nitriding process?
A. Case hardening
B. Case annealing
C. Case nitriding
D. Case calcination

162. What is the main purpose of case hardening?

A. To improve machinability
B. To improve ductility
C. To improve corrosion resistance
D. To improve wear and fatigue resistance

163. What refers to the case hardening process by which the carbon content of the steel
near the surface of a part is increased?
A. Carburizing
B. Annealing
C. Normalizing
D. Martempering

164. What is the process of heating a hardened steel to any temperature below the
lower critical temperature, followed by any desired rate of cooling?
A. Normalizing
B. Spheroidizing
C. Carburizing
D. Tempering
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165. What refers to the heat treatment done in materials that improve its strength and
machinability and hardens it resulting to loss of ductility?
A. Normalizing
B. Tempering
C. Carburizing
D. Annealing

166. Brazing is a metal joining technique that uses a molten filler metal alloy having a
melting temperature greater than _____.
A. 400° C
B. 425° C
C. 450° C
D. 475° C

167. What is defined as an intimate mechanical mixture of two or more phases having
a definite composition and a definite temperature of transformation within the solid state?
A. Pearlite
B. Eutrctoid
C. Austernite
D. Delta solid solution

168. What is the most undesirable of all the elements commonly found in steels?
A. Sulfur
B. Phosphorus
C. Silicon
D. Manganese

169. What is a method of casehardening involving diffusion in which the steel to be

casehardened is machined, heat- treated, placed in an air- tight box and heated to about
1000° F?
A. Annealing
B. Normalizing
C. Carburizing
D. Nitriding

170. What typical penetrator is used in Brinell hardness test?

A. 10 mm ball
B. 120° diamond (brale)
C. 1. 6 mm diameter ball
D. 20° needle
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171. What is defined as the ratio of the load P to the curves surface area of the
indention in a certain hardness test?
A. Brinell hardness number
B. Moh‟s hardness number
C. Vicker‟s hardness number
D. Rockwell‟s hardness number

172. In measuring the hardness of materials using Brinell test, what is the
recommended load use to obtain accurate measurement?
A. 1500 kg to 3000 kg
B. 500 kg to 1000 kg
C. 1000 kg to 2000 kg
D. 500 kg to 1000 kg

173. What is the ratio of the maximum load in a tension test to the original cross-
sectional area of the test bar?
A. Tensile strength
B. Yield strength
C. Shear strength
D. Flexural strength

174. What is the ratio of stress to strain in a material loaded within its elastic range?
A. Poisson‟s ratio
B. Refractive index
C. Modulus of elasticity
D. Percent elongation

175. What is a measure of rigidity?

A. Stiffness
B. Hardness
C. Strength
D. Modulus of elasticity

176. In tensile testing, the increase in the gage length measured after the specimen
fractures within the gage length is called _____.
A. Percent elongation
B. Creep
C. Elasticity
D. Elongation

177. What impurity in steel can cause “red shortness”, which means the steel becomes
unworkable at high temperature?
A. Sulfur
B. Silicon
C. Manganese
D. Phosphorus
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178. What is a process of producing a hard surface in a steel having a sufficiently high
carbon content to respond to hardening by a rapid cooling of the surface?
A. Cyaniding
B. Nitriding
C. Flame hardening
D. Induction hardening

179. What is the most common reinforcement for polymer composites?

A. Boron
B. Ceramic
C. Graphite
D. Glass fiber

180. A fine- grained crystalline ceramic material that was formed as a glass an
subsequently crystallized is known as _____.
A. Glass-polymer
B. Glass-ceramic
C. Glass-plastic
D. Glass-fiber

181. What kind of composite in which carbon is used in the fiber as well as in the
matrix?
A. Carbonic composite
B. Homogeneous carbon composite
C. Carbon- carbon composite
D. Pure carbon composite

182. Which of the following fluids conducts electricity?

A. Electrolyte
B. Water
C. Solution
D. Acid

183. What is defined as a local corrosion damaged characterized by surface cavities?

A. Cracking
B. Pitting
C. Cavitation
D. Erosion

184. What refers to the removal of zinc from brasses?

A. Dezincification
B. Graphitization
C. Stabilization
D. Dealloying
 333

185. What is the scaling off of a surface in flakes or layers as the result of corrosion?
A. Expoliation
B. Corrosion fatigue
C. Scaping
D. Fretting

186. What type of failure results from the simultaneous action of cyclic stress and
chemical attack?
A. Coercive fatigue
B. Corrosion fatigue
C. Coulombic fatigue
D. Creep

187. What corrosion occurs under organic coatings on metals as fine, wavy hairlines?
A. Stray current corrosion
B. Microbiological corrosion
C. Filiform corrosion
D. Fretting corrosion

188. What refers to the deterioration of material by oscillatory relative motion of small
amplitude (20 to 100 µm) between solid surfaces in a corrosive environment?
A. Stray current corrosion
B. Microbiological corrosion
C. Filiform corrosion
D. Fretting corrosion

189. Indicate the false statement about corrosion.

A. Plastics and ceramics are immune to many forms of corrosion because they are not
good conductors of electricity.
B. The corroded member in a corrosion cell is the cathode.
C. Passivity is a prerequisite for the corrosion protection or many metals.
D. Corrosion of metals is usually electrochemical in nature.

190. Steel is an alloy of iron and carbon with limits on the amount of carbon less than
_____ percent.
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 1

191. Indicate false statement about stainless steel?

A. The density of stainless steel is about the same as carbon or low- alloy steels.
B. Stainless steels are poor conductors of heat.
C. Stainless steels are poor conductors of electricity.
D. Stainless steels have tensile moduli greater than those of carbon and alloy steels.
 334

192. What are the four major alloying elements of austenitic stainless steels?
A. Iron, chromium, carbon and nickel
B. Iron, chromium, zinc and nickel
C. Iron, chromium, carbon and zinc
D. Iron, chromium, carbon and copper

193. The electrical resistance of stainless steels can be as much as _____times that of
carbon steel.
A. 5
B. 6
C. 10
D. 15

194. Two identical electrical wires of equal length are made from the same material.
What is the ratio of their resistances if the radius of one wire is twice that of the other?
A. 1:2
B. 1:4
C. 1:8
D. 1:16

195. What is the range of the specific gravity of carbon steel (rolled)?
A. 9. 11 to 9. 81
B. 8. 31 to 8. 61
C. 7. 81 to 7. 85
D. 6. 71 to 6. 81

196. What refers to a shape achieved by allowing a liquid to solidify in a mold?

A. Casting
B. Molding
C. Forming
D. All of the choices

197. What refers to the process by which a raw material is shaped by hearing and
squeezing into the desired shape, between two platens that act as a mold?
A. Heat molding
B. Cold molding
C. Compression molding
D. Tension molding

198. Which of the following is NOT a hardware requirement for die casting?
A. Water- cooled metal cavities
B. Machined metal holding blocks
C. Ejection mechanism
D. Metal mold (Matching halves)
 335

199. Which of the following materials is the easiest to die- cast?

A. Aluminum
B. Zinc
C. Titanium
D. Vanadium

200. What cast iron has nodular or spheroidal graphite?

A. Ductile iron
B. Wrought iron
C. Gray iron
D. White iron

201. What is a process for making glass- reinforced shapes that can be generated by
pulling resin- impregnated glass strands through a die?
A. Continuous pultrusion
B. Bulk molding
C. Vacuum bag forming
D. Resin thunder moulding

202. What term is used to denote a family of thermosetting polymers that are reaction
products of alcohols and acids?
A. Alkaline
B. Aklydes
C. Alcocids
D. Aldehyde

203. What is the AISI- SAE steel designation for nickel 3. 50 alloy?
A. 13XX
B. 23XX
C. 25XX
D. 31XX

204. What is the AISI- SAE steel designation for resulfurized and rephosphorized
carbon steel?
A. 13XX
B. 31XX
C. 23XX
D. 12XX

205. What is the AISI- SAE steel designation for nickel steel?
A. 21XX
B. 22XX
C. 23XX
D. 24XX
 336

206. What does AISI stands for?

A. Asian Institute of Steel Industries
B. American Institute of Steel Industries
C. Association of Iron and Steel Industries
D. American Iron and Steel Institute

207. What does SAE stands for?

A. Society of Automotive engineers
B. Society of American Engineers
C. Society of Architects and Engineers
D. Society of Alloy Engineers

208. What does ASTM stands for?

A. Association of Steels Testing and Materials
B. American Society for Testing and Materials
C. Asian Society for Testing and Materials
D. Allied Society for Testing and Materials

209. What is the approximate chromium range of a ferritic stainless steel?

A. 12 % to 18 %
B. 10 % to 12 %
C. 16 v to 20 %
D. 20 % to 24 %

210. Stainless steels are iron- based alloys that contain 12% or more _____.
A. Tin
B. Cadmium
C. Lead
D. Chromium

211. The group H steels can use in what temperature range?

A. 600° C to 1100° C
B. 1100° C to 1500° C
C. 1100° C to 2000° C
D. 200° C to 800° C

212. The following are primary alloying ingredients of Group H steels except?
A. Molybdenum
B. Tungsten
C. Cobalt
D. Chromium
 337

213. The chrome- molybdenum steels contain how many percent of molybdenum?
A. 0. 10
B. 0. 20
C. 0. 30
D. 0. 40

214. The chrome- vanadium steels contain how many percent of vanadium?
A. 0. 15 to 0. 30
B. 0. 05 to 0. 15
C. 0. 30 to 0. 45
D. 0. 45 to 0. 60

215. Manganese steel usually contains how many percent of manganese?

A. 1 to 5
B. 5 to 10
C. 11 to 14
D. 14 to 18

216. The wear- resistance of this material is attributed to its ability to _____ that is, the
hardness increased greatly when the steel is cold worked.
A. Cold harden
B. Stress harden
C. Cool- temperature resistant
D. Strain harden

217. The special chrome steels of the stainless variety contain how many percent of
chromium?
A. 4 to 8
B. 9 to 10
C. 11 to 17
D. 17 to 21

218. What refers to the application of any process whereby the surface of steel is
altered so that it will become hard?
A. Carburizing
B. Case hardening
C. Annealing
D. Surfacehardening

219. What refers to the ability of steel to be hardened through to its center in large
section?
A. Malleability
B. Hardenability
C. Spheroidability
D. Rigidity
 338

220. What is the equilibrium temperature of transformation of austenite to pearlite?

A. 1000° F
B. 1333° F
C. 1666° F
D. 1222° F

221. The alpha iron will become paramagnetic a temperature above _____.
A. 770° C
B. 550° C
C. 660° C
D. 440° C

222. What structure is formed when transformation occurs at temperatures down to the
knee of the curve?
A. Pearlite
B. Bainite
C. Austenite
D. martensite
223. What refers to the possibility of the existence of two or more different crystal
structures for a substance, generally an elemental solid?
A. Allotropy
B. Calcination
C. Anisotrophy
D. Amorphoustropy

224. What allotropic form of iron refers to iron that has a temperature range of romm
temperature to 1670 oF?
A. Beta iron
B. Gamma iron
C. Delta iron
D. Alpha iron

225. What steel surface hardening process requires heating at 1000° F for up to 100
hours in an ammonia atmosphere, followed by slow cooling?
A. Nitriding
B. Flame hardening
C. Precipitation hardening
D. Carburizing

226. The approximate temperatures of heated metals such as steel and copper as it
undergo heating process are determined by what physical property?
A. By its density
B. By its length
C. By its color
D. By its volume
 339

227. A metal undergoes a heating process. What is the approximate temperature if the
color of the metal is dull white?
A. 1000° C
B. 1300° C
C. 1600° C
D. 2000° C

228. Austenite is transformed into bainite when subjected to what cooling process?
A. Very slow cooling process
B. Moderate cooling process
C. Rapid cooling process
D. Quenching process

229. Some engineering materials are called PH alloys. What does PH stands for?
A. Percent hydroxide
B. Percent hardening
C. Precipitation hardening
D. Percent hydrides

230. What is the chief ore of tin?

A. Cassiterite
B. Bauxite
C. Ilmanite
D. Galena

231. What is the chief ore of zinc?

E. Cassiterite
F. Bauxite
G. sphalerite
H. Galena

232. What is the chief ore of titanium?

A. Sphalerite
B. Ilmanite
C. Bauxite
D. Cassiterite

233. What is a mixture of gibbsite and diaspora of which aluminum is derived?

A. Bauxite
B. Rutile
C. Galena
D. Sphalerite
 340

234. The term “brass” is very commonly used to designate any alloy primarily of:
A. Copper and zinc
B. Copper and aluminum
C. Copper and nickel
D. Copper and tin

235. The term “bronze” is used o designate any alloy containing:

A. Copper and zinc
B. Copper and aluminum
C. Copper and nickel
D. Copper and tin

236. In a system of designating wrought aluminum alloys, a four digit number is used.
What does the first digit indicates?
A. The purity of aluminum
B. The identity of the alloy
C. The alloy group
D. The strength of the alloy

237. In a system of designating wrought aluminum alloys what does the second digit
represents?
A. The purity of aluminum
B. The identity of the alloy
C. The modifications of the alloy group or impurity limits
D. The alloy group
238. In the system of designating wrought aluminum alloys, the letter f that follows the
number indicates what condition of the alloy?
A. As fabricated
B. Strain hardened
C. Annealed
D. Artificially aged

239. The following alloys are the chief alloys that are die- cast except:
A. Zinc alloys
B. Magnesium alloys
C. Manganese alloys
D. Aluminum alloys

240. What is considered as the most used material in aircraft turbine component
because of its superior properties?
A. Superalloy
B. Carbon nanotubes
C. Carbon fiber
D. Titanium
 341

241. What is the most important property of superalloy when used for aircraft turbine
component?
A. Density
B. Air resistance
C. Strength
D. Thermal conductivity

242. What is the minimum tensile strength of Gray Cast Iron class 50?
A. 25000 lbf/ in2
B. 35000 lbf/ in2
C. 50000 lbf/ in2
D. 100000 lbf/ in2

243. What is the carbon content of wrought iron?

A. Less than 0. 1 percent
B. Exactly 0. 1 percent
C. More than 0. 1 percent
D. Ranges from 0. 1 percent to 0. 2 percent

244. Alnico is an alloy containing how many percent nickels?

A. 10 %
B. 14 %
C. 18 %
D. 22 %

245. The most common beta brass with a composition of 60 % copper and 40 % zinc is
called _____.
A. Yellow brass
B. Red brass
C. Muntz metal
D. White brass

246. The optimum combination of strength and ductility of alpha beta brass is offered
as an alloy known as _____.
A. Muntz
B. Stirling
C. Fornicate
D. Invar

247. What type of brass is usually used in conduits, sockets, condensers and heat-
exchanger tubings?
A. Red brass
B. Yellow brass
C. White brass
D. Blue brass
 342

248. Red brass is also known as_____.

A. Softmetal
B. Gunmetal
C. Pewter
D. Solid brass

249. Red brass contains how many percent copper?

A. 70 %
B. 75 %
C. 80 %
D. 85 %

250. Yellow brass contains approximately how many percent of zinc?

A. 20 %
B. 50 %
C. 30 %
D. 40 %

251. Indicate the false statement.

A. Aluminum bronzes contain no tin.
B. Silicon bronzes are usually used for marine application and high- strength fasteners.
C. Bronze is a copper- tin alloy.
D. Tin is relatively soluble in copper.

252. What is the most abundant metal in nature?

A. Aluminum
B. Steel
C. Iron
D. Copper

253. Indicate the false statement about the aluminum.

A. It has 1/3 the weight of steel.
B. It has 1/3 of the stiffness of steel.
C. It has high strength- to- weight ratio.
D. It has poor thermal and electrical conductivity.

254. What is the effect to aluminum with iron as the alloying element?
A. Reduce hot- cracking tendencies in casting
B. Improve conductivity
C. Lowers castability
D. Improves machinability
 343

255. What is the effect to aluminum with copper as alloying element?

A. Increases strength up to about 12 %
B. Reduces shrinkage
C. Improves machinability
D. Increases fluidity in casting

256. Which of the following are two well- known nickel alloys with magnetic
properties ideal for permanent magnets?
A. Invar and Nilvar
B. Nichrome and constantan
C. Elinvar and Invar
D. Alnico and Cunife

257. The Portland cement is manufacture from the following elements except”
A. Lime
B. Silica
C. Alumina
D. Asphalt

258. What refers to a substance that by chemical reaction binds particulate aggregated
into a cohesive structure?
A. Concrete
B. Cement
C. Adhesive
D. Glue

259. What gives the average ratio of stress to strain for materials operating in the
nonlinear region in the stress- strain diagram?
A. Modulus of elasticity
B. Proportionality limit
C. Secant modulus
D. Tangent modulus

260. Specific modulus is the ratio of _____ of a material.

A. Tensile strength to specific gravity
B. Elastic modulus to specific gravity
C. Strain to specific gravity
D. Tangent modulus to specific gravity

261. Specific strength is the ratio of _____ of a material.

A. Tensile strength to specific gravity
B. Elastic modulus to specific gravity
C. Strain to specific gravity
D. Tangent modulus to specific gravity
 344

262. What is the reciprocal of the coefficient of volume of elasticity?

A. Compressibility
B. Coefficient of rigidity
C. Bulk modulus
D. Young‟s modulus

263. What test determines the hardenability of a steel specimen?

A. Jominy end- quench test
B. The lever rule
C. Gibb‟s phase test
D. Stress relief test

264. What steel relief process is used with the hypoeutectoid steels to change martenite
into pearlite?
A. Tempering
B. Normalizing
C. Annealing
D. Spheroidizing

265. What is another term for tempering?

A. Recrystallization
B. Annealing
C. Spheroidizing
D. Drawing or toughening

266. All are steel surface hardening processes except one. Which one?
A. Carburizing
B. Flame hardening
C. Nitriding
D. Annealing

267. In annealing, what refers to the ratio of the working temperature to that of the
temperature of the melting point when carrying our plastic deformation process?
A. Homogeneous temperature
B. Cold- working temperature
C. Hot- working temperature
D. Homologous temperature

268. For metric wire gage, the No. 2 wire is _____ in diameter.
A. 0.1 mm
B. 0. 2 mm
C. 0. 3 mm
D. 0. 4 mm
 345

269. Bus bars of rectangular cross section are generally used for carrying _____.
A. High electric currents
B. Low electric currents
C. High- voltage
D. Low- voltage

270. What are used for interconnection on printed- circuit boards?

A. Unlaminated flat conductors
B. insulated conductors
C. rounded flexible conductors
D. flat flexible conductors

271. Yellow brass is a copper alloy with improved mechanical properties but reduced
corrosion resistance and electrical conductivity. How many percent of yellow brass is
copper?
A. 65 %
B. 35 %
C. 55 %
D. 45 %

272. How does he electrical conductivity of copper be reduced significantly?

A. By reducing the copper‟s electronegativity
B. By removing impurities
C. By adding impurities and alloying components
D. By chemical treatment using enamel

273. The state of having exactly the same number of positive and negative electrical
charges is known as _____.
A. Electrobalance
B. Electroneutrality
C. Electrically stable
D. Stable state

274. The presence of what type of bond in metallic compound enables them to possess
electrical conductivity property?
A. Covalent bond
B. Ionic bond
C. Crystalline bond
D. Metallic bond

275. What type of copper alloy is used as collectors for electric generator?
A. Yellow brass
B. Beryllium copper
C. Tin bronze
D. Phosphor bronze
 346

276. What is the electrical resistivity of pure copper in µ - cm?

A. 1. 76
B. 1. 71
C. 1. 67
D. 3. 10

277. What should be the resistivity in µ - cm of a resistor material?

A. 200- 300
B. 100- 200
C. 50- 150
D. 10- 50

278. Resistivity ratio of a conductor is the ratio of the electrical resistivity at 298 K to
that of _____.
A. 4. 2 K
B. 5. 2 K
C. 6. 2 K
D. 7. 2 K

279. What material is usually used for some electrical and electronics applications,
especially for those that require higher resistivity and lower eddy- current losses?
A. Silicon- iron
B. Silicon- copper
C. Germanium- iron
D. Germanium- copper

280. How much silicon is present in silicon- iron?

A. 1 % to 3 %
B. 2 % to 4 %
C. 3 % to 5 %
D. 4 % to 6 %

281. What is the most widely used dielectric material in the electrical and electronics
industry?
A. Polymer
B. Plastic
C. Rubber
D. All of the above

282. What refers to dielectric materials, such as Rochelle salt, with domain structure
containing dipole and are aligned spontaneously?
A. Dielectric materials
B. Photo- electric materials
C. Ferro- electric materials
D. Ferro- magnetic materials
 347

283. What are natural or synthetic rubberlike materials which have outstanding elastic
characteristics?
A. Thermosetting plastics
B. Polymers
C. Elastomers
D. Thermoplastic plastics

284. What refers to an additive that imparts a specific color to a polymer?

A. Colorant
B. Component
C. Profiler
D. Changer

285. What refers to an inert foreign substance added to a polymer to improve or

modify its properties?
A. Component
B. Catalyst
C. Filler
D. Profiler

286. What refers to a polymer that has been made porous or sponge- like by the
incorporation of gas bubbles?
A. Suds
B. Smog
C. Fog
D. Foam

287. What are cellular forms of urethanes, polysterenes, vinyls, polyethylenes,

polypropylenes, phenolics, epoxies and a variety of other plastics?
A. Thermoplastic plastics
B. Plastic foams
C. Polymers
D. Thermosetting plastics

288. What is the widely used electrical insulator?

A. Plastic
B. Polymer
C. Epoxy
D. Paper

289. What is the dielectric strength of an unimpregnated cellulose paper or kraft paper/
A. 6 to 12 MV/ m
B. 8 to 14 MV/ m
C. 10 to 16 MV/ m
D. 12 to 18 MV/ m
 348

290. What is the most widely known carbide?

A. Carbon carbide
B. Lead carbide
C. Germanium carbide
D. Silicon carbide

291. Which of the following carbides has a good resistance to wear, thermal shock and
corrosion?
A. Tungsten carbide
B. Titanium carbide
C. Silicon carbide
D. Nitric carbide

292. What refers to the quantity of mass diffusing through and perpendicular to a unit
cross- sectional area of material per unit time?
A. Diffusion coefficient
B. Diffusion flux
C. Dielectric displacement
D. Diffraction coefficient

293. What refers to the ratio of the permittivity of a medium to that of a vacuum?
A. Dielectric constant
B. Magnetic constant
C. Relative permeability
D. Diffusion coefficient

294. Class I capacitors have dielectric constant are up to _____.

A. 100
B. 200
C. 300
D. 400

295. What are the typical dielectric constants of class II capacitors?

A. 500 to 10, 000
B. 1, 000 to 10, 000
C. 500 to 5, 000
D. 100 to 1, 000

296. What class of ceramic capacitor is best suited for oscillator circuit where
capacitance stability is necessary?
A. Class I
B. Class II
C. Class III
D. Class IV
 349

297. What is the maximum dielectric constant of class I ceramic capacitor?

A. 500
B. 600
C. 700
D. 800

298. What are the most widely used general- purpose coatings?
A. Alkyds
B. Acrylics
C. Epoxies
D. Vinyls

299. What is widely used in the electronic industry as a structural member, such as
tube envelopes, hermetic seals to metals or ceramics, protective coating on hybrid and
integrated circuits, etc?
A. Glass
B. Plastic
C. Silica
D. Film

300. The thin conducting film used for semiconductor is made of what metal?
A. Gold
B. Tin
C. Aluminum
D. Silver

301. What refers to a two- element compound semiconductor such as Gallium-

Arsenide?
A. Duo semiconductor
B. Binary semiconductor
C. Twin semiconductor
D. Pair semiconductor

302. What refers to a three- element compound semiconductor such as aluminum

gallium arsenide semiconductor?
A. Tri semiconductor
B. Trio semiconductor
C. Tetra semiconductor
D. Ternary semiconductor

303. A semiconductor composed of single specie of atom such as silicons or

germanium is called _____ semiconductor?
A. Elemental
B. Unit
C. Primary
D. Ordinary
 350

304. A semiconductor wafer or other material used as the starting material for further
semiconductor processing, such as epitaxial growth or diffusion?
A. Substrate
B. Layer
C. Lattice
D. Crystal

305. What refers to glasses, which are devitrified about 100° C below their softening
point to form a very fine network or crystalline phase?
A. Fused silica
B. Glass ceramics
C. Fused quartz
D. Fiber glass

306. What type of motion is produced when crystalline solids are strained?
A. Amorphic motion
B. Molecular motion
C. Structural motion
D. Dislocation motion

307. The percentage change in magnetic properties of materials resulting from

temperature aging is called the _____.
A. Aging index
B. Aging factor
C. Aging coefficient
D. Aging point

308. The change in electrical resistance due to the application of magnetic field is
called?
A. Magnetic anistropy
B. Magnetoresistance
C. Magnetostriction
D. Magnetizing factor

309. Which material is used for dc application such as electromagnetic cores and
relays?
A. Iron
B. Copper
C. Steel
D. Aluminum

310. Which of the following is known as “electrical steel”?

A. Silicon steel
B. Stainless steel
C. Carbon steel
D. Cast steel
 351

311. What is the highest- frequency ferrite?

A. Garnet
B. Spinel
C. Mumetal
D. Superinvar

312. Which material is used for Schottky barrier diodes, light- emitting diodes, Gunn
diodes and injection lasers?
A. Gallium Arsenide
B. Silicon Carbide
C. Selenium
D. Gallium Phosphide

313. What material is used for electroluminescent diodes which can emit either green
or red light?
A. Gallium Arsenide
B. Silicon Carbide
C. Selenium
D. Gallium Phosphide

314. Lead compounds such as lead sulfide, selenide and telluride may be used for
which application?
A. Diodes and transistors at low temperatures
B. Infrared detectors
C. Thermoelectric applications
D. All of the above

315. For hardness penetration test, the Rockwell test uses what type of penetrator?
A. Sphere
B. Square pyramid
C. Asymmetrical pyramid
D. Cube

316. What is the combination of cutting and scratch test of a material?

A. Knoop test
B. Vickers test
C. File hardness test
D. Toughness test

317. What method of determining hardness of materials that uses a small diamond
pyramid (136°), with a square base and using a much lighter load, permitting its use on
thinner specimens?
A. Brinell hardness number method
B. Vickers pyramid number method
C. Shore scleroscope method
D. Knop hardness number method
 352

318. Using Moh‟s scale, which of the following materials is the hardest?
A. Iron
B. Topaz
C. Brass
D. Corundum

319. A hardness scale that is used to show the different hardness of materials is the
Moh‟s scale. What type of scale is the Moh‟s scale?
A. Scratch- based scale
B. Imbedded- based scale
C. Penetration- based scale
D. Impact- based scale

320. What is the Moh‟s hardness number for aluminum oxide used for cutting tools?
A. 7
B. 8
C. 9
D. 10

321. What refers to the strain energy per unit volume required to reach the yield point?
A. Elastic toughness
B. Fatigue
C. Hardness
D. Creep stain

322. What type of failure wherein the cyclic stresses are introduced by fluctuating
thermal stresses?
A. Thermal conductivity
B. Thermal fatigue
C. Thermal shock
D. Thermal tempering

323. The fracture of a brittle material as a result of stresses that are introduced by a
rapid temperature change is called ______.
A. Thermal fatigue
B. Thermal shock
C. Thermal conductivity
D. Thermal tempering

324. The following are typical properties of ceramics except one. Which one?
A. High melting point
B. High compressive strength
C. High corrosion resistance
D. High thermal conductivity
 353

325. Which of the following refers to ceramics used in engineering?

A. Materials that possess plastic properties
B. Non- metallic, non- crystalline materials
C. Oxides, nitrites and carbides
D. Materials that conduct heat easily

326. Which of the following engineering materials is NOT classified as ceramics?

A. Graphite
B. Diamond
C. Glass
D. Reinforced plastic

327. The most important mechanical property of ceramics which is the measure of its
resistance to crack propagation is _____.
A. Ductility
B. Plasticity
C. Elasticity
D. Toughness

328. Which of the following has the highest thermal conductivity at room temperature?
A. Diamond
B. Glass
C. Porcelain
D. Graphite

329. Which of the following is NOT a property of carbon- graphite products?

A. Melt when heated
B. Brittle
C. Used as electrical conductors
D. Very low tensile strength

330. Which of the following engineering materials has the highest density?
A. Magnesium
B. Lead
C. Steel
D. Tantalum

331. What refers to the average number of mers in the molecule, typically several
hundred to several thousand?
A. Polymerization constant
B. Polymerization factor
C. Degree of polymerization
D. Polymerization index
 354

332. What nickel alloy has high electrical, corrosion resistance and strength at red heat
temperature and contains 15 to 20 % chromium?
A. Alnico
B. Nichrome
C. Invar
D. Nilvar

333. Due to their unique properties, invar and super invar are commonly used in which
of the following application?
A. Shadow mast in CRT‟s
B. Bimetallic strips
C. Piping for liquefied natural gas
D. All of the above

334. What element is used to replace the nickel content of an alloy to produce a super
invar alloy?
A. Zinc
B. Cobalt
C. Tin
D. Lead

335. Silicon bronze contains how many percent of silicon?

A. 96 %
B. 3%
C. 1%
D. 69 %

336. What element is added to copper to increase its strength and fatigue properties?
A. Silicon
B. Aluminum
C. Beryllium
D. Zinc

337. Which of the following metals in their alloy form has the greatest strength at room
temperature?
A. Graphite fibers
B. Steels
C. Kevlar fibers
D. Carbides

338. What element is added to copper to make it extremely hard?

A. Aluminum
B. Zinc
C. Lead
D. Silicon
 355

339. What element constitutes a major component of most bronzes?

A. Zinc
B. Tin
C. Lead
D. Aluminum

340. What is the most common alloying ingredient in copper?

A. Tin
B. Lead
C. Zinc
D. Aluminum

341. What is the lightest metal currently available for engineering applications?
A. Magnesium
B. Copper
C. Tungsten
D. Chromium

342. What is the heaviest material currently available foe engineering application?
A. Vanadium
B. Molybdenum
C. Chromium
D. Tungsten

343. Aluminum is lighter than all materials below except one. Which one?
A. Magnesium
B. Ferrous materials
C. Zinc
D. Tin

344. Which of the following is NOT a ferrous metal?

A. Carbon
B. Stainless steel
C. Beryllium
D. Tool- and- die steel

345. In the manufacture of engineering materials, what refers to the major computer
application which adjusts automatically the manufacturing parameters such as forces
temperature, surface finish and dimensions of parts, to fall within the acceptable range?
A. Automated Handing Control
B. Industrial Robotics
C. Computer Numerical Control
D. Adaptive Control
 356

346. Which of the following is NOT harmful to solders?

A. Antimony
B. Zinc
C. Cadmium
D. Aluminum

347. What alloy is usually used for minting of coin?

A. Nordic gold
B. Plated gold
C. Chinese gold
D. Alloyed gold

348. Nordic gold contains how many percent copper?

A. 85 %
B. 87%
C. 89 %
D. 91 %

349. What component of smart metals performs a responsive and adaptive function?
A. Actuator
B. Retention
C. Memory
D. Magneto fiber

350. Which of the following is used as actuators for smart metals?

A. Piezo- electric ceramics
B. Nanocarbon polymers
C. Magnetic resistance materials
D. Shape- memory alloys

351. What refers to the ability of a material to permit it to be permanently bent or

twisted into various shapes without breaking?
A. Ductility
B. Elasticity
C. Plasticity
D. Malleability

352. Copper is the most commonly used material for electrical wires. What is its
modulus of elasticity in pascals?
A. 9 x 1010
B. 10 x 1010
C. 11 x 1010
D. 12 x 1010
 357

353. What abundant materials refer to the product of the weathering of complex
silicates, particularly or feldspars?
A. Sand
B. Clay
C. Gravel
D. Sandstone

354. which of the following materials is normally found in small microwave tubes/
A. Steatite
B. Carbides
C. Forsterite
D. Cordierite

355. What term is used to describe the technology of treating a mined ore, to obtain a
product higher or concentration of a wanted material from the unwanted rock mass in
which it occurs?
A. Ore dressing
B. Ore mining
C. Ore drawing
D. Ore alloying

356. What refers to the fabrication step in semiconductor manufacturing in which

proper interconnection is made?
A. Metallization
B. Mineralization
C. Oxidation process
D. Lithography

357. What is the usual specific gravity of the mineral oil used for transformers?
A. 0. 68
B. 0. 98
C. 0. 78
D. 0. 88

358. Which of the materials below will be used when high compressive ultimate
strength is necessary?
A. Aluminum
B. Granite
C. Concrete
D. Copper
 358

359. What material is usually used in cellphone relays?

A. Titanium
B. Aluminum
C. Palladium
D. Platinum

360. Which is not a property of palladium?

A. It cannot be electroplated.
B. It is less resistant to corrosion.
C. It resembles platinum.
D. It is normally used for contacts in relays.

361. What type of resin is usually used for manufacturing plumbing pipes?
A. High- density polyethylene
B. Low- density polyethylene
C. Polypropelene
D. Polyvinyl chloride

362. What is the dielectric constant of the ceramic dielectric material, porcelain?
A. 6. 0
B. 6. 9
C. 4. 0
D. 5. 2

363. Steel normally described in gauges, such as 16 gauge BG. What does BG stands
for?
A. Burmingham gauge
B. Buckingham gauge
C. British gauge
D. Brinell gauge

364. Perforated materials are usually used for structural members. If used however,
what factors must be considered in the calculation taking into the account the effect of
the perforation on the strength of the material?
A. Stiffness and strength
B. Stiffness and resistance to creep
C. Strength and resistance to fatigue
D. Resistance to fatigue and resistance to creep

365. What type of solder is used in an intermediate temperature solder but not suitable
for brass?
A. Aluminum- silver solder
B. Tin- antimony solder
C. Aluminum- zinc solder
D. Lead- silver solder
 359

366. What type of integrated circuit constructed a glass or ceramic substrate, used only
for passive elements?
A. Ceramic IC
B. Planar IC
C. Film IC
D. Semiconductor substrate IC

367. What refers to the ability of a material to withstand shatter?

A. Shear resistance
B. Plasticity
C. Elasticity
D. Impact resistance

368. An “Oxygen Free High Conductivity” copper refers to the one that contains
_____ copper.
A. 99. 95 %
B. 99. 99 %
C. 99. 90 %
D. 99. 00 %

369. What gold alloy is usually used for low- current electric contacts?
A. Au- Tn alloy
B. Au- Ag alloy
C. Au- Fe alloy
D. Au- Si alloy

370. At what maximum temperature can a nickel- coated copper conductor be used?
A. 340° C
B. 320° C
C. 360° C
D. 300° C

371. What abundant materials refer to the product of the weathering of complex
silicates, particularly of feldspars?
A. Sand
B. Clay
C. Gravel
D. Limestone

372. Which of the following arrangements have their corresponding strength in

descending order?
A. Carbides, Steel, Tantalum, titanium
B. Steel, Carbides, Titanium, Tantalum
C. Titanium, Steel, Carbide, Tantalum
D. Tantalum, Titanium, Steel, carbide
 360

373. Which of the following arrangements have their corresponding toughness in

descending order?
A. Wood, Thermoset, Ceramic, Thermoplastic
B. Thermoplastic, Wood, Thermoset, Ceramic
C. Thermoset, Ceramic, Wood, Thermoplastic
D. Ceramic, Wood, Thermoset, Thermoplastic

374. Which of the following arrangements have their corresponding stiffness in

descending order?
A. Copper, Tungsten, Titanium, Thermoset
B. Titanium, Thermoset, Copper, Tungsten
C. Thermoset, Titanium, Tungsten, Copper
D. Tungsten, Copper, Titanium, Thermoset

375. Which of the following arrangements have their corresponding hardness in

descending order?
A. Magnesium, Thermoplastic, Thermoset, Copper
B. Thermoset, Copper, Magnesium, Thermoplastic
C. Copper, Thermoset, Magnesium, Thermoplastic
D. Thermoplastic, Copper, Thermoset, Magnesium

376. Arrange the following metals from greatest to least electrical conductivity at room
temperature?
A. Brass, Iron, Platinum, Carbon steel
B. Iron, Platinum, Brass, Carbon steel
C. Platinum, Iron, Carbon steel, Brass
D. Carbon steel, Iron, Platinum, Brass

377. Arrange the following materials in accordance from greatest modulus of elasticity
to the least.
A. Nickel, Titanium, Copper, Brass
B. Titanium, Copper, Brass, Nickel
C. Copper, Nickel, Titanium, Brass
D. Nickel, Copper, titanium, Brass

378. What is the electrical conductivity per ohm- meter of aluminum used as electrical
conductor?
A. 5. 08 x 107
B. 6. 47 x 107
C. 7. 32 x 107
D. 3. 57 x 107
 361

379. Piezoelectric materials are usually utilized as:

A. Inductors
B. Capacitors
C. Transducers
D. Resistors

380. Indicate the false statement about modulus of elasticity?

A. The modulus of elasticity of polymers is lower than that of metals.
B. The modulus of elasticity range of metals is slightly higher than that of ceramics.
C. The modulus of elasticity of polymers is lower than that of ceramics.
D. Steel and Nickel has almost the same value of modulus of elasticity.

381. Aside from Gold, Silver and Platinum which of the following is considered a
noble metal?
A. Niobium
B. Vanadium
C. Iridium
D. Zirconium

382. Because of their unique properties, invar and super- invar are commonly used in
all of the following except one. Which one?
A. Shadow mast on cathode ray tubes
B. Bimetallic strips
C. Piping for liquefied natural gas
D. Coinage

383. _____ have superlative combinations of properties and mostly used in aircraft
turbine components?
A. Invars
B. Superalloys
C. Titanium and Paladium
D. Alloys

384. What is the most important consideration for superalloys?

A. Density
B. Strength
C. Thermal capacity
D. Air resistance

385. What process is involved in the transformation of austenite into bainite?

A. Rapid quenching
B. Reheat
C. Moderate cooling
D. Slow cooling
 362

386. To produce a super- invar alloy, some of the nickel content is replaced by what
element?
A. Cobalt
B. Copper
C. Tin
D. Lead

387. What type of laser is used for line- of- sight communications, reading/ playback
of holograms?
A. He- Ne laser
B. Argon laser
C. Ruby laser
D. Diode laser

388. For the pure metal and all the copper- nickel alloys, the resistivity rises linearly
with temperature about _____ degree Celsius.
A. -100
B. -150
C. -200
D. -250

389. Which of the following is NOT a diamagnetic material?

A. Diamond
B. Alkalihalides
C. Ag
D. Gd

390. Nichrome is the widely used as a heater wire in household appliances and
industrial furnaces. What is the composition of nichrome?
A. 80 % Nickel and 20 % Chromium
B. 85 % Nickel and 15 % Chromium
C. 75 % Nickel and 25 % Chromium
D. 90 % Nickel and 10 % Chromium

391. Which ferromagnet has a BCC crystal structure?

A. Gd
B. Cu
C. Ni
D. Fe

392. Which semiconductor material has a green LED?

A. GaP (N)
B. gaP (Zn- O)
C. SiC
D. InGaN alloys (430- 460 mn)
 363

393. Which semiconductor material has a blue LED?

A. InGaN alloys (500- 530 nm)
B. GaP (Zn- O)
C. SiC
D. GaP (N)

394. Which of the following is NOT a standard load for Brinell Hardness Testing?
A. 500 kg
B. 1500 kg
C. 2500 kg
D. 3000 kg

395. Which is NOT a property of the common plastic known as mylar?

A. It has high dielectric strength
B. It is chemical resistance
C. It is moisture resistance
D. It embrittles with age

396. To determine the approximate temperature of heated metals such as steel and
copper, a color scale for metal temperature is used. When the color of metal is dull white,
what is the approximate temperature of the metal in degree Celsius?
A. 1300
B. 1400
C. 1500
D. 1600

397. Which of the following is NOT true about electrical conductors?

A. Oxides and salts of silver are also conductors.
B. Oxides of copper are good conductors.
C. Gold does not normally oxidize.
D. Oxides of aluminum are not good conductors.

398. Hardening of steel is accomplished by raising the temperature until the steel
becomes austenitic in form and then quick- cooling it at a rate faster than the critical rate.
What is the average hardening temperature of steel?
A. 1475 to 1675° F
B. 1275 to 1475° F
C. 1375 to 1575° F
D. 1375 to 1675° F

399. What important semiempirical equation which is used to predict the resistivity of
an alloy?
A. Nordheim‟s rule
B. Schrodinger‟s rile
C. Stefan‟s rule
D. Hall‟s rule
 364

400. What soft magnetic materials are used for high permeability applications and for
low- loss electric devices?
A. Silicon iron
B. Supermalloy
C. Commercial grade iron
D. Ferrites
 365

ANSWER KEYS

1. A 40. A 79. C 118. C

2. D 41. B 80. C 119. A
3. C 42. A 81. C 120. B
4. D 43. B 82. C 121. B
5. D 44. B 83. A 122. A
6. C 45. B 84. A 123. A
7. B 46. D 85. C 124. A
8. C 47. C 86. B 125. B
9. D 48. C 87. A 126. B
10. D 49. D 88. D 127. A
11. B 50. D 89. B 128. C
12. A 51. A 90. D 129. A
13. A 52. A 91. A 130. B
14. D 53. B 92. C 131. C
15. C 54. C 93. C 132. B
16. C 55. C 94. A 133. A
17. B 56. A 95. C 134. B
18. C 57. B 96. C 135. A
19. A 58. A 97. D 136. A
20. B 59. D 98. B 137. D
21. B 60. B 99. C 138. A
22. A 61. B 100. A 139. B
23. C 62. B 101. D 140. C
24. A 63. A 102. C 141. A
25. D 64. C 103. D 142. B
26. C 65. D 104. A 143. B
27. C 66. D 105. B 144. B
28. C 67. D 106. D 145. D
29. D 68. A 107. A 146. A
30. A 69. C 108. B 147. C
31. B 70. C 109. C 148. C
32. C 71. A 110. A 149. B
33. B 72. C 111. D 150. C
34. D 73. C 112. D 151. C
35. A 74. A 113. B 152. C
36. B 75. C 114. C 153. A
37. C 76. C 115. B 154. D
38. B 77. B 116. C 155. D
39. B 78. C 117. A 156. C
 366

157. A 197. C 237. C 277. C

158. C 198. D 238. A 278. A
159. B 199. B 239. C 279. A
160. B 200. A 240. A 280. B
161. A 201. A 241. A 281. B
162. D 202. B 242. C 282. C
163. A 203. B 243. A 283. C
164. D 204. D 244. B 284. A
165. A 205. C 245. C 285. C
166. B 206. D 246. A 286. D
167. B 207. A 247. A 287. B
168. B 208. B 248. B 288. D
169. D 209. C 249. D 289. A
170. A 210. D 250. C 290. D
171. A 211. A 251. D 291. C
172. A 212. C 252. A 292. B
173. A 213. B 253. D 293. A
174. C 214. A 254. A 294. D
175. D 215. C 255. A 295. A
176. A 216. D 256. D 296. A
177. A 217. C 257. D 297. A
178. C 218. B 258. B 298. A
179. D 219. B 259. C 299. A
180. B 220. B 260. B 300. C
181. C 221. A 261. A 301. B
182. A 222. A 262. A 302. D
183. B 223. A 263. A 303. A
184. A 224. D 264. A 304. A
185. A 225. A 265. D 305. B
186. B 226. C 266. D 306. D
187. C 227. B 267. D 307. C
188. D 228. B 268. B 308. B
189. B 229. C 269. A 309. A
190. A 230. A 270. D 310. A
191. D 231. C 271. A 311. A
192. A 232. B 272. C 312. A
193. B 233. A 273. B 313. D
194. B 234. A 274. B 314. D
195. C 235. D 275. C 315. A
196. A 236. C 276. C 316. C
 367

317. B 338. A 359. C 380. B

318. D 339. B 360. A 381. C
319. A 340. C 361. D 382. D
320. C 341. A 362. A 383. B
321. A 342. D 363. A 384. A
322. B 343. A 364. A 385. C
323. B 344. C 365. B 386. A
324. D 345. D 366. C 387. A
325. C 346. A 367. D 388. C
326. D 347. A 368. A 389. D
327. D 348. C 369. B 390. A
328. A 349. A 370. D 391. D
329. A 350. D 371. B 392. A
330. D 351. A 372. A 393. C
331. C 352. C 373. B 394. C
332. B 353. B 374. D 395. D
333. D 354. C 375. C 396. A
334. B 355. A 376. A 397. C
335. B 356. A 377. A 398. C
336. C 357. D 378. D 399. A
337. A 358. D 379. C 400. B
 368

ENGINEERING ECONOMICS OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS

1. What is defined as the analysis and evaluation of the monetary consequences by using the
theories and principles of economics to engineering applications, designs and projects?
A. Economic analysis
B. Engineering cost analysis
C. Engineering economy
D. Design cost analysis

2. What is considered as the standard unit which forms the basis of a country‟s domestic
money supply?
A. Monetary unit
B. Currency
C. Foreign exchange
D. Cash or check

3. What is defined as any tangible economic product that contributes directly or indirectly to
the satisfaction of human want?
A. Services
B. Goods
C. Commodities
D. Goods or commodities

4. What is defined as any tangible economic activity that contributes directly or indirectly to
the satisfaction of human want?
A. Services
B. Goods
C. Commodities
D. Goods or commodities

5. What are the two classifications of goods and services?

A. Local and imported
B. Raw and finished
C. Consumer and producer
D. Ready-made and made-to-order
 369

6. What refers to the goods and services that are required to support human life, needs and
activities?
A. Producer products
B. Consumer products
C. Luxury
D. Necessity

7. What refers to the goods and services that are desired by human and will be acquired only
after all the needs have been satisfied?
A. Producer products
B. Consumer products
C. Luxury
D. Necessity

8. What refers to the exchange mechanism that brings together the sellers and the buyers of
a product, factor of production or financial security?
A. Mall
B. Market
C. Store
D. Office

9. What is considered as the basic consuming or demanding unit of a commodity?

A. Seller
B. Manufacturer
C. Producer
D. Buyer or consumer

10. What is defined as an entity which makes product, good or services available to buyer or
consumer in exchange of monetary consideration?
A. Seller
B. Manufacturer
C. Producer
D. Buyer or consumer

11. What is a market situation whereby there is only one buyer of an item for which there is
no goods substitute?
A. Monopsony
B. Monopoly
C. Oligopoly
D. Oligopsony
 370

12. What market situation exists where there are few sellers and few buyers?
A. Oligopoly
B. Oligopsony
C. Bilateral oligopoly
D. Bilateral oligopsony

13. What market situation exists where there I only one buyer and only one seller?
A. Monopsony
B. Monopoly
C. Bilateral monopsony
D. Bilateral monopoly

14. What is the market situation exist where there are many buyers and many sellers?
A. Perfect competition
B. Oligopoly
C. Oligopsony
D. Monopoly

15. If there is only one seller and many buyers, the market situation is ______.
A. Duopsony
B. Oligopoly
C. Oligopsony
D. Monopoly

16. If there are many sellers and few buyers, the market situation is _______.
A. Duopsony
B. Oligopoly
C. Oligopsony
D. Monopoly

17. Oligopoly exists when there is/are:

A. few seller and few buyers
B. few sellers and many buyers
C. many sellers and few buyers
D. one seller and few buyers
 371

18. Duopsony is a market situation where there is/are:

A. few seller and two buyers
B. two sellers and many buyers
C. many sellers and two buyers
D. one seller and two buyers

19. Duopoly is a market situation where is/are:

A. few seller and two buyers
B. two sellers and many buyers
C. many sellers and two buyers
D. one seller and two buyers

20. What is another term for “perfect competition”?

A. Atomistic competition
B. No-limit competition
C. Free-for-all market
D. Heterogeneous market

21. What refers to the market situation in which any given product is supplied a very large
number of vendors, and there is no restriction against additional vendors from entering
the market?
A. Perfect competition
B. Oligopoly
C. Oligopsony
D. Monopoly

22. Aside from many sellers and many buyers, which one is a characteristic of perfect
competition?
A. Homogeneous market
B. Free market entry and exit
C. Perfect information and absence of all economic friction
D. All of the above

23. What is the opposite of perfect competition?

A. Monopsony
B. Oligopoly
C. Oligopsony
D. Monopoly
 372

24. Perfect monopoly exists only if:

A. the single vendor can prevent the entry of all other vendors in the market
B. the single vendor gets the absolute franchise of the product
C. the single vendor is the only one who has the permit to sell
D. the single vendor is the only one who has he knowledge of the product

25. A ________ is a market situation where economies of scale are so significant that costs
are only minimized when the entire output of an industry is supplied by a single producer
so that supply costs as lower under monopoly the under perfect competition.
A. perfect monopoly
B. bilateral monopoly
C. natural monopoly
D. ordinary monopoly

26. “When one of the factors of production is fixed in quantity or is difficult to increase,
increasing the other factors of production will result in a less than proportionate increase
in output”. This statement is known as the:
A. Law of diminishing return
B. Law of supply
C. Law of demand
D. Law of supply and demand

27. What refers to the need, want or desire for a product backed by the money to purchase it?
A. Supply
B. Demand
C. Product
D. Good

28. What refers to the amount of a product made available for sale?
A. Supply
B. Demand
C. Product
D. Good
 373

29. “Under conditions of perfect competition, the price at which any gives product will be
supplied and purchased is the price that will result in the supply and the demand being
equal.” This statement is known as the:
A. Law of diminishing return
B. Law of supply
C. Law of demand
D. Law of supply and demand

30. What do you call any particular raw material or primary product such as cloth, wool,
flour, coffee, etc.?
A. Utility
B. Necessity
C. Commodity
D. Stock

31. What is defined as the interest on a load or principal that is based only on the original
amount of the loan or principal?
A. Effective rate of interest
B. Nominal rate of interest
C. Compound interest
D. Simple interest

32. Under ordinary simple interest, how many days is one year?
A. 300
B. 360
C. 365
D. 366

33. One banker‟s year is equivalent to _____ days.

A. 300
B. 360
C. 365
D. 366

34. What refers to the money value of an event, based on the earning power of equivalent
invested funds capital should or will learn?
A. Present worth factor
B. Interest rate
C. Time value of money
D. Yield
 374

35. The difference between the present and future worth of money at some time in the future
is called _____.
A. discount
B. deduction
C. inflation
D. depletion

36. What is meant by the term “discount” in relation to a promissory note?

A. It is the time from the day the promissory note is bought to the maturity date of
the note.
B. It is the time difference between the day the note was bought and the date of
issuance of the note.
C. It is the time from the issuance of the promissory note to the day the promissory
note was bought.
D. It is the time difference between the issuance date of the note and the date of
maturity of the note.

37. Which of the following statements regarding discounts is NOT true?

A. It is the difference between the future worth of a negotiable paper and the present
worth.
B. It is the deduction from published price of services or goods.
C. It is the difference between the present worth less future worth.
D. It is the sale of goods or share at reduced price.

38. When an amount, say for example P 1,000 is invested at 10% interest per annum, it will
be P 1,000 at the end of one year. The procedure of determining the equivalent amount is
known as _______.
A. interest earning
B. discounting
C. investing
D. compounding

39. What refers to the present worth of the probable future net earnings?
A. Total fair value
B. Total market value
C. Going concern value
D. Earning value
 375

40. What refers to the amount of money paid for the use of borrowed capital?
A. Interest
B. Rate of interest
C. Simple interest
D. Principal

41. What refers to the ratio of the interest payment to the principal for a given unit of time
and usually expressed as a percentage of the principal?
A. Return of investment
B. Interest rate
C. Yield
D. Rate of return

42. What is defined as the interest of loan or principal which is based not only on the original
amount of the loan or principal but the amount of loaned or principal plus the previous
accumulated interest?
A. Effective rate of interest
B. Nominal rate of interest
C. Compound interest
D. Simple interest

43. What refers to the cost of borrowing money or the amount earned by a unit principal per
unit time?
A. Yield rate
B. Rate of return
C. Rate of interest
D. Economic return

44. What is the interest rate being referred to in economics if the compounding of the interest
is annual?
A. Annual nominal rate
B. Effective rate
C. Nominal rate
D. Periodic rate

45. A uniform series of payment occurring at equal interval of time is called _______.
A. annuity
B. amortization
C. depreciation
D. bond
 376

46. What is the term for an annuity with a fixed time span?
A. Ordinary annuity
B. Perpetuity
C. Annuity certain
D. Annuity due

47. What is the type of annuity where the payments are made at the end of each period
starting from the first period?
A. Ordinary annuity
B. Perpetuity
C. Annuity due
D. Deferred annuity

48. What is the type of annuity where the payments are made at the beginning of each period
starting from the first period?
A. Ordinary annuity
B. Perpetuity
C. Annuity due
D. Deferred annuity

49. What is the type of annuity that does not have a fixed time span but continues indefinitely
or forever?
A. Ordinary annuity
B. Perpetuity
C. Annuity due
D. Deferred annuity

50. What is the type of annuity where the first payment does not begin until some later date
in the cash flow?
A. Ordinary annuity
B. Perpetuity
C. Annuity due
D. Deferred annuity

51. Which is NOT an essential element of an ordinary annuity?

A. The amounts of all payments are equal.
B. The payments are made at equal interval of time.
C. The first payment is made at the beginning of the first period.
D. Compound interest is paid on all amounts in the annuity.
 377

52. What is defined as a financial security note issued by businesses or corporations and by
the government as a means of borrowing long-term fund?
A. T-bills
B. Securities
C. Bond
D. Bank notes

53. What refers to the present worth of all the amounts the bondholder will receive through
his possession of the bond?
A. Par value of bond
B. Face value of bond
C. Redeemed value of bond
D. Value of bond

54. What is defined as the certificate of indebtedness of corporation usually for a period not
less than 10 years and guaranteed by a mortgage on certain assets of a corporation?
A. Bond
B. T-bills
C. Stock
D. Promissory note

55. What refers to a document that shows proof of legal ownership of a financial security?
A. Bond
B. Bank note
C. Coupon
D. Check

56. What type of bond is issued jointly by two or more corporations?

A. Mortgage bond
B. Joint bond
C. Tie-up bond
D. Trust bond

57. What type of bond whose guaranty is in line on railroad equipment, such as freight and
passenger cars, locomotives, etc.?
A. Railroad bond
B. Equipment obligation bond
C. Equipment bond
D. Equipment trust bond
 378

58. A type of bond to which are attached coupons indicating the interest due and the date
when such interest is to be paid is called ______.
A. registered bond
B. coupon bond
C. mortgage bond
D. collateral trust bond

59. What bond whose security is a mortgage on certain specified assets of the corporation?
A. Registered bond
B. Collateral trust bond
C. Mortgage bond
D. Debenture bond

60. A bond without any security behind them except a promise to pay by the issuing
corporation is called ______.
A. joint bond
B. debenture bond
C. trust bond
D. common bond

61. A type of bond where the corporation pledges securities which it owns such as the stock
or bonds of one of its subsidiaries.
A. Mortgage bond
B. Joint bond
C. Security bond
D. Collateral trust bond

62. What type of bond where the corporation‟s owners name are recorded and the interest is
paid periodically to the owners with their asking for it?
A. Preferred bond
B. Registered bond
C. Incorporators bond
D. Callable bond

63. What type of bond which can be redeemed before maturity date?
A. Preferred bond
B. Registered bond
C. Incorporators bond
D. Callable bond
 379

64. What is the feature of some bonds whereby the issuer can redeem it before it matures?
A. Return clause
B. Callability
C. Recall clause
D. Call class

65. The price at which the callable bond will be redeemed from the bondholder is called
______.
A. par value
B. call value
C. face value
D. redemption value

66. What is defined as the reduction or fall of the value of an asset due to constant use and
passage of time?
A. Depletion
B. Inflation
C. Depreciation
D. Deflation

67. In what method of computing depreciation where it assumes that the loss in value is
directly proportional to the age of the equipment or asset?
A. Straight line method
B. Sinking fund method
C. Sum-of-the-years digit method
D. Declining balance method

68. In what method of computing depreciation where it assumes that a sinking fund is
established in which funds will accumulate for replacement purposes?
A. Straight line method
B. Sinking fund method
C. Sum-of-the-years digit method
D. Declining balance method

69. In what method of computing depreciation where it assumes that the annual cost of
depreciation is a fixed percentage of the book value at the beginning of the year?
A. Straight line method
B. Sinking fund method
C. Sum-of-the-years digit method
D. Declining balance method
 380

70. In SYD method of computing depreciation, which of the following is the formula in
finding the sum of years digits?
A.

B. B.

C.

D.

71. The declining balance method is also known as ______.

A. Double percentage method
B. Constant percentage method
C. Modified sinking fund method
D. Modified SYD method

72. What type of depreciation is due to the reduction in the demand for the function that the
equipment or asset was designed to render?
A. Functional depreciation
B. Design depreciation
C. Physical depreciation
D. Demand depreciation

73. What type of depreciation is due to the reduction of the physical ability of an equipment
or asset to produce results?
A. Functional depreciation
B. Design depreciation
C. Physical depreciation
D. Demand depreciation

74. The functional depreciation is sometimes called _______.

A. demand depreciation
B. obsolescence
C. life depreciation
D. failure depreciation
 381

75. An accelerated depreciation method is one that calculates depreciation amount greater
than what depreciation method?
A. Straight line method
B. Declining balance method
C. Sinking fund method
D. Sum-of-the-years digit method

76. Which of the following methods of computing depreciation is usually used if the
depreciation is a function of time?
A. Capital-recovery-production method
B. Period-production method
C. Time-of-production method
D. Units-of-production method

77. What is defined as the reduction of the value of certain natural resources such as mines,
oil, timber, quarries, etc. due to the gradual extraction of its contents?
A. Depletion
B. Inflation
C. Depreciation
D. Deflation

78. What cost refers to the annual charge that is made for the maintenance of investments in
wasting assets such as in oil or mines?
A. Depletion cost
B. Maintenance cost
C. Sunk cost
D. Depreciation cost

79. What are the common methods of computing depletion charge?

A. Rational method and irrational method
B. Conservative method and conventional method
C. Unit method and percentage method
D. Discrete method and depletion allowance method

80. What technique is used to handle one of the non-standard cash flow known as stepped
cash flow?
A. Superposition cash flow
B. Uniform series cash flow
C. Periodic method cash flow
D. Projected cash flow
 382

81. The depletion allowance method of computing depletion is commonly known as

________.
A. Unit method
B. Percentage method
C. Factor method
D. Sinking fund method

82. What is another term for “unit method” for computing depletion?
A. Initial cost method
B. Percentage method
C. Factor method
D. Sinking fund method

83. Using factor method, the depletion at any given year is equal to:
A. Initial cost of property times number of units sold during the year divided by the
total units in property.
B. Initial cost of property divided by the number of units sold during the year.
C. Initial cost of property times number of units sold during the year.
D. Initial cost of property divided by the total units in property.

84. What do you call the after-tax present worth of all depreciation effects over the
depreciation period of the asset?
A. Asset recovery
B. Depreciation recovery
C. Period recovery
D. After-tax recovery

85. A mathematical expression also known as the present value of annuity of one is called
_______.
A. load factor
B. demand factor
C. sinking fund factor
D. present worth factor

86. The amount of property in which a willing buyer will pay to a willing seller for the
property when neither one is under the compulsion to buy nor sell is called _______.
A. Fair value
B. Market value
C. Goodwill value
D. Book value
 383

87. Salvage value is sometimes known as ______.

A. Scrap value
B. Going value
C. Junk value
D. Second-hand value

88. Another term for resale value is _______.

A. use value
B. salvage value
C. fair value
D. market value

89. What refers to the value of an asset which a disinterested third party, different from the
buyer and seller, will determine in order to establish a price acceptable to both parties?
A. Book value
B. Market value
C. Fair value
D. Franchise value

90. What refers to the value of an intangible item which arises from the exclusive right of a
company to provide a specified product and service in a certain region of the country?
A. Company value
B. Going value
C. Goodwill value
D. Franchise value

91. The first cost to be incurred if the piece of equipment now in place had been bought for a
second hand dealer or some other business is called _______.
A. material cost
B. fixed cost
C. first cost
D. in-place value

92. In computing depreciation of equipment, which of the following represents the first cost?
A. The original purchase price and freight charges
B. Installation expenses
C. Initial taxes and permit fees
D. All of the above
 384

93. The process of determining the value or worth of a physical property for specific reason
is called ________.
A. investment
B. valuation
C. economy
D. depletion

94. The unrecovered depreciation which results due to poor estimates as to the life of the
equipment is called ______.
A. sunk cost
B. economic life
C. in-place value
D. annuity

95. What refers to the expenses incurred before time equal zero in the cash flow?
A. Debenture cost
B. Initial cost
C. Sunk cost
D. Capitalized cost

96. What refers to the present worth of cost associated with an asset for an infinite period of
time?
A. Annual cost
B. Increment cost
C. Capitalized cost
D. Operating cost

97. Capitalized cost of a project is also known as ________.

A. infinite cost
B. life cycle cost
C. life cost
D. project cost

98. What is normally used to compare alternatives that accomplish the same purpose but
have unequal lives?
A. Capitalized cost method
B. Present worth method
C. Annual cost method
D. MARR
 385

99. Which of the following statements is NOT a characteristic of a typical alternative

comparison problem format?
A. Investment rate is given
B. All interest rates are expressed as whole numbers
C. Two or more alternatives will be competing for funding
D. Each given alternatives will have its own cash flow

100. What refers to the study or analysis period that is selected over which mutually
exclusive alternatives are compared?
A. Planning period
B. Planning horizon
C. Planning stage
D. Planning scheme

101. What is another term for annual cost method?

A. Capitalized recover method
B. Present worth recovery method
C. Cost opportunity method
D. Return of investment method

102. What depletion method applies to all types of property subject to depletion and is
the more widely used method?
A. Cost method
B. Unit method
C. Percentage method
D. Deduction method

103. What method is often used in municipal project evaluations where benefits and
costs accrue to different segments of the community?
A. Annual cost method
B. Benefit-cost ratio
C. Rate of return method
D. EUAC

104. What of the following is NOT used for selecting a superior alternative from
among a group of proposals by comparing one alternative with another alternative?
A. Benefit-cost ration
B. Annual cost
C. Present worth
D. Capitalized cost
 386

105. What is another term for Savings Investment Ratio?

A. Cost benefit ratio
B. Income benefit ratio
C. Income investment ratio
D. Profit to lost ratio

106. What refers to an imaginary cost representing what will not be received if a
particular strategy is rejected?
A. Opportunity cost
B. Ghost cost
C. Horizon cost
D. Null cost

107. What is the main reason why the sinking fund method of computing depreciation
is seldom used in the industry?
A. Unstable economy
B. Rate of interest cannot be exactly determined
C. The initial depreciation is high.
D. The initial depreciation is low.

108. What is the factor name of the formula ?

A. Uniform gradient future worth
B. Capital recovery
C. Single payment present worth
D. Single payment compound amount

109. What is the factor name of the formula ?

A. Uniform series sinking fund
B. Capital recovery
C. Single payment present worth
D. Uniform gradient future worth

110. Which method of evaluating the economic profitability of a single proposed

problem solution that converts cash flow resulting from a proposed solution into their
equivalent worth at some point in time by using MARR?
A. Future worth
B. Annual worth
C. Internal rate of return
D. Future worth and annual worth
 387

111. A form of business organization in which a person conducts his business alone
and entirely for his own profit, being solely responsible for all its activities and liabilities.
A. Sole proprietorship
B. Entrepreneurship
C. Partnership
D. Corporation

112. Is an artificial being created by operation of law, having the right of succession
and the process, attributes and properties expressly authorized by the law or incident to
its existence.
A. Corporation
B. Property
C. Partnership
D. Organization

113. What is the simplest form of business organization?

A. Sole proprietorship
B. Partnership
C. Enterprise
D. Corporation

114. Double taxation is a disadvantage of which business organization?

A. Sole proprietorship
B. Partnership
C. Corporation
D. Enterprise

115. In case of bankruptcy of a partnership,

A. the partners are not liable for the liabilities of the partnership
B. the partnership assets (excluding the partners‟ personal assets) only will be used
to pay the liabilities
C. the partners personal assets are attached to the debt of the partnership
D. the partners may sell stock to generate additional capital

116. Which is true about partnership?

A. It has a perpetual life.
B. It will be dissolved if one of the partners ceases to be connected with the
partnership.
C. It can be handed down from one generation of partners to another.
D. Its capitalization must be equal for each partner.
 388

117. Which is true about corporation?

A. It is worse type of business organization.
B. The minimum number of incorporators to start a corporation is three.
C. Its life is dependent on the lives of incorporators.
D. The stockholders of the corporation are only liable to the extent of their
investments.

118. An aggregation of individuals formed for the purpose of conducting a business

and recognized by law as a fictitious person is called _______.
A. partnership
B. investors
C. corporation
D. stockholders

119. An association of two or more persons for the purpose of engaging into a business
for profit is called _______.
A. entrepreneurship
B. partnership
C. proprietorship
D. corporation

120. What represents the ownership of stockholders who have a residual claim on the
assets of the corporation after all other claims have been settled?
A. Authorized capital stock
B. Preferred stock
C. Incorporator stock
D. Common stock

121. What stock represents ownership and enjoys certain preferences than ordinary
stock?
A. Authorized stock
B. Preferred stock
C. Incorporator‟s stock
D. Presidential stock
 389

122. The amount of company‟s profit that the board of directors of the corporation
decides to distribute to ordinary shareholders is called _______.
A. dividend
B. return
C. share of stock
D. equity

123. What refers to the residual value of a company‟s assets after all outside liabilities
(shareholders excluded) have been allowed for?
A. dividend
B. equity
C. return
D. par value

124. What refers to the claim of anyone to ownership?

A. Proprietorship
B. Assets
C. Equity
D. Liability

125. Cash money and credit necessary and operate an enterprise are generally called
_______.
A. capital
B. funds
C. assets
D. liabilities

126. What represents the share of participation in business organizations?

A. Franchise
B. Partnership
C. Stock
D. Corporation

127. The profit derived from a project or business enterprise without consideration of
obligations to financial contributors and claims of other based on profit is known as
________.
A. yield
B. economic return
C. earning value
D. gain
 390

128. _________ is the element of value which a business has earned through the
favorable consideration and patronage of its customers arising from its well known and
well conducted policies and operations.
A. Status of company
B. Big income
C. Known owners
D. Goodwill

129. Which of the following is an example of intangible asset?

A. Cash
B. Investment in subsidiary companies
C. Furniture
D. Patents

130. Lands, buildings, plants and machineries are examples of what type of asset?
A. Current asset
B. Trade investment asset
C. Fixed asset
D. Intangible asset

131. What refers to the interest rate at which the present work of the cash flow on a
project is zero of the interest earned by an investment?
A. Economic return
B. Yield
C. Rate of return
D. Return of investment

132. Based on the Theory of Minimum Attractive Rate of Return, which of the
following is used to maximize the economic well-being of an organization?
A. Hurdle rate
B. Depleted rate
C. Contingency rate
D. Anticipated rate

133. What is another term for “current assets”?

A. Fixed assets
B. Non-liquid assets
C. Liquid assets
D. Cash
 391

134. What is described as the process by which the present and future cost
consequence of engineering designs are forecast?
A. Engineering economics
B. Project estimating
C. Present economy study
D. Cost estimating

135. What is an accounting term that represents an inventory account adjustment?

A. Cost of goods sold
B. Cost accounting
C. Standard cost
D. Overhead cost

136. What is the change in cost per unit variable change called?
A. Variable cost
B. Incremental cost
C. Fixed cost
D. Supplemental cost

137. What is used to record historical financial transactions?

A. Bookkeeping system
B. Ledger system
C. Balance check
D. General journal system

138. What is a secondary book of accounts, the information of which is obtained from
the journal called?
A. balance sheet
B. Ledger
C. worksheet
D. trial balance

139. The original record of a business transaction is recorded to this book.

A. Work book
B. Journal
C. Ledger
D. Account book
 392

140. All the proceeds which are received by the business as a result of the sale of
goods is called _______.
A. net income
B. Gross income
C. net income
D. total sales

141. All are classified under direct labor experiences EXCEPT one. Which one?
A. Inspection cost
B. Testing cost
C. Assembly cost
D. Supervision cost

142. What is a measure of the average speed with which accounts receivable are
collected?
A. Current ratio
B. Quick ratio
C. Acid test ratio
D. Receivable turnover

143. The ratio of the net income before taxes to net sales is called _______.
A. Current ratio
B. Inventory turnover
C. Profit margin ratio
D. Price-earnings ratio

144. What do you call a one-time credit against taxes?

A. Due credit
B. Tax credit
C. Credible credit
D. Revenue credit

145. What is used when quick estimate of the doubling time for the invested money is
needed?
A. Rule of 48
B. Rule of 36
C. Rule of 24
D. Rule of 72
 393

146. What is the increase in the money value of a capital asset called?
A. Profit
B. Capital gain
C. Capital expenditure
D. Capital stock

147. What is the reduction I the money value of a capital asset called?
A. Capital expenditure
B. Capital loss
C. Loss
D. Deficit

148. What refers to the negotiable claim issued by a bank in lieu of a term deposit?
A. Time deposit
B. Bond
C. Capital gain certificate
D. Certificate of deposit

149. What denotes the fall in the exchange rate of one currency in terms of the others?
This term usually applies to the floating exchange rate.
A. Currency appreciation
B. Currency depreciation
C. Currency devaluation
D. Currency float

150. The deliberate lowering of the price of a nation‟s currency in terms of the
accepted standard (Gold, American dollar or the British pound) is known as ________.
A. Currency appreciation
B. Currency depreciation
C. Currency devaluation
D. Currency float

151. What refers to the saving which takes place because goods are not available for
consumption rather than the consumer really want to save?
A. Compulsory saving
B. Consumer saving
C. Forced saving
D. All of the above
 394

152. The flow back of profit plus depreciation from a given project is called _______.
A. capital recovery
B. cash flow
C. economic return
D. earning value

153. As applied to capitalized asset, the distribution of the initial cost by a periodic
changes to operation as in depreciation or the reduction of a debt by either periodic or
irregular prearranged programs is called _________.
A. annuity
B. amortization
C. capital recovery
D. annuity factor

154. What is known as an artificial expense that spreads the cost of an asset over some
base?
A. Amortization
B. Annuity costing
C. Depletion costing
D. Life-cycle costing

155. What is defined to be any method of repaying a debt, the principal and interest
included, usually by a series of equal payments at periodic interval of time?
A. Annuity
B. Depletion
C. Amortization
D. Depreciation

156. Capitalized cost of any structure or property is computed by which formula?

A. First cost + interest of first cost
B. Annual cost + interest of first cost
C. First cost + cost of perpetual maintenance
D. First cost + salvage value

157. The true value of interest rate computed by equations for compound interest for a
1 year period is known as _____.
A. expected return
B. nominal interest
C. effective interest
D. economic return
 395

158. Return on investment ratio is the ratio of the:

A. net income to owner‟s equity
B. market price per share to earnings per share
C. cost of goods sold to average cost of inventory at hand
D. net credit sales to average net receivables

159. Gross margin is the ratio of the profit to ______.

A. net sales
B. owner‟s equity
C. inventory turnover
D. quick assets

160. The ratio of quick assets to current liabilities is called _______.

A. gross margin ratio
B. profit margin ratio
C. acid-test ratio
D. return of investment

161. What is another term for “acid-test ratio”?

A. Current ratio
B. Quick ratio
C. Profit margin ratio
D. Price-earnings ratio

162. What is a government bond which has an indefinite life rather than a specific
maturity?
A. Coupon
B. T-bill
C. Debenture
D. Consol

163. A form of business firm which is owned and run by a group of individuals for
their mutual benefit is called _______.
A. cooperative
B. corporation
C. enterprise
D. partnership
 396

164. What is a stock of a product which is held by a trade body or government as a

means of regulating the price of that product?
A. Stock pile
B. Hoard stock
C. Buffer stock
D. Withheld stock

165. The ability to meet debts as they become due is known as _______.
A. solvency
B. leverage
C. insolvency
D. liquidity

166. The ability to convert assets to cash quickly is known as _______.

A. solvency
B. leverage
C. insolvency
D. liquidity

167. What is the basic accounting equation?

A. Assets = Liability + Owner‟s equity
B. Liability = Assets + Owner‟s equity
C. Owner‟s equity = Assets + Liability
D. Owner‟s equity = Liability – Assets

168. The financial health of the company is measured in terms of:

A. liquidity
B. solvency
C. relative risk
D. all of the above

169. What is an index of short-term paying ability?

A. Price-earnings ratio
B. Current ratio
C. Profit margin ratio
D. Gross margin
 397

170. The common ratio is the ratio of:

A. net credit sales to average net receivables
B. current assets to current liabilities
C. gross profit to net sales
D. net income to owner‟s equity

171. What is defined as the current assets minus inventories and prepaid expenses?
A. Profit margin ratio
B. Price-earnings ratio
C. Return of investment ratio
D. Quick ratio

172. What is the ratio of the quick assets to current liabilities?

A. Profit margin ratio
B. Price-earnings ratio
C. Return of investment ratio
D. Quick ratio

173. What is a measure of the average speed with which accounts receivables are
collected?
A. Profit margin ratio
B. Receivables turnover
C. Return of investment ratio
D. Average age of receivable

174. Receivable turnover is the ratio of:

A. net credit sale to average net receivables
B. market price per share to earnings per share
C. cost of goods sold to average cost of inventory on hand
D. common shareholder‟s equity to number of outstanding shares

175. What is the ratio of the net income to owner‟s equity?

A. Gross margin
B. Return of investment ratio
C. Book value per share of common stock
D. Inventory turnover
 398

176. What is the ratio of the market price per share to earnings per share called?
A. Gross margin
B. Price-earnings ratio
C. Book value per share of common stock
D. Inventory turnover

177. What is a profit margin ratio?

A. The ratio of net income before taxes to net sales
B. The ratio of gross profit to net sales
C. The ratio of common shareholder‟s equity to the number of outstanding shares
D. The ratio of cost of goods sold to average cost of inventory on hand

178. The gross profit from sales minus the cost of goods sold expressed as a percentage
of sales is called the _______.
A. net margin
B. total earnings margin
C. profit margin
D. gross margin

179. What is a gross margin?

A. The ratio of net income before taxes to net sales
B. The ratio of gross profit to net sales
C. The ratio of common shareholder‟s equity to the number of outstanding shares
D. The ratio of cost of goods sold to average cost of inventory on hand

180. Which of the following is a book value share of common stock?

A. The ratio of net income before taxes to net sales
B. The ratio of gross profit to net sales
C. The ratio of common shareholder‟s equity to the number of outstanding shares
D. The ratio of cost of goods sold to average cost of inventory on hand

181. What is an inventory turnover?

A. The ratio of net income before taxes to net sales
B. The ratio of gross profit to net sales
C. The ratio of common shareholder‟s equity to the number of outstanding shares
D. The ratio of cost of goods sold to average cost of inventory on hand
 399

182. The average age of receivables is computed using which formula?

A.
B.

C.

D.

183. What is a method of determining when the value of one alternative becomes equal
to the value of another?
A. Specific identification method
B. Average cost method
C. Break-even analysis
D. Incremental value method

184. The day‟s supply of inventory on hand is calculated using the formula:
A.
B.

C.

D.

185. What is defined as the length of time usually in years, for the cumulative net
annual profit to equal the initial investment?
A. Return of investment period
B. Turnover period
C. Break-even period
D. Payback period

186. The payback period indicates the project‟s _______.

A. Liquidity
B. Profitability
C. Feasibility
D. All of the above
 400

187. What is defined as the ratio of its return to its cost?

A. Return of an investment
B. Value of an investment
C. Breakeven point of an investment
D. Term of an investment

188. Which of the following is an accelerated depreciation method?

A. Straight line method and sinking fund method
B. Straight line method and double declining balance method
C. Double declining balance method and SYD method
D. SYD method and sinking fund method

189. What is an accelerated depreciation method?

A. It is one that calculates a depreciation amount greater than a straight line amount
B. It is one that calculates a depreciation amount lesser than a straight line amount
C. It is one that calculates a depreciation amount equal to straight line amount
D. It is one that calculates depreciation not in any way related to straight line amount

190. What refers to the reduction in the level of a national income and output usually
accompanied by a fall in the general price level?
A. Deflation
B. Inflation
C. Devaluation
D. Depreciation

191. A formal organization of producers within an industry forming a perfect collusion

purposely formed to increase profit and block new comers from the industry is called
______.
A. Monopoly
B. Cartel
C. Corporation
D. Competitors

192. The paper currency issued by the central bank which forms part of the country‟s
money supply is called ______.
A. T-bills
B. bank notes
C. check
D. coupon
 401

193. “When one of the factors of production is fixed in quantity or is difficult to

increase, increasing the other factors of production will result in a less than proportionate
increase in output”.
A. Law of diminishing return
B. Law of supply
C. Law of demand
D. Law of supply and demand

194. What is the ratio of the market price per share to the earnings per share?
A. Inventory turnover
B. Price-earnings
C. Book value per share of common stock
D. Profit margin

195. What is the ratio of the net income to owner‟s equity?

A. Return on investment
B. Inventory turnover
C. Profit margin
D. Price-earnings

196. What refers to the ratio of the net income before taxes to the net sale?
A. Receivable turnover
B. Acid test ratio
C. Return on investment
D. Profit margin

197. What refers to the buying or selling of goods between two or more markets in
order to take profitable and advantage of any differences in the prices quoted in these
markets?
A. Cartel
B. Arbitrage
C. Black market
D. A priori

198. The suspension of repayment of debt or interest for a specified period of time is
called _______.
A. moratorium
B. escrow
C. numeraire
D. porcupine
 402

199. Which of the following is one of the sources of uncertainty in Engineering

Economics studies?
A. Possible inaccuracy of the cash flow estimate used in the study.
B. Type of equipments and machineries involved.
C. Duration of the period of study.
D. Type of business involved in relation to economic status of future economy.

200. What is considered as the principal method for computing depreciation deductions
for property in engineering products?
A. Modified Comprehensive Recovery System (MCRS)
1. B Modified Accelerated Cost Recovery System (MACRS)
B. General Depreciation System (GDS)
C. Alternative Depreciation System (ADS)

201. What refers to the additional cost that results from increasing the output of a
system and is often associated with a “go-no-go” decisions?
A. Fixed cost
B. Incremental cost
C. Opportunity cost
D. Variable cost

202. For an alternative to be viable, the minimum attractive rate of return (MARR)
must be:
A. greater than the rate of return
B. equal the rate of return
C. less than the rate of return
D. equal the rate of investment

203. In economics, short term transaction refers to a lifetime of how many year(s)?
A. 1 year or less
B. 3 years or less
C. 2 years or less
D. 4 years or less

204. When making decisions on proposed investment using minimum attractive rate of
return (MARR):
A. It is greater than the interest rate used to discount from investment
B. It is less than the interest rate used to discount from investment
C. It is normally a policy decision made by the manager of the company
D. all of the above
 403

205. Return of investment (ROI) is calculated from _______.

A. equivalent values
B. rate of return values
C. time value of money
D. all of the above

206. When using net present worth calculation to make a comparison between two
projects, one of the following would invalidate the calculation made. Which one?
A. Cash flows used are non-conventional
B. There are differences in the magnitude of the project
C. The same rate is used for each period
D. Evaluating over different period of time

–
207. The value is called _______.
A. Uniform series sinking fund factor
B. Uniform series present worth factor
C. Uniform series compound amount factor
D. Uniform gradient present worth factor
 404

ANSWER KEYS

1. C 40. A 79. C 118. C

2. A 41. B 80. A 119. B
3. D 42. C 81. B 120. D
4. A 43. C 82. C 121. B
5. C 44. B 83. A 122. A
6. D 45. A 84. B 123. B
7. D 46. C 85. D 124. C
8. B 47. A 86. B 125. A
9. D 48. C 87. D 126. C
10. D 49. B 88. B 127. B
11. A 50. D 89. C 128. D
12. C 51. C 90. D 129. D
13. D 52. C 91. D 130. C
14. A 53. D 92. D 131. C
15. D 54. A 93. B 132. A
16. C 55. C 94. A 133. C
17. B 56. B 95. C 134. D
18. C 57. B 96. C 135. A
19. B 58. B 97. B 136. B
20. A 59. C 98. C 137. A
21. A 60. B 99. B 138. B
22. D 61. D 100. B 139. B
23. D 62. B 101. A 140. B
24. A 63. D 102. A 141. D
25. C 64. B 103. B 142. D
26. A 65. B 104. A 143. C
27. B 66. C 105. A 144. B
28. A 67. A 106. A 145. D
29. D 68. B 107. D 146. B
30. C 69. D 108. C 147. B
31. D 70. D 109. B 148. D
32. B 71. B 110. D 149. B
33. B 72. A 111. A 150. C
34. C 73. C 112. A 151. C
35. A 74. B 113. A 152. B
36. A 75. A 114. C 153. B
37. C 76. D 115. C 154. A
38. B 77. A 116. B 155. C
39. D 78. A 117. D 156. C
 405

157. C 170. B 183. C 196. D

158. A 171. D 184. C 197. B
159. A 172. D 185. D 198. A
160. C 173. B 186. A 199. A
161. B 174. A 187. B 200. B
162. D 175. B 188. C 201. B
163. A 176. B 189. A 202. C
164. C 177. A 190. A 203. B
165. A 178. C 191. B 204. C
166. B 179. B 192. B 205. A
167. A 180. C 193. A 206. D
168. D 181. D 194. B 207. B
169. B 182. A 195. A
 406

ENGINEERING ECONOMICS PROBLEMS

1. First Benchmark Publishing‟s gross margin is 50% of sales. The operating costs of the
publishing are estimated at 15% of sales. If the company is within the 40% tax bracket,
determine the present of sales is their profit after taxes?
A. 21%
B. 20%
C. 19%
D. 18%
2. A farmer selling eggs at 50 pesos a dozen gains 20%. If he sells eggs at the same price
after the costs of the eggs rises by 12.5%, how much will be his new gain in percent?
A. 6.89%
B. 6.65%
C. 6.58%
D. 6.12%

3. A feasibility study shows that a fixed capital investment of P 10,000,000 is required for a
proposed construction firm and an estimated working capital of P 2,000,000. Annual
depreciation is estimated to be 10% f the fixed capital investment. Determine the rate of
return on the local investment if the annual profit is P 3,500,000.
A. 28.33%
B. 29.17%
C. 30.12%
D. 30.78%

4. The monthly demand for ice cans being manufactured by Mr. Camus is 3,200 pieces.
With a manual operated guillotine, the unit cutting cost is P25.00. An electrically
operated hydraulic guillotine was offered to Mr. Camus at a price of P 275,000.00 and
which cuts by 30% the unit cutting cost. Disregarding the cost of money, how many
months will Mr. Camus be able to recover the cost of the machine if he decides to buy
now?
A. 10 months
B. 11 months
C. 12 months
D. 13 months
 407

5. Engr. Trinidad loans from a loan firm an amount of P100,000 with a rate of simple
interest of 20% but the interest was deducted from the loan at the time the money was
borrowed. If at the end of one year, she has to pay the full amount of P 100,000, what is
the actual rate of interest?
A. 23.5%
B. 24.7%
C. 25.0%
D. 25.8%

6. A loan of P 5,000 is made of 15 months, at a simple interest rate of 15%, what future
amount is due at the end of the loan period?
A. P 5,937.50
B. P 5,873.20
C.P 5,712.40
D. P 5,690.12

7. Mr. Bacani borrowed money from the bank. He received from the bank P 1,842 and
promised to pay P 2,000 at the end of 10 months. Determine the rate of simple interest
A. 12.19%
B. 12.03%
C. 11.54%
D. 10.29%
8. A college freshman borrowed P 2,000 from a bank for his tuition fee and promised to pay
the amount for one year. He received only the amount of P 1,920 after the bank collected
an advance interest of P 80.00. What was the rate of discount?
A. 3.67%
B. 4.00%
C. 4.15%
D. 4.25%
 408

9. It is the practice of almost all banks in the Philippines that when they grant a loan, the
interest for one year is automatically deducted from the principal amount upon release of
money to a borrower. Let us therefore assume that you applied for a loan with a bank and
the P 80,000 was approved at an interest rate of 14% of which P 11,200 was deducted
and you were given a check of P 68,000. Since you have to pay the amount of P 80,000
one year after, what then will be the effective interest rate?
A. 16.02%
B. 16.28%
C. 16.32%
D. 16.47%

10. A man invested P 110,000 for 31 days. The net interest after deducting 20% withholding
tax is P 890.36. Find the rate of return annually.
A. 11.50%
B. 11.75%
C. 11.95%
D. 12.32%

11. An investor wishes to earn 7% on his capital after payment of taxes. If the income from
an available investment will be taxed at an average rate of 42%, what minimum rate of
return, before payment of taxes, must the investment offer to be justified?
A. 12.07%
B. 12.34%
C. 12.67%
D. 12.87%

12. Mr. Jun Ramos was granted a loan of 20,000 pesos by his employer Excel First Review
and Training Center, Inc. with an interest of 6% for 180 days on the principal collected in
advance. The corporation would accept a promissory note for P20, 000 non-interests for
180 days. If discounted at once, find the proceeds of the note.
A. P 18,800
B. P 18,900
C. P 19,000
D. P 19,100
 409

13. Miss Evilla borrowed money from a bank. She receives from the bank P1, 340.00 and
promised to pay P1, 500.00 at the end of 9 months. Determine the corresponding discount
rate or often referred to as the “banker‟s discount”.
A. 13.15%
B. 13.32%
C. 13.46%
D. 13.73%

14. The exact simple interest of P 5,000 invested from June 21, 1995 to December 25, 1995
is P 100. What is the rate of interest?
A. 3.90%
B. 3.92%
C. 3.95%
D. 3.98%

15. What is the ordinary interest on P 1,500.50 for 182 days at 5.2%?
A. P 39.01
B. P 39.82
C. P 39.45
D. P 39.99

16. A loan for P 50,000 is to be paid in 3 years at the amount of P 65,000. What is the
effective rate of money?
A. 9.01%
B. 9.14%
C. 9.31%
D. 9.41%

17. What is the effective rate corresponding to 18% compounded daily? Take 1 year is equal
to 360 days.
A. 19.61%
B. 19.44%
C. 19.31%
D. 19.72%
 410

18. What rate of interest compounded annually is the same as the rate of interest of 8%
compounded quarterly?
A. 8.07%
B. 8.12%
C. 8.16%
D. 8.74%

19. Which of these gives the lowest effective rate of interest?

A. 12.35% compounded annually
B. 11.90% compounded semi-annually
C. 12.20% compounded quarterly
D. 11.60% compounded monthly

20. An amount of P 1,000 becomes P 1,608.44 after 4 years compounded bimonthly. Find the
nominal interest.
A. 11.89%
B. 12.00%
C. 12.08%
D. 12.32%

21. How long will it take money to double itself if invested at 5% compounded annually?
A. 13.7 years
B. 14.7 years
C. 14.2 years
D. 15.3 years

22. By the condition of a will, the sum of P 20,000 is left to a girl t be held in trust fund by
her guardian until amounts to P 50,000. When will the girl receive the money if the fund
is invested at 8% compounded quarterly?
A. 11.23 years
B. 11.46 years
C. 11.57 years
D. 11.87 years
 411

23. A sum of P 1,000 is invested now and left for 8 years, at which time the principal is
withdrawn. The interest has accrued is left for another 8 years. If the effective annual
interest rate is 5%, what will be the withdrawal amount at the end of the 16th year?
A. P 693.12
B. P 700.12
C. P 702.15
D. P 705.42

24. Mandarin Bank advertises 9.5% account that yields 9.84% annually. Find how often the
interest is compounded.
A. Monthly
B. Bimonthly
C. Quarterly
D. Annually

25. A student plans to deposit P 1,500 in the bank now and another P 3,000 for the next 2
years. If he plans to withdraw P 5,000 three years from after his last deposit for the
purpose of buying shoes, what will be the amount of money left in the bank after one year
of his withdrawal? Effective annual interest rate is 10%.
A. P 1,549.64
B. P 1,459.64
C. P 1,345.98
D. P 1,945.64

26. You borrow P 3,500.00 for one year from a friend at an interest rate of 1.5% per month
instead of taking a loan from a bank at a rate of 18% per year. How much lesser you will
pay by borrowing the money from the bank?
A. P 62.44
B. P 44.55
C. P 54.66
D. P 37.56

27. What is the present worth of two P 100 payments at the end of the third year and fourth
year? The annual interest rate is 8%.
A. P 150.56
B. P 152.88
C. P 153.89
D. P 151.09
 412

28. A firm borrows P 2,000 for 6 years at 8%. At the end of 6 years, it renews the loan for the
amount due plus P 2,000 more for 2 years at 8%. What is the lump sum due?
A. P 3,260.34
B. P 3,280.34
C. P 3,270.34
D. P 3,250.34

29. In year zero, you invest P 10,000 in a 15% security for 5 years. During that time, the
average annual inflation is 6%. How much in terms of year zero pesos will be I the
account at maturity?
A. P 15,030.03
B. P 20,113.57
C. P 18,289.05
D. P 16,892.34

30. The Institute of Electronics and Communications Engineers of the Philippines (IECEP) is
planning to put up its own building. Two proposals being considered are:
A. The construction of the building now to cost P 400,000
B. The construction of a smaller building now to cost P 300,000 and at the end of 5
years, an extension to be added to cost P 200,000

By how much is proposal B more economical than proposal A if interest rate is 20% and
depreciation to be neglected?
A. P 19,122.15
B. P 19,423.69
C. P 19,518.03
D. P 19,624.49

31. What is the present worth of a P 500 annuity starting at the end of the third year and
continuing to the end of the fourth year, if the annual interest rate is 10%?
A. P 727.17
B. P 717.17
C. P 714.71
D. P 731.17
 413

32. What annuity is required over 12 years to equate with a future amount of P 20,000?
Assume i = 6% annually.
A. P 1,290.34
B. P 1,185.54
C. P 1,107.34
D. P 1,205.74

33. A factory operator bought a diesel generator set P 10,000 and agreed to pay the dealer
uniform sum at the end of each year for 5 years at 8% interest compounded annually, that
the final payment will cancel the debt for principal and interest. What is the annual
payment?
A. P 2,500.57
B. P 2,544.45
C. P 2,540.56
D. P 2,504.57

34. What is the present worth of a 3 year annuity paying P 3,000.00 at the end of each year,
with interest at 8% compounded annually?
A. P 7,654.04
B. P 7,731.29
C. P 7,420.89
D. P 7,590.12

35. A man loans P 187,400 from a bank with interest at 5% compounded annually. He agrees
to pay his obligations by paying 8 equal annual payments, the first being due at the end of
10 years. Find the annual payments.
A. P 43,600.10
B. P 43,489.47
C. P 43,263.91
D. P 43,763.20

36. A person buys a piece of lot for P 100,000 down payment and 10 deferred semi-annual
payments of P 8,000 each, starting three years from now. What is the present value of the
investment if the rate of interest is 12% compounded annually?
A. P 142,999.08
B. P 143,104.89
C. P 142,189.67
D. P 143,999.08
 414

37. A young engineer borrowed P 10,000 at 12% interest and paid P 2,000 per annum for the
last 4 years. What does he have to pay at the end of the fifth year in order to pay off his
loan?
A. P 6,999.39
B. P 6,292.93
C. P 6,222.39
D. P 6,922.93

38. Miss Calledo deposited P 1,000, P 1,500 and P 2,000 at the end of the 2nd year, 3rd year
and 4th year, respectively in a savings account which earned 10% per annum. How much
is in the account at the end of the 4th year?
A. P 4,880.00
B. P 4,820.00
C. P 4,860.00
D. P 4,840.00

39. A P 1,000,000 issue of 3%, 15-year bond was sold at 95%.What is the rate of interest of
this investment?
A. P 3.0%
B. P 3.4%
C. P 3.7%
D. P 4.0%

40. A P1, 000, 6% bond pays dividend semi-annually and will be redeemed at 110% on June
21, 2004. It is brought on June 21, 2001 to yield 4% interest. Find the price of the bond.
A. P 1,122.70
B. P 1.144.81
C. P 1,133.78
D. P 1,155.06

41. A VOM has a selling price of P 400. If its selling price is expected to decline at a rate of
10% per annum due to obsolescence, what will be its selling price after 5 years?
A. P 222.67
B. P 212.90
C. P 236.20
D. P 231.56
 415

42. A machine costs P 8,000 and an estimated life of 10 years with a salvage value of P 500.
What is its book value after 8 years using straight line method?
A. P 2,000.00
B. P 2,100.00
C. P 2,200.00
D. P 2,300.00

43. ABC Corporation makes it a policy that for any new equipment purchased; the annual
depreciation cost should not exceed 20% of the first cost at any time with no salvage
value. Determine the length of service life necessary if the depreciation used is the SYD
method.
A. 7 years
B. 8 years
C. 9 years
D. 10 years

44. An asset is purchased for P 9,000.00. Its estimated economic life is 10 years after which
it will be sold for P 1,000.00. Find the depreciation in the first three years using sum-of-
the-years‟ digit method.
A. P 3,279.27
B. P 3,927.27
C. P 3,729.27
D. P 3,792.72

45. Shell Philippines, a multinational company, has a total gross income for a particular year
of P 50,000,000. The taxable income after taking all deductions except for depletion is P
18,500,000. What is the allowable depletion allowance for that particular year? Take
percentage of given income for oil as 22%.
A. P 9,358.41
B. P 9,228.45
C. P 9,250.00
D. P 9,308.45
 416

46. The Saudi Arabian Oil Refinery developed an oil well which is estimated to contain
5,000,000 barrels of oil at an initial cost of $ 50,000,000. What is the depletion charge
during the year where it produces half million barrels of oil? Use Unit or Factor method
in computing depletion.
A. $ 5,000,000.00
B. $ 5,010,000.00
C. $ 5,025,000.00
D. $ 5,050,000.00

47. A manufacturer product certain items at a labor cost of P 115 each, material cost of P 76
each and variable cost of P 2.32 each. If the item has a unit price of P 600, how many
units must be manufactured each month for the manufacturer to break even if the monthly
overhead is P 428,000.
A. 1,033
B. 1,037
C. 1,043
D. 1,053

48. A manufacturing firm maintains one product assembly line to produce signal generators.
Weekly demand for the generators is 35 units. The line operates for 7 hours per day, 5
days per week. What is the maximum production time per unit in hours required of the
line to meet the demand?
A. 1.0 hour per unit
B. 1.2 hour per unit
C. 1.4 hour per unit
D. 1.6 hour per unit

49. A telephone switchboard 100 pair cable can be made up with either enameled wire or
tinned wire. There will be 400 soldered connections. The cost of soldering a connection
on the enameled wire will be P 1.65, on the tinned wire, it will be P 1.15. A 100-pair
cable made up with enameled wire cost P 0.55 per linear foot and those made up of
tinned wire cost P 0.75 per linear foot. Determine the length of cable run in feet so that
the cost of each installation would be the same.
A. 1,000 feet
B. 1,040 feet
C. 1,100 feet
D. 1,120 feet
 417

50. A leading shoe manufacturer produces a pair of Lebron James signature shoes at a labor
of P 900.00 a pair and a material cost of P 800.00 a pair. The fixed charges on the
business are P 5,000,000 a month and the variable costs are P 400.00 a pair. Royalty to
Lebron James is P 1,000 per pair of shoes sold. If the shoes sell at P 5,000 a pair, how
many pairs must be produced each month for the manufacturer to break-even?
A. 2,590
B. 2,632
C. 2,712
D. 2,890
 418

ANSWER KEYS

1. A 26. C
2. B 27. B
3. B 28. A
4. C 29. A
5. C 30. D
6. A 31. B
7. D 32. B
8. B 33. D
9. B 34. B
10. B 35. D
11. A 36. D
12. A 37. D
13. D 38. C
14. A 39. A
15. C 40. B
16. B 41. C
17. D 42. A
18. D 43. C
19. D 44. B
20. B 45. C
21. C 46. A
22. C 47. D
23. D 48. A
24. C 49. A
25. A 50. B
 419

ENGINEERING MANAGEMENT OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS

1. Management is:
A. An art
B. Both science and art
C. A science
D. Neither art nor science

2. Engineering is:
A. An art
B. Both science and art
C. A science
D. Neither art nor science

3. Engineers can become good managers only through _____________.

A. Experience
B. Taking master degree in management
C. Effective career planning
D. Trainings

4. If you are an engineer wanting to become a manager, what will you do?
A. Develop new talents
B. Acquire new values
C. Broaden your point of view
D. All of the above

5. When engineer enters management, what is the most likely problem he finds difficult to
acquire
A. Learning to trust others
B. Learning how to work through others
C. Learning how to take satisfaction in the work of others
D. All of the above

6. What management function refers to the process of anticipating problems, analyzing

them, estimating their likely impact and determining actions that will lead to the desired
outcomes and goals?
A. Planning
B. Leading
C. Controlling
D. Organizing
 420

7. What refers to the establishing interrelationships between people and things in such a
way that human and material resources are effectively focused toward achieving the
goal of the company?
A. Planning
B. Leading
C. Controlling
D. Organizing

8. What management function involves selecting candidates and training personnel?

A. Organizing
B. Staffing
C. Motivating
D. Controlling

9. What management function involves orienting personnel in the most effective way and
channeling resources?
A. Directing
B. Planning
C. Organizing
D. Leading

10. Actual performance normally is the same as the original plan and therefore it is
necessary to check for deviation and to take corrective action. This action refers to what
management function?
A. Organizing
B. Planning
C. Controlling
D. Staffing

11. What refers to a management function which is to encourage others to follow the
example set for them, with great co0mmitment and conviction?
A. Staffing
B. Motivating
C. Controlling
D. Leading

12. What refers to a principal function of lower management which is to instill in them
workforce a commitment and enthusiasm for pursuing the goals of the organization?
A. Directing
B. Motivating
C. Staffing
D. Controlling
 421

13. What refers to the collection of tolls and techniques that are used on a predefined set of
inputs to produce a predefined set of outputs?
A. Project management
B. Engineering management
C. Management
D. Planning

14. Which is not an element of project management process?

A. Data and information
B. Research and development
C. Decision making
D. Implementation and action

15. What is the most essential attribute of a project manager

A. Leadership
B. Charisma
C. Communication skill
D. Knowledge

16. What type of leadership is characterized as having a leader that takes decisions,
according to the established mechanism of the organization?
A. Laissez-faire leadership
B. Authoritarian leadership
C. Consultative leadership
D. Bureaucratic leadership

17. What leadership style is characterized as having a leader that observes the group and
allows the group to go on with the job as they see it fit, but acts as an adviser and makes
himself available when needed?
A. Laissez-faire leadership
B. Democratic leadership
C. Charismatic leadership
D. Consultative leadership

18. In project management, what provides a simple yet effective means of monitoring and
controlling a project at each stage of its development?
A. R & D model
B. Project feasibility
C. Life cycle model
D. All of the above

19. What project life cycle model is the most relevant for information technology project?
A. Morris model
B. Waterfall model
C. Incremental release model
D. Prototype mode
 422

20. In project management, “R&D” stands for:

A. Retail distribution
B. Research and development
C. Repair and development
D. Reduce and deduce

21. In project management, O & M stands for:

A. Operational and manpower
B. Operational and maintenance
C. Operational and management
D. Operational and mission

22. A project manager must be very good in which of the following skills?
A. Communication skills
B. Human relationship skills
C. Leadership skills
D. All of the above

23. Project integration management involves which of the following processes?

A. Project plan development
B. Project plan execution
C. Integrated change control
D. Quality planning

24. Project quality management involves all of the following processes except:
A. Quality planning
B. Quality assurance
C. Quality control
D. Quality feature
25. What is defined as an organized method of providing past, present and projected
information on internal operations and external intelligence for use in decision-
making?
A. Electronic data processing system
B. Management information system
C. Central processing system
D. Data management system

26. Middle management level undertakes what planning activity?

A. Intermediate planning
B. Strategic planning
C. Operational planning
D. Direct planning
 423

27. Strategic planning is undertaken in which management level?

A. Lower management level
B. Middle management level
C. Top management level
D. Lowest management level

28. What is the disadvantage of free- rein style of leadership?

A. Leader managerial control and high degree of risk
B. Time consuming and cost ineffective
C. Little ideas from subordinates in decision- making
D. All of the above

29. If you are appointed as a division manager, your first task is most likely to
A. Set goals.
B. Determine the resources needed.
C. Set a standard.
D. Develop strategies and tactics.

30. What is defined as the process of planning, organizing and controlling operations to
reach objective efficiently and effectively?
A. General management
B. Engineering management
C. Production management
D. Operations management

31. For a project manager to achieve his given set of goals through other people, he must
have a good _____.
A. Interpersonal skills
B. Communications skills
C. Leadership
D. Decision- making skills

32. What type of conflict do managers encounter when there is disagreement on issues of
territorial power or hidden agenda?
A. Technical opinion conflict
B. Politics
C. Ambiguous roles
D. Managerial procedure conflict

33. The process of partitioning an organization into subunits to improve efficiency is

known as _____.
A. Division of labor
B. Segmentation
C. Departmentalization
D. Territorialization
 424

34. By departmentalization of an organization, it decentralizes _____.

A. Authority
B. Responsibility
C. Accountability
D. All of the above

35. What type of committee companies or corporations created for a short term purpose
only?
A. Interim committee
B. Temporary committee
C. Standing committee
D. Ad hoc committee

36. What refers to a description of whether the objectives are accomplished?

A. Efficiency
B. Effectiveness
C. Ability to manage
D. Decision- making ability

37. An engineer is required to finish a certain engineering job in 20 days. He is said to be

_____ if he finished the job within the required period of 20 days.
A. Efficient
B. Effective
C. Reliable
D. Qualified

38. 2 If an engineer provides less input (labor and materials) to his project and still come
out with the same output, he is said to be more _____
A. Managerial skill
B. Economical
C. effective
D. efficient

39. To determine qualified applicant, the engineer manager will subject the applicant to a
test that is used to measure a person‟s current knowledge of a subject?
A. Interest test
B. Aptitude test
C. Performance test
D. Personality test

40. What type of training is a combination of on- the- job training and experiences with
classroom instruction in particular subject?
A. On- the- job training
B. Vestibule school
C. Apprenticeship program
 425

D. In- basket
41. What type of authority refers to a specialist‟ s right to oversee lower level personnel
involved in the project regardless of the personnel‟ s assignment in the organization?
A. Top authority
B. Line authority
C. Staff authority
D. Functional authority

42. When a consultant or specialist gives advice to his superior, he is using what type of
authority?
A. Top authority
B. Line authority
C. Staff authority
D. Functional authority

43. When structuring an organization, the engineer manager must be concerned with the
determining scope of work and how it is combined in a job. This refers to ______.
A. Division of labor
B. Delegation of authority
C. Departmentation
D. Span of control

44. When structuring an organization, the engineering manager must be concerned with the
grouping of related jobs, activities or processes into major organizational subunits. This
refers to:
A. Division of labor
B. Delegation of authority
C. Departmentation
D. Span of control

45. Which technique will the manager use when evaluating alternative using qualitative
evaluation?
A. Comparison technique
B. Intuition and subjective judgement
C. Rational technique
D. Analytical technique

46. Which technique will the manager use when evaluating alternative using quantitative
evaluation?
A. Rational and analytical techniques
B. Intuition and subjective judgement
C. Comparison in number technique
D. Cost analysis
 426

47. What refers to the strategic statement that identifies why an organization exists, its
philosophy of management and its purpose as distinguished from other similar
organization in terms of products, services and markets?
A. Corporate mission
B. Corporate vision
C. Corporate character
D. Corporate identity

48. What refers to a process of influencing and supporting others to work enthusiastically
toward achieving objectives?
A. Power
B. Leadership
C. Teamwork
D. Charisma

49. What describes how to determine the number of service units that will minimize both
customer‟s waiting time and cost of service?
A. Queuing theory
B. Network model
C. Sampling theory
D. Simulation

50. What refers to the rational way to conceptualize, analyze and solve problems in
situations involving limited or partial information about the decision environment?
A. Sampling theory
B. Linear programming
C. Decision theory
D. Simulation

51. What is a quantitative technique where samples if populations are statistically

determined to be used for a number of processes such as quality control and marketing
research?
A. Sampling theory
B. Linear programming
C. Decision theory
D. Simulation

52. The engineer manager must be concern with the needs of his human resources. What
refers to the need of the employees for food, drinks and rest?
A. Physiological need
B. Security need
C. Steam need
D. Self- actualization need
 427

53. What refers to the learning that is provided in order to improve performance on the
present job?
A. Training
B. Development
C. Vestibule
D. Specialized courses

54. What technique is best suited for projects that contain many repetitions of some
standard activities?
A. Benchmark job technique
B. Parametric technique
C. Modular technique
D. Non- modular technique

55. What organizational structure is based on the assumption that each unit should
specialize in a specific functional area and perform all of the tasks that require its
expertise?
A. Functional organization
B. Territorial organization
C. Process organization
D. Product organization

56. What type of organization structure in which each project is assigned to a single
organizational unit and the various functions are performed by personnel within the
unit?
A. Functional organization
B. Territorial organization
C. Process organization
D. Product organization

57. What organizational structure provides a sound basis for balancing the use of human
resources and skills?
A. Functional organization
B. Matrix organization
C. Process organization
D. Product organization

58. In which type of organization where the structure can read to a “dual boss”
phenomenon?
A. Functional organization
B. Matrix organization
C. Process organization
D. Product organization
 428

59. Which one is an advantage of a matrix organization?

A. Rapid reaction time possible
B. Adaptation to changing environment
C. State- of- the- art technology
D. Better utilization of resources

60. Which one is a disadvantage of a matrix organization?

A. Dual accountability of personnel
B. Conflicts between project and functional managers
C. Profit- and- loss accountability difficult
D. Inefficient use of specialist

61. Which one is an advantage of a projectized organization?

A. Efficient use of technical personnel
B. Good project schedule and cost control
C. Single point for customer contact
D. Rapid reaction time possible

62. Which one is a disadvantage of a projectized organization?

A. Uncertain technical direction
B. Inefficient use of specialist
C. Insecurity regarding future job assignments
D. Slower work flow

63. All are disadvantages of projectized organization except one. Which one?
A. Weak customer interface
B. Insecurity concerning other future job assignments
C. Poor communication concerning necessary technical information among leaders
and workers
D. Inefficient use of hired specialist

64. Which one is an advantage of a functional organization?

A. Efficient use of technical personnel
B. Rapid reaction time possible
C. Career continuity and growth of technical personnel
D. Good technology transfer between projects

65. Which one is a disadvantage of a functional organization?

A. Weak customer interface
B. Weak project authority
C. Inefficient use of specialist
D. Slower work flow
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66. Which of the following is not a disadvantage of a functional organization?

A. There is a poor communication among peers.
B. The organization lack clear delegation of authority.
C. It is characterized as having slower flow of work.
D. It has uncertain technical direction.

67. In what type of organization where a project manager is held responsible for
completion of the project and is often assigned a budget?
A. Functional organization
B. Matrix organization
C. Projectized organization
D. Project coordinated organization

68. In selecting an organizational structure, which of the following is not a criterion?

A. Finance and accounting
B. Customer relation
C. Location
D. Technology

69. What is NOT a factor to be taken into consideration when selecting an organizational
structure for managing projects?
A. Overhead cost
B. Type if technology used
C. Location of the project
D. Level of uncertainty in projects

70. If a project have multidimensional goals, the project manager often use his _____ to
reach a compromise solution.
A. Leadership
B. Trade off analysis skill
C. Authority
D. Decision- making skill

71. In project management, what shows the manager by how much project costs are above
or below the allotted budget?
A. Cost efficiency chart
B. Cost performance index
C. Cost estimated record
D. Cost variance computation chart

72. Who is responsible for ensuring that the projects is completed successfully as measured
by time, cost, performance and stakeholder satisfaction?
A. Functional manager
B. Project manager
C. Chief engineer
 430

D. Department supervisor
73. Who is responsible for running a department so that all his customers are served
efficiently and effectively?
A. Area manager
B. Sales manager
C. Functional manager
D. Project manager

74. What is the major activity of the project support office?

A. Administrative support for projects
B. Support for tools and techniques
C. Overall project management support
D. Project management via the internet

75. What is the major activity of the project office?

A. Administrative support for projects
B. Support for tools and techniques
C. Overall project management support
D. Project management via internet

76. What is an important tool for the design and implementation of the project‟ s work
content?
A. Liner responsibility chart
B. Gantt chart
C. Life cycle model
D. Project design chart

77. The following are used to analyze precedence relations and their effects on the schedule
of projects except one. Which one?
A. PERT
B. CPM
C. Gantt chart
D. Smith chart

78. What is the most widely used charts in management of scheduling and control of
projects?
A. PERT
B. CPM
C. Gantt chart
D. Smith chart

79. What chart summarizes the relationships between project stakeholders and their
responsibilities in each project element?
A. Linear responsibility chart
B. Matrix responsibility chart
C. Responsibility interface matrix
 431

D. All of the above

80. What network model enables engineer managers to schedule, monitor and control large
and complex projects by using only one time factor per activity?
A. Forecasting
B. Critical path method
C. Program evaluation review technique
D. Simulation

81. What network model enables engineer managers to schedule, monitor and control large
and complex projects by employing three time estimate for each activity?
A. Forecasting
B. Critical path method
C. Program evaluation review technique
D. Simulation

82. For a project manager to have an effective means of identifying and communicating the
planned activities and their interrelationships, he must use a network technique. One of
the network techniques is commonly known as CPM. What does CPM stands for?
A. Critical plan method
B. Critical path method
C. Critical project method
D. Coordinated plan method

83. For a project manager to have an effective means of identifying and communicating the
planned activities and their interrelationships, he must use a network technique. One of
the network techniques is commonly known as PERT. What does PERT stands for?
A. Project evaluation review technique
B. Program evaluation review technique
C. Path evaluation review technique
D. Program execution review technique

84. What is the benefit of using PERT/ CPM network as integral component of project
management?
A. They furnish a consistent framework for planning, scheduling, monitoring and
controlling project.
B. They illustrate the interdependencies of all tasks.
C. They can be used to estimate the expected project completion dates as well as
the probability that the project will be completed by a specific date.
D. All of the above

85. The CPM was developed by Rand and Walker in what year?
A. 1957
B. 1958
C. 1959
D. 1960
 432

86. In what year was PERT developed?

A. 1957
B. 1958
C. 1959
D. 1960

87. In Morris life cycle model, a project is divided into how many stages to be performed in
sequence?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6

88. What is the first stage in the life cycle of a project using the Morris model?
A. Planning and design
B. Feasibility
C. Production
D. Turnover and startup

89. Risk management is:

A. Risk avoidance
B. Controlling risk
C. To gain opportunities
D. All of the above

90. What technique a manager must use if he decides to absorb the risk in the project?
A. Create buffer in the form of management reserve or extra time in schedule
B. Use a different technology
C. Use a different supplier
D. Buying insurance

91. Buying insurance is a form of:

A. Risk elimination
B. Risk reduction
C. Risk sharing
D. Risk absorption

92. What refers to any technique used either to minimize the probability of an accident or
to mitigate its consequences?
A. Reliability management
B. Risk management
C. Quality assurance management
D. Project assurance management
 433

93. What refers to the process and procedure for identifying, characterizing, quantifying
and evaluating risks and its significance?
A. Risk analysis
B. Risk management
C. Risk planning
D. Risk assessment

94. In risk management, high risks are those what corresponds to a strong adverse event
that has a _____.
A. High probability of occurrence
B. Low probability of occurrence
C. Least probability of occurrence
D. Substantial probability of occurrence

95. What refers to the techniques that encompass risk assessment and the inclusive
evaluation of risk, costs and benefits of alternative projects or policies?
A. Risk- management
B. Risk- benefit analysis
C. Benefit management
D. Uncertainty analysis

96. What is measured by the amount of resources that a manager can allocate without the
need to get an approval from his or her manager?
A. Responsibility
B. Leadership
C. Authority
D. Tradeoff skill

97. What defined as a course of action aimed at ensuring that the organization will achieve
its objectives?
A. Goal
B. Strategy
C. Program
D. Plan

98. When there is a degradation of service provided by the company to clients, it is a sign
that the engineer manager in- charge?
A. Lacks leadership skill
B. Has inadequate control
C. Has poor organization
D. Has no proper planning
 434

99. What term is used to describe payment to an employee for time spent on company
property, though not actually working at a job?
A. Lost time pay
B. Downtime pay
C. Wasted time pay
D. Idle time pay

100. What principal element of uncertainty refers to a measure of the relevance of

available information to the problem at hand?
A. Statistical confidence
B. Tolerance
C. Incompleteness of the data
D. Ambiguity in modeling the problem

101. One of the mnemonic management tool used is the SMEAC. What does the
acronym SMEAC stands for?
A. Situation, Mission, Execution, Administration, Coordination
B. Situation, Mission, Execution, Application, Communication
C. Situation, Mission, Execution, Administration, Communication
D. Strategy, Mission, Execution, Administration, Communication

102. In the management tool, SMEAC, where A stands for administration, which is the
appropriate question will the manager ask?
A. What do we need to get it done?
B. What are we aiming to do?
C. How are we going to do?
D. What is the operation management?

103. In project management, what is usually the first step underlying in the process of
performing a project?
A. Select appropriate performance measures.
B. Define the goals of the project and their relative importance.
C. Identify a need for a product of service.
D. Develop a technological concept.

104. In the process of performing a project, after the need for a product or service is
identified, what is usually the next step?
A. Define the goals of the project and their relative importance.
B. Develop a budget.
C. Develop a schedule.
D. Develop the technological concept.
 435

105. What is usually the last step in the process of performing a project?
A. Select appropriate performance measures.
B. Implement the plan.
C. Monitor and control the project.
D. Evaluate project success.

106. To consider the consequence of uncertainty on project management, laws on

project management are developed. One of which is “A careless planned project will
take _____ times longer to complete than expected”.
A. Three
B. Four
C. Two
D. Two and a half

107. In the typical functional organization hierarchy, the chief engineer is under the
_____.
A. Finance manager
B. Manufacturing manager
C. General manager
D. Marketing manager

108. What is a diagram of the organization‟s official positions and formal lines of
authority called?
A. Organizational chart
B. Authority chart
C. Policy chart
D. Control chart

109. What is defined as the process of identifying and choosing alternative courses of
action in a manner appropriate to the demands of the situations?
A. Sampling theory
B. Alternative- analysis
C. Problem- solving
D. Decision- making

110. What refers to a powerful means of depicting and facilitating the analysis of
problems that involve sequential decision and variable outcome over time?
A. Problem analysis
B. Decision tree
C. Decision tool
D. Data gathering
 436

111. What refers to the activity of incorporating the technical know-how with the
ability to organize and coordinate workforce, materials, equipment and all other
resources including money?
A. Engineering management
B. Engineering technology
C. Technical management
D. General management

112. What refers to the chain of command of authority from top management down to
the lowest management level?
A. Graduated chain of command
B. Standard chain of command
C. Scalar chain of command
D. Protocol chain of command

113. When the project is extremely complex of long duration, it is best to give one
person the complete control of all the elements necessary to achieve the goal. This set
up can be done in which type of organization?
A. Coordinated organization
B. Projectized organization
C. Authoritarian organization
D. Matrix organization

114. What refers to the science of designing work environment that allow people and
things to interact efficiently and safely?
A. Ergonomics
B. Environmental science
C. Interactive science
D. All of the above

115. Ergonomics is also known as _____.

A. Material science
B. Human engineering
C. Interactive science
D. Environmental engineering

116. What refers to the life- cycle model used in construction project management
which is divided into three stages, namely, feasibility stage, planning stage and turnover
stage?
A. Waterfall model
B. Prototype model
C. Morris model
D. Windmill model
 437

117. What management process refers to the structural process to review, evaluate and
document outcome at each project phase to provide management with information to
guide resource development towards strategic goal?
A. Phase gating
B. Project gating
C. Review gating
D. Information gating

118. Strategic planning session to prepare a strategic plan is focused on what

management level of the organization?
A. Top management level
B. Middle management level
C. Lower management level
D. All management level

119. What refers to a management tool for the design and implementation of work
content?
A. PERT
B. Gantt chart
C. Scalar responsibility chart
D. Linear responsibility chart

120. What is a diagram of the organization‟s official positions and formal lines of
authority called?
A. Organizational chart
B. Authority chart
C. Policy chart
D. Control chart

121. Which of the following is an advantage of technology- led companies?

A. It can produce unique products and new applications.
B. It can adopt development budgets as priority issues.
C. It has the ability to specialize for small niches.
D. All of the above.

122. What do you call an activity with no duration and no resources used to show a
logical relationship between two activities in project network diagram?
A. Imaginary activity
B. Float activity
C. Dummy activity
D. Crash activity
 438

123. What refers to the process of reaching agreement on a collective decision?

A. Consensus
B. Collaboration
C. Convention
D. Conference

124. What refers to a project management process that involves getting quotations,
bids, offers or proposals?
A. Contracting purchases and acquisitions
B. Request seller response
C. Seller prequalification
D. Purchase administration

125. What refers to the statement that identifies why an organization exists, its
purpose, philosophy of management as distinguished from other organization in terms
of products, services and markets?
A. Corporate mission
B. Corporate vision
C. Corporate goal
D. Corporate trust

126. The term “critical path” of a certain project refers to _____.

A. The shortest path through the network diagram which determines the earliest
completion of a project
B. The path that is the most significant
C. The path that is of greatest risk
D. The longest path through the network diagram which determines the earliest
completion of a project

127. What refers to a managerial process that identifies, anticipates and supplies
consumer requirement efficiently and profitability?
A. Marketing
B. Customer relation
C. Aftersales support
D. Advertising

128. In project management, the term “variance” refers to _____.

A. The difference between the planned and actual expenses
B. The deviation from the project plan or the difference between planned and
actual performance
C. The extension of the project from its estimated duration
D. The amount set aside for contingencies
 439

129. What refers to the framework that describes the evolutionary stage of project
management systems?
A. Capability maturity model
B. Capability progress model
C. Capability management model
D. Capability project model

130. What type of production is used when products are made singly or in small
batches?
A. Line production
B. Batch production
C. Job production
D. Flow production

131. What type of projection happens when a small number of products are processed
at each storage before going on to the next stage of production?
A. A. Line production
B. Batch production
C. Job production
D. Micro production

132. What refers to the technique that encompasses risk management including the
evaluation of risk, cost and benefits of alternative project?
A. Risk- benefit analysis
B. Risk- management analysis
C. Risk- tolerance analysis
D. Risk- alternative analysis
 440

ANSWER KEYS
1. A 34. D 67. C 100. B
2. C 35. D 68. B 101. C
3. C 36. B 69. C 102. A
4. D 37. B 70. B 103. C
5. D 38. D 71. B 104. A
6. A 39. C 72. B 105. D
7. D 40. C 73. C 106. A
8. B 41. D 74. A 107. C
9. A 42. C 75. C 108. A
10. C 43. A 76. A 109. D
11. D 44. C 77. D 110. B
12. B 45. B 78. C 111. A
13. A 46. A 79. D 112. C
14. B 47. A 80. B 113. B
15. A 48. A 81. C 114. A
16. D 49. A 82. B 115. B
17. A 50. C 83. B 116. C
18. C 51. A 84. D 117. A
19. B 52. A 85. A 118. D
20. B 53. A 86. B 119. D
21. B 54. A 87. B 120. A
22. D 55. A 88. B 121. D
23. D 56. D 89. B 122. C
24. D 57. B 90. A 123. A
25. B 58. B 91. C 124. B
26. A 59. A 92. B 125. A
27. C 60. D 93. D 126. D
28. A 61. A 94. A 127. A
29. A 62. D 95. B 128. B
30. D 63. A 96. C 129. A
31. A 64. B 97. B 130. C
32. B 65. C 98. B 131. C
33. C 66. D 99. B 132. A
 441

TELECOMMUNICATIONS LAWS, BROADCASTING LAWS, ECE LAWS, ETHICS,

OBLIGATIONS AND CONTRACTS

1. What telecommunications law deregulates the paging services in the country?

A. E. O. 125
B. R. A. 3846
C. R. A. 3396
D. R. A. 7925

2. Republic Act No. 6849 is otherwise known as _____.

A. “Electronics Engineering Law of 2004”
B. “Telecommunications Law of the Philippines”
C. “PRC Modernization Law”
D. “Municipal Telephone Act of 2000”

3. What is otherwise known as “The Maritime Communications Law”?

A. R. A. 109
B. R. A. 3396
C. R. A. 7925
D. R. A. 3846

4. What government regulation in telecommunication provides the policy to improve the

provision of local exchange carrier service?
A. E. O. 109
B. R. A. 3846
C. E. O. 59
D. E. O. 546

5. What is the basic law that provides for the regulation of radio station communications in
the Philippines and other purposes?
A. R. A. 3846
B. D. O. 11
C. D. O. 88
D. D. O. 5

6. What law specifically requires the service of a duly registered Electronics and
Communications Engineer in the designing, installation and construction, operation and
maintenance of radio stations?
A. R. A. 3846
B. R. A. 9292
C. R. A. 5734
D. D. O. 88
 442

7. What is the legal basis of the National Telecommunications Commission (NTC) in

requiring the services of an ECE in the design and operation of radio stations?
A. R. A. No. 3734
B. Department Order No. 88
C. R. A. No. 7925
D. R. A. No. 3846

8. Which law vested the jurisdiction, control and regulation over the Philippine
communications satellite corporation with the National Telecommunications
Commission?
A. E. O. 109
B. E. O. 196
C. E. O. 59
D. E. O. 205

9. What law provides regulation of the ownership and operation of radio and television
stations ad for other purposes?
A. P. D. No. 223
B. P. D. No. 576-A
C. P. D. No. 567-A
D. P. D. No. 657-A

10. What NCT memorandum circular sets the rules and regulations governing the
manufacture, acquisition, sale and service of radio communication equipment?
A. MC No. 9-13-98
B. MC No. 8-06-88
C. MC No. 4-22-99
D. MC No. 2-05-88

11. What law governs the operations of cable television in the Philippines?
A. E. O. 196
B. E. O. 463
C. E. O. 436
D. E. O. 205

12. What law created the national council for the promotion of E-Commerce in the country?
A. E. O. 467
B. E. O. 468
C. E. O. 109
D. E. O. 59
 443

13. Which law provides for a national policy on the operations and use of international
satellite communications in the country?
A. E. O. 468
B. E. O. 109
C. E. O. 205
D. E. O. 467

14. What law regulates the operation of CATV systems in the country?
A. E. O. 436
B. E. O. 205
C. E. O. 250
D. E. O. 346

15. What is an executive order signed by former President Fidel Ramos in March 1998
providing the national policy in the operation and use of international satellite
communications in the Philippines?
A. E. O. 3846
B. E. O. 59
C. E. O. 456
D. E. O. 467

16. When was the effectivity of Executive Order No. 59?

A. December 21, 1993
B. February 24, 1993
C. June 21, 1993
D. December 12, 1993

17. When was the effectivity of Executive Order No. 436?

A. September 11, 1997
B. September 6, 1997
C. September 9, 1997
D. September 18, 1997

18. When was the effectivity of Executive Order No. 109?

A. July 12, 1993
B. July 15, 1993
C. October 10, 1993
D. December 12, 1993
 444

19. When was the effectivity of Executive Order No. 205?

A. June 30, 1987
B. June 21, 1987
C. June 12, 1987
D. June 1, 1987

20. When is the effectivity of Republic Act No. 7925?

A. March 1, 1995
B. March 21, 1995
C. February 20, 1995
D. March 7, 1995

21. When was Republic Act No. 7925 approved?

A. September 11, 1997
B. September 6, 1997
C. September 9, 1997
D. September 18, 1997

22. What law created the Movie and Television Review and Classification Board (MTRCB)?
A. P. D. 223
B. P. D. 1986
C. P. D. 1987
D. P. D. 1988

23. What law created the Videogram Regulatory Board (VRB)?

A. P. D. 223
B. P. D. 1986
C. P. D. 1987
D. P. D. 1988

24. What is a new regulation issued by NTC providing the guideline for mobile personal
communication having a global coverage using satellite?
A. NMT
B. GMPCS
C. GSM
D. TACS
 445

25. What government agency is the principal administrator of Republic Act No. 7925?
A. P. D. 223
B. P. D. 1986
C. P. D. 1987
D. P. D. 1988

26. What government agency was designated as the Chairman of the Electronic Commerce
Promotion Council?
A. NTC
B. DOTC
C. NEDA
D. DTI

27. The VRB Board is composed of a chairman, a vice chairman and ___ members.
A. 10
B. 18
C. 22
D. 25

28. MTRCB Board is composed of a chairman, a vice chairman & ___ members.
A. 5
B. 10
C. 20
D. 30

29. MTRCB law defines an “Adult” as a person ___ years of age and above.
A. 18
B. 19
C. 20
D. 21

30. Radio programs not suitable for children must be aired after what time?
A. 7 PM
B. 8 PM
C. 9 PM
D. 10 PM
 446

31. All are AM radio prime time block for provincial stations except one. Which one?
A. 5 AM to 9 AM
B. 12 NN to 2 PM
C. 11 AM to 3 PM
D. 4 PM to 7 PM

32. For CATV system, prime time refers to the five-hour period from ___ local time.
A. 6:00 to 11:00 PM
B. 5:00 to 10:00 PM
C. 4:00 to 9:00 PM
D. 3:00 to 8:00 PM

33. What is the time prime time block for FM radio for provincial stations?
A. 5 AM to 7 PM
B. 6 AM to 8 PM
C. 7 AM to 7 PM
D. 6 PM to 7 PM

34. What is the prime time block for AM radio in Metro Manila?
A. 5 AM to 9 AM and 4 PM to 8 PM
B. 4 AM to 8 AM and 4 PM to 8 PM
C. 5 AM to 9 AM and 5 PM to 9 PM
D. 6 AM to 10 AM and 5 PM to 9 PM

35. What is the prime time block for FM radio in Metro Manila?
A. 7:00 AM to 7 PM
B. 6:00 AM to 6 PM
C. 6:00 AM to 8 PM
D. 7:00 AM to 7 PM

36. In Metro Manila, Class D airtime classification for FM radio is from ______.
A. 6 AM to 8 PM
B. 9 PM to 12 MN
C. 5 AM to 6 AM and 8 PM to 9 PM
D. 12 MN to 5 AM
 447

37. For FM broadcasting stations in the Philippines, the Remote-Pick-Up stations shall be
authorized to operate with what maximum power?
A. 35 W
B. 25 W
C. 30 W
D. 50 W

38. According to the medium frequency broadcast standards, the term “nighttime” refers to
the period of time between ___ UTC.
A. 1000 to 2200
B. 1000 to 1600
C. 1000 to 1500
D. 1000 to 1800

39. According to NTC regulations for Medium Frequency Broadcast , what is the maximum
power allowed for its Studio-to-Transmitter Link (STL)?
A. 10 W
B. 12 W
C. 15 W
D. 20 W

40. What is the maximum power suggested by KBP on 919-1312 AM broadcast station in
Metro Manila?
A. 10 kW
B. 20 kW
C. 15 kW
D. 5 kW

41. What is the minimum carrier power output of a standard AM broadcast where effective
and direct supervision of an Electronics and Communications Engineer is required?
A. 5 kW
B. 4 kW
C. 1 kW
D. 3 kW

42. What is the maximum power allocation for AM broadcast in Metro Manila?
A. 10 kW
B. 25 kW
C. 50 kW
D. 100 kW
 448

43. According to the TV broadcast standards, what is the maximum effective radiated power
in Metro Manila and Metro for channels 7-13?
A. 300 kW
B. 500 kW
C. 1000 kW
D. 1500 kW

44. What is the maximum allowable effective radiated power in Metro Cebu of TV stations
operating on TV channels 7-13?
A. 2000 kW
B. 500 kW
C. 1000 kW
D. 1500 kW

45. In Metro Manila, commercial load shall not exceed ___minutes for one hour program.
A. 10
B. 15
C. 20
D. 25

46. KBP Radio Code requires each radio station a minimum of ___ news per day.
A. 1 hour
B. 45 minutes
C. 2 hours
D. 1 hour and 30 minutes

47. Program interruption for the airing of commercial in Metro Manila shall not exceed ___
breaks in every program hour.
A. 8
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7

48. Program interruption for the airing of commercial outside for Metro Manila shall not
exceed ___ breaks per program hour.
A. 8
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7
 449

49. Outside Metro Manila, commercial load shall not exceed ___ minutes for one hour
program.
A. 10
B. 15
C. 17
D. 20

50. All stations must promote the Filipino music by playing ___ OPM every hour.
A. 2
B. 4
C. 1
D. 3

51. All station must have a minimum of ___ of news/day from 5:00 AM to 10:00 PM.
A. 50 minutes
B. 60 minutes
C. 30 minutes
D. 45 minutes

52. Newscast is a distinct unit of program with minimum news content of ___ excluding
intro, extro, headline and commercial load.
A. 1 minute
B. 2 minutes
C. 30 seconds
D. 1minute and 30 seconds

53. In Metro Manila, program interruption for the airing of commercial shall not exceed how
many breaks in 1 hour?
A. 5
B. 3
C. 7
D. 6

54. TV station is required at least ___ newscast (aggregate total including advisories) per day
during weekdays.
A. 20 minutes
B. 40 minutes
C. 60 minutes
D. 30 minutes
 450

55. The National Telecommunications Commission authorizes one of the following stations
operated by eligible educational entities, used for distribution of program materials to
students enrolled in instructional curricula. Which one?
A. LPTV stations
B. Low powered HDTV stations
C. Educational TV stations
D. ITFS

56. Radio station shall allocate at least _____ as a program or programs rendering public
service.
A. 2 hours per day
B. 3 hours per day
C. 1 hour per day
D. 1.5 hours per day

57. What is the standard IF Sound Carrier for a cable TV system?

A. 40.25 MHz
B. 45.75 MHz
C. 43.75 MHz
D. 41.25 MHz

58. What is the standard IF Video Carrier for a cable TV system?

A. 40.25 MHz
B. 45.75 MHz
C. 43.75 MHz
D. 41.25 MHz

59. Which band is allocated to Short Range Radio Service in the country?
A. ELF
B. UHF
C. VHF
D. HF

60. The certificate of Authority issued by National Telecommunications Commission to a

CATV operator shall have a maximum term of how many years?
A. 5 years
B. 10 years
C. 15 years
D. 20 years
 451

61. High speed networks are ICT networks that have a capacity of at least ___ Mbps.
A. 2.048
B. 32
C. 64
D. 256

62. The authorized transmit frequency range for cordless telephone sets operating in the UHF
band is ___ MHz.
A. 1.725 to 1.79
B. 1.275 to 1.975
C. 1.925 to 1.975
D. 1.575 to 1.975

63. NTC requires cordless telephone or telephone line extenders with coverage area beyond
300 feet to have a frequency range of ______.
A. Tx: 326.250 – 327.475 MHz, Rx: 218.25
B. Tx: 326.250 – 326.475 MHz, Rx: 210.00
C. Tx: 326.250 – 326.745 MHz, Rx: 218.25
D. Tx: 326.250 – 326.475 MHz, Rx: 218.25

64. In CATV system, video signal to noise ratio of modulator must be better than ___ dB.
A. 30
B. 34
C. 36
D. 38

65. In a CATV system, head end processor as RF input/output terminal match should a
minimum loss of ___ dB.
A. 16
B. 18
C. 20
D. 22

66. What NTC memorandum circular regulates the Public Repeater Network Service?
A. MC 20-12-92
B. MC 10-18-90
C. MC 8-9-95
D. MC 11-9-93
 452

67. What refers to a satellite system providing telecommunications services directly to end-
users anywhere in the globe form a constellation of satellites?
A. GSM
B. GPS
C. GMPCS
D. MSS

68. The National Telecommunications Commission can grant an authority to operate a cable
television system within the same franchise area covered by any Provisional Authority or
Certificate of Authority previously granted by the Commission within a minimum
number of ___ years upon determination of cause pursuant to E. O. 436.
A. 5
B. 3
C. 2
D. 4

69. What authority does NTC issue to a public telecommunications carrier applicant after it
was issued Congressional Franchise?
A. Permit to purchase
B. Radio station construction permit
C. Certificate of public convenience and necessity
D. Radio station license

70. An entity providing transmission and switching of telecommunication services, primarily

but not limited to voice, in a geographical area anywhere in the country is called _____.
A. Franchise
B. Value-added service operator
C. Public toll calling operator
D. Local exchange operator

71. What was the designated year for the full implementation of the Global Maritime Distress
and Safety System?
A. 1992
B. 1998
C. 1996
D. 1999
 453

72. All applicants for application of 3G radio frequency bands shall post a performance bond
of ______.
A. P 400 M
B. P 100 M
C. P 200 M
D. P 300 M

73. Cable TV operator can lease or sub-lease its capacity if:

A. lessor is within the franchise area
B. he can generate capacity for lease
C. he has capacity
D. lessor can pay higher cost

74. “Working main lines” refers to the:

A. fiber optic lines used in telephone facilities
B. main telephone lines
C. broadband lines of telecommunications entities
D. main telephone switch

75. In Metro Manila, AM radio with airtime from 9 PM to 12 Midnight is ______.

A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D

76. What FM Broadcasting Station in the Philippines is limited to an effective radiated power
of 30 kW?
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D

77. NTC Memorandum Circular 0-06-2006 states that Class B-I FM Broadcast stations with
an authorized transmitter power of 500 watts shall in no case have an effective radiated
power lower than ___ watts.
A. 500
B. 1,000
C. 2,000
D. 5,000
 454

78. What is the maximum height of the antenna of a class B FM broadcast stations in the
Philippines measured above average terrain?
A. 200 ft
B. 300 ft
C. 400 ft
D. 500 ft

79. NTC allows only a minimum of how many FM broadcast translators for each primary
FM station?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

80. What refers to an NTC permit authorizing the holder thereof to process transmitter/s or
transceiver/s as described therein?
A. Permit to purchase
B. Permit to sell
C. Permit to process
D. Permit to operate

81. What NTC Memorandum Circular (MC) is about the Standard for Digital Terrestrial
Television (DTT) Broadcast Service in the country?
A. Memorandum Circular 02-06-2010
B. Memorandum Circular 02-07-2010
C. Memorandum Circular 02-08-2010
D. Memorandum Circular 02-09-2010

82. What refers to local exchange residence and business telephone service and telegraph
service without additional features?
A. Basic Telecommunication Service
B. Basic Telephony Service
C. Basic Local Carrier Service
D. Basic Telecommunication Access
 455

83. What refers to the availability of reliable and affordable telecommunications service both
urban and rural areas of the Philippines?
A. National Access
B. Countrywide Access
C. Universal Access
D. Global Access

84. What refers to a remuneration paid to a carrier by the interconnecting carriers for
accessing the facilities of such carrier which is needed by the interconnecting carriers for
the origination and/or termination of all types of traffic derived from the interconnection?
A. Interconnection charge
B. Approach charge
C. Access charge
D. Network charge

85. What refers to a permit issued by the NTC authorizing the holder thereof to engage to the
acquisition, servicing, maintenance, purchase or sale of transmitters and/or transceivers,
parts and accessories thereof?
A. Radio Communication Equipment Dealer Permit
B. Radio Communication Equipment Manufacturer Permit
C. Service Center Operation Permit
D. Radio Communication Equipment Service Center Permit

86. A series whose episodes have had no national network television exhibitions in the
Philippines and no regional network exhibition in the relevant market is known in CATV
system as ______.
A. Off-network
B. Cablecasting
C. First-Run series
D. First-Run No-series programs

87. The installation or construction of a cable TV head-end station shall be directly

supervised by a registered ECE. The statement above is:
A. True
B. False
C. It depends upon the area of coverage
D. It depends upon the number of households using CATV system
 456

88. Which of the following shall be complied by an international ship pursuant to the global
maritime distress and safety system implemented last 1999?
A. A facsimile
B. A radio personnel
C. A Morse code
D. A radio telegraph operator

89. Authorized gateway operators shall provide at least one rural exchange line for every ___
urban local exchange lines.
A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 20

90. Authorized gateway operators shall provide a minimum of ______ switch termination.
A. 100 local exchange lines per international
B. 200 local exchange lines per international
C. 300 local exchange lines per international
D. 500 local exchange lines per international

91. What is the basic qualification of an applicant for public carrier network before a
Certificate of Public Convenience or a Provisional Authority is issued?
A. Franchise
B. SEC document
C. Business permit
D. Radio station license

92. When is Electronics and Communications Engineer supervision required under

Department Order No. 88?
A. FM broadcast station with a carrier power of 1000 watts
B. TV translator with an RF carrier power of 0.5 watt
C. TV RF power booster with effective radiated power of 2 kW
D. Standard AM broadcast with a carrier power of 5 kW

93. What period of time is referred to as “daytime” for AM broadcasting stations operating in
the Philippines?
A. 2200 to 1000 UTC
B. 2300 to 1700 UTC
C. 2200 to 1600 UTUC
D. 2100 to 1000 UTC
 457

94. According to the broadcasting standard for Medium wave radio stations, the term “night
time” refers to the period of time between _______.
A. 1000 to 1600 UTC
B. 1000 to 1500 UTC
C. 1000 to 2000 UTC
D. 1000 to 1800 UTC

95. What does UTC stands for?

A. Universal Constant
B. Universal Time Coordinated
C. United Time Conference
D. Universal Time Conference

96. In accordance with international agreements, international broadcasting stations must use
what short wave frequency range?
A. Between 5,950 and 21,600 kHz
B. Between 5,590 and 21,600 kHz
C. Between 5,590 and 26,100 kHz
D. Between 5,950 and 26,100 kHz

97. An entity sometimes referred to as carriers or national backbone network operator,

authorized to install, own and operate facilities which connect local exchange within
Philippines and to engage in the business of inter-exchange national long distance
services is known as ______.
A. Local exchange carrier
B. International carrier
C. Inter-exchange carrier
D. National carrier

98. An entity, relying on the transmission, switching and local distribution facilities of local
exchange and inter-exchange operators, and overseas carriers, offers enhanced services
beyond those ordinarily provided by such carriers is known as ______.
A. International carrier
B. Valued-added service provider
C. Inter-exchange carrier
D. Local exchange carrier
 458

99. What refers to a privilege conferred upon a telecommunications entity by Congress,

authorizing an entity to engage in a certain type of telecommunications service?
A. Authority to Operate
B. Certificate of Public Convenience and Necessity
C. Franchise
D. Provisional Authority

100. NTC cannot grant one of the following, an authority to operate a cable television
system within the same franchise area covered by any provisional Authority or certificate
of Authority previously granted by the Commission.
A. Prior operator has not complied sufficiently with terms and condition of the
authorization
B. New entrant has more financial support
C. Current service is grossly inadequate
D. Issuance to a new entrant will not cause ruinous competition

101. Which of the following penalties is provided under the existing

telecommunication law, should an international carrier unable to comply with its
obligation to provide local exchange service in un-served and under-served areas within
three years from grant of authority?
A. Financial penalty in accordance with existing schedule
B. Cancellation of its authority
C. Given one year to comply
D. Given two years to comply

102. When can telecommunications entity provide value added service in its area?
A. When it has separated book of account, has technical capability and must be
within the franchise area.
B. When it is within franchise area, upon submission of required capitalization and
upon approval of NTC.
C. Upon approval of NTC, with financial capability and technical capability
D. Upon approval of NTC, when other VAS operators are not discriminated in rate
and access, and has separated books of account
 459

103. What refers to an undertaking the object of which is to transmit audio, video, text,
images or other signals or messages for reception of a broad audience in a geographical
area via wired or wireless means?
A. Telecommunication
B. Broadcasting
C. Mass media
D. Multi media

104. What refers to a non- exclusive facility which the public may, by the payment of
appropriate fees, place as well as receive telephone calls and/or telegrams or other
messages?
A. Telephone-telegraph calling center
B. Telecommunications calling station
C. Public toll calling station
D. Call center

105. The international carrier shall also comply with its obligation to provide the local
exchange service in unserved or undeserved areas within ____ years from the grant of the
authority as required by existing regulation.
A. 3 years
B. 4 years
C. 2 years
D. 5 years

106. International switch termination refers to a port in the switching international

gateway system equivalent to ____ kbps (digital) where international circuit terminates
A. 56.6
B. 64
C. 128
D. 256
.
107. Which of the following is designated as the international distress, safety and
calling frequency for radio telephony for stations of the maritime mobile service when
using frequencies in the authorized bands between 156 MHz and 174 MHz?
A. 165.8 MHz
B. 156.8 MHz
C. 158.6 MHz
D. 168.5 MHz
 460

108. Which conference in the ITU structure does the Telecommunications

Development Bureau report?
A. RRB
B. WTDC
C. WRC
D. WTSC

109. What is the main principle used by ITU in determining the distribution of the
orbit/spectrum resources?
A. Depending on geographical boundary of a nation
B. Efficient use and equitable access
C. Depending on national sovereignty
D. Equal distribution

110. Which body in the present ITU structure took the place of CCITT?
A. ITU-R
B. ITU-D
C. ITU-T
D. RAG

111. Where does the secretary general in the organizational structure of present ITU
report?
A. WTSC
B. TDAB
C. WRC
D. Council

112. In accordance with the International Telecommunications Union (ITU), the

Philippines belong to what region as far as frequency allocation and usage is concern?
A. Region 1
B. Region 2
C. Region 3
D. Region 4
 461

113. In accordance with the International Telecommunications Union (ITU)

regulations, what is the first letter-symbol for emission in which the main carrier is
amplitude modulated using SSB, full carrier?
A. A
B. J
C. H
D. N

114. The International Radio Consultative Committee is referred to in international

radio communications as ______.
A. IRCC
B. ITU
C. IRR
D. CCIR

115. What agency of the United Nations formulates standards and recommended
practices for all civil aviation?
A. ICAO
B. CAA
C. IATA
D. ATO

116. What is the executive branch of government in charge of policy making in the
telecommunication?
A. National Telecommunications Commissions
B. Telecommunications Control Bureau
C. Department of Transportation and Communications
D. Bureau of Telecommunications

117. What refers to the listing of the date and time events, programs, equipment, test,
malfunctions and corrections in communication system?
A. File
B. Documentation
C. Reporting
D. Log
 462

118. Which position does a maritime ship main antenna have, when it is connected to
the reserve transmitter and receiver?
A. AA
B. Direction finder
C. Main transmitter
D. Emergency transmitter

119. One of the major components required under the global maritime distress and
safety system is the;
A. Provision of Morse code.
B. Provision of radiotelegraph operator.
C. Provision of facsimile.
D. Provision of radio personnel.

120. One of the following is NOT the major components required on board ship under
the global maritime distress and safety system. Which one?
A. On board radio facilities
B. Radio operator telegraphy onboard
C. Shore base facilities
D. Radio personnel onboard

121. At what position does a maritime ship main antenna have, when it is open
circuited and that any auxiliary antenna is/are connected to the main receiver?
A. AA
B. Emergency transmitter
C. Direction finder
D. Ground

122. What position of maritime ship main antenna, when the radio watch is secured or
when the ship is in electrical storm?
A. AA
B. Main transmitter
C. Grounded
D. HF
 463

123. What are the two legislative functions of the International Telecommunications
Union in its international conference issues on orbital resources?
A. Assign frequencies and organized conferences.
B. Allocates frequency bands for the services and determine the principle of
distribution of the orbit/spectrum resources.
C. Determine principles of spectrum distribution and assignment of frequencies.
D. Conduct conferences and allocation of orbital slots.

124. A person or entity intending to register as VoIP service provider is required to

post a performance bond of ______.
A. P 1 million
B. P 3 million
C. P 5 million
D. P 10 million

125. In handling unsolicited or unwanted commercial and promotional advertisements

and surveys, complainants who are not satisfied with the action of the Public Telecom
Entities or Content Providers may bring the matter to the National Telecommunications
Commission in writing within how many months from receipt of the alleged text spam?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

126. What is defined by the National Telecommunications Commission as a telephone

network operated by an enfranchised telecommunications carrier that is authorized to
provide telephony and other related telecommunications services to the public?
A. Public Switched Data Network
B. Public Switched Communications Network
C. Public Switched Telephone Network
D. Public Telecommunications Provider

127. What refers to as linkage by wire, radio, satellite or other means, of two or more
telecommunications carrier or operators with one another for the purpose of allowing or
enabling the subscriber of one carrier or operator to access or reach the subscribers of the
other carrier or operator?
A. Interconnection
B. Toll patching
C. Gateway
D. Outside plant sharing
 464

128. Which law refers to the “Electronic Commerce Act of 2000”?

A. R. A. 8927
B. R. A. 9287
C. R. A. 8792
D. R. A. 8729

129. What is otherwise known as “Electronics Engineering Law of 2004”?

A. P. D. 223
B. R. A. 5734
C. R. A. 9292
D. R. A. 7925

130. What is otherwise known as “PRC modernization law”?

A. R. A. 8891
B. R. A. 8981
C. R. A. 8918
D. R. A. 8198

131. Professional Regulations Commission was created under _______.

A. P. D. 323
B. P. D. 223
C. P. D. 232
D. R. A. 223

132. What was the effectivity of Presidential Degree No. 223?

A. June 21, 1973
B. June 22, 1973
C. June 23, 1973
D. June 24, 1974

133. When was the Electronic Commerce Act of the Philippines approved?
A. June 21, 2000
B. October 10, 2000
C. April 22, 2000
D. June 14, 2000
 465

134. When was Republic Act No. 9292 approved by President Gloria Macapagal
Arroyo?
A. April 22, 2004
B. April 17, 2004
C. April 19, 2004
D. April 27, 2004

135. When was the implementing rules and regulations (IRR) of the R. A. 9292
approved?
A. August 27, 2007
B. August 28, 2007
C. August 29, 2007
D. August 31, 2007

136. What is the effectivity date of the Implementing Rules and Regulation (IRR) of R.
A. No. 9292?
A. August 29, 2007
B. August 31, 2007
C. September 15, 2007
D. October 2, 2007

137. The Implementing Rules and Regulations (IRR) of R. A. No. 9292 is Board of
Electronics Engineering Resolution number ______, series of 2007.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

138. Under R. A. 9292, who are authorized to render engineering services?

A. Registered Electronic Technicians
B. Registered Electronic Engineers
C. Professional Electronic Engineers
D. Choices B and C above

139. Under R. A. 9292, can a Register Electronic Engineer render design services?
A. Yes
B. No
C. Yes if he has more than 5 years‟ experience
D. Yes if he has more than 10 years‟ experience
 466

140. Under R. A. 9292, the Professional Electronic Engineer shall ______ the
electronics plan designed by Registered Electronic Engineer?
A. review
B. sign
C. seal
D. all of the choices

141. Under R. A. 9292, who are authorized to take charge of supervise electronics
construction and installation?
A. Professional Electronic Engineers
B. Registered Electronic Engineers
C. Professional Electronic Engineers and Registered Electronic Engineers
D. Only those engineers who have more than 5 years professional practice
experience

142. Under R. A. 9292, the standards on minimum compensation are based on

_______.
A. current practice
B. current consumer price index
C. minimum basic daily wage
D. all of the above

143. Under R. A. 9292, the rate of retainer‟s fee to be charged by the consulting
electronics engineer for routine or ordinary consultation will not be less than ______ per
month.
A. P ,1500
B. P 2,000
C. P 2,500
D. P 3,000

144. The powers and functions of the Board is provided in _____ of the R. A. No.
9292.
A. Section 5
B. Section 6
C. Section 7
D. Section 8
 467

145. R. A. 9292, Section 17 states that the result of the board examination shall be
released within ____ days after the examination.
A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 3

146. According to Section 22 of the Implementing Rules and Regulations of Republic

Act No. 9292 who are qualified to administer the oath of professionals for ECE, PECE
and ECT?
A. Any Municipal or City Mayor
B. Any Judge of Court of Law
C. Any member of the Board of Electronic Engineering or any person authorized by
PRC
D. All of the above

147. The date and venue of the ECE licensure examination is designated by the
Professional Regulations Commission in accordance with the provisions of which law
A. R. A. No. 5734
B. R. A. No. 9292
C. R. A. No. 8981
D. P. D. No. 223

148. What is the minimum punishment imposed to any person who shall give any false
or fraudulent statement to the Board to obtain a Certificate of Registration and/or
Professional ID Card as Electronic Engineer?
A. P 100,000 or imprisonment for 6 months
B. P 10,000 or imprisonment of 3 months
C. P 50,000 or imprisonment of 6 months
D. P 100,000 or imprisonment of 1 year

149. The electronic designer will furnish _____ sets of drawings specifications and
other contract document to the client.
A. 5
B. 3
C. 7
D. 2
 468

150. What is the basic monthly salary scale for salaried ECE practitioners with less
than 5 years of active service?
A. P 4,000 to P 8,000
B. P 2,000 to P 5,000
C. P 5,000 to P 9,000
D. P 6,000 to P 10,000

151. “To provide technical specifications for electronics equipment and systems” is
under what field for ECE practice?
A. Engineering consultation
B. Design Services
C. Construction and Installation
D. Inspection and Appraisal

152. “Testing and quality control of electronic products” is under what field of ECE
practice?
A. Education Service
B. Research and Development
C. Manufacturing
D. Maintenance

153. If the ECE consultant‟s present is required in another place away from his office,
additional compensation of _____ for every hour he is away from his office or if the
place more than 50 km away from his office.
A. P 1,000.00
B. P 500.00
C. P 250.00
D. P 100.00

154. For professional services rendered by the electronics engineer as consultant for
project with definite duration, the minimum recommended hourly rate is ______ for
salaried ECEs.
A. 0.01 of basic monthly salary scale
B. 0.01 of basic monthly salary scale
C. 0.01 of basic monthly salary scale
D. 0.01 of basic monthly salary scale
 469

155. Aside from compensation, the client will pay for the cost of at least “business
class” transportation and accommodation if the meetings are conducted in a place more
than ___ km away from the established office of electronic engineer consultant.
A. 30
B. 40
C. 50
D. 100

156. For court appearance, electronics engineer must charge a minimum fee to the
client of not less than _____ per hour per appearance regardless whether the bearing is
postponed or not.
A. P 500.00
B. P 250.00
C. P 1,000.00
D. P 100.00

157. For conference, electronics engineer must not charge fee to the client more than
____ per hour per attendance regardless whether the meeting is postponed or not.
A. P 500.00
B. P 250.00
C. P 1,000.00
D. P 750.00

158. All are methods of determining the fees to electronics engineers except:
A. Constant Percentage Method
B. Percent of Cost Method
C. Cost Plus Reasonable Profit
D. Percent of Total Project Cost

159. When a project involves alterations, repairs, additions, modifications, etc, which
does not involve a whole project, what method is used for computing the professional
fee?
A. Unit Cost Method
B. Constant Percentage Method
C. Per Lot Method
D. Per Project Method
 470

160. What method of computing fess is where the electronic facilities are divided into
classifications which have corresponding unit design rate?
A. Percent of Cost Method
B. Unit Cost Method
C. Per Lot Method
D. Per Project Method

161. What is the basic monthly salary scale for salaried ECE practitioner with 5 to 10
years of active service?
A. P 6,000 to P 10,000
B. P 5,000 to P 8,000
C. P 8,000 to P 12,000
D. P 10,000 to P 15,000

162. What is the basic monthly salary scale for salaried ECE practitioner with more
than 10 years of active service?
A. P 15,000 - up
B. P 12,000 - up
C. P 8,000 - up
D. P 10,000 – up

163. According to the manual of professional practice of electronics engineers, the

minimum rate of retainer‟s fee to be charged by the consulting electronics engineer is
______.
A. P 1,500 per month
B. P 1,000 per month
C. P 2,000 per month
D. P 2,500 per month

164. What refers to the act of putting together parts of a whole in order to build-up; to
erect or to form and/or to set or establish electronics equipment, systems or facilities?
A. Construction and/or installation
B. Investigation
C. Appraisal
D. Acceptance
 471

165. What refers to the process of producing, forming or fabricating electronic

equipment and/or related components, parts, devices and accessories?
A. Quality control
B. Manufacturing
C. Development
D. System design

166. What refers to the act of conceptualizing, planning and projecting a scheme,
system and facility using the arts and science of electronics along with social, economic,
financial and technical consideration?
A. Construction service
B. Consultation service
C. Organizing service
D. Design service

167. What is the act of giving advice and information to client in the area of electronics
engineering and its related fields in line with current internationally accepted standards
and practices?
A. Consultancy design
B. Professional consultation
C. Engineering consultation
D. Consultancy service

168. How many CPE (Continuing Professional Education) credit units are earned for
being a panelist or reactor during seminars or conventions?
A. 1 credit unit per hour
B. 2 credit unit per hour
C. 3 credit unit per hour
D. 5 credit unit per hour

169. How many Continuing Professional Education (CPE) credit units are earned if
you attend or participate in study tour or observation tour?
A. 10 credit units
B. 20 credit units
C. 30 credit units
D. 40 credit units
 472

170. What is the minimum fine for unauthorized copying of copyrighted works as
provided in the E-commerce Act of the Philippines?
A. P 100,000
B. P 500,000
C. P 100,000
D. P 50,000

171. What is the minimum penalty for unauthorized copying of copyrighted works as
provided in the E-commerce Act of the Philippines?
A. 6 months imprisonment
B. 12 months imprisonment
C. 2 years imprisonment
D. 3 months imprisonment

172. A secret code which secures and defends sensitive information that crosses over
public channels into a form decipherable only with a matching electronic key is referred
to as _______.
A. password
B. username
C. encrypted code
D. electronic key

173. What is the term of the Chairman of the Professional Regulation Commission?
A. 5 years
B. 3 years
C. 6 years
D. 7 years

174. Which one is NOT the basic electrical protection measure in the Philippine
Electronic Codes?
A. Voltage/current limiting and interrupting
B. Undergrounding
C. Grounding and bonding
D. Shielding
 473

175. The Philippine Electronic Code Volume 1 states that to determine the mechanical
strength requirements in conjunction with electronic equipment or system, the
temperature and loading specifies for heavy loading zone are as follows: (1) the resultant
stress due to the wind and dead weight is 240 kph and (2) the temperature to be used shall
be ____ at the time of maximum loading.
A. 20
B. 22
C. 25
D. 27

176. What unit measures the dosage rate of radiation?

A. Roentgens per minute
B. Milliroentgens per hour (mr per hr)
C. Rebs per hour
D. Rems per minute

177. What unit expresses the amount of radiation actually absorbed in the tissue?
A. rad
B. rbe
C. rem
D. reb

178. What refers to radiation other than X-rays, which will cause absorption equal to 1
roentgen?
A. rbe
B. reb
C. rem
D. rep

179. What refers to the different sources of radiation have different effects which are
related to X-rays by a number?
A. rbe
B. rems
C. rebs
D. all of the above
 474

180. Which of the following determines the total dose of radiation?

A. The total dose is determined by multiplying the dosage rate by the number of
hours of exposure.
B. The total dose is determined by adding the dosage rate by the number of hours of
exposure.
C. The total dose is determined by dividing the dosage rate by the number of hours
of exposure.
D. The total dose is determined by subtracting the dosage rate by the number of
hours of exposure.

181. According to safety standards, what is the maximum allowable radiation from
electronic equipment?
A. Must not exceed 100 mr per week
B. Must not exceed 10 mr per week
C. Must not exceed 1000 mr per week
D. Must not exceed 100 mr per day

182. What unit expresses the rbe dose?

A. rems (roentgen equivalent man)
B. rebs (roentgen equivalent biological)
C. both A & B
D. only A

183. What formula gives the maximum accumulated permissible dose (MPD) in rems
to the whole body, with N = person‟s age?
A. MPD = 5 (N – 18)
B. MPD = 3 (N – 15)
C. MPD = 7 (N – 18)
D. MPD = 5 (N – 15)

184. What is the rbe of alpha particles and fast neutrons?

A. 10
B. 5
C. 15
D. 7
 475

185. What is the rbe of any radiation produced by a radio transmitter?

A. 2
B. 1
C. 4
D. 3

186. What unit is used to measure the accumulative effects of radiation that can cause
genetic and somatic effects?
A. roentgens
B. rems
C. rbes
D. rebs

187. When is coordination with the telephone company needed when an underground
service entrance will be used as the most feasible and economical way?
A. Expense of telephone company
B. Expense of subscriber
C. Length of a cable to be used by subscriber
D. Decision of depth of conduit a interconnection point

188. The potential difference between any exposed structure to ground in any electrical
installation should not exceed ______ volts RMS.
A. 10
B. 45
C. 0
D. 30

189. Which of the following is the lowest resistance grounding on earth?

A. Sand
B. Clay
C. Surface loam soil
D. Limestone

190. Which part of housing of a building cable system has the same function as the slot
but circular in shape?
A. Fitting
B. Sleeve
C. Insert
D. Header
 476

191. What refers to a terminal where riser cable pairs are terminated to serve a portion
or an entire floor of a building?
A. Floor terminal distribution area
B. Raceway terminal
C. Floor distribution terminal
D. Riser terminal

192. Which part of the housing system in ECE code is a circular opening through the
floor structure to allow the passage of a cable and wire?
A. Insert
B. Sleeve
C. Raceway
D. Slot

193. In cable facilities for a building communications service, _____ is referred to as

the physical cable within a building or series of buildings which may include both main
cable pairs and house cable pairs but not station wiring cable.
A. entrance cable
B. floor distribution cable
C. house cable
D. building cable

194. A telephone company‟s cable entering a building from telephone cable feeder to
the main cross-connecting a point within the building is called ______.
A. Telephone cable
B. Entrance cable
C. Connecting cable
D. Building cable

195. It is non-combustible tubing which encases the riser cable between enclosed type
metallic terminal cabinets or boxes.
A. Raceway
B. Riser shaft
C. Riser conduit
D. Entrance cable
 477

196. A series of closets connected by slots or short conduit sleeves between floors or
open shaft of the building is called ______.
A. Service fitting
B. Raceway
C. Riser conduit
D. Riser shaft

197. What is the maximum number of lines for any building other than a one or two
story residential building to be required a service entrance facility under ECE building
code?
A. Two lines
B. Five lines
C. Three lines
D. Not required

198. What is a device that diverts high transient voltage to the ground and away from
the equipment thus protected?
A. Alpeth
B. Anchor
C. Alarm
D. Arrester

199. What is one possible cause for an abrupt frequency variation in one self-excited
transmitter oscillator circuits resulting to a poor frequency stability to hold a constant
oscillation?
A. Poor soldered connection.
B. Heating of capacitor in the oscillator.
C. DC and RF ac heating of resistors which cause change in values.
D. Aging which cause change condition in parts characteristics.

200. Which of the following does not constitute the foundation of ethics?
A. Honesty
B. Justice
C. Integrity
D. Courtesy
 478

201. What is defined as a legally binding agreement or promise to exchange goods or

services?
A. Consideration
B. Partnership
C. Contract
D. Obligation

202. What is the study of the decisions, policies, and values that are morally desirable
in engineering practice and research?
A. Engineering ethics
B. Engineering management
C. Engineering system
D. Engineering integrity

203. What consists of the responsibilities and rights that ought to be endorsed by those
engaged in engineering, and also of desirable ideals and personal commitments in
engineering?
A. Ethics
B. Code of ethics
C. Engineering ethics
D. Engineering standards

204. What refers to situations in which moral reasons come into conflict, or in which
the application of moral values is problematic?
A. Silo mentality
B. Preventive ethics
C. Ethical issues
D. Moral dilemmas

205. What states the moral responsibilities of engineers as seen by the profession, and
as represented by a professional society?
A. Preventive ethics
B. Work ethics
C. Code of ethics
D. Professional code
 479

206. What is a set of attitudes, which implies a motivational orientation, concerning the
value of work?
A. Preventive ethics
B. Work ethics
C. Code of ethics
D. Professional code

207. Ethics is synonymous to ______.

A. morality
B. money
C. standards
D. conduct

208. A contract can be terminated with which of the following reasons?

A. Death of a party to the contract
B. Failure of consideration
C. Mutual agreement of the parties to the contract
D. All of the above

209. Some contracts may be dissolved by which valid reason?

A. Court order
B. Passage of new laws
C. Declaration of war
D. All of the above

210. Which of the following is essential in the formation of a simple contract?

A. An offer
B. An acceptance
C. A consideration
D. At least two parties

211. The general contractor who hires different subcontractors is known as ______
contractor.
A. real
B. original
C. prime
D. legitimate
 480

212. What is the basic requirement in order for a contract to be binding?

A. There must be a clear, specific and definite offer.
B. There must be some form of conditional future consideration.
C. There must be an acceptance of the offer.
D. All of the above.

213. What contract document is part of the construction contracts?

A. Agreement for
B. General condition
C. Drawings and specifications
D. All of the above

214. What refers to a statement of fact made by one party to the other before the
contract is made?
A. A representation
B. An offer
C. A proposal
D. consideration

215. What refers to a fundamental obligation under the contract which goes to the root
of the contract?
A. Warranty
B. Condition
C. Injunction
D. Innominate terms

216. Which term of the contract, the breach of which could be serious or considered
not serious, depending upon the facts at the time of execution?
A. Warranty term
B. Innominate term
C. Conditional term
D. Guarantee term

217. What type of damages is awarded, usually for fraud cases, to punish and make an
example of the defendant to deter other from doing the same thing?
A. Punitive damages
B. Nominal damages
C. Liquidated damages
D. Consequential damages
 481

218. What is another term for “punitive damages”?

A. Liquidated damages
B. Exemplary damages
C. Compensatory damages
D. Nominal damages

219. What type of damage is awarded for direct financial loss due to a breach of
contract?
A. Punitive damages
B. Consequential damages
C. Special damages
D. Liquidated damages

220. What type of damage to provide for indirect losses incurred by an injured party,
but not directly related to a contract?
A. Consequential damage
B. Punitive damage
C. Liquidated damage
D. Nominal damage

221. If in court litigation, it was found that the injured party is responsible for the
injury of the complainant, but the injury is so slight as to be inconsequential, the type of
damage is known as ______.
A. Punitive damage
B. Liquidated damage
C. Special damage
D. Nominal damage

222. What is defined as a non-performance that results in the injured party receiving
something substantially less than or different from what the contract is intended?
A. Wilful breach
B. Material breach
C. Unintentional breach
D. Intentional breach
 482

223. What refers to the condition that in a contract between two parties, only the
parties to a contract may sue under it and that any third party names in that contract or
who benefit from that contract cannot sue or be sued under that contract?
A. Doctrine of contract
B. Party policy of contract
C. Equity of contract
D. Privity of contract

224. What is a civil wrong committed by one person causing damage to another person
of his property, emotional well-being, or reputation?
A. Consequential damage
B. Fraud
C. Punitive damage
D. Tort

225. The tort law is concerned with ______.

A. imprisonment
B. fine
C. compensation for the injury
D. punishment

226. What refers to a statement or oath, often religious in nature, agreed by an

individual in ceremonies?
A. Canon
B. Code
C. Creed
D. Rule

227. A canon is defined as:

A. a fundamental belief that usually encompasses several rules.
B. a system of nonstatutory, nonmandatory rules on personal conduct.
C. an oath taken by an individual in a ceremony.
D. a guide for conduct and action in a certain situation.

228. A rule is defined as:

A. a fundamental belief that usually encompasses several rules.
B. a system of nonstatutory, nonmandatory rules on personal conduct.
C. an oath taken by an individual in a ceremony.
D. a guide for conduct and action in a certain situation.
 483

229. A code is defined as:

A. a fundamental belief that usually encompasses several rules.
B. a system of nonstatutory, nonmandatory rules on personal conduct.
C. an oath taken by an individual in a ceremony.
D. a guide for conduct and action in a certain situation.

230. What refers to the rendition of service by a duly licensed professional by virtue of
his technical education, training, experience and competence?
A. Professional practice
B. Professional service
C. Legal practice and service
D. Professional consultation

231. The term “obligation” comes from Latin word which means ______.
A. tying
B. mandatory
C. to do
D. executory

232. The seal of the Professional Electronic Engineer is stated in what section of the
Implementing Rules and Regulation of Republic Act No. 9292?
A. Section 28
B. Section 29
C. Section 30
D. Section 31

233. The appropriation for the implementation of the Republic Act No. 9292 is found
in what section of the IRR of R. A. No. 9292?
A. Section 35
B. Section 38
C. Section 40
D. Section 41

234. As mentioned in the law of obligation and contract, the term “tort” may refer to
______.
A. Unprofessional conduct
B. Unprofessional practice
C. delict
D. quasi-delict
 484

235. What is the measure of the outer diameter of the seal of a Professional Electronics
Engineer, in accordance with R. A. No. 9292/
A. 48 mm
B. 46 mm
C. 50 mm
D. 44 mm

236. What is the measure of the outer diameter of the seal of the official seal/logo of
the Board of Electronic Engineering?
A. 48 mm
B. 46 mm
C. 50 mm
D. 44 mm

237. According to R. A. No.9292, the Board of Electronics Engineers is allowed to

issue Certificate of Registration and Professional ID, without examination to all
applicants for registrations as Electronics Technicians within ____ years from its Act‟s
effectivity?
A. 3
B. 5
C. 7
D. 4

238. The law or portion of the body of the law, prescribed the manner and procedure
by which rights may be enforced or violations redressed are contained in which of the
following laws?
A. Adjective law
B. Procedural law
C. Remedial law
D. All of the above

239. What is the minimum visual effective radiated power in dB above one kilowatt in
any horizontal direction according to the TV broadcasting law of the Philippines?
A. – 14 dBk
B. – 12 dBk
C. – 10 dBk
D. – 20 dBk
 485

240. As required for all FM broadcasting stations, licensee of FM stations shall

maintain a minimum operating schedule of ____ of the total hours of their authorized
operating hours, except on emergencies where the station finds it impossible to continue
due to causes outside their control.
A. 3/4
B. 1/2
C. 2/3
D. 1/3
241. The law of obligations and contracts, the body of rules which deals with the
nature and sources of obligations and rights arising from agreements and the particular
contract is found in what law?
A. R. A. No. 356
B. R. A. No. 376
C. R. A. No. 366
D. R. A. No. 386

242. What is otherwise known as “Civil Code of the Philippines”?

A. R. A. No. 356
B. R. A. No. 386
C. R. A. No. 376
D. R. A. No. 366

243. The statement “Ignorance of the law excuses no one from compliance therewith”
is provided in what article of the Civil Code of the Philippines?
A. Article 1
B. Article 2
C. Article 3
D. Article 4

244. In FM broadcasting, band B is the frequency band authorized for studio-to-

transmitter link (STL). What is its frequency range?
A. 734 – 752 MHz
B. 724 – 742 MHz
C. 714 – 732 MHz
D. 704 – 722 MHz
 486

245. The IRR of R. A. No. 9292 state that all records of the Board, including
applications for examination, administrative cases involving PECEs, ECEs and ECTs,
shall be kept by ______.
A. Professional Regulations Commission
B. Professional Regulatory Board
C. Accredited Professional Organization
D. All of the above

246. According to Section ___ of the IRR of R. A. No. 9292, the chairman and
members of the Board of Electronics Engineering shall receive compensation and
allowances comparable to that being received by the chairman and members of existing
regulatory boards at Professional Regulations Commission.
A. 8
B. 9
C. 10
D. 11

247. According to KBP Code, news shall be a part of a radio stations‟ daily
programming, with at least ______ must be devoted to news in its daily programming.
A. 40 minutes
B. 60 minutes
C. 50 minutes
D. 30 minutes

248. How much fine is imposed by the KBP to individuals who committed grave
offense for the fourth time?
A. P 30,000
B. P 50,000
C. P 40,000
D. P 35,000

249. In accordance with R. A. No. 7925, a value added service (VAS) provider is
required to secure a congressional franchise if it is _______.
A. Putting its own network
B. Charging rates is higher than the prevailing rates
C. Collecting fees from the public
D. All of the above
 487

250. Technical documents (plans, drawings, permits, etc.) prepared by and/or executed
under the supervision of/and issued by a PECE shall be stamped and sealed by the PECE
concerned. The PECE shall include (in addition to his PRC ID number, date of issuance
and expiration date) in each page where the PECE affixed his signature which of the
following?
A. Professional Tax Receipt (PTR) number
B. PTR date and place of payment
C. Certificate member ID number from APO
D. All of the above
 488

ANSWER KEYS

1. D 40. B 79. B 118. D

2. D 41. C 80. C 119. B
3. B 42. C 81. A 120. B
4. A 43. C 82. A 121. C
5. A 44. C 83. C 122. C
6. D 45. B 84. C 123. B
7. B 46. B 85. A 124. C
8. B 47. C 86. C 125. C
9. B 48. C 87. A 126. A
10. D 49. C 88. D 127. A
11. C 50. B 89. B 128. C
12. B 51. D 90. C 129. C
13. D 52. A 91. A 130. B
14. B 53. D 92. D 131. B
15. D 54. D 93. A 132. B
16. B 55. D 94. C 133. D
17. C 56. A 95. B 134. B
18. A 57. D 96. C 135. D
19. A 58. B 97. C 136. D
20. B 59. B 98. B 137. B
21. A 60. C 99. C 138. C
22. B 61. A 100. B 139. A
23. C 62. A 101. B 140. D
24. B 63. B 102. D 141. C
25. D 64. C 103. B 142. D
26. D 65. A 104. C 143. A
27. B 66. B 105. A 144. C
28. D 67. C 106. B 145. C
29. A 68. C 107. B 146. C
30. C 69. C 108. B 147. C
31. C 70. D 109. B 148. A
32. A 71. D 110. C 149. A
33. B 72. D 111. D 150. B
34. A 73. C 112. C 151. A
35. C 74. B 113. C 152. C
36. D 75. C 114. D 153. D
37. A 76. B 115. A 154. A
38. A 77. B 116. C 155. C
39. C 78. D 117. D 156. A
 489

157. A 181. A 205. C 229. B

158. A 182. C 206. B 230. A
159. A 183. A 207. A 231. A
160. B 184. A 208. D 232. B
161. B 185. B 209. D 233. C
162. C 186. A 210. C 234. D
163. A 187. D 211. C 235. A
164. A 188. B 212. D 236. A
165. B 189. C 213. D 237. B
166. D 190. B 214. A 238. D
167. C 191. D 215. B 239. C
168. C 192. B 216. B 240. C
169. C 193. D 217. A 241. D
170. A 194. B 218. B 242. B
171. A 195. C 219. C 243. C
172. D 196. D 220. A 244. A
173. D 197. C 221. D 245. A
174. B 198. D 222. B 246. C
175. D 199. A 223. D 247. D
176. B 200. C 224. D 248. D
177. A 201. C 225. C 249. A
178. D 202. A 226. C 250. D
179. A 203. C 227. A
180. A 204. D 228. D