RED EYE in CBSE NET

In

P OLITICAL S CIENCE

NATIONAL ELIGIBILITY TEST

Polity BLUE BOOK

 Contents

Preface to the second edition iii

1 Indian constitutional developement 1

2 Constitutional preamble resource 9

3 Principles of state policy 15

4 Constitution, Emergency Provisions 29

5 The union executive 36

6 The Union Legislature 52

7 The Judiciary 75

8 The State Executive 89

9 Indian Federalism and Centre-State Relations 98

10 Public Service Commissions 108

11 Local Government 120

12 Amendment of the Constitution 126

13 Indian Constitution 142

14 IAS 218

15 Miscellenous 241

16 CDS 336

ii
 Preface to the second edition

This book is primarily written for students of competitive examination seeking admission to PhD pro-
gram or for lecturer job through examinations like NET and SET. It will also be helpful for those taking
other examinations like IAS/UPSC/CSAT Civil services Exam etc. It contains more than 3411 questions
from the core area of Indian polity. The questions are grouped chapter wise.
The overwhelming response to the first edition of this book has inspired me to bring out this second
edition which is a thoroughly revised and updated version of the first.
Every effort has been made to make this book error-free. l welcome all constructive criticism of the
book. Soon, I will remove duplicate questions. I will upload 10000 MCQ’s on Indian polity soon. Keep
visiting our website https://www.gatecseit.in/.

iii
 Disclaimer

The aim of this publication is to supply

information taken from sources believed
to be valid, reliable and authenticate. The
author bear no responsibility for any dam-
age arising from inadverent omissions,
negligence or inaccuracies (typographical
or factual) that may have found their way ♣
into this PDF booklet.
Due care has been taken to ensure that the
information provided in this book is cor-

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

rect. Author is not responsible for any er-
rors, omissions or damage arising out of
use of this information.

M
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Importa

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booklet il narayan.cha m/narayancha
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A N INITIATIVE TO HELP NEEDY STUDENTS

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https://www.facebook.com/narayanchangder/

I will enrich this MCQ hub time by time. If you are not satisfied with answers, check internet or textbook
for correct answers
My philosophy is; what’s the point of learning if you cannot share your knowledge? This is why I have
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Disclaimer:
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First release, December,2018

v
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
Chapter 1
Indian constitutional developement

1. The Government of India Act, 1935 vested the 3. Which of the following features do not con-
residuary power in the: tribute to making the Indian Constitution the
bulkiest in the world?
A. British Parliament
B. Federal Legislature I) Various types of emergencies are consid-
ered in detail.
C. State Legislature
II) It codifies the rights and privileges of the
D. Governor-General members of Parliament and State Legisla-
tures.
2. The Cabinet Mission to India was headed by:
[Asstt Grade 1992] III) It enumerates all types of Indian citizen-
ship and how it can be terminated.
A. Stafford Cripps
IV) It contains not only a list of fundamental
B. A.V. Alexander rights but also the restrictions to be placed
on them.
C. Lord Pethick Lawrence
D. Hugh Gaitskell A. I and II

1
Chapter 1. Indian constitutional developement

B. I and IV 8. The demand for the Constituent Assembly was

put forward by the Indian National Congress in
C. II and III
1936 at its session held at:
D. II, III and IV
A. Kanpur
4. Which of the following statements is/are not
correct about the Objectives Resolution? B. Bombay
C. Lucknow
I) It was moved by Jawaharlal Nehru in the
Constituent Assembly. D. Lahore

ER
II) It called for just rights for minorities. 9. Which among the following is/are the feature
(s) of a Federal State? [NDA 2008]
III) It formed the basis for the chapter on Fun-

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

damental Rights. 1. The powers of the Central and the

D
IV) It called for the establishment of a social- State (Constituent Unit) Governments are
ist and secular polity. clearly laid down

G
2. It has an unwritten Constitution.
A. I and II

N
B. I, II and III Select the correct answer using the codes given
below
C. III and IV
D. Only III A
A. 1 only
H
B. 2 only
5. Who was the President of the Constituent As-
sembly? C. Both 1 and 2
-C

A. Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru D. Neither 1 nor 2

10. Which of the following was adopted from the
N

B. Dr. Rajendra Prasad

Maurya dynasty in the emblem of Government
C. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar of India?
YA

D. C. Rajagopalachari A. Four lions

6. Which one of the following Acts formally in- B. Chariot wheel
troduced the principles of elections for the first
RA

time? C. Horse

A. Indian Councils Act, 1909 D. Words ’Satyameva Jayate’

B. Government of India Act, 1919 11. Who among the following was the Chairman of
NA

the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitu-

C. Government of India Act, 1935 tion? [CDS 1992]
D. Indian Independence Act, 1947 A. Rajendra Prasad
7. The office of Governor General of India was B. Tej Bahadur Sapru
created by: [Asstt Grade 1991]
C. C. Rajagopalachari
A. Charter Act, 1813
D. B. R. Ambedkar
B. Charter Act, 1833
12. The first attempt at introducing a representa-
C. Government of India Act, 1858 tive and popular element in administration was
D. Government of India Act, 1935 made by:

2
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 A. Indian Councils Act, 1900 A. B.R. Ambedkar
B. Indian Councils Act, 1909 B. J.B. Kripalani
C. Government of India Act, 1935 C. Jawaharlal Nehru
D. Indian Councils Act, 1919 D. Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar
13. When did Mr. Attlee, Prime Minister of Eng- 18. Under whom among the following was the first
land, announce the transfer of power to the In- draft of the Constitution of India prepared in
dians? October 1947 by the advisory branch of the of-
fice of the Constituent Assembly? [IAS 2006]
A. February, 1947
A. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
B. August, 1947

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

B. Jawaharlal Nehru
C. June, 1948
C. K.M. Munshi
D. June, 1949

M
D. B.N. Rau
14. The Constitution of India was adopted by the:
19. The Constituent Assembly for undivided India
[Teachers’ Exam 1994]
first met on
A. Governor General
B. British Parliament
C. Constituent Assembly
RA A. 6th December, 1946
B. 9th December, 1946
C. 20th February, 1947
RI
D. Parliament of India D. 3rd June, 1947
15. Who among the following was the Constitu- 20. The design of the National Flag was adopted by
H

tional adviser to the Constituent Assembly of the Constitutent Assembly of India in:
India? [CDS 1995]
IS

A. July, 1948
A. Dr. B.N. Rao
B. July, 1950
B. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
JA

C. July, 1947
C. K.M. Munshi
D. August, 1947
D. M.C. Setalvad
21. Which of the following items is wrongly
16. Which of the following Acts gave representa- matched?
tion to Indians for the first time in the Legisla-
A. December 9, 1947-Constituent As-
ture?
semby’s first meeting
A. Indian Councils Act, 1909
B. November 26, 1949-the people of India
B. Indian Councils Act, 1919 adopted, enacted and gave to themselves the
Constitution
C. Government of India Act, 1935
C. January 24, ’ 1950-the Constitution was fi-
D. None of the above nally signed by the members of the Constituent
17. Who among the following was the Chairman of Assembly
the Union Constitution Committee of the Con- D. January 26, 1950-the date of commence-
stituent Assembly? [IAS 2005] ment of the Constitution
3
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 1. Indian constitutional developement

22. Match the following: III) educational institutions, without excep-

tion, are free to impart religious instruc-
A. July 22, 1947 1. Adoption of tion.
National Song by
the Constituent IV) the State makes no discrimination on the
Assembly basis of religion in matters of employ-
ment.
B. January 24, 2. Adoption of Na-
1950 tional Emblem by
the Government A. I and II

ER
C. January 26, 3. Adoption of Na- B. I, II and III
1950 tional Calendar by
C. II, III and IV
the Government

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

D. March 22, 1957 4. Adoption of D. I, II and IV

D
National Flag by
25. Which of the following are the principal fea-
the Constituent

G
tures of Government of India Act, 1919?
Assembly

N
1. Introduction of dyarchy in the executive
A. 𝐴 − 1, 𝐵 − 2, 𝐶 − 3, 𝐷 − 4 government of the provinces.
B. 𝐴 − 4, 𝐵 − 2, 𝐶 − 1, 𝐷 − 3
C. 𝐴 − 4, 𝐵 − 1, 𝐶 − 3, 𝐷 − 2 A2. Introduction of separate communal elec-
torate for Muslims.
H
D. 𝐴 − 4, 𝐵 − 1, 𝐶 − 2, 𝐷 − 3 3. Devolution of legislative authority by the
-C
Centre to the Provinces.
23. Which of the following provisions of the Con-
stitution came into force from November 26, 4. Expansion and reconstitution of Central
1949? and Provincial Legislatures.
N

I) Provisions relating to citizenship. A. 1, 2 and 3

YA

II) Provisions relating to elections. B. 1, 2 and 4

III) Provisions relating to provisional Parlia- C. 2, 3 and 4
RA

ment.
D. 1, 3 and 4
IV) Fundamental Rights.
26. The nationalist demand for a Constituent As-
A. I and II sembly was for the first time conceded by the
NA

B. I, III and IV British Government, though indirectly and with

reservations in the:
C. I, II and III
A. Cripps proposals
D. None of the above.
B. August Offer
24. The Indian Constitution establishes a secular
state, meaning: C. Cabinet Mission Plan

I) the State treats all religions equally. D. Act of 1935

II) freedom of faith and worship is allowed to 27. Which one of the following statements is cor-
all the people. rect? [IAS 2004]

4
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 A. The Constituent Assembly of India was A. Aug 15, 1947
elected by the Provincial Assemblies in the year
B. Jan 30, 1948
1946
C. Jan 26, 1950
B. Jawaharlal Nehru; M.A. Jinnah and Sardar
Vallabhbhai Patel were members of the Con- D. Nov 26, 1929
stituent Assembly of India 32. The first effort at drafting a Dominion Status
Constitution for India was made in response to
C. The First Session of the Constituent Assem-
the [CDS 2011]
bly of India was held in January, 1947
A. Minto-Morley Reforms
D. The Constitution of India was adopted on
26th January, 1950 B. Montague-Chelmsford Reforms

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

28. The members of the Constituent Assembly C. Simon Commission
were: D. First Round Table Conference
A. elected by Provincial Assemblies 33. The Crown took the Government of India into

M
its own hands by:
B. elected directly by people
A. Charter Act, 1833
C. nominated by the government
D. only representatives of the princely States
29. Which of the following is/are correctly
RA B. Government of India Act, 1858
C. Indian Council Act, 1861
D. Government of India Act, 1935
matched?
RI
34. Which of the following statements regarding
I) India’s National Song-Vande Mataram the’ Constituent Assembly are true? [IAS
H

II) India s National Flower-Rose 1993]

III) India’s National Animal-Tiger 1. It was not based on Adult Franchise.
IS

IV) India’s National Bird-Eagle 2. It resulted from direct elections.

3. It was a multi-party body.
A. I and IV
JA

4. It worked through several Committees.

B. I, II and III
A. 1 and 2
C. II, III and IV
B. 2 and 3
D. I and III
C. 3 and 4
30. The idea of the Constitution of India was first
of all given by: D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
35. Who among the following was not a member
A. Mahatma Gandhi
of the Constituent Assembly established in July
B. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar 1946? [UTI 1993]
C. Jawaharlal Nehru A. Vallabhbhai Patel
D. M.N. Roy B. Mahatma Gandhi
31. India became a Sovereign, democratic republic C. K.M. Munshi
on: D. J.B. Kripalani

5
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 1. Indian constitutional developement

36. The Constitution of India was promulgated on A. by a majority vote

January 26, 1950 because:
B. by a two-thirds majority
A. this day was being celebrated as the Inde- C. by consensus
pendence Day since 1929
D. unanimously
B. it was the wish of the framers of the Consti-
tution 41. The amendment procedure laid down in the
Constitution of India is on the pattern of?
C. the British did not want to leave India earlier
A. Government of India Act, 1935
than this date

ER
B. Government of India Act, 1947
D. it was an auspicious day
C. Constitution of South Africa

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

37. Which one among the following is a fundamen-

D
tal duty of citizens under the Constitution of In- D. Constitution of UK
dia? [CDS 2012] 42. The Constitution of India divided the states of

G
India in categories A. B. C. and D in the year
A. To provide friendly cooperation to the peo-
1950. In this context which of the following
ple of the neighbouring countries

N
statements is correct? [CDS 2011]
B. To protect monuments of national impor-
A. The Chief Commissioner was the executive
tance
A
head of category A states. The Rajpramukh was
the executive head of category B states. The
H
C. To defend the country and render national
service when called upon to do so Governor was the executive head of categories
C and D states.
-C
D. To know more and more about the history
of India B. The Pajpramukh was the executive head of
category A states. The Chief Commissioner
N

38. The first session of the Constituent Assembly was the executive head of categories Band C
was held in: states. The Governor was the executive head
YA

A. Bombay of the category D states.

B. Calcutta C. The Governor was the executive head of

category A states. The Rajpramukh was the ex-
RA

C. Lahore ecutive head of category B states. The Chief

Commissioner was the executive head of cate-
D. New Delhi
gories C and D states.
39. Which of the following proved to be the most
NA

D. The Governor was the executive head of

short lived of all the British constitutional ex- category A states. The Chief Commissioner
periments in India? was the executive head of category B states.
A. Government of India Act, 1919 The Rajpramukh was the executive head of cat-
egories C and D states.
B. Indian Council Act, 1909
43. What was the main stipulation of Government
C. Pitt’s India Act, 1784 of India Act, 1935?
D. Government of India Act, 1935 A. A federation was suggested
40. The Constituent Assembly arrived at decisions B. Unitary form of government was recom-
on the various provisions of the Constitution: mended

6
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 C. Complete independence guaranteed A. 2 and 1 are correct
D. Dyarchy was made applicable at provincial B. 2 and 3 are correct
level C. 1 and 2 are correct
44. When the Constituent Assembly for the Do- D. 1 and 3 are correct
minion of India reassembled on 31 st October,
49. The Constituent Assembly which framed the
1947, its reduced membership was:
Constitution for Independent India was set up
A. 299 in:
B. 311 A. 1945
C. 319 B. 1946

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

D. 331 C. 1947
45. Which one of the following made the Indian D. 1949
Legislature bicameral: 50. Who proposed the Preamble before the Draft-

M
ing Committee of the Constitution? [UDC
A. Indian Councils Act, 1909
1994]
B. Government of India Act, 1919

RA
A. Jawaharlal Nehru
C. Government of India Act, 1935 B. B.R. Ambedkar
D. Indian Independence Act, 1947 C. B.N. Rao
46. Who among the following is known as the Fa- D. Mahatma Gandhi
RI
ther of the Indian Constitution? 51. Which one of the following aimed at providing
A. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar a federal structure for India?
H

B. Mahatma Gandhi A. Indian Council Act, 1909

B. Montague-Chelmsford Reforms Act, 1919
IS

C. Jawaharlal Nehru
D. Vallabhbhai PateI C. Charter Act, 1831

47. The Constitution of India was enacted by a D. Government of India Act, 1935
JA

Constituent Assembly set up: 52. Match the following:

A. under the Indian Independence Act, 1947 A. Govt. of India 1. Provincial au-
Act, 1919 tonomy
B. under the Cabinet Mission Plan, 1946
B. Govt. of India 2. Separate Elec-
C. through a resolution of the provisional gov- Act, 1935 torate
ernment C. Minto-Morley 3. Dyarchy
D. by the Indian National Congress Reforms
48. Consider the following statements. The Indian D. Cabinet Mission 4. Constituent As-
Constitution is: Plan sembly

1. unwritten Constitution. A. 𝐴 − 1, 𝐵 − 2, 𝐶 − 3, 𝐷 − 4
2. written Constitution. B. 𝐴 − 2, 𝐵 − 4, 𝐶 − 3, 𝐷 − 1
3. largely based on Government of India C. 𝐴 − 4, 𝐵 − 1, 𝐶 − 3, 𝐷 − 2
Act, 1935. D. 𝐴 − 3, 𝐵 − 1, 𝐶 − 2, 𝐷 − 4

7
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 1. Indian constitutional developement

53. Which of the following was not one of the fea- Committees of Chairmen
tures of Government of India Act, 1935? Constituent As-
sembly
A. Provincial autonomy
A. Drafting Com- 1. Vallabhbhai Pa-
B. Dyarchy of centre mittee tel
B. Committee on 2. Jawaharlal
C. Bicameral Legislature Fundamental and Nehru
Minority Rights
D. All India federation C. Union Constitu- 3. Kanhiyalal Mun-

ER
tion Committee shi
54. Who among the following was not a member of
D. Working Com- 4. B.R. Ambedkar

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

the Constituent Assembly? [CDS 2009]
mittee

D
A. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
A. 𝐴 − 1, 𝐵 − 2, 𝐶 − 3, 𝐷 − 4

G
B. Acharya J.B. Kriplani B. 𝐴 − 4, 𝐵 − 2, 𝐶 − 1, 𝐷 − 3

N
C. Lok Nayak Jayprakash Narayan C. 𝐴 − 4, 𝐵 − 1, 𝐶 − 3, 𝐷 − 2
D. 𝐴 − 4, 𝐵 − 1, 𝐶 − 2, 𝐷 − 3
D. K.M. Munshi
A
58. Who presided over the inaugural meeting of the
H
55. Who was the first Foreign Minister of free In- Constituent Assembly of India?
dia? [NDA 2008] A. Sachidananda Sinha
-C

A. Jawaharlal Nehru B. B. R. Ambedkar

C. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
N

B. Gulzari Lal Nanda

D. P. Upendra
C. Lal Bahadur Shastri
YA

59. The most profound influence on the drafting of

the Indian Constitution was exercised by the
D. John Mathai
A. U.S. Constitution
RA

56. Which of the following is correct regarding the B. British Constitution

Indian Constitution?
C. Government of India Act, 1935
A. It is completely based on British Constitu- D. French ideals of Liberty and Fraternity
NA

tion
60. How long did the Constituent Assembly take to
B. It is made only on the basis of Government finally pass the Constitution?
of India Act, 1935 A. about 6 months in 1949
C. It is a mixture of several Constitutions B. exactly a year since Nov 26, 1948
C. about 2 years since Aug 15, 1947
D. It is original
D. about 3 years since Dec 9, 1946
57. Match the following:

8
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
Chapter 2
Constitutional preamble resource

1. Match List-l with List-II and select the correct A. 𝐴 − 1, 𝐵 − 2, 𝐶 − 4, 𝐷 − 3

answer using the codes given below the Lists:
B. 𝐴 − 3, 𝐵 − 4, 𝐶 − 1, 𝐷 − 2
[CDS 2009]
C. 𝐴 − 1, 𝐵 − 4, 𝐶 − 2, 𝐷 − 3
List-I - (Provision List-II (Source)
of the Constitution D. 𝐴 − 3, 𝐵 − 1, 𝐶 − 4, 𝐷 − 2
of India) 2. In a parliamentary form of government, real
A. Amendment of 1. Constitution of powers of the State are vested in the: [Railways
the Constitution Germany 1994]
B. Directive Princi- 2. Constitution of A. Council of Ministers headed by the Prime
ples Canada Minister
C. Emergency 3. Constitution of B. President
Power of the South Africa
President C. Government
D. The Union- 4. Irish Constitu- D. Parliament
State Relationship tion
3. The source of India’s sovereignty lies in the:

9
Chapter 2. Constitutional preamble resource

A. President 9. Which of the following features and their

source is wrongly matched?
B. Prime Minister
C. People of India A. Judicial review – British practice

D. Preamble to the Constitution B. Concurrent List – Australian Constitution

4. Secularism means: [RRB 1994] C. Directive Principles – Irish Constitution
A. suppression of all religions D. Fundamental Rights – US Constitution
B. freedom of worship to minorities 10. Which of the following is not a basic feature of

ER
C. separation of religion from State the Indian Constitution?
A. Presidential Government

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

D. a system of political and social philoso-
phy that does not favour any particular religious

D
B. Parliamentary Government
faith
C. Federal Government

G
5. Which of the following is a feature of the Par-
liamentary form of government? D. Independence of Judiciary

N
A. Executive is responsible to Judiciary 11. The Constitution of India borrowed the scheme
of Indian Federation from the Constitution of:
B. Executive is responsible to Legislature
C. Judiciary is responsible to Executive A
[IAS 1992]
H
A. USA
D. Legislature is responsible to Executive
B. Canada
-C
6. The Constitution of India is designed to work
as a unitary government: C. Ireland
A. in normal times
N

D. UK
B. in times of Emergency 12. The Indian Constitution comprises of [BPSC
YA

C. when the Parliament so desires 2011]

D. at the will of the President A. 395 Articles, 22 Parts and 12 Schedules
RA

7. The inspiration of ’Liberty, Equality and Fra- B. 371 Articles, 21 Parts and 11 Schedules
ternity’ was derived from:
C. 372 Articles, 20 Parts and 7 Schedules
A. American revolution
D. 381 Articles, 23 Parts and 8 Schedules
NA

B. French revolution
13. The Indian Constitution closely follows the
C. Russian revolution
constitutional system of: [I.Tax1989]
D. None of the above
A. USA
8. The Indian Constitution has borrowed the ideas
of Preamble from the: B. UK
A. Italian Constitution C. Switzerland
B. Canadian Constitution D. Russia
C. French Constitution 14. Which one of the following statements regard-
D. Constitution of USA ing the Preamble is correct?

10
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 A. It is not enforceable in a court of law A. Sovereign, Secular, Democratic Republic
B. the Supreme Court has recently ruled that it B. Sovereign, Democratic Republic
is not a part of the Constitution C. Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic
C. It has been amended twice Republic

D. All the above are correct D. Sovereign, Secular, Socialist Democracy

19. The Preamble enshrines certain ideals that were
15. Which one of the following statements is cor-
first spelt out in:
rect?
A. the speech by Jawaharlal Nehru on the
A. Preamble of the Constitution is the part of
banks of Ravi when he called for Purna Swaraj
the Constitution and can be amended under Ar-

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

ticle 368 B. the Nehru Report
B. Preamble of the Constitution is not a part of C. a resolution adopted at Karachi session of
the Constitution and cannot be amended the Indian National Congress

M
C. Preamble is the part of the basic structure D. the Objectives Resolution adopted by the
of the Constitution and can be amended only if Constituent Assembly
no change in the basic structure is made
D. Preamble can be amended by Parliament
simply by an objective Resolution
RA
20. Who among the following moved the Objec-
tives Resolution which formed tile basis of the
Preamble of the Constitution of India in the
Constituent Assembly on Dec 13, 1946? [CDS
RI
16. The President of the Indian Union has the same 2009]
constitutional authority as the:
A. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
A. British Monarch
H

B. Dr. Rajendra Prasad

B. President of USA C. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
IS

C. President of Egypt D. Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru

D. President of Russia 21. India opted for a federal form of government
JA

because of: [Railways 1994]

17. The Preamble of the Indian Constitution reads:
A. vast-territory
A. We, the people of India - adopt, enact and
give to India this Constitution’ B. cultural integration

B. We, the people of Constitutent Assembly - C. linguistic and regional diversity

adopt, enact and give to India this Constitution D. administrative convenience
22. In India, the concept of single citizenship is
C. We, the citizens of India - adopt, enact and adopted from [SSC Grad 2011]
give to ourselves this Constitution A. England
D. We, the people of India - in our Con- B. U.S.A.
stituent Assembly – adopt, enact and give to
ourselves this Constitution C. Canada

18. The correct nomenclature of India according to D. France

the Preamble is: 23. Which of the pairs is correctly matched?

11
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 2. Constitutional preamble resource

A. Republic - Head of the State is hereditary 28. Which of the following is a feature common to
Monarch both the Indian Federation and the American
Federation? [IAS 1993]
B. Sovereign - Constitution rests on people’s
will A. A single citizenship
C. Democratic - Constitution does not recog- B. Dual Judiciary
nise legal supremacy of another country
C. Three lists in the Constitution
D. Secular - State is without any religion of
D. A Federal Supreme Court to interpret the
its own

ER
Constitution
24. The Indian Constitution is regarded as:
29. Match the following:

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

A. federal
Constitutional Sources

D
B. unitary Features
C. parliamentary A. Rule of Law 1. German Consti-

G
D. federal in form and unitary in spirit tution
B. Directive Princi- 2. Australian Con-

N
25. The Preamble of the Constitution of India en-
ples stitution
visages that:
A. it shall stand part of the Constitution
A
C. Concurrent List 3. Irish Constitu-
tion
H
B. it could be abrogated or wiped out from the D. Suspension 4. British Constitu-
Constitution of Fundamental tion
-C
Rights during
C. it does not acknowledge, recognise or pro- Emergency
claim anything about the Constitution
N

D. it has separate entity in the Constitution A. 𝐴 − 4, 𝐵 − 2, 𝐶 − 1, 𝐷 − 3

26. From which of the countries, Constitution of In-
YA

B. 𝐴 − 4, 𝐵 − 3, 𝐶 − 2, 𝐷 − 1
dia has adopted fundamental duties?
C. 𝐴 − 2, 𝐵 − 3, 𝐶 − 4, 𝐷 − 1
A. USA
D. 𝐴 − 2, 𝐵 − 1, 𝐶 − 4, 𝐷 − 3
RA

B. Canada
30. Which Constitution has inspired the Indian con-
C. Erstwhile USSR cepts of rule of law, parliamentary system and
law-making procedure?
D. UK
NA

27. In a Federal State: [I. Tax 1993] A. US Constitution

A. States are more powerful than the Centre B. British Constitution

C. Canadian Constitution
B. Centre is more powerful than States D. All of the above
C. a Presidential form of government functions 31. Which of the following determines that the In-
dian Constitution is federal? [IAS 1994]
D. Constitution effects division of powers be- A. A written and rigid Constitution
tween the Centre and States with safeguards
B. An independent Judiciary
against transgression of jurisdiction

12
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 C. Vesting of residuary powers with the Centre 37. The word ’Socialist’ was added to the Pream-
ble, its main aim is to:
D. Distribution of powers between the Cen- A. eliminate inequality in economic and po-
tre and States litical status
32. Indian President and Prime Minister are a B. eliminate inequality in political and reli-
replica of the heads of the State of which coun- gious affairs
try?
C. eliminate inequality in income and status
A. Britain and standards of life
B. USA D. eliminate class based society

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

C. Ireland 38. Which of the following features does the Indian
Constitution borrow from the Weimar Constitu-
D. Russia
tion of Germany?
33. The constitution of India is republican because

M
A. The idea of a federation with a strong centre
it [CDS 2012]
A. provides for an elected Parliament

RA
B. The method of presidential elections
B. provides for adult franchise
C. The Emergency powers
C. contains a bill of rights
D. Provisions concerning the suspension of
D. has no hereditary elements fundamental rights during National Emergency
RI
34. The part of the Constitution that reflects the
mind and ideals of the framers is: 39. Which of the following is not a part of the
H

Preamble to the Indian Constitution?

A. directive principles
A. Secularism
IS

B. fundamental rights
B. Sociaiism
C. preamble
C. Democratic Republic
JA

D. citizenship
D. Federalism
35. Which of the following describes India as a
Secular State? 40. Which of the following emerges clearly from
the Preamble?
A. Fundamental Rights
B. Ninth Schedule I) When the Constitution was enacted.

C. Directive Principles II) The ideals that were to be achieved.

III) The system of government
D. Preamble to the Constitution
IV) The source of authority
36. The Preamble of our Constitution:
A. is a part of the Constitution A. II, III and IV
B. contains the spirit of the Constitution B. I and II
C. is a limitation upon the granted power C. I, II and III
D. None of the above D. I, II, III and IV

13
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 2. Constitutional preamble resource

41. Match the following: B. Federal form of government

Constitutional Pro- Sources C. Fundamental Rights

visions D. Parliamentary form of government
A. Federation 1. USA
44. The word “socialist secular” and “unity and in-
B. Parliamentary 2. Britain tegrity of the Nation” were added to our Con-
C. Directive Princi- 3. Canada stitution by:
ple
A. 42nd Amendment of the Constitution
D. Fundamental 4. Ireland

ER
Rights B. 44th Amendment of the Constitution
C. 46th Amendment of the Constitution

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

A. 𝐴 − 2, 𝐵 − 1, 𝐶 − 4, 𝐷 − 1

D
D. None of the above
B. 𝐴 − 2, 𝐵 − 3, 𝐶 − 1, 𝐷 − 4
45. Which one among the following statements is

G
C. 𝐴 − 3, 𝐵 − 4, 𝐶 − 2, 𝐷 − 1 not correct? The word “socialist” in the Pream-
D. 𝐴 − 3, 𝐵 − 2, 𝐶 − 4, 𝐷 − 1 ble of the Constitution of India, read with [CDS

N
2012]
42. India is a democratic republic, because:
A. Article 39A, would enable the Court to
A. there is independence of judiciary
B. the Head of the State is elected by the A
uphold the constitutionality of nationalization
laws
H
people
B. Articles 14, would enable the Court to strike
-C
C. there is distribution of powers between the down a statute which failed to achieve the so-
Centre and the States cialist goal to the fullest extent
N

D. there is Parliamentary supremacy C. Article 25, would enable the Court to en-
43. Which of the following features of the Consti- sure freedom guaranteed under that Article
YA

tution of India does not resemble the American D. Article 23, would enable the Court to re-
Constitution? duce inequality in income and status
A. Written Constitution
RA
NA

14
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
Chapter 3
Principles of state policy

1. Fundamental duties have been added in the A. I, II and III

Constitution by 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 in
B. I and III
accordance with the recommendations of:
C. II and III
A. Santhanam Committee
D. I and II
B. Sarkaria Committee
3. According to the Citizenship Act, 1955, Indian
C. Swaran Singh Committee
citizenship cannot be acquired by:
D. Indira Gandhi Committee
A. children of the diplomatic personnel or
2. Which of the following is correct about the alien enemies born in India on or after 26th Jan-
Fundamental Duties? uary, 1950

I) These are not enforceable. B. children born of Indian citizens abroad

II) They are primarily moral duties. C. incorporation of territory not forming part
of India at the commencement of the Constitu-
III) They are not related to any legal rights.
tion

15
Chapter 3. Principles of state policy

D. naturalization 8. Fundamental Freedoms under Article 19 are

4. Under the Constitution of India, which one suspended during emergency caused by:
of the following is not a fundamental duty? A. war or external aggression
[CSAT 2011]
B. failure of constitutional machinery of a
A. To vote in public elections State
B. To develop the scientific temper C. internal armed rebellion
C. To safeguard public property D. financial crisis
D. To abide by the Constitution and respect its 9. In India the right to “freedom of speech and ex-

ER
ideals pression” is restricted on the grounds of

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

5. Any dispute regarding the violation of Funda- 1. the sovereignty and integrity of India.
mental Rights can be presented:

D
2. contempt of court.
A. in the Supreme Court only 3. friendly relation with foreign states.

G
B. in the High Court only 4. protection of minorities.

N
C. either in the Supreme Court or in the High Select the correct answer using the code given
Court below: [CDS 2010]
D. first in the Supreme Court and then in the
High Court A
A. 1, 2 and 3
H
B. 2, 3 and 4
6. Which of the following rights was described by
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as ’The Heart and Soul of C. 1 and 3
-C

the Constitution’? D. 1, 2 and 4

A. Right of Freedom of Religion 10. Untouchability is abolished and its practice is
N

punishable according to:

B. Right to Property
A. Article 15
YA

C. Right to Equality
B. Article 16
D. Right to Constitutional Remedies
C. Article 17
7. Which of the following is/are included in the
RA

Directive Principles of State Policy? [IAS D. Article 15(4)

2008] 11. Which of the following rights conferred by the
Constitution of India is also available to non-
1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and citizens? [BPSC 2011]
NA

forced labour
A. Right to constitutional remedies
2. Prohibition of consumption except for
medicinal purposes of intoxicating drinks B. Freedom to speech
and of other drugs which are injurious to C. Freedom to move and settle in any part of
health. the country
A. 1 only D. Freedom to acquire property
B. 2 only 12. The Fundamental Duties:

C. Both 1 and 2 I) were introduced by the 44th Amendment.

D. Neither 1 nor 2 II) are incorporated in Part Ill-A.

16
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 III) are not justiciable. C. father is a citizen of India at the time of the
person’s birth
A. I and II
D. father or mother is a citizen of India at the
B. I and III time of the person’s birth
C. II and III 18. Right to Constitutional Remedies comes un-
D. III only der:

13. Which part of the Constitution deals with the A. Fundamental Rights
Directive Principles of State Policy? B. Legal Rights
A. Part III C. Constitutional Rights

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

B. Part IV D. Natural Rights
C. Part V 19. Respect for the National Flag and National An-
D. Part II them is:

M
14. The Constitution describes India as a: A. Fundamental Right of every citizen
A. Federation of States
B. Union of States
C. Confederation of States
RA B. Fundamental Duty of every citizen
C. Directive Principle of State policy
D. ordinary duty of every citizen
RI
D. Unitary State 20. Which Schedule of the Constitution of India
15. Who is competent to prescribe conditions as contains special provisions for the administra-
for acquiring Indian citizenship? [Asstt Grade tion and control of Scheduled Areas in several
H

1992] States? [IAS 2008]

IS

A. Parliament A. Third

B. State Legislatures B. Fifth

C. Seventh
JA

C. President
D. Attorney General D. Ninth
16. A government is federal or unitary on the basis 21. Under which Article of the Constitution are
of relations between the: the Cultural and Educational Rights granted?
[Railways 1995]
A. three organs of government
A. Article 29 and 31
B. Centre and States
B. Article 29 and 32
C. Legislature and the Executive
C. Article 29 and 30
D. Constitution and the States
D. Article 30 and 31
17. A person can become a citizen of India even if
born outside India if his/her: 22. Article 6 enshrines the provision conferring
Rights of citizenship of certain persons who
A. father is a citizen of India
have migrated to India from Pakistan. Which
B. mother is a citizen of India one of the following provisions is incorrect?

17
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 3. Principles of state policy

A. He or either of his parents or any of his 26. Indian citizenship of a person can be terminated
grand-parents was born in India as defined in if:
the Government of India Act, 1935
I) a person voluntarily acquires the citizen-
B. Such person has so migrated before 19 July, ship of some other country.
1948
II) a person who has become a citizen
C. Such person has so migrated on or after the through registration is sentenced to im-
19 July, 1948, he has been registered as a citi- prisonment for not less than 10 years
zen within five years of his registration.

ER
D. Such person has got married in India III) the Government of India is satisfied that
23. Right to education is a fundamental right ema- citizenship was obtained by fraud.

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

nating from right to: IV) a person who is a citizen by birth indulges

D
A. freedom of speech and expression under Ar- in trade with an enemy country during
ticle 19 (1) (a) war.

G
B. culture and education under Articles 29 and A. I and III

N
30
B. I, II and III
C. life and personal liberty under Article 21
D. equality before law and equal protection of
law under Article 14 A
C. I, III and IV
D. I, II, III and IV
H
24. Consider the following statements: 1. There 27. Which of the following statements is/are cor-
rect? 1. The territory of the units of the Indian
-C
are twelve Fundamental Duties laid down in the
Constitution of India for every citizen of India. federation may be altered by Parliament by a
2. There is no provision in the Constitution of simple majority. 2. The consent of a State Leg-
N

India for direct enforcement of the Fundamen- islature is necessary before Parliament redis-
tal Duties. 3. One of the Fundamental Duties tributes its territory. 3. The President’s recom-
YA

of every citizen of India is to cast his/her vote mendation is necessary for introducing in Par-
in general or State elections so as to maintain a liament a Bill on redistributing territory of any
vibrant democracy in India. Which of the state- State. 4. The President must receive the State’s
ments given above is/are correct? [CDS 2005] opinion before recommending a Bill on altering
RA

the name of the State.

A. 1 and 2
A. I only
B. 2 only
B. I and II
NA

C. 2 and 3
C. I, II and IV
D. 3 only
D. I and III
25. Articles 20-22 relate to the fundamental right to
life and personal liberty. These rights are avail- 28. Details on how citizenship may be acquired and
able to:s terminated are enumerated in:
A. citizens and non-citizens A. Part II of the Constitution
B. natural persons as well as artificial persons B. the Citizenship Act, 1955
C. citizen only C. Schedule I of the Constitution
D. all persons who have juristic personality D. various enactments by Parliament

18
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
29. Which one among the following pairs is no cor- 34. Match the following [IAS 2004] Articles of the
rectly matched? [Asstt Commdt 2011] Constitution of India 1. Article 14 2. Arti-
cle 15 3. Article 16 4. Article 17 Provision
A. Power of the Parliament: Creating a new
1. The State shall not discriminate against any
state
citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste,
B. Power of state legislature: Altering the sex, place of birth or any of them 2. The State
name of the state shall not deny to any person equality before the
law or the equal protection of laws within the
C. Equality before law: Guaranteed to both In-
territory of India 3. ’Untouchability’ is abol-
dian citizens and noncitizens
ished and its practice in any form is forbidden
D. Equality of opportunity: Guaranteed to only 4. There shall be equality of opportunity for
Indian citizens all citizens in matters relating to employment

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

30. The Ninth Schedule was added by the or appointment to any office under the State A
Amendment. BCD
A. 2 4 1 3

M
A. First
B. Ninth B. 3 1 4 2

C. Thirty-fifth
D. Thirty-sixth
31. The Constitution names our country as:
RA C. 2143
D. 2 4 1 2
35. As far as Armed Forces are concerned, the fun-
damental rights? granted under Articles 14 and
RI
A. Bharat 19 of the Constitution are:
B. India, that is Bharat A. not available at all
H

C. Hindustan B. available to armed forces but not to other

forces
IS

D. Aryavarta
32. The Fundamental Duties were included in the C. available only at the discretion of the chief
Constitution with the idea of: of army staff
JA

A. giving more importance to the Fundamental D. available only according to law made by
Rights Parliament

B. curbing subversive and unconstitutional 36. Which of the following statements is/are not in-
activities dicative of the difference between Fundamental
Rights and Directive Principles?
C. preventing abuse of Fundamental Rights
I) Directive Principles are aimed at promot-
D. giving more power to the executive
ing social welfare, while Fundamental
33. Indian Constitution recognises minorities on Rights are for protecting individuals from
the basis of: State encroachment.
A. religion II) Fundamental Rights are limitations on
B. caste State action, while Directive Principles
are positive instructions for the Govern-
C. population ment to work towards a just socioeco-
D. colour nomic order.

19
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 3. Principles of state policy

III) Fundamental Rights were included in the A. I only

original Constitution, but Directive Prin- B. II only
ciples were added by the first Amend-
ment. C. Both I and II
IV) Fundamental Rights are amendable, but D. Neither I nor II
Directive Principles cannot be amended. 40. The right to constitutional remedies in India is
a vailable to:
A. I and II
A. citizens of India only
B. II and III

ER
B. all persons in case of infringement of any
C. III and IV fundamental right

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

D. I, II and III C. any person for enforcing any of the funda-

D
37. The theory of Fundamental Rights implies: mental rights conferred on all persons
[NDA 1992]
D. an aggrieved individual alone

G
A. sovereignty of the people 41. Match the following: A. Xth Schedule 1: Pro-
B. equality of opportunity for all vision as to the disqualifications on the grounds

N
of defection B. VIIIth Schedule 2. Union, State
C. limited government
and Concurrent Lists C. VIIth Schedule 3. Lan-
D. equality of all before law
A
guages D. Vlth Schedule 4. Related to tribal
areas A B C D
H
38. Which of the following is/are listed among
the Directive Principles in Part IV? I. Equal A. 1 2 3 4
-C
pay for equal work. II. Uniform civil code.
III. Small family norm IV. Education through B. 3 2 1 4
mother tongue at primary level. C. 1 3 2 4
N

A. I, II and III D. 4 2 3 1
YA

B. I and II 42. Which is the competent body to prescribe con-

ditions for acquisition of citizenship? [SSC
C. II and III
(10+2) 2010]
D. I, II, III and IV
RA

A. Election Commission
39. Consider the following statements:
B. President
I) A person who was born on 26th January,
C. Parliament
1951 in Rangoon, whose father was a cit-
NA

izen of India by birth at the time of his D. Parliament and Assemblies

birth is deemed to be an Indian citizen by 43. Separation of the Judiciary from the Executive
descent. is enjoined by:
II) A person who was born on 1st July, 1988 A. Preamble
in Itanagar, whose mother is a citizen of
India at the time of his birth but the father B. Directive Principle
was not, is deemed to be a citizen of India C. Seventh Schedule
by birth. D. Judicial Decision
Which of the statements given above is/are cor- 44. Under Article 368, Parliament has no power to
rect? [CDS 2009] repeal Fundamental Rights because they are:

20
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 A. enshrined in Part III of the Constitution 49. Which language is not recognised in the 8th
Schedule though it is an official language of a
B. human rights
State?
C. transcendental rights
A. English
D. part of bask structure of essential frame-
B. Sindhi
work of the Constitution
45. The ’Union of India’ consists of: C. Sanskrit
D. Kashmiri
I) States
50. Consider the following statements: 2. The Ar-
II) Union Territories ticle 20 of the Constitution of India lays down
III) Acquired Territories that no person shall be deprived of his life and

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

personal liberty except according to procedure
A. l only established by law. 3. The Article 21 of the
B. II only Constitution of India states that no person can

M
be convicted for any offence except for the vio-
C. I and II lation of law in force at the time of the commis-
sion of the act charged as an offence. Which of

RA
D. I, II and III
these statements is/are correct? [CDS 2004]
46. Which of the following is not a condition for
becoming a citizen of India? A. 1 only
A. Birth B. 2 only
RI
B. Acquiring property C. Both 1 and 2
C. Descent D. Neither 1 nor 2
H

D. Naturalisation 51. The total number of Fundamental Duties men-

tioned in the Constitution is:
IS

47. The enforcement of Directive Principles de-

pends most on: A. 9

A. the Courts B. 10
JA

B. an effective opposition in Parliament C. 11

C. resources available to the Government D. 12

52. Fundamental duties enacted in Part IV A of the
D. public cooperation
Constitution are:
48. Which of the following comes under Right to
Equality? 1. Non-discrimination by State on A. enforceable duties and Parliament can im-
grounds of religion or race. 2. Equal protection pose penalties or punishments for the non-
of the laws. 3. Equal pay for equal work. 4. compliance
Equality of opportunity in matters of employ- B. like Directive Principles that: are mandates
ment under the State. to people
A. I, II and III C. like Fundamental Rights that are enforce-
able
B. II, III and IV
D. no more than meant to create psychologi-
C. II and IV
cal consciousness among the citizens and of ed-
D. I, II and IV ucation value
21
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 3. Principles of state policy

53. Which of the following were added to the Di- A. contains provrsions relating to elections to
rective Principles by amendments to the Consti- Panchayats
tution? I. To protect and improve the environ- B. contains subjects over which Municipali-
ment and safeguard wild life. II. Right of work- ties may have control
ers to participate in management of industries.
III. Right to work IV. To protect and maintain C. contains recommendations relating to estab-
places of historic interest. lishment of State Finance Commission

A. I and III D. was added by the 73rd Amendment Act

58. Freedom of speech and expression are re-

ER
B. II and IV
stricted in the Constitution on grounds of I.
C. I, III and IV defamation II. contempt of court III. protecting

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

a scheduled tribe IV. friendly relations with for-
D. I and II

D
eign states
54. Which of the following is not specifically men-
tioned in Article 19 of the Constitution? A. I, II and III

G
B. II, III and IV
A. Freedom of speech and expression

N
C. I and IV
B. Freedom to assemble peacefully without
arms D. I, II and IV
C. Freedom to move freely A
59. Which of the following statements regarding
the acquisition of Indian citizenship is correct?
H
D. Freedom of the press
A. If citizenship is to be acquired by registra-
-C
55. Which of the following is not a Directive Prin- tion, six months residence in India is essential.
ciple of the State Policy? [CBI 1993]
A. To raise the level of nutrition B. If citizenship is to be acquired by naturali-
N

B. To develop the scientific temper sation the person concerned must have resided
in India for 5 years.
YA

C. To promote economic interests of weaker

sections C. If born in India, only that person can ac-
quire citizenship at least one of whose parents
D. To separate the Judiciary from the Execu- is an Indian.
RA

tive
D. Rules regarding the citizenship of India
56. The purpose of Directive Principles of State shall not be applicable to Jammu and Kashmir.
Policy is to [CDS 2011]
NA

A. lay down positive instructions which 60. What is the minimum permissible age for em-
would guide State Policy at all levels ployment in any factory or mine? [Delhi Police
1994]
B. implement Gandhiji’s idea for a decentral-
ized state A. 12 years
C. check the use of arbitrary powers by the B. 14 years
government C. 16 years
D. promote welfare of the backward sections D. 18 years
of the society 61. With what subject do the Articles 5 to 8 of the
57. The Twelfth Schedule of the Constitution: Constitution of India deal? [CDS 2005]

22
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 A. Details of Indian Union and its territory 66. Which of the following cannot be termed
’Gandhian’ among the Directive Principles?
B. Citizenship
A. Prevention of cow slaughter
C. Fundamental Duties
B. Promotion of cottage industries
D. Union Executive
62. Once the proclamation of emergency is made, C. Establishment of village panchayats
the right of a citizen to move to the Supreme D. Uniform civil code for the country
Court for the enforcement of his fundamental 67. Which of the following factors do not Explain
right is suspended by the: why the rights included in Part III of the Con-
A. Prime Minister of India stitution are called ’fundamental’? I. They are
equally available to citizens and aliens. II. They

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

B. President of India are superior to ordinary law III. They are fun-
C. Speaker of Lok Sabha damental for governing the country. IV. They
are not absolute.
D. Chief Justice of Supreme Court

M
63. If an Indian citizen is denied a public office be- A. II and IV
cause of his religion, which of the following B. I, II and III
Fundamental Rights is denied to him? [Asstt
Grade 1994]
A. Right to Freedom
RA C. I, III and IV
D. III and IV
68. Which one is not correctly matched?
B. Right to Equality
RI
A. Freedom of speech and expression - Include
C. Right to Freedom of Religion freedom of press
D. Right against Exploitation
H

B. Freedom of conscience - Include right to

64. The Fundamental Right to has wear and carry kirpans by Sikhs
IS

been deleted by the Amendment C. Right to Personal liberty - Include right to

Act. carry on any trade or business
A. form associations; 44th D. Right to Equality - Include principles of nat-
JA

B. property; 44th ural justice

C. against exploitation; 42nd 69. Which of the following Directive Principles is
based on Gandhian ideology?
D. private property; 42nd
A. Equal pay for equal work for both men and
65. Which one among the following is not guaran- women
teed by the Constitution of India? [CDS 2011]
B. Uniform civil code for all citizens
A. Freedom to move freely throughout the
country C. Separation of Judiciary from Executive

B. Freedom to assemble peacefully without D. Promotion of cottage industries

arms 70. Which among the following conditions are nec-
essary for the issue of writ of quo warranto?
C. Freedom to own, acquire and dispose of
property anywhere in the country 1. The office must be public and must be cre-
D. Freedom to practice any trade or profession ated by a Statute or by the Constitution it-
self.

23
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 3. Principles of state policy

2. The office must be a substantive one and A. I and II

not merely the function or employment of
B. II, III and IV
a servant at the will and during the plea-
sure of another. C. I and IV
3. There has been a contravention of the con- D. I, II, III and IV
stitution or a Statutory Instrument, in ap- 74. Which of the following are among the Funda-
pointing such person to that office. mental Duties as listed in the Constitution?
Select the correct answer using the code given I) To preserve the heritage of our composite

ER
below: [CDS 2012] culture.
A. 1 and 2 only II) To abide by the Constitution.

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

B. 1 and 3 only III) To strive for excellence in scientific re-

D
search to win international fame.
C. 2 and 3 only

G
IV) To render national service when called
D. 1, 2 and 3 upon to do so.

N
71. According to Article 23, the following are pro-
hibited: A. I, II and III

A. traffic in human beings, beggary, slavery

and bonded labour
A
B. I and II
H
C. I, II and IV
B. monopoly of trade D. II, III and IV
-C

C. sale of incenses 75. Which Article of the Constitution envisages

free and compulsory education for children
D. visit to terrorist infected areas
N

upto the age of 14 years? [Railways 1993]

72. Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of re- A. Article 45
YA

ligion etc. (Article 15 of the Constitution of In-

dia) is a Fundamental Right classifiable under: B. Article 19
[IAS 1995] C. Article 29
RA

A. the Right to Freedom of Religion D. Article 32

B. the Right against Exploitation 76. Which one among the following statements re-
garding the constitutionally guaranteed Right to
C. the Cultural and Educational Rights
NA

Education in India is correct? [CDS 2011]

D. the Right to Equality
A. This right covers both child and adult illit-
73. Which statement/s is/are not correct regarding eracy and’ therefore universally guarantees ed-
the Fundamental Rights? I. Some of these ucation to all citizens of India
rights are not available to the Armed Forces.
B. This right is a child right covering the age
II. They are automatically suspended when any
group of 6 to 14 years and becomes operational
emergency is proclaimed by the President. III.
from the year 2015
The President alone can decide upon modifying
their application to the Armed Forces. IV. They C. This right has been taken from the British
cannot be amended as they form a basic feature Constitution which was the first Welfare State
of the Constitution in the world

24
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 D. This right has been given to all Indian D. The legislation is valid as the Press is not a
children between the ages of 6 to 14 Years un- citizen under Articles 19 of the Constitution
der the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act 81. Which of the following are envisaged as being
77. Which of the following can impose reasonable part of the ’Right against Exploitation’ in the
restrictions on the Fundamental Rights of the Constitution of India? 1. Prohibition of traffic
Indian citizens? in human beings and forced labour. 2. Abo-
A. Supreme Court lition of untouchability. 3. Protection of the
interests of the minorities. 4. Prohibition of
B. Parliament employment of children in factories and mines.
C. President on the advice of the Council of Select the correct answer using the code given
Ministers below: [CDS 2011]

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

D. None of these; the restrictions have already A. 1 and 2
been included in the Constitution
B. 1 and 3
78. Right to Information is [Asstt Commdt 2011]

M
C. 1 and 4
A. fundamental right
D. 2, 3 and 4
B. legal right
C. neither fundamental right nor legal right
D. both fundamental right as well as legal
Right
RA
82. In which case did the Supreme Court restore
the primacy of the Fundamental Rights over the
Directive Principles of State Policy? [CPO SI
2010]
RI
79. On whom does the Constitution confer special A. Golaknath Case
responsibility for the enforcement of Funda-
B. Keshavananda Bharti Case
mental Rights?
H

A. Parliament C. Minerva Mills Case

D. All the above cases
IS

B. Supreme Court
C. President 83. Which one of the following subjects is under
the Union List in the Seventh Schedule of the
D. State legislature
JA

Constitution of India? [IAS 2006]

80. Suppose a legislation was passed by the Parlia-
A. Regulation of labour and safety in mines
ment imposing certain restrictions on newspa-
and oilfields
pers. These included page ceiling, price and
advertisements. The legislation is included in B. Agriculture
the Ninth Schedule to the Constitution of India. C. Fisheries
In this context, which one among the following
statements is correct? [CDS 2012] D. Public health
A. The legislation is invalid as it violates the 84. Which one of the following statements cor-
freedom of Press rectly describes the Fourth Schedule of the
Constitution of India? [IAS 2004]
B. The legislation is valid by virtue of Article
31 B A. It contains the scheme of the distribution of
power between the Union and the States
C. The legislation is invalid as it imposes un-
reasonable restrictions under Article 19(2) of B. It contains the language listed in the Consti-
the Constitution tution

25
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 3. Principles of state policy

C. It contains the provisions regarding the ad- 88. Which of the following statements regarding
ministration of tribal areas the Fundamental Duties as contained in the
Constitution of India is/are correct? 1. They
D. It allocates seats in the Council of States
can be enforced through writ jurisdiction. 2.
85. The Fundamental Duties of Indian citizens They have formed a part of the Constitution
were provided by: since its adoption. 3. They are applicable only
to citizens of India. Select the correct answer
A. an amendment of the Constiution using the code given below: [Asstt Commdt
B. a judgement of the Supreme Court 2011]

ER
C. an order issued by the President A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 2 only

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

D. a Legislation adopted by the Parliament
C. 2 and 3 only

D
86. Which one of the following has been dropped
from the list of personal freedoms enshrined in D. 3 only

G
Article 19 of the Constitution? 89. Which of the following rights are available to
Indian citizens as well as foreigners residing in

N
A. Freedom to assemble peacefully without
arms Indian territory? I. Cultural and Educational
Rights. II. Right to Freedom of religion. III.
B. Freedom to acquire, hold and dispose of
property A
Right against discrimination by the State on
grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of
H
birth. IV. Right to personal liberty.
C. Freedom to reside and settle in any part of
-C
the country A. I and II
D. Freedom to carry on any profession, occu- B. III and IV
pation; trade or business
N

C. II and IV
87. Which of the following statements is/are cor- D. I, II, III and IV
YA

rect? [CDS 2008] Article 26 of the Constitu-

tion of India states that subject to public order, 90. Censorship of the press:
morality and health, every religious denomina- A. is prohibited by the Constitution
RA

tion or any section thereof shall have the right

B. has to be judged by the test of reasonable-
ness
1. to establish and maintain institutions for
religious and charitable purposes. C. is a restriction on the freedom of the press
NA

mentioned in Article 19
2. to manage its own affairs in matters of re-
ligion. D. is specified in Article 31 of the Constitution
3. to own and acquire movable and immov-
able property. 91. Citizenship provisions are enshrined in the
Constitution in:
A. 1 only A. Part II
B. 2 and 3 B. Part II, Articles 5-11
C. 1 and 3 C. Part II, Articles 5-6
D. 1, 2 and 3 D. Part I, Articles 5-11

26
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
92. With reference to the Constitution of India, 97. Article 14 guarantees equality before law and
which one of the following pairs is not correctly equal protection of law to:
matched? Subject - List A. all persons living within the territory of
A. Stock Exchange - State List India
B. Forest - Concurrent List B. all Indian citizens living in India
C. Insurance - Union List C. all persons domiciled in India
D. Marriage and Divorce - Concurrent List D. all persons natural as well as artificial
93. To acquire citizenship by registration a per- 98. The Constitution provides that Hindi shall be:
son must have been resident in India for A. the national language of India
immediately before making an ap-

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

plication: B. the language of communication between the
State Governments
A. six months
C. the official language of the Union of India
B. one year

M
C. three years D. the language of communication between the

RA
D. five years Union Government and the State Governments
94. The right against exploitation prohibits chil- 99. In the Constitution, opportunities for the de-
dren: velopment of scientific temper, humanism and
spirit of inquiry and reform are found in:
A. below 14 years of age from employment in
RI
family businesses A. Fundamental Rights
B. below 14 years of age from being em- B. Preamble
ployed in hazardous occupations
H

C. Fundamental Futies
C. below 14 years from working on family D. Directive Principles
IS

farms
100. Which Article of the Constitution of India
D. from doing all the above says, ’No child below the age of fourteen years
95. The Fundamental individual are: shall be employed to work in any factory or
JA

mine or engaged in any other hazardous em-

A. limited to the State action only
ployment? [IAS 2004]
B. meant to protect persons against the conduct
A. Article 24
of private persons
B. Article 45
C. meant to protect persons against the police
action C. Article 330
D. All of the above are correct D. Article 368
96. In the Constitution of India, promotion of inter- 101. Which one of the following is a human right
national peace and security is mentioned in the: as well as a fundamental right under the Con-
[Asstt Comm 2008] stitution of India? [BPSC 2011]
A. Preamble to the Constitution A. Right to Information
B. Directive Principles of State Policy B. Right to Work
C. Fundamental Duties C. Right to Education
D. Ninth Schedule D. Right to Housing

27
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 3. Principles of state policy

102. Regarding equality before law, the Indian A. Article 5

Constitution makes exceptions in the case of:
B. Article 7
A. the President or a Governor C. Article 8
B. foreign sovereigns only D. Article 9
C. the President only 105. Which of the following Fundamental Rights
D. None is also available to a foreigner on the soil of In-
dia?
103. In which one of the following does the subject

ER
of Co-operative Societies fall? [CDS 2005] A. Equality of opportunity in the matter of
public employment
A. Union List

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

B. Freedoms of movement, residence and pro-
B. State List

D
fession
C. Concurrent List C. Protection from discrimination on grounds

G
D. Residuary Powers Government only of religion, race, caste or sex
D. Protection of life and personal liberty

N
104. Which of the following Articles describes
about the person voluntarily acquiring citizen- against action without authority of law
ship of a foreign state not to be citizens?
A
H
-C
N
YA
RA
NA

28
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
Chapter 4
Constitution, Emergency Provisions

1. Match the following: D. 𝐴 − 3, 𝐵 − 2, 𝐶 − 4, 𝐷 − 1

A. Inter-State 1. Article 315 2. A resolution for the revocation of proclamation

Council of National Emergency may be moved by:
B. Abolition of Ti- 2. Article 280 A. ten members of Rajya Sabha
tles B. ten members of Lok Sabha
C. Administrative 3. Article 263
Tribunals C. ten members of Parliament
D. Union Public 4. Article 323(A) D. one-tenth of total membership of Lok
Service Commis- Sabha
sion
3. While a proclamation of emergency is in oper-
ation in the country, the State Government:
A. 𝐴 − 2, 𝐵 − 4, 𝐶 − 3, 𝐷 − 1
A. cannot legislate
B. 𝐴 − 3, 𝐵 − 2, 𝐶 − 1, 𝐷 − 4
B. can legislate only on subjects in the Concur-
C. 𝐴 − 1, 𝐵 − 2, 𝐶 − 4, 𝐷 − 3 rent List

29
Chapter 4. Constitution, Emergency Provisions

C. can legislate on the subject in the State List 9. Consider the following statements in respect of
financial emergency under Article 360 of the
D. is suspended
Constitution of India:
4. A proclamation of emergency issued under Ar-
ticle 352 must be approved by the Parliament I) A proclamation of financial emergency is-
within: sued shall cease to operate at the expi-
ration of two months, unless before the
A. 1 month
expiration of that period it has been ap-
B. 6 weeks proved by the resolutions of both Houses
of Parliament.

ER
C. 2 months
II) If any proclamation of financial emer-
D. 3 months gency is in operation. it is competent

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

5. National Emergency has been declared so far: for the President of India to issue direc-

D
A. once tions for the reduction of salaries and al-
lowances of all or any class of persons

G
B. twice serving in connection with the affairs of
C. thrice the Union but excluding the Judges of the

N
Supreme Court and the High Courts.
D. four times
Which of the statements given above is/are cor-
6. On the basis of financial crisis Emergency has
been declared by the President of India: A
rect? [IAS 2007]
H
A. not even once A. I only
B. II only
-C
B. in 1962
C. Both I and II
C. in 1971
D. Neither I nor II
N

D. in 1991
10. Every proclamation issued under Article 352
7. Under which Article of the Constitution is the shall be:
YA

President’s rule promulgated on any State in In-

dia? [Bank PO 1994] A. laid before each House of the Parliament

A. 356 B. laid before the Lok Sabha

RA

C. decided by the Prime Minister and con-

B. 352
veyed to the President
C. 360
D. All of the above
D. 370
NA

11. Match the following:

8. Which one of the following Articles of the Con-
A. Article 61 1. Removal of
stitution of India says that the executive power
Deputy Chairman
of every State shall be so exercised as not to im-
of Rajya Sabha
pede or prejudice the exercise of the executive
power of the Union? [IAS 2004] B. Article 67 2. Impeachement
of President
A. Article 257 C. Article 94 3. Removal of Vice
B. Article 258 President
C. Article 355 D. Article 90 4. Removal of
Speaker
D. Article 356
30
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 A. 𝐴 − 2, 𝐵 − 3, 𝐶 − 4, 𝐷 − 1 A. repayment of government debts will stop
B. 𝐴 − 1, 𝐵 − 3, 𝐶 − 4, 𝐷 − 1 B. payment of salaries to public servants will
be postponed
C. 𝐴 − 2, 𝐵 − 1, 𝐶 − 4, 𝐷 − 3
C. salaries and allowances of any class of em-
D. 𝐴 − 3, 𝐵 − 4, 𝐶 − 2, 𝐷 − 1 ployees may be reduced
12. Match the following: D. Union Budget will not be presented
Articles Provisions 15. Which of the following Articles of Indian Con-
stitution guarantees equal opportunities in pub-
A. 19(1)(a) 1. Right to reside
lic employment to persons belonging to SC/ST
and settle in any
and the other minority communities?
part of the country

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

B. 19(1)(c) 2. Right to form A. Article 15
associations or B. Article 16
unions
C. Article 22

M
C. 19(1)(e) 3. Freedom
of speech and D. Article 27

RA
expression 16. While a proclamation of emergency is in op-
D. 19(1)(t) 4. Right to practice eration the duration of the Lok Sabha can be
any profession, or extended for a period [CDS 2012]
carry on any occu- A. not exceeding three months
pation, business or
RI
trade B. not exceeding nine months
C. of one year at a time
H

A. 𝐴 − 3, 𝐵 − 1, 𝐶 − 4, 𝐷 − 2 D. of two years at time

B. 𝐴 − 1, 𝐵 − 2, 𝐶 − 4, 𝐷 − 3 17. A resolution ratifying the proclamation of Na-
IS

tional Emergency requires to be passed:

C. 𝐴 − 3, 𝐵 − 1, 𝐶 − 2, 𝐷 − 4
A. by Parliament
D. 𝐴 − 3, 𝐵 − 2, 𝐶 − 1, 𝐷 − 4
JA

B. by each House of Parliament

13. Proclamation of emergency under Article 352,
when Lok Sabha stands dissolved, has to be ap- C. by both the Houses of Parliament in a joint
proved by: sitting
D. by each House of Parliament in separate sit-
A. Rajya Sabha and then will continue till
tings with majority of total membership of each
the reconstitution of new Lok Sabha which
House and by majority of not less than 2/3rd of
must approve it within 30 days of its first sit-
members present and voting
ting
18. Which Article of Indian Constitution prescribes
B. New Lok Sabha within 6 months of its Con- Hindi in Devanagari script as the official lan-
stitution guage of the Union?
C. Lok Sabha in next session after six months A. 341
D. Rajya Sabha only B. 342
14. When a financial emergency is proclaimed: [I. C. 343
Tax 1994] D. 346
31
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 4. Constitution, Emergency Provisions

19. Part V of the Constitution deals with: I) The Union Government can give direc-
tions to the States about how the executive
I) Union Executive power of the State is to be exercised.
II) Parliament II) The Fundamental Rights stand automati-
III) Supreme Court and High Courts cally suspended.
IV) Comptroller and Auditor-General III) The State Legislature is suspended.
IV) Parliament can make laws with respect to
A. I and II
any subject in the State List.

ER
B. I, II and III
A. I, II and IV
C. I only
B. I, III and IV

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

D. I, II and IV

D
C. I only
20. The Governor recommends to the President of
India that breakdown of Constitutional machin- D. I and IV

G
ery in the State is imminent. The President 24. The provision for Contingency Fund of India as
makes a proclamation under Article 356. The well as for each State has been made under:

N
action of the President:
A. Article 267
A. cannot be reviewed as the President is the
sole judge of his emergency powers
A
B. Article 270
H
C. Parliamentary Legislation
B. cannot be reviewed as the Constitution bars
the courts from reviewing political actions D. Presidential order
-C

C. can be reviewed as it goes against Funda- 25. Article 340 of the Constitution of India pro-
mental Rights vides for the appointment of a Commission to
investigate the conditions for the improvement
N

D. can be reviewed as it is malafide of: [CDS 2004]

21. During the proclamation of National Emer-
YA

A. Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes

gency:
B. Socially and educationally backward
A. all Fundamental Rights are suspended
classes
RA

B. Articles 20 and 21 cannot be suspended

C. Socially and economically backward
C. Article 32 cannot be suspended classes
D. Article 19 cannot be suspended D. Educationally and economically backward
NA

22. The proclamation of emergency at the first in- classes

stance can be restricted to: 26. Provisions of having a UPSC and Public Ser-
A. 3 months vice Commision for States are enshrined in

B. 15 days A. Part XIV, Chapter II, Articles 315-324

C. 6 months B. Part XIV, Chapter I, Articles 308-323

D. 60 days C. Part XIV, Chapter II, Articles 315-323

23. Which of the following is/are resultant of a D. Part XIV, Chapter I, Articles 308-318
proclamation of National Emergency because 27. The President’s rule can be proclaimed in a
of war? State: [CDS 1994]

32
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 A. when a bill introduced by the State Govern- B. the power of the State Legislature to make
ment in the State Legislature is defeated a law which is entitled to make a law under the
Constitution is suspended
B. if the President, on receipt of report from
the Governor of the State is satisfied that a situ- C. a law passed by the Parliament may be
ation is likely to arise in which the Government amended by a State Legislature with prior per-
of the State cannot be carried on in accordance mission of the President
with the provisions of the Constitution D. Parliament can delegate some of its powers
C. if the President, on receipt of a report to the State Legislatures
from the Governor of the State, or otherwise, is 30. Every proclamation issued under Article 356
satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the shall cease to operate at the expiration of:
Government of the State cannot be carried on in

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

A. one month unless before that period it has
accordance with the provisions of the Constitu- been approved by resolution of both Houses of
tion Parliament
D. when the Governor and the Chief Minister

M
B. two months unless before that period it
of a State differ on many matters has been approved by resolution of both Houses
of Parliament

RA
28. During financial emergency, the President can:
C. six months unless before that period it has
I) ask the states to reduce the salaries arid been approved by resolution of both Houses of
allowances of all or any class of persons Parliament
serving in connection with the affairs of
D. three years unless before that period it has
RI
the State
been approved by resolution of both Houses of
II) ask the states to reserve money bills Parliament
H

passed by the state legislature for his con- 31. During a proclamation of emergency due to
sideration the breakdown of constitutional machinery in
IS

III) issue directions to states on financial mat- a State the President can
ters I) assume all powers vested in and exercis-
IV) issue directions for the reduction of able by the Governor
JA

salaries and allowances of persons serv- II) declare that the powers of the State Legis-
ing in connection with the affairs of the lature shall be exercised by Parliament
Union
III) assume certain powers of the High Courts
A. I, II and III IV) suspend by order any or all Fundamental
Rights except those under Articles 20 and
B. I, III and IV 21
C. II, III and IV A. I and II
D. I, II, III and IV B. I and III
29. While a proclamation of emergency is in oper- C. II, III and IV
ation in the country under Article 352:
D. II and IV
A. the Parliament is empowered under Arti- 32. Provisions of the Constitution relating to the
cle 250 to legislate with respect to any matter in administration of scheduled areas and tribes in
the State List Schedule V:

33
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 4. Constitution, Emergency Provisions

A. may be altered by the Governor 37. Which is not a correct statement regarding fi-
B. may be altered by Parliament by amend- nancial emergency?
ment requiring two-thirds majority A. President can ask States to follow a certain
C. cannot be altered canon of financial propriety

D. may be altered by Parliament by ordinary B. The States may be asked to reserve the
legislation money bills for the consideration of the Pres-
ident
33. The President’s rule is imposed for the period
of: C. President can suspend the normal alloca-

ER
tion of revenues
A. 3 months
D. President can reduce the salaries of civil ser-

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

B. 6 months vants and not judges

D
C. till the next election is held 38. In case of proclamation of emergency on
D. it depends upon the President’s wish grounds of war or external aggression:

G
34. National emergency can be declared by the A. all Fundamental Rights will be automati-
President only cally suspended

N
I) on grounds of war B. the right to move a court for enforcement of
II) on grounds of external aggression
A
any Fundamental Right is suspended
C. the President may order the suspension of
H
III) on grounds of internal disturbance
enforcement of any Fundamental Right except
IV) on the written recommendation of the Article 20-21
-C
Union Cabinet
D. Parliament may authorise suspension of all
A. I and II Fundamental Rights
N

B. I, II and III 39. Match the following:

A. Abolition of Un- 1. Article 24
YA

C. I, II and IV
D. I, II, III and IV touchability
B. Abolition of Ti- 2. Article 23
35. The duration of proclamation of Financial
tles
RA

Emergency is:
C. Prohibition of 3. Article 17
A. at the first instance one month Child labour
B. at the first instance two months D. Prohibition of 4. Article 18
NA

Traffic in human
C. at the first instance six months
beings
D. at the first instance one year
36. Emergency can be proclaimed: A. 𝐴 − 3, 𝐵 − 4, 𝐶 − 2, 𝐷 − 1
A. in whole of the country B. 𝐴 − 2, 𝐵 − 4, 𝐶 − 1, 𝐷 − 3
B. only in that part of country where actual ag- C. 𝐴 − 3, 𝐵 − 4, 𝐶 − 1, 𝐷 − 2
gression has taken place D. 𝐴 − 1, 𝐵 − 3, 𝐶 − 2, 𝐷 − 4
C. in any part of the country 40. The rule of passing resolution by 2/3rd major-
D. in the entire country or any part of terri- ity of total number of members of the House of
tory of India Parliament is applicable in the case of:

34
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 A. amendment of the Constitution 43. According to Article 164(1) of the Constitution
of India, in three States there shall be a Minis-
B. approval of proclamation of emergency
ter in charge of tribal welfare who may in ad-
C. impeachment of President dition be in charge of the welfare of the Sched-
uled Castes and Backward Classes. Which one
D. disapproval of proclamation of emergency
of the following States is not covered by the Ar-
41. Match the following: ticle? [CDS 2009]

A. National Emer- 1. Article 356 A. Jharkhand

gency B. Punjab
B. Constitutional 2. Article 360 C. Madhya Pradesh
Emergency

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

C. Financial Emer- 3. Article 352 D. Orissa
gency 44. The President can issue proclamation of emer-
gency:

M
A. 𝐴 − 1, 𝐵 − 2, 𝐶 − 3 A. on the advice of Prime Minister
B. 𝐴 − 2, 𝐵 − 1, 𝐶 − 3 B. on the advice of Council of Ministers
C. 𝐴 − 2, 𝐵 − 3, 𝐶 − 1
D. 𝐴 − 3, 𝐵 − 1, 𝐶 − 2
42. Match the following:
RA C. in his own decision
D. when the decision of Union Cabinet for
the issuance of such proclamation has been
RI
communicated to him in writing
A. Part I 1. Fundamental 45. After approval by’ both Houses of Parliament,
Rights the proclamation of emergency issued by the
H

B. Part III 2. Panchayati Raj President shall be valid:

C. Part IX 3. Citizenship
IS

A. for period of six months

D. Part II 4. The Union and
B. for an indefinite period unless revoked by
its Territory
the subsequent proclamation
JA

A. 𝐴 − 4, 𝐵 − 2, 𝐶 − 3, 𝐷 − 1 C. for an indefinite period if both Houses of

Parliament approves the proclamation after ev-
B. 𝐴 − 3, 𝐵 − 1, 𝐶 − 2, 𝐷 − 4 ery six months
C. 𝐴 − 2, 𝐵 − 3, 𝐶 − 1, 𝐷 − 3 D. for further period of two months only
D. 𝐴 − 4, 𝐵 − 1, 𝐶 − 2, 𝐷 − 3

35
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 5
The union executive

1. The pardoning power given to the President of C. President

India under Article 72 can be exercised:
D. Speaker
A. only after the trial and on the sentence of
3. Which of the following appointments is not
conviction
made by the President of India?
B. during or after trial but never before trial
A. Speaker of the Lok Sabha
C. at any time before, during or after the trial
B. Chief Justice of India
C. Chief of the Air Force
D. either before or after the trial but never dur-
ing the trial of the case D. Chief of the Army
2. The Vice-President’s letter of resignation is to 4. When can a President use his discretion in ap-
be addressed to the: pointing the Prime Minister?
A. Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha A. In all circumstances
B. Chief Justice of India B. In no circumstances

36
 C. Only when the Lok Sabha has been dis- powers and duties of his office or for any act
solved done or purporting to be done by him in exer-
cise of those powers and duties
D. When no political party enjoys a clear
majority in the Lok Sabha D. No civil proceedings whatsoever shall be
5. Which of the following groups take/takes part instituted against the President in any court dur-
in the election of the President of India? ing the term of his office
8. In which of the following situations does the
I) All Members of Parliament. President act in his own discretion? [Asstt
II) All Members of State Legislative Assem- Grade 1994]
blies.
A. In appointing the Prime Minister
III) Elected members of State Legislative As-

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

B. In returning a proposal to the Council of
semblies.
Ministers for reconsideration
IV) Elected members of State Legislative
Councils. C. Both of the above

M
D. None of the above
A. I and III
9. The Prime Minister, at the time of the appoint-
B. I and II
C. I only
D. III only
RA
ment:

I) need not necessarily be a member of one

of the Houses of Parliament but must be-
come a member of one of the Houses
RI
6. Which of the following is true in context of the
President? within six months.
A. He addresses the first session of the Par- II) need not necessarily be a member of one
H

liament after each general election of the Lok of the. Houses of Parliament but must be-
Sabha and at the commencement of the first ses- come a member of the Lok Sabha within
IS

sion of each year six months.

B. He addresses the first session of Parliament III) must be either a nominated or elected
at the beginning of each year as well as the last member of one of the Houses of Parlia-
JA

session held at the end of each year ment.

C. He addresses the Parliament daily IV) must be an elected member of only Lok
Sabha.
D. None of these
7. The Constitution guarantees the following priv- A. I only
ileges to the President of India: B. I and III
A. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted C. II only
against the President in any court during his
D. IV only
term of office
10. The position of the Vice-President of India re-
B. No process for the arrest or impeachment
sembles, to a great extent, the position of the
of the President shall be issued from any court
Vice-President of:
during his term of office
A. USA
C. The President shall not be answerable to any
court for the exercise and performance of the B. Russia

37
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 5. The union executive

C. Italy C. uniformity of representation of the different

States
D. New Zealand
11. Who among the following’ are appointed by the D. All the above
President of India? [IAS 1994] 14. Who among the following is directly responsi-
ble to Parliament for all matters concerning the
I) Chairman, Finance Commission Defence Services of India?
II) Deputy Chairman, Planning Commission
A. Cabinet Committee on political affairs
III) Chief Minister of a Union Territory
B. President

ER
A. I only C. Prime Minister

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

B. I and II D. Defence Minister

D
C. I and III 15. Which of the following regarding the election
of the President is correct?

G
D. II and III
12. Which of the following is not true regarding the A. A candidate securing the majority of

N
election of the President? votes is not automatically elected
A. The voting power of an MLA is made pro- B. The Supreme Court has no jurisdiction in
portionate to the population he represents
A
any doubt or dispute arising in connection with
the election of the President
H
B. Voting power of the elected members of the
Parliament is made equal to the voting power of C. The Presidential election cannot take place
-C
all elected members of the Legislative Assem- when one or more State Assemblies stand dis-
blies solved because all the State Assemblies form
part of the Electoral College
C. Voting power of the elected members of
N

Parliament is determined by dividing the to- D. The total value of the votes allotted to both
tal voting power of the State by the number of Houses of Parliament is much more than the to-
YA

elected members of the Parliament tal value of the votes of all the States taken to-
gether
D. The voting power of an elected member
of State Legislative Assembly is determined by 16. The President can be removed by the way of
RA

dividing the total population of the State by the impeachment which can be made only:
total number of members of Vidhan Sabha and A. by the Supreme Court
further dividing the quotient obtained by 1000
B. by the Rajya Sabha
NA

13. Each member of Parliament who participates in

the Presidential election is entitled to cast as C. by the Members of Lok Sabha and Rajya
many votes as are obtained by dividing the total Sabha through impeachment
number of votes of the Legislative Assemblies D. cannot be impeached
of all the States by the total number of elected
members of the two Houses of Parliament. This 17. In the election of the President, each Member
ensures: of the electoral college has:

A. parity between the voting strengths of the A. one vote

States and the Parliament B. as many votes as there are candidates
B. parity among the States C. one vote with value attached to it

38
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 D. one vote with value attached to it and he 21. In case a President dies while in office, the
can give as many preferences as there are can- Vice-President can act as President for a maxi-
didates mum period of:
18. Which of the following statements regarding A. 2 years
the pardoning powers of the President is/are not
B. 1 year
correct?
C. 3 months
I) He has the pardoning power in respect of
sentence by court martial. D. 6 months

II) He can grant reprieve and respite in case 22. In the election of the President, the value of
of punishment for an offence against any the vote of the Lok Sabha members: [Railways

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

law of the land, Union or State. 1991]

III) He alone can pardon a sentence of death. A. is same

IV) His exercise of the power of pardon is B. differs according to the geographical size of

M
open to judicial review. the respective State
C. differs according to the number of votes a

RA
A. I and III member represents
B. II and III D. None of the above
C. I and IV 23. Mark the correct response:
D. II and IV
RI
A. The President has power to remove the
19. Which is .true regarding the President of India? Prime Minister but not any of his ministers un-
less so advised by the Prime Minister
H

I) He is the Chief Executive.

B. The President has power neither to re-
II) He is the Supreme Commander of the move the Prime Minister nor any of his minis-
IS

armed forces. ters unless the Prime Minister loses the support
III) He is the titular head of the State. of majority in Lok Sabha and tenders his resig-
nation
JA

IV) He is part of the Union Legislature.

C. The President can remove Prime Minister
A. I and III the moment he loses his majority in the Lok
Sabha
B. I and II
D. The President has a power to remove any of
C. II, III and IV
the ministers at his pleasure
D. I, II, III and IV
24. The candidate for Vice-Presidential election
20. What function is specifically prescribed by the must possess the qualifications prescribed for
Constitution for the Vice-President of India? the Presidential candidate except that ne must
be:
A. Vice-Chancellorship of Universities
A. a citizen of India
B. Chairman of Rajya Sabha
B. over 35 years of age
C. To assist the President in times of Emer-
gency C. holding no office of profit under the Gov-
ernment
D. None of the above is correct
39
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 5. The union executive

D. qualified to be a member of the Rajya II) The President of India cannot appoint
Sabha anyone as Union Minister not recom-
25. The value of a vote of a Member of Parliament mended by Prime Minister.
for the election of the President is determined
Which of the statements given above is/are cor-
by dividing the:
rect? [CDS 2005]
A. nation’s population as per the latest census
A. I only
by the number of Lok Sabha members
B. nation’s population as per the latest census B. II only

ER
by the total strength of the two Houses of Palia- C. Both I and II
ment
D. Neither I nor II

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

C. the total value of votes of members of all
29. Which one of the following powers can be exer-

D
the State Legislative Assemblies by the elected
cised by both the President and the Governor?
Members of the two Houses of Parliament

G
A. Power to pardon a sentence by court martial
D. particular State’s population as per the lat-
est census by the number of Members of Par-

N
liament elected from that State B. Power to remit a sentence in an offence re-
26. If a resolution impeaching the President is lating to a matter on the State List
passed, the President is considered to have been
removed: A
C. Power to commute a sentence of death in
H
certain circumstances
A. from the date on which the resolution is D. Power to remit a sentence by court martial
-C
passed
30. Which of the following is not true regarding the
B. once the Chief Justice of India takes out an payment of the emoluments to the President?
order to the effect
N

A. They do not require any parliamentary sanc-

C. as soon as the Gazette of India notifies it tion
YA

D. once the new incumbent is elected B. They can be reduced during a Financial
27. An individual who is not a member of either Emergency
House of Parliament can be appointed a mem-
RA

C. They are shown separately in the budget

ber of the Council of Ministers, but he has to
become a member of either House within a pe- D. They are charged on the Contingency
riod of: [RRB 1991] Fund of India
NA

A. 1 month 31. The minimum age required for becoming the

Prime Minister of India is:
B. 2 months
A. 25 years
C. 3 months
D. 6 months B. 30 years

28. With reference to the Constitution of India, C. 40 years

consider the following statements: D. 35 years
I) The Council of Ministers of the Union are 32. The only instance when the President of India
responsible to both the Houses of Parlia- exercised his power of veto related to the: [IAS
ment. 1993]

40
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 A. Hindu Code Bill 37. The President of India is:
B. PEPSU Appropriation Bill A. Commander-in-Chief of Defence Forces
C. Indian Post Office (Amendment Bill) B. Supreme Commander of Armed Forces
D. Dowry Prohibition Bill C. Head of the Government
33. Which of the following Chief Justices of India D. Supreme Commander of Defence Forces
has acted as President of India? of the Union and Executive Head of the Union
A. M. Hidayatullah 38. Which of the statements given above is/are cor-
rect? [Asstt Comm 2008]
B. P.B. Gajendra Gadkar
C. P.N. Bhagwati I) When Vice-President acts as President of

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

India, he ceases to perform the function of
D. All of the above the Chairman of Rajya Sabha.
34. The Ministers are individually responsible to:
II) The President of India can promulgate Or-

M
A. the President dinances at any time except when both
B. the House of the people Houses of Parliament are in session.

C. the Prime Minister

D. the House of which they are members
35. The only President of India who was elected
unopposed is: [CDS 1992]
RA A. I only
B. II only
C. Both I and II
D. Neither I nor II
RI
A. Dr. S. Radhakrishnan 39. Consider the following Vice-President of India:
B. Dr. Zakir Hussain
H

1. V.V. Giri
C. Neelam Sanjiva Reddy 2. M. Hidayatullah
IS

D. Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed 3. B.D. Jatti

36. Which of the following statements is/are True? 4. G.S. Pathak
JA

I) Disputes related to election of a President Which one of the following is the correct
are decided by the Supreme Court. chronology of their tenures? [CDS 2009]
II) Disputes related to vacancy in the elec- A. 1-4-3-2
toral college are settled by the Election
Commission. B. 2-1-3-4
III) In case the election of a President is de- C. 3-2-1-4
clared void by the Supreme Court, the acts D. 4-1-3-2
performed by a President before the data
40. Though the President is not a Member of Par-
of such decision of the court get invali-
liament, he performs certain functions as an in-
dated.
tegral part of the Parliament. Which are these?
A. I, II and III
I) He can dissolve the Lok Sabha.
B. I and III II) He accords assent to the bills passed by
C. I only Parliament.
D. III only III) He summons both Houses of Parliament.

41
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 5. The union executive

IV) He orders elections to the Parliament I) Presidential election is held before the ex-
when its term is over. piration of the term of the outgoing Presi-
dent.
A. I, II, III and IV
II) The term of the President’s office can be
B. I, II and III extended if general elections for any As-
sembly are not held due to an emergency.
C. I and II
III) If the term of any President is cut short
D. II, III and IV by reason of his death, resignation or re-
41. When charge against the President is preferred moval, then the election of next President

ER
by either’ House of Parliament and is being in- should be held within three months of the
vestigated by other House: occurence of the vacancy.

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

A. the President has a right to appear and to be IV) The Indian Constitution is silent on the

D
represented at such investigation number of times a person can be re-
elected President.

G
B. the President has no right to appear and to
be represented at such investigation A. I, II, III and IV

N
C. the President has a right of representation B. I, II and III
but he does not have a right of personal hearing

A
C. III and IV
D. I and IV
H
D. the President has a right to appear and to
be represented either personally or through a le- 45. Which of the following powers is not enjoyed
-C
gal practitioner by the President of India in the event of emer-
gency proclaimed under Article 352 of the Con-
42. A resolution for impeaching the President can stitution? [Asstt Grade 1991]
N

be moved after at least fourteen days’ notice

signed by: A. He can suspend the enforcement of Funda-
mental Rights
YA

A. not less than 50 members of the House

B. He is authorised to direct any State to exer-
B. not less than one-third of the total number cise its Executive power in a particular manner
of members of the House
RA

C. not less than one-fourth of the total num- C. He is authorised, during the recess of Lok
ber of members of the House Sabha, to allow expenditure from the Consol-
idated Fund of India pending sanction of the
D. at least 100 members of Lok Sabha and 50
NA

Parliament
members of Rajya Sabha
D. He is authorised to dissolve the Rajya
43. In the event of the resignation or death of the
Sabha and Lok Sabha
Prime Minister:
46. Minimum age required to contest for Presi-
A. the Ministry is dissolved dentship is: [Rallways 1992]
B. fresh general elections must take place A. 30 years
C. the Cabinet may choose another leader B. 35 years
D. the President decides what to do C. 23 years
44. Which of the following statements are true? D. 21 years

42
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
47. Consider the following statements about the A. The same electoral college which elects the
powers of the President of India: President

1. The President can direct that any mat- B. Members of the Rajya Sabha
ter on which decision has been taken by C. An electoral college consisting of mem-
a Minister should be placed before the bers of Parliament
Council of Ministers.
D. Members of Parliament at a joint Meeting
2. The President can call all information re- 51. When the Chairman of Rajya Sabha acts as
lating to proposals for legislation. President, the duties of the Chairman are per-
3. The President has the right to address and formed by:
send messages to either House of the Par- A. himself

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

liament.
B. a newly elected Chairman
4. All decisions of the Council of Ministers
relating to the administration fo the Union C. the Deputy Chairman
must be communicated to the President.

M
D. a member of Rajya Sabha deputed by the
Chairman
Which of the statements given above are cor-
52. If the President wants to resign from office, he

RA
rect? [CDS 2011]
may do so by writing to the:
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
A. Vice-President
B. 1 and 3 only
B. Chief Justice of India
C. 2 and 4 only
RI
C. Prime Minister
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
D. Speaker of Lok Sabha
48. An election to fill a vacancy in the office
H

53. The Chief Minister of a State in India is not eli-

of Vice-President occurring by reason of his
gible to vote in the Presidential election if: [IAS
death, resignation or removal, has to be held:
IS

1993]
A. within six months of the occurence of the
A. he himself is a candidate
vacancy
B. he is yet to prove his majority on the floor
JA

B. within a year of the occurrence of the va- of the Lower House of the State Legislature
cancy
C. he is a member of the Upper House of the
C. as soon as possible after the occurrence State Legislature
of the vacancy
D. he is a caretaker Chief Minister
D. after the expiration of the term if the re-
54. Who among the following enjoys the rank of a
maining period is less than three months
Cabinet Minister of the Indian Union?
49. In practice the policy of the Government is
shaped by: A. Deputy Chairman, Rajya Sabha
B. Deputy Chairman of the Planning Com-
A. all the ministers
mission
B. the Prime Minister
C. Secretary to the Government of India
C. the Cabinet
D. None of the above
D. special committees 55. The executive power is vested in the President
50. Who elects the Vice-President? but it is actually used by him on the advice of:

43
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 5. The union executive

A. the Prime Minister 60. Which of the following statements is/are cor-
B. the Council of Ministers rect? [CDS 2010]

C. Parliament I) A registered voter in India can contest

an election to Lok Sabha from any con-
D. None of the above
stituency in India.
56. Which one among the following” is the basis of
difference between the Parliamentary and Pres- II) As per the Representation of the People
idential system of government? [Asstt Commt Act 1951, if a person is convicted of any
2010] offence and sentenced to an imprisonment

ER
of 2 years or more, this will be disqualifi-
A. Power of Judicial review cation to contest election.

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

B. Method of election of President/Head of
the State A. I only

D
C. Legislative supremacy in law making B. II only

G
D. Relation between the legislature and the ex- C. Both I and II
ecutive D. Neither I nor II

N
57. If a Minister of a State wants to resign, to whom
61. Which one among the following features of the
he should address the letter of resignation?
A. Chief Minister
A
Constitution of India is indicative of the fact
that the real executive power is vested in the
H
B. Speaker of Vidhan Sabha Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Min-
ister? [NDA 2011]
C. Governor of the State
-C
A. Federalism
D. Leader of his political party
B. Representative Legislature
58. When the Vice-President officiates as Presi-
N

dent, he draws the salary of: C. Universal Adult Franchise

YA

A. President D. Parliamentary Democracy

B. Member of Parliament 62. When the Vice-President acts as President he
C. Chairman of Rajya Sabha gets the emoluments of the:
RA

D. Both A and C A. President

59. Mark the correct response: B. Vice-President
A. It is the duty of the Prime Minister to C. Chairman of Rajya Sabha
NA

communicate all decisions of the Council of

D. President in addition to what he gets as
Ministers to the President, whenever he re-
Chairman of Rajya Sabha
quires
63. Which of the following statements is correct?
B. The Prime Minister need not communicate
all decisions to the President A. The President may continue to be a member
of Parliament even after assuming charge of the
C. It is not obligatory on the part of Prime Min-
Presidential office
ister to communicate the decision to the Presi-
dent B. The President is not barred from holding
any other office of profit even after assuming
D. The President cannot compel the Prime
charge of Presidential office
Minister to give the information he has

44
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 C. The President is entitled to use his official A. I and II
residence only on payment of rent fixed
B. I, II and III
D. The emolument and allowances of the Pres-
C. II, III and IV
ident shall not be diminished during his term of
office D. I, III and IV
64. Who acts as the President of India when neither 67. Who was the member of the Rajya Sabha when
the President nor the Vice-President is avail- first appointed as the Prime Minister of India?
able? [Asstt Grade 1992] A. Lal Bahadur Shastri
A. Speakerof Lok Sabha B. Indira Gandhi

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

B. Chief Justice of India C. Morarji Desai
C. Auditor General of India D. Charan Singh
D. Senior most Governor of a State 68. Who can initiate impeachment proceedings

M
against the President of India?
65. Consider the following statements regarding
the Vice-President of India: A. Only Lok Sabha

I) The Vice-President is elected by an elec-

toral college consisting of all the members
of the both Houses of Parliament.
RA B. Rajya Sabha
C. Any Vidhan Sabha
D. Either House of Parliament
RI
II) The Constitution is silent about a person
69. The salary and perquisites of the Prime Minis-
who is to discharge the duties of the Vice-
ter of India are decided by the:
President during the period of vacancy.
H

A. Constitution
Which of these statements is/are correct? [CDS
IS

B. Cabinet
2004]
C. Parliament
A. I only
JA

D. President
B. II only
70. The rank of the different Ministers in the Union
C. Both I and II Council of Ministers is determined by the:
D. Neither I nor II A. President
66. Who among the following are appointed by the B. Prime Minister
President of India? [NDA 1995]
C. Cabinet Secretary
I) Governors of States. D. Speaker of Lok Sabha
II) The Chief Justice and Judges of High 71. Ministers may be chosen from:
Courts.
III) The Chief Justice and the Judges of the I) Lok Sabha
Supreme Court. II) Rajya Sabha
IV) The Vice-President. III) Outside the Legislature

45
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 5. The union executive

A. I only A. The Supreme Command of the Defence

Forces is vested. in the President
B. II only
B. The three Chiefs of Staff (Army, Navy
C. I and II and Air Force) are under the direct control of
D. I, II and III the President

72. The Chief Minister of Union Territory where C. The resoonsibility of National Defence rests
such a set up exists, is appointed by the: with the Union Cabinet

A. President D. All important questions having a bearing on

ER
defence are decided by the Cabinet Committee
B. Prime Minister on Political Affairs under the Chairmanship of

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

the Prime Minister
C. Lt. Governor

D
76. Who among the following has the power to
D. Majority party in Legislature form a new State within the Union of India?

G
73. The President selects as Prime Minister: A. President

N
I) the leader of the party in majority in Lok B. Prime Minister
Sabha. C. Supreme Court
II) anyone he wishes to.
A
D. Speaker of Lok Sabha
H
III) the person who is in a position to win the 77. Which one of the following statements is most
confidence of the majority in Lok Sabha. appropriate?
-C

IV) the leader of the party having a major- A. The President shall be bound by the advice
ity of seats in either Lok Sabha or Rajya of the Prime Minister
Sabha.
N

B. The President shall be bound by the ad-

vice given by the Council of Ministers
A. I only
YA

C. The President shall act on the advice of the

B. III or IV
Prime Minister who shall tender such advice in
C. I or III consultation with his cabinet
RA

D. I, III or IV D. The President shall act in accordance with

the advice of the Council of Ministers and he
74. Which one of the following does not constitute may return such advice for reconsideration
the electoral college for electing the President
NA

of India? [Bank PO 1992] 78. In a parliamentary democracy the:

A. Executive controls the Legislature
A. Elected members of Rajya Sabha
B. Executive and Legislature are strictly sepa-
B. Elected members of Lok Sabha rate
C. Elected members of the Legislative Assem- C. Judiciary controls both Legislature and Ex-
bly of each State ecutive
D. Elected members of the Legislative D. Legislature controls the Executive
Council
79. The legislative powers of the President include
75. Which of the following is not correct? all the following but:

46
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 A. the power-to summon or prorogue the C. when both Houses of Parliament are not
Houses of Parliament in session and President is satisfied that circum-
stances exist which made it necessary for him to
B. the power to summon a joint sitting of the
take the immediate action
Houses to resolve a deadlock
D. in all the above circumstances
C. the power of nominating 12 members to
the Lok Sabha 83. Which one of the following resigned as Vice-
President to contest for the office of the Presi-
D. the right to address either House at any time dent?
and it requires the attendance of members for
this purpose A. Dr. S.Radhakrishnan
80. The power to grant pardons, reprieve or remis- B. V.V. Giri

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

sions of punishment under Article 72 is exer- C. Fakhruddin AIi Ahmed
cised by the President of India:
D. Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy
A. on the advice of the Prime Minister 84. Who among the following have held the office

M
B. on his own as Head of the Union of the Vice-President of India? [IAS 2008]
C. on the advice of Council of Ministers 1. Mohammad Hidayatullah
D. in consultation with the Prime Minister who
tenders his opinion on the advice of his cabinet RA 2. Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed
3. Neelam Sanjiva Reddy
4. Shankar Dayal Sharma
81. Which of the following Emergencies can be de-
RI
clared by the President on his own? A. 1, 2, 3 and 4
B. 1 and 4
I) Emergency on account of armed rebel-
H

lion. C. 2 and 3
D. 3 and 4
IS

II) Financial Emergency.

III) President’s Rule in a State. 85. The five year term of the President is calculated
from the:
A. I only
JA

A. first day of the month he assumes charge

B. III only B. first day of the month following the month
C. I, II and III he assumes charge
D. None of these C. day he assumes charge
82. The President of India is vested with ordinance D. date of his election result
making power by Article 126, He exercises this 86. Collective responsibility of the Cabinet was in-
power: troduced in India by the:
A. when Lok Sabha is not in session and cir- A. Government of India Act, 1935
cumstances .exist which render it necessary for
B. Minto-Morley Reforms
the President to take immediate action
C. Independence Act, 1947
B. when Council of States is not in session and
the President is satisfied that circumstances ex- D. Constitution of India
ist which render it necessary for him to take im- 87. The President may appoint all the following ex-
mediate action cept:

47
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 5. The union executive

A. Prime Minister A. the Government of India

B. Governor B. a State Government
C. High Court judges C. a local authority
D. Rajya Sabha Chairman D. All of the above
88. Consider the following statements:
92. Who has the authority to remove the Vice-
I) In India, the power to promulgate Ordi- President from his office before the expiry of
nances lies with the President only. his term?

ER
II) The power to declare emergency in a State A. Rajya Sabha
in India lies with the President only.

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

B. Parliament
Which of the statements given above is/are cor-

D
C. Lok Sabha
rect? [CDS 2005]
D. Supreme Court

G
A. I only
B. II only 93. Disputes regarding the election of the President

N
and Vice-President are settled:
C. Both I and II
D. Neither I nor II
89. For election of the President, the weightage of A
A. in the Supreme Court
B. by the Election Commission
H
a member’s vote depends on: C. by a Parliamentary Committee
-C
I) the strength of his political party in Par- D. in the Supreme Court of High Courts
liament.
94. The President takes an oath before assuming of-
N

II) the State to which he belongs. fice in the presence of the Chief Justice of India.
III) population represented. If the Chief Justice is not available, he takes the
YA

oath in the presence of:

A. I, II and III
A. the Vice-President
B. I and II
RA

B. the senior-most Judge of the Supreme

C. II and III Court
D. III only
C. the Attorney-General
90. The Union Council of Ministers consists of:
NA

D. Election Commissioner
A. Prime Minister
95. Is the Prime Minister bound to advise the Presi-
B. Cabinet Minister
dent on matters on which his advice is sought?
C. Cabinet Ministers and Chief Ministers of
A. Yes
the States
D. Cabinet Ministers, Ministers of State and B. No
Deputy Ministers C. It is discretionary
91. An ’office of profit’ which disqualifies a per-
D. If the Council of Ministers so desires
son from being a member of the Union or State
Legislature does not include office held under: 96. The Prime Minister:

48
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 A. is head of government A. If both the President and Vice-President re-
sign, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha will act as
B. is the leader of Lok Sabha
President till a new President is elected
C. may change the portfolios of the Ministers B. The Constitution of India prescribes both
at will the minimum and maximum age limits for con-
D. may do all the above testing the Presidential election

97. The executive authority of the Union is vested C. In the event of resignation of the President,
by the Constitution in the: the Vice-President will act as President for the
residual period of the President’s tenure
A. Prime Minister
D. In India, the President is part of the Par-

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

B. President liament
C. Cabinet 102. If the President returns a Bill sent to him for
his assent and the Parliament once again passes
D. Union Legislature

M
the Bill in Its original form, then the President:
98. Appointment of the members of the Council of
A. can once again return the Bill for further re-
Ministers is made by the President:

RA
consideration
A. on the advice of the Prime Minister
B. can ask for a referendum on the Bill
B. in his own discretion C. has to give assent to the Bill
C. on the advice of the Vice- President
RI
D. can seek the opinion of the Supreme Court
D. on the basis of election results on the bill

99. The resolution for removing the Vice-President 103. What is the position of a ’Minister of State’
H

of India can be moved in the: [IAS 2004] in the Central Government? [Teachers’ Exam
1993]
IS

A. Lok Sabha alone

A. He is the nominee of the State Governor
B. either House of Parliament
B. He is the nominee of the State Cabinets
JA

C. Joint Sitting of Parliament

C. He looks after the interests of the State Cab-
D. Rajya Sabha alone inet
100. The Constitution: D. He is a Minister of Central Government
but not a member of the Cabinet
A. is silent on the President’s re-election to the
office 104. The portfolios are allocated to the ministers
by:
B. allows re-election of a person to the Pres-
ident’s post A. the President

C. restricts a person to remain President for B. the Prime Minister

only two terms C. collective decision of the Council of Minis-
D. has been amended to allow a person only ters
one term as President D. individual choice
101. Which of the following is correct? 105. The Prime Minister is:

49
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 5. The union executive

A. elected by Lok Sabha 110. Put in chronological order the following

names of Presidents of India.
B. elected by the Parliament
C. appointed by the President I) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
D. nominated by the party enjoying majority in II) V.V.Giri
Lok Sabha III) Dr. Zakir Hussain
106. If a Minister loses a no-confidence motion,
IV) Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy
then:

ER
A. the Minister resigns A. I, II, III, IV
B. the whole Council of Ministers resigns B. I, III, II, IV

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

C. Lok Sabha is dissolved C. II, I, III, IV

D
D. only Prime Minister and that Minister re- D. I, III, IV, II
sign

G
111. With reference to the Presidential election in
107. Which one of the following statements is cor- India, consider the following statements:

N
rect?
A. Chief Election Commissioner of India holds 1. The nomination paper of a candidate for
his office during the pleasure of the President
A the Presidential election should be signed
by at least 50 electors as proposers and an-
H
B. The Governor of the State holds his office other 50 as seconders.
during the pleasure of the President
2. The prescribed security deposit in the
-C
C. The Prime Minister’ can only be removed Presidential election is Rs.25, 000
by a resolution passed by both Houses of Par-
liament Which of these statements is/are correct? [CDS
N

D. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha can be, re- 2004]

YA

moved at the pleasure of the President A. 1 only

108. Who administers the oath of office to the Pres-
B. 2 only
ident?
RA

A. Chief Justice of India C. Both 1 and 2

B. Speaker of Lok Sabha D. Neither 1 nor 2

C. Prime Minister 112. In the matter of State legislation the President

NA

may:
D. Vice-President
A. exercise only suspensive veto power
109. An ordinance promulagated by the President:
A. will lapse automatically after 2months B. may withhold assent to any bill reserved for
his consideration except money bills
B. will lapse on the expiration of 6 weeks
from the meeting of the Parliament C. withhold his assent to any bill reserved
for his consideration
C. will automatically become a law after 6
months D. directly disallow any bill which he consid-
ers anti national
D. will continue to be in force till it is super-
seded by an Act of the Parliament 113. Which of the following statements is correct?

50
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 A. The Council of Ministers are collectively A. The President of India
responsible to the President of India
B. The Parliament of India
B. The Council of Ministers are collectively
responsible to the Parliament C. The Prime Minister of India

C. The Council of Ministers are collectively re- D. The Union Finance Minister
sponsible to the Lok Sabha 118. Which one of the following statements is cor-
D. The Council of Ministers are collectively rect? [CDS 2005] The Speaker of Lok Sabha
responsible to the Prime Minister can be removed by a resolution passed by:
114. Acts of State done in the name of the Presi- A. a majority of all the then members of Lok
dent of India are required to be countersigned Sabha

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

by way of authentication by:
B. a majority of the then members of both Lok
A. a Minister Sabha and Rajya Sabha
B. the Prime Minister
C. two-thirds majority of the total members of

M
C. the Speaker the Lok Sabha
D. a Secretary to the Government

RA
D. two-thirds majority of the Lok Sabha mem-
115. In Parliamentary Government, Ministers re- bers present and voting
main in office so long as they enjoy:
119. The Prime Minister is said to hold office dur-
A. confidence of the upper house of the legis- ing the pleasure of the President but in reality
lature he stays in office as long as he enjoys the confi-
RI
B. support of the armed forces dence of:
C. confidence of the popular chamber of leg- A. the electorate
H

islature
B. the Lok Sabha
IS

D. popular support
C. the party to which he belongs
116. To elect the President of India, which one of
the following election procedures is used? [IAS D. Parliament
JA

1992] 120. Who among the following Indian Prime Min-

A. System of proportional representation by isters could not vote for himself during the
means of the single transferable vote ’Vote of Confidence’ that he was seeking from
B. Proportional representation through list sys- the Lok Sabha? [CDS 2009]
tem A. VP Singh
C. Collective voting system B. PV Narasimha Rao
D. Secondary voting system C. Chandra Shekhar
117. The authorization for the withdrawal of funds
from the Consolidated Fund of India must come D. Manmohan Singh
from [CSAT 2011]

51
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 6
The Union Legislature

1. The Speaker may be removed: A. 30 days

A. by a resolution of a House passed by the B. 60 days
majority of total membership of the House
C. 90 days
B. by a resolution of the House passed by 2/3rd
majority of members present and voting D. 120 days

C. by a resolution of the House moved after 3. Identify the correct sequence of passing a Bud-
14 days clear notice and passed by majority of get in the Parliament [CDS 2009]
all the then members of the House
A. Vote on Account-Finance Bill-Appropriation
D. by a resolution moved after 14 days notice Bill-Discussion on Budget
and passed by majority of the members present
B. Finance Bill- Appropriation. Bill Discus-
sion on Budget-Vote on Accounts
2. Parliament or a State Legislature can declare a
seat vacant if a member absents himself without C. Discussion on Budget-Vote on Account-
permission from the sessions for: [IAS 1990] Finance Bill-Appropriation Bill

52
 D. Discussion on Budget-Appropriation A. Lok Sabha can be dissolved before 5
Bill-Finance Bill-Vote on Account years
4. How many times was the term of the Lok Sabha B. Lok Sabha can be extended only upto 6
extended upto 6 years? [CPO (SI) 2010] years
A. Once C. Lok Sabha is never dissolved’ before 5
years
B. Twice
D. All members of Lok Sabha are elected Rep-
C. Thrice resentatives
D. Never 9. The Rajya Sabha can have a maximum strength
of: [NDA 1992]
5. Which of the following committees is not cre-

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

ated by the Speaker’s nomination of members? A. 200
A. Committee on Privileges B. 210

M
B. Committee on Petitions C. 250

C. Business Advisory Committee D. 260

D. Committee on Public Undertakings

6. Rajya Sabha is less powerful than Lok Sabha in
terms of its financial powers because:
RA
10. Which of the following Parliamentary Commit-
tees in India acts as ’watch-dog’ on departmen-
tal expenditure and irregularities?
A. Estimates Committee
RI
A. it does not participate in the passing of B. Committee on Public Undertakings
money bill
C. Public Accounts Committee
H

B. No Money Bill can be introduced in Rajya

Sabha D. Committee of Public Assurances
IS

11. Which of the statements given above is/are cor-

C. Both of the above
rect? [Asstt Comm 2008]
D. None of the above
1. No Money Bill can be introduced in the
JA

7. With reference to the conduct of government Parliament without the recommendation

business in the Parliament of India, the term of the President of India.
’closure’ refers to [CDS 2011]
2. The Prime Minister appoints Finance
A. suspension of debate at the termination of a Commission for distribution of taxes be-
day’s sitting of the Parliament tween the Union and the States.
B. a rule of legislative procedure under A. 1 only
which further debate on a motion can be halted
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
C. the termination of a parliamentary session
D. Neither 1 nor 2
D. refusal on the part of the government to
have the opposition look at important docu- 12. The two Houses of Parliament enjoy co-equal
ment. power in all spheres except:

8. Which of the following is correct? I) financial matters

53
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 6. The Union Legislature

II) responsibility of the Council of Ministers A. Chief Minister

III) amendment procedure B. Deputy Speaker
IV) election of President C. Governor

A. III and IV D. President

B. II, III and IV 17. If a person elected to both the Union Parliament
and a State Legislature does not vacate his seat
C. I, II and III in the State Legislature within the stipulated pe-

ER
riod then:
D. I and II
A. his seat in the State Legislature automati-
13. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is elected by:

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

cally becomes vacant

D
A. all the members of Parliament
B. his seat in the Parliament will become va-
B. the people directly cant

G
C. all the members of Lok Sabha C. both the seats will become vacant

N
D. the members of the majority party in the D. he may be debarred from contesting elec-
Lok Sabha tions in the future

A
14. As a result of prorogation which of the follow- 18. What is the correct sequence of the given stages
H
ing is not affected? that a Bill passes through before becoming an
Act?
A. Resolutions
-C

B. Bills I) Getting published in the official gazette.

II) Admitting amendments.
N

C. Motions
III) Reference to a joint committee.
D. Notices
YA

IV) Presidential assent.

15. Which of the following is correct? [IAS 1994]
A. All the members of the Rajya Sabha are A. II, III, IV, I
RA

elected by State Legislative Assemblies B. I, III, II, IV

B. Only a member of the Rajya Sabha can con- C. I, II, III, IV
test for the office of the Vice-President
D. IV, III, II, I
NA

C. While a candidate to the Lok Sabha can

19. The largest committee of Parliament of India
contest from any State in India, a candidate to
is:
the Rajya Sabha should ordinarily be a resident
of the State from where he is contesting A. Public Accounts Committee
D. The Constitution explicitly prohibits the ap- B. Estimates Committee
pointment of a nominated member of the Rajya
C. Committee on Public Undertakings
Sabha to the post of a Minister
D. Joint Parliamentary Committee
16. If the Speaker of the Lower House of a State
wants to resign, his letter of resignation is to be 20. The President nominates 12 members of the
addressed to the: Rajya Sabha according to:

54
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 A. their performance as office bearers of cul- 24. Who among the following have the right to vote
tural societies in the elections to both the Lok Sabha and the
B. their role played in political set up of the Rajya Sabha? [IAS 1995]
country A. Elected members to the Lower House of
C. the recommendations made by the Vice- Parliament
President B. Elected members of the. Upper House of
D. their distinction in the field of science, Parliament
art, literature and social service C. Elected members of the Upper House of
21. Which of the following States sends the maxi- State Legislature
mum number of members to the Rajya Sabha? D. Elected members of the Lower House of

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

A. Uttar Pradesh State Legislature
B. Bihar 25. Who among the following may belong to the
Rajya Sabha but can speak in both the Lok

M
C. West Bengal Sabha and the Rajya Sabha? [CDS 1993]
D. All equal A. Ministers who are members of the Rajya

RA
22. Which of the following conditions must be ful- Sabha
filled before a Bill for altering the area of the
B. Nominated members of the Rajya Sabha
States is introduced in the Parliament?
who may be experts in different fields of knowl-
I) The Bill must be recommended by the edge
RI
President. C. The Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
II) The President should have referred it to
D. Leader of the House in the Rajya Sabha
the concerned State Legislature before
H

recommending it. 26. At present the Rajya Sabha consists of

members.
IS

III) The State Legislature must have given its

consent on the Bill. A. 250
B. 245
A. I and II
JA

C. 238
B. II and III
D. 240
C. I and III
27. A joint sitting may be called:
D. I, II and III
23. Who presides over the Lok Sabha if neither the I) only in case of national emergency.
Speaker nor the Deputy Speaker is available? II) to enable a Constitutional Amendment to
[Asstt Grade 1992] be passed in a hurry.
A. A member of the House of People ap- III) when taxes approved by one House are re-
pointed by the President jected by the other.
B. A member chosen by Council of Ministers
A. I and III
C. The senior most member of the Rajya Sabha
B. II and III
C. I, II and III
D. The senior most member of the Lok
Sabha D. None of these
55
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 6. The Union Legislature

28. Which one of the following is responsible for A. 𝐴 − 1, 𝐵 − 2, 𝐶 − 3

the preparation and presentation of Union Bud-
B. 𝐴 − 2, 𝐵 − 1, 𝐶 − 3
get to the Parliament? [IAS 2010]
C. 𝐴 − 3, 𝐵 − 1, 𝐶 − 2
A. Department of Revenue
D. 𝐴 − 3, 𝐵 − 2, 𝐶 − 1
B. Department of Economic Affairs
32. With reference to Indian Parliament, which one
C. Department of Financial Services of the following is not correct? [IAS 2004]
D. Department of Expenditure A. The Appropriation Bill must be passed by

ER
29. Who among the following fixes the salaries and both the Houses of Parliament before it can be
the allowances of the Speaker of Lok Sabha? enacted into law

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

A. President B. No money shall be withdrawn from the

D
B. Council of Ministers Consolidated Fund of India except under the
appropriation made by the Appropriation Act

G
C. Cabinet
C. Finance Bill is required for proposing
D. Parliament new taxes but no another Bill/Act is required

N
30. How many members of the Rajya Sabha are for making changes in the rates of taxes which
nominated by the President of India? are already under operation
A. 10 A
D. No Money Bill can be introduced except on
H
the recommendation of the President
B. 11
33. The Chairman of Public Accounts Committee
-C
C. 12 is: [CDS 1992]
D. 13 A. elected by Union Cabinet
N

31. Match the following:

B. appointed by Speaker
Parliamentary Meaning C. appointed by President
YA

Terms
D. elected by members of PAC
A. Starred Ques- 1. One asked by
tion a member on mat- 34. The maximum number of representatives of the
RA

ters of public im- States in Lok Sabha is:

portance of an ur- A. 525
gent nature
B. Unstarred 2. One for which B. 530
NA

Question the Concerned C. 545

minister has to
D. 550
lay on the table a
written answer 35. Which one of the following statements is not
C. Short Notice 3. One for which correct? [IAS 2004]
Question an oral answer A. In Lok Sabha, a no-confidence motion
is required to be has to set out the grounds on which it is based
given by a minister
B. In the case of a no-confidence motion in
on the floor of the
Lok Sabha no conditions of admissibility have
House
been laid down in the Rules

56
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 C. A motion of no-confidence, once admitted, A. Contingency Fund of India
has to be taken up within ten days of the leave
B. Public Account
being granted
C. Consolidated Fund of India
D. Rajya Sabha is not empowered to entertain
a motion of no-confidence D. Deposits and Advances Fund
36. Funds belonging to the. Government of India 41. All money received by or on behalf of the Gov-
are kept in: ernment of India are credited to:
A. Consolidated Fund of India A. the Consolidated Fund of India
B. Public Accounts Fund of India B. the Public Account of India’

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

C. Contingency Fund of India C. the Contingency Fund of India
D. All of the above D. Either A or B
37. Rajya Sabha has the exclusive authority to:

M
42. When a resolution for his removal is under con-
A. impeach the Vice-President sideration, the Speaker:

B. intimate impeachment proceedings against

the Chief Election Commissioner
C. recommend the creation of new All India
Services
RA I) does not take part in the proceedings of
the House.
II) has no right to vote.
III) has a right to speak in the House even
RI
D. All of the above though he shall not preside.
38. The representation to States in the Rajya Sabha A. I only
H

is given on the basis of:

B. I and II
IS

A. an equal number of seats to each State

C. II only
B. in proportion to their population
D. III only
C. in proportion to their size
JA

43. Which of the following is not true?

D. in accordance with their resources
A. A person can be a member of both
39. A team of men selected by the party in opposi-
Houses of Parliament
tion to take over the different portfolios in case
the party is able to wrest power is known as: B. There is no bar to a person contesting to as
many seats and as many legislatures as he likes
A. inner Cabinet
B. shadow Cabinet
C. A member of Lok Sabha cannot hold an of-
C. causus fice of profit under the Government
D. prorogation D. The population of a State is not the sole con-
sideration for allotment of seats in the Rajya
40. All revenues received by the Union Govern-
Sabha
ment by way of taxes and other receipts for the
conduct of Government business are credited to 44. The Constitution of India does not mention the
the [CSAT 2011] post of: [CDS 1994]

57
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 6. The Union Legislature

A. the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha II) Approval of emergency proclamation.
B. the Deputy Prime Minister III) No-confidence motion.
C. the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha IV) Constitutional amendment.
D. the Deputy Speaker of the State Legislative A. I and II
Assemblies
45. The distribution of seats of the Parliament are B. II, III and IV
based on which of the following census? C. I, II and IV

ER
A. 1951 D. I, III and IV
B. 1961 50. A Bill for alteration of boundaries of States

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

C. 1971 shall not be introduced in the Parliament. with-

D
out the recommendation of: [Central Excise
D. 1981 1993]

G
46. Which parliamentary committee In India is nor-
A. the presiding officers of both Houses of Par-
mally chaired by a prominent member of the
liament

N
Opposition?
B. the legislatures of the States concerned
A. Committee Assurances
B. Estimates Committee
A
C. Supreme Court
H
C. Privileges Committee D. President

D. Public Accounts Committee 51. After a no confidence motion is admitted to the

-C
Lok Sabha, who decides a date for the debate?
47. Which authority recommends the principles
governing the grants-in-aid of the revenues of A. President
N

the States out of the Consolidated Fund of In- B. Vice-President

dia? [Asstt Grade 1994]
YA

C. Lok Sabha Speaker

A. Public Accounts Committee
D. Prime Minister
B. Union Ministry of Finance
52. Who is considered the guardian of the Public
RA

C. Finance Commission
Purse?
D. Inter State Council
A. Parliament
48. Which of the following committees does not
consist of any member from the Rajya Sabha? B. Comptroller and Auditor General
NA

A. Estimates Committee C. Public Accounts Committee

B. Public Accounts Committee D. The President

C. Public Grievances Committee 53. A member of Parliament has immunity from ar-
rest, means:
D. Committee on Public Undertakings
A. a member of Parliament cannot be ar-
49. In which areas is concurrent action of Lok
rested and put in prison in, a civil action within
Sabha and Rajya Sabha required?
a period of 40 days before the commencement
I) Removal of Comptroller and Auditor- of the session and 40 days after the termination
General. of the session

58
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 B. a member of Parliament cannot be prose- IV) Bills passed by both Houses and sent to
cuted in criminal proceedings the President for his assent.
C. an MP cannot be detained preventively V) Bills returned by President for reconsider-
ation.
D. an MP cannot be arrested for the contempt
of court A. I, II and III
54. Which of the following is true regarding the
B. I, III, IV and V
’No Confidence Motion’ in the Parliament?
C. II, III and IV
1. There is no mention of it in the Constitu-
tion. D. I, IV and V

2. A period of 6, months must lapse between 57. What type of Party system has been evolved in

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

the introduction of one No Confidence India?
’Motion and another. A. Single Party

M
3. At least 100 persons must support such B. Bi-Party
motion before it is introduced in the
House. C. Multi-Party

4. It can be introduced in the Lok Sabha

only.

A. 2 and 4
RA
D. Party less
58. Which of the following committees exist only
in the Lok Sabha?
RI
I) Business Advisory Committee.
B. 1, 2, 3, and 4
II) Committee on Private Members Bill and
C. 1, 2, and 3
Resolutions.
H

D. 1 and 4
III) Committee on Petitions.
IS

55. Who among the following decides whether a

IV) Committee on Assurances.
particular bill is a Money Bill or not? [Asstt
Grade 1994] V) Estimates Committee.
JA

A. President A. I, II and III

B. Speaker of Lok Sabha B. III and IV
C. Chairman of Rajya Sabha C. II and V
D. Finance Minister D. II, IV and V
56. Which of the following matters are not affected 59. The Chairman of the Public. Accounts Com-
in case of dissolution of the Lok Sabha? mittee of the Parliament is appointed by:
I) A bill originating and pending in the Ra- A. Prime Minister
jya Sabha.
B. President
II) Pending notices, motions and resolutions
C. Finance Minister
in the Lok Sabha.
III) A joint sitting of Parliament if notification D. Speaker of Lok Sabha
of such a sitting has been given before the 60. At a joint sitting of Parliament a bill has to be
dissolution. passed

59
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 6. The Union Legislature

A. by a simple majority of the total number of 64. The Annual Financial Statement is caused to be
members of both Houses laid before both Houses of Parliament by the:
B. by a two-thirds majority of the total number A. President
of members of both Houses
B. Speaker
C. by a simple majority of the total number
of members of both Houses present and voting C. Vice-President

D. by a two-thirds majority of the total number D. Finance Minister

of members of both Houses present and voting 65. Joint sittings of the two Houses of Parliament

ER
61. Which of the following statements regarding are held to: [Railways 1994]
the Esstimates Committee are correct?
A. elect the President of India

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

I) No member of the Rajya Sabha is associ-

D
B. elect the Vice-President of India
ated with it.
C. adopt a Constitution amending Bill

G
II) It has twenty members.
III) Its members are elected in accordance D. consider and pass a Bill on which two

N
with the system of proportional represen- Houses disagree
tation for a period of one year. 66. Which one of the following is the largest Com-
IV) The Speaker nominates one of its mem-
bers to be its Chairman. A
mittee of the Parliament? [CDS 2009]
H
A. The Public Accounts Committee
A. I, II and III B. The Estimates Committee
-C

B. I, III and IV C. The Committee on Public Undertakings

C. I, II and IV D. The Committee on Petitions
N

D. II, III and IV 67. With regard to the powers of the Rajya Sabha,
YA

62. Which of the following can be abolished, but which one among the following statements is
not dissolved? [IAS 1991] not correct? [CDS 2012]
A. Rajya Sabha A. A money Bill cannot be introduced in the
RA

B. Municipal Bodies Rajya Sabha

C. State Legislative Council B. The Rajya Sabha has no power either to re-
ject or amend a Money Bill
D. None of the above
NA

C. The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the An-

63. When the annual Union Budget is not passed
nual Financial Statement
by the Lok Sabha? [CSAT2011]
D. The Rajya Sabha has no power to vote on
A. the Budget is modified and presented again
the Demands for Grants
B. the Budget is referred to the Rajya Sabha for
suggestions 68. Consider the following statements: [IAS 2004]

C. the Union Finance Minister is asked to re- 1. The Speaker of Lok Sabha has the power
sign to adjourn the House sine die but, on pro-
D. the Prime Minister submits. The resigna- rogation, it is only the President who can
tion of Council of Ministers summon the House.

60
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 2. Unless sooner dissolved or there is an ex- II) Estimates Committee.
tension of the term, there is an automatic III) Committee on Public Undertakings.
dissolution of the Lok Sabha by efflux of
time, at the end of the period of five years, A. I and III
even if no formal order of dissolution is
B. I and 11
issued by the President.
3. The Speaker of Lok Sabha continues in C. II and III
office even after the dissolution of the D. I, II and III
House and until ’Immediately before the 72. One-third of the members of the Rajya Sabha
first meeting of the Hous’. Which of the retire after every:
statements given above are correct?
A. One year

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

A. 1 and 2
B. Second year
B. 2 and 3
C. Third year

M
C. 1 and 3
D. Fifth year
D. 1, 2 and 3 73. If the Rajya Sabha rejects a Money Bill, then
69. Who among the following has the final power
to maintain order within the House of People?
A. Marshal of the House
RA which of the following is correct?
A. Lok Sabha may or may not accept its rec-
ommendation
B. Prime Minister B. Lok Sabha may not consider it at all
RI
C. Speaker C. President calls a joint session for passing of
D. Chief of Security Staff the Bill
H

70. Which of the following is true regarding the D. Bill is sent for further consideration
IS

Vice-Chairman of the Rajya Sabha? [Railway 74. Which of the following is concerned with the
Apprentices 1993] regularity and economy of expenditure of gov-
A. One has to be a member of the Rajya ernment?
JA

Sabha for election to die post of the Vice- A. Public Accounts Committee
Chairman
B. Estimates Committee
B. One need not necessarily be a member of
the Rajya Sabha for election to the post of the C. Business Advisory Committee
Vice-Chairman D. Committee on Offices on Profit
C. One has to be a member of either House ’of 75. To which of the following Bills the President
Parliament for election to the post of the Vice- must accord his sanction without sending it
Chairman back for fresh consideration? [I. Tax 1992]
D. There is an established convention that the A. Ordinary Bills
Vice-Chairman of the Rajya Sabha belongs to
B. Finance Bills
the main opposition party in the Rajya Sabha
71. Which of the following are Financial Commit- C. Bills passed by both the Houses of the Par-
tees of Parliament in India? [IAS 1992] liament
D. Bill seeking Amendment to the Constitution
I) Public Accounts Committee.

61
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 6. The Union Legislature

76. Who was the first speaker of the Lok Sabha? A. 10

A. Malgaonkar B. 15
B. P. Upendra C. 20
C. Anantha Sayanam Ayyanagar D. 25
D. Hukam Singh 81. Which of the following is true? [CDS 1992]
77. Members of the Rajya Sabha are elected ac- A. The Chairman and Deputy Chairman, both
cording to: [Delhi Police 1994] are not members of Rajya Sabha

ER
A. Cumulative Vote System B. In the election of President, nominated
B. Single Non-transferable Vote System members of State Legislative Assembly. do not

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

take part while in the election of Vice-President
C. Single Transferable Vote System

D
they take part
D. None of the above C. In the 1992 election of President of India,

G
78. If an unqualified or disqualified person sits and the members of Union Territories participated
votes in Parliament: for the first time

N
A. he is liable to be prosecuted and jailed D. India follows the British convention that the
Finance Minister should be a member of Lower
B. he may be fined Rs.500 per day of his so
sitting
A
House
H
C. he may be imprisoned by the House 82. On what grounds can a person be disqualified
as a voter?
D. nothing can be done
-C

79. Consider the following statements: I) Unsoundness of mind

II) Corrupt or illegal practice
N

1. The expenditure to be incurred by the

Government and the revenue to be col- III) Crime
IV) Non-residence
YA

lected by way of taxes must be approved

by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya
Sabha. A. I, III and IV
2. The charge of impeachment against the B. I, II and III
RA

President of India can be brought about by C. II, III and IV

only Lok Sabha and not Rajya Sabha.
D. I, II, III and IV
Which of the statements given above is/are cor- 83. Which one of the following statements regard-
NA

rect? [CDS 2005] ing the office of the Speaker is correct?

A. 1 only A. He holds office during the pleasure of the
B. 2 only President
C. Both 1 and 2 B. He needs not be a member of the House at
the time of his election but has to become a
D. Neither 1 nor 2
member of the House within 6 months from the
80. According to the Constitution of India the max- date of his election
imum number of members representing the
Union Territories in the Lok Sabha cannot ex- C. He loses his office if the House is dissolved
ceed: [CDS 1992] before the expiry of its term

62
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 D. If he intends to resign, the letter of his A. Kangra
resignation is to be addressed to the Deputy
B. Kachchh
Speaker
C. Ladakh
84. Parliament’s expenditure is controlled by:
D. Bhilwara
A. President
90. Match the following:
B. Finance Commission
C. National Development Council A. Business Advi- 1. Looks into the
sory Committee mode of public ex-
D. Comptroller and Auditor General penditure
85. The term of the Lok Sabha: B. Select Commit- 2. Examines the

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

A. cannot be extended tee veracity of budget
estimates
B. can be extended for another full term of 5 C. Estimates Com- 3. Considers a bill
years

M
mittee and submits to the
C. can be extended for an unlimited period House a report on
it

RA
D. can be extended by 1year at a time
D. Public Accounts 4. Prepares time
86. After the House is dissolved, the Speaker: Committee table for the whole
A. is removed from the office immediately session

B. remains as Speaker until the first meeting

RI
A. 𝐴 − 1, 𝐵 − 2, 𝐶 − 3, 𝐷 − 4
of the House of People after the dissolution
B. 𝐴 − 2, 𝐵 − 3, 𝐶 − 4, 𝐷 − 1
C. has to submit his resignation to the Presi-
H

dent of India within 24 hours C. 𝐴 − 3, 𝐵 − 1, 𝐶 − 2, 𝐷 − 4

D. can continue as Speaker for the period of 30 D. 𝐴 − 4, 𝐵 − 3, 𝐶 − 2, 𝐷 − 1
IS

days only 91. The privileges enjoyed by the members of Par-

87. The Rajya Sabha can be dissolved by: liament individually include:
JA

A. Lok Sabha A. freedom of arrest in all cases

B. Constitutional amendment B. freedom of attendance as witness while
Parliament is in session
C. President
C. unlimited freedom of speech
D. None of the above
88. Who is the ex-officio Chairman of Rajya D. All of the above
Sabha? 92. The Rajya Sabha has a life of: [Railways 1991]
A. President A. 2 years
B. Vice-President B. 6 years
C. Minister of Parliamentary Affairs C. 7 years
D. Leader of Opposition D. Permanency
89. Which one of the following is the largest (area 93. The Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha can
wise) Lok Sabha constituency? [IAS 2008] be removed by a resolution:

63
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 6. The Union Legislature

A. passed by 2/3rd majority of its total mem- A. Leaving the opposition to join the party
bers present in power or vice-versa by a Parliamentarian
B. passed by a simple majority of its total B. An attempt to occupy the seat of some other
members present Parliamentarian
C. moved by Rajya Sabha but passed by Lok C. Leaving a House by a minister in between
Sabha in order to attend the other House
D. None of the above D. Walk out by some Parliamentarians in order
94. The first woman film star nominated/ elected to to boycott the proceedings of the House

ER
the Rajya Sabha was: 98. Who is authorised to decide over a dispute re-
A. Nargis Dutt garding disqualification of a member of Parlia-

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

B. Vyjayanthimala ment?

D
C. Hema Malini A. Election Commissioner

G
D. Jayalalitha B. Speaker of Lok Sabha
95. The quorum required to hold meetings of the C. President

N
legislative chambers is what fraction of the to-
D. A Committee set up by the Parliament
tal membership of the House? [CBI 1993]
A. 1/3 A
99. Which Union Territories are represented in Ra-
jya Sabha at present?
H
B. 1/4
I) Delhi
-C
C. 1/6
II) Puducherry
D. 1/10
III) Lakshadweep
N

96. The Parliament legislates on a State subject if:

IV) Chandigarh
I) the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by
YA

two-thirds majority that to do so is in the A. I, II and IV

national inter
B. II and III
II) during times of gency.
RA

III) when the legislatives of two or more C. I, II, III and IV

States resolve that it is lawful for Parlia- D. I and II
ment to do so.
100. Consider the following statements:
NA

IV) a treaty or international agreement has to

be implemented. 1. The Chairman of the Committee on Pub-
lic Accounts is appointed by the Speaker
A. I, II and III of the Lok Sabha.
B. I, III and IV 2. The Committee on Public Accounts com-
C. II and III prises Members of Lok Sabha, Members
of Rajya Sabha and a few eminent persons
D. I, II, III and IV
of industry and trade.
97. Which of the following best defines the Parlia-
mentary term ’Crossing the Floor’? [SBI PO Which of the statements given above is/are cor-
1991] rect? [IAS 2007]

64
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 A. 1 only A. Speaker cannot be removed without a 2/3rd
majority of the total membership of the House
B. 2 only
B. The decision of the Speaker whether a par-
C. Both 1 and 2
ticular Bill is a Money Bill is not final unless
D. Neither 1 nor 2 ratified by the President
101. When the Lok Sabha is dissolved, the Speaker C. No court of law can go into the merits of
continues in office till a new: a ruling given by the Speaker
A. Lok Sabha is formed D. Not all the proceedings of the House are ad-
B. Speaker is appointed by the President dressed to the Speaker
105. By ‘charged’ expenditure is meant:

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

C. Speaker is elected when the new House
meets A. expenditure from the Consolidated Fund
D. Government is formed of India which is non-votable

M
102. Representatives of union Territories in Lok B. expenditure incurred for which payment is
Sabha are chosen by: pending

A. direct elections
B. indirect elections
C. nomination
RA C. expenditure that the President can incur
without Parliament’s approval
D. the sum required to meet all expenditure
proposed to be made from the Consolidated
RI
D. All the above means Fund of India

103. Which of the following statements are not 106. How many members of the Lok Sabha must
H

true? support a motion of ’no confidence’ in the

government, before it can be admitted by the
IS

I) The Rajya Sabha has no power to reject or Speaker?

amend a Money Bill.
A. 20
II) The Speaker of Lok Sabha has sole and fi-
JA

B. 25
nal power of deciding whether a Bill is a
Money Bill. C. 35
III) In the creation of All-India Services the D. 50
Lok Sabha has more powers than the Ra-
jya Sabha. 107. In which of the Parliamentary Financial Com-
mittees is the Rajya Sabha not represented?
IV) In 1976 the Money Bill was introduced in [SSC (10+2) 2010]
the Rajya Sabha.
A. Public Accounts Committee
A. II and III
B. Estimates Committee
B. I and IV
C. Committee on Public Undertakings
C. I and II
D. Expenditure Committee
D. III and IV
108. Which of the following are not privileges en-
104. Which of the following is correct? joyed by members of Parliament individually?

65
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 6. The Union Legislature

I) Freedom from being arrested in civil A. Providing the Cabinet and holding them re-
cases during and 40 days before and after sponsible
the continuance of a meeting of the House B. Criticising government policy
of Committee of which he is a member.
C. Formulating policy for national develop-
II) Freedom from being summoned without
ment
the leave of the House, to give evidence as
a witness while Parliament is in session. D. Securing relevant information on govern-
ment action
III) Unlimited freedom of speech providing
immunity from court action for anything 112. Which House is better placed with regard to

ER
said in the House. control over the executive?

IV) Freedom to publish debates and proceed- A. Lok Sabha

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

ings of the House. B. Rajya Sabha

D
A. I and III C. Both are equally placed

G
B. II and IV D. It depends from which House the Prime
Minister comes

N
C. III and IV
113. An Appropriation Bill:
D. II, III and IV
109. What is the minimum age for being the mem- A I) is necessary to draw money from the Con-
solidated Fund of India.
H
ber of the Parliament? [NABARD 1991]
II) cannot be amended to vary the amount of
A. 21 years any charged expenditure.
-C

B. 25 years III) Includes only the expenditure charged on

the Consoliated Fund of India.
C. 30 years
N

IV) is required to withdraw money from the

D. 35 years Contingency Fund of India.
YA

110. Consider the following statements on Finan-

cial Bill and say which is/are correct? A. I and III
B. I, II and III
I) It is the sameasa Money Bill.
RA

C. I and II
II) It can be introduced only in the Lok
Sabha. D. I, II, III and IV
III) It can be amended in the Rajya Sabha. 114. Which of the following is incorrect in respect
NA

of parliamentary control over the Budget? [IAS

IV) It cannot be introduced except on the rec- 1993]
ommendation of the President.
A. Parliament has no say in the preparation
A. I only of the Budget
B. II and IV B. Parliament has the power to increase expen-
diture charged on the Consolidated Fund
C. II, III and IV
C. Parliament has no power to impose a tax
D. III and IV without the President’s recommendation
111. Which of the following is not a function of D. Parliament cannot increase a tax without the
Parliament in India? President’s recommendation
66
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
115. Which of the following actions are not per- D. elected by the members of the Legislative
formed by the President? Assemblies and Legislative Councils of States
A. Proroguing Parliament 120. Amongst the following, for whose removal
Parliament’s resolution is not needed?
B. Convening a joint sitting if requested
A. Chief Election Commissioner
C. Dissolving the Rajya Sabha
B. Governor of a State
D. Causing the Budget to be laid before Parlia-
C. Judge of Supreme Court
ment
116. A dissolution does not affect: D. Comptroller and Auditor General
121. Which of the following statements is correct?
A. a bill that originated in the Rajya Sabha and

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

sent to Lok Sabha A. No member of Parliament can be pro-
ceeded in a court of law for any disclosure he
B. a bill that originated in the Lok Sabha but makes in Parliament
has been sent to Rajya Sabha

M
B. A member of Parliament is protected for
C. a bill that originated in the Rajya Sabha any defamatory speech he makes in the Parlia-
but has not yet been sent to the Lok Sabha ment and then circulates its copies to the public
D. Any of the above
117. State which of the following statements is in-
correct:
RA C. A member of Parliament is protected for
any speech he makes in the Parliament
A. A Money Bill deals .with imposition, remis- D. A member of Parliament has absolute free-
RI
sion, alteration or regulation of tax dom of speech
122. Which one among the following is a func-
B. A Money Bill deals with regulation borrow-
H

tion of the Pro-Tem Speaker of the Lok Sabha?

ing money or giving of any guarantee by the
[COS 2011]
Government
IS

A. Conduct of the proceedings of: the House

C. A Money Bill deals with the money of the
in the absence of the Speaker
Consolidated Fund
B. To check if the election certificates of the
JA

D. A Money Bill is one which provides for members of the House are in order
the imposition of fines or fees
C. Swear in the members of the House and
118. Who was the first leader of the Opposition in
hold the charge till a regular Speaker is elected
the Rajya Sabha?
D. Give his assent to the bills passed by the
A. Y.B. Chavan House
B. Bhola Paswan 123. The budget in normal circumstances, is pre-
C. Kamlapati Tripathi sented to the Parliament on:

D. CM. Stephen A. The last day of February

119. The members of the Rajya Sabha are: B. 15th March

C. The last day of March
A. elected indirectly
D. 1st April
B. mostly nominated
124. The Union Territories get representation in:
C. elected directly as well as indirectly [Asstt Grade 1991]

67
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 6. The Union Legislature

A. Lok Sabha 128. In India, the system of proportional represen-

tation is used for:
B. Rajya Sabha
C. both Houses of Parliament I) election to the office of the President.
II) election to the office of Vice-President.
D. None of the above
III) election of the members of the Rajya
125. What is ’zero hour’?
Sabha.
A. When the proposals of the opposition are IV) by elections
considered

ER
A. I, II and III
B. When matters of utmost importance are
raised B. I and 11

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

C. Interval between the morning- and after- C. III and IV

D
noon sessions D. I, II, III and IV
D. When a Money Bill is introduced in the Lok 129. If a Money bill passed by the Lok Sabha is

G
Sabha not returned by the Rajya Sabha within four-
teen days, then: [CDS 2004]

N
126. Which of the following is incorrect?
A. Lok Sabha will reconsider it
A. Newspapers can publish Parliamentary pro-
ceedings
A
B. Money Bill will be rejected
H
B. Newspapers can publish any part of pro- C. President will summon a joint meeting of
ceedings with the permission of the Speaker both the Houses to discuss it
-C

C. Newspapers have also the freedom to D. The Bill will be sent to the President for
publish expunged portions of the speech of an his signature and consent
MP 130. What is the minimum age for election/ap-
N

pointment as member of the Rajya Sabha?

D. Parliament has freedom to publish its pro-
[RRB 1994]
YA

ceedings
A. 35 years
127. Consider the following statements on Parlia-
mentary Committees: [CDS 2008] B. 30 years
RA

1. Members of the Rajya Sabha are not asso- C. 25 years

ciated with the Committees on Public Ac- D. 40 years
counts and Public Undertakings. 131. When can the Speaker exercise his right to
NA

2. Members of the Committee on Estimates vote in the House?

are drawn from both the Lok Sabha and A. Whenever he desires
the Rajya Sabha.
B. Whenever the House desires
Which of the statements given above is/are cor- C. Only in the event of equality of votes
rect?
D. Whenever his party directs
A. 1 only 132. With reference to Indian Public Finance, con-
B. 2 only sider the following statements: [IAS 2004]
C. Both land 2 1. Disbursements from Public Accounts of
D. Neither 1 nor 2 India are subject to the Vote of Parliament.

68
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 2. The Indian Constitution provides for the 135. Which of the following is true?
establishment of a Consolidated Fund, a
Public Account and a Contingency Fund I) A Bill pending in Rajya Sabha which has
for each State. not been passed by Lok Sabha lapses on
the dissolution ofLok Sabha.
3. Appropriations and disbursements under
the Railway Budget are subject to the II) If the President has notified about his in-
same form of parliamentary control as tention to summon a joint sitting on a Bill,
other appropriations and disbursements. the Bill does not lapse even if the Lok
Sabha is dissolved after the notification.
Which of the statements given above are cor-
rect? A. I only

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

A. 1 and 2 B. II only

B. 2 and 3 C. Both I and II

C. 1 and 3 D. Neither I nor II

M
136. A Money Bill passed by the Lok Sabha has to
D. 1, 2 and 3
be passed/returned by Rajya Sabha within:

RA
133. Which of the following correctly reflects the
A. 14 days
position of the Upper House of the State Legis-
lature as compared to the position of the Upper B. 21 days
House of the Parliament? C. 1 month
RI
A. 1/3rd members of Rajya Sabha retire every D. 3 months
second year while 1/4th members of Legislative
Council retire every 18 months 137. Consider the following statements:
H

B. There is no provision for a joint sitting 1. Salary and allowances of the Speaker for
of the Legislative Assembly and the Legislative Lok Sabha are charged on the Consoli-
IS

Council in the States for resolving deadlocks dated Fund of India.

While there is such a provision in the case of 2. In the Warrant’ of Precedence, the
the two House of Parliament Speaker of Lok Sabha ranks higher than
JA

C. While no Bill other than a Money Bill can all the Union Cabinet Ministers other than
originate in the State Legislative Council, no Prime Minister.
Bill can originate in the Rajya Sabha
Which of the statements given above is/are cor-
D. While Rajya Sabha has 12 nominated mem- rect? [NDA 2008]
bers, the State Legislative Council has none
A. 1 only
134. In the case of a deadlock between the two
B. 2 only
Houses of the Parliament, the joint sitting is
presided over by the: [NDA 1994] C. Both 1 and 2
A. President D. Neither 1 nor 2
B. Vice-President 138. Prorogation of the House means:

C. Speaker of Lok Sabha A. a House has been brought in session

D. Member of the Lok Sabha specifically B. the session of the House has been termi-
elected for the purpose nated

69
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 6. The Union Legislature

C. the House itself stands terminated II) The President shall address both Houses
of Parliament assembled together at the
D. None of the above
commencement of the first session after
139. Consider the following statements: each general election to the Lok Sabha.

1. A Bill pending in the Legislature of 3 III) Provision is to be made by rules regulat-

State shall not lapse by reason of the pro- ing the procedure of either House for al-
rogation of the House or Houses thereof. lotment of time for discussion of the mat-
ters referred to in the President’s address.
2. A Bill pending in the Legislative Council

ER
of a State which has not been’ ’passed by A. I and II
the Legislative Assembly shall not lapse
B. II and III

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

on dissolution of the Assembly.
C. I and III

D
Which of the statements given above is/are cor-
rect? [NDA 2008] D. I, II and III

G
142. The Estimates Committee:
A. 1 only

N
A. consists of 30 members appointed by the
B. 2 only
Speaker
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2 A
B. consists of 15 members each from Lok
Sabha and Rajya Sabha
H
140. Article 75 includes among its provisions: C. has its members elected according to the
-C
system of proportional representation
1. Prime Minister is to be appointed by the
President. D. has a Union Minister as its Chairman
N

2. The Council of Ministers shall be collec- 143. The Indian parliamentary system is different
tively responsible the Lok Sabha. from the British parliamentary system in that
YA

India has: [IAS 1998]

3. The President may appoint a non-member
as Prime Minister who must become a A. both a real and a nominal executive
member of Parliament before the expira- B. a system of collective responsibility
RA

tion of six months.

C. bicameral legislature
4. The Ministers shall hold office during the
pleasure of the Prime Minister. D. the system of judicial review
NA

144. The quorum for Joint Sitting of the Indian Par-

A. 1 and 2 liament is [CDS 2009]
B. 3 and 4 A. One-twelfth of the .total number of mem-
C. 2 and 3 bers of the House

D. 1 and 4 B. One-sixth of the total number of members

of the House
141. Under Article 87:
C. One-tenth of the’ total number of mem-
I) The President may address either House bers of the House
of Parliament and require the attendance D. Two-third of the total number of members
of members for that purpose. of the House
70
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
145. Under which of the following conditions secu- C. The Rajya Sabha has to pass Bills within 14
rity deposits of a candidate contesting for a Lok days after they are passed by the Lok Sabha
Sabha seat is returned to him/her? D. The Rajya Sabha may pass or return the
I) The nomination made by the candidate if Money Bill with some recommendations to the
found to be invalid. Lok Sabha
149. Which of the following features restrict the au-
II) The candidate has withdrawn his/her
thority of Parliament in India?
nomination even through it is found valid.
III) The candidate lost the polls but secured I) A written Constitution clearly prescribes
1/6th of the total number of valid votes its scope of operation.
polled in that election. II) The Supreme Court can strike down a law

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

passed by Parliament if it contravenes any
Select the correct answer using the code given
of the Constitutional provisions.
below [CDS 2009]
III) Parliament is limited by the incorportation
A. I and II

M
of the Fundamental Rights in the Consti-
B. I, II and III tution.

RA
C. II and III A. I, II and III
D. I only B. I and III
146. The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha is: [Asstt C. II only
Grade 1992]
D. None as Parliament is sovereign in India
RI
A. elected by the members of Rajya Sabha 150. Who among the following was never the Lok
B. nominated by the President Sabha Speaker? [IAS 2004]
H

C. elected by members of both Houses of A. K.V.K. Sundaram

Parliament
IS

B. G.S. Dhillon
D. elected by Parliament and State Legisla- C. Balirarn Bhagat
tures jointly
D. Hukarn Singh
JA

147. Which of the following States has the largest

151. Under which of the following circumstances
percentage of reserved parliamentary seats?
an elected member of Parliament may be dis-
[Teachers’ Exam 1993]
qualified on the ground of defection? [IAS
A. Orissa 1992]
B. Bihar I) If he voluntarily gives up his membership
C. Uttar Pradesh of a political party.
D. Madhya Pradesh II) If he votes or abstains from voting con-
trary to any direction issued by his polit-
148. Of the following statements, which one is not ical party without prior permission of the
correct? [BPSC 2011] political party.
A. The Rajya Sabha is powerless in money III) If he speaks against the political party.
matter
IV) If he joins a political party other than the
B. Money Bills originate in the Rajya Sabha party on whose ticket he contested and got
elected.

71
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 6. The Union Legislature

A. I, II and III 157. Which one of the following pairs is not cor-
B. I, III and IV rectly matched? Parliamentary Standing Com-
mittee Chaired by
C. I, II and IV
A. Public Accounts Committee - Member of
D. II, III and IV Opposition
152. What is the minimum percentage of seats a B. Committee on Public Undertakings - Lok
party should get to be recognised as the opposi- Sabha member
tion party in the legislature?
C. Committee on Private Member’s Bill and

ER
A. 20% Resolutions - Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha
B. 15% D. Business Advisory Committee - Finance

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

C. 10% Minister

D
D. No such limit 158. In normal times, the Union Parliament:
153. The Public Accounts Committee submits its A. can legislate on any item in the State List if

G
report to [BPSC 2011] the President so desires

N
A. the Comptroller and Auditor- General B. can legislate on any item in the State List if
the Lok Sabha passes a resolution to that effect
B. the Speaker of the Lok Sabha
C. the Minister of Parliamentary Affairs
A
by 2/3rd majority
C. can legislate on any item in the State List
H
D. the President of India if the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution to that
154. Parliament is empowered to get all the follow- effect by 2/3rd majority
-C

ing removed except: D. cannot legislate on any item in the State List
A. Comptroller and Auditor General
N

B. Supreme Court Judges 159. The time gap between two sessions of the Par-
liament should not exceed:
YA

C. Chairman of UPSC
A. 3 months
D. High Court Judges
B. 6 months
155. The Lok Sabha is called in session for at least
RA

how many times in a year? C. 9 months

A. Twice D. 1 year
160. Who, according to the Anti-Defection Act, is
B. Once
the final authority to decide whether a member
NA

C. Thrice of Lok Sabha has incurred disqualification due

D. Four times to defection?
156. A Member of Parliament can claim immu- A. Speaker
nity: B. President
A. both from civil as well as criminal cases C. Election Commission
B. from civil cases only D. High Court
C. from criminal cases only 161. Which of the following is the correct sequence
D. cannot claim immunity either from civil or of the grades of officers in the Central Secre-
from criminal cases tariat?

72
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 1. Secretary 166. Consider the following statements:
2. Additional Secretary 1. The Rajya Sabha alone has the power to
3. Joint Secretary declare that it would be in national interest
4. Deputy Secretary for the Parliament to legislate with respect
to a matter in the State List.
5. Under Secretary
2. Resolution approving the Proclamation of
6. Director Emergency are passed only by the Lok
Sabha.
A. 1, 2, 3, 6, 4, 5
B. 2, 1, 3, 5, 4, 6 Which of the statements given above is/are cor-
rect? [IAS 2006]

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

C. 6, 4, 3, 5, 2, 1
A. 1 only
D. 1, 5, 4, 2, 6, 3
B. 2 only
162. The Lok Sabha Secretariat comes under the

M
direct supervision of: C. Both 1 and 2
A. Ministry of Human Affairs D. Neither 1 nor 2

RA
B. Minister of Parliamentary Affairs 167. The first no confidence motion moved in the
Lok Sabha after independence was in the year:
C. Speaker of Lok Sabha
A. 1954
D. President
B. 1960
RI
163. How many times can the President of India re-
turn a Non-money Bill, passed by Parliament? C. 1963
A. Twice D. 1975
H

B. Once 168. If a member of Parliament voluntarily ac-

quires the citizenship of a foreign country:
IS

C. Thrice
A. he will be penalized
D. Never
B. he will continue to be a member of Parlia-
JA

164. The maximum strength of the nominated ment

members in both the Houses of Parliament can
be: C. he will be disqualified from membership

A. 10 D. he will have a choice of renouncing either

169. While a proclamation of Emerqency is in op-
B. 12
eration, the duration of the Lok Sabha can
C. 14 be extended by not exceeding [Asstt Commdt
D. 20 2011]
165. Which of the following non-members of Par- A. three months
liament has the right to address it? B. nine months
A. Solicitor-General of India C. one year at a time
B. Chief Justice of India D. two years at a time
C. Attorney General of India 170. What is the difference between ”vote-on-
D. Chief Election Commissioner account” and ”interim budget”?

73
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 6. The Union Legislature

1. The provision ofa ”vote-on-account” is 172. Which of the following is incorrect?

used by a regular Government, while an
A. Prorogation of the House has the effect of
”interim budget” is a provision used by a
wiping out the pending business
caretaker Government.
2. A ”vote-on-account” only deals with B. Adjournment of the House does not affect
the expenditure in Government’s budget, the pending business and the same may be
while an ”interim budget” includes both taken up in the next sitting
expenditure and receipts. C. The power of summoning and prorogation
of the House is vested in the President, though

ER
Which of the statements given above is/are cor-
it is exercised on the aid and advice of the Prime
rect? [CSAT 2011]
Minister and Council of Ministers

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

A. 1 only
D. Dissolution of Lok Sabha means that pend-

D
B. 2 only ing business is wiped out
C. Both 1 and 2 173. Whose function is it to see that no money is

G
D. Neither 1 nor 2 spent out of the Consolidated Fund of a State
without the authority of the legislature?

N
171. The total number of members in a Legislative
Council should not exceed that of a Legislative A. Public Accounts Committee
Assembly by:
A. 1/3 A
B.
dia
Comptroller and Auditor-General of In-
H
B. 2/3 C. Finance Commission
-C
C. 1/2 D. None of the above
D. 1/4
N
YA
RA
NA

74
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
Chapter 7
The Judiciary

1. In which of the following cases appeals cannot A. Supreme Court

be lodged with the Supreme Court?
A. Constitutional matters involving a substan-
tial point of law B. President
B. A sentence in a criminal case given by the
lower court and confirmed by the High Court
C. Criminal case in which High Court has C. Chief Justice of India
given a death sentence J a criminal found non-
guilty by a lower court
D. Criminal case in which High Court after D. A bench of High Court Judges
withdrawing a case from the lower court, has
given a death sentence
2. If the Parliament passes a law which is against
the Constitution, it can be declared as unconsti-
tutional by the: 3. Match the following:

75
Chapter 7. The Judiciary

A. Mandamus 1. Direction to an 6. Which one of the following pairs is correctly

official for the per- matched?
formance of a duty A. Writ of Habeas Corpus - available against
B. Habeas Corpus 2. Release of an private individual as well
illegally detained
person B. Writ of Quo Warranto - available against
subordinate courts only
C. Certiorari 3. Transferring of a
case from an infe- C. Writ of Prohibition - available against au-
rior court to a court tonomous bodies only

ER
of higher jurisdic- D. Writ of Certiorari - available against pub-
tion lic servants only

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

D. Quo Warranto 4. Calling upon 7. Consider the following statements:

D
one to show by
what authority he 1. Justice V. R. Krishna Iyer was the Chief

G
holds or claims a Justice of India
franchise or office 2. Justice V. R. Krishna Iyer is considered as

N
one of the progenitors of public interest
A. 𝐴 − 1, 𝐵 − 2, 𝐶 − 3, 𝐷 − 4 litigation (PIL) in the Indian judicial sys-
B. 𝐴 − 3, 𝐵 − 2, 𝐶 − 1, 𝐷 − 4
C. 𝐴 − 4, 𝐵 − 1, 𝐶 − 3, 𝐷 − 2 A tem.
Which of the statements given above is/are cor-
H
rect? [IAS 2008]
D. 𝐴 − 4, 𝐵 − 3, 𝐶 − 2, 𝐷 − 1
-C
4. Judge of the High Court can be removed from A. 1 only
the office during his tenure by: B. 2 only
N

A. the Governor, if the State passes resolution C. Both 1 and 2

by 2/3rd majority
D. Neither 1 nor 2
YA

B. the President, on the basis of resolution 8. Which of the following writs is issued by the
passed by the Parliament by 2/3rd majority court in case of illegal detention of a person?
C. the Chief Justice of Supreme Court on the A. Habeas Corpus
RA

recommendation of Parliament
B. Mandamus
D. the Chief Justice of High Court on recom-
mendation of State Legislature C. Certiorari
NA

5. A civil case becomes a fit case for appeal to the D. Quo Warranto
Supreme Court if: 9. ’Judicial Review’ function of the Supreme
A. it involves a point of Constitutional law Court means the power to: [RRB 1994]
B. the High Court certifies that it involves A. review its own judgement
a point of law and needs interpretation of the B. review the functioning of judiciary in the
Constitution country
C. it involves a sum of money over RS. 10, 000 C. examine the constitutional validity of the
laws
D. the case had come to the High Court under D. undertake periodic review of the Constitu-
an appeal from a subordinate court tion
76
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
10. Which is not an eligibility criterion for appoint- 15. Which of the following, regarding the advisory
ment as a Judge of the Supreme Court? [UDC jurisdiction of the Supreme Court are correct?
1993] [IAS 1994]
A. must have been a High Court Judge for at I) It is binding on the Supreme Court to give
least 5 years its opinion on any matter referred to it by
B. must have attained the age of 55 years the President.
C. must have been an advocate of a High Court II) The full bench of the Supreme Court
for not less than 10 years hears any reference made to it under its
power of advisory jurisdiction.
D. must be in the opinion of the President, a
III) The opinion given by the Supreme Court
distinguished jurist

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

on a reference under advisory jurisdiction
11. A retired Judge of High Court cannot: is not binding on the government.
A. practice in the Supreme Court IV) Not more than one reference at a time can
be made to the Supreme Court under its

M
B. practice in any High Court of India
power of advisory jurisdiction.
C. practice in the High Court from where he

RA
has retired A. I and II
D. practice in any Court of India B. I and III
12. For the enforcement of Fundamental Rights, C. II and III
the Supreme Court may issue a/an: [Stenogra-
D. II and IV
RI
phers’ Exam 1992]
16. Which of the following statements with respect
A. decree to the judiciary in India is/are correct?
H

B. ordinance
1. Unlike in the United States, India has not
C. notification provided for a double system of courts.
IS

D. writ 2. Under the Constitution of India, there is a

13. The pension of a High Court Judge is charged single integrated system of courts for the
Union as well as the states.
JA

to the:
3. The organisation of the subordinate judi-
A. Consolidated Fund of India
ciary varies slightly from state to state.
B. Consolidated Fund of the State where he
last served Select the correct answer using the code given
below: [CDS 2011]
C. Consolidated Funds of the different States
where he has served A. 1 only

D. Contingency Fund of India B. 1 and 2 only

14. Public interest litigation applies to any case of C. 1, 2 and 3
public injury arising from D. 2 and 3 only
A. the breach of any public duty 17. The Chief Justice of a High Court is appointed
by the President in consultation with:
B. the violation of a constitutional provision
C. the violation of the law I) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court.
D. All of the above II) Former Chief Justice of the High Court.

77
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 7. The Judiciary

III) Other Judges of the High Court. A. 1 alone

IV) Governor of the State concerned. B. 1 and 2

A. I and II C. 1, 2 and 3

B. II and III D. 2 and 3

C. I and IV 22. The Judges of the Supreme Court are ap-

pointed:
D. I, III and IV
A. by the President

ER
18. Which one of the following pairs of High
Courts and their seats is not matched correctly? B. by the President in consultation with the
Chief Justice of India

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

A. Karnataka - Bengaluru

D
C. by the President in consultation with the
B. Madhya Pradesh - Bhopal Chief Justice of India and out of the Judges of

G
C. Rajasthan - Jodhpur the Supreme Court and High Court as he may
deem necessary for the purpose
D. Kerala- Ernakulam

N
D. by the President in consultation with Prime
19. Which of the following is true about the Minister
Supreme Court?
A. It has only the Appellate Jurisdiction A
23. The Chief Justice and other Judges of the
H
Supreme Court can be removed from their of-
B. It is the highest federal court of India fice by an order of the President passed after:
-C

C. It does not have the Original Jurisdiction A. an address by each House supported by the
majority of the members present and voting has
D. It can amend the Constitution
N

been presented to him

20. The appropriate writ issued by the court to
B. a resolution of both Houses passed by a
YA

quash the appointment of a person to a public

2/3rd majority of total membership is presented
office is that of:
to him
A. Prohibition
C. a resolution passed by 2/3rd majority of to-
RA

B. Quo Warranto tal membership of Lok Sabha is presented to

him
C. Certiorari
D. an address by each House supported by
D. Mandamus
NA

a majority of total membership of that House

21. Consider the following: and not less than 2/3rd of members present and
voting has been presented to the President
1. Supreme Court’s power to issue writs is
narrower than that of High Courts. 24. Who decides the number of Judges in a High
Court?
2. a citizen is free to approach High Court or
Supreme Court as he chooses, whenever A. State Government
his Fundamental Rights are violated. B. President
3. The law declared by the Supreme Court is
C. Governor of the State
binding on all courts throughout India.
D. Parliament
78
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
25. The right to seek advisory opinion of the 29. Which one of the following comes under the
Supreme Court on any question of law or fact jurisdiction of both the High Court and the
belongs to: Supreme Court?
A. the President A. Disputes between the Centre and the States
B. High Courts B. Disputes between the States
C. the Governor
C. Protection of the Fundamental Rights
D. All of these
D. Protection against the violation of the Con-
26. Who was the Chief Justice of India when pub- stitution
lic interest litigation (PIL) was introduced to the
Indian Judicial System? [IAS 2006] 30. Consider the following statements:

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

A. M. Hidayatullah 1. The Parliament cannot enlarge the juris-
B. A.M. Ahmadi diction of the Supreme Court of India as
its jurisdiction is limited to that conferred

M
C. A.S. Anand
by the Constitution.
D. P.N. Bhagwati
2. The officers and servants of the Supreme
27. Of the following statements, which one is not
correct? [BPSC 2011]
A. Supreme Court was constituted in 1950
B. Supreme Court is the highest court of appeal
RA Court and High Courts are appointed by
the concerned Chief Justice and the ad-
ministrative expenses are charged on the
Consolidated Fund of India.
RI
in the country
Which of the statements given above is/are cor-
C. Supreme Court can hear from any High rect? [IAS 2005]
H

Court/Tribunals except from Court-martial

A. 1 only
D. Supreme Court can hear from any High
IS

Court/ Tribunals as well as from Court-martial B. 2 only

28. The Constitution places the High Courts under C. Both 1 and 2
the control of the Union in certain matters in or-
JA

der to keep them outside the range of regional D. Neither 1 nor 2

politics. The Union exercises its control in the 31. Which of the following is covered under the
matters of: original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?
I) transfer of Judges from one High Court to A. Dispute relating to civil matters
another.
B. Dispute relating to criminal cases involving
II) being able, to establish a common High murder
Court for two or more States.
C. Disputes between two States of the Indian
III) determining disputes as to age of High
Union
Court Judges.
D. Disputes between two citizens from two dif-
A. I only ferent States
B. II and III
32. The rules for regulating the practice and proce-
C. I and II dure of Supreme Court under Article 145 of the
D. I, II and III Constitution are made by the:

79
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 7. The Judiciary

A. President of India A. Disputes between two or more States

B. Supreme Court with the approval of the B. Cases against encroachment on Fundamen-
President of India tal Rights
C. Supreme Court alone C. If one’s property is forcefully occupied
D. Supreme Court in consultation with the Bar by the other
Council of India D. Both A and B above
33. The High Court which has the distinction of 38. A Judge of a High Court wanting to resign ad-
having the first woman Chief Justice is

ER
dresses his letter of resignation to:
A. Allahabad High Court
A. the President

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

B. Delhi High Court
B. the Chief Justice of his High Court

D
C. Himachal Pradesh High Court
C. the Chief Justice of India

G
D. Guwahati High Court
D. the Governor of the State
34. The number of States under the jurisdiction of

N
a High Court is decided on the basis of: 39. The salaries of the Judges of the Supreme Court
of India:
A. area and population to be served
B. funds at the disposal A
A. can never be reduced under any circum-
H
stances
C. intention of the government
B. can be reduced during their term of office
-C
D. number of judges available
C. cannot be reduced during the term of their
35. The concept of Public Interest Litigation origi- office except during a financial emergency
N

nated in: [IAS 1997]

D. are fixed by President of India
A. the United Kingdom
YA

40. The High Courts in India were first started at:

B. Australia
A. Bombay, Madras, Calcutta
C. the United States
RA

B. Delhi and Calcutta

D. Canada
C. Bombay, Delhi, Madras
36. Which of the following is not a power of the
High Court? D. Madras and Bombay
NA

A. Supervision over all courts under its juris- 41. The only Union Territory which has a High
diction Court of its own:
B. Jurisdiction over revenue matters A. Delhi
C. Supervision over tribunals constituted by B. Lakshadweep
law relating to the armed forces
C. Chandigarh
D. Issue writs for enforcement of fundamental
rights or for any other purpose D. Daman and Diu
37. Which of the following cases cannot be filed di- 42. A Judge of the Supreme Court of India is to
rectly in the Supreme Court? [MBA 1994] hold office until he attains the age of:

80
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 A. 58 years A. ask the person to be produced
B. 60 years B. ask to let a person free for a temporary pe-
riod
C. 62 years
C. order to transfer the case from one court
D. 65 years
D. direct the Government to do or not to do
43. The High Court enjoys the power: a thing

I) to issue writs for the enforcement of Fun- 47. If a High Court in India does not give the cer-
damental Rights. tificate to a case that it involves a substantial
question of law, the Supreme Court:
II) to exercise superintendence over the

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

working of courts and tribunals under its A. can never hear the case
jurisdiction. B. does not enter into the picture
III) to make general rules and prescribe forms C. may hear the case if it is satisfied that the

M
regulating the practices and proceeding of case involves a substantial question of law as to
courts under its jurisdiction. the interpretation of the Constitution

A. I and II
B. II and III
C. I and III
RA D. may hear the case if the President calls upon
it to do so
48. Which of the .following amendments curtailed
the power of Judicial review of the Supreme
RI
Court and the High Courts?
D. I, II and III
A. 24th
44. Which is the highest and final judicial tribunal
H

in respect of the Constitution of India? [SBI PO B. 26th

1991]
IS

C. 42th
A. Parliament D. 44th
B. President 49. Which of the following writs is a bulwark of
JA

personal freedom?
C. Supreme Court
A. Mandamus
D. Union Cabinet
B. Habeas Corpus
45. Which of the following is not a qualification for
a person to be the Chief Justice of High Court? C. Quo Warranto

A. He should have been a Judge in any court of D. Certiorari

India for not less than 10 years 50. The Constitution allows preventive detention
but stipulates:
B. He should be a distinguished jurist
A. that no one should be detained beyond
C. He should be a renowned writer in the three months unless an Advisory Board autho-
field of law rises detention beyond that period
D. None of the above B. that the grounds for detention should be
46. Under the writ of ’Mandamus’, the Court can: conveyed to the detenu before arresting him

81
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 7. The Judiciary

C. that the detenu must be produced before the II) The Supreme Court is not bound by its
nearest magistrate within a period of 24 hours earlier decisions
of his arrest III) In its power of judicial review the
D. All of the above Supreme Court can declare a law uncon-
stitutional on the basis of the objectives
51. The minimum number of judges to sit on the
underlying the law.
Constitutional Bench or on Bench which gives
its advisory opinion on the reference by the IV) The Constitution excludes no area from
President must be: judicial review.

ER
A. one half of the total strength of the A. I, II and III
Supreme Court B. I and II

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

B. seven C. II and III

D
C. three D. I, III and IV

G
D. one-third of the total strength of the court 56. The total number of High Courts in India at
present is:
52. The oath to a High Court Judge is administered

N
by the: A. 15
A. Chief Justice of India B. 16
B. Chief Justice of that High Court A
C. 18
H
C. Governor D. 21
57. Which of the following is incorrect regarding
-C
D. President
Supreme Court?
53. The salaries of the Judges of the High Courts
A. It has the power to punish by fine and im-
are paid from the:
N

prisonment any person guilty of contempt of its

A. Funds collected as fees for cases authority
YA

B. Consolidated Fund of the State B. It is a court of record and has all the powers
of such court including the power to punish for
C. Consolidated Fund of India
contempt of itself
RA

D. State revenues
C. Its records are admitted in evidence and
54. The Bombay High Court does not have a bench cannot be questioned when produced in any
at which one of the following places? [CDS Court of Law
2008]
NA

D. It is bound by its earlier decisions and

A. Nagpur cannot depart from its previous decisions
B. Panaji 58. Which is not correct statement? The Supreme
Court:
C. Pune
A. is a watch-dog of citizen’s liberty
D. Aurangabad
B. interprets the Constitution
55. Which of the following statements is/are cor-
rect? C. protects the Directive Principles of State
Policy
I) The Supreme Court’s decrees and orders D. settles electoral disputes of the President
are enforceable throughout India. and Vice-President of India
82
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
59. The Chief Justice and other Judges of the High 64. The Constitution makes provisions to ensure
Court are appointed by the: [NDA 1994] the independence of judges. Which one of the
A. President provisions given below is wrong in this con-
text?
B. Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
A. Though appointed by the President their re-
C. Governor of the concerned state moval is by a difficult process
D. Chief Minister of the concerned State B. Their salaries are charged on the Consoli-
60. Which Judge of the Supreme Court was unsuc- dated Fund of India (or the State)
cessfully sought to be impeached?
C. A retired judge cannot be appointed to
A. Justice H.R. Khanna any office under the Government

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

B. Justice A.N. Grover D. The conduct of a judge cannot be discussed
C. Justice M. Hidayatullah in Parliament except upon a motion regarding
his removal
D. Justice Ramaswami

M
65. What is meant by ’Court of Record’? [I. Tax
61. The power of judicial review ensures:
1994]
A. the supremacy of the Supreme Court

RA
A. The court that preserves all its records
B. that Supreme Court can review its own
B. The court that maintains records of all lower
judgements
courts
C. the constitutionality of laws
C. The court that can punish for its contempt
RI
D. justice by the subordinate courts
D. The court that is competent to give direc-
62. The Constitution of India has ensured indepen- tions and issue writs
dence of judiciary by:
H

66. Who is appointed as an adhoc Judge of the

I) protecting salaries and service conditions Supreme Court?
IS

of judges.
A. A retired Judge of Supreme Court
II) prohibiting the judges from carrying on
practice in courts of law after retirement. B. A sitting Judge of a High Court duly qual-
JA

ified for appointment as a Supreme Court Judge

III) providing Single judiciary.
IV) ensuring security of tenure of judges.
C. An acting Judge of the Supreme Court
A. II, III, IV D. A person fully qualified for appointment as
B. I, II, IV a Judge of the Supreme Court
C. I, II 67. Under a single, integrated, hierarchial judicial
system, the High Courts in the States are di-
D. I, II, III, IV rectly under the:
63. Salaries of the Judges of the Supreme Court are
drawn from the: A. President

A. Grants-in-aid B. Governor of the State

B. Contingency Fund C. Union Parliament

C. Consolidated Fund D. Supreme Court

D. Public Accounts 68. The main sources of law in India are:

83
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 7. The Judiciary

I) The Constitution A. 1 and 2

II) Statutes B. 2, 3 and 4
III) Customary law C. 3 and 4
IV) Judicial decisions of superior courts
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
A. I and II 72. The Supreme Court is a court of record. This
B. I, II and IV implies:

C. II and IV I) it can punish for its contempt.

ER
D. I, II, III and IV II) its decisions are admitted as evidence and
69. To whom does a Judge of the Supreme Court can riot be questioned in any court of law.

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

address his resignation if he wants to leave of- III) it has to keep a record of all the important

D
fice before his term is complete? cases that are conducted in India.

G
A. Chief Justice of India IV) its decisions, once taken, are binding upon
B. Prime Minister it.

N
C. President A. I, II and III
D. Union Law Minister
70. The power to extend or restrict the jurisdiction A
B. I and II
C. I, III and IV
H
of the High Court rests with:
D. I, II, III and IV
A. the President
-C

73. Match the following:

B. the Parliament
C. the concerned State Legislature Jurisdiction of the Cases Covered
N

Supreme Court
D. the Governor A. Original Juris- 1. Advice on any
YA

71. Consider the following statements: diction question of law as

may be referred
1. The highest criminal court of the district is
to the Supreme
the Court of District and Sessions Judge.
RA

Court for con-

2. The District Judges are appointed by the sideration by the
Governor in consultation with the High President
Courts B. Appellate Juris- 2. Case involving
NA

3. A person to be eligible for appointment diction interpretation of

as a District Judge should be an advocate the Constitution
or a pleader of seven years’ standing or C. Advisory Juris- 3. Appointment
more, or an officer in judicial service of diction of officers and
the Union or the State. servants of the
4. When the Session judge awards death sen- Supreme Court
tence, it must be confirmed by the High 4. Dispute be-
Court before it is carried out. tween the Govern-
ment of India and
Which of the statements given above are cor- a State
rect? [IAS 2004]

84
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 A. 𝐴 − 1, 𝐵 − 2, 𝐶 − 3 II) Subordinate courts are at the head of the
judicial hierarchy of the State.
B. 𝐴 − 4, 𝐵 − 3, 𝐶 − 2
III) The Chief Justice and other Judges of the
C. 𝐴 − 4, 𝐵 − 2, 𝐶 − 1
High Court are appointed by the Gover-
D. 𝐴 − 2, 𝐵 − 1, 𝐶 − 3 nor in consultation with the Chief Justice
74. To ensure impartiality, the retired Chief Justice of India.
and other Judges of the Supreme Court are de- IV) A High Court can withdraw a case from
barred from practising law: a subordinate court and can deal with the
case itself if it is satisfied that the case in-
A. in any court other than the Supreme Court
volves a substantial point of constitutional
B. in any court of India law.

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

C. in any court other than State High Courts A. I and II
D. in any Criminal Court B. I and III

M
75. Match the following: C. I and IV
Union Territory Jurisdiction (High D. II, III and IV

A. Puducherry
B. Andaman and
Nicobar Islands
Court)
1. Kerala
2. Mumbai
RA
78. The age of retirement of the Judges of the High
Court is:
A. 62 years
RI
C. Lakshadweep 3. Chennai B. 65 years
D. Daman and Diu 4. Kolkata C. 58 years
5. Guwahati
H

D. 60 years
A. 3412 79. Which one of the following statements is cor-
IS

rect? [NDA 2005]

B. 1 3 4 2
A. The President of India is the custodian of
C. 1 5 3 4 the Constitution of India
JA

D. 1 5 3 2 B. The Supreme Court of India can declare a

76. A Judge of the Supreme Court can be removed law passed by any State/Union Legislature null
from office only on grounds of: and void if it encroaches upon the Fundamental
Rights guaranteed by the Constitution of India
A. gross inefficiency
C. The number of Judges in a High Court is to
B. imbecile conduct be determined from time to time by the Gover-
C. proven misbehaviour or incapacity nor of the State concerned
D. senility D. The Chief Justice of a High Court is ap-
pointed by the Governor of the State concerned
77. Which of the following statements regarding
on the recommendation of the Chief Justice of
Judiciary in India are correct?
India
I) Supreme Court of India is free from the 80. The High Court having the jurisdiction in Ju-
control and influence of Legislature and dicial matters relating to’ the largest number of
Executive. States/Union Territories is:

85
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 7. The Judiciary

A. Kolkata High Court A. If the Parliament passes a bill to this effect

B. Kerala High Court B. During a Financial Emergency
C. Mumbai High Court C. As and when the President desires

D. Guwahati High Court D. Never

86. The Supreme Court was set up under:
81. Judicial review in India does not extend to:
A. Pitt’s India Act
A. the advice that the Council of Ministers
gives to the President B. Regulating Act

ER
B. the discretionary powers of the Governors C. Indian Councils Act, 1861
D. Indian Councils Act, 1892

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

C. the privileges enjoyed by Parliament mem-
87. Consider the following statements:

D
bers
D. Any of the above 1. The mode of removal of a Judge of a High

G
Court in India is same as that of removal
82. In India, the power to increase the number of
of a Judge of the Supreme Court.

N
Judges in the Supreme Court lies with: [Asstt
Comm 2008] 2. After retirement from the office, a perma-
nent Judge of a High Court cannot plead
A. The President of India
A or act in any court or before any authority
in India.
H
B. The Chief Justice of India
C. The Union Ministry of Law Which of the statements given above is/are cor-
-C
rect? [IAS 2007]
D. The Parliament of India
A. 1 only
83. Which one of the following jurisdictions of the
N

Indian Judiciary covers Public Interest Litiga- B. 2 only

tion? [CDS 2009]
YA

C. Both 1 and 2
A. Original Jurisdiction D. Neither 1 nor 2
B. Appellate Jurisdiction 88. The Constitution gives the powers of superin-
RA

tendence over all subordinate courts to the High

C. Epistolary Jurisdiction Courts under Article:
D. Advisory Jurisdiction A. 226
NA

84. Which High Court has jurisdiction over the B. 227

State of Arunachal Pradesh? [Railways 1994]
C. 228
A. Guwahati
D. 229
B. Mumbai 89. Which of the following writs may be issued to
C. Kolkata enforce a Fundamental Right? [CDS 1993]

D. Chandigarh A. Habeas Corpus

B. Mandamus
85. When can the salaries of the judges of the
Supreme Court be reduced during their term of C. Prohibition
office? D. Certiorari
86
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
90. Which of the following is/are the part/parts of B. No demand for a grant is made except on
the procedure for the impeachment of a Judge the recommendation of the President of India
of the Supreme Court of India?
C. The Lok Sabha can refuse assent to any
1. A motion signed by atleast 100 members demand for grant
of Lok Sabha or 50 members of Rajya
D. The Lok Sabha can suggest an increase in
Sabha is delivered to the Speaker or Chair-
the expenditure
man.
2. The motion is investigated by a Com- 94. Besides its permanent seat at Delhi, the
mittee of three Jurists constituted by the Supreme Court can also meet at:
Speaker or Chairman. A. any other metropolitan city

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

3. The Judge will be removed by the Speaker
B. any other major city
or Chairman if the Committee of three Ju-
rists recommends. C. any other place as decided by the Chief
Justice of India in consultation with the Presi-

M
Select the correct answer using the code given
dent
below: [Asstt Commdt 2011]
D. any other Union Territory

RA
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 2 only 95. When can the salaries of High Court judges be
reduced?
C. 2 and 3 only
A. If Parliament decrees it by two-thirds ma-
D. 1 only
RI
jority
91. Which of the following High Courts covers
more than one State/Union Territories? B. During a Financial Emergency
H

A. Delhi C. If the State Legislature passes a law to the

effect
IS

B. Allahabad
C. Guwahati D. At no time
D. None of these 96. Which of the following States/UTs are covered
JA

92. Under which law it is prescribed that all pro- by the Mumbai High Court?
ceedings in the Supreme Court of India shall be
in English language? [CDS 2012] I) Maharashtra

A. The Supreme Court Rules, 1966 II) Goa

B. A Legislation made by the Parliament III) Dadra and Nagar Haveli

C. Article 145 of the Constitution of India IV) Daman and Diu

D. Article 34B of the Constitution of India A. I only
93. Which one of the following statements is not
correct? [NDA 2005] B. I and II

A. All the expenditure other than that which is C. I, III and IV

charged on the Consolidated Fund of India is to
D. I, II, III and IV
be submitted to the Lok Sabha in the form of
demands for grants. 97. A High Court consists of a Chief Justice and:

87
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 7. The Judiciary

A. at least 5 other judges A. 1 only

B. such other judges as specified in the Consti- B. 2 only
tution
C. 3 only
C. such other judges as determined by Parlia-
ment D. 1 and 2

D. such other judges as determined by the 101. The Supreme Court of India decides the dis-
President putes regarding the election of:
98. A common High Court for two or more States A. the Prime Minister

ER
and/or Union Territory may be established by:
B. the Speaker and Deputy Speaker
[Railways 1990]

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

A. President C. the President and Vice-President

D
B. Parliament by Law D. All of the above
102. An appeal shall lie to the Supreme Court from

G
C. Governor of the State
any judgement of a High Court if the High
D. Chief Justice of India Court:

N
99. The Judges of the Supreme Court take an oath
or affirmation before entering upon office, con- A. has on appeal reversed an order of acquit-
ducted by:
A
tal of an accused person and sentenced him to
death
H
A. Chief Justice of India
B. certifies that the case is a fit one for appeal
B. President or Vice-President to the Supreme Court
-C

C. President or some person appointed, by

C. has withdrawn for trial before itself any case
him
from any subordinate court and has convicted
N

D. None of the above the accused person and sentenced him to death
100. Consider the following statements: The
YA

D. In all the above cases

Supreme Court of India tenders advice to the
President of India on matters of law or fact 103. How many High Courts in India have jurisdic-
tion over more than one State (Union Territories
RA

1. on its own initiative (on any matter of not included)? [IAS 2008]
larger public interest).
A. 2
2. if he seeks such an advice.
B. 3
3. only if the matters relate to the Fundamen-
NA

tal Rights of the citizens C. 4

Which of the statements given above is/are cor- D. 5
rect? [IAS 2010]

88
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
Chapter 8
The State Executive

1. The limitations on the authority of the State B. in case of money bills

Legislature do not include:
C. in case of bills reserved by the Governor
A. Parliament’s authority to make laws on sub- for President’s assent
jects in the State List during an Emergency
D. Both B and C above
B. Parliament’s authority to make Laws on 3. The Governor does not appoint:
State subjects if Rajya Sabha passes a resolu-
tion as required by the Constitution A. Judges of the High Court
C. the Governor’s discretionary power to B. Chief Minister
dissolve the legislature C. Chairman of the State Public Service Com-
D. the Governor’s power to reserve certain mission
bills for the consideration of the President D. Advocate General of the State
2. The President can directly disallow a State Leg- 4. One feature distinguishing the Rajya Sabha
islation: from the Vidhan Parlshad is:
A. in case of any bill A. power of impeachment

89
Chapter 8. The State Executive

B. nomination of members A. I and IV

C. tenure of membership B. II and III
D. indirect election C. I, II and III
5. On which of the following matters can a Gov- D. I, II and IV
ernor of a State exercise his discretionary pow- 8. A minister in a State is individually responsible
ers? to the:
I) Selection of Chief Minister if no political A. Legislature

ER
party gets a clear-cut majority. B. Governor
II) Dismissal of a Ministry if he is convinced C. Chief Minister

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

that it has lost majority support.
D. President

D
III) Salaries and allowances of ministers. 9. Which of the following are true about Legisla-
IV) Submission of report to President regard- tive Council of a State?

G
ing failure of constitutional machinery in
the State. I) Its total number of members does not ex-

N
ceed two-thirds of total number of mem-
A. I, II and III bers in the Legislative Assembly of that
B. II, III and IV
A
State but is not less than 40.
II) One-third of its members are elected by
H
C. I, II and IV the Legislative Assembly, one-third by lo-
D. I, II, III and IV cal bodies, one-twelfth by teachers, one-
-C
twelfth by university graduates and one-
6. The Legislative Council of a State: sixth nominated by the Governor.
N

I) is not subject to dissolution. III) It cannot be dissolved.

II) can be abolished by the State Legislative IV) One-third of its members retire every
YA

Assembly. year.
III) can be abolished by the President on the A. I, II and III
Governor’s recommendation.
RA

B. II and III
A. I only C. II, III and IV
B. II only D. I, II, III and IV
NA

C. I and II 10. Consider the given statements and choose the

correct response on them.
D. III only
7. Point out the powers enjoyed by the President I) A person can be appointed as Governor of
of India but not available to the Governor. more than one State.
II) A Governor’s salary is charged on the
I) Diplomatic Powers. Consolidated Fund of India in case of I.
II) Pardoning death sentence. III) In case of I, the Governor’s salary is
III) Veto power over State legislature. shared by the concerned States.
IV) In case of I, the Governor’s salary is paid
IV) Military powers.
by the State named by the President.

90
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 A. I and II are correct R2— A Bill originating in the Council can be
forthwith put to an end by the Assembly
B. I and IV are correct
rejecting it.
C. I and III are correct
R3— One-sixth of the Council’s members are
D. I is wrong; each State must have one Gov- nominated by the Governor.
ernor
11. While appointing a Governor, the President A. A and R1, R2 and R3 are correct and R1,
generally consults the Chief Minister of the R2 and R3 explain A
State. This is: B. A, R1 and R3 are correct and R1 and R3
A. constitutionally imperative explain A

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

B. a matter of convention C. A, R1, R2and R3are correct but only R1
and R2 explain A
C. because Parliament has legislated to the ef-
fect D. A and R2 are wrong; R1 and R3 are correct

M
D. a duty of the President
16. The Chairman of the legislative Council is:

RA
12. The Vidhan Sabha is:
A. appointed by the Governor
A. the permanent house’ of State Legislature
B. indirectly elected B. the Governor (ex-officio)

C. subject to dissolution C. elected by the members of the legislative

RI
Council from among themselves
D. has little importance in the State Govern-
ment D. appointed by the Speaker of the Assembly
H

13. The first woman Governor of a State in free In- 17. Ministers in a determined by:
IS

dia was
A. the Constitution
A. Mrs. Sarojini Naidu
B. Parliament
B. Mrs. Sucheta Kripalani
JA

C. State Legislature
C. Mrs Indira Gandhi
D. the Governor
D. Mrs. Vijaya Laxmi Pandit
18. The membership of a State Legislative Coun-
14. The Governor is appointed by the: cil:
A. Prime Minister
A. shall not be more than membership of the
B. President Assembly
C. Chief Minister B. shall not be less than 40
D. Chief Justice C. shall not be less than 2/3rd of total member-
15. A: The position of the legislative Council is in- ship of Lok Sabha
ferior to that of the legislative Assembly. D. Both A and B are true
R1— The very existence of the Council de- 19. There is no reservation for the Scheduled Tribes
pends on the will of the Assembly. in the Legislative Assemblies of:

91
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 8. The State Executive

A. Punjab, Gujarat and Himachal Pradesh A. a year

B. Punjab, Asom and Nagaland B. six months
C. Nagaland, Meghalaya and Orissa C. three months

D. Asom, Nagaland and Meghalaya D. indefinite

25. Which of the following are true? [IFS 1990]
20. The State of Jammu and Kashmir was accorded
special status under: I) Only some States in India have Legisla-
A. Article 356 of the Constitution tive Councils.

ER
II) Some members of Legislative Councils
B. Article 370 of the Constitution
are nominated.

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

C. Articles 356 and 370 of the Constitution III) Some members of Legislative Councils

D
D. None of the above are directly elected by the people.

G
21. If in an election to a State Legislative Assembly A. I and II
the candidate who is declared elected loses his
B. I and III

N
deposit, it means that: [IAS 1995]
C. II and III
A. the polling was very poor
B. the election was for a multi- member con-
A
D. I, II and III
26. The Central Government can assign any func-
H
stituency
tion to the States:
C. the elected candidate’s victory over his
-C
A. on the directive of the President
nearest rival was very marginal
B. on the recommendation of Parliament
D. a very large number of candidates con-
N

tested the election C. any time it wishes to do so

22. Who acts as the Chancellor of State Universi- D. with the consent of the State Government
YA

ties?
A. Governor 27. The salary and allowances of the Governor are
charged to:
RA

B. Chief Minister
A. Consolidated Fund of the State
C. Chief Justice of High Court B. Consolidated Fund of India
D. President C. Contingency Fund of India
NA

23. Who appoints the Governor of Jammu and D. Both A and B in equal proportion
Kashmir?
28. Grants-in-aid given to States are meant:
A. Chief Minister of the State
A. to show favour to backward States
B. Chief Justice of the High Court B. for use in centrally-sponsored schemes
C. President C. to cover gaps on revenue account so that
D. Prime Minister States can undertake beneficial activities

24. The maximum permissible period between two D. for funding the State plan
sessions of a State Legislative Assembly is: 29. Mark the most correct response:

92
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 A. No court has power to compel the Governor A. the Governor in consultation with the Pres-
to exercise or not to exercise any power or to ident
perform or not to perform any duty
B. the Governor in consultation with the
B. The Governor cannot be prosecuted in a Election Commission
civil and criminal court for any act of omission
or commission during the period he holds office C. State Legislative Council
D. State Legislative Assembly
C. Both above statements are correct 34. Membership of the legislative Assembly can
D. statement A is correct while B is not vary between 60 and 500, but the exception to
this rule is/are found in:
30. Who is the longest serving Chief Minister in In-

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

dia?
I) Puducherry
A. Bhajan Lal
II) Mizoram
B. Hiteshwar Saikia

M
III) Goa
C. Chimanbhai Patel
A. I and II

RA
D. Jyoti Basu
31. Which of these States has the Bicameral Legis- B. II and III
lature? C. II only
1. Bihar D. I, II and III
RI
2. Gujarat 35. 1/12th of the members of the Vidhan Parishad
3. Karnataka are to be elected:
H

4. Jammu & Kashmir A. from a graduate constituency

IS

5. Maharashtra
B. amongst the graduate universities of the
6. U.P. State
A. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 C. from the graduates of any university in
JA

any State of India, who have been residing in

B. 1, 3, 4, 5, 6
the State and who have been graduate of at least
C. 1, 2, 3, 4, 6 three years standing
D. All of these D. None of the above
32. Grants-in-aid are provided every year to such 36. The members of the State Legislative Assembly
States as are in need of assistanceas determined are elected for what period?
by the:
A. 2 years
A. President
B. 6 years
B. Parliament
C. Finance Commission C. 4 years

D. None of the above D. 5 years

33. The question of disqualification of a member of 37. Regarding the enactment of an ordinary law, the
the State Legislature shall be decided by: State Legislative Council:

93
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 8. The State Executive

A. has to agree to the Bill 42. Which of these States previously had Legisla-
tive Councils?
B. may delay it for a maximum period of
four months 1. Andhra Pradesh
C. may disagree to its provisions, in which 2. Gujarat
case a joint sitting is called
3. Kerala
D. has nothing to do 4. Manipur
38. The Contingency Fund of the State is operated 5. West Bengal
by the:

ER
6. Tamil Nadu
A. President
A. 1 and 3

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

B. Chief Minister

D
B. 3 and 5
C. Governor
C. 5 and 6
D. Council of Ministers

G
39. With respect to Article 371A of the Constitu- D. only 6

N
tion of India, the Governor of which one of the 43. The Governor of which State has been vested
following States has special responsibility with with special powers regarding scheduled tribal
respect to law and order of the State? [CDS
2008]
A
areas?
A. Arunachal Pradesh
H
A. Asom B. Asom
-C
B. Manipur C. Maharashtra
C. Nagaland D. West Bengal
N

D. Andhra Pradesh 44. What do you understand by the dual role of the
40. Who among the following is a legal advisor of Governor?
YA

the State Government as provided by the Con- A. Constitutional and real Executive
stitution?
B. Head of a State and head of government un-
A. Public Prosecutor der certain circumstances
RA

B. Solicitor General C. Belonging to Central as well as State Exec-

C. Advocate General utive
D. Attorney General D. Constitutional ruler and an agent of the
NA

41. To be a member of a State Council of Ministers, Centre

a person: 45. The Chief Minister of a State:
A. must belong to the Legislative Assembly I) is elected by the Legislative Assembly.
B. must acquire membership of the State II) appoints the members of the Council of
legislature within six months of such appoint- Ministers.
ment if he is not one already III) determines the strength of the Council of
C. cannot be less than 35 years old Ministers.
D. will have to be an expert in some field if he IV) determines the salaries of Council of Min-
is not a member of the legislature isters.

94
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 A. II, III and IV A. give assent to the Bill
B. I, III and IV B. refer the Bill to the President
C. III only C. keep the Bill pending
D. l and II D. exercise veto over the Bill
46. Consider the following statements: 50. Which of the following is not an essential qual-
ification for appointment as a Governor?
1. In India, only the President, but not the
Governors of the States, has the power to A. He should be a citizen of India
pardon, commute or suspend the sentence
of any person convicted of any offence. B. He should be a domicile of the State to

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

which he is being appointed
2. In India, though the Governor of a State
is its constitutional head during normal C. He must have completed the age of 35 years
times, he acts as the agent of the Centre

M
during periods of Emergency in the State. D. He must not be a member of either House
Which of the statements given above is/are cor- of Parliament
rect? [NDA 2005]
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
RA
51. The members of the Legislative Council are ap-
pointed through:

I) Direct elections
RI
C. Both 1 and 2 II) indirect elections
D. Neither 1 nor 2 III) Nomination
H

47. The ordinances issued by the Governor are sub-

ject to approval by: A. I and II
IS

A. Parliament B. II and III

B. State legislature C. I, II and III

JA

C. President D. I and III

D. No one 52. If the Governor of a State is appointed admin-
istrator of an adjoining Union Territory, he ex-
48. Money Bills can be introduced in the State leg-
ercises his functions:
islature with the prior consent of the:
A. President A. on advice of his Council of Ministers

B. Governor B. independently of his Council of Ministers

C. Speaker
C. according to Parliament’s directions
D. Chief Minister
D. according to the directions of the State leg-
49. When the Governor receives a Bill passed by
islature
the State Legislative Assembly, which of the
following courses would be most appropriate 53. The Legislative Council in a State can be cre-
for the Governor as an agent of the Centre? ated or disbanded by the: [Railways 1994]

95
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 8. The State Executive

A. State Legislative Assembly alone A. 1 only

B. Parliament alone B. 2 only
C. Parliament on recommendation of the C. Both 1and 2
State Legislature D. Neither 1 nor 2
D. President on recommendation of the Gover- 58. The special status of Jammu and Kashmir im-
nor plies the State has:
54. Chief Ministers of all the States are ex-officio A. a separate Defence Force

ER
members of the:
B. a separate Constitution
A. Finance Commission
C. a separature Judiciary

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

B. Planning Commission

D
D. All of the above
C. National Development Council 59. When a State Governor dies or resigns, who

G
D. Inter State Council normally exercises his functions until a new
Governor is appointed? [Asstt Grade 1992]
55. Chief Minister of a State is responsible to:

N
A. Secretary General of the Governor
A. Governor
B. Legislative Assembly
A
B. A person designated by State Cabinet
C. Chief Justice of the High Court
H
C. Prime Minister
D. Advocate General of the State
D. Rajya Sabha
-C
60. Which of the following statements is incor-
56. The States in India can borrow from the mar- rect?
ket:
N

A. The Governor can refuse to give his assent

A. at their discretion to a bill
YA

B. only through the Centre B. The Governor can reserve the bill for the as-
sent of the President
C. only with the consent of the Centre
C. The Governor may refuse to invite a leader
RA

D. under no circumstance
of the party in Vidhan Sabha who does not com-
57. Consider the following statements: The Consti- mand the majority in the House
tution of India provides that:
D. The Governor may dismiss the Speaker
NA

1. the Legislative Assembly of each State of the Vidhan Sabha and the Chairman of Vid-
shall consist of not more than 450 mem- han Parishad
bers chosen by direct election from terri- 61. The State legislative Assembly participates in
torial constituencies in the State. the election of:
2. a person shall not be qualified to be cho- I) President
sen to fill a seat in the Legislative Assem-
bly of a State if he/she is less than 25 years II) Vice-President
of age. III) Rajya Sabha members

Which of the statements given above is/are cor- IV) Members of legislative Council of the
rect? [IAS 2008] State

96
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 A. I, II and III C. 2 and 3 only
B. I, III and IV D. 1, 2 and 3
C. I and III 64. Which of the following is/are among the discre-
D. I, II, III and IV tionary powers of the Governor?
62. What is the maximum number of elected mem- I) Selecting a Chief Minister if no single
bers in a State Assembly? [UDC 1993] party has clear majority in the State As-
A. 250 sembly.
B. 300 II) Dismissing a ministry at any time.

C. 600 III) Reserving a Bill for the President.

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

D. 500 A. I and III
63. Which of the following statements is/are cor-
B. I and II
rect? Under the provisions of Article 200 of

M
the Constitution of India the Governor of a state C. III only
may D. I, II and III

2. reserve the Bill passed by the state legis-

RA
1. withhold his assent to a Bill passed by the 65. The number of seats in Vidhan Sabha is:
state legislature.
A. to be not more than five hundred and not
less than 60
lature for consideration of the President.
RI
B. to be not more than 500 and not less than
3. return the Bill, other than a money Bill for
60 but an exception is recognished in the case
reconsideration-of the legislature.
of one State which has only 32 seats
H

Select the correct answer using the code given C. to be not more than.600 and not less than
below: [CDS 2011]
IS

500
A. 1 only D. varies from Vidhan Sabha to Vidhan Sabha
B. 1 and 2 only
JA

97
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 9
Indian Federalism and Centre-State Relations

1. In India both direct and indirect taxes are levied III) Zonal Councils.
by the Central and State Government. Which IV) The Inter-State Council
of the following is levied by the State Govern-
ments? [Railway Apprentices’ Exam 1993] A. I and II
A. Excise Duty on liquor B. I, III and IV
B. Capital gains Tax
C. III and IV
C. Customs Duty
D. Only IV
D. Corporation Tax
3. Which of the following Union Territories at-
2. Which of the following is/are extra constitu- tained statehood in February, 1987?
tional and extra-legal device (s)for securing co-
operation and co-ordination between the States A. Goa
in India? [IAS 1995] B. Arunachal Pradesh
I) The National Development Council. C. Pondicherry
II) The Governor’s Conference. D. Daman and Diu
98
4. With reference to the Finance Commission of 8. Which subject was transferred from State List
India, which of the following statements is cor- to Concurrent List by the 42nd amendment of
rect? [CSAT 2011] the Constitution? [Teachers’ Exam 1993]
A. It encourages the inflow of foreign capital A. Agriculture
for infrastructure development
B. Education
B. It facilitates the proper distribution of fi-
nances among the Public Sector Undertakings C. Irrigation
D. Local Self Government
C. It ensures transparency in financial admin- 9. Which of the following States and the year of
istration their creation is incorrectly matched?

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

D. None of the statements A, B and C given
A. Andhra Pradesh: 1956
above is correct in this context
5. When can a State law on a subject in the Con- B. Maharashtra: 1960

M
current List get precedence over a Central law C. Arunachal Pradesh: 1987
on the same subject:
D. Goa: 1987

RA
A. in no circumstance
10. A proclamation of Emergency by the Presi-
B. if it was made before the Central law
dent:
C. if it had got the President’s assent before
the enactment of the Central law A. cannot apply to Jammu and Kashmir
RI
D. if it had got the President’s consent before B. shall have effect in Jammu and Kashmir
being introduced as a Bill in the State Legisla- only on the concurrence of the State Legislature
ture
H

6. When did the first linguistic State of Andhra C. shall apply to Jammu and Kashmir only on
IS

come into existence? endorsement by its Governor

A. October 2, 1953 D. has to be separately issued for Jammu and
B. October 1, 1953 Kashmir
JA

C. April 1, 1953 11. When was the Madras State renamed Tamil
D. January 5, 1953 Nadu?
7. Which of the following were Union Territories A. 1969
before becoming States?
B. 1970
I) Himachal Pradesh C. 1968
II) Manipur
D. 1971
III) Sikkim
IV) Tripura 12. The Concurrent List contains:
A. 47 subjects
A. I, II and IV
B. 68 subjects
B. I and II
C. II and III C. 42 subjects

D. I and III D. 38 subjects

99
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 9. Indian Federalism and Centre-State Relations

13. Which of the following is regarded as an es- A. the Constitution of India

sential function of the State? [Central Excise
B. the National Development Council
1994]
C. the Finance Commission
A. To run schools for education
B. To provide defence against external at- D. the Inter-State Council
tacks 18. The vesting of ’residuary’ powers in the central
C. To prevent diseases government by the Constitution of India indi-
cates [Asstt Commdt 2010]

ER
D. To maintain good roads
A. that India is a federal polity
14. Match the following:

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

B. that India is neither federal nor unitary
A. Arunachal 1. 22nd State

D
C. that India is quasi federal
Pradesh
D. unitary character of Indian polity

G
B. Goa 2. 23rd State
C. Mizoram 3. 24th State 19. For those Union Territories, which have no

N
D. Sikkim 4. 25th State Legislative Councils of their own, laws are
passed by:
A. 𝐴 − 1, 𝐵 − 3, 𝐶 − 4, 𝐷 − 2
B. 𝐴 − 3, 𝐵 − 4, 𝐶 − 2, 𝐷 − 1
A
A. Union Ministry
H
B. President, through the appointed Admin-
C. 𝐴 − 2, 𝐵 − 1, 𝐶 − 4, 𝐷 − 3 istrator
-C

D. 𝐴 − 4, 𝐵 − 3, 𝐶 − 1, 𝐷 − 2 C. Parliament
15. Which Articles of Indian Constitution discuss D. Appointed Administrator
N

the financial relations between the Centre and

the States? 20. Both Union and State Legislature can legislate
YA

on:
A. Articles 268 to 281
A. criminal law and procedure
B. Articles 278 to 291
RA

B. marriage, contracts and torts

C. Articles 289 to 295
C. economic and social planning
D. Articles 168 to 171
D. All of the above
NA

16. Which one of the following was an associate

State of India before becoming a full fledged 21. The first State to become bifurcated after inde-
State? [CDS 1992] pendence was:

A. Meghalaya A. Madras

B. Mizoram B. Bombay
C. Sikkim C. Punjab
D. Manipur D. Assam
17. Agricultural Income Tax is assigned to the State 22. Lotteries organised by the government of a
Governments by: [IAS 1995] State come under: [IFS 1993]

100
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 A. Union List A. I only
B. State List B. I and III
C. Concurrent List C. II and III
D. no list mentioned in the Seventh Schedule D. I, II and III
23. With reference to the Constitution of India, 28. Which of the following is not included in the
which one of the following pairs is not correctly State List in the Constitution of India?
matched? [IAS 2004] A. Police
A. Forests: Concurrent List B. Prison
B. Stock Exchanges: Concurrent List C. Law and Order

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

C. Post Office Savings Bank: Union List D. Criminal Procedure Code
D. Public Health: State List 29. The Central Government’s exclusive powers
are enumerated in the:

M
24. Which one of the following is not administered
by a Lieutenant Governor? A. Concurrent List
B. State List

RA
A. Delhi
B. Puducherry C. Union List
D. Federal List
C. Chandigarh
30. Match the following
D. Andaman and Nicobar
RI
Year of Creation States
25. The Union Territories are administered by the:
A. 1960 1. Sikkim
A. Parliament
H

B. 1962 2. Goa
B. Union Council of Ministers C. 1975 3. Maharashtra
IS

C. President, through administrators ap- D. 1987 4. Nagaland

pointed by him
A. 𝐴 − 2, 𝐵 − 4, 𝐶 − 3, 𝐷 − 1
JA

D. Prime Minister
B. 𝐴 − 3, 𝐵 − 4, 𝐶 − 1, 𝐷 − 2
26. English is the official language of which of the
following States? [Railways 1995; MBA 1994] C. 𝐴 − 4, 𝐵 − 3, 𝐶 − 2, 𝐷 − 1

A. Manipur D. 𝐴 − 3, 𝐵 − 4, 𝐶 − 2, 𝐷 − 1
31. In which one of the following cases the
B. Nagaland
Supreme Court of India gave verdicts which
C. Karnataka have a direct bearing on the Centre-State rela-
tions? [CDS 2011]
D. Andhra Pradesh
27. The Central Government can issue directions to A. Keshavananda Bharati case
the States with regard to the: B. Vishakha case

I) Union List C. S. R. Bommai case

II) State List D. Indira Sawhney case

32. Which of the following features is/are contrary
III) Concurrent List
to the norms of a federal polity?

101
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 9. Indian Federalism and Centre-State Relations

1. Common All India Service Select the correct answer using the code given
2. Single integrated judiciary below: [NDA 2011]
A. 1 only
Select the correct answer using the code given
below: [CDS 2011] B. 2 only
A. 1 only C. Both 1 and 2
B. 2 only D. Neither 1 nor 2
C. Both 1 and 2 37. Which one among the following pairs is not

ER
D. Neither 1 nor 2 correctly matched? [NDA 2011]
33. Railways is a subject on the: [Teachers’ Exam A. Union List: Banking

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

1994]

D
B. State List: Agriculture
A. Concurrent List
C. Concurrent List: Marriage

G
B. Union List
D. Residuary List: Education
C. State List

N
38. The old name of which State/Union Territory is
D. Residual List wrongly given?
34. Jammu and Kashmir has a Constitution framed
by: A
A. Karnataka - Mysore
H
B. Tamil Nadu - Madras
A. the Constituent Assembly which framed In-
-C
dia’s Constitution C. Lakshadweep - Laccadive, Minicoy and
B. a Constituent Assembly set up by Parlia- Amindiv Islands
ment D. Meghalaya - Eastern Hill Province
N

C. a Constituent Assembly set up by the 39. When can Parliament legislate on a subject in
YA

State the State List?

D. its State Legislature
I) If Lok Sabha passes a ’resolution by two-
35. The largest contribution to the total combined thirds majority that it is in national inter-
RA

annual tax revenue of the Centre States and est to do so.

Union Territories in India is made by: [SBI PO
1990] II) When the legislatures of two or more
States request Parliament to legislate on
A. Sales tax
NA

a State subject.
B. Income and Corporation Tax III) Under a proclamation of Emergency.
C. Custom duties
A. I and III
D. Union Excise duties
B. II and III
36. Which of the following statements with regard
to the Federal System’ is/are correct? C. I, II and III
1. In a federation, two sets of governments D. I and II
co-exist and there is distribution of power. 40. Which of the following is in the Concurrent List
2. There is a written constitution. in the Constitution of India? [IAS 1993]

102
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 A. Population control and family planning 45. Which of the following did India acquire from
France?
B. Public health and sanitation
A. Yanam
C. Capitation taxes
B. Mahe
D. None of the above
41. The provisions regarding division of taxes be- C. Karaikal
tween Union and the States: D. All of these
A. can be suspended during National Emer- 46. Who of the following shall cause every recom-
gency mendation made by the Finance Commission to
be laid before each House of Parliament? [IAS
B. can be suspended during Financial Emer- 2010]

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

gency
A. The President of India
C. can be suspended only with the consent
of the majority of State legislatures B. The Speaker of Lok Sabha

M
D. cannot be suspended under’ any circum- C. The Prime Minister of India
stances D. The Union Finance Minister

is used in [Asstt Commdt 2011]

A. the Preamble
RA
42. In the Constitution of India, the word ’Federal’ 47. The idea of incorporation of the Concurrent
List in the Indian Constitution has been bor-
rowed from the Constitution of:
A. Ireland
B. Part III
RI
B. Britain
C. Article 368
C. Australia
D. Nowhere
H

D. Canada
43. What can the President do if the States fail to
comply with the directives of Central Govern- 48. Match the following:
IS

ment: A. Passport 1. Union List

A. He can dissolve State Legislature and order B. Electricity 2. State List
JA

fresh elections C. Animal Hus- 3. Concurrent List

B. He can send reserve police to the State to bandry
secure compliance D. Family Planning
C. He can declare the breakdown of consti-
A. 𝐴 − 1, 𝐵 − 3, 𝐶 − 2, 𝐷 − 3
tutional machinery in the State and assume re-
sponsibility for the governance of the State B. 𝐴 − 2, 𝐵 − 3, 𝐶 − 1, 𝐷 − 2
D. Any of the above C. 𝐴 − 2, 𝐵 − 3, 𝐶 − 1, 𝐷 − 3
44. Which of the following items comes under the D. 𝐴 − 1, 𝐵 − 2, 𝐶 − 3, 𝐷 − 3
Concurrent List? 49. Which of the following matters are not included
A. Inter-State rivers in the Union List?

B. Trade Unions I) Defence

C. Citizenship II) Prisons

D. Local Government III) Liquor policy

103
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 9. Indian Federalism and Centre-State Relations

IV) Ports 53. Which of the following taxes is exclusively and

V) Irrigation totally assigned to the Central Government by
the Constitution [CDS 1992]
A. III and IV A. Estate Duty
B. III, IV and V B. Sales Tax
C. II, III, IV and V C. Corporation Tax
D. II, III and V D. Taxes on Railway fares and freight

ER
50. In the case of a conflict between the Centre and
54. The executive power relating to concurrent sub-
a State in respect of a subject included in the
jects remain with:
Concurrent List:

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

A. the States

D
A. the State Law prevails
B. the Centre
B. the Union Law prevails

G
C. the Constitution
C. the matter is resolved by the Supreme Court
D. the President

N
D. the law which had been passed first would 55. The States Reorganisation Act created
prevail
51. In which respect have the Centre-State rela- A
ritories.
States and Union Ter-
H
tions been specifically termed as ’municipal re- A. 14;7
lations’? [IAS 1994]
-C
B. 14;6
A. Centre’s control of the State in the legisla-
tive sphere C. 15;7
N

B. Centre’s control of the State in financial D. 15;6

matters
YA

56. The State of Bombay was bifurcated into Ma-

C. Centre’s control of the State in administra- harashtra and Gujarat on May 1, in the year:
tive sector A. 1958
RA

D. Centre’s control of the State in planning B. 1959

process
C. 1962
52. The State can legislate on subjects in the:
D. 1960
NA

1. State List
57. A change in distribution of powers between the
2. Union List Centre and the States can be done by:
3. Concurrent List A. the Central Government
4. Residuary List B. the federating units by themselves
A. 1 and 2 C. amending the Constitution
B. 1 only D. None of the above
C. 1, 3 and 4 58. An amendment of the Constitution of India can
D. 1 and 3 extend to Jammu and Kashmir:

104
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 A. automatically 63. Which of the following is/are correctly
B. only if ratified by State Legislature matched?

C. by an order of the President under Article I) Stamp duties and duties on medical and
370 toilet preparations-levied by the Union
D. under no circumstance but collected and appropriated by the
States.
59. Under the Constitution, the residuary powers
vest with the: [Delhi Police 1994] II) Duties on succession to property other
” than agricultural land-levied and’ col-
A. President lected by the Union but assignedto the
B. Supreme Court States.

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

C. Union Government III) Taxes on income other than corporation
D. State Governments tax and tax on agricultural income-levied.
collected and appropriated by the Union.
60. Which one among the following pairs of level

M
of government and legislative power is not cor- IV) Receipts from Broadcasting-non- tax rev-
rectly matched? [CDS 2011] enue of the Union.
A. Central government: Union List
B. Local governments: Residuary powers
C. State governments: State List
RA A. I and III
B. I, II and III
C. III and IV
RI
D. Central and State governments: Concurrent
D. I, II and IV
List
61. Which of the following is not in the State List 64. Match the following:
H

under the Constitution of India? A. Union List 1. Banking

A. Fisheries
IS

B. State List 2. Public order

B. Agriculture and police
C. Concurrent List 3. Labour Welfare
C. Insurance
JA

D. Gambling A. 𝐴 − 2, 𝐵 − 1, 𝐶 − 3
62. The Sarkaria Commission dealing with the
B. 𝐴 − 1, 𝐵 − 2, 𝐶 − 3
Centre-State .relationship has not laid down
which of the following regarding the appoint- C. 𝐴 − 1, 𝐵 − 3, 𝐶 − 2
ment of Governors?
D. 𝐴 − 3, 𝐵 − 2, 𝐶 − 1
A. A politician from the ruling party at the
65. Union Parliament has the power to legislate on
Centre should not be appointed to a State run
the subjects of all three lists in respect of:
by some other party
A. Scheduled areas
B. The person should not be too closely con-
nected with the politics of the State where he is B. Hill areas
to be posted
C. Backward areas
C. He should have travelled extensively in
and out of India D. Union Territories

D. He should be eminent in some walk of life 66. The Union list contains:
105
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 9. Indian Federalism and Centre-State Relations

A. 47 subjects 70. Which of the following does not give correctly

the name of the original State out of whose ter-
B. 97 subjects
ritory the new State was created?
C. 63 subjects
A. Andhra Pradesh from the State of Madras
D. 92 subjects B. Arunachal Pradesh from Assam
67. What was the status of Sikkim at the com- C. Meghalaya from Assam
mencement of the Constitution?
D. Goa from Maharashtra
A. A part B State 71. The residuary powers of legislation in case of

ER
B. An independent State Jammu and Kashmir belong to:
A. Parliament

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

C. An independent kingdom attached to In-
dia by a special treaty

D
B. the State Legislature
D. A part C State C. Governor

G
68. Corporation Tax: [IAS 1995] D. Both A and B.
A. is levied by the Union and collected and ap- 72. The State List contains:

N
propriated by the States A. 97 subjects
B. is levied by the Union and belongs to it
exclusively A
B. 69 subjects
H
C. 66 subjects
C. is levied and appropriated by the States D. 103 subjects
-C

D. is levied by the Union and shared by the 73. The authority empowered to make laws in re-
Union and the States spect of matters not enumerated in any of three
lists is/are:
N

69. Match the following: [CDS 1993]

A. State Legislatures
YA

A. Taxes on 1. State list

B. Union Parliament
income other
than agricultural C. Union Parliament and State Legislatures
income D. The Advocate General of the States
RA

B. Estate duty in 2. Residuary 74. Put in the correct order of their creation:
respect of agricul- power
tural land I) Asom
NA

C. Inter planetary 3. Concurrent List II) Nagaland

outer space travel III) Goa
D. Acquisition and 4. Union List IV) Mizoram
requisitioning of
property A. I, II, III, IV
B. II, I, IV, III
A. 𝐴 − 4, 𝐵 − 3, 𝐶 − 2, 𝐷 − 1
C. I, II, IV, III
B. 𝐴 − 4, 𝐵 − 1, 𝐶 − 2, 𝐷 − 3
D. I, IV, II, III
C. 𝐴 − 2, 𝐵 − 3, 𝐶 − 1, 𝐷 − 4 75. The distribution of power between Centre and
D. 𝐴 − 3, 𝐵 − 2, 𝐶 − 4, 𝐷 − 1 the States is based on the scheme provided in:

106
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 A. Minto-Morley Reforms, 1909 A. is a border State
B. Montague-Chelmsford Act, 1919 B. has harsh terrain
C. Government of India Act, 1935 C. has low literacy rate
D. Indian Independence Act, 1947 D. has poor infrastructure
76. A special category State invariably [CDS 2011]

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

M
RA
RI
H
IS
JA

107
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 10
Public Service Commissions

1. Which of the following are true regarding the C. II, III and IV
Attorney General of India?
D. I, II, III and IV
I) He is the first Law Officer of the Govern- 2. A political party is recognised by the Election
ment of India. Commission only if:
II) He has the right of audience in all Courts
in India. I) it has been engaged in political activity for
III) He has the right to speak and vote in the a continuous period of five years.
Houses of Parliament or any Parliamen- II) has returned at least one member of the
tary Committee. Lok Sabha for every 2Smembers of that
IV) He must have the same qualifications as House or any fraction of that number
are required to be a judge of the High elected from that State.
Court. III) has polled not less than six percent of the
total number of valid votes polled by all
A. I and II contesting candidates at the general elec-
B. I, II and III tions.

108
 IV) has contested election in four or more A. political body
States in three consecutive general elec-
B. non-political body
tions.
C. statutory body
A. I and II
D. None of the above
B. I, III and IV
7. Who appoints the Chief Election Commis-
C. I, II and III sioner of India? [CRPF 1990]
D. I, II, III and IV A. President
3. The Ex-officio Chairman of a Zonal Council is: B. Prime Minister

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

A. one of the Union Ministers C. Parliament
B. the Governor of the State where the Zonal D. Chief Justice of India
Council meets 8. The Chief Election Commissioner can be re-

M
C. the Chief Minister of the State where the moved:
Council meets A. by each House of Parliament by a special
D. elected by the member-State Chief minister

4. How many days-time is given for the candidates

RA majority and on the ground of proven misbe-
haviour or incapacity
B. by the President of India
RI
to file their nominations from the date of notifi- C. by the Supreme Court
cation of the election?
D. on charges of corruption if proved in the
A. 2 days
H

Supreme Court
B. 4 days 9. Who is the highest Law Officer of a State?
IS

C. 6 days A. Attorney General

D. 8 Clays B. Advocate General
JA

5. Which of the following is not true about the C. Solicitor General

electoral functions of the Parliament? [SBI PO
1991] D. Secretary General Law Department

A. It helps the Prime Minister in forming the 10. Members of the Union Public Service Commis-
Central Cabinet sion can function as members up to the age of:
[I. Tax 1989]
B. It participates in the election of the Presi-
A. 60 years
dent
B. 58 years
C. The Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the Lok
Sabha are elected by the Members of the Parlia- C. 62 years
ment
D. 65 years
D. Members of the Parliament vote for the
11. The powers of the Election Commission are
election of the Vice-President
given in which of the following Articles of the
6. National Development Council is: Constitution?

109
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 10. Public Service Commissions

A. 286 III) Foreign Service personal when posted

abroad.
B. 356
C. 324 A. I and III
D. 382 B. II and III
12. Consider the following tasks: [IAS 2004] C. III only

1. Superintendence, direction and conduct of D. I, II and III

free and fair elections. 15. Which one of the following is correct in respect

ER
of the commencement of the election process in
2. Preparation of electoral rolls for all elec-
India? [IAS 1995]
tions to the Parliament, State-Legislatures

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

and the Office of the President and the A. The recommendation for election is made

D
Vice-President. by the government and the notification for elec-
3. Giving recognition to political parties, al- tion is issued by the Election Commission

G
lotting election symbols to political par- B. The recommendation for election is made
ties and individuals contesting the elec- by the Election Commission and the notifica-

N
tion. tion for election is issued by the Home Min-
istry at the Centre and Home Departments in
4. Proclamation of final verdict in the case of
election disputes. A
the States
H
C. The recommendation for election is made
Which of the above are the functions of the by the Election Commission and the notifica-
-C
Election Commission of India? tion for election is issued by the President and
A. 1, 2 and 3 Governors of the States concerned
N

B. 2, 3 and 4 D. Both the exercises of making a recommen-

dation for election and that of issuing a notifi-
C. 1 and 3
YA

cation in respect of it are done by the Election

D. 1, 2 and 4 Commission
13. Which of the following is not true about the Lok 16. The Prime Minister, Union Cabinet Ministers,
Chief Ministers and Council of Ministers are all
RA

Pal Bill?
members of:
A. The Lok Pal is institutionalised set-up to put
curbs on erring Ministers A. Planning Commission
B. National Development Council
NA

B. Once appointed, the Lok Pal can hold office

for a maximum period of five years C. Zonal Council
C. Complaints to the Lok Pal can be made by D. Regional Council
any citizen other than a public servant
17. The first Law Officer of the Government of In-
D. The Lok Pal is appointed by the Chief dia is:
Justice of Supreme Court
A. Chief Justice of India
14. Who can cast their votes by postal ballot?
B. Law Minister
I) Members of the Armed Forces. C. Attorney General
II) Officials on election duty. D. Auditor General
110
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
18. Which of the following activities indulged in by A. 6 years
a candidate during an election campaign consti-
B. 65 years of age
tute corrupt practices?
C. 6 years or 65 years of age whichever is
I) Giving gifts to voters to induce them to earlier
vote.
D. None of the above
II) Appealing for votes on the grounds of
caste or religion. 22. Election of Rajya Sabha is held after: [RRB
1991]
III) False character assassination of other can-
didates. A. 1 year

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

IV) Propagation and glorification of Sati. B. 2 years
C. 6 years
A. I and II
D. 5 years

M
B. II and III
23. Electioneering has to stop in a constituency:
C. I, II and III

RA
A. one day before the election
D. I, II, III and IV
B. 48 hours before election starts
19. The conditions of service and tenure of the
Election Commissioner is prescribed by: C. 36 hours before a poll commences
RI
A. the Constitution D. 48 hours before the closing hour of
polling
B. Parliament
H

24. The members of UPSC can be removed from

C. the President
the office before the expiry of the term by the:
IS

D. Government
A. Prime Minister
20. State which of the following statements is in-
B. Chairman of UPSC
correct?
JA

C. President on recommendation of
A. Comptroller and Auditor General controls
Supreme Court
all disbursements and audits the accounts of
both the Union and the State Governments D. Prime Minister on recommendation of
Supreme Court
B. He annually submits a report to the Presi-
dent relating to the accounts of Union 25. State funding of elections takes place in: [IAS
1997]
C. The annual report of the Comptroller and
Auditor General is considered by Public Ac- A. USA and Canada
counts Committee of Parliament
B. Britain and Switzerland
D. No money by the Union and State Gov-
C. France and Italy
ernments can be spent without prior approval
of the Comptroller and Auditor General D. Germany and Austria
21. Term of Comptroller and Auditor General of In- 26. Which of the following is an extra Constitu-
dia is: [CRPF 1990] tional and non-statutory body?

111
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 10. Public Service Commissions

A. Election Commission 30. Which of the following is not correct?

B. Finance Commission A. The Election Commission consists of the
Chief Election Commissioner and such number
C. Planning Commission
of other Election Commissioners as President
D. Union Public Service Commission may fix
27. Who is a Returning Officer? [Teachers’ Exam B. The Election Commission conducts the
1993] elections to the Parliament, the State Legisla-
tures, the offices of the President and Vice-
A. An officer who returns the unaccepted ap-
President and all local bodies

ER
plications for allotment of land
C. The Chief Election Commissioner is the
B. An officer who is sent back to his parent de-
Chairman of the Election Commission

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

partment

D
D. The conditions of service of the Chief Elec-
C. An officer who is head of the State Assem- tion Commissioner shall not be varied to his
bly Secretariat

G
disadvantage
D. An officer who is responsible for conduct 31. A person is eligible to vote in the general elec-

N
of election in a constituency and declares re- tions if he or she:
sults
I) is a citizen of India.
28. The Area of Lok Sabha Constituency for the
purpose of general election is determined by A
II) is not less than 21 years of age.
H
the: III) does not hold any office of profit under the
Government.
-C
A. Delimitation Commission
IV) is not disqualified on grounds of unsound
B. Election Commission mind.
N

C. Census Commission A. I, II and III

D. President B. I and IV
YA

29. Consider the following statements with respect C. I and II

to Attorney General of India:
D. I, II and IV
RA

1. He is appointed by the President. 32. Who has the power to decide an election peti-
tion?
2. He must have the same qualifications as
are required by a Judge of High Court. I) District Court
NA

3. In the performance of his duties he shall II) Supreme Court

have the right of audience in all courts of III) High Courts
India. IV) Tribunals
Which of the statements given above is/are cor- A. I, II and III
rect? [CDS 2009]
B. IV only
A. 1 only
C. II and IV
B. 1 and 3
D. II and III
C. 2 and 3 33. In the discharge of his functions, the Attorney
D. 1, 2 and 3 General is assisted by:

112
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 A. a Solicitor General 37. The Chief Election Commissioner of India
holds office for a period of [CDS 2011]
B. two Solicitors-General and four Addi-
tional Solicitors-General A. six years
C. a Solicitor General and two Additional So- B. during the pleasure of the President
licitors General C. for six years or till the age of 65 years,
D. None of the above whichever is earlier
34. With reference to India, consider the following D. for five years or till the age of 60 years,
electoral systems: [CDS 2004] whichever is earlier
38. The functions of the Comptroller and Auditor
I) System of direct election on the basis of
General of India include auditing and reporting

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

adult suffrage.
on the receipts and expenditure of:
II) System of proportional representation by
A. Union Government only
means of single transferable vote.
B. State Government only

M
III) List system of proportional representa-
tion. C. Union and State Governments

RA
IV) Cumulative system of indirect representa- D. Union and State Governments and compa-
tion. nies substantially financed by both
39. The Attorney General of India holds office dur-
Which of these have been adopted for various
ing the pleasure of the:
elections in India?
RI
A. President
A. 1 and 2
B. Prime Minister
B. 2 and 3
H

C. Parliament
C. 1, 3 and 4
D. Chief Justice
IS

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
40. According to the National Human Rights Com-
35. Finance Commission is constituted by the Pres- mission Act, 1993, who amongst the following
ident every: can be its Chairman? [IAS 2004]
JA

A. two years A. Any serving Judge of the Supreme Court

B. three years B. Any serving Judge of the High Court
C. five years C. Only a retired Chief Justice of India
D. four years D. Only a retired Chief Justice of a High Court
36. Which of the following does not come under
the purview of the Election Commission? 41. What is the correct sequence of steps in elec-
toral procedure?
A. To conduct the election of PM of India
I) Filing of nominations.
B. To conduct the election of President of India
II) Presidential notification.
C. To give recognition to the political parties III) Scrutiny of nomination papers.
IV) Withdrawal of candidature.
D. To assign election symbols to the political
parties V) Allotment of symbols.

113
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 10. Public Service Commissions

A. I, III, IV, V, II A. I and II

B. II, I, IV, V, III B. II and III
C. I, III, V, IV, II C. I and III
D. II, I, III, IV, V D. I, II and III
42. The Chief Election Commissioner, according to 46. There port of the UPSC:
a recent judgement of the Supreme Court is: A. is to be accepted by the Government in to
[CDS 1994]
B. may be ignored without explanation

ER
A. the final authority in matters to be decided
C. has to be discussed in Parliament before
by the Election Commission
being accepted

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

B. to share his authority with members of the
D. is presented to the President

D
Election Commission
47. Match the following:
C. to go by majority opinion prevailing among

G
the .members of the Election Commission A. Ex-Officio 1. Speaker
Chairman of Rajya
D. not bound by the Representation of the Peo-

N
Sabha
ple Act which is amendable by Parliament
B. Presiding officer 2. Solicitor Gen-
43. The members of the Inter-State Council are:

I) Six cabinet ministers nominated to it A

of the House of the eral
People
H
C. First law officer 3. Vice-President
II) Chief Ministers of all States of the State
-C
III) Secretaries of Union Ministries D. Representative 4. Advocate Gen-
IV) Governors of all States of Government of eral
India in important
N

A. I and II legal cases.

YA

B. I, II and III
A. 𝐴 − 3, 𝐵 − 1, 𝐶 − 4, 𝐷 − 2
C. II only
B. 𝐴 − 2, 𝐵 − 1, 𝐶 − 4, 𝐷 − 3
D. II and IV
RA

C. 𝐴 − 1, 𝐵 − 3, 𝐶 − 4, 𝐷 − 2
44. The Election Commission does not conduct the
D. 𝐴 − 4, 𝐵 − 1, 𝐶 − 3, 𝐷 − 2
elections to the:
48. The Centre-State financial distribution takes
A. Lok Sabha place on the recommendation by the:
NA

B. Rajya Sabha A. Finance Minister

C. Local bodies B. Planning Commission
D. President’s elections C. Finance Commission
45. In case of which of the following, the method D. Sarkaria Commission
of removal from office is the same?
49. Which of the following political parties came
I) Judge of the Supreme Court. into being before independence?
II) Chief Election Commissioner. I) Communist Party of India (Marxist)
III) President of India. II) Communist Party of India

114
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 III) Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam A. II and IV
IV) Bharatiya Janata Party B. I, II and IV
C. III only
A. I and II
D. III and IV
B. II only
53. The State Election Commission can be re-
C. I, II and III moved from office:
D. II and IV A. only by the Governor
50. The composition of the UPSC is: B. in the same manner and on the same
A. laid down in the Constitution grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

B. determined by Parliament C. only by the President on the advice of the
Chief Justice of the concerned State
C. determined by the President
D. in the same manner as the Vice-President of

M
D. determined by the Chairman of the UPSC India
51. Which one of the following statements is not 54. Which of the following is not true regarding the
correct? [CDS 2004]
A. The Election Commissioner scan not be re-
moved from their office except on recommen-
dations by the Chief Election Commissioner
RA
Attorney General of India?
A. He represents Government in any reference
made by the President under Article 143
B. His consent is necessary for initiating pro-
RI
B. In case of difference of opinion amongst ceedings for contempt in certain cases
the Chief Election Commissioner and other C. His consent is necessary for finalization
H

’Election Commissioners, the matter is decided of appointment of Judges to State High Courts
by the Law Commission
IS

D. He appears in courts of law on behalf of the

C. The Chief Election Commissioner and’ Houses of Parliament or the Speaker
other Election Commissioners enjoy equal
55. Consider the following statements:
powers
JA

D. The term of office of an Election Commis- 1. The Attorney General of India can be a
sioner is six years from the date he assumes of- member of any Parliamentary Committee.
fice or till the day he attains the age of 65 years, 2. The Attorney General of India can take
whichever is earlier part in the proceedings of either House of
52. Which of the following is/are correct with re- Parliament.
gard to the office of Attorney General of India? 3. To be appointed as the Attorney General
of India, a person must be qualified to be
I) He is a member of the Cabinet. appointed as a judge of the Supreme Court
II) He can speak in either House of Parlia- of India.
ment and vote on any issue.
Which of the statements given above are cor-
III) He must be qualified to become a Judge rect? [NDA 2005]
of the Supreme Court.
A. 1 and 2
IV) His remuneration is fixed by Parliament.
B. 2 and 3

115
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 10. Public Service Commissions

C. 1 and 3 III) make recommendation for coordination

of policy and action relating to any sub-
D. 1, 2 and 3
ject
56. Which one of the following is not a function of
UPSC? IV) enforce provisions relating to the freedom
of trade and commerce
A. It conducts examinations for the appoint-
ment to the services of the Union A. I, II and IV
B. It shall be consulted on all matters relating B. I, II and III
to methods of recruitment to civil services and

ER
C. II and IV
posts
C. It shall be consulted on-all disciplinary mat- D. II, III and IV

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

ters affecting a person serving the Government 60. The members of All-India Services are ap-

D
of India pointed under the signature of:

G
D. It shall be consulted as regards the reser- A. President
vation of posts for backward classes, scheduled
B. Home Minister

N
castes and tribes
57. The control of the preparation of electoral rolls C. Vice-President
for Parliament and legislatures vests with the:
[CBI 1993] A
D. Chairman of UPSC
61. Who among the following cannot be removed
H
A. Cabinet from office except in the manner prescribed in
the Constitution of India? [NDA 2005]
-C
B. Prime Minister
C. President A. The Deputy Chairman, Planning Commis-
sion
N

D. Election Commission
B. The Governor of a State
58. The members of a State Commission can be re-
YA

moved by the: C. The Chief Election Commissioner

A. Governor on a report by the Supreme Court D. The Chairman, Finance Commission
RA

62. Which of the following is not correct?

B. Governor on a resolution passed by Parlia-
A. A person seeking election to the Rajya
ment
Sabha must have completed the age of 30 years
C. President on a report by the Supreme
NA

Court
B. A person seeking election to the Lok Sabha
D. President on a resolution passed by Parlia- must have completed the age of 25 years
ment
C. A person seeking election to a State Leg-
59. The duties envisaged by the Constitution for the islative Assembly must have completed the age
Inter-State Council are to: of 21 years
I) inquire into and advise on disputes be- D. A person eligible to vote for elections to a
tween States village panchayat must have completed the age
II) investigate matters of common interest for of 18 years
two or more States 63. The Electorate means:

116
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 A. those people who do not have the right to A. 1967
elect their representatives
B. 1971
B. all the citizens who possess the right to
C. 1977
vote and elect their representatives in an elec-
tion D. 1955
C. those people who have the right to be 68. Zonal Council are provided:
elected A. by the Constitution
D. those people who have the right to live in a B. by Parliamentary Act
country
C. under the 42nd Amendment Act
64. The Chairman and members of State Public

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

Service Commission are appointed by the: D. by Presidential ordinance
A. President 69. Who appoints the Chairman of the UPSC?
B. Prime Minister A. President

M
C. Governor B. Chief Justice of India
D. Chairman, UPSC
65. Consider the following statements:
RA C. Prime Minister
D. Speaker of Lok Sabha
1. The Chairman and the Members of the 70. Who is responsible for the registration of vot-
UPSC are appointed by the President. ers?
RI
2. The Chairman and the Members of the A. Government
UPSC are eligible for further employment B. Voters
H

under the Government.

C. Political parties
IS

Which of the statements given above is/are cor-

D. Election Commission
rect? [CDS 2008]
71. Which of the following are true regarding the
A. 1 only
JA

Comptroller and Auditor General of India?

B. 2 only
I) The office of the CAG has been created by
C. Both 1 and 2 the Constitution.
D. Neither 1 nor 2 II) He holds office for a term of five years or
66. The members of UPSC hold the office: till the age of 60 years, whichever is ear-
lier.
A. during the pleasure of President
III) He can be removed from office only by
B. as long as they enjoy confidence in Parlia-
impeachment.
ment
IV) He has to audit and report on all expen-
C. for life or till they attain the age of 70 years diture from the Consolidated Fund of In-
D. for the term of six years or till they attain dia and of each State and Union Terri-
the age of 65 years tory having a Legislative Assembly and
67. The Congress lost its monopoly of power in the see whether expenditure has been in ac-
States for the first time after the elections of: cordance with the law.

117
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 10. Public Service Commissions

A. I, II, III and IV D. any Court of law within the territory of

India
B. I, III and IV
76. The declaration which outlines the future pro-
C. II and III gramme and policy of a political party issued
D. III and IV on the eve of a general election is called:
72. Which of the following is correct regarding A. white paper
booth capturing? B. manifesto
1. It has been defined in the Constitution af- C. yellow paper

ER
ter the 61st amendment.
D. mandate
2. It includes the seizure of a polling booth to 77. The first general elections in India were held

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

prevent the orderly conduct of elections. in:

D
3. It is also committed when any elector is A. 1949
threatened and prevented from going to

G
the polling station to cast his vote. B. 1950
4. It has been declared a cognizable offence C. 1951

N
punishable by imprisonment. D. 1947
A. 2, 3, and 4
A
78. The Election Commission holds election for:
[NDA 1994]
H
B. 1, 2 and 3
A. the Parliament
C. 2 and 3
B. the Parliament and State Legislative Assem-
-C

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4 blies
73. The resignation letter of a State Public Service C. the Parliament, State Legislative Assem-
N

Commission member is addressed to the blies and State Legislative Councils

A. President D. the Parliament, State Legislatures and the
YA

B. Governor posts of the President and the Vice-President

79. The Comptroller and Auditor General can be
C. Chief Justice of India
removed from office:
RA

D. Chief Minister A. in the same way as the President can be re-

74. UPSC submits its annual report on its work to: moved
A. the Parliament B. in the same manner as that prescribed for
NA

B. the Union Home Minister the removal of a Supreme Court Judge

C. by the President on a report by the Supreme
C. the President
Court
D. the Chief Justice of India
D. in none of the above ways
75. The Attorney General of India has the right to
80. Finance Commission consists of:
audience in:
A. five members
A. any High Court
B. four whole time members
B. Supreme Court
C. Chairman and four members
C. any Sessions Court
D. a Chairman and three other members
118
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
81. The UPSC conducts examinations for: 84. The main purpose of Zonal Councils is to:

I) Central Services. A. settle disputes between States in a Zone

II) All India Services. B. advise on matters of common interest to
III) State Services. States in a Zone
IV) State Services for two or more States C. ensure that laws passed by various States do
jointly. not conflict with each other
D. devise best ways of utilising available re-
A. I, II and III
sources of States
B. II and IV
85. An Inter-State Council was set up in 1990 under

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

C. I only Article 263 of the Constitution by the:
D. I and II A. President
82. The jurisdiction of the Finance Commission
B. Parliament

M
does not extend to:
C. Government
A. recommendation of the distribution be-

RA
tween the Union and the States of the net pro- D. Planning Commission
ceeds of taxes 86. Recognition to a political party is accorded by:
B. recommendation of the allocation to the [CDS 1992]
States of the respective shares of such tax pro-
A. the Speaker of the Lok Sabha in the case of
RI
ceeds
national parties and the Speaker of Legislative
C. recommendation of the allocation of Assemblies in the case of regional parties
funds among the various heads of expenditure
H

B. the Election Commission

in the Union and State budgets
C. the Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs
IS

D. recommendation of the principles which

govern the Grants-in-aid of the revenue of the D. a Committee of Whips
States out of the . Consolidated Fund of India
87. Graduates constitute a separate constituency for
JA

83. The Chairman of the Finance Commission must the election of specified number of members to
be: the: [Railway Apprentices 1993]
A. qualified to be a High Court Judge A. Nyaya Panchayat
B. a person having special knowledge of eco- B. State Legislative Council
nomics
C. Rajya Sabha
C. a person having experience in public af-
fairs D. State Legislative Assembly
D. All of the above

119
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 11
Local Government

1. The tenure of Gram Panchayat and Nagarpalika D. Zila Parishad

shall be for: 3. The Panchayati Raj System was adopted to: [I.
A. three years Tax 1991]
B. four years A. make people aware of politics
C. five years, unless dissolved earlier B. decentralise the power of democracy
D. co-extensive with the term of Legislative C. educate the peasants
Assembly D. None of the above
2. The local self-governing institution for a town 4. Which one of the following Articles of the Con-
with a population of twelve thousand and above stitution of India makes a specific mention of
is known as: Village Panchayats?[NDA 2008]
A. Municipal Corporation A. Article 19
B. National Area Committee B. Article 21
C. Municipal Committee C. Article 40

120
 D. Article 246 A. 21 years
5. Which of the following functions are obligatory B. 18 years
in all municipalities? C. 25 years
I) Registration of births and deaths. D. 30 years
10. Gram Sabha consists of:
II) Supply of potable water.
A. 5 to 10 elected Ward Panchas of the Village
III) Planting and maintenance of road side
Panchayats
trees.
B. All the voters of the Village Panchayat
IV) Provision of transport facilities within the
municipality. C. All the Chairmen of Village Panchayats of

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

the Block
A. I and II D. All the Chairmen of Block level institutions
B. II and III of the district

M
11. Which of the following is not a source of rev-
C. III and IV
enue to the Village Panchayats? [RRB 1991]
D. I, II, III and IV

RA
A. Property-Tax
6. Who is to conduct the elections to the Panchay- B. House Tax
ats and Municipalities?
C. Land Tax
A. State Government
D. Vehicles Tax
RI
B. Central Government 12. Which of the following is not a recommenda-
C. State Election Commission tion of the Ashok Mehta Committee on Pan-
H

chayati Raj? [CDS 2009]

D. Central Election Commission
A. Open participation of political parties in
IS

7. The Gram Panchayats are elected by Gram Sab- Panchayati Raj Affairs
has consisting of: B. Creation of a three-tier system
A. every citizen living in a village
JA

C. Reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes

B. entire male and female population of the vil- and Scheduled Tribes
lage D. Compulsory powers of taxation of Panchay-
C. every adult male living in a village ati Raj Institution
13. The tenure of every Panchayat shall be for five
D. every farmer of the village years from the date of [CDS 2011]
8. Panchayati Raj was started in the country in: A. its first meeting
A. 1957 B. issue of notification for the conduct of elec-
tions to the Panchayat
B. 1959
C. declaration of the election results
C. 1952
D. taking oath of office by the elected Mem-
D. 1951 bers
9. A person to be qualified for standing in a pan- 14. Mayor of a Municipal Corporation holds the of-
chayat election must have attained the age of: fice for a period of:

121
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 11. Local Government

A. 1 year 18. Who among the following is not a member of

the Panchayat Samiti?
B. 3 years
A. Sarpanchas of all the Panchayats
C. 5 years
B. Elected members of the State Legislature
D. 4 years belonging to that area
15. The Mayor to the Municipal Corporation is C. Members of the Union Parliament belong-
elected by: ing to that area
A. all the elected representatives of the Corpo- D. All of the above

ER
ration 19. The Constitution (Seventy-Third Amendment)
B. the elected representatives together with Act, 1992, which aims at promoting the Pan-

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

Elder-men who are elected by these representa- chayati Raj Institutions in the country, provides

D
tives for which of the following?
C. the voters of all the constituencies in the city 1. Constitution of District Planning Commit-

G
directly tees.

N
D. elected representatives of the Corporation 2. State Election Commissions to conduct all
and the elected members of State Legislative panchayat elections.
Assemblies
16. Which of the following is not true about the Vil- A3. Establishment of State Finance Commis-
sions.
H
lage Panchayats? Select the correct answer using the codes given
below: [CSAT 2011]
-C
A. It consists of members elected by the Gram
Sabha from amongst themselves A. 1 only
B. If a member of the Scheduled Caste and a B. 1 and 2 only
N

woman member are not elected to it, the Gov- C. 2 and 3 only
ernment itself nominates them
YA

D. 1, 2 and 3
C. For election to the Village Panchayat, a 20. The electorate for a Panchayat is:
candidate need not be a resident of the same
village but his name should be. In the voter’s A. the Taluka board
RA

list B. all adults of 21 years of above in a village

D. For election to the Village Panchayat, a can- C. the village and selected Members of Parlia-
didate must be 25 years of age ment and State Legislature
NA

17. Which of the following is not true regarding a D. the Gram Sabha
Gram Panchayat? 21. The levying of which one of the following taxes
A. It is constituted in every village with a is outside the jurisdiction of Municipal Corpo-
population over 500 ration?
A. Property Tax
B. It consists of all the adult citizens of the vil-
lage B. Income Tax
C. Its decisions are taken by a majority vote C. Profession Tax

D. Its decision in petty criminal cases cannot D. Education Tax

be appealed in any court of Law 22. Mandal Panchayats were recommended by:

122
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 A. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee A. every four years
B. Narasimhan Committee B. every five years
C. Ashok Mehta Committee C. when the State Government decides to do so
D. Vengal Rao Committee
D. at the Centres directive
23. It is obligatory for all States to have:
28. Which of the following is a source of income of
A. three-tier system the Gram Panchayats?
B. two-tier system A. Income Tax
C. some States are exempted from establish- B. Sales Tax
ing three-tier system

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

C. Professional Tax
D. it is optional for the States
D. Levy Duties
24. Who is the executive head of a Municipal Cor- 29. Which of the following is incorrect in respect

M
poration? of Local Government in India? [IAS 1995]
A. Mayor A. According to the Indian Constitution lo-

RA
B. Secretary cal government is not an independent tier in the
federal system
C. Commissioner
B. 30% of the seats in local bodies are reserved
D. Deputy Mayor for women
RI
25. Which of the following are a source of income C. Local government finances are to be pro-
to the urban local bodies? vided by a Commission
H

I) Octroi duty on goods brought into and D. Elections to local bodies are to be deter-
taken out of the city. mined by a Commission
IS

II) Taxes on vehicles. 30. Which one of the following Amendments of

the Constitution of India deals with the issue
III) Income from water and electricity supply.
of strengthening of the Panchayati Raj? [NDA
IV) Financial grants from the State Govern-
JA

2008]
ments.
A. 42nd
A. I, II and III B. 44th
B. II, III and IV C. 73rd
C. I, III and IV D. 86th
D. I, II, III and IV 31. In which of the following States was the Pan-
chayati Raj first introduced?
26. Father of local self-government in India is:
A. Rajasthan
A. Lord Mayo
B. Gujarat
B. Acharya Vinoba Bhave
C. U.P.
C. Lord Ripon
D. Bihar
D. Mahatma Gandhi 32. Which is at the apex of the three tier system of
27. The elections to Panchayats are to be held: Panchayati Raj?

123
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 11. Local Government

A. Gram Sabha A. Public Health

B. Gram Panchayat B. Sanitation

C. Zila Parishad C. Law and Order

D. Panchayat Samiti D. Public Utility Services

38. The source of maximum income to Panchayati
33. A Municipal Corporation is set up in a city with Raj institution is: [CDS 1993]
a population of not less than:
A. local taxes
A. 1 lakh

ER
B. regional funds
B. 12 lakh
C. government grants

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

C. 10 lakh
D. share in Union Govt. revenue

D
D. 5 lakh 39. Which of the following States has no Panchay-

G
34. The list of items which may be entrusted to the ati Raj Institution at all?
Panchayats is given in the: A. Asom

N
A. Eleventh Schedule B. Kerala
B. Twelfth Schedule
A
C. Tripura
D. Nagaland
H
C. Seventh Schedule
40. What is the intermediate tier of the Panchayati
D. State List
-C
Raj System called? [NDA 2005]
35. The function of the Panchayat Samiti is to: A. Zlla Parishad
[RRB 1991]
N

B. Taluka Panchayat
A. deal with administration of justice at the
Panchayat level C. Panchayat Samiti
YA

D. Gram Sabha
B. implement community development
project schemes 41. Special representation in Panchayati Raj Insti-
tutions is given to: [IFS 1990]
RA

C. deal with financial matters of the Panchayat

A. women
B. co-operative societies
D. deal with rural industrialization
NA

C. backward classes
36. Panchayati Raj has received constitutional sta-
tus with the Amendment Act: D. All of the above
A. 72nd 42. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee suggested that
the structure of Panchayati Raj should consist
B. 73rd of: [CDS 1992]
C. 74th A. the village, the block and the district lev-
els
D. 75th
B. the mandal and the district levels
37. Which is not the concern of the local govern-
ment? [SSC Grad 2011] C. the village, the district and the State levels

124
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 D. the village, the mandal, the district and the taxes, duties tolls and fees as they are autho-
State levels rised by the Governments
43. The three-tier system of Panchayats: 45. Where was the first Municipal Corporation in
India set up? [CDS 2005]
A. is uniformly applicable to all States
A. Mumbai
B. is applicable only to States with population
above 50 lakh B. Kolkata
C. Delhi
C. need not be strictly followed in States
with population below 20 lakh D. Chennai
D. has been replaced with a four-tier one 46. Every Village Panchayat is headed by a Sarpan-

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

cha who is elected by:
44. The Panchayats are authorised:
A. Gram Sabha
A. to levy taxes, duties, levy and appropriate
the same B. members of Village Panchayat from among

M
citizens of the village
B. the Panchayats have no power to levy taxes
C. members of Village Panchayat from
C. the Panchayats are entitled to only grants
from the Government
D. to levy, collect and appropriate such
RA among themselves
D. not elected but nominated by Collector
RI
H
IS
JA

125
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 12
Amendment of the Constitution

1. In which one of the following years did the D. 24th

Right to Information Act come into force? 3. The State having the largest population of
[CDS 2008] scheduled castes is:
A. 2003 A. Rajasthan
B. 2004 B. Tamil Nadu
C. 2005 C. Bihar
D. 2006 D. Uttar Pradesh
2. By which Amendment, the power to amend the 4. The Archaeological Survey of India is an at-
Constitution was specifically conferred upon tached office of the Department/Ministry of:
the Parliament? [NDA 1992] [IAS 2004]
A. 56th A. Culture
B. 52nd B. Tourism
C. 42nd C. Science and Technology

126
 D. Human Resource Development C. When the Government of Nagaland dis-
5. In which one of the following Ministries, the allows temporary residents to buy immovable
census organisation has been functioning on a property in Nagaland.
permanent footing since 1961? [CDS 2009] D. AII of the above
A. Health and Family Welfare 9. Which of the following Amendments would
need State ratification?
B. Home Affairs
C. Social Justice and Empowerment I) Provisions affecting President’s election.
II) Provisions affecting the Union Judiciary.
D. Human Resource Development
III) Amendment procedure.
6. Consider the following statements in respect of
IV) Reservation of seats for SC/ST in Parlia-

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

protection of copyright in India
ment.
I) Copyright is a legal right given to creators
of literacy, dramatic, musical and artis- A. I, II and IV

M
tic works and produces of cinematograph B. III and IV
films and sound recordings. C. I and IV

RA
II) Copyright protects only the expression D. I, II, III and IV
and not the ideas. There is no copyright
in an idea. 10. How many States are required to ratify certain
Amendments to the Constitution?
Which of the statements given above is/are cor- A. Not less than half the number
RI
rect? [CDS 2009]
B. Three-fourths of the number
A. I only
C. At least 10 States
H

B. II only
D. All States in some cases
C. Both I and II
IS

11. Regarding Constitutional Amendments

D. Neither I nor II
I) the Provision of joint sitting is not avail-
7. The provision of amending the Constitutional able.
JA

Provision is given in:

II) they become operative from the date both
A. Part XIX Article 356 Houses have passed the Bills.
B. Part XX Article 356 III) the President’s assent to a Constitutional
Amendment is obligatory.
C. Part XX Article 368
IV) Parliament may amend any part of the
D. Part XIX Article 368 Constitution according to the procedure
8. Which of the following would be construed as a laid down in Article 368.
reasonable restriction of the ’right to freedom’?
[CDS 2009] A. I and III
B. I, II and III
A. When the State disallows a candidate from
securing votes in the name of religion C. I, III and IV
B. When the State disallows citizens from D. I, II, III and IV
forming a club out of State funds that denies 12. The Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India
access to women was: [UDC 1993]

127
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 12. Amendment of the Constitution

A. added by the first Amendment A. 1 and 4

B. added by the 24th Amendment B. 2 and 3
C. added by the 42nd Amendment C. 3 and 4
D. a part of the original Constitution D. None of the above, as the election procedure
cannot be changed
13. An aggrieved public servant of the Union can
challenge the decisions of the Administrative 17. Which one of the following can be provided un-
Tribunal: der RTI Act, 2005? [CDS 2010]

ER
A. before the Supreme Court A. Information leading to incitement of an of-
fense
B. before the High Court

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

B. Information leading to disclosure that may
C. both A and B.

D
constitute contempt of court
D. before no court of law C. Conditional disclosure relating to infor-

G
14. The Amendment procedure laid down in Indian mation on intellectual property
Constitution is on the pattern of: D. Information relating to Cabinet Papers

N
A. Constitution of Canada recording deliberations of Council of Ministers

B. Government of India Act, 1935

A
18. Which one of the following pairs is not cor-
H
C. Constitution of South Africa rectly matched? [IAS 2006]
D. Constitution of USA A. States Reorganisation Act: Andhra Pradesh
-C

15. Holding a ’Bandh’ was declared illegal for the

first time in India by which one of the following B. Treaty of Yandabu: Asom
N

High Courts? [CDS 2008]

C. State of Bilaspur:Himachal Pradesh
A. Rajasthan High Court
YA

D. Year 1966: Gujarat becomes a State

B. Gujarat High Court 19. As per the Anti-Defection Law, the final au-
C. Kerala High Court thority to decide on a member’s disqualification
RA

from the House is:

D. Maharashtra High Court
A. President
16. If the procedure for the election of the President
of India is sought to be modified, which of the B. Governor
NA

following conditions are required? C. Speaker of the House

1. An Amendment of the Constitution D. Council of Ministers
passed by simple majority in Lok Sabha 20. The song ’Jana-Gana-Mana’ composed by Ra-
2. A referendum bindra Nath Tagore was first published in Jan-
uary 1912under the title of [CPO SI 2010]
3. An Amendment of the Constitution
passed by two-thirds majority in both A. Jay He
Houses of Parliament. B. Rashtra Jagriti
4. Ratification of the legislatures of at least C. Bharat Vidhata
half the number of States.
D. Matribhoomi
128
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
21. Indian Constitution was amended for the first 26. Which of the following countries has the
time in: briefest Constitution in the world?
A. 1950 A. France
B. 1951 B. USA
C. 1952 C. UK
D. 1953 D. Canada
22. Under which one of the Ministries of the Gov- 27. In India, if a religious sect/community is given
ernment of India does the Food and Nutrition the status of a national minority, what special
Board work? [IAS 2005] advantages is it entitled to?

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

A. Ministry of Agriculture 1. It can establish and administer exclusive
B. Ministry of Health and Family Welfare educational institutions.
2. The President of India automatically nom-

M
C. Ministry of Human Resource Development
inates a representative of the community
D. Ministry of Rural Development to Lok Sabha.
23. Which one of the following is not correctly
matched?
A. Emergency due to war declared for the first
time - 1. October1962
RA 3. It can derive benefits from the Prime Min-
ister’s 15-Point Programme.

Which of the statements given above is/are cor-

rect? [CSAT 2011]
RI
B. Lok Sabha held its first sitting - 2. May A. 1 only
1952
B. 2 and 3 only
H

C. Sarkaria Commission set up -3. June 1983

C. 1 and 3 only
IS

D. National Commission for Minorities set

up - 4. April 1980 D. 1, 2 and 3

24. The National River Conservation Directorate is 28. Which of the following statements regarding
JA

under: [Asstt Comm 2008] literacy in India are correct?

A. Ministry of Agriculture I) A person who can only read but cannot

write is not defined literate.
B. Ministry of Environment and Forests
II) Children below 5 years of age are not
C. Ministry of Earth Sciences taken into consideration even if they are
D. Ministry of Water Resources able to read and write.
25. Which of the following provisions can be III) For the purpose of census, a person is
amended by simple majority? deemed literate if he or she can read and
write with understanding in any of the 22
A. Creation of new States languages mentioned in the Constitution
B. Creation or abolition of upper houses in IV) The fact that a district has attained hun-
State Legislatures dred percent literacy does not mean that
C. Reconstitution of existing States the entire population in the district is lit-
erate.
D. All of the above
129
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 12. Amendment of the Constitution

A. I, III and IV A. Bihar

B. II, III and IV B. Chhattisgarh
C. I, II and III C. Uttar Pradesh
D. I, II and IV D. Uttarakhand
29. The National Commission for Women was cre- 33. Match the following [IFS 1993]
ated by [CDS 2012]
A. an amendment in the Constitution of India A. MP Elected by an
Electoral College

ER
B. a decision of the Union Cabinet
B. President Elected by the Par-
C. an Act passed by the Parliament liament

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

D. an order of the President of India C. Vice-President Elected by the Lok

D
Sabha
30. Which of the following statements is/are not vi-
D. Speaker Elected by adult

G
olative of the principle of federalism? [NDA
2010] voting

N
1. The President of India takes over adminis- A. 1 2 3 4
tration of provinces under the emergency
2. The Parliament of India has exclusive
A
B. 2 3 4 1
C. 3 4 1 2
H
power to make any law with respect to any
matter not enumerated in the Concurrent D. 4123
-C
list of State list.
34. Consider the following statements:
3. The distribution of powers between the
Union and provinces is done through three 1. Free and compulsory education to the
N

different lists enumerated in the Constitu- children of 6-14 years age group by the
tion of India. State was made a Fundamental Right by
YA

the 76th Amendment to the Constitution

A. 1 and 2
of India.
B. 2 and 3
2. Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan seeks to provide
RA

C. 3 only computer education even in rural areas.

D. 1 and 3 3. Education was included in the Concurrent
31. The Constitution of India does not mention the List by the 42nd Amendment, 1976 to the
NA

post of: Constitution of India.

A. the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha Which of the statements given above are cor-
B. the Deputy Prime Minister rect? [IAS 2006]

C. the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha A. 1, 2 and 3

D. the Deputy Speaker of the State Legislative B. 1 and 2
Assemblies C. 2 and 3
32. Which one of the following States has granted
D. 1 and 3
Sanskrit language the status of the second offi-
cial language of the State? [UP PCS 2011] 35. Consider the following statements:

130
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 1. There is no provision in the Constitution each House of Parliament, and (b) are ratified
of India to encourage equal pay for equal by the legislatures of one-half of the States?
work for both men and women. [IAS 1995]
2. The Constitution of India does not define I) Method of election of President.
backward classes.
II) Provisions regarding the High Court.
Which of the statements given above is/are cor- III) Abolition of Legislative Council in any
rect? [IAS 2006] State.
A. 1 only IV) Qualifications for Indian citizenship
B. 2 only V) Representation of States in Parliament.

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

C. Both 1 and 2 A. I, III, IV and V
D. Neither 1 nor 2 B. II, III and V
36. Of all the Amendments in the Indian Constitu-
C. I, II and V

M
tion, the most Comprehensive and Controver-
sial Amendment was: D. I, II, III, IV and V

RA
A. 42nd 39. In the Minerva Mills batch of cases the
Supreme Court has further reaffirmed its deci-
B. 43rd sion in:
C. 44th A. Golakh Nath Case
RI
D. 45th B. Keshavanand Bharati case
37. Match the following: C. Sajjan Singh Case
H

A. Biggest democ- USA D. None of the above

racy 40. Department of Official Language (Raj Bhasha
IS

B. Rigid Constitu- India Vibhag) comes under which one of the follow-
tion providing for ing Ministries? [CDS 2008]
dual citizenship
JA

A. Ministry of Culture
C. Flexible Con- UK
stitution providing B. Ministry of Home Affairs
for nonrepublican C. Ministry of Human Resource Development
democracy
D. Ministry of Information and Broad casting
A. 1 2 3 41. Match the following: Amendment Provision
B. 213 A. 42nd 1. Panchayati Raj
C. 1 3 2 B. 44th 2. Fundamental
Duties
D. 3 1 2
C. 61st 3. Voting age low-
38. Which of the following provisions of the Con- ered from 21 years
stitution can be amended only if (a) they are to 18 years
passed by a majority of total - membership of D. 73rd 4. Right to Prop-
each House of Parliament and not less than two- erty abolished
thirds of the members present and voting in

131
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 12. Amendment of the Constitution

A. 𝐴 − 3, 𝐵 − 2, 𝐶 − 4, 𝐷 − 1 A. States Reorganisation Act was passed

B. 𝐴 − 2, 𝐵 − 4, 𝐶 − 3, 𝐷 − 1 B. Haryana State was split
C. 𝐴 − 4, 𝐵 − 1, 𝐶 − 3, 𝐷 − 2 C. First official census in India was held
D. 𝐴 − 2, 𝐵 − 3, 𝐶 − 1, 𝐷 − 4 D. First general elections to the Lok Sabha
were held
42. Match the following:
45. What was the decision of the Supreme Court in
A. Fifty-eighth 1. Delhi to be Keshavanand Bharati case?
Amendment called as National A. Parliament is supreme in the matters of leg-

ER
Capital Territory of islation
Delhi
B. In matters relating to compulsory acquisi-

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

B. Sixty-first 2. Reduced voting
tion of private property the court had the ulti-

D
Amendment age from 21 years
mate powers of determining what is public pur-
to 18 years
pose under Article 31

G
C. Sixty-ninth 3. An authoritative
Amendment text of the Consti- C. The power under Article 368 to amend

N
tution in Hindi the Constitution cannot be so exercised as to al-
D. Seventy-first 4. Included ter the basic structure or the essential features
Amendment Konkani, Manipuri
and Nepali lan- A
of the Constitution
D. The Supreme Court has full authority to
H
guages in the pronounce on the Constitutional Validity of any
Eighth Schedule State law
-C

46. Which of the following condition/conditions

A. 𝐴 − 3, 𝐵 − 2, 𝐶 − 1, 𝐷 − 4 must be fulfilled by the NRIs to be eligible to
vote in elections in India?
N

B. 𝐴 − 3, 𝐵 − 1, 𝐶 − 2, 𝐷 − 4
C. 𝐴 − 2, 𝐵 − 1, 𝐶 − 3, 𝐷 − 4 1. They must be physically present in their
YA

place of origin to exercise their franchise.

D. 𝐴 − 4, 𝐵 − 2, 𝐶 − 1, 𝐷 − 3
2. NRIs whether they have acquired citizen-
43. Under which one of the following Constitution ship of other countries or not are eligible
RA

Amendment Acts, four languages were added to vote

to the languages under the Eighth Schedule of 3. Eligible NRIs have to register by filling up
the Constitution of India, thereby raising their form 6-A with electoral registration office.
number to 22? [IAS 2008]
NA

Select the correct answer using the code given

A. Constitution (Ninetieth Amendment) Act
below: [UP PCS 2011]
B. Constitution (Ninety-first Amendment) Act A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 3 only
C. Constitution (Ninety-second Amend-
ment) Act C. 2 only
D. 3 only
D. Constitution (Ninety-third Amendment)
Act 47. The Sarkaria Commission has:
44. Why is the year 1952 important in Indian His- I) Favoured the implementation of the three-
tory? language formula.

132
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 II) Turned down the/demand for the abolition 51. Which of these Amendments and their subject
of the office of the Governor. matter is/are incorrectly matched?
III) Favoured liberal use of Article 356 of the
Constitution in the interest of the coun- I) 26th Amendment - Abolition of titles
try’s integrity. and privileges of former rules of princely
states
A. I only
II) 21st Amendment - Curtailed the right to
B. II only property
C. I and II III) 51st Amendment - Curbed political defec-
D. I, II and III tions

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

48. Next to Hindi, language spoken by the largest IV) 61st Amendment - Reduced voting age.
number of people in the Indian subcontinent is:
[CDS 1993] A. I, II and IV

M
A. Bengali
B. II, III and IV
B. Tamil
C. Telugu
D. Marathi
RA C. I and IV

D. II and III

49. In the Government of India, under which Min- 52. Which Amendment restored the power of ju-
RI
istry is the National River Conservation Direc- dicial review to the Supreme Court and High
torate? [IAS 2009] Courts after it was curtailed by the 42nd
H

A. Ministry of Agriculture Amendment?

B. Ministry of Earth Sciences A. 42nd

IS

C. Ministry of Environment and Forests B. 43rd

D. Ministry of Water Resources
JA

C. 44th
50. Consider the following statements:
D. 56th
1. In India, the legislation passed by the Par-
liament is subject to judicial review. 53. Which one among the following commissions
was set up in pursuance of a definite provision
2. The Constitution of India lays down the
under an Article of the Constitution of India?
mechanism for the enforcement of Funda-
[IAS 2006]
mental Rights.
A. University Grants Commission
Which of the statements given above is/are cor-
rect? [IAS 2007] B. National Human Rights Commission
A. 1 only
C. Election Commission
B. 2 only
D. Central Vigilance Commission
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2 54. Match the following:

133
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 12. Amendment of the Constitution

Prominent Func- Minimum Age for 1. Disputes with mobile cellular companies.
tionaries Appointment 2. Motor accident cases,
A. Member of Ra- No minimum age
3. Pension cases.
jya Sabha
B. Member of Leg- 21 years For which of the above are Lok Adalats held?
islative Assembly [IAS 2005]
C. High Court 25 years A. 1 only
Judge
B. 1 and 2
D. Member of Pan- 30 years

ER
chayat C. 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

A. 4 3 2 1
59. Which of the following statements regarding

D
B. 4 2 1 3 74th Amendment of the Constitution are cor-
rect?

G
C. 3 2 1 4
D. 4312 I) It provides for the insertion of a new

N
schedule to the Constitution.
55. In which of the following States, no tribe has
II) It restructures the working of the munici-
been declared as ’Scheduled’ by the President?
[IFS 1993]
A palities.
H
A. Uttar Pradesh III) It provides for the reservation of seats for
women and scheduled castes in the mu-
B. Tamil Nadu
-C
nicipalities.
C. Haryana
A. I only
N

D. Bihar
B. I and III
56. Which Amendment provided for an authorita-
C. I and II
YA

tive version of the Constitution in Hindi?

D. I, II and III
A. 56th
60. Consider the following events:
B. 58th
RA

1. Fourth general elections in India

C. 60th
2. Formation of Haryana State
D. 61st
3. Mysore named as Karnataka
NA

57. An Amendment of the Bill relating to the man-

ner and mode of election of the President: 4. Meghalaya and Tripura

A. does not need the assent of the President Which one of the following is the correct
chronological order of the above? [IAS 2004]
B. does need the assent of the President
A. 2, 1, 4, 3
C. does not need the assent of the President if
passed by ratification of the States B. 4, 3, 2, 1

D. on approval of the Bill by the cabinet, as- C. 2, 3, 4, 1

sent of the President may be dispensed with D. 4, 1, 2, 3
58. Consider the following: 61. The Constitution envisages:

134
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 A. two types of civil services-administrative 65. A Constitutional Amendment Bill passed by
and police both Houses of Parliament
B. two types of civil services-Indian and A. does not need the assent of the President
Provincial B. does need the assent of the President
C. three types of civil services-all- India, Cen- C. does not need the assent of the President if
tral and regional passed by ratification of States
D. three types of civil services-all- India, D. None of the above
Central and State 66. Who is the head of the National Defence Com-
62. Who was made the Home Minister when Jawa- mittee? [BPSC 2011]
harlal Nehru formed the Interim Government in
A. Home Minister

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

1946? [Asstt Grade 1995]
B. Prime Minister
A. Baldev Singh
C. President
B. Sardar Patel

M
D. Vice-President
C. Mohd. Ali Jinnah
67. Which one of the following is/are all-India ser-

RA
D. Liaqat Ali Khan vices?
63. Consider the following statements with refer- I) Indian Administrative Service
ence to the linguistic reorganization of States in
II) Indian Foreign Service
independent India:
III) Indian Police Service
RI
1. The separate State of Andhra for the Tel- IV) Indian Defence Service
ugu people came into existence in 1953.
H

2. Jawaharlal Nehru was particularly in A. I and II

favour of the movement for linguistic re- B. I and III
IS

organisation of States that came in the

C. II, III and IV
wake of the success of the Andhra move-
ment. D. I, II, III and IV
JA

68. Which one of the following is the correct se-

Which of the statements given above is/are cor- quence in the descending order of precedence
rect? [IAS 2008] in the warrant of precedence? [IAS 2004]
A. 1 only A. Attorney General of India - Judges of the
B. 2 only Supreme Court - Members of Parliament -
Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha
C. Both 1 and 2
B. Judges of the Supreme Court - Deputy
D. Neither 1 nor 2 Chairman of Rajya Sabha - Attorney General
64. Territorial waters of India extends upto how of India - Members of Parliament
many nautical miles? [IFS 1989] C. Attorney General of’ India - Deputy Chair-
A. 8 man of Rajya Sabha - Judges of the Supreme
Court - Members of Parliament
B. 12
D. Judges of the Supreme Court - Attorney
C. 18
General of India - Deputy Chairman of Rajya
D. 22 Sabha - Members of Parliament
135
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 12. Amendment of the Constitution

69. Which one of the following is not an indepen- 72. Which of the following cannot be altered by the
dent Department under the Government of In- Parliament by ordinary legislative procedure?
dia? [CDS 2009]
A. Acquistion and termination of citizenship
A. Department of Atomic Energy
B. Privileges of the Parliament
B. Department of Bio-Technology
C. Composition of State Legislative Councils
C. Department of space
D. Representation of States in the Parlia-
D. Planning Commission ment
70. Match the following:

ER
73. There are different arguments given in favour of
Prominent Func- Term of Office power sharing in a democratic political system.
Which one of the following is not one of them?

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

tionaries
[CDS 2011]

D
A. Supreme Court Till 65 years of age
Judge A. It reduces conflict among different commu-

G
B. High Court Till 62 years of age nities
Judge B. Majority community does not impose its

N
C. Comptroller and 6 years or age will on others
Auditor General of of 65 whichever is
C. Since all are affected by the policies of the
India
D. Governor
less
5 years A
government, they should be consulted in the
governance of the country
H
A. 1234 D. It speeds up the decision making process
-C
and improves the chances of unity of the coun-
B. 1 3 2 4
try
C. 2 1 3 4
74. Who among the following was the Finance
N

D. 3 2 4 1 Minister of India in the Interim Government

71. Match the following: during 1946-1947? [CDS 2008]
YA

A. Madhu Limayi A former Vice- A. R.K. Shanrnukharn Chetty

President B. John Mathai
RA

B. Pattabhi Sitara- The first Speaker C. Liaquat Ali Khan

maiah of the Lok Sabha
C. B.D. Jatti A veteran par- D. Chintamanrao Deshmukh
liamentarian of 75. Which one of the following Union Ministries is
NA

yester years implementing the Biodiesel Mission (as Nodal

D. Mavlankar Author of a famous Ministry)? [IAS 2008]
book on the history A. Ministry of Agriculture
of Indian
National Congress B. Ministry of Science and Technology
C. Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
A. 2 4 3 1
D. Ministry of Rural Development
B. 3 1 2 4 76. The Amendment regarding the formation of a
C. 4 3 1 2 new State by separating territory from any other
D. 3412 State must be passed by:

136
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 A. only Lok Sabha A. 1971 1. Fifth general
elections
B. only Rajya Sabha
B. 1978 2. Introduction
C. both the Houses of Parliament of Panchayati Raj
D. both the Houses of Parliament and before System
that the opinion of that State is to be ascertained C. 1952 3. Formation of
by the President National Develop-
ment Council
77. If India decides to have a Presidential form of
D. 1959 4. Right to prop-
government, the first and foremost Amendment
erty removed from
has to be made affecting the:
Article 19

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

A. system of judiciary
A. 𝐴 − 1, 𝐵 − 2, 𝐶 − 3, 𝐷 − 4
B. composition of Parliament
B. 𝐴 − 4, 𝐵 − 3, 𝐶 − 2, 𝐷 − 1
C. Executive-Legislature relationship

M
C. 𝐴 − 1, 𝐵 − 4, 𝐶 − 3, 𝐷 − 2
D. provisions pertaining to Fundamental
Rights D. 𝐴 − 3, 𝐵 − 4, 𝐶 − 1, 𝐷 − 2

78. According to the Constitution (Fifty Second

Amendment) Act 1985asamended in 2003, a
legislator attracts disqualification under the
RA
80. Match the following:
A. 1950 1. First Rajya
Sabha Constituted
Tenth Schedule if
RI
B. 1952 2. Contingency
Fund of India Act
I) he voluntarily gives up the membership of
C. 1957 3. First Finance
the party on whose ticket he was elected.
H

Commission con-
II) he votes or abstains from voting contrary stituted
IS

to any direction issued by his political D. 1951 4. Jammu and

party. Kashmir adopted
III) as a result of split, less than one third of its separate Con-
JA

the members formed a new group or party stitution

in the house.
A. 𝐴 − 2, 𝐵 − 3, 𝐶 − 4, 𝐷 − 1
IV) a member who has been elected as an
independent member joins any political B. 𝐴 − 1, 𝐵 − 4, 𝐶 − 3, 𝐷 − 2
party. C. 𝐴 − 1, 𝐵 − 3, 𝐶 − 4, 𝐷 − 2
Select the correct answer using the code given D. 𝐴 − 2, 𝐵 − 1, 𝐶 − 4, 𝐷 − 3
below [CDS 2009] 81. Extradiction means:
A. II and III A. forcing a foreign national to leave the coun-
try
B. I, II and IV
B. forcing a citizen of the country to leave the
C. I and III
country
D. I, II, III and IV C. delivering a foreign national for the trial
79. Match the following: of offences

137
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 12. Amendment of the Constitution

D. blocking the trade of other countries with a 86. Which of the following are correct regarding
particular country the Parliament’s power of amendment?
82. Civil servants are not permitted to become:
I) It can amend the Fundamental Rights.
[Delhi Police 1994]
II) It can amend the basic structure of the
A. Chief Election Commissioner
Constitution.
B. Vice-Chancellors of Universities
A. Only I
C. Heads of Commissions of Enquiry
B. Only II

ER
D. Members of Parliament
83. The decision of the Supreme Court in the Go- C. Both I and II

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

lakh Nath Case was that: D. None of the above

D
A. Judiciary is independent of Parliament 87. Which of the following is/are instance(s) of vi-
B. Fundamental Rights could not be olation of human rights?

G
amended or abridged
1. A person was detained by the security

N
C. the Constitution is supreme forces while going for casting vote in Par-
liamentary Election.
D. the basic structure of the Constitution
should not be changed
A2. A civilian was killed by the army while
undertaking combing operation. [NDA
H
84. What is the document published by the govern-
ment to apprise the public on any issue? [Cen- 2010]
-C
tral Excise 1990]
A. 1 only
A. Gazette
B. 2 only
N

B. Report of Public Accounts Committee

C. Both 1 and 2
C. White Paper
YA

D. Neither 1 nor 2
D. None of the above
88. The President of USA is elected after every:
85. Put in chronological order the following
Amendments to the Constitution. A. 3 years
RA

B. 4 years
I) Addition of Ninth Schedule to the Consti-
tution. C. 5 years
NA

II) Abolition of privy purses and privileges of D. 6 years

former princes.
89. Consider the following statements:
III) Insertion of XI Schedule
IV) Removal of Right to Property from Con- 1. The Ministries/Departments of the Union
stitutional Rights. Government are created by the Prime
Minister.
A. I, II, III, IV 2. The Cabinet Secretary is the Ex-officio
B. II, I, IV, III Chairman of the Civil Services Board.
C. I, II, IV, III Which of the statements given above is/are cor-
D. IV, I, II, III rect? [CDS 2008]

138
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 A. 1 only members in the Lok Sabha and the total num-
ber of members of the Legislative Assembly of
B. 2 only
that State, respectively? [IAS 2007]
C. Both 1 and 2
A. 91st
D. Neither 1 nor 2 B. 93rd
90. National Capital Territory of Delhi has been C. 95th
constituted by:
D. 97th
A. 71st Amendment
95. For which one of the following reforms was a
B. 69th Amendment Commission set up under the Chairmanship of
Veerappa Moily by the Government of India?

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

C. ordinance promulgated by the President
[IAS 2008]
D. ordinance promulgated by the Lieutenant
A. Police Reforms
Governor

M
91. A major portion of the Constitution: B. Tax Reforms
C. Reforms in Technical Education
A. can be amended by simple majority
B. can be amended by two-thirds majority
C. can be amended only with State ratification
D. cannot be amended
RA D. Administrative Reforms
96. Which Amendment of the Constitution gave
priority to Directive Principles over Fundamen-
tal Rights?
RI
92. Which is the highest ranking post among the A. 24th Amendment
following? B. 39th Amendment
H

A. Chief of the Air Staff C. 42nd Amendment

B. Judge of the Supreme Court D. 40th Amendment
IS

C. Deputy Chairman, Rajya Sabha 97. Which of the following is correctly matched?
D. Speaker of Lok Sabha A. 1960- Third general elections in India
JA

93. Which of the following is true about C. Raj- B. 1958-Bombay bifurcated into Maharashtra
gopalachari? and Gujarat

A. He was the first Speaker of Lok Sabha after C. 1966-lndira Gandhi became Prime Min-
independence ister

B. He was the Chairman of the Constitution D. 1970-Nationalisation of banks

Drafting Body of India 98. Department of Border Management is a Depart-
ment of which one of the following Union Min-
C. He was the first and last Indian Governor
istries? [IAS 2008]
General of India after independence
A. Ministry of Defence
D. He was the Governor of Tamil Nadu
B. Ministry of Home Affairs
94. Which of the following Constitution Amend-
ment Acts seeks that the size of the Councils C. Ministry of Shipping, Road Transport and
of Ministers at the Centre and in a State must Highways
not exceed 15 percent of the total number of D. Ministry of Environment and Forests

139
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 12. Amendment of the Constitution

99. By which Amendment Act of the Constitut- A. National Botanical Research Institute
tion of India were the Directive Principles of B. Botanical Survey of India
the State Policy given precedence over the Fun-
damental Rights wherever they come into con- C. National Bureau of Plant Genetic Re-
flict? [CDS 200S] sources
D. Council of Scientific and Industrial Re-
A. 40th
search
B. 42nd 104. The expression ’Creamy layer’ used in the
C. 44th judgement of the Supreme Court relating to

ER
the case regarding reservations refers to: [RRB
D. 46th 1994]

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

100. By Convention, who of the following is the A. those sections of the society which pay in-

D
Chairman of Press Council of India? [Asstt come tax
Comm 2008]
B. those sections of socially and education-

G
A. An eminent journalist of India ally backward classes of the society that are de-
veloped

N
B. A senior Civil Services Officer
C. those sections of the society that are consid-
C. A retired Judge of the Supreme Court of ered advanced according to the Karpuri Thakur
India
A
formula
H
D. The Union Minister of Information arid D. all sections of the upper castes of the society
Broadcasting
-C
101. The Constituent Assembly appointed the Lin- 105. Who is entitled to initiate a Bill for Constitu-
guistic Provinces Commission in the year 1948 tional Amendments?
to enquire into the desirability of linguistic
N

A. State Legislative Assemblies

provinces. Who among the following was the
B. Lok Sabha only
Head of that Commission? [IAS 2008]
YA

C. Either House of Parliament

A. Jawaharlal Nehru
D. Rajya Sabha only
B. Justice S.K. Dhar
106. Which one of the following statements is/are
RA

C. Justice Fazl AIi correct?

D. Pattabhi Sitaramayya I) The committee on the status of women
in India (NSW/) recommended the setting
NA

102. The Ashok Mehta Committee laid greater em-

up of a National Commission for Women.
phasis on; [CDS 2004]
II) The first Chairperson of the National
A. Gram Sabha Commission for Women was Mrs. Jayanti
B. Mandal Panchayat Patnaik.
III) The main task of the Commission is to
C. Taluk Panchayat Samiti study and monitor all matters relating
D. Zila Parishad to the constitutional and legal safeguards
provided for women.
103. The quarantine regulation for preventing en-
try of diseased plants into the country is done Select the correct answer using the code given
by which one of the following? [CDS 2008] below [CDS 2009]

140
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 A. I, II and III C. special majority under Article 368
B. II only D. special majority after obtaining opinion of
C. I and II the concerned State under Article 3 of the Con-
stitution
D. I and III
109. Which was the Capital of Andhra State when
107. A merger will not invite action under the Anti- it was made a separate State in the year 1953?
Defection Act if members of a [IAS 2008]
political party decide to join another political
party. A. Guntur

A. one-third B. Kurnool
C. Nellore

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

B. two-thirds
C. half D. Warangal
110. Which of the following Constitutional
D. one-fourth

M
Amendments banned the floor crossing in Par-
108. When the name of the State is changed or a liament? [UGC 1989]
new State is created, the Constitution of India

RA
is required to be amended by Parliament by a: A. 42nd

A. simple majority as under Articles 107 and B. 44th

108 C. 52nd
B. majority of total numbers of both the D. 53rd
RI
Houses under Article 368
H
IS
JA

141
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 13
Indian Constitution

1. The Indian Army General who had earned the 3. The territorial jurisdiction of the Guwahati
sobriquet ’Sparrow’ was High Court extends over the States of
A. KM Cariappa A. Assam, Nagaland and Mizoram
B. Sam J Manekshaw B. Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya, Nagaland,
C. Rajinder Singh Tripura, Arunachal

D. KS Thimmayya C. Pradesh and Mizoram

2. Right to Education Bill envisages to provide D. Assam, Nagaland and Arunachal Pradesh
free education to the children of the age group 4. Which, among the following countries, has the
of oldest written Constitution?
A. Up to 2.5 years A. Japan
B. Up to 3 years B. India
C. Up to 5 years C. USA
D. 6-14 years D. UK
142
 5. The members of the Rajya Sabha are elected A. Second
for
B. Third
A. four years
C. Sixth
B. six years
D. Seventh
C. five years 11. The Union Territories get representation
D. three years A. in the Lok Sabha but not in the Rajya Sabha
6. The first National Emergency declared in Octo-
ber 1962 lasted till B. in the Rajya Sabha but not in the Lok Sabha
A. 1965

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

B. 1966 C. neither in the Lok Sabha nor in the Rajya
Sabha
C. 1967
D. in both the Houses

M
D. 1968
12. The right to dissolve the Rajya Sabha rests with
7. The Sarkaria Commission was set up to exam-
the
ine
A. Centre-State relations
B. Inter-State relations
C. The working of Public Sector Undertakings
RA A. Prime Minister
B. President
C. Supreme Court of India
RI
D. None of them
D. The dispute relating to sharing of Cauvery 13. The USA is a federation of States.
H

waters A. 48
8. Supreme court judges hold office until they B. 49
IS

complete the age of

C. 50
A. 60
D. 51
JA

B. 62
14. Burma (now Myanmar) was separated from In-
C. 58 dia in
D. 65 A. 1919
9. In the division of the power under the Constitu- B. 1929
tion who has been given more powers?
C. 1935
A. The Centre
D. 1947
B. The States
15. If the Preamble of the Indian Constitution is vi-
C. Both the States and the Centre enjoy equal olated,
powers
A. the Supreme Court alone can help
D. Cannot be determined
B. there is no remedy legally or otherwise
10. Salaries of the Judges of the Supreme Court of
India are specified in the Sched- C. the Supreme Court and State High Courts
ule. can help

143
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 13. Indian Constitution

D. the Attorney General of India can move the A. 6

Supreme Court for issue of a suitable writ B. 7
16. State Assembly elections are conducted by the C. 8
A. Chief Secretary of the State concerned D. 9
B. Chief Election Commissioner 21. Which of the following Acts ensures that every
child gets school education?
C. Governor of the State concerned
A. RTI Act
D. Chief Minister of the State concerned

ER
B. Govt. Grants Act
17. In the Republic of India
C. Apprentice Act

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

A. the President is supreme as he is the Head D. RTE Act

D
of the State, the Supreme Commnader of the
22. All proceedings of the Supreme Court shall be
Armed Forces and all the Executive Power is
in the

G
vested in him
A. Hindi Language
B. Parliament is supreme as it can even amend

N
the Constitution B. Urdu Language

C. the Supreme Court is supreme as it has the

ultimate say in interpreting what the Constitu- A
C. English Language
D. Regional Language of the State concerned
H
tion is 23. When the Prime Minister tenders his resigna-
D. the Constitution is supreme as it controls tion the Union Cabinet
-C

all the three wings, viz. the executive, the leg- A. remains automatically dissolved
islature and the judiciary
B. will function under an acting/a retaker
N

18. In the matter of representation of States in the Prime Minister

Rajya Sabha Uttar Pradesh tops the list. Next
YA

C. will function directly under the President

comes
D. will meet under the Chairmanship of the
A. Andhra Pradesh President
RA

B. Bihar 24. Who retains the power of declaring war or

peace?
C. Maharashtra
A. Prime Minister
D. West Bengal
NA

B. President
19. The first Speaker of the Lok Sabha was
C. Chief of Army Staff
A. GS Dhillon
D. Defence Minister
B. MA Ayyangar 25. The Indian Constitution vests in
C. GV Mavlankar the power to impeach the President.
A. Supreme Court of India
D. Hukum Singh
B. Union Parliament
20. The original Constitution provided for
Judges besides the Chief Justice C. Union Cabinet
for the Supreme Court of India. D. Attorney General for India

144
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
26. Which one of the following statements is not A. they are sacrosanct
correct with regard to the Directive Principles
B. in case they are violated, the matter can-
of State Policy incorporated in the Constitution
not be taken to courts
of India?
C. courts are debarred from consideration of
A. It is the duty of the State to apply these prin- these Principles
ciples while making laws
D. the law of the land does not recognise their
B. They are enforceable by the High Courts existence
and Supreme Court of India
31. The post of Registrar of a State High Court can
C. In case of conflict between these principles be ruled up only by the
and the Fundamental Rights the latter will pre-
A. Chief Justice of the High Court

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

vail
B. State Public Service Commission
D. The attempt to confer primacy upon the
Principles as against the Fundamental Rights C. State Governor

M
has been foiled by the Supreme Court of India D. Supreme Court of India
in the Minerva Mills Case
32. The President issues ordinances on the advice

RA
27. The first Union Council of Ministers of free of the
India comprised Cabinet Ministers
besides Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru. A. Union Council of Ministers

A. 12 B. Union Law Minister

RI
B. 13 C. Supreme Court of India

C. 14 D. Attorney General for India

H

33. Which of the following is a statutory quasi-

D. 15
judicial authority mandated by the Parliament’
IS

28. Which among the following countries does not to preserve the freedom of press and maintain
possess a Constitution in the formal sense of the and improve the standard of newspapers?
term?
A. Press Trust of India
JA

A. United Kingdom
B. Press Information Bureau
B. USA
C. United News of India
C. Canada D. NAM News Network
D. Switzerland E. Press Council of India
29. The rank of the different Ministers in the Union 34. Article 14 prevents discriminatory practices by
Council of Ministers is determined by the
A. the State
A. President
B. individuals
B. Prime Minister
C. both
C. Cabinet Secretary
D. Neither
D. Speaker of the Lok Sabha 35. How many languages have been originally
30. The Directive Principles of State Policy are listed in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitu-
non- justiciable which means that tion of India?

145
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 13. Indian Constitution

A. 18 40. Parliament can legislate on matters in the State

List
B. 14
A. by written orders of the President
C. 25
B. by consulting the State Legislatures con-
D. 15
cerned
36. When Mrs. Gandhi became Prime Minister in
1965 she was a member of C. by the Rajya Sabha passing a two-thirds
majority resolution
A. Lok Sabha

ER
D. under any circumstances
B. Rajya Sabha
41. Nagaland is bounded on the east by

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

C. Neither
A. Bangladesh

D
D. Both
B. Myanmar
37. The authority to dissolve a State Legislative As-

G
C. China
sembly is vested in the
D. Tibet

N
A. Chief Minister of the State
42. The President of India had referred the Ayod-
B. Speaker of the State Assembly
C. President of India
A
hya issue to the Supreme Court of India under
Article of the Constitution.
H
D. Governor of the State A. 131
38. The Sarkaria Commission has laid down certain B. 136
-C

guidelines for appointment of Governors. Find

C. 138
the ’odd man’ out.
N

D. 143
A. The appointee should be eminent in some
walk of life 43. The procedure for resolving a disagreement be-
YA

tween the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha is

B. He should have travelled extensively in
and out of India A. A joint session of the two houses on a di-
rective from the President
RA

C. He should not be too closely connected with

the politics of the State where he is to be posted B. Dissolution of the Lok Sabha
C. Setting up of a Joint Select Committee
D. A politician from the ruling party at the
NA

D. Setting up of an Adjudication Committee

Centre should not be appointed to a State run
by some other party 44. The final authority to make a Procla-mation of
Emergency rests with the
39. The House of the People shall consist of not
more than members to represent Union Terri- A. Prime Minister
tories. B. President
A. 20 C. Union Parliament
B. 25 D. Union Council of Ministers
C. 30 45. By convention the Governor of a State gener-
D. 35 ally belongs to

146
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 A. the same State A. Single transferable vote system
B. some other State B. List system
C. the IAS Cadre C. Limited vote system
D. the same zone D. Single non-transferable vote system
46. Labour legislations in India have an important 51. The Chief Minister of the National Capital Ter-
dimension of protection of women from ex- ritory of Delhi shall be appointed/elected by
ploitation. Some special provisions are made the
for women in the workplace. Which of the fol-
lowing is NOT one such special provision? A. President

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

A. Maternity protection B. Lieutenant Governor
B. Creche facility at the work place for infants C. Delhi Assembly
D. Chief Administrator

M
C. No night shifts
52. The Preamble of the Indian Constitution has
D. Cooked meals during day shifts to be pro- been amended
vided by the employer
47. Who among the following hold/s the office dur-
ing the pleasure of the President?
RA A. twice
B. thrice
A. State Governors C. once
RI
B. Supreme Court Judges D. Four times
H

C. Speaker of the Lok Sabha 53. According to Article 24, no child below the age
of years shall be employed to work
D. Chief Election Commissioner
IS

in any factory or mines.

48. The Fundamental Rights can be suspended
A. 12
A. if Parliament passes a law by a two-thirds
JA

majority B. 13

B. if the Supreme Court decrees it C. 14

C. if the President orders it at the time of a Na- D. 15
tional Emergency
54. The Panchayati Raj institutions depend for
D. Under no circumstances funds mainly on
49. The Legislative Council has a tenure of A. local taxes
A. 6 years B. government finances
B. 5 years C. property taxes
C. 4 years D. special taxes
D. A permanent nature 55. The First Amendment introduced in 1951
50. Which of the following systems is also known added a new Schedule to the Constitution. It
as the Hare System? is the Schedule.

147
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 13. Indian Constitution

A. Seventh A. Balwant Rai Mehta

B. Eighth B. Jivraj Mehta
C. Ninth C. Jagjivan Ram
D. Tenth D. Shriman Narayan
56. According to Article 1 of the Constitution of 61. The Parliament of Japan is called the
India,
A. Congress
A. India that is Bharat, shall be a Federation of
B. Presidium

ER
States
C. Majlis
B. India shall be a Federal Republic

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

D. Diet
C. India, that is Bharat, shall be a Union of

D
State 62. Who among the following is elected by an elec-
toral college comprising the elected members

G
D. India, that is Bharat, shall be a Unitary State of both the Houses of Parliament and the Leg-
islative Assemblies of the States?

N
57. Which among the following can be introduced
A. Speaker of the Lok Sabha
in the Union Parliament without the previous
sanction of the Union President?
A. A Bill to alter the name of a State AB. President of India
C. Vice-President of India
H
B. A Money Bill D. Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
-C

C. A Bill which would involve expenditure 63. According to the constitution of India, the term
from the Consolidated Fund of India ’District Judge’ shall not include
N

D. A Bill that seeks to amend the Constitu- A. Tribunal Judge

tion of India in terms of Article 368 B. Chief Justice of a small Cause Court
YA

58. A Constitution can be developed through C. Chief Presidency Megistrate

A. amendments D. Sessions Judge
RA

B. customs and usages 64. If the same person is elected to both a Parlia-
C. Judicial interpretations mentary seat and a seat in a State Legislature
and if he does not resign his seat in the State
D. All the three Legislature before a specified period
NA

59. Dual Citizenship is an important feature in

A. his seat in the State Legislature will become
which form of Government?
vacant
A. Parliamentary
B. his seat in Parliament will become vacant
B. Federal
C. Unitary C. both the seats will become vacant
D. Authoritarian D. he may be debarred from contesting elec-
60. The Committee, on whose recommendations tions in the future
Panchayatl Raj was introduced in the country 65. A High Court Cora Union Territory may be
was headed by constituted by

148
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 A. President A. Dr S Radhakrishnan
B. Union Parliament B. VV Giri
C. Supreme Court of India C. Dr Zakir Husain
D. Union Law Ministry D. FA Ahmed
66. The Governor may nominate one or more mem- 71. The President of India is the
bers of a certain community, as members of the A. Head of State
State Legislative Assembly. If no member of
B. Head of the Government
that community seeks election to the Assembly.
Name the community. C. Head of State as well as Government
D. Uncrowned Monarch of the Republic

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

A. Parsis
B. Jains 72. Impeachment of President is conducted in the
A. Supreme Court of India
C. Angle-Indians

M
B. Parliament
D. Buddhists
C. Rashtrapati Bhavan

RA
67. The casting vote on any issue is given to the
Speaker only D. Delhi High Court
A. to throw his weight with the ruling party 73. The grounds under which the President may re-
move a Governor from office are
B. to solve a deadlock arising in the House
RI
A. laid down in the Constitution
C. during a national emergency
B. not laid down in the Constitution
D. during a financial emergency
H

C. governed by healthy conventions

68. The Legislative Assembly of Jammu and Kash-
D. governed by an Instrument of Instructions
mir consists of members chosen by
IS

direct election and women mem- 74. The position of the Vice-President of India is
bers nominated by the Governor. analogous to the position of the Vice-President
of
JA

A. 100, 2
A. Myanmar
B. 60, 3
B. Philippines
C. 120, 2
C. USA
D. 90, 3
D. Switzerland
69. The Prime Minister is generally a 75. The salary and allowances of the President can
A. Member of the Lok Sabha be diminished during his term of office.
B. Member of the Rajya Sabha A. Yes
C. Member of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya B. No
Sabha as well C. Yes, during an Emergency
D. Nominated Member of Parliament D. Yes, during a Financial Emergency
70. Who among the following former Presidents of 76. Administrators of Union Territories are respon-
India was Trade Union Leader? sible to the

149
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 13. Indian Constitution

A. Union Home Minister A. Vijayalakshami Pandit

B. Lok Sabha B. Sucheta Kripalani
C. President C. Shanno Devi
D. Union Parliament D. Raj Kumari Amrit Kaur
77. Which one of the following writs is considered 82. Which among the following subjects is in-
a bulwark of Individual freedom? cluded in the Concurrent List of the Constitu-
A. Certiorari tion?

ER
B. Quo Warranto A. Police
C. Habeas Corpus B. Posts and Telegraphs

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

D. Mandamus C. Public Health

D
78. As per the news which appeared in some news- D. Newspapers

G
papers/magazines, the police with the help of
some NGOs rescued some children who had 83. The strength of the Council of Ministers in the
State

N
been forced in child labour illegally. Such chil-
dren are protected under which of the following A. is determined by the State Governor
acts in India?

I) Juvenile Justice Act A

B. is determined by the State Assembly
H
C. is determined by the State Chief Minister
II) Child Labour Act
-C
III) Immoral Trafficking Act D. has been laid down in the Constitution
A. Only I 84. The Indian Constitution has vested the author-
N

ity to extend the jurisdiction of High Courts

B. Only II
with the
YA

C. Only I and II
A. Chief Justice of India
D. All I, II and III
B. President of India
79. The Constitution of India describes India as a
RA

C. Union Parliament
A. Federation of Independent States
D. State Legislature
B. Union of States
85. In the election of the President of India the Con-
C. Quasi-Federation
NA

stitution has attempted to

D. Dominion of Free States A. maintain parity between the Union and
80. The Supreme Court of India is vested with the States
A. Original Powers B. afford more weightage to the Union
B. Advisory Powers C. afford more weightage to the States
C. Appellate Powers D. afford more weightage to the Union Terri-
D. Original, advisory and appellate powers tories
81. The first woman to become the Speaker of a 86. led the nation’s first non-Congress
State Assembly in India was Government.

150
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 A. Chandrasekhar 91. Before 15th August, 1947 India was not a State
because it had/was
B. Morarji Desai
A. no sovereignty
C. Charan Singh
B. no elected government
D. VP Singh
87. As per the new policy, the number of judges in C. no Constitution
the Supreme Court would now be D. economically backward and financially
poor
A. 21
92. The Supreme Commander of India’s Defence
B. 25 Forces is
C. 26

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

A. Chief of Staff of the Indian Army
D. 30 B. President of India
E. 31 C. Prime Minister of India

M
88. Which one of the following is not one of the
D. Defence Minister
qualifications for appointment of the judges of
93. Which one of the following courts is re-

RA
the Supreme Court of India?
sponsible for the enforcement of Fundamental
A. The person must be a citizen of India Rights?
B. The person should have attained the age A. High Courts
of 45 years
RI
B. Supreme Court of India
C. The person must be a distinguished jurist or
must have been a High Court Judge for at least C. District and Sessions Court
H

five years or an advocate of a High Court for at D. All categories of courts

least 10 years 94. What is the final formality without which no
IS

D. The person should not have attained the age Central Bill can become a law in our country?
of 65 years A. Signature of the Prime Minister
89. Which of the following taxes is/are levied by
JA

B. Signature of the Speaker, Lok Sabha

the Union and collected and appropriated by the
States? C. Signature of the Union Law Minister
A. Stamp Duties D. Signature of the President
B. Passenger and Goods Tax 95. The Constituent Assembly of the State of
Jammu and Kashmir came into existence on
C. Estate Duty
A. October 31, 1951
D. Taxes on Newspapers
B. November 1, 1951
90. The first Law Officer of the Government of In-
dia is the C. January 1, 1952

A. Chief Justice of the Supreme Court D. January 26, 1950

96. In the original Constitution there were
B. Attorney General for India
States placed under three cate-
C. Secretary, Minister of Law gories, in Parts A, B and C of the First Sched-
D. Union Law Minister ule.

151
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 13. Indian Constitution

A. 25 A. The Governor of the State

B. 26 B. the State Legislature concerned
C. 27 C. Union Parliament
D. 28 D. the President of India
97. Which of the following is NOT a Consumer 102. The mandatory provision of dissolution of the
Right as per the Consumer Protection Act Lok Sabha (i.e. five years from the date of its
1986? first meeting) may be extended by

ER
A. Right to consumer education during an emergency.

B. Right to seek redressal A. Six months

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

B. One year

D
C. Right to safety
D. Right to be informed C. Eighteen months

G
E. Right to negotiate D. Two years

N
98. The First Amendment made in 1951 added a 103. Who among the following propounded the
new Schedule to the Constitution. It was the ”theory of natural rights”?

A. Seventh
Schedule.
A
A. Aristotle
H
B. Hobbes
B. Eighth
-C
C. Locke
C. Ninth
D. Socrates
D. Tenth
N

104. Who among the following was elected as the

99. Who among the following is competent to dis- President of India unopposed?
YA

solve the State Assembly under the Jammu and

Kashmir Constitution? A. Dr S Radhakrishnan
A. Governor of Jammu and Kashmir B. VV Giri
RA

B. President of India C. Neelam Sanjeeva Reddi

C. Union Parliament D. Giani Zail Singh
D. Chief Minister of the State 105. Who among the following had the distinction
NA

100. The Representation of the Peoples Act was of having the longest tenure as a Union Cabinet
passed by Parliament in Minister?

A. 1950 A. HR Khanna

B. 1952 B. Jagjivan Ram

C. 1953 C. C Rajagopalachari
D. 1951 D. Morarji Desai
101. The name of any Indian State can be altered 106. Burma (now Myanmar) was separated from
by India in

152
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 A. 1919 A. PA Sangma
B. 1929 B. Pratibha Patil
C. 1935 C. HamidAnsari
D. 1947 D. APJ Abdul Kalam
107. The Constitution makes India a secular State. 112. Under the original Constitution the States
This means were classified into categories.
A. India shall be a theocratic State A. two
B. India shall be a State without religion B. three
C. The State is completely detached from re- C. four

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

ligious affiliations
D. five
D. None of these
113. The fundamental rights of Indian citizens can
108. Which one of the following is not true about be suspended by the

M
the functions of the Attorney General?
A. Supreme Court of India
A. He will have the right to speak in the House

RA
of Parliament B. Union Parliament

B. He will have the right to vote in Parlia- C. President of India

ment D. President, in consultation with the Attorney
C. He will have a right of audience in all courts General for India
RI
in India 114. Does the Constitution provide for a Deputy
Prime Minister?
D. He is the first Law Officer of the Govern-
H

ment of India A. Yes

109. The fundamental right which was subjected to B. No
IS

several amendments is the right

C. Yes, during an Emergency
A. to freedom
D. Yes, during a Financial Emergency
JA

B. to equality
115. How many languages have so far been in-
C. to property cluded in the Eighth Schedule of our Consti-
D. against exploitation tution?
110. When an US President dies in office the Vice- A. 14
President assumes the President’s office and B. 22
continues In that capacity for
C. 18
A. six months
D. 17
B. one year
116. Habeas Corpus is
C. two months
A. a Law Degree conferred by the Leningrad
D. the full length of the unexpired term of University
office
B. the ancient name of a Greek City
111. Pranab Mukherjee won the Presidential elec-
tion against C. the site of the first Olympiad

153
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 13. Indian Constitution

D. a writ which facilitates a prisoner to ap- A. Chief Minister

pear in a court for speedy trial or release on bail B. Election Commission
C. Supreme Court
117. It is the prerogative of the to ef-
fect changes in the salaries of State Governors. D. Public Service Commission
A. Union Parliament 123. The Lok Sabha Secretariat comes under the
direct supervision of the
B. President
A. President of India
C. Prime Minister

ER
B. Minister for Parliamentary Affairs
D. Comptroller and Auditor General
C. Speaker of the Lok Sabha

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

118. Who appoints Secretary General of the Lok
Sabha? D. Ministry of Home Affairs

D
A. Deputy Speaker 124. The salaries and allowances of members of
Parliament will be determined by the

G
B. Speaker
A. President

N
C. President
B. Speaker of the Lok Sabha
D. Leader of Ruling Party
119. Under the Constitution the ’Residuary Pow-
ers’ belong to the A
C. Parliament
D. Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
H
125. When the office of the President and Vice-
A. President of India
President fall vacant simultaneously who acts
-C
B. Supreme Court of India as President?
C. Union Government A. Prime Minister
N

D. State Governments B. Chief Justice of India

120. There shall be a Vice-President of India ac-
YA

C. Speaker of the Lok Sabha

cording to Article
D. Chief of Army Staff
A. 63
126. The Preamble to the Constitution defines the
RA

B. 64 four objectives or the Indian Republic. Find the

C. 54 odd one out.
A. Equality
D. 57
NA

121. Universal Adult Franchise means the right to B. Fraternity

vote granted to all C. Harmony
A. University graduates D. Liberty
B. Adult citizen 127. The President has so far declared financial
emergency
C. Men in the village
A. once
D. Tax-paying citizen
B. twice
122. The question of disqualification of a member
of a State Legislature shall be decided by the C. thrice
Governor after consultation with the D. never
154
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
128. A joint sitting of both the Houses of Parlia- A. 50
ment is held B. 55
A. when a bill passed by one House is rejected C. 45
by the other
D. No minimum age
B. when there is some disagreement over any
134. Which one of the following can be abolished
provision of or amendment to a bill
by an Act of Parliament but not dessolved?
C. when a period of six months elapses from
A. Rajya Sabha
the date of receipt of a bill passed by one House
without it is being passed by the other B. Legislative Councils
D. All the above C. Municipal Councils

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

129. A Constitutional Emergency declared by the D. Legislatures of Union Territories
President has to be approved by Union Parlia- 135. At present (2009), only six States have Leg-
ment within islative Councils. Find the odd one out?

M
A. 1 month A. Bihar
B. Jammu and Kashmir

RA
B. 2 months
C. 6 months C. Kerala
D. 1 year D. Karnataka
130. The Chairman of the Public Accounts Com- 136. An Advocate General of a State is entitled to
RI
mittee of Parliament is appointed by the appear before
A. any court of law within the country
A. Prime Minister
H

B. any court of law within the State

B. Speaker of the Lok Sabha
C. the Supreme Court of India
IS

C. President
D. District and Sessions Courts
D. Union Finance Minister
137. Under the country’s judicial system the State
JA

131. Freedom of religion is guaranteed by High Courts come directly under the
A. the Preamble A. Supreme Court of India
B. Convention B. President of India
C. Fundamental Rights C. Attorney General for India
D. Directive Principles D. Union Parliament
132. The first Governor-General of free India was 138. The fundamental right which permits Indian
citizens free discussion and exchange of views
A. Lord Mountbatten including the freedom of the Press is the right
B. C Rajagopalaehari to
C. Dr Rajendra Prasad A. form associations and unions
D. Lord Wavell B. assemble peacefully and without arms
133. The minimum age prescribed for appointment C. freedom of speech and expression
as a Judge of the Supreme Court is D. worship

155
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 13. Indian Constitution

139. There is no age limit for appointment as At- A. Pondicherry

torney General for India.
B. Chandigarh
A. True C. Sikkim
B. False D. Lakshadweep
C. Parity True 145. The Governor of a State enjoys
D. True, during an Emergency under Article A. no discretionary powers at all
352 B. extensive discretionary powers

ER
140. In the Indian political system, supremacy lies C. discretionary powers in certain matters
with the

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

D. discretionary powers in legal matters
A. Armed Forces

D
146. In which year was the Supreme Court of India
B. Constitution established?

G
C. Parliament A. 1949

N
D. Supreme Court B. 1950

141. Which among the following languages is not C. 1951

recognised in the Indian Constitution?
A
D. 1947
H
A. Sanskrit 147. Is there any provision in the Constitution au-
thorising the President to appropriate funds
B. Sindhi
-C
without parliamentary sanction?
C. Urdu A. Yes
N

D. Pali B. No
142. The Parliamentary form of Government first C. Yes, during a Financial Emergency
YA

evolved in
D. Yes, during an emergency under Article 352
A. Britain
RA

B. Greece 148. Who among the following are not allowed to

exercise their right to franchise in India?
C. France
A. Women
D. Switzerland
NA

B. Priests/Clergymen
143. The President can remove the Chief Election
C. Lunatics
Commissioner from office on
D. Quasi-Government Servants
A. his own suo moto
149. In the name Mizoram, the land of the Mizos,
B. the advice of the Prime Minister the term ’Mizo’ means a
C. the advice of Parliament A. highlander
D. the advice of the Supreme Court B. rebel
144. Which among the following is now a full- C. patriot
fledged State? D. skilled archer
156
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
150. Who was the third President of the Indian Re- D. The Council of States is not subject to dis-
public? solution.
A. Neelam Sanjiva Reddy 155. The seven Union Territories occupy roughly
per cent of the total area of the
B. Dr Zakir Husain
country.
C. VV Giri
A. 12
D. Fakruddin Ali Ahmed
B. 0.33
151. Under the 44th Amendment Act the President
was deprived of the power to declare a C. 6

A. Financial Emergency D. 3

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

156. Among modern Constitutions two are flexible.
B. Constitutional Emergency
They are those of
C. National Emergency on ground of ”Inter-
A. United Kingdom and Switzerland
nal Disturbance”

M
B. USA and Japan
D. War against our neighbours
152. Ministers of State C. United Kingdom and New Zealand

A. can attend Cabinet meetings in their own

right
B. can attend Cabinet meetings only if in-
RA
D. India and United Kingdom
157. What is the extent of claim that can be enter-
tained by a Lok Adalat?
A. Upto Rs. 5 lakhs
RI
vited to attend any particular meeting
C. can attend Cabinet meetings if they choose B. Upto Rs. 10 lakhs
C. Upto Rs. 20 lakhs
H

D. cannot attend Cabinet meetings under any

circumstances D. Upto Rs. 50 lakhs
IS

153. Which among the following is a feature of the 158. Who among the following is not appointed by
Indian Constitution? the President of India?
A. protection of minorities and backward A. Comptroller and Auditor General of India
JA

classes
B. Speaker of the Lok Sabha
B. Double Citizenship
C. Attorney General for India
C. Unitary State
D. Chief Election Commissioner
D. Presidential form of government
159. The Constituent Assembly of India was con-
154. Which among the following statements is not verted into the Provisional Parliament of India
true? on
A. A No-Confidence Motion in the Council A. 1.1. 1950
of Ministers can be moved in either House of
Parliament. B. 15. 8.1947

B. Money Bills can be introduced only in the C. 26.1. 1950

House of the People. D. 2.10. 1950
C. Demands for grants can be voted only by 160. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India
the House of the People. is appointed by the

157
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 13. Indian Constitution

A. Prime Minister 166. The principal language of Lakshadweep is

B. President A. Tamil
C. Parliament B. Telugu
D. Vice-President C. Malayalam
161. Who among the following is/are not appointed
D. Kannada
by the President?
167. The Headquarters of the International Court of
A. Attorney General for India
Justice is

ER
B. Judges of the Supreme Court
A. Rome
C. Judges of High Courts

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

B. Venice
D. Advocate General

D
162. Before 1956, the present Kerala State was C. The Hague
known as D. Washington

G
A. Travancore 168. When the Union Council of Ministers tenders

N
B. Cochin an advice to the President, he
A. can refer it to the Supreme Court
C. Travancore-Cochin
D. Malabar A
B. can ignore it
H
163. The Head of the British Commonwealth of C. will be bound by it
Nations is the
-C
D. can reject it outright
A. British Prime Minister
169. Ms Sujatha Vaaant Manohar was the
B. British Sovereign
N

woman judge of the Supreme

C. British Foreign Secretary Court of India.
YA

D. Secretary General of the Commonwealth A. first

164. As Supreme Commnader of the Armed Forces B. second
can the Indian President declare a war on his
RA

own? C. third

A. Yes D. fourth
B. No 170. If a member of the Lok Sabha absents himself
NA

for a period of days from the meet-

C. Yes, during an Emergence
ing of the House, without the permission of the
D. Yes, in exceptional circumstances House, he will be disqualified.
165. To whom among the following groups is the A. 30
Right against Exploitation guaranteed by the
Indian Constitution? B. 45
A. Children C. 60
B. Dalits D. 90
C. Tribals 171. Which among the following statements defin-
D. Women ing a Republic is not correct?

158
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 A. There is a place for a monarch in a Re- A. True
public
B. False
B. The Indian Republic is governed in terms of C. True, during a National Emergency
the Constitution adopted by the Constituent As-
sembly on November 26, 1949 D. True, during a Financial Emergency

C. Republic implies that the highest executive 177. The first proclamation of Emergency under
authority ill India is vested in the President Article 352 was made by the President on

D. India is a Democratic Republic with a Par- A. October 12, 1960

liamentary System of Government B. October 26, 1962
172. The Contingency Fund of India has been C. November 1, 1961

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

placed at the disposal of the
D. November 1, 1962
A. Prime Minister 178. Who among the following has the final right
to sanction the expenditure of public money in

M
B. President
India?
C. Comptroller and Auditor General
A. President
D. Home Ministry
173. The most powerful Upper House among the
following is the
RA B. Prime Minister
C. Union Parliament
D. Union Finance Minister
A. Rajya Sabha in India
RI
179. The term of the President of India is reckoned
B. Senate in the USA
from the
H

C. House of Lords in the United Kingdom

A. Republic Day
D. Council of States in Switzerland
IS

B. Date of his election

174. Who among the following had the longest
C. Date on which he assumes office
tenure as President or India?
D. Independence Day
JA

A. VV Giri
180. ”This Constitution may be called the Consti-
B. Dr Rajendra Prasad tution of India”. This short title is contained in
C. FA Ahmed Article of the Constitution.

D. N Sanjeeva Reddy A. 1
175. The National Integration Council is chaired by B. 2
the C. 393
A. President of India D. 394
B. Vice-President of India 181. There is party system in the USA.
C. Chief Justice of India A. one
D. Prime Minister of India B. two
176. A Governor is liable to be transferred from C. three
one state to another D. multi
159
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 13. Indian Constitution

182. Which one of the following determines that A. 360

the Indian Constitution is federal?
B. 363
A. A written and rigid Constitution
C. 368
B. An independent judiciary D. 369
C. Vesting of residuary powers with the Centre 188. The time table of the Union Parliament is con-
trolled by the
D. Distribution of powers between the Cen- A. Prime Minister

ER
tre and the States
B. Speaker
183. The normal life of the House of the People is
C. Union Cabinet

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

five years but it may be dissolved earlier by the

D
A. Speaker D. President
189. The Rajya Sabha is dissolved

G
B. Prime Minister
A. during an Emergency
C. President

N
B. every five years
D. Vice-President
C. never
184. Which state enjoys the distinction of being the
first linguistic State of India? A
D. At the discretion of the President
H
A. Haryana 190. The right to prorogue the two Houses of Par-
liament rests with the
-C
B. Gujarat
A. President
C. Andhra
B. Prime Minister
N

D. Tamil Nadu
C. Union Council of Ministers
YA

185. The Rajya Sabha was first constituted on

D. Minister for Parliamentary Affairs
A. 3.4. 1952
191. Grants-in-aid are provided to such states as are
B. 13. 5.1952 in need of assistance by the
RA

C. 1.1. 1953 A. Union Parliament

D. 2.4. 1954 B. President
NA

186. The Chief Minister retains his post as long as C. Finance Commission
he enjoys the confidence of the
D. RBI
A. Prime Minister 192. How long can one under our Constitution re-
B. Governor main a Prime Minister, even without being a
member of either House of Parliament?
C. State Legislative Assembly
A. three months
D. People of the State
B. six months
187. Article of the Constitution deals
with the procedure for amendment of the Indian C. nine months
Constitution? D. one year

160
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
193. The lengthiest amendment (dubbed as a ’mini- A. Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Constitution’ by some political pundits) to the
B. Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
Constitution tUl date is the
C. Vice President
A. 24th Amendment
D. Prime Minister
B. 42nd Amendment
199. Which one or the following States does not
C. 44th Amendment have a Legislative Council so far even though
D. 59th Amendment the Constitution provides for it?
194. Article 1 of the Indian Constitution states: In- A. Bihar
dia, that is Bharat, shall be a B. Karnataka

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

A. Dominion C. Madhya Pradesh
B. Federation D. Maharashtra

M
C. Conglomeration 200. The Head of the State of Jammu and Kashmir
D. Union of States was redesignated Governor in 1965. Earlier, he

195. The Indian States have been reorganised on

the basis of
A. economic conditions
RA was known as
A. Maharaja
B. Prime Minister
RI
B. language of the people C. Sadar-i-Riyasat

C. administrative convenience D. Rajpramukh

H

D. religion 201. The Fundamental Rights have the sanction of

IS

196. Mr led the first minority govern- A. the Supreme Court

ment of the country. B. the Constitution
A. Morarji Desai C. Majority opinion of the States
JA

B. Charan Singh D. the Union Parliament

C. VP Singh 202. A person appointed as an Additional or Act-
D. Chandrashekhar ing Judge of a High Court shall not hold office
after attaining the age of
197. Elections to elect are not con-
trolled by the Election Commission. A. 60

A. Members of Parliament B. 62
C. 63
B. Members of State Legislature
D. 65
C. President of India
203. A Cabinet Minister who for a period of six
D. Members of Local Bodies
consecutive months, is not a member of either
198. The letter of resignation of the President House of Parliament shall on the expiry of that
should be addressed to the period

161
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 13. Indian Constitution

A. continue to be a Minister by a special reso- A. any State

lution of the Cabinet
B. India or Government of any State
B. cease to be a Minister
C. India
C. be reverted as a Deputy Minister
D. any Union Territory
D. be reverted as a Minister of State
209. To ensure their impartiality, a retired Chief
204. Until the year , a no-confidence Justice of India or other Judges of the Supreme
motion was never moved in the Lok Sabha. Court are debarred from practicing in any

ER
A. 1962 A. court other than the apex court
B. 1964

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

B. court in India

D
C. 1965 C. court other than State High Courts
D. 1963 D. criminal court

G
205. Who performs the duties of the office of the 210. Which one of the following is charged to the

N
Chairman of the Rajya Sabha when the Vice- Consolidated Fund of India and can be spent
President is acting for the President? without authorisation by Parliament?
A. Speaker of the Lok Sabha
A
A. Debt charges for which the Government of
H
B. Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha India is liable
C. Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha B. Salaries, allwoances and pensions of the
-C
Judges of the Supreme Court
D. Attorney General of India
C. Salary and allowances of the President
206. The lower age limit for election as President
N

of India is D. All the above

YA

A. thirty 211. Which one of the following is not a feature of

the Indian Constitution?
B. thirty-five
C. forty A. Federal Court of India
RA

D. fifty B. Parliamentary government

207. How many Union Territories come under the C. Federal System
NA

jurisdiction of different State High Courts? D. Independence of the judiciary

A. 7 212. The Constitution of India was adopted on
B. 6 A. November 26, 1949
C. 5 B. August 16, 1949
D. 4 C. August 14, 1948
208. After the Comptroller and Auditor General
D. January 25, 1950
(CAG) has ceased to hold office he will not be
eligible for further office under the Government 213. No taxes can be levied on expenditure in-
of curred without the approval of the

162
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 A. Union Parliament 219. All lands, minerals and other things of value
B. Union Council of Ministers underlying the ocean within the territorial wa-
ters of India shall vest only in the
C. President
A. States lying adjacent to the ocean
D. Prime Minister
B. Union of India
214. Which one of the following writs is considered
a bullwark of individual freedom? C. Both of them

A. Certiorari D. None of them

220. Can the president be removed from office oth-
B. Quo Warranto
erwise than by impeachment?
C. Habeas Corpus

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

A. Yes, by a resolution of Parliament
D. Mandamus
B. No
215. The UN Secretary-General is elected every
C. Yes, by a resolution of the Union Cabinet

M
A. 2 years
D. Yes, by a resolution of the Rajya Sabha
B. 3 years passed by a majority and endorsed by the Lok

RA
C. 4 years Sabha
D. 5 years 221. The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court draws
a monthly salary of
216. Can the President be removed from office oth-
erwise that by impeachment? A. Rs 100000
RI
A. Yes, by a resolution of Parliament B. Rs 90000
B. No C. Rs 120000
H

C. Yes, by a resolution of the Union Cabinet D. Rs 150000

D. Yes, by a resolution of the Rajya Sabha, 222. Besides Punjab which other State has been un-
IS

passed by a majority and endorsed by the Lok der President’s rule nine times after its forma-
Sabha tion?
JA

217. The provision for organising village panchay- A. Kerala

ats finds a place in the B. Tamil Nadu
A. Preamble C. Bihar
B. Chapter on Fundamental Rights D. Rajasthan
C. Chapter on Directive Principles 223. Members of the Rajya Sabha are
D. Chapter on Fundamental Duties A. nominated by the President
218. Who among the following was not a member B. elected by members of the State Legisla-
of the Drafting Committee of the Constituent tive Assemblies
Assembly of India?
C. elected by members of the Lok Sabha
A. TT Krishnamachari
D. elected by members of the State Legislative
B. Dr BR Ambedkar Councils
C. Jawaharlal Nehru 224. Which among the following countries has a
D. KM Munshi Presidential form of Government?

163
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 13. Indian Constitution

A. India A. Parliament
B. The USA B. Union Council of Ministers
C. United Kingdom C. President
D. Switzerland D. Prime Minister
225. There are High Courts in India, 230. Fundamental Duties were incorporated in the
out of which Guwahati High Court has territo- Indian Constitution in the year
rial jurisdiction over States.
A. 1975

ER
A. 21, 7
B. 1976

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

B. 18, 7
C. 1977

D
C. 25, 7
D. 1979
D. 20, 5

G
231. The States Reorganisation Act of 1956 re-
226. Who enjoys the right to impose reasonable re- duced the number of States in the country from

N
strictions on the Fundamental Rights of citi- 27 to
zens?
A. The President
A
A. 14
B. 15
H
B. Union Parliament
C. 18
-C
C. The Prime Minister
D. 19
D. The Supreme Court
232. The first Governor General of free India was
N

227. The maximum number of Judges (excluding

A. C Rajagopalachari
the Chief Justice) that can be appointed in the
YA

Supreme Court of India is B. Lord Mountbatten

A. 24 C. Lord Wavell
RA

B. 25 D. Lord Linlithgow
C. 20 233. Which among the following States returns the
maximum number or representatives to the Lok
D. 30
Sabha?
NA

228. A State Governor has

A. Madhya Pradesh
A. diplomatic powers
B. Maharashtra
B. military powers
C. Bihar
C. emergency powers
D. Uttar Pradesh
D. No diplomatic or military or emergency
234. A device to obtain the opinion of the people on
powers
an important public issue, when that issue has
229. No taxes can be levied on expenditure in- not been passed by the Legislature of the State,
curred without the approval of the is known as

164
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 A. Plebiscite 240. The has the final power to main-
tain order within the House of the People.
B. Referendum
A. Marshal of the House
C. Self-determination
B. Prime Minister
D. Mandate
235. What is a Panchayati Raj? C. Speaker

A. It is a community development programme D. Chief of the Security Staff

B. It is a cooperative movement. 241. Who amongst the following addresses the na-
tion on the Independence Day from the ram-
C. It is a scheme of self-governance parts of the Red Fort, Delhi?

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

D. It is an exercise in decentralisation of ad- A. President of India
ministrative authority.
B. UPA Chairperson
236. The first Home Minister and Deputy Prime
Minster of free India was C. Speaker of the Lok Sabha

M
A. GB Pant D. Prime Minister of India
242. The Vice-President of India is elected by an

RA
B. Monuji Desai
electoral college comprising the
C. Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel
A. elected members of the Rajya Sabha
D. NG Ayyangar
B. elected members of Parliament and the
237. The Union Government has brought the land
RI
elected members of the Legislative Assemblies
reform laws in the Schedule of the of the States
Constitution.
C. elected members of both Houses of Parlia-
H

A. 7th ment
B. 8th
IS

D. members of both Houses of Parliament

C. 9th 243. When were the first General Elections held in
D. 10th the country?
JA

238. Which among the following subjects is con- A. 1950-51

tained in the Concurrent List? B. 1949-50
A. Education C. 1951-52
B. Fisheries D. 1952-53
C. Agriculture 244. Who among the following dignitaries cannot
D. Police be impeached?
239. The protector of the Fundamental Rights guar- A. President
anteed under the Constitution is the B. Vice-President
A. Parliament C. Judges of the Supreme Court
B. Prime Minister D. Comptroller and Auditor General of India
C. President 245. The pledge for the independence of the coun-
D. Supreme Court try was taken all over India for the first time on

165
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 13. Indian Constitution

A. January 26, 1927 251. The constitution of India recognizes

B. January 26, 1930 A. Only religious minorities
C. November 26, 1920 B. Only linguistic minorities
D. August 15, 1930 C. Religious and linguistic minorities
246. The President before entering upon his office D. Religious, linguistic and ethnic minorities
shall make and subscribe in the presence of the
an oath or affirmation spelt out in Article 60. 252. Which Article of the Constitution had the
unique distinction of having been adopted by

ER
A. Prime Minister of India the Constituent Assembly with cries of ”Ma-
B. Chief Justice of India hatma Gandhi ki Jai”?

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

C. Vice-President of India A. 17

D
D. Service Chiefs B. 18

G
247. The President of India presides over all the C. 19
meetings of the Union Council of Ministers.
D. 20

N
A. True 253. The first Governor ever to be dismissed by the
B. False
C. During a National Emergency A
President was
A. Prabhudas Patwari
H
D. During a Financial Emergency B. Md. Yoonus Saleem
-C

248. The Indian Parliament is a creature of the C. Dr. MM Thomas

A. Constitution D. Ram Lal
N

B. President 254. The Vice-President of India is eligible for re-

YA

C. Prime Minister election by a

D. British Government A. Constitutional provision

249. Who among the following was elected as per- B. Convention
RA

manent President of constituent Assembly? C. Consensus

A. Jaya Prakash Narayan D. Supreme Court Judgment
B. Jawaharlal Nehru
NA

255. The Swatantra Party was formed by

C. Dr Rajendra Prasad A. Morarji Desai
D. K M Munshi B. Piloo Mody
250. Who among the following held office as Pres-
C. Minoo Masani
ident of India, for two consecutive terms?
D. C Rajagopalachari
A. Dr S Radhakrishanan
256. The Indian Independence Act, 1947 and the
B. Dr Rajendra Prasad
Government of India Act 1935 with all amend-
C. VV Giri ments were repealed by Article of
D. Both A and B. the Constitution.

166
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 A. 393 262. Judges of High Courts are appointed by
B. 394 A. the Chief Justices of the respective High
C. 395 Courts

D. 390 B. Governor

257. The ultimate interpreter and guardian of the C. the President

Indian Constitution is the D. the Chief Minister
A. President of India 263. Punjab was split up into Punjab and Haryana
B. Lok Sabha on

C. Rajya Sabha A. November 1, 1966

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

D. Supreme Court B. January 1, 1967
258. Which one of the following Committees ex- C. August 15, 1967
amines the report of the Comptroller and Audi-

M
D. August 15, 1966
tor General of India?
264. The term of office of the Comptroller and Au-
A. Committee of Estimates

RA
ditor General of India is
B. Committee on Public Accounts A. 4 years
C. Joint Select Committee
B. 5 years
D. Rules Committee
RI
C. 6 years
259. Writs are issued by
D. 7 years
A. Supreme Court
H

265. Which day of the year is observed as the Com-

B. High Courts monwealth Day?
IS

C. The President A. January 1

D. Supreme Court and High Courts B. May 24
JA

260. In the case or a dispute in the Presidential elec- C. June 2

tion, the issue is referred to the
D. October 21
A. Chief Election Commissioner
266. The theory of ’basic structure’ of the Consti-
B. Parliament tution was propounded by the Supreme Court
C. Supreme Court in
D. Prime Minister A. Golaknath Case
261. The theory of ”basic structure” of the Consti- B. Kesavananda Bharati Case
tution was propounded by the Supreme Court
C. Gopalan vs State of Madras
in the
D. Shyama Prasad Mukherjee Case
A. Golaknath Case
267. Dr. Ambedkar had said the ”Article
B. Kesavananda Bharati Case
should normally remain a ’dead
C. AK Gopalan Case letter’ and would be used only in the ’last re-
D. Minerva Mills Case sort’.

167
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 13. Indian Constitution

A. 352 273. The Chief Election Commissioner and mem-

B. 355 bers of the Election Commission can be re-
moved from office by the
C. 356
A. Prime Minister
D. 357
B. President
268. A State Governor enjoys
C. Chief Justice of the Supreme Court of India
A. No discretionary powers
B. extensive discretionary powers

ER
D. Same procedure as laid down for removal
C. discretionary powers in certain matters of Judges of the Supreme Court
D. discretionary powers during an Emergency 274. The residuary powers (i.e. the powers not

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

269. A Member of Parliament who voluntarily ac- listed) under the Constitution vest with the

D
quires the citizenship of another country or is
A. President
under any acknowledgement of allegiance to a

G
foreign country will B. Prime Minister

N
A. be disqualified from membership of Par- C. Union Parliament
liament
D. State Assemblies
B. continue to be a member of Parliament
A
275. The first official act of the Constituent Assem-
H
C. have the choice of renouncing either bly of the Jammu and Kashmir State was to
D. face penal action from the apex court A. put an end to the hereditary princely rule
-C

270. The Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955 is of the Maharaja

concerned with the B. install Dr Karan Singh as the ruler of the
N

A. abolition of titles State

B. abolition of untouchability C. change the name of Sadar-i-Riyasat to that
YA

C. formulation of Uniform Civil Code of Governor

D. nationalisation of important undertakings D. declare the State of Jammu and Kashmir as

an integral part of the Union of India
RA

271. State Governors are responsible for their ac-

tions to the 276. A proclamation of emergency under Article
352 should be laid before each House of Par-
A. Lok Sabha liament within month(s) for formal
NA

B. State Legislature approval.

C. President A. one
D. Prime Minister B. two
272. India was not a State before15th August 1947, C. three
because it had no
D. six
A. Sovereignty
277. The Governor of a State receives a Bill passed
B. Constitution by the Legislative Assembly of the State for re-
C. Elected Government settlement of citizens in that State affecting the
D. Parliament general laws of citizenship of India. Which of

168
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 the following courses would be the most appro- A. Public Prosecutor
priate for the Governor to take as an agent of
B. Solicitor General
the Centre?
C. Advocate General
A. give assent to the bill
D. Government Pleader
B. refer the bill to the President
283. The President nominates persons to the Lok
C. keep the bill pending Sabha and Rajya Sabha in that order
D. exercise his veto power over the bill A. 4 and 10
278. The Indian National Congress lost power at B. 2 and 14
the Centre in the general elections held in
C. 2 and 10

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

A. 1967 D. 2 and 12
B. 1971 284. President’s rule can be imposed in a State

M
C. 1977 A. during an Internal Emergency
D. 1980 B. during an External Emergency
279. Who among the following can attend meetings
of the Union Cabinet?
A. Cabinet Ministers
RA C. when there is a failure of the constitu-
tional machinery in the State
D. At no time
285. The Vice-President is elected by an electoral
RI
B. Ministers of State
college consisting of the members of
C. Deputy Ministers
A. the Rajya Sabha
H

D. President
B. the Lok Sabha
280. The Lok Sabha alone is entitled to vote in the
IS

case of C. the State Legislative Assemblies

D. both Houses of Parliament
A. demand for grants
286. Which of the following qualifications is not
JA

B. merger of States essential for election as President of India?

C. creation of a new State A. A citizen of India
D. a private member’s bill B. Not less than 35 years of age
281. Which of the following is not a salient feature C. Qualified for election as member of the Lok
of the Indian Constitution? Sabha
A. A Parliamentary form of Government D. A member of the Lok Sabha
B. A Sovereign Democratic Republic 287. India is a federal state because or
C. Directive Principles of State Policy A. her written Constitution
D. A federal polity akin to the American B. the independence of the Judiciary
model C. the sharing of power between the Centre
282. The Constitution provides for a legal adviser and the States
to the State Government. He is known as the D. dual citizenship

169
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 13. Indian Constitution

288. The Speaker can ask a member of the House A. Prime Minister of India
to stop speaking and let another member speak. B. President of India
This is known as
C. Chief of the Army Staff
A. Decorum
D. Chief Justice of India
B. Crossing the floor
294. Who among the following had the shortest
C. Inerpreting tenure as Prime Minister of India?
D. Yielding the Floor A. Morarji Desai

ER
289. The emoluments of the Chairman and Deputy B. Lal Bahadur Shastri
Chairman of a State Legislative Council are C. Charan Singh

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

fixed by the
D. Rajiv Gandhi

D
A. State Governor
295. The Cabinet System of Government first
B. State Public Service Commission evolved in

G
C. State Legislature A. Greece

N
D. Union Parliament B. Britain
290. In which year was the first Constitution
Amendment Act passed?
A
C. Canada
D. USA
H
A. 1951 296. The Special officer for Linguistic Minorities
B. 1952 (Art 350 B) is appointed by the
-C

C. 1953 A. Home Minister

B. President
N

D. 1950
291. Panchayati Raj was first introduced in India in C. Prime Minister
YA

October, 1959 in D. Law Minister

A. Rajasthan 297. The Union or India consists of
States and Union Territories.
B. Tamil Nadu
RA

A. 22: 8
C. Kerala
B. 24: 7
D. Karnataka
C. 28: 7
NA

292. Which of the two words among the follow-

ing were added to the Preamble to the Constitu- D. 21: 8
tion of India by the Constitution (Forty- Second 298. The Union Parliament has the power to re-
Amendment) Act, 1976? name or define the boundary of a State by
A. Sovereign and Socialist A. an amendment of the Constitution

B. Socialist and Democratic B. securing the consent of the Prime Minister

C. Socialist and Secular C. securing the consent of the Chief Minister

of the State concerned
D. Secular and Democratic
D. securing the consent of the concerned State
293. The first citizen of India is the Legislature and Parliament’s approval

170
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
299. There shall be a President of India according A. Certain provisions may be amended by a
to Article majority ruling of the Supreme Court
A. 50 B. Certain provisions may be amended by a
simple majority in Parliament
B. 51
C. Certain others may be amended by a two-
C. 52 thirds majority
D. 53 D. Certain others need ratification by one-half
300. The salaries of the Judges of the Supreme of the States
Court are drawn from 305. The Speaker of Lok Sabha is elected by
A. Home Ministry Grants A. all the members of Parliament

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

B. Consolidated Fund of India B. the people directly

C. Parliamentary Grants C. all the members of Lok Sabha

M
D. the members of the majority party in the
D. Contingency Fund of India
Lok Sabha
301. The President of India is elected by

RA
306. The President of India has the power to take
A. the People of India directly over the administration of a State if its Govern-
ment cannot be carried on, according to the pro-
B. the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha at a joint visions of
sitting
A. Article 320
RI
C. the Union Cabinet
B. Article 350
D. indirect election, by an electoral college
C. Article 356
H

302. The Janata Party was formed in 1977 by the

D. Article 365
merger of
IS

307. What is common to Britain, Israel and New

A. Congress (O) and Jana Sangh Zealand?
B. Bharatiya Lok Dal and Socialist Party A. All the three countries are monarchies
JA

C. A and B above B. All the three are island nations

D. Congress (O), Jana Sangh and BLD C. They have no written Constitution
303. In which year was the first no-confidence mo- D. The three States have jointly signed a spe-
tion moved in the Lok Sabha? cial trade treaty with Hong Kong
308. The US Constitution is rigid because
A. 1960
A. its interpretation by the Supreme Court has
B. 1962
made it difficult for the Congress to amend it
C. 1963 B. a special procedure distinct from the ordi-
D. 1973 nary legislative procedure is required to amend
it
304. The Constitution provides for three methods
for amending the different categories of provi- C. the Constitution has not given the Congress
sions of the Constitutions. Which among the the power to amend it
following four is not an appropriate method? D. the States have the power to amend it

171
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 13. Indian Constitution

309. The Cabinet is jointly responsible to the lower A. anglo-Indians

chamber of Parliament in the United Kingdom.
B. backward classes
The name of the lower chamber is
C. scheduled castes
A. House of Representatives
D. scheduled tribes
B. House of Commons
315. The Third Schedule of the Constitution de-
C. National Assembly tails
D. The Senate A. Allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha

ER
310. What is common to Marathi and Konkani? B. The list of languages
A. Both are principal languages of the State of C. Forms of oaths or affirmations

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

Goa
D. The States and the Union Territories of In-

D
B. Both now find a place in the Eighth Sched- dia
ule

G
316. The Estimates Committee consists of
C. The original Eighth Schedule did not in-
clude these languages A. 30 members from Lok Sabha

N
D. Both A and B above B. 30 members from Rajya Sabha
311. Hindi was declared the Official Language of
India under Article A
C. 30 members from both the Sabhas
D. 20 members from Lok Sabha
H
A. 334 317. Who among the following has the power to ad-
-C
B. 333 journ the Council of States?

C. 343 A. President of India

N

D. 345 B. Prime Minister of India

312. The tenure of office of the Indian President C. Chairman of the Council of States
YA

A. is fixed by the Constitution D. Union Minister for Parliamentary Affairs

B. can be changed by the wishes of the State 318. The maximum strength of the Select Commit-
tee of the Lok Sabha is
RA

Legislatures
C. can be changed by the political party in A. 10 members
power at the Centre B. 5 members
NA

D. can be changed at the option of the incum- C. 15 members

bent President
D. Not fixed and varies from Committee to
313. The concept of Constitution first originated in Committee
A. Britain 319. Who among the following decides the nature
B. Japan of a bill

C. the USA A. Attorney General for India

D. Switzerland B. Prime Minister

314. The Mandal Commission Report pertains to C. Minister for Parliamentary Affairs
reservation of jobs for D. Speaker of the Lok Sabha

172
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
320. The Indian Constitution provides for A. Rs 100000
A. Single Citizenship B. Rs 90000
B. Dual Citizenship C. Rs 120000
C. Both of them D. a Member of Parliament
D. Neither 326. Which one of the following is not true about
the functions of the Attorney General for In-
321. A maximum interval of can
dia?
elapse between two sessions of a State Legisla-
tive Assembly. A. He will have the right to speak in the Houses
of Parliament
A. one year

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

B. He will have the right to vote in Parlia-
B. six months
ment
C. three months
C. He will have a right of audience in all courts

M
D. nine months in India
322. The Supreme Court functions from New D. He is the first Law Officer of the Govern-

RA
Delhi, but it can sit elsewhere ment of India
A. if a majority of the Judges of the Court so 327. Does the Indian Constitution envisage double
decide citizenship?
B. with the approval of the President A. Yes
RI
C. with the approval of the Parliament B. No
D. at the specific request of a State High Court C. Yes, in exceptional cases with Parliament’s
H

consent
IS

323. During a Financial Emergency, all Money D. Yes, in the case of all foreigners
Bills passed by State Legislatures require the
328. Who among the following has the power to
consent of the
summon or prorogue both the Houses of Par-
JA

A. Prime Minister liament?

B. President A. President of India
C. Lok Sabha B. Prime Minister of India
D. Union Finance Minister C. Speaker of the Lok Sabha
324. Which of the following houses is presided D. Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
over by a nonmember?
329. The Vice-President, In the event of receiving
A. Lok Sabha the resignation of the President, shall forthwith
B. Rajya Sabha communicate this to the

C. Vidhan Sabha A. Prime Minister of India

D. Vidhan Parishad B. Chief Justice of India

325. The Prime Minister of India now receives a C. Speaker of the House of the People
monthly salary of D. Attorney General for India

173
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 13. Indian Constitution

330. Which one of the following schedules of the A. Constitutional

constitution of India contains provisions re- B. Natural
garding Anti Defection Act?
C. Statutory
A. Second Schedule
D. Moral
B. Fifth Schedule 336. As we all know, child labour is totally banned
C. Eighth Schedule in India. As per the Child Labour Prohibition
III Regulation Act, ’Child’ means a person who
D. Tenth Schedule has not completed

ER
331. The Governor is the of the Uni- A. 18 years of his/her age
versities in the State.

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

B. 16 years of his/her age
A. Chancellor

D
C. 14 years of his/her age
B. Pro-Chancellor
D. 20 years of his/her age

G
C. Vice-Chancellor 337. The President may nominate to the Lok Sabha
D. Chief Executive members of the Anglo-Indian com-

N
munity If he is of the opinion that the com-
332. A person, who is not a Member of Parliament, munity is not adequately represented In the
if appointed a minister, shall become a Member
of either House of Parliament within A
House.
H
A. Two
A. 6 months
B. Three
-C
B. 2 months
C. Four
C. 9 months D. Five
N

D. 1 year 338. A Finance Bill is one which

YA

333. In a Constitutional Monarchy the real power is A. authorises expenditure on the Contingency
enjoyed by the Fund of India
A. King B. is introduced every year to give effect to
RA

the financial proposals of the Union Govern-

B. Council of Ministers
ment for the succeeding financial year
C. Majority Party C. authorises expenditure out of the Consoli-
D. Electorate dated Fund of India
NA

334. The total number of members in the Legisla- D. outlines the state of economy of the nation
tive Council of a State shall in no case be less presented to Parliament by the Union Finance
than Minister on the eve of presentation of the an-
nual Budget
A. thirty
339. The Planning Commission is a/an
B. fifty
A. autonomous corporation
C. sixty B. department of the Government of India
D. forty C. advisory body
335. The right to vote in an election in India is D. executive body

174
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
340. Which political party, among the following, D. all processes, civil or criminal, throughout
had approached the electorate with the slogan: his incumbency as President and thereafter
’Vote for the Government that works’ in the 345. The High Court of Uttar Pradesh is located in
1980 general elections?
A. Lucknow
A. BJP
B. Kanpur
B. Congress
C. Allahabad
C. Janta Party D. Meerut
D. Lok Dal 346. In a Presidential type of Government the min-
341. In which part of the Constitution Is the State isters are answerable only to the

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

enjoined to establish Panchayati Raj institu- A. Legislature
tions?
B. Judiciary
A. Directive Principles
C. President

M
B. Fundamental Rights
D. Vice-President
C. Preamble 347. For how many years does the Vice-President
D. Seventh Schedule
342. Joint meetings of two or more zonal councils
can be held. Such meetings are presided over
by the
RA
hold office?
A. 3
B. 4
RI
C. 5
A. Prime Minister
D. 6
B. Union Home Minister
H

348. A joint sitting of the two Houses of Parliament

C. Vice Chairman of the Planning Commission is held
IS

A. When a bill passed by one House is rejected

D. Vice Chairman of the National Develop- by the other
ment Council B. When there is some disagreement over any
JA

343. A joint sitting of both the Houses of Parlia- provision of or amendment to a bill
ment is presided over by the C. When a period of six months elapses from
A. President the date of receipt of a bill passed by one House
without it is being passed by the other
B. Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
D. Under all the three circumstances stated
C. Speaker above
D. Vice-Chairman of the Rajya Sabha 349. The Theory of Laissez Faire was invented by
344. The President of India has immunity from A. Marques
A. civil proceedings during his term of office B. Adam Smith
B. criminal proceedings during his life time af- C. Marshall
ter retirement D. Laski
C. criminal proceedings during his term of 350. Constitutions are classified as rigid and flexi-
office ble on the basis of

175
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 13. Indian Constitution

A. their length and volume A. Yes

B. the procedure for amendment B. No
C. their written (or unwritten) character C. Yes during an Emergency

D. the manner of their enactment D. Yes if so advised by the President

356. Union Parliament is
351. The Prime Ministership is generally offered to
the A. the supreme law making body in India

A. Leader of the majority party in the Popu- B. the House of the representatives of the peo-

ER
lar House ple

B. Leader of the majority party in the Upper C. the forum where democracy is seen in ac-

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

House tion

D
D. All the three above
C. Person who is unanimously elected as the
357. Which Article guarantees to the individual cit-

G
Leader of the House
izen the right to move the Supreme Court direct
D. Protem Speaker of the Lower House in case of violation of a Fundamental Right?

N
352. In the discharge of his functions, the Attorney A. Article 30
General is assisted by a Solicitor General and
Additional Solicitors General.
A
B. Article 31
H
C. Article 32
A. 2
D. Article 33
-C
B. 3
358. The President of India is the of
C. 4 the State.
N

D. 5 A. Real Head
353. Who acted as Prime Minister of India for 12 B. Titular Head
YA

days on the death of Jawaharlal Nehru? C. Constitutional Head

A. Morarji Desai D. Civilian Head
RA

B. Mrs Indira Gandhi 359. The upper age limit for remaining a President
ill India is
C. Gulzari Lal Nanda
A. 60 years
D. Lal Bahadur Shastri
NA

B. 65 years
354. The Fundamental Right which was subjected
to several amendments is the right C. 70 years
D. There is no upper age limit
A. to freedom
360. The absolute minimum number of times that
B. to equality Union Parliament must meet every year is
C. to property A. 4
D. against exploitation B. 2
355. Can the Prime Minister Induct Into his Cabi- C. 3
net one who is not a member of Parliament? D. 1
176
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
361. The Pension of a High Court Judge is charged A. Delhi
on the
B. Maharashtra
A. Public Accounts of India
C. Kerala
B. Consolidated Fund of the State
D. Gujarat
C. Public Accounts of the State
367. The salary and perquisites of the President of
D. Consolidated Fund of India India are determined by the
362. The Constitution of India provides for
A. Prime Minister
A. Bi-cameral Legislatures in all the States
B. Supreme Court
B. Unicameral Legislatures in all the States

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

C. Central Cabinet
C. Unicameral Legislatures in some States
and Bi-cameral Legislatures in others D. Union Parliament

M
D. A Committee of Members of Parliament to 368. A person appointed as an Additional or Act-
decide the issue of Bicameralism ing Judge of a High Court shall not hold office
after attaining the age of

RA
363. According to Article 300A, no person shall be
deprived of his save by authority of A. 60
law.
B. 62
A. property
C. 63
RI
B. life
D. 65
C. living
H

369. The Press can be an important opinion builder

D. citizenship if it is
IS

364. The emoluments and allowances of a State

A. owned by government
Governor shall not be during his
term of office. B. subject to censorship regulations
JA

A. increased C. subject to control by political parties

B. diminished D. free from interference by government and
C. amended big business houses

D. altered 370. The French Settlement of Pondicherry (now,

Puducherry) was ceded to India by the French
365. The Official Language Commission is respon-
Government in
sible to the
A. 1950
A. Prime Minister
B. Speaker of the Lok Sabha B. 1954

C. President C. 1952

D. Official Language Commission D. 1955

366. Voting in local bodies elections is compulsory 371. is/are not covered by any Zonal
in which one of the following states? Council.

177
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 13. Indian Constitution

A. Chandigarh A. Ruling Party

B. Andaman and Nicobar Islands B. Opposition Party
C. Lakshadweep C. Parliament
D. Pondicherry D. People
372. The decision of the Speaker as to whether a 377. Article 32 makes/gives the Supreme Court of
Bill is a Money Bill or not shall be India
A. subject to appeal to a Committee A. the protector and guarantor of Fundamen-

ER
tal Rights
B. final
B. an advisory role in respect of Constitutional
C. subject to arbitration

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

matters
D. subject to adjudication

D
C. original jurisdiction in respect of disputes
373. What is common to Sanskrit, Kashmiri and between the Union and the State
Sindhi?

G
D. appellate jurisdiction
A. Though listed in the Eighth Schedule
378. The first Chairman of the Rajya Sabha was

N
these three languages are unique in that they are
not the official languages of any state A. Dr Zakir Husain
B. These three are the oldest languages of the
world A
B. Dr S Radhakrishnan
H
C. VV Giri
C. Special provision has been made in the Con- D. N Sanjeeva Reddy
-C
stitution for the development of these languages
379. State Governors are
A. instruments of control of the Centre over
D. They did not find a place in the Eighth
N

the States
Schedule of the original constitution but were
subsequently included B. nominees of the Chief Ministers
YA

374. The State of Mysore was renamed as Kar- C. elected by the State Legislatures
nataka in the year
D. elected by Union Parliament
RA

A. 1972 380. Fundamental Duties are duties of

B. 1973 A. the Government towards society
C. 1974 B. the State towards citizens
NA

D. 1975 C. citizens towards society and fellow citi-

375. Disputes arising out of the election of the zens
Vice- President shall be decided by the
D. citizens and the State
A. President 381. Benazir Bhutto was the world’s
B. Election Commission A. first woman Prime Minister
C. Supreme Court B. first woman Prime Minister of a Muslim
D. Speaker of the Lok Sabha Nation
376. Which of the following is/are a political C. only woman Prime Minister
sovereign in democratic country? D. second woman Prime Minister
178
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
382. Right to Education became a Fundamental 388. B R Ambedkar was elected to the constituent
Right on Assembly from
A. March 15, 2010 A. West Bengal
B. April 1, 2010 B. The then Bombay Presidency
C. July 17, 2010 C. The then Madhya Bharat
D. October 10, 2010 D. Punjab
383. The first Chairman of the Planning Commis- 389. The Prime Minister is the leader of the
sion was
A. Majority Party in Parliament
A. TT Krishnamachari
B. Majority Party in the Lok Sabha

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

B. Jawaharlal Nehru
C. Majority Party in the Rajya Sabha
C. Dr VKRV Rao
D. None of these
D. Dr John Matthai

M
390. The Constitution of India mandates that the
384. Which language was added to the list of re- elections of the Panchayati Raj should be held
gional languages by the 21st Amendment? regularly after a gap of
A. Assamese
B. Oriya
C. Kashmiri
RA
A. 2 years
B. 3 years
C. 4 years
RI
D. Sindhi
D. 5 years
385. is the official language of Naga-
391. The late Mrs Vijayalakshami Pandit was the
land.
H

first
A. Ao
A. Indian to become President of the UN Gen-
IS

B. Sema eral Assembly

C. English B. Woman Cabinet Minister of a State in free
JA

D. Angami India
386. If the Lok Sabha is not in session, expenditure C. Woman Ambassador of free India to a for-
from the Consolidated Fund of the State may be eign country
authorised by the D. To adorn all the three above assignments
A. Prime Minister 392. A hopeless tribal woman of Assam sends a
B. Finance Minister telegram to the Supreme Court that the police
have confined her to unlawful custody. Which
C. President
of the following writs shall be issuable by the
D. Comptroller and Auditor-General of India Supreme Court to provide a suitable remedy to
387. The Vice-President is a member of her?
A. the Rajya Sabha A. Certiorari
B. the Lok Sabha B. Habeas Corpus
C. neither House C. Quo Warranto
D. Both D. Mandamus
179
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 13. Indian Constitution

393. To which State in India goes the credit of hav- A. cannot be removed from his office after his
ing been ruled by the world’s first democrati- election
cally elected Communist Government?
B. can be removed from his office by a resolu-
A. West Bengal tion of the Union Council of Ministers
B. Kerala C. can be removed from office only by a spe-
cial procedure
C. Jammu and Kashmir
D. can be removed from office through a mo-
D. Goa
tion of no-confidence passed by the Lok Sabha

ER
394. Which of the following is/are true about the
“Gram Nyayalayas”?
398. Who amongst the following appoints the

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

I) These courts will be mobile courts and Chairperson of the National Human Rights

D
will function at Panchayat level. Commission, India?
II) The Magistrates of these courts will go to A. The President of India

G
the villages in their area of coverage and B. The Prime Minister of India
will dispose off cases of the villages there

N
itself. C. The Chief Justice of India
III) Only civil suits related to the property of
A
D. The Lok Sabha
Rs. 5, 00, 000 and above will be disposed 399. Of the following Prime Ministers who did not
H
off in this Way. face the Union Parliament even once?
A. Only I A. Lal Bahadur Shastri
-C

B. Only II B. Charan Singh

C. Only III C. Morarji Desai
N

D. Only I and II D. VP Singh

YA

395. The main thrust of the Directive Principles of 400. As per reports, some state governments in In-
State Policy is dia have put a ban on the sale of Ammonium
Nitrate or its other combinations in the open
A. creation of an egalitarian society
RA

market as the same is being used by some peo-

B. achieving the goal of a ’welfare state’ ple as an explosive. The ban on open sale of
C. ensuring national integration such chemicals can be put under which of the
following Acts?
NA

D. striking a balance between equality and lib-

erty A. Explosive Substance Act

396. The first Independence Day (August 15, 1947) B. Narcotics Act
fell on a C. Trade & Merchandise Act
A. Wednesday D. Dangerous Drugs Act
B. Thursday 401. Under the Presidential system of government
C. Friday the advice of the cabinet is

D. Saturday A. never sought

397. The President of India B. binding on the head of the State

180
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 C. not binding on the head of the State A. Emergency was declared on this date
D. binding, if the advice is tendered unani- B. It was the date of death of Prime Minister
mously in the form of a Cabinet resolution Jawaharlal Nehru
402. Democracy is a system of government in C. The Indian Rupee was devalued on that day
which the final power rests with the
A. politicians D. The famous Tashkent agreement was signed
B. civil servants on that day

C. people 408. Citizenship by the is citizen of In-

dia.
D. army

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

A. acquiring property
403. Which among the following became the 25th
State of India? B. birth

A. Mizoram C. descent

M
B. Goa D. naturalization

RA
C. Arunachal Pradesh 409. The salary and perquisites enjoyed by the
President of India are determined by the
D. Sikkim
A. Prime Minister
404. The Legislature of the USA is known as the
B. Parliament
RI
A. Commons
C. Supreme Court
B. Congress
D. Rajya Sabha
H

C. Parliament
410. The oath of office to the President is adminis-
D. Senate tered by the
IS

405. Who administers the oath of office to the Vice- A. Speaker of the Lok Sabha
President of India
B. Prime Minister
JA

A. Chief Justice of India

C. Vice-President
B. President of India
D. Chief Justice of India
C. Speaker of the Lok Sabha
411. A Bill presented in Parliament becomes an Act
D. Attorney General for India after
406. Grants-in-aid are provided to such States as A. it is passed by both the Houses and as-
are in need of assistance, by the sented to by the President
A. Union Parliament
B. it is passed by both the Houses and assented
B. President to by the Prime Minister
C. Finance Commission C. the Speaker assents to the Bill
D. Planning Commission D. the Prime Minister and the Speaker have
407. June 25, 1975 was significant date in the his- signed the Bill
tory of the nation because 412. The term ’Fourth Estate’ refers to the

181
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 13. Indian Constitution

A. Union Parliament 418. The normal life of the House of the People is
B. Union Cabinet five years, but it may be dissolved earlier by the

C. Press A. Speaker

D. Judiciary B. Prime Minister

413. State Legislatures have role in the C. President
election of the Vice- President of India. D. Vice-President
A. a specific 419. The Portuguese enclaves of Dadra and Na-

ER
B. no gar Haveli were integrated with India after the
Judgement (in India’s Cavour) of the
C. an indirect

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

A. Supreme Court of India
D. A conclusive

D
B. Privy Council
414. Which one of the following is not a feature of
the Indian Constitution? C. International Court of Justice

G
A. Federal Government D. Bombay High Court

N
B. Parliamentary government 420. Usually the head of the State dissolves the Par-
liament before its term expires, on the advice of
C. Presidential government
D. Independence of the Judiciary A
the
H
A. Prime Minister
415. The Prime Minister of India who did not face
the Union Parliament was B. Speaker of the Lok Sabha
-C

A. Morarji Desai C. Law Minister

B. Lal Bahadur Shastri D. Parliamentary Affairs Minister
N

C. Charan Singh 421. To abide by the Constitution and respect Its

Ideals and Institutions the National Flag and the
YA

D. Rajiv Gandhi National Anthem is a/an

416. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India
A. Fundamental Right
submits his report relating to the accounts of the
RA

Union to the B. Fundamental Duty

A. Prime Minister C. Ordinary Right
B. Finance Minister D. Directive Principles of State Policy
NA

C. President 422. Who among the following draws the lowest

salary?
D. Speaker of the Lok Sabha
417. A plan for the division of India into two In- A. State Governors
dependent States was presented in June, 1947 B. Comptroller and Auditor General of India
by
C. Chief Justice of India
A. the Muslim League
D. Judges of State High Courts
B. the Indian National Congress 423. The term ’Equal Protection of Law’ in the In-
C. Lord Wavell dian Constitution is borrowed from the Consti-
D. Lord Mountbatten tution of the

182
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 A. USA 428. Before assuming his office the President has to
B. Japan take an oath in the presence of the Chief Justice
of India or in his absence the
C. United Kingdom
A. Vice-President of India
D. Australia
424. In which one of the following countries, the B. Seniormost Judge of the Supreme Court
members of the Upper House of Federal Legis- C. Home Secreatary
lature are nominated for life?
D. Prime Minister
A. USA
429. Preventive Detention for a period of more than
B. Canada three months can be ordered only on the recom-

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

C. Negeria mendation of an Advisory Board whose chair-
man shall be a judge of a/the
D. Australia
425. The concept of Public Interest Litigation orig- A. High Court

M
inated in B. Supreme Court
A. The United Kingdom C. District Court
B. The USA
C. Australia
D. Canada
RA D. Subordinate Court
430. The British Parliament passed the Indian Inde-
pendence Act, based on the Mount-batten Plan,
on
RI
426. A Constitution Amendment BW after being
passed by the Rajya Sabha is pending before A. March 24, 1947
a Select Committee of the Lok Sabha. Mean-
H

while the Parliament is dissolved. What hap- B. August 14, 1947

pens to the bill? C. February 20, 1947
IS

A. The bill lapses on the dissolution of Par- D. July 18, 1947

liament
431. The control of Government expenditure is en-
JA

B. The bill goes before a new Select Commit- tirely vested in the
tee constituted by the new Lok Sabha
A. Finance Minister
C. The bill is referred to the Attorney General
by the new Lok Sabha B. Union Parliament
D. The bill keeps alive despite dissolution of C. President
Parliament and takes its normal course
D. Prime Minister
427. A member of the Constituent Assembly of In-
dia, India’s first Ambassador to Moscow and 432. The Fundamental Rights of the Indian Consti-
Emeritus Professor of Eastern Religions at Ox- tution afford to every citizen protection from
ford. This description eminently fits A. danger to the country
A. Dr Zakir Husain B. exploitation by the trading community
B. Dr S Radhakrishnan C. summary or arbitrary rule of the State
C. Dr BR Ambedkar against him
D. Sir M Visvesvarayya D. indignity

183
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 13. Indian Constitution

433. On which among the following subjects is the 438. Some of the members of the Union Cabinet
Union Parliament not competent to make laws are members of the Council of States. Their
for Jammu and Kashmir? collective responsibility is to the
A. Defence A. Council of States
B. Finance B. House of the People
C. Foreign Affairs C. Both the Houses
D. Communications D. Neither
434. The President of India can be removed from 439. If the Rajya Sabha rejects a Money Bill, then

ER
office by impeachment for which of the following statements is correct?

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

A. violation of the Constitution of India A. The Bill is sent back to the Lok Sabha for
further consideration

D
B. failure to follow the advice given by the
B. President summons a Joint Session for pass-
Supreme Court

G
ing the Bill
C. failure to pay income-tax
C. Lok Sabha may or may not accept its rec-

N
D. contempt of court ommendations
435. The Returning Officers for the State Assembly D. The Attorney General’s opinion is sought
Elections are appointed by the
A
440. The Special Officer for Scheduled Castes and
H
A. President Scheduled Tribes is appointed by the
B. Governor A. Prime Minister
-C

C. Election Commission B. President

D. Chief Electoral Officer C. Law Minister

N

436. When both the offices of the Speaker and D. Vice-President

YA

Deputy Speaker are vacant, the duties of the 441. Equal pay for equal work for both men and
Speaker shall be performed by a member of the women has been laid down In the Indian Con-
Lok Sabha appointed by the stitution as one of the
RA

A. Prime Minister A. Fundamental Rights

B. President B. Directive Principles of State Policy
C. Chairman of the Rajya Sabha C. Fundamental Duties
NA

D. Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha D. Guidelines in the Preamble

437. Civil proceedings may be brought against the 442. Which General Election in India was spread
President in respect of his personal acts but only over a period of 100 days?
If months’ notice in writing has A. First
been delivered to him. B. Second
A. six C. Fourth
B. two D. Third
C. Karnataka 443. Under the unitary system of government the
D. three ultimate authority rests with

184
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 A. the administrative units D. Lok Sabha through a resolution passed by
a majority of all the members
B. the Constitution
448. The Election Commission enjoys
C. the Central Government
D. both the Central Government and the ad- A. a constitutional basis
ministrative units B. a statutoty basis
444. Scope for ’judicial review’ is not available un- C. an extra-constitutional basis
der the unitary system because
D. no constitutional or statutory basis
A. all powers are concentrated in the Central
Government 449. Who among the former RBI Governors was a
Presidential candidate in 1969?

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

B. there is no judiciary under this system
A. PC Bhattacharya
C. the powers are well defined leaving no
scope for dispute B. HVR Iengar

M
D. the judiciary has been stripped of all powers C. Dr IG Patel
D. Dr CD Deshmukh

of the total number of members in

the State Legislative Assembly.
RA
445. The total number of members in the Leg- 450. Who among the following is/are not appointed
islative Council of a State shall not exceed by the President of India?
A. Ambassadors and High Commissioners
RI
A. One fourth B. Chief Justice of India
B. One half C. Prime Minister
H

C. One third D. Advocate General

D. One fifth 451. The President of India appoints the Chief
IS

446. When the office of Chief Justice of a High Election Commissioner, but he cannot be re-
Court Calls vacant his duties will be performed moved from office except by a special proce-
by one of the other Judges of the Court as may dure laid down in the Constitution. This proce-
JA

be appointed for the purpose by the dure is the same as the one prescribed for the
removal of the
A. Governor
A. Vice-President
B. Chief Minister
B. Judges of the Supreme Court
C. President
C. Members of the State Public Service Com-
D. Supreme Court
missions
447. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha can be removed
from office before the expiry of his term by the D. Members and Chairman of the UPSC

A. President on the recommendation of the 452. The State of Israel came into being in
UPSC A. 1948
B. President on the recommendation of the B. 1938
Supreme Court
C. 1928
C. Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
D. 1958
185
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 13. Indian Constitution

453. A person accused of an offence wants to en- A. the polling was very poor
gage a counsel of his choice for his defence. B. the election was for a multi-member con-
According to the provisions of the Indian Con- stituency
stitution
C. the elected candidate’s victory over his
A. he is not entitled as of right to engage a nearest rival was very marginal
counsel of his choice
D. a very large number of candidates contested
B. he can engage only a counsel approved by the election
the court 458. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India

ER
C. he has a Constitutional right to engage a submits his report relating to the accounts of the
counsel of his choice Union to the

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

A. Prime Minister
D. he can engage his own counsel but his coun-

D
sel must be approved by the court B. Finance Minister

G
454. The idea of Lokpal is taken from C. President

A. Britain D. Speaker of the Lok Sabha

N
459. The financial powers enjoyed by the President
B. America of India are/is
C. Scandinavian Countries
A
A. He can authorise advance of moneys out of
H
the Contingency Fund
D. France
B. He can recommend introduction of certain
-C
455. The summoning of Parliament for a session money bills in Parliament
within six months from the date of last sitting
of each House is C. He can appoint a Finance Commission to
N

study and recommend distribution of tax re-

A. optional sources between States
YA

B. mandatory D. All the three above

C. left to the discretion of the President 460. How will the newly passed Gram Nyayalaya
Act help the judicial system in the country?
RA

D. left to the discretion of the Speaker of the

Lok Sabha and Chairman of the Rajya Sabha I) It promises to put many more courts at
block and tehsil levels.
456. Which among the following does not fall
II) It would make justice quick, particularly
within the jurisdiction of the Indian Parlia-
NA

in case of small disputes and petty crimes.

ment?
III) This will reduce the burden on High
A. Foreign pilgrimage Courts and Supreme Court.
B. Consideration of Money Bills A. Only I
C. Consideration of Ordinary Bills B. Only II
D. Fundamental Rights and Duties C. Only III
457. If in an election to a State Legislative Assem- D. Only I and II
bly the candidate who is declared elected loses 461. National Judicial Council is headed by whom
his deposit, it means that amongst the following?

186
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 A. Chief Justice of India A. Odisha
B. President of India B. Orissha
C. Vice-President of India C. Aurissa
D. Speaker of the Lok Sabha D. None of these
462. The Constitution has not laid down a compre- 467. Until the year a no-confidence
hensive law relating to citizenship of India. The motion was never moved in the Lok Sabha.
power to enact such law is left to the
A. 1962
A. President
B. 1964

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

B. Union Parliament
C. 1965
C. Law Ministry
D. 1963
D. Rajya Sabha

M
468. In case of a difference of opinion between a
463. The Chairman of the Union Public Service Chief Minister and the Governor regarding the
Commission is appointed by the inclusion of a particular person in the Council
A. Prime Minister
B. President
RA of Ministers the final say rests with the
A. Governor
B. Chief Minister
C. Parliament
RI
C. High Court
D. Home Minister
D. Supreme Court
H

464. Union Parliament is

469. The maximum permitted strength of anyone
A. the supreme law-making body in India
IS

State in the Rajya Sabha is

B. the house of the representative of the people
A. 32
JA

B. 35
C. the forum where democracy is seen in ac-
tion C. 39
D. All the three above D. 48
465. The members of the Vidhan Sabha in Indian 470. The role of the Finance Commission in
States are Centre-State fiscal relations has been under-
mined by the
A. directly elected
A. State Governments
B. indirectly elected
B. Zonal Councils
C. appointed by the Governor
C. Planning Commission
D. nominated by the President
D. Election Commission
466. As per the decision taken by the Orissa cabi-
net, the new name of the state would be written 471. Is there a provision in the Indian Constitution
as conferring a right to recall a legislator?

187
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 13. Indian Constitution

A. Yes A. Constitution of the USA

B. No B. British Constitution
C. Yes, during an Emergency C. Constitution of the Fifth French Republic
D. Yes, during a Financial Emergency D. Irish Constitution
472. The type of government adopted by the Indian 478. The number of members nominated by the
Constitution is President to the Rajya Sabha is constitutionally
A. Aristocracy limited to

ER
B. Oligarchy A. 12
B. 15

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

C. Presidential

D
D. Parliamentary C. 10
473. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha can D. 20

G
A. adjourn the House 479. The Uttar Pradesh Government has ac-

N
corded the second official language status to
B. dissolve the House
in the State.
C. summon the House
D. prorogue the House A
A. English
H
B. Sanskrit
474. A Presidential Ordinance remains in force for
C. Maithili
-C
A. three months
D. Urdu
B. two months
480. The Speaker Protem of the Lok Sabha is ap-
N

C. an indefinite period pointed by the

D. six months
YA

A. President
475. Who among the following is/are not appointed
B. Prime Minister
by the President?
C. Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
RA

A. Attorney General for India

B. Judges of the Supreme Court D. Outgoing Speaker of the Lok Sabha
481. Which one of the following is not correct with
C. Judges of High Courts
NA

regard to the powers of the President of India?

D. Advocate General
A. He is the Supreme Commander of the
476. Business in Parliament can be transacted armed forces
A. Only in Hindi B. He can declare war or peace
B. Only in English C. He presents the annual Defence Budget
C. In Hindi or in English before Parliament
D. In any regional language D. He has the power to issue Ordinances
477. The model for Fundamental Rights in India 482. The Indian Administrative Service and the In-
has been taken from the dian Police Service have been created by the

188
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 A. Home Ministry A. 1965
B. Unoin Public Service Commission B. 1966
C. Parliament C. 1967
D. Supreme Court of India D. 1968
483. Preventive Detention for a period of more than 488. The monthly salary of the President of India is
two months can be ordered only on the recom- now
mendation of an Advisory Board whose Chair- A. Rs 500000
man shall be a judge of the
B. Rs 180000
A. Supreme Court

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

C. Rs 150000
B. District Court
D. Rs 200000
C. Subordinate Court
489. The Attorney General for India does not have

M
D. High Court the right to
484. The number of representatives from Nagaland A. attend Parliament sessions
to the Rajya Sabha is
A.
B. 2
1 RA B. attend Parliamentary Committees
C. take part in the proceedings of Parliamen-
tary Committees by expressing his views
RI
C. 3 D. vote in Parliament
D. 4 490. The inclusion of Fundamental Duties in the
Constitution was welcomed by
H

485. The number of members nominated by the

President to the Lok Sabha is A. the Union Cabinet only
IS

A. 12 B. the ruling party only

B. 2 C. the opposition parties only

JA

C. 6 D. both the Houses of Parliament unani-

mously
D. 9
491. A Cabinet Minister who for a period of six
486. Before assuming office as the President of the consecutive months is not a member of either
Republic, Dr Rajendra Prasad was the House of Parliament shall on the expiry of that
A. President of the Constituent Assembly of period
India A. continue to be a Minister by a special reso-
B. Vice-President of India lution of the Cabinet

C. Interim Prime Minister B. cease to be a Minister

D. Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the C. be reverted as a Deputy Minister

Constituent Assembly D. be reverted as a Minister of State
487. The First National Emergency declared in Oc- 492. Which one of the following has not been cre-
tober 1962 lasted till ated by the Constitution of India?

189
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 13. Indian Constitution

A. Union Public Service Commission 498. The President of Indian enjoys the same Con-
stitutional authority as the
B. Election Commission of India
A. British Monarch
C. Finance Commission
B. President of the USA
D. Planning Commission
493. When the Governor or a State dies in office, C. President of Myanmar
who takes over as acting Governor? D. British Prime Minister
A. Chief Minister of the State 499. The first Backward Classes Commission was

ER
headed by
B. Chief Justice of the State High Court
A. Raj Kumari Amrit Kaur
C. Anyone designated by the President

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

B. Jogendra Nath Mandal

D
D. Governor of a neighbouring State
494. Of the two Houses of the Union Parliament C. Kakasaheb Kalelkar

G
A. Lok Sabha is more powerful D. M H Beg

N
B. Rajya Sabha is more powerful 500. The USA has a form of Govern-
ment.
C. Both are equally powerful
D. Cannot be said A
A. Dictatorial
B. Monarchical
H
495. State Governors are Instruments of control of
the Centre over the States. C. Presidential
-C

A. True D. Parliamentary

B. False 501. The President has the right to address

N

C. Only during a National Emergency A. the two Houses of Parliament assembled at

the first session convened after every general
YA

D. Only during a Financial Emergency election

496. A joint sitting of both the Houses or Parlia- B. the two Houses at the commencement of the
ment is summoned by the first session every year
RA

A. President C. the Lok Sabha only every year

B. Vice-President D. Both A and B above
NA

C. Speaker 502. Which House of Parliament is sometimes

D. Law Minister called the ”House of Elders”?
497. During the temporary absence of a Governor A. Rajya Sabha
the is appointed to officiate as Gov- B. Lok Sabha
ernor.
C. Both
A. Chief Sectetary
D. None of the above
B. Speaker of the State Assembly
503. The concept of nomination of members to the
C. Chairman of the State Legislative Council Rajya Sabha by the President has been bor-
D. Chief Justice of the State High Court rowed from the Constitution of

190
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 A. USA 509. Whose signature is found on a Rs One cur-
rency note?
B. United Kingdom
C. Ireland A. President of India

D. Australia B. Union Finance Secretary

504. The Union Food Minister who had earned the C. Governor, Reserve Bank of India
sobriquet ”Famine Minister” was D. Union Finance Minister
A. KM Munshi 510. The foundations for the federal system in the
B. Rafi Abmed Kidwai Indian Constitution were laid in the
C. NG Ayyangar A. Indian Councils Act of 1892

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

D. Raj Kumari Amrit Kaur B. Indian Councils Act of 1909
505. Fundamental Duties are C. Government of India Act, 1919

M
A. proclaimed during an emergency by the D. Government of India Act, 1935
President

RA
511. Which among the following is not a Funda-
B. enshrined in the Constitution 42nd mental Right?
Amendment (1976)
A. Right of strike
C. not provided for in the Indian Constitution
B. Right to equality
RI
D. provided for by an Act of Parliament
506. Which of the following is a Union Territory of C. Right to freedom of religion
India? D. Right to constitutional remedies
H

A. Uttarakhand 512. The term ’equality before the law’ has been
IS

B. Chandigarh borrowed from

C. Himachal Pradesh A. Great Britain

JA

D. West Bengal B. Government of India Act, 1935

507. The President of India possesses the same C. USA
Constitutional authority as the
D. Ireland
A. British Monarch
513. Which of the following is not connected with
B. President of the USA the British political system?
C. President of Bangladesh A. Queen
D. President of Pakistan B. Chancellor of the Exchequer
508. The Indian Parliament is a creature of the
C. Cabinet
A. Constitution
D. President
B. British Parliament
514. The Chief Justice or other Judges of the
C. President Supreme Court, after retirement or removal, are
D. Prime Minister not permitted to plead or act in any court

191
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 13. Indian Constitution

A. other than the Supreme Court A. a natural part

B. or before any authority within the terri- B. a full- fledged territory
tory of India
C. an integral part
C. inside or outside India
D. popular entity
D. other than the State High Courts
520. The Constitution of India describes India as a
515. The Union Parliament consists of Union of States which means that the
A. The President of India A. States have no right to secede from the

ER
federation
B. The Council of States (Rajya Sabha)
B. States have a right to secede from the feder-

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

C. The House of the People
ation

D
D. All of the above
C. States have been given more powers

G
516. A new State can be created by a/an
D. Centre cannot alter the independent exis-
A. Act of Parliament tence of the States

N
B. Amendment to the Constitution of India un- 521. The question whether an Indian citizen had ac-
der Article 368
C. Resolution passed by both the Houses of A
quired the citizenship of a foreign country is de-
termined by
H
Union Parliament A. Central Government
-C
D. Ordinance issued by the President of India B. Supreme Court of India
517. Untouchability is an offence C. Attorney General for India
N

A. according to the Constitution and is pun- D. President of India

ishable in accordance with law
522. The highest position in the country an IAS of-
YA

B. on humanitarian grounds, but is not punish- ficer can aspire for is

able under any law
A. Governor RBI
C. only according to Mahatma Gandhi
RA

B. Cabinet Secretary
D. only according to Mahatma Gandhi and
C. Home Secretary
Acharya Vinoba Bhave
D. Foreign Secretary
NA

518. An ordinance issued by the President has the

same force and effect as an Act of Parliament 523. Under the Cabinet Government the right to
reshuffle the cabinet rests with the
A. True
A. Head of the State
B. False
B. Prime Minister
C. True, only during a National Emergency
C. Speaker
D. True, only during a Financial Emergency
D. Cabinet sub-Committee
519. The State Constitution of Jammu and Kash-
mir declares the State to be of the 524. Who defeated Mrs Gandhi in the 1977 Lok
Union of India. Sabha elections?

192
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 A. Morarji Desai A. House of the People and Legislative
Council
B. Raj Narain
B. Upper House and Legislative Assembly
C. Charan Singh
C. Council of States and Legislative Council
D. JP Narayan
D. Upper House and Legislative Council
525. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha can be removed
530. A judge of the Supreme Court can be removed
from his office by the/a
from his position only on grounds of
A. President
A. proved misbehaviour or incapacity
B. Prime Minister B. gross inefficiency

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

C. Vote of no-confidence passed by both the C. senility
Houses of Parliament
D. imbecile conduct
D. Vote of no-confidence passed by the Lok 531. Schedule of the Constitution

M
Sabha gives a list of the States and Union Territories.
526. Which one of the following is part of the elec- A. Second

RA
toral college for the election of the President of
India but does not form part of the forum for his B. Third
impeachment? C. First
A. Lok Sabha D. Fourth
RI
B. Rajya Sabha 532. The first linguistic State, born in 1953, was

C. State Legislative Council A. Andhra

H

B. Saurashtra
D. State Legislative Assemblies
C. Gujarat
527. Who among the following draws the maxi-
IS

mum salary? D. Maharashtra

A. Chief Justice of Supreme Court 533. The Cabinet System of Government origi-
nated in
JA

B. Chief Justice of a High Court

A. Britain
C. Prime Minister of India
B. USA
D. President of India C. France
528. In the event of receiving the resignation of D. Sweden
the President, the Vice-President shall forth-
534. The phrase ”justice, social, economic and po-
with communicate the fact to the
litical” occurs in the
A. Prime Minister of India
A. Preamble
B. Speaker of the Lok Sabha B. Preamble and Fundamental Duties
C. Chief of the Army Staff C. Fundamental Rights
D. Chief Justice of India D. Preamble and Directive Principles of
529. The English equivalents of Lok Sabha and State Policy
Vidhan Parishad are 535. In India, sovereignty resides in the

193
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 13. Indian Constitution

A. President 541. The President can remove a Judge of the

B. Union Parliament Supreme Court or the Chief Election Commis-
sioner
C. Prime Minister
A. on his own
D. Constitution of India
B. only on the advice of Parliament
536. A Governor is liable to be transferred from
one State to another C. only on the advice of the Prime Minister
A. True D. only on the advice of the Attorney General
for India

ER
B. False
542. During the. period of 15th August 1947 to the
C. True, during a National Emergency 26th January 1950, the political status of India

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

D. True, during a Financial Emergency was that of a

D
537. In the discharge of his functions the Attorney A. Sovereign Republic
General is assisted by

G
B. Dominion in the British Commonwealth
A. a Solicitor General of Nations

N
B. a Solicitor General and an Additional Solic- C. Sovereign Republic and a member of the
itor General Commonwealth
C. a Solicitor General and two Additional
A
D. Sovereign State
H
Solicitors General 543. Rajya Sabha is considered to be a permanent
D. None House because
-C

538. Ordinances issued by a State Governor are A. its members never retire
subject to the approval of the
B. the House is never dissolved
N

A. President of India
C. one-third of its members retire after every 2
B. Chief Minister of the State years
YA

C. Union Parliament D. one-fourth of its members retire after every

D. State Legislature concerned 3 years
RA

539. The real executive powers under Parliamen- 544. The basic difference between the Indian Pres-
tary Government rests with the ident and the British Monarch is
A. Prime Minister A. A British Monarch can be questioned by the
House of Lords, whereas the Indian President is
NA

B. Head of the State

not answerable to any court
C. Parliament
B. The British Monarch IS forbidden from for-
D. Council of Ministers eign travel whereas the Parliament is in session
540. The sole interpreter of the Constitution in a no such restriction ever applies to the Indian
State is the President
A. Advocate General C. There is no age bar to the Indian Presi-
dent for holding the office whereas the British
B. High Court
Monarch .automatically steps down on his at-
C. Governor of the State taining the age of 75 installing the Crown
D. Subordinate Courts Prince as Monarch

194
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 D. The Indian President is elected every five 550. The founders of the Indian National Congress
years whereas the British Crown is hereditary were
and not elective. Whereas
A. AO Hume, Gokhale, Gandhiji
545. The Rajasthan High Court is located at
B. AO Hume, Wedderburn, Dadabhai
A. Pilani Naoroji
B. Jaipur C. AO Hume, Ansari, C Rajagopalachari
C. Jodhpur D. Tilak, AO Hume, WC Banerjee
D. Udaipur 551. Can there be a common High Court for two or
546. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha can be removed more states?

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

from office before the expiry of his term by the
A. Yes
A. President, on the recommendation of the
UPSC B. No

M
B. President, on the recommendation of the C. Yes, during a financial emergency
Supreme Court D. Yes, during a national emergency
C. Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
D. Lok Sabha, through a resolution passed
by a majority of all the then members
RA
552. How many Parliamentary Constituencies are
there in the Union Territory of Puducherry?
A. One
547. Do the State Legislatures have any authority
RI
B. Two
to propose amendments to the Constitution?
C. Three
A. Yes
H

D. Four
B. No
553. Which among the Coli owing countries is
IS

C. Yes, during an Emergency

known as the ”Home of Direct Democracy”?
D. Yes, during a Financial Emergency
A. UK
548. The executive power of the State is vested in
JA

the B. USA

A. Governor C. Switzerland
B. Chief Minister D. France
C. Neither 554. was responsible for the unifica-
tion of India after Independence.
D. Both
549. Both the Houses of Parliament as well as of A. Jawaharlal Nehru
a State Legislature have privileges B. GB Pant
under our Constitution.
C. Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel
A. similar
D. C Rajagopalachari
B. dissimilar
555. Which Indian State remained an Associate
C. divergent State for a short period before it was recognised
D. peculiar as a full-fledged State of the Union?

195
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 13. Indian Constitution

A. Goa 561. The remuneration payable to the Advocate

General of a State is determined by the
B. Sikkim
C. Nagaland A. Chief Justice of the State High Court

D. Kerala B. Registrar of the State High Court

556. Which among the following does not form C. Governor
part of the Preamble? D. Chief Minister
A. Sovereignty 562. The Idea of Incorporation of the ’Concurrent

ER
B. Socialism List’ in the Indian Constitution has been bor-
rowed from the Constitution of
C. Secularism

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

A. Ireland
D. Federalism

D
B. Britain
557. The modern State is a/an

G
A. police state C. Australia
D. Canada

N
B. welfare state
563. When the Supreme Court was inaugurated in
C. laissez faire state
D. aristocratic state
A
1950, how many judges were there in the Court
(including the Chief Justice)?
H
558. constituted the largest single pro- A. 7
fessional group among the members of the
B. 8
-C
Constituent Assembly of India.
A. Professors C. 9
N

B. Politicians D. 10
C. Lawyers 564. Indian Independence Act, 1947 received the
YA

Royal assent on
D. Doctors
A. July 18, 1947
559. The power of the Supreme Court of India
to decide disputes between the Centre and the B. August 14, 1947
RA

States fail under its

C. January 1, 1947
A. Original Jurisdiction
D. August 1, 1947
B. Advisory Jurisdiction
NA

565. The Eighth Schedule of the Constitution enu-

C. Appellate Jurisdiction merates the
D. Constitutional Jurisdiction A. Fundamental Rights
560. The Chief Minister remains in power as along B. Official Languages of India
as he enjoys the confidence of the
C. Laws placed beyond the jurisdiction of
A. Prime Minister courts
B. Governor D. Fundamental Duties
C. State Legislative Assembly 566. If a Cabinet Minister disagrees with the Prime
D. People of the State Minister the latter can

196
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 A. stop payment of salary to the Minister 572. The Constituent Assembly of India which
drafted the Indian Constitution was set up un-
B. get the Minister removed by Parliament
der
C. ask the Minister to resign his minister-
ship A. the Cripps Mission Plan

D. ask the Minister to resign from Parliament B. the Cabinet Mission Plan

567. The first sitting of Union Parliament after the C. the Indian Independence Act
First General Election held in 1951-52 was on D. Lord Mountabatten’s notification dated
A. 13.5.1952 12th August 1946
B. 26.1. 1952 573. led the nation’s first non-

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

Congress government.
C. 1.1. 1992
A. Morazji Desai
D. 1. 7.1952
B. Charan Singh
568. In the USA there is/are official language/s

M
C. VP Singh
A. One
D. Chandrasekhar

RA
B. Two
574. The Union Territory having five official lan-
C. Three
guages is
D. Four
A. Chandigarh
569. Promotion of international peace and security
RI
is dealt with in Article of the Con- B. Delhi
stitution. C. Puducherry
H

A. 48 D. Lakshadweep
B. 49 575. The Chief Justice and other judges of the
IS

C. 50 Supreme Court of India hold office until they

attain the age of
D. 51
JA

A. 58 years
570. Which State is covered by Article 370 of the
Constitution? B. 60 years
A. Arunachal Pradesh C. 65 years
B. Mizoram D. 70 years
C. Jammu and Kashmir 576. Which of the following is not a duty of the
Election Commission?
D. Haryana
A. To give recognition to political parties
571. The Quorum of a Legislative Council is
B. To lay down general rules and guidelines for
A. 25
elections
B. one tenth of its membership or ten
C. To determine constituencies and to prepare
whichever is greater
the electoral rolls
C. one fourth of its membership
D. To provide adequate campaign funds for
D. one fourth of its membership or ten the candidates
197
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 13. Indian Constitution

577. Who enjoys the right to impose reasonable re- 582. The separation of the judiciary from the exec-
strictions on the Fundamental Rights of citi- utive is envisaged in the
zens?
A. Preamble
A. President
B. Directive Principles
B. Union Parliament
C. Objectives Resolution
C. Prime Minister
D. Fundamental Rights
D. Supreme Court
583. A Judge of the Supreme Court
578. The main purpose behind the inclusion of the

ER
Directive Principles of State Policy in the In- A. can be removed .by the President
dian Constitution is to B. cannot be removed by the President

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

A. establish a welfare state

D
C. can be removed by the President only
B. establish a secular state upon a joint address by both Houses of Parlia-

G
C. check the arbitrary actions of the Govern- ment
ment D. can be removed by the Chief Justice of In-

N
D. provide the best opportunities for develop- dia
ment of the citizen 584. Members of the Lok Sabha are elected for a
579. The Constitutional duty to make recommen-
A
term of five years, but the term can be extended
by year(s) by Parliament in a National Emer-
H
dations with regard to the distribution of’ finan-
cial resources between the Union and the States gency.
-C
is vested with the A. One
A. Reserve Bank of India B. Two
N

B. Planning Commission
C. Three
C. Finance Commission
D. Four
YA

D. Inter-State Council
585. A Constitution is said to be flexible if
580. The Constitution of India provides for a fed-
eral system with A. it can be amended by ordinary law and
RA

procedure
A. a weak centre
B. it can be amended by a difficult process
B. an omnipotent centre
C. it can be amended by a court of law
C. a strong centre
NA

D. there is no amendment procedure

D. a centre which enjoys co-equal powers with
the states 586. The framers or the Constitution decided to live
581. During the period of emergency the six free- importance to Panchayati Raj and directed the
doms guaranteed by Article are au- State to take steps to organize village panchay-
tomatically suspended. ats as units or self-government under Article

A. 19 A. 39
B. 18 B. 40
C. 20 C. 38
D. 17 D. 41
198
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
587. Every judge of the High Court is appointed by 592. The Central Provinces and Berar are now
the President of India, after consultation with known as
the A. Uttar Pradesh
A. Chief Justice of India B. Bihar
B. Governor of the State C. Madhya Pradesh
C. Chief Justice of the High Court concerned D. Odisha
D. All the above three institutions 593. The first ever meeting of the Union Cabinet
outside New Delhi was held in
588. Under the RTI Act, the time for disposal of re-
quest for information in cases concerning life A. Alwar

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

and liberty is B. Ajmer
A. 30 days C. Jaipur
B. 15 days D. Sariska

M
C. 10 days 594. Finance Commission is appointed by the Pres-
ident of India after every

RA
D. 48 hours
A. 10 years
589. The provision for organising village Panchay-
ats exists in B. 5 years

A. The Preamble to the Constitution C. 6 years

RI
B. Chapter on Fundamental Rights D. 4 years
595. The monthly salary of a State Governor is Rs.
C. Chapter on Directive Principles of State
H

Policy A. 110000
B. 120000
IS

D. An Act of Parliament passed in 1950

590. Disputes arising out of the election of the C. 100000
Vice- President shall be decided by the D. 90000
JA

A. President 596. Reserved seats exist in a State Assembly for

B. Election Commission A. minorities

C. Supreme Court B. backward classes

D. Speaker of the Lok Sabha C. women

591. In the Indian Penal Code a crime is considered D. Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
’cognizable’ when 597. The First Indian to become the Comptroller
and Auditor General of India was
A. the crime is unintentional
A. CD Deshmukh
B. children below 16 are the criminals
B. A Bakshi
C. it is punishable by less than 3 years of im-
prisonment C. CV Narahari Rao
D. Dr John Matthai
D. when a court can take notice of the crime
without a formal complaint 598. The US President is elected for a period of

199
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 13. Indian Constitution

A. four years A. Union Home Minister

B. five years B. Lok Sabha
C. six years C. President

D. three years D. Union Parliament

604. Universal Adult Franchise implies a right to
599. How many Schedules did the original Consti- vote to all
tution of India contain?
A. residents of the State
A. 7

ER
B. adult residents of the State
B. 8
C. adult citizens of the State

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

C. 9 D. adult male citizens of the State

D
D. 6 605. Who acted as the Prime Minister of India im-
mediately on the death of Jawaharlal Nehru?

G
600. The power to abolish or create Legislative
Councils in the States rests with the A. TT Krishnamachari

N
A. President B. Lal Bahadur Shastri
C. Mrs Indira Gandhi
B. Union Parliament
C. Chairman of the Rajya Sabha A
D. Gulzari Lal Nanda
H
606. The right to decide on the Fundamental Rights
D. State Governors that are not available to members of the armed
-C
601. Which among the following statements about forces rests with the
State Governors is true? A. President
N

A. They are elected by members of Parliament B. Parliament

C. Defence Ministry
YA

B. They are elected by members of the State D. Defence Minister

Legislatures
607. The French Settlement of Pondicherry was
C. They are nominated by the Chief Ministers ceded to India by the French Government in
RA

of States A. 1950
D. They are instruments of control of the B. 1954
Centre over the States
NA

C. 1952
602. In a Parliamentary form of Government the
D. 1955
A. Legislature is responsible to the Judiciary 608. The functional head of the Government is the
B. Legislature is responsible to the Executive A. Chief Justice of India
C. Executive is responsible to the Legisla- B. President
ture C. Prime Minister
D. Judiciary is responsible to the Legislature D. Cabinet Secretary
603. Administrators of Union Territories are re- 609. International legal problems in the United Na-
sponsible to the tions are settled by the

200
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 A. General Assembly A. tribunal
B. Security Council B. civil court
C. International Court of Justice C. bench of the Delhi High Court
D. Trusteeship Council D. bench of the Supreme Court
610. For moving a resolution to remove the Speaker 616. The three-tier Panchayati Raj system in India
from his office, a prior notice of at least was proposed by the
days has to be given.
A. Balwarrt Rai Mehta Committee
A. seven
B. Ashok Mehta committee
B. fourteen

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

C. Royal commission
C. thirty
D. None of these
D. sixty
617. In which one of the following countries the

M
611. Can the Supreme Court sit outside Delhi? Supreme Court cannot declare a law passed
A. Yes by the Federal Legislature as unconstitutional,
even if it violates the country’s Constitution?
B. No
C. Yes, during an Emergency
D. Yes, during a Financial Emergency
RA
A. Cananda
B. USA
C. India
RI
612. The authority to dissolve a State Legislative
Assembly is vested in the D. Nigeria
A. Chief Minister of the State 618. Certain Articles of the Indian Constitution can
H

B. Speaker of the State Assembly be amended by a simple majority In Parliament

like an ordinary law. Which one of the follow-
IS

C. President of India ing cannot be amended by this method?

D. Governor of the State A. Articles dealing with the creation of new
JA

613. The Appellate Jurisdiction of a State High States

Court is B. Provisions dealing with the quorum in Par-
A. Civil liament
B. Criminal C. Articles dealing with the official languages
of the Union and the States
C. Both civil and criminal
D. Doubts and disputes relating to the elec-
D. Neither
tion of President or Vice President
614. International legal disputes are settled by the
619. The American Constitution came into effect
A. UN General Assembly in
B. Security Council A. 1781
C. International Court of Justice B. 1789
D. Secretary General C. 1860
615. The Election Commission is a D. 1865
201
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 13. Indian Constitution

620. According to the Supreme Court, the goal of 625. An additional Judge of a High Court holds of-
Indian Socialism is a ’blend of and fice Cora period of
leaning heavily towards Gandhian
A. 2 years
Socialism.
A. Marxism and Leninsism B. 3 years

B. Leninism and Gandhism C. 1 years

C. Marxism and Gandhism D. 4 years

D. Nehruism and Gandhism 626. The Capital of India was shifted from Calcutta

ER
621. A Unitary State is one in which to Delhi in

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

A. all authority vests with the Union Gov- A. 1908

D
ernment B. 1909
B. all authority vests with the State Govern-

G
C. 1910
ments
D. 1911

N
C. all authority vests with the Army
D. the authority is equally shared by the Union 627. The authority empowered to fix the salary and
and State Governments by agreement
622. All Constitutional questions should be heard A
allowances of the Speaker is the
A. President
H
and decided by a Supreme Court bench of not
B. Union Cabinet
less than judges.
-C

C. Vice-President
A. 4
D. Union Parliament
N

B. 5
C. 6 628. Which of the following does not constitute a
YA

basic feature of the Indian Constitution?

D. 7
A. Federal Government
623. Who among the following articulated his de-
mand in 1938, for a Constituent Assembly on B. Independence of Judiciary
RA

the basis of adult franchise?

C. Presidential form of Government
A. C Rajagopalachari
D. Parliamentary Government
B. Purushottam Das Tandon
NA

629. The Governor holds office for

C. cl Jawaharlal Nahru years from the date of assumption of office.
D. JB Kripalani
A. five
624. The Special Officer for the Scheduled Castes
and Scheduled Tribes shall be appointed by the B. four

A. Prime Minister C. six

B. Home Minister D. three
C. Law Minister 630. Union Parliament can make laws in respect of
D. President subjects mentioned in the State List

202
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 A. when the State Assembly is not in session A. Finance Commission
B. during an Emergency under President’s B. CAG
rule
C. Union Finance Ministry
C. on a specific request from the Governor
D. Planning Commission
D. when the Chief Minister concurs
636. When the office of Chief Justice of a High
631. Which among the following has not been In- Court falls vacant, his duties will be performed
cluded in the list of languages under the 8th by one of the other Judges of the Court as may
Schedule of the Constitution of India? be appointed for the purpose by the
A. Sanskrit A. Governor

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

B. Sindhi B. Chief Minister
C. Urdu C. President

M
D. English D. Supreme Court
632. Who among the following is/are not appointed 637. The gestation period of the Indian Constitu-
by a State Governor?
A. Chief Minister
B. Members of the State Public Service Com-
RA
tion was
A. 3 years 3 months 3 days
B. 2 years 11 months 18 days
mission
RI
C. cl 1 year 11 months 28 days
C. High Court Judges
D. Exactly 3 years
H

D. Advocate General
638. The first Chief Election Commissioner of In-
633. State Legislatures have role in the
IS

dia was
election of the Vice- President of India.
A. a specific A. KVK Sundaram
JA

B. no B. SP Sen Verma

C. an indirect C. Sukumar Sen

D. a conclusive D. Dr Nagendra Singh

634. When was National Emergency declared for 639. In which case did the Supreme Court strike
the first time in India? down certain provisions of the 42nd Amend-
ment and restored primacy of fundamental
A. October 1962 rights over the Directive Principles?
B. February 1962 A. AK Gopalan Case
C. December 1962 B. Golaknath Case
D. January 1963 C. Kesavananda Bharati Case
635. The net proceeds of taxes are distributed be-
D. Minerva Mills Case
tween the Centre and the States on the recom-
mendations of the 640. An Advocate General is a/an

203
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 13. Indian Constitution

A. State Government official C. members of the armed forces

B. Union Government official D. All the above categories
C. Extra-Constitutional authority 646. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha will address his
letter of resignation to the
D. Subordinate of the Attorney General of
India A. President
641. The Attorney General for India holds office B. Prime Minister
during the pleasure of the C. Deputy Speaker

ER
A. Union Law Minister D. Minister for Parliamentary Affairs
B. Prime Minister 647. The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG)

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

C. Chief Justice of India does not audit the receipts and expenditure of

D
D. President of India A. Municipal Undertakings

G
642. The Prime Minister in a Parliamentary execu- B. State Governments
tive C. Government Companies

N
A. enjoys no independent power of his own D. Union Government
B. can act as a dictator by himself
C. acts as a link between the Council of Min- A
648. Who among the following can be rightly
called the guardian of the Public Purse in In-
H
isters and the President dia?
A. Governor of the Reserve Bank of India
-C
D. does not lead the party in power in an Emer-
gency B. Chairman of the State Bank of India
643. Silvassa is the capital of C. President of India
N

A. Lakshadweep D. Comptroller and Auditor General of In-

YA

B. Tripura dia
649. According to the Table of Precedence pub-
C. Dadra and Nagar Haveli
lished by the Union Government the Attorney-
RA

D. Mizoram General for India occupies the

644. The legal adviser to a State Government is place.
known as the A. tenth
A. Advocate General
NA

B. eleventh
B. Attorney General C. sixth
C. Solicitor General D. ninth
D. Public Prosecutor 650. The maximum membership of the Rajya
645. Under the Indian Constitution right to freedom Sabha is limited to
of speech and expression is denied to A. 240
A. the civil servants B. 245
B. judges of the Supreme Court and High C. 250
Courts
D. 260
204
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
651. It is the responsibility of the to de- A. right to vote
cide the disputes arising between two States or B. right to vote granted to men only
between the Centre and a State.
C. vote
A. Supreme Court
D. right to vote granted to women only
B. President
657. The Advocate General will hold office during
C. Parliament the pleasure of the
D. Prime Minister A. Governor
652. Article is an in-built instrument in B. Chief Minister
the Constitution for its amendment. C. President

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

A. 365 D. Chief Justice of the State High Court
B. 366 658. In making laws Parliament has come to accept
the leadership of the

M
C. 360
A. Prime Minister
D. 368
B. Law Minister
653. The main factor which has inhibited the Gov-
ernment in the implementation of Directive
Principles or State policy has been
A. fear of agitations and protests
RA C. President
D. Attorney General
659. The Indian Constitution came into force on
RI
B. fear of strictures from the judiciary A. January 26, 1950
B. January 26, 1949
C. fear of opposition
H

C. November 26, 1949

D. resources crunch
IS

D. January 1, 1950
654. may by law constitute a High
Court for a Union Territory or declare any court 660. Which one of the following has been wrongly
in any such Territory to be a High Court. listed as a qualification for the election of the
JA

President of India?
A. The President
A. Must be a citizen of India
B. The Supreme Court
B. Must have completed 35 years of age
C. Union Parliament C. Must be qualified for election to the Ra-
D. The Ministry of Law jya Sabha
655. The letter of resignation of a Judge of the High D. Must not hold any office of profit under the
Court should be addressed to the Government of India or of a State
661. Which of the following is not a part of the
A. Chief Justice of the High Court
Preamble to the Indian Constitution?
B. President of India
A. Socialism
C. Governor of the State B. Secularism
D. Union Law Minister C. Federalism
656. ’Franchise’ means the D. Sovereign Democratic Republic

205
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 13. Indian Constitution

662. A retired judge of the Supreme Court of India C. He can withhold his assent to an ordinary
can resume practice in the bill and return it to the Legislature with a mes-
A. Supreme Court sage to reconsider it

B. High Court of his choice D. He can summon or prorogue the State As-
sembly
C. District Courts
667. The Principal organ of the United Nations is
D. No Court in the territory of the Union the
663. Whenever the Lok Sabha is dissolved, the A. Security Council
does not vacate his office until immediately be-

ER
fore the first meeting of the House after the dis- B. General Assembly
solution. C. Secretariat

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

A. Prime Minister

D
D. Trusteeship Council
B. Speaker 668. The Jammu and Kashmir High Court is lo-

G
C. Finance Minister cated in
D. Defence Minister A. Jammu

N
664. The Fundamental Rights as contains in our B. Srinagar
Constitution are grouped under
categories. A
C. Udhampur
H
D. Both A and B.
A. 5
669. The maximum membership of the Rajya
B. 6
-C
Sabha is limited to
C. 7
A. 240
N

D. 10
B. 245
665. The exclusive forum for adjudicating disputes
C. 250
YA

relating to the election of the President of India

is the D. 260
A. Lok Sabha 670. The expression ’Justice’ in the Preamble to the
RA

B. Rajya Sabha Indian Constitution is used

C. Supreme Court A. to indicate economic and political justice

D. Delhi High Court B. to indicate social, economic and political

NA

justice
666. The powers of a State Governor are analogous
to those of the President with a few exceptions. C. to indicate equality of status and opportu-
Which among the following is an exception to nity
this analogy in respect of Governor’s powers? D. in the sense of absolute justice
A. He can appoint any person who commands 671. A former judge of the High Court
a majority in the Assembly as the Chief Minis-
ter. A. cannot practise within the jurisdiction of the
High Court
B. He can declare a state of emergency in the
State, if he is satisfied that an abnormal situa- B. can practise in the Supreme Court and other
tion has arisen High Courts

206
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 C. cannot practise in any court 677. Normally, no person can be held under pre-
ventive detention for more than
D. Both A and B above
months.
672. Special rights as regards have
A. two
been conferred on ’permanent residents’ of the
State of Jammu and Kashmir. B. three
A. acquisition of property C. six

B. employment D. twelve
678. Money can be advanced out of the Contin-
C. settlement
gency Fund of India to meet unforeseen expen-
D. All the three above ditures, by the

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

673. In a federal system of government powers are A. Parliament
divided between the Centre and the States by B. President

M
A. the Constitution C. Finance Minister
B. a mutual agreement between the Centre and D. Prime Minister

RA
the States
679. Nagaland was made a separate State by taking
C. Parliament out the out of the State of Assam.
D. Supreme Court A. Naga Hills
674. The Indian National Congress accepted the B. Tuensang Area
RI
Cabinet Mission’s proposal for C. Both
A. a Constitution-making body D. and
H

B. interim Government E.
IS

C. formation of a Union of India F. Neither of the two

D. formation of Provincial Governments 680. The Central Audit Machinery is headed by the
JA

675. When an army officer seizes power through a A. Union Finance Minister
coup d’ etat, he becomes B. Union Finance Secretary
A. a de jure sovereign C. Comptroller and Auditor General of India
B. a de facto sovereign
D. Accountant General, Central Revenues
C. a popular sovereign
681. Ambassadors and High Commissioners of for-
D. a titular sovereign eign countries present their credentials to the
676. Who among the following can remove a Chief A. Prime Minister
Minister from his office?
B. President
A. State Legislative Assembly
C. Foreign Minister
B. Governor
D. Foreign Secretary
C. President 682. The power to declare an Act passed by a State
D. Supreme Court of India Legislature as unconstitutional lies with the

207
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 13. Indian Constitution

A. President A. 19
B. State High Court B. 20
C. Supreme Court and State High Court C. 21
D. State Governor D. 22
683. Who among the following has the exclusive 688. Which among the following countries has a
power to grant pardon in case of death sen- Unitary System of Government?
tences? A. USA

ER
A. Prime Minister of India B. Pakistan

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

B. Chief Justice of India C. Switzerland

D
C. President of India D. United Kingdom
D. A Special Bench of the Supreme Court

G
689. The first woman Governor of a State was
684. If Parliament appoints a Committee for a spe- A. Mrs Vijayalakshmi Pandit

N
cific purpose, it is known as
B. Mrs Sarojini Naidu
A. Ad hoc Committee
B. Joint Committee A
C. Miss Padmaja Naidu
H
D. Mrs Sucheta Kripalani
C. Permanent Committee
690. The right to initiate amendments of the Con-
-C

D. Standing Committee stitution rests with the

685. The first country to include a set of Directive A. State Legislatures
N

Principles in its Constitution was

B. Union Parliament
A. India
YA

C. Both
B. Ireland D. and
C. South Africa E. above
RA

D. Bangladesh F. Committee of Constitutional experts known

686. Which is the only Indian State which has the as the ”National Convention”
unique distinction of having its own Constitu- 691. The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha can vote in
NA

tion? the House

A. Goa A. during a Financial Emergency
B. Sikkim B. during a National Emergency
C. Jammu and Kashmir C. in case of a tie
D. Nagaland D. if so advised by the Attorney General for
India
687. Which Article of the Constitution confers on
the citizen protection of life and personal lib- 692. Which among the following functions under
erty? the principle of collective responsibility?

208
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 A. Union Parliament A. Agriculture
B. Lok Sabha B. Education

C. Supreme Court of India C. Forests

D. Union Council of Ministers D. Police

698. A person who otherwise qualifies for appoint-
693. The most literate State in India is ment as a High Court Judge must have been an
A. West Bengal Advocate of a High Court for not less than

B. Goa A. 5 years
B. 10 years
C. Kerala

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

C. 12 years
D. Tamil Nadu
D. 15 years
694. Dr Ambedkar had said that Article
699. Nowadays the Election Commission of India

M
should normally remain a ’dead
Uses ’EVM’ during the general election in the
letter’ and would be used only in the ’last re-
country. What Is the full form of EVM?
sort’.
A. 356
B. 355
RA A. Election Validation Machine
B. Electronic Voting Machine
C. Electronic Validation Management
C. 352
RI
D. Early Voting Movement
D. 365 700. The salary and conditions of service of the
Comptroller and Auditor General of India shall
H

695. Which of the following has the power to in-

quire into the proceedings of any House or a be
IS

State Legislature? A. statutory (i.e. as laid down by Parliament

by law)
A. The High Court
B. fixed by the President of India
JA

B. The Supreme Court

C. finalised by the Finance Minister
C. Parliament
D. fixed by the Governor, Reserve Bank of In-
D. None dia
696. The two former Governors of the Reserve 701. A person is entitled to Indian Citizenship, if
Bank of India who later became Union Finance he is/if he fulfills
Ministers were A. domiciled in India
A. YB Chavan and TT Krishnamachari B. born in India
B. CD Deshmukh and Manmohan Singh C. a refugee who has migrated to India from
Pakistan
C. RK Shanmukham Chetty and LK Jha
D. All the above conditions
D. John Matthai and PC Bhattacharyya
702. Which among the following qualifications is
697. Which among the following subjects is in- not essential for a person to become the Vice-
cluded in the Concurrent List? President of India?

209
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 13. Indian Constitution

A. He must be a graduate 707. Appointment of District Judges in a State shall

be made by the
B. He must be an Indian Citizen
A. Governor of the State
C. He must be over 35 years of age
B. Governor of the State in consultation with
D. He must be qualified to be a member of the the High Court of the State
Rajya Sabha
C. State Public Service Commission
703. The provisions relating to the suspension of
fundamental rights by the President during D. State Chief Secretary
emergencies were borrowed from the 708. Not more than shall elapse be-

ER
A. Constitution of Canada tween the date on which a House is prorogued
and the commencement of its next session.

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

B. Constitution of Britain
A. 3 months

D
C. Constitution of USA
B. 6 months

G
D. Weimar Constitution of Germany C. 9 months
704. If the Lok Sabha is not in session, expenditure
D. 1 year

N
from the Consolidated Fund of the State may be
authorised by the 709. High Courts in India started functioning first

A. Prime Minister
at
A
A. Bombay, Calcutta and Madras
H
B. Finance Minister
B. Allahabad, Bombay and Delhi
C. President
-C
C. Bombay and Calcutta
D. Comptroller and Auditor General of India D. Madras and Bombay
705. The difference between an Additional Judge 710. A political party will be treated as recognised
N

and an Acting Judge of a High Court is in a State only if it has been engaged in Political
YA

A. there is practically no difference activity Cora continuous period of

years.
B. the former is appointed in a casual vacancy
whereas the latter is appointed to cope with the A. three
RA

workload B. four
C. the former is appointed to cope with the C. five
workload whereas the latter is appointed in a
D. six
NA

casual vacancy
711. After the report of the Comptroller and Audi-
D. the former is appointed by the President tor General is laid before Parliament it is exam-
whereas the latter is appointed by the Chief Jus- ined by the
tice of the concerned High Court
A. Estimates Committee
706. The highest court of appeal in India is the
B. Public Accounts Committee
A. Union Parliament
C. Speaker of the Lok Sabha
B. Supreme Court
D. Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
C. President 712. The concept of Welfare State finds elaboration
D. Rajya Sabha in the

210
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 A. Preamble 718. The term of office of the Chief Election Com-
B. Fundamental Rights missioner is years.

C. Fundamental Duties A. four

D. Directive Principles of State Policy B. five

713. The Punjab and Haryana High Court has terri- C. six
torial jurisdiction over the States of Punjab and D. three
Haryana and 719. Article 19 of the Constitution gives Indian cit-
A. Delhi izens the freedom to reside and settle in any part
B. Union Territory of Chandigarh of India. This freedom is subject to various re-
strictions in the State of

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

C. Himachal Pradesh
A. Assam
D. Rajasthan
B. Himachal Pradesh
714. The Preamble of the Constitution was

M
amended for the first time by the C. Jammu and Kashmir
A. 24th amendment D. Goa
B. 38th amendment
C. 42nd amendment
D. 44th amendment
RA
720. The on the advice of the
Comptroller and Auditor General prescribes the
form in which the accounts of the Union and of
the State are to be kept.
RI
715. A person can be a member of both Houses of A. Union Finance Minister
Parliament B. Prime Minister
A. Yes
H

C. Cabinet Secretary
B. No D. President
IS

C. Yes, during a National Emergency 721. The competent authority to amend the Funda-
D. Yes, during a Financial Emergency mental Rights is the
JA

716. Who among the following can remove a Chief A. Union Parliament
Minister from his office? B. President of India
A. State Legislative Assembly C. Lok Sabha
B. Governor D. Supreme Court of India
C. President 722. The minimum age to qualify for member-ship
D. Supreme Court of India of the Rajya Sabha is
717. For a successful and effective functioning of A. 21 years
the Parliamentary system, it is necessary to B. 25 years
have
C. 30 years
A. a strong opposition party
D. 35 years
B. a Presidential form of government
723. The present membership of the Rajya Sabha
C. a multi-party system is of these represent the States and
D. a no-party system Union Territories.

211
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 13. Indian Constitution

A. 275, 225 A. quasi-judicial procedure

B. 250, 235 B. judicial procedure

C. 245, 233 C. parliamentary procedure

D. military procedure
D. 240, 225
729. For the Union Territories which have no legis-
724. Panchayati Raj was first introduced in latures of their own laws are enacted by the
A. Andhra Pradesh A. President

ER
B. Bihar B. Union Law Ministry

C. Rajasthan C. Union Parliament

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

D. Supreme Court of India
D. Gujarat

D
730. In which one of the following States, it is con-
725. The Governor of a State receives a Bill passed stitutionally obligatory for the State to have a

G
by the Legislative Assembly of the State for re- separate minister for tribal welfare?
settlement of citizens in that State affecting the

N
general laws of citizenship of India. Which of A. Jharkhand
the following courses would be the most appro- B. Odisha
priate for the Governor to take?
A
C. Madhya Pradesh
H
A. give assent to the bill D. All of them
B. refer the bill to the President 731. There is no age limit for appointment as At-
-C
torney General for India
C. keep the bill pending
A. True
D. exercise his veto power over the bill
N

B. False
726. The British Government announced their de- C. Partly true
YA

cision to grant independence to India on 15th

August 1947, on D. True, during an emergency
732. The Constitution of India is
A. 1st January, 1947
RA

A. rigid
B. 3rd June, 1947
B. very/rigid
C. 31st March, 1947
C. flexible
NA

D. 15th August, 1946 D. partly rigid and partly flexible

727. The first Prime Minister of Jammu and Kash- 733. The members of the Union Public Service
mir was Commission are
A. Sheikh Mohammad Abdullah A. elected by the people

B. Maharaja Sir Hari Singh B. elected by Union Parliament

C. appointed by the President
C. Yuvaraj Karan Singh
D. appointed by the Home Ministry
D. Dr Farooq Abdullah
734. The executive of a State Government com-
728. Impeachment of President is a prises the

212
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 A. President, the Governor and the Chief Min- A. 1957
ister
B. 1952
B. Governor and the Chief Minister
C. 1951
C. Governor and the Council of Ministers
D. 1959
D. Chief Minister and his Council of Ministers
740. The power to extend and/or restrict the juris-
diction of a High Court rests with the
735. The proclamation of emergency on the ground
of external aggression issued on 3.12.1971 was A. Union Parliament
revoked on
B. Supreme Court of India
A. January 1, 1977

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

C. President
B. March 27, 1977
D. State legislature/s concerned
C. April 18, 1977

M
741. A minister who is not a member of the State
D. December 31, 1976
Legislative Assembly is required to secure the
736. When both the offices of the Speaker and people’s verdict in his favour in a by-election
Deputy Speaker are vacant, the duties of the
Speaker shall be performed by a member of the
Lok Sabha appointed by the
A. Prime Minister
RA
within
A. two months
B. three months
RI
B. President C. six months
C. Chairman of the Rajya Sabha D. one year
H

D. Secretary-General of the Lok Sabha 742. The absolute minimum number of times that
IS

737. Provisions for disqualification on ground of Parliament must meet every year is
defection are listed in Schedule . A. 4 times
A. 9
JA

B. twice
B. 10
C. once
C. 11
D. 3 times
D. 12
743. What is the final formality without which no
738. The Constitution of India provides that the Central Bill can become a law in our country?
three constituents of the Indian Parliament are
the Lok Sabha, the Rajya Sabha and the A. Signature of the Prime Minister
A. Prime Minister B. Signature of the Speaker, Lok Sabha
B. Vice-President C. Assent of the President
C. President D. Signature of the President
D. Council of Ministers 744. In case of breakdown of Constitutional ma-
739. Panchayati Raj was introduced in the country chinery in the State of Jammu and Kashmir rule
in will be imposed in the State.

213
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 13. Indian Constitution

A. President’s A. seek justice in a court of law

B. Governor’s B. approach the police for protection or secu-
rity
C. Army
C. vote at the time of elections to the Lok
D. Sadar-i-Riyasat’s
Sabha
745. Which one of the following statements is cor-
rect? D. express an opinion critical of Government
policy
A. There cannot be a constitutional govern-
750. The type of Government adopted in the Indian

ER
ment without a written constitution
Constitution is
B. A country can have a constitutional govern-
A. Aristocracy

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

ment only if the courts have the power of judi-

D
cial review B. Oligarchy
C. A country can have a constitutional gov- C. Parliamentary

G
ernment even without a formal constitutional
D. Presidential
document

N
751. Can a citizen approach a court for the enforce-
D. A country can have a constitutional govern- ment of a Directive Principle?
ment only if its constitution cannot be easily
amended
A
A. Yes
H
746. The House of Lords is the upper chamber of B. No
Parliament in C. Yes, on the fulfilment of certain conditions
-C

A. the USA D. The Government can move the courts but

B. the United Kingdom the citizen cannot
N

C. Canada 752. Which among the following does not form

part of the Preamble?
YA

D. Japan
A. Sovereignty
747. An Advocate General is a/an
B. Socialism
A. State Government official
RA

C. Secularism
B. Union Government official
D. Federalism
C. Extra-Constitutional authority
753. What is the maximum strength prescribed for
NA

D. None of these the State Legislative Assembly?

748. Who among the following has the right to ad-
A. 350
dress both the Houses of Parliament?
B. 600
A. Chief Justice of India
C. 500
B. Comptroller and Auditor General of India
D. 750
C. Attorney General for India
754. Who among the following has been empow-
D. Governor of the Reserve Bank of India ered by the Constitution of India to seek the
749. A foreigner residing in India does not have the opinion of the Supreme Court on questions of
right to law or fact of public importance?

214
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 A. President of India 760. The US President is elected for a period of
B. Union Law Minister A. four years
C. Prime Minister of India B. five years
D. Speaker of the Lok Sabha C. six years
755. The two nominated Anglo-Indians in the D. three years
House of the People represent a population of
761. Which is the official language of the State of
about
Jammu and Kashmir?
A. 1 lakh
A. Kashmiri
B. 140000
B. Urdu

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

C. 2 lakhs
C. Hindi
D. 3 lakhs
D. English
756. Who among the following can preside over a

M
762. The State shall take steps to separate the judi-
joint sitting of the two Houses of the Indian Par-
ciary from the executive, in terms of Article
liament?

RA
A. 48
A. President of India
B. 49
B. Prime Minister
C. Speaker of the Lok Sabha C. 50
D. 51
RI
D. Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
757. State Governors are responsible for their ac- 763. Which one of the following was introduced by
tions to the the Constitution of India?
H

A. Lok Sabha A. Uniform Civil Code

IS

B. State Legislature B. Universal Adult Suffrage

C. President C. Separate Electorate for Women

D. Separate Electorate for Muslims
JA

D. Prime Minister
758. Equality, Fraternity and Liberty were ideas 764. All proceedings in the Supreme Court and in
that emanated from the revolution of every High Court will be in

A. UK A. Hindi

B. USA B. English

C. France C. Hindi and English

D. USSR (now defunct) D. Hindi or English

759. ’In this country the sovereign reigns but does 765. The President can remove an individual Min-
not govern’. These were the words of ister from the Council of Ministers
A. Clement Attlee A. on his own suo moto
B. Winston Churchill B. only on the advice of the Prime Minister
C. Anthony Eden C. only on the advice of the Lok Sabha
D. Harold McMillan D. only on the advice of the Speaker

215
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 13. Indian Constitution

766. The British Panel that visited India to study 771. The partition of British India into Pakistan and
the Partition Plan (of India and Pakistan) was India was incorporated in the
headed by
A. Government of India Act, 1935
A. Radcliffe
B. Constitution of India
B. Cripps
C. Indian Independence Act, 1947
C. Mountbatten
D. Proposals of the Cabinet Mission 1946
D. Simmon
772. The jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India

ER
767. If the President dies or resigns or is otherwise is three fold viz
incapacitated and as a result, the Presidential
office becomes vacant, the Vice- President will A. Civil, criminal and appellate

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

act as President only for a maximum period of B. Original, appellate and advisory

D
A. three months C. Appellate, advisory and miscellaneous

G
B. six months D. Civil, criminal or otherwise
C. nine months

N
773. What are the powers or the Rajya Sabha re-
D. one year garding Money Bills? The House
768. The office of the Prime Minister of India has a
basis. A
A. can amend them
B. can reject them
H
A. constitutional
C. can withhold them for 14 days to make
-C
B. statutory recommendations
C. conventional D. has no power over Money Bills
N

D. historical 774. The head of the criminal courts within the dis-
769. India, according to the Preamble to the Con- trict is the
YA

stitution, is a A. Chief Judicial Magistrate

A. Sovereign, Secular, Democratic Republic
B. Additional District Judge
B. Sovereign, Democratic Republic
RA

C. Registrar of the State High Court

C. Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic
D. Chief Justice of the State High Court
Republic
775. According to the Constitution, there shall be a
D. Sovereign, Secular, Socialist Democracy
NA

Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister at

770. Justice means that the head to
A. there cannot be any discrimination whatever A. guide the President
B. aid and advise the President
B. there can be discrimination on just
grounds C. seek advice from the President
C. discrimination can be made in accordance D. exercise a check on the President
with majority view 776. Which of the following acts is in vogue in In-
D. discrimination can be made according to the dia is against the thinking of raising school fee
wishes to the King/ President as per demand of the market forces?

216
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 A. Prevention of Corruption Act A. Concurrent list
B. Child Labour (Prohibition & Regulation) B. Residuary subjects
Act C. Union list
C. Sharda Act D. On all these
D. Right to Education Act 782. The decided in May 1949 that In-
777. The first Law Officer of the Government of In- dia should become a Republic.
dia is the A. House of Commons
A. Chief Jusitce of the Supreme Court B. Union Parliament
B. Attorney General for India C. Constituent Assembly of India

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

C. Secretary, Ministry of Law D. Prime Minister of India
D. Union Law Minister 783. Of the following ex-Presidents who had
served as Indian Ambassador to the erstwhile

M
778. Does the President of India enjoy veto power?
Soviet Union?
A. Yes
A. Dr Rajendra Prasad
B. No
C. Only in respect of Money Bills
D. The Constitution is silent on this point
RA
B. Dr S Radhakrishnan
C. Dr Zakir Husain
D. Giani Zail Singh
RI
779. Which among the following statements is not
true? Under the Constitution of India, 784. The growing power of the bureaucracy does
not pose any serious challenge to the demo-
A. the Vice-President is liable for impeach-
H

cratic polity in India because the final authority

ment still rests with the
IS

B. the President does not preside A. Judiciary

C. he Speaker does not speak B. Head of the State
JA

D. the Governor does not govern C. Head of the Government

780. A few members of the Legislative Council are D. Union Parliament
nominated by the
785. Which is the oldest of all the federal Constitu-
A. Chief Minister tions in the world?
B. Governor of the State A. Ireland
C. Chairman of the Council B. Canada
D. Speaker of the State Assembly C. USA
781. On which one of the following lists of subjects D. Australia
is the Union Parliament competent to legislate?

217
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 14
IAS

1. Consider the following statements regarding 2. Which one of the following is a feature com-
booth capturing in an election: 1. It has been mon to both the Indian Federation and the
defined in theConstitution of India after the 61st American Federation?
Amendment. 2. It includes the seizure of and- A. single citizenship
taking possession of a polling booth to prevent
the orderly conduct ofelections. 3. It is also B. Three lists in the Constitution
committed when anyelector is threatened and C. Dual judiciary
prevented from going to the polling station to
D. federal Supreme Court to interpret the
casthis vote. 4. It has been declared a cog-
constitution
nisableoffence punishable by imprisonment. Of
these statements 3. India is opposed to the Nuclear Non-
proliferation Treaty (NPT) because
A. 2, 3 and 4 are correct
A. It is discriminatory against the non-
B. 1, 2 and 3 are correct nuclear powers
C. 2 and 3 are correct B. It forbids India to use nuclear energy for
peaceful purposes
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct

218
 C. It aims at making South Asia a nuclear free A. Freedom of speech and expression
zone
B. Right to assemble peaceably and without
D. It allows Pakistan to develop its own nuclear arms
capability
C. Right to property
4. Eurodollars are
D. Right to equality
A. a currency issued by European Monetary
9. What is the minimum percentage of the
Union
strength of opposition required in a State leg-
B. special currency issued by federal govern- islature for the appointment of an opposition
ment of U.S. . to be used only in Europe leader?
C. U.S. dollars circulating In Europe A. 20

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

D. European currencies exchanged for the U.S. 10. The President of India is elected indirectly by
dollar in U.S the electoral college consisting of the elected
members of the

M
5. If the Speaker of the State Legislative Assem-
bly decides to resign, he shouldsubmit his res- A. Lok Sabha only
ignation to the

RA
B. Rajya Sabha only
A. Chief Minister C. Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha only
B. Governor D. Lok Sabha, the Rajya Sabha and the Leg-
C. Judge of the High Court islative Assemblies of the States
RI
D. President 11. China attacked Vietnam because
6. good citizen is one who is A. Of armed provocations and encroachment
H

against Chinese territory

A. Conscious of social obligations
B. Of Vietnams alliance with U.S.S.R.
IS

B. Not bothered about anything

C. Of Vietnams involvement in Kampuchea
C. Educated
D. Of Paracel Islands dispute
JA

D. Rich in cultural heritage

12. To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity
7. Which one of the following is INCORRECT in
and integrity of India, a provision has been
respect of Parliamentary Control over the Bud-
made in the
get?
A. Directive Principles of State Policy
A. Parliament has no say In the preparation of
the budget B. Preamble to the Constitution
B. Parliament has the power to increase ex- C. Fundamental Duties
penditure charged on the Consolidated Fund D. Fundamental Rights
C. Parliament has no power to impose a tax 13. U.S.S.R. stands for
without the Presidents recommendation
A. Union of Secular Socialist Republics
D. Parliament has no power to increase a tax
without the Presidents recommendation B. Union of Sovereign Socialist Republics
8. Which one of the following is not a Fundamen- C. Union of Soviet Secular Republics
tal Right? D. Union of Soviet Socialist Republics

219
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 14. IAS

14. The Employment Guarantee Scheme, a rural C. If after a bill has been passed by one
work programme, was first started in House and transmitted to the other House and
the bill is rejected by the other House
A. West Bengal
D. All of the above
B. Punjab
19. Parliament consists of
C. Kerala
A. Prime Minister and other Ministers
D. Maharashtra
B. President, Prime Minister and other Minis-
15. Whose signatures are found on a hundred rupee ters

ER
note?
C. President, Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha
A. President of India

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

D. President, Chief Justice and Lok Sabha
B. Governor of Reserve Bank of India

D
20. The abolition of the I.A.S. and the I.P.S. has
C. Prime Minister been recommended by the

G
D. Finance Minister A. Dhebar Commission
B. Kalekar Commission

N
16. The maximum gap between two sessions of the
Parliament can be of C. Kher Commission
A. Six months
B. Three months A
D. Rajamannar Commission
21. TheConstitution of India provides for the nom-
H
ination of two members to the LokSabha by the
C. Nine months
President to represent
-C

D. Twelve months
A. Men of eminence in arts, letters, science,
17. Match List I with List II and select the correct etc.
N

answer by using the codes given below the lists:

B. Parsis
List I List II (Features of the Indian Constitu-
YA

tion) (Borrowed from) I. Fundamental Rights ( C. The business community

) U.K. II. Parliamentary system of Government D. The Anglo-Indian community
( ) U.S. . III. Emergency provisons ( ) Ireland
22. Considerthe following activities indulged in by
RA

IV. Directive Principles of State Policy ( ) Ger-

a candidate during an election campaign: 1.
man Reich (E) Canada Codes:
Giving gifts to voters to inducethem to vote 2.
A. I-, II-, III-E, IV- Appealing for votes on the groundsof caste or
religion 3. False character assassination ofother
NA

B. I-E, II-, III-, IV-

candidates 4. Propagation and glorification of-
C. I-, II-, III-, IV- sati Which of these constitute the corruptprac-
D. I-, II-, III-, IV- tices?
18. In which case a joint session of the Lok Sabha A. 1 and 2
and Rajya Sabha is convened by the President? B. 2 and 3
A. When a Finance Bill is to be passed by the C. 1, 2 and 3
Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha with 2/3rd ma-
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
jority
23. Which one of the following determines that the
B. To impeach the President Indian Constitution is Federal?

220
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 A. written and rigid Constitution A. Dr. Zakir Hussain
B. An independent Judiciary B. Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
C. Vesting of residuary powers with the Centre C. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
D. None of the above
D. Distribution of powers between the Cen- 29. 44th Amendment of the Constitution speaks of
tre and the States
A. Right to property as no longer a Funda-
24. AllIndia Services can be created by the mental Right
A. President B. Suspension of individual liberty during
B. U.P.S. . emergency

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

C. Prime Minister C. Barring the courts from interfering in the
disputes regarding the election of Prime Min-
D. Parliament ister
25. The most irritating factor in the Gentre-State re-

M
D. Giving more importance to Directive Prin-
lationship is the
ciples over Fundamental Rights.
A. River water dispute 30. Which of the following statements regarding ju-
B. Interference of the Centre in the functions
allotted to them by the Constitution
C. Allocation of finances
RA
diciary in India are correct? 1. Supreme Court
of India is free from the control and influence of
legislature and executive 2. Subordinate courts
are at the head of the judicial hierarchy of the
RI
D. None of the above state. 3. The Chief Justice and other judges of
26. Council of Ministers of the Union of India is the High Court are appointed by the Governor
responsible to the in consultation with the Chief Justice of India 4.
H

High Court can withdraw a case from a subor-

A. Parliament
dinate court and can deal with the case itself if
IS

B. President it is satisfied that the case involves a substantial

C. Prime Minister point of constitutional law Choose the correct
answer from the codes given below:
JA

D. Chief Justice
A. 1 & 2
27. Assertion (A): Panchayati Raj institutions were
set upto decentralise planning to village level. B. 1 & 3
Reason (R): Village panchayats are in a better- C. 1 & 4
position to have a proper appreciation of their
D. 2, 3 & 4
developmental needs.
31. Apolitical party is recognised as a national
A. Both and R are true and R is thecorrect party
explanation of
A. When it contests elections in all the States
B. Both and R are true but R is nota correct ex- of thecountry.
planation of
B. When it secures at least five per cent of the
C. is true but R is false totalvotes cast in a national election.
D. is false but R is true C. If it captures power at least in three States.
28. Who was the second President of the Indian Re- D. If it is recognised as a political party in
public? four or more States
221
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 14. IAS

32. Who among the following has the right to speak actions (3) The Presidents power to send advi-
and otherwise take part in theproceedings of ei- sory messages to the Parliament (4) The Presi-
ther House of the Parliament and to be a mem- dents power to get information from the Coun-
ber of anyParliamentary Committee in India but cil of Ministers
is not entitled to vote?
A. 1 and 4
A. The Chief Election Commissioner
B. 2 and 3
B. The Comptroller and Auditor-General
C. 2 and 4
C. The Chairman of the Finance Commission

ER
D. 2 only
D. The Attorney-General
37. Rajya Sabha is dissolved once in

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

33. Which Amendment of the Constitution gave
A. 2 years

D
priority to Directive Principles over Fundamen-
tal Rights? B. 3 years

G
A. 36th Amendment C. 6 years

N
B. 38th Amendment D. It is never dissolved
C. 40th Amendment 38. The term Fourth Estate refers to
D. 42nd Amendment
A
A. very backward State
H
34. The dispute regarding the election of Prime B. Judiciary
Minister and President of India can be decided
-C
C. Parliament
by
D. Press
A. High Court
N

39. Which of the following statements regarding

B. Election Tribunal
literacy in India are correct? 1. person who can
YA

C. Chief Election Commissioner only read but cannot write is not defined literate
2. Children below 5 years of age are not taken
D. None of the above
into consideration even if they are able to read
35. The Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitu- and write 3. For the purpose of census, a person
RA

tion contains is deemed literate if he or she can read and write

with understanding in any of the 15 languages
A. States and Union Territories
mentioned in the Eighth Schedule of the Con-
NA

B. Salaries of the President, Governors of stitution 4. The fact that a district has attained
States, Judges of Supreme Court, etc. hundred per cent literacy does not mean that the
entire population in the district is literate
C. Union List, State List and Concurrent
List A. 1, 3 and 4
D. Allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha B. 2, 3 and 4
36. Of the following, with which does Article 78 C. 1, 2 and 3
of the Constitution deal with? (1) Emergency
D. 1, 2 and 4
powers of the President (2) The Prime Ministers
duty regarding keeping the President informed 40. The 45th Amendment to the Indian Constitu-
about the governments decisions, policies and tion relates to

222
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 A. Minorities Commission A. Preamble
B. Commission for Scheduled Castes and B. Fundamental Rights
Scheduled Tribes
C. Fourth Schedule
C. Extension of reservation of seats for
D. Directive Principles of State Policy
Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
46. In a Parliamentary System of Government
D. None of the above
A. The parliament is responsible to the execu-
41. Which of the following are Financial Commit-
tive
tees of Parliament in India? 1. Public Accounts
Committee 2. Estimates Committee 3. Com- B. The parliament is responsible to the judi-
mittee on Public Undertakings ciary

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

A. 1 and 3 C. The executive is responsible to the parlia-
ment
B. 1 and 3

M
C. 2 and 3 D. The judiciary is responsible to the parlia-
ment
D. 1, 2 and 3

RA
47. Who selects persons for appointment to the
42. How many judges are there in the International Central Civil Services in India?
Court of Justice?
A. President
A. 10
B. Prime Minister
RI
B. 12
C. Planning Commission
C. 15
D. UPSC
H

D. 20
48. In a parliamentary system the executive is re-
43. By which Amendment to the Constitution, the
IS

sponsible
Fundamental Duties of the citizens were speci-
fied? A. Directly to the people
JA

A. 38th B. To legislature

B. 40th C. To judiciary

C. 42nd D. None of the above

D. 44th 49. Which of the following are the circumstances

under which an elected member of Parliament
44. Panchayati Raj System was introduced in the may be disqualified on the ground of defection?
year 1. If he voluntarily gives up his membership of
A. 1948 a political party 2. If he votes or abstains from
voting contrary to any direction issued by his
B. 1959 political party without prior permission of the
C. 1951 political party 3. If he speaks against the polit-
ical party 4. If he joins a political party other
D. 1952 than the party on whose ticket he contested and
45. The concept of welfare state is included in the got elected Select the correct answer from the
Constitution of India in codes given below:

223
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 14. IAS

A. 1, 2 and 3 D. According to the Indian Constitution Parlia-

B. 1, 2 and 4 ment consists of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
only
C. 1, 3 and 4
54. Assertion (A): Finance Commission aims to
D. 2, 3 and 4 safeguard the fiscal autonomy ofthe States.
50. Who among the following have a right to vote Reason (R): Finance Commission is constituted
in the VicePresidential election butnot in the every fifth year.
Presidential election?
A. Both and R are true and R is the correct ex-
A. Ministers who are not members of either

ER
planationof
House of theParliament
B. Both and R are true but R is not the cor-

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

B. Elected members of the Upper Houses of rectexplanation of
the States

D
C. is true but R is false
C. Nominated members of the Parliament

G
D. is false but R is true
D. Members of the Parliament who abstain
from all meetings of the House for aperiod of 55. Which is correct?

N
sixty days without permission of the House A. Lok Sabha cannot be dissolved before 5
51. Match: List I List II Measuring instruments years
Which measure . Anemometer 1. Motor power
. Tachometer 2. Wind speed . Dynamometer 3. A
B. Rajya Sabha lasts only for 6 years
H
Revolutions per minute . Barometer 4. Atmo- C. Lok Sabha can be dissolved before 5 years
spheric pressure 5. Current from a dynamo
-C
D. Life of Lok Sabha can be extended indefi-
A. 1 3 5 4 nitely Defense
B. 2 1 3 4
N

56. Acts and Regulations validated by Article 31

C. 2314 are specified in of the Constitution
YA

D. 1 3 5 2 A. Concurrent List
52. The principal language of Nagaland is B. State List
A. English
RA

C. Union List
B. Naga D. Ninth Schedule
C. Assamese 57. Sarkaria Commission was set up to
NA

D. Khasi
A. Investigate about the riots that took place in
53. Which one of the following statements is true? Delhi in 1984
A. Union Territories are not represented in the B. Maintain Centre-State relationship
Rajya Sabha
C. Make necessary investigations and sugges-
B. Jurisdiction regarding election disputes
tions regarding the problem of Punjab
rests with the Chief Election Commissioner
D. Investigate about the assassination of Mrs.
C. Jnaneshwar BengaliThe Speaker continues
Indira Gandhi
in his post even after the state council is dis-
solved till a new speaker is elected by the suc- 58. Inthe estimation of expenditure charged on the
ceeding state council Consolidated Fund of India, theParliament has

224
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 A. No power to discuss. 62. Assertion (A): The Indian Constitution closely
follows the Britishparliamentary model. Rea-
B. Full power to discuss.
son (R): In India the Upper House of the Parlia-
C. Full power to discuss during financial emer- ment has judicialpowers.
gency. A. Both and R are true and R is the correct ex-
D. None of the above planationof
59. The most controversial provision in the 42nd B. Both and R are true but R is NOT a correct
Constitution Amendment is explanationof

A. Supremacy of Parliament C. is true but R is false

B. Enumeration of ten Fundamental Duties D. is false but R is true

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

63. The case of dispute in the presidential election
C. Term of Lok Sabha and Legislative Assem-
is referred to
blies

M
A. Chief Election Commissioner
D. Primacy to the Directive Principles over
the Fundamental Rights B. Supreme Court
60. The Speaker of the lower house of a State can
step down by submitting his resignation to the
A. Chief Minister
RA C. Parliament
D. None of these
64. Who is authorised to decide over a dispute re-
garding disqualification of a member of Parlia-
RI
B. Governor
ment?
C. Deputy Speaker of the House
A. Election Commissioner
H

D. President
B. Speaker of the Lok Sabha
61. Which of the following statements regarding
IS

C. President of India
the advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court
are correct? I. It is binding on the Supreme D. committee set up by the Parliament
Court to give its opinion on any matter referred 65. Thevalue of a vote of a member of the Parlia-
JA

to it by the President. II. The full bench of ment for the election of the Presidentof India is
the Supreme Court hears any reference made determined by dividing the
to it under its power of advisory jurisdiction.
III. The opinion given by the Supreme Court A. Nations population as per thelatest census
on a reference under advisory jurisdiction is by the number of Lok Sabha members.
not binding on the government. IV. Not more B. Population as per the latest censusby the to-
than one reference at a time can be made to tal strength of the two Houses of the Parliament.
the Supreme Court under its power of advisory
jurisdiction. Select the answer from the codes
given below: Codes: C. The total value of votes of themembers
of all the State Legislative Assemblies by the
A. I and II elected members of thetwo Houses of the Par-
B. I and III liament
D. Particular States population as per the lat-
C. II and III
est census by the number of membersof Parlia-
D. II and IV ment elected from that State
225
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 14. IAS

66. Parliamentor a State Legislature can declare a 71. All responsibilities regarding elections in India
seat vacant if a member abstains himselfwith- are entrusted to
out permission from the sessions for atleast
A. President
A. 30 days
B. Prime Minister
B. 60 days
C. Chief Justice
C. 90 days
D. Chief Election Commissioner
D. 120 days
72. Which of the following is not included in Fun-

ER
67. The Panchayati Raj was first introduced in the
damental Rights in the Constitution of India?
States of Rajasthan and

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

A. Right to property
A. Andhra Pradesh

D
B. Bihar B. Right to freedom of religion

G
C. Gujarat C. Right to vote in all elections

D. Orissa D. Right to freedom of speech and expression

N
68. Which of the following statements regarding 73. President of India is elected by
the Constituent Assembly are true? I. It was not
based on adult franchise. II. It resulted from di- A
A. Lok Sabha
H
rect elections. III. It was a multi-party body. IV. B. Rajya Sabha
It worked through several committees. Select
C. Elected representatives of Lok Sabha, Rajya
-C
the correct answer from the codes given below.
Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies
Codes:
D. People directly
N

A. I and II
B. II and III 74. Which one of the following is not in the State
YA

List under the Constitution of India?

C. I and IV
A. Fisheries
D. I, II, III and IV
B. Agriculture
RA

69. The President of Union of India has the same

constitutional authority as the C. Insurance
A. British Monarch D. Betting and Gambling
NA

B. President of U.S. . 75. Which of the following has not declared itself
C. President of Egypt as an Islamic Republic?

D. President of U.S.S.R. A. Pakistan

70. Mandal Commission report pertains to other B. Iran

A. Backward Classes C. Algeria
B. Minorities D. Saudi Arabia
C. Scheduled Castes 76. Which one of the following statements is cor-
D. Scheduled Tribes rect?

226
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 A. All the members of the Rajya Sabha are A. Bangladesh
elected by State Legislative Assemblies
B. Malaysia
B. As the VicePresident is the exofficio Chair-
C. Nepal
man of the Rajya Sabha, only a member of the
Rajya Sabha can contest for the office of the Vi- D. Singapore
cePresident
81. Centre-State financial relations are looked after
C. point of difference between the Lok by the
Sabha and the Rajya Sabha is that while a can-
A. Finance Commission
didate to the Lok Sabha can contest from any
State in India, a candidate to the Rajya Sabha B. Sarkaria Commission
should ordinarily be are resident of the State

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

C. Ministry of Finance
from where he is contesting
D. Planning Commission
D. The Constitution of India explicitly pro-
hibits the appointment of a nominated member 82. Considerthe following statements regarding a

M
of Rajya Sabha to the post of a minister No-confidence Motion in the Parliament. 1.
77. The Swaran Singh Committee considered the Q There is no mention of aNo-confidence Motion

RA
of in the Constitution of India. 2. period of six
months must elapsebetween the introduction of
A. more autonomy to Punjab on the model of one No-confidence Motion and the other. 3.
Jammu & Kashmir. At least 100 members must support aMotion
B. the suitability of the Presidential form of of No-confidence before it is introduced in the
RI
government for India. House. 4. motion of No-confidence can bein-
troduced in the Lok Sabha only. Of these state-
C. the precedence of the Directive Principles
ments
H

over Fundamental Rights.

A. 2 and 4 are correct
D. administrative reforms
IS

78. Nomoney bill can be introduced in the legisla- B. 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
tive assembly without therecommendations of C. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
the
JA

D. 1 and 4 are correct.

A. Speaker
83. Thefirst Leader of the opposition to get recog-
B. Governor nition in the Indian Parliament was
C. Chief Minister
A. Y. . Chavan
D. Finance Minister
B. Ram Subhag Singh
79. China has which type of Parliamentary Sys-
tem? C. . K. Gopalan
A. One party D. . M. Stephen
B. Two-party 84. andamus means
C. Multi-party A. writ issued by a superior court command
that a specified thing be done.
D. None of these
80. Whichof the following is the most industri- B. legal term for a prisoners right to appear in
alised country? person and be tried in court.

227
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 14. IAS

C. written public declaration of the intentions, C. the President, with the consent of the Fed-
opinions or motives of a sovereign or of a eral Council
leader, party or body.
D. the Federal Council
D. The principle of hybridisation, discovered
by Gregor Mendel which led to the improved 89. Which of the following electoral systems have
breeds of plant and animal life. been adopted for various elections in India? I.
System of direct elections on the basis of adult
85. Panchayati Raj is mainly aimed at suffrage. II. System of proportional represen-
A. Rural employment tation by means of the single transferable vote.

ER
III. List system of proportional representation.
B. Agricultural and rural industries develop- IV. Cumulative system of indirect elections. Se-
ment lect the correct answer from the codes given be-

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

C. Political awareness among village people low. Codes:

D
D. Giving training to villagers for fighting A. I and II

G
elections B. I and III
86. What is the maximum period during which Par-

N
C. I, II and III
liament may not meet?
D. II, III and Lv
A. Six months
B. One year A
90. Matchthe following: ( ) person with maximum
H
number of votes gets elected (i) List system (
C. Two years ) person votes for the party not for the candi-
-C

D. Three years date (ii) Limited vote plan ( ) 1 candidate = 1

vote (iii) Single transferable vote ( ) 1 elector =
87. The basic structure theory of the Constitution many votes (iv) Relative majority
N

of India implies that

A. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
A. certain features of the Constitution are so
YA

essential to it that they cannot be abrogated B. (iv) (i) (ii) (v)

B. fundamental rights cannot be abridged or C. (v) (iv) (ii) (i)
taken away
RA

D. (ii) (v) (i) (iii)

C. the Constitution cannot be amended except
91. Which one of the following statements regard-
in accordance with the procedure prescribed in
ing the veto power in the Security Council is
Art, 368
NA

correct according to the United Nations Char-

D. the Preamble of the Constitution cannot be ter?
amended for it is not a part of the Constitution
and at the same time represents its real spirit A. The decisions of the Security Council on all
nonprocedural matters must be made by an af-
88. According to the newly adopted Constitution of firmative vote of nine members, including the
Russia, the Prime Minister is appointed by concurring, votes of the permanent members of
A. the State Duma, the Lower Chamber of the the Council
Federal Assembly B. Every permanent member of the Security
B. the President, with the consent of the Council can prevent any decision from being
State Duma accepted, by vetoing it

228
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 C. The term veto was used in Article 27 of the A. Fundamental Rights
United Nations Charter to enable any perma-
B. Directive Principles
nent member of the Security Council to prevent
any resolution from being passed by the major- C. list of 1 8 languages recognised by the
ity Constitution
D. Any member of the Security Council can D. Number of States and Union Territories
prevent any resolution from being passed by 97. Which of the following is contained in the Con-
voting against it current List?
92. To elect the President of India which one of the
A. Forests
following election procedures is used?
B. Education

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

A. System of proportional representation by
means of a single transferable vote C. Police
B. Proportional representation through list sys- D. Agriculture
tem

M
98. Direct taxation was introduced by the
C. Collective voting system committee

RA
D. Secondary voting system A. Wanchoo
93. How many members can be nominated to the B. Chetty
Lok Sabha by the President?
C. Kaldor
A. 2
RI
D. Raja Chelliah
B. 4
99. The Uniting for Peace Resolution adopted by
C. 5 the U.N. has
H

D. 12 A. enhanced the powers of the General Assem-

IS

94. The Prevention of Food Adulteration Act came bly in a comprehensive way
into force in B. reduced the powers of the General Assem-
A. 1954 bly
JA

B. 1955 C. made no difference to the powers of the

General Assembly
C. 1964
D. empowered the General Assembly to act
D. 1976 in specific situations in matters of peace and se-
95. The only instance when the President of India curity
exercised his power of veto related to
100. The42nd Amendment to the Indian Constitu-
A. the Hindu Code Bill tion is notable because it gives
B. the PEPSU Appropriation Bill A. Primacy to Fundamental Rights over Direc-
tive Principles
C. the Indian Post Office (Amendments) Bill
B. Primacy to Directive Principles over Fun-
D. the Dowry Prohibition Bill damental Rights

96. The Eighth Schedule of Indian Constitution C. Special treatment to Jammu & Kashmir
contains D. Special treatment to Sikkim

229
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 14. IAS

101. Assertion (A): Minimum wages in India are A. The District Magistrate
fixed in accordance with the levels of living and
B. Constitutional mandate
the labour participation ratios. Reason (R): All
workers covered by the Minimum Wages Acts C. The State Government
are above the poverty line. Of these statements D. The Election Commission
A. Both and R are true and R is the correct ex- 106. Which of the Following is a cognizable of-
planation of fence?
B. Both and R are true but R is not the correct A. First offence committed by any person

ER
explanation of
B. Offence committed by a minor
C. is correct while R is wrong
C. Offence other than murder

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

D. is wrong while R is correct

D
D. Offence which can be dealt with by the
102. The latest regional economic block to be
court
formed is

G
107. Democracy exists in India. Government is run
A. ASEAN by the elected representatives of the people. For

N
B. COMECON proper functioning of this system
C. APEC A. One should cast vote in elections
D. NAFTA A
B. One must be prompt in paying taxes
H
103. Assertion (A): Equality before the law is no- C. One must be good to himself and to the so-
tapplicable to the President of India. Reason ciety
-C
(R): The President of India enjoys specialpow-
D. None of these
ers and privileges under the Constitution.
108. If President wants to resign, he should address
N

A. Both and R are true and R is thecorrect ex- his resignation letter to the
planation of .
YA

A. Parliament
B. Both and R are true but R is nota correct ex-
planation of . B. Prime Minister
C. is true but R is false. C. Chief Justice of India
RA

D. is false but R is true. D. Vice-President

104. Match the following: ( ) Chief Election Com- 109. Which of the following is not a Fundamental
missioner 1. Elected by members of Rajya Right?
NA

Sabha ( ) Speaker of Lok Sabha 2. Appointed A. Right to equality

by the President ( ) Deputy Chairman of Rajya
Sabha 3. Elected by members of Lok Sabha B. Right to property
A. 1, 2, 3 C. Right against exploitation
B. 2, 3, 1 D. Right to freedom of speech and expression
C. 3, 2, 1 110. The word secular denotes

D. None of these A. Keeping away from all religions

105. Holdingof elections for the Panchayats is de- B. Freedom of religion and worship to all
cided by citizens

230
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 C. Belief in God 115. Panchayati Raj administration is primarily
aimed
D. Practising different religions
A. To increase agricultural production
111. EconomicJustice, as one of the objectives of
the Indian Constitution, has beenprovided in B. To ensure rural development
the C. To work for the upliftment of Harijans
A. Preamble and Fundamental Rights D. To arouse in the people of each area in-
B. Preamble and Directive Principles tensive and continuous interest in the commu-
nity development programme
C. Fundamental Rights and Directive Princi-
116. If there is any disagreement between the Sen-
ples
ate and the House of Representatives in USA, it

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

D. Preamble, Fundamental Rights and Direc- is resolved by
tive Principles
A. The President
112. Who decides whether a Bill is a Money Bill or
B. The Vice-President

M
not?
C. The Speaker
A. Speaker of the Lok Sabha

RA
D. Conference committee consisting of 3 to
B. President 9 members from each House
C. Prime Minister 117. The Constitution of India borrowed the
D. Vice-President scheme of Indian Federation from the Consti-
tution of
RI
113. Which one of the following statements regard-
ing the office of the Speaker is correct? A. USA
B. Canada
H

A. He holds office during the pleasure of the

President C. Ireland
IS

B. He need not be a member of the House at the D. UK

time of his election but has to become a member 118. Which one of the following can be prorogued
of the House within six months from the date of but cannot be dissolved?
JA

his election
A. Rajya Sabha
C. He loses his office if the House is dissolved
B. State Council
before the end of its normal tenure
C. Municipal Corporation
D. If he intends to resign, the letter of his
resignation is to be addressed to the Deputy D. Governing Council in a Union Territory
Speaker 119. candidate to become a member of Lok Sabha
114. Directive Principles of State Policy are in- should not be less than
cluded in which part of the Indian Constitu- A. 21 years
tion?
B. 25 years
A. Part IV C. 30 years
B. Part III D. 35 years
C. Part II 120. Which of the following is not included in the
D. Part I list of Fundamental Duties in the Constitution?

231
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 14. IAS

A. To safeguard public property and to abjure A. Chinese and Japanese

violence
B. Chinese and Arabic
B. To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity
C. Japanese and Arabic
and integrity of India
D. Chinese and Hindi
C. Secularism
126. Death penalty for drug smuggling is given in
D. To abide by the Constitution and respect its
ideals A. Thailand
121. The two highest gallantry awards in India are B. Singapore

ER
A. Param Vir Chakra and Maha Vir Chakra C. Malaysia

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

B. Param Vir Chakra and Vir Chakra D. Bangladesh

D
C. Ashok Chakra and Maha Vir Chakra 127. Yuan is the currency of
D. Param Vir Chakra and Ashok Chakra

G
A. China
122. India has Parliamentary democracy system be-
B. Japan
cause

N
A. Members of the Lok Sabha are elected by C. Indonesia
the public
A
D. Burma
B. Council of Ministers is responsible to the 128. Most-Favoured-Nations (MFN) clause under
H
Legislature GATT implies
-C
C. Of distribution of power between the Centre A. most favour to some countries
and the States
B. most favour to all countries
D. Of a single constitutional framework
N

C. no favour to any country

123. Which of the following is incorrect?
D. no favour to some countries
YA

A. 1951-56 First Five-Year Plan

129. Assertion (A): In India, the political parties
B. 1956-61 Second Five-Year Plan which formed the governments represented the
C. 1961-66 Third Five-Year Plan majority of seats secured in the elections to the
RA

House of the People at the Centre and the Leg-

D. 1966-71 Fourth Five-Year Plan
islative Assemblies in the States but not the ma-
124. Which one of the following comes under the jority of votes. Reason (R): The elections based
jurisdiction of both the High Courts and the
NA

on the majority vote system decide the result on

Supreme Court? the basis of relative majority of votes secured.
A. Disputes between the Centre and the In the context of the above statements, which
States one of the following is correct?
B. Disputes between the States interse A. Both and R are true, and R is the correct ex-
planation of
C. Protection of the Fundamental Rights
D. Protection against the violation of the Con- B. Both and R are true, but R is not a correct
stitution explanation of
125. Which of the following Asian languages are C. is true, but R is false
UN official languages? D. is false, but R is true

232
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
130. Constitution does not recognise the caste sys- A. Norway
tem because
B. Sweden
A. India is secular
C. Finland
B. It leads to inequality which is against the
Constitution D. Denmark

C. It leads to untouchability 136. Representation of any State in Rajya Sabha, is

according to
D. All of the above
A. Population of the State
131. The Panchayati Raj was first introduced in the
States of Rajasthan and B. Area of the State

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

A. Andhra Pradesh C. Fixed number of candidates for each State
B. Bihar D. Number of representation in Lok Sabha
from that State
C. Gujarat

M
137. Parliament can legislate matters in the State
D. Haryana
List

RA
132. Panchayati Raj system was adopted to
A. By wish of the President
A. Make people aware of politics
B. If Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by
B. Decentralise the power of democracy 2/3rd majority
RI
C. Educate the peasants C. Under any circumstances
D. To introduce a form of local self- D. By asking the legislature of the State con-
government at the village, block and district
H

cerned
levels
138. Which of the following languages are in-
IS

133. In India political parties are given recognition cluded in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian
by Constitution?
A. President
A. Sindhi and English
JA

B. Law Commission
B. English and Kashmiri
C. Speaker of Lok Sabha
C. Kashmiri and Konkani
D. Election Commission
D. Sindhi and Kashmiri
134. What is the power of Rajya Sabha regarding
Money Bill? 139. The year of Great Divide, in Indian demogra-
phy, is
A. It can amend it
A. 1905
B. It can reject it
B. 1921
C. It can withhold the bill for 14 days to
make recommendations C. 1947
D. It has no power regarding Money Bill D. 1965
135. The Institute of Ombudsman was first estab- 140. Which one of the following statements regard-
lished in ing Exit Poll is correct?

233
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 14. IAS

A. Exit Poll is a term used to denote a post- C. Centres control of the State in the adminis-
election survey of voters regarding the candi- trative sector
date in whose favour they had exercised their D. Centres control of the State in the plan-
franchise ning process
B. Exit Poll and Opinion Poll are one and the 145. If suitable Scheduled Caste/Tribe candidates
same are not available, the posts
C. Exit Poll is a device through which results A. May for the time being be filled by other
of voting can be most exactly predicted candidates

ER
D. Exit Poll is an administrative device made B. Are left vacant
recently by the Chief Election Commissioner to
C. Are filled by Other Backward Classes can-

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

prevent impersonation
didates

D
141. Which one of the following is in the Concur-
D. None of the above
rent List in the Constitution of India?

G
146. The word secular denotes
A. Population control and family planning
A. Keeping away from all religions

N
B. Public health and sanitation
B. Belief in one God
C. Capitation taxes
D. Treasure trove
A
C. Freedom of religion and worship to all
citizens
H
142. The Vice-President of India is elected by D. Practising different religions
A. The people directly 147. Which are the two States next to U.P. having
-C

maximum representation in Lok Sabha?

B. The members of Lok Sabha and Rajya
Sabha A. Bihar and Maharashtra
N

C. The members of Rajya Sabha only B. Bihar and Madhya Pradesh

YA

D. The members of Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha C. Madhya Pradesh and Tamil Nadu
and State Legislatures D. Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra
143. candidate to become a member of Lok Sabha 148. First non-Congress government to come in
RA

should not be less than power in any Indian State is

A. 21 years A. DMK in Tamil Nadu
B. 25 years B. Communist Party of India in Kerala
NA

C. 30 years C. CPI (M) in West Bengal

D. 35 years D. None of the above
144. In which respect have the CentreState rela- 149. Next to Hindi, the language spoken by the
tions been specifically termed as municipal re- largest number of people in the Indian sub-
lations? continent is
A. Centres control of the State in the legislative A. Urdu
sphere B. Telugu
B. Centres control of the State in financial mat- C. Bengali
ters
D. Tamil
234
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
150. Freedom of the Press in India 154. Governor of which State has been entrusted
A. is specifically provided in Article 19 (1) with the special powers for the administration
of tribal areas?
B. of the Constitution
A. Bihar
C. is implied in the wider freedom of expres-
sion guaranteed by Article 19(1) B. Madhya Pradesh

D. of the Constitution C. Assam

E. is guaranteed under the provisions of Article D. Arunachal Pradesh

361 of the Constitution 155. TheInterest Rate Policy is a component of
F. emanates from the operation of the Rule of A. Fiscal Policy

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

Law In the country B. Monetary Policy
151. Which of the following is/are among the func-
C. Trade Policy
tions of the Election Commission of India? I.

M
Conduct of election for the posts of the Speaker D. Direct Control
and the Deputy Speaker, Lok Sabha and the 156. The Directive Principles of State Policy
Deputy Chairman, Rajya Sabha. II. Conduct of have been given precedence over Fundamen-
election to the Corporations and Municipalities.
III. Deciding on all doubts and disputes arising
out of the elections. Select the correct answer
from the codes given below. Codes:
RA
tal Rights in the
Amendment
A. 41st
Constitutional
RI
A. I and II B. 42nd

B. I and III C. 43rd

H

C. II and III D. 45th

157. What does secularism mean?
D. None of these
IS

152. Panchayati Raj as introduced in 1959 operates A. State patronising all religions
at B. State having its own religion
JA

A. Samiti and block levels C. State having no official religion and citi-
B. Block and district levels zens are free to follow any religion or faith
C. Samiti and district levels D. State having one official religion and show-
ing respect to all other religions
D. Village, block and district levels
158. Whichone of the following countries has tri-
153. Which of the following is correct about the cameral legislature with one House forethnic
Chief Election Commissioner? He holds the of- group?
fice till he attains the age of
A. South Africa
A. 62 years
B. Sri Lanka
B. 65 years
C. Fiji
C. 62 years or completes 3 years of service,
whichever is earlier D. Malaysia
D. 65 years of age or completes 5 years of ser- 159. Directive Principles of State Policy are con-
vice, whichever is earlier tained in

235
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 14. IAS

A. Part I of the Constitution A. While one-third of the members of the Ra-

jya Sabha retire every second year, one-fourth
B. Part II of the Constitution
of the members of the Legislative Council re-
C. Part III of the Constitution tire every eighteen months
D. Part IV of the Constitution B. There is no provision for a joint sitting
of the Legislative Assembly and the Legislative
160. When a money bill is passed by the Parlia-
Council in the States for resolving deadlocks
ment, the President has the power to
while there is such a provision in the case of
A. Amend it the two Houses of Parliament

ER
B. Reject it C. While no Bill other than a Money Bill can
originate in the State Legislative Council, no

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

C. Kept it with him Bill can originate in the Rajya Sabha

D
D. Return it for reconsideration D. While Rajya Sabha has twelve nominated
members, the State Legislative Council has

G
161. The National Anthem was written by
none
A. Rabindranath Tagore

N
165. The Constitution 44th Amendment (renum-
B. Bankim Chandra Chatterji bered as 43rd Amendment)
C. Mohammed Iqbal
A
A. Ensures the right to property
H
D. None of the above B. Ensures the press freedom
162. Considerthe following pairs: Constitutional C. Limits the powers of the Government to
-C
Subject Amendment 1. 52nd Anti-Defection proclaim internal emergency
Law 2. 56th Statehood for Goa 3. 59th Emer-
D. Restores to the High Courts and to the
gency in Punjab 4. 62nd Reservation for Sched-
N

Supreme Court their jurisdiction to consider the

uled Castes and Tribes in services
validity of any Central or State law.
YA

A. 1, 2 and 3 are correctly matched. 166. The original structure of the Indian Constitu-
B. 3 and 4 are correctly matched tion cannot be changed. In which of the fol-
lowing cases, Supreme Court of India gave this
C. 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correctlymatched.
RA

verdict?
D. 2, 3 and 4 are correctly matched. A. The Golak Nath case
163. The dispute regarding the election of President B. The Minerva Mills case
NA

of India is to be referred to
C. The Kesavananda Bharati case
A. Chief Election Commissioner
D. None of the above
B. Supreme Court
167. Ina political party of 36 members, the min-
C. Parliament imum number of members needed to splitfor
disqualifying the original political party as per
D. Attorney-General
Anti-Defection Law shouldbe
164. Which one of the following correctly reflects
A. 12
the position of the Upper House of the State leg-
islature as compared to the position of the Up- B. 18
per House of the Parliament? C. 24
236
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
168. The appointment of the Judges of Supreme 173. Holding of election for the Panchayats is de-
Court is done by cided by
A. The Prime Minister on the advice of the A. The District Magistrate
Union Cabinet B. Constitutional mandate
B. The President in consultation with the C. The State government
Chief Justice of India
D. The Election Commission
C. The Prime Minister in consultation with the
174. Cognizableoffence refers to an offence where
Chief Justice
A. Arrests can be made without warrant.
D. The President in consultation with the Law
Commission of India B. Arrests can be made with warrant.

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

169. Judges of a High Court are appointed by the C. It is under the jurisdiction of a court.
President with the consent of the D. Police can register a case without formal

M
A. Governor complaint.
B. Governor, the Chief justice of India and 175. Whichamong the following is not a part of
electoral reforms?

RA
the Chief Justice of the High Court concerned
C. Governor and the preceding Chief A. Registration of political parties

D. Justice of the High court B. Disqualifying the offenders

170. Council of Ministers of the Union of India is C. Installation of electronic voting machines
RI
responsible to
D. Appointment of the Election Commissioner
A. Rajya Sabha
H

B. Prime Minister 176. Which language has been added recently to

IS

C. President the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of In-

dia?
D. Lok Sabha
A. Urdu
JA

171. India is a federal state because of

B. Sanskrit
A. Dual Citizenship prevalent here
C. Sindhi
B. Dual judiciary
D. Assamese
C. Share of power between the Centre and
the States 177. Which one of the following is used by the In-
ternational Court of Justice in disputes concern-
D. Written Constitution ing riparian rights?
172. Rajya Sabha can delay the Money Bill passed A. Geneva Agreement
by the Lok Sabha for a period not exceeding
B. Helsinki Agreement
A. 9 days
C. Paris Agreement
B. 14 days
D. Reykjavik Agreement
C. 15 days 178. Which of the following States has Urdu as its
D. 30 days official language?

237
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 14. IAS

A. Bihar of a Union Territory. Choose the correct answer

from the codes given below. Codes:
B. Jammu & Kashmir
C. Madhya Pradesh A. I only

D. Rajasthan B. I and II only

179. Whichof the following committees was ap- C. I and III only
pointed for investigating into the Delhiriots in
D. II and III only
November 1984?
184. Parliamentary bill passed by the Lok Sabha is

ER
A. Sarkaria Commission
sent to the President for assent. The President
B. Ranganath Mishra Commission sends it back to Lok Sabha for reconsideration.

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

C. Thakkar-Natarajan Commission If the Lok Sabha again sends it back to the Pres-

D
ident without making any changes, the Presi-
D. Santhanam Commission dent

G
180. The Chief Minister of a State In India is NOT
A. Must give his assent to it
eligible to vote in the Presidential election if

N
A. he himself is a candidate B. Can again send the bill for reconsideration

B. he is yet to prove his majority on the floor

of the Lower House of the State legislature A
C. Can take help of the Supreme Court
D. Can arrange referendum
H
C. he is a member of the Upper House of the
185. Being a non-member who among the follow-
State legislature
-C
ing can participate in the proceedings of either
D. he is a caretaker Chief Minister House of Parliament without having the voting
181. Which famous judgement restricted the au- right?
N

thority of the Parliament to amend the Consti- A. Vice-President

tution so as to damage or destroy its basic or
YA

essential features or its basic structure? B. Chief Justice of India

A. Golaknath case C. Comptroller & Auditor-General

RA

B. Balananda Saraswati case D. Attorney General

C. Minerva Mills Ltd. and others case 186. The Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha can be
D. Keshvanand Bharti case removed by a resolution
NA

182. Finance Commission is appointed after every A. Passed by a two-thirds majority of its total
members at that time
A. 2 years
B. Passed by a simple majority of its total
B. 5 years
members at that time
C. 7 years
C. Moved by Rajya Sabha but passed by Lok
D. 10 years Sabha
183. Who among the following are appointed by
D. None of the above
the President of India? I. The Chairman, Fi-
nance Commission . II. The Deputy Chairman, 187. The right to Freedom of Speech in India may
Planning Commission III. The Chief Minister be restricted, if the freedom is used to

238
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 A. Incite people to violence 192. Which of the following States in India has no
Legislative Council?
B. Propagate nationalisation of the private sec-
tor A. Tamil Nadu
C. Level charges of corruption against those in B. Bihar
power
C. West Bengal
D. Spread superstition
D. Maharashtra
188. The members of Constituent Assembly were
193. Liberty, Equality and Fraternity, this inspira-
A. Elected by the provincial assemblies tion was derived from
B. Elected directly by the people A. American Revolution

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

C. Nominated by the government B. French Revolution
D. Only representatives of princely states C. Russian Revolution

M
189. Which of the following territories is not abso- D. None of the above
lutely independent?
194. Which of the following taxes is/are levied by

RA
A. Hong Kong the Union and collected and appropriated by the
States?
B. Singapore
A. Stamp Duties
C. Switzerland
B. Passenger and Goods Tax
RI
D. Mozambique
190. Which one of the following is part of Pream- C. Estate Duty
ble of the Constitution of India? D. Taxes on Newspapers
H

A. We, the people of India, having 195. What is land ceiling?

IS

solemnly resolved to constitute India into a

A. To fix a land area for irrigation purposes
Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Re-
public do hereby Adopt, Enact and B. To fix rural land holdings at the existing
level
JA

Give to ourselves this Constitution

B. We, the members of the Parliament, do C. To fix urban land holdings at the existing
hereby Adopt, Enact and Give to ourselves this level
Constitution D. To fix the quantum of land held by a fam-
C. We, the people of Constituent Assembly, do ily
hereby Adopt, Enact and Give to ourselves this 196. Sarkaria Commission has been set up to study
Constitution
A. Centre-State relations
D. None of the above
B. Inter-State relations
191. Dietis the name of the Parliament in
C. Financial aid to States
A. U.K.
D. Splitting of LIC
B. U.S. .
197. Which one of the following statements regard-
C. India ing the election of the President of India-is cor-
D. Japan rect?

239
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 14. IAS

A. candidate securing the majority of votes G. 2 4 1 3

is not automatically elected
H. 2341
B. The Supreme Court has no jurisdiction in 199. The Anti-Defection Law was enacted as early
any doubt or dispute arising in connection with as 1979 in
the election of the President
A. Kerala
C. The Presidential election cannot take place
when one or more State Assemblies stand dis- B. Jammu and Kashmir
solved because all the State Assemblies form C. West Bengal

ER
part of the electoral college
D. Tamil Nadu
D. The total value of the votes allotted to both
Houses of Parliament is much more than the to- 200. Seasonalmigration of men and animals from

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

tal value of the votes of all the States taken to- lower to higher altitudes during the summeris

D
gether known as

G
198. Which of the following States are not covered A. Nomadism
by the Panchayati Raj? B. Migration

N
A. Tripura and Sikkim C. Transhumance
B. Manipur and Assam
C. Meghalaya and Nagaland A
D. Pastoralism
201. After retirement, a High Court Judge
H
D. Assam and West Bengal Match the A. Can plead in the same High Court
columns: ( ) English 1. Israel ( ) Amharic
-C

2. Namibia ( ) Swahili 3. Ethiopia ( ) Hebrew B. Cannot plead in the same High Court
4. Kenya C. Can plead in the Supreme Court
N

E. 3 4 1 2 D. Can plead in any of the High Courts

F. 4 1 2 3
YA
RA
NA

240
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
Chapter 15
Miscellenous

1. What activities does the President perform in D. 27th Nov. 1949

respect of both the Houses of the Parliament 3. The concept of quasi-federal form of govern-
A. Time to time to summon each of Parliament ment (a federal system with a strong central
government) was taken from the constitution of
B. Prorogue either of the House of the Parlia- A. Soviet Union
ment B. USA
C. Dissolve the Lok Sabha C. Britain
D. All the above D. Canada
2. When was the Constitution of India adopted by 4. Direct taxation was introduced by the
the Constituent Assembly committee
A. 25th Nov. 1949 A. Wanchoo
B. 29th Nov. 1949 B. Chetty
C. 26th Nov. 1949 C. Kaldor

241
Chapter 15. Miscellenous

D. Raja Chelliah 10. Which constitutional article defines the effect

5. Under which Article of the Constitution is the of failure to comply with or to give effect to di-
President’s rule promulgated on any state in In- rection given by the Union
dia? A. Article 356
A. 326 B. Article 367
B. 370 C. Article 368
C. 380 D. Article 365

ER
D. 356 11. There is a Parliamentary System of Govern-
6. Within which period the President has to sum- ment in India because the

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

mon session of the Parliament A. Lok Sabha is elected directly by the people

D
A. Six Months B. Parliament can amend the Constitution

G
B. Five Months C. Rajya Sabha cannot be dissolved
C. Four Months D. Council of Ministers is responsible to the

N
D. Three Months Lok Sabha
7. The President of India takes oath
A. to uphold the sovereignty and integrity of A
12. For how many years, months and days, did the
Constituent Assembly work on the Constitution
H
of India
India.
A. 2 Years, 11 months and 19 Days
-C
B. to bear true faith and allegiance to the Con-
stitution of India. B. 3 Years, 12 months and 16 Days
N

C. to uphold the Constitution and Laws of the C. 4 Years, 18 months and 6 Days
country.
D. None of the above
YA

D. to preserve, protect and defend the Con-

13. Article 14- 18 of the Constitution deal with
stitution and the law of the country.
8. The Employment Guarantee Scheme, a rural A. Right to equality
RA

work programme, was first started in B. Right to Assembly

A. West Bengal C. Right to Property
B. Punjab D. Right to Expression
NA

C. Kerala 14. Which Article empowers the president to ap-

D. Maharashtra point two Anglo Indians to Lok Sabha?

9. Who said in his judgement that no part of our A. under article 330
Constitution is unamendable B. under article 331
A. Allahabad High Court C. under article 332
B. Calcutta High Court D. under article 333
C. Madras High Court 15. The President’s Rule in a state means that the
D. Supreme Court of India state is ruled by

242
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 A. A caretaker government A. Article 95
B. The Chief Minister nominated by the Presi- B. Article 93
dent
C. Article 91
C. The Governor of the State
D. Article 96
D. The President directly
16. Which of the following are envisaged by the 21. Which one of the following statements is not
Right against exploitation in the Constitution of correct? [CDSE 2004]
india?
A. The election commissioners cannot be re-
A. prohibition of traffic in human beings and moved from their office except on recommen-
forced Labour

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

dation by the chief election commissioner.
B. Abolition of untouchability B. In case of difference of opinions amongst
C. protection of the interests of the minorities the chief election commissioner and the other

M
election commissioners, the matter is decided
D. prohibition of free movement by the Law Commission.
17. Normally, what kind of session does the Parlia-

RA
ment hold C. The chief election commissioner and the
other election commissioners enjoy equal pow-
A. Budget session ers.
B. Monsoon session D. The term of office of an election commis-
RI
C. Winter session sioner is 6 years from the date he assumes of-
fice or till the day he attains the age of 65 years,
D. All the above
whichever is earlier.
H

18. Who appoints each member of either of the

Houses of the Parliament after notification is re- 22. The concept of residual powers retained by the
IS

ceived from the Election Commission central government was taken from the consti-
tution of
A. President
A. Britain
JA

B. Speaker of Lok Sabha

C. Chairman of Rajya Sabha B. Australia
D. Prime Minister C. South Africa
19. Which one of the following provisions of the D. Canada
Constitution came into force soon after its
adoption on 26.11.1949? 23. Who appoints the Governor of aState?
A. Provisional Parliament A. the Prime Minister
B. Provisions relating to Citizenship B. the President
C. Provisions relating to Elections
C. the Parliament
D. All the above
D. the Chief Justice of India
20. Which article of the Indian Constitution men-
tioned the posts of Speaker and Deputy Speaker 24. Which one of the following can be provided un-
of the House of People der RTI Act, 2005? [CDSE 2010]

243
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 15. Miscellenous

A. Information leading to incitement of an of- 29. What members of the Parliament cannot repre-
fence. sent
B. Information leading to disclosure that may A. Members of Lok Sabha
constitute contempt of Court.
B. Members of Rajya Sabha
C. Conditional disclosure relating to infor-
mation on intellectual property. C. Members of Legislative Assembly

D. Information leading to cabinet papers D. Members of both Houses of Parliament

recording deliberations of council of ministers. 30. Which Constitutional article defines exercise of

ER
Legislative power after proclamation is issued
25. Which one of the following is in the Concurrent under article 356

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

List in the Constitution of India? A. Article 358

D
A. Population control and family planning B. Article 357

G
B. Public health and sanitation
C. Article 360
C. Capitation taxes
D. Article 358

N
D. Treasure trove
31. Under Constitutional Article 243, what is the
26. The three words - liberty, equality and
fraternity- mentioned in our Preamble have A
meaning of Panchayat
A. Self Gram Panchayat Raj
H
been taken from
A. Russian revolution B. Government of Village
-C

B. American Civil War C. Self Government

C. French Revolution D. None of the above
N

D. None of the above 32. The concept of federal structure of government

YA

was taken from the constitution of

27. Under Constitutional Article 243D, in Pan-
chayat who gets reservation A. USA
A. Scheduled Caste B. Canada
RA

B. Scheduled Tribes C. Soviet Union

C. A&B D. Japan
D. None of the above
NA

33. Which article describes the persons voluntarily

28. Which Supreme Court Judgement pronounced acquiring citizenship of a foreign State not to
that Fundamental Rights cannot be abridged be an Indian Citizen?
A. Golak Nath vs. State of Punjab A.I.R. A. Article 5
1967 S.C. 1643
B. Article 9
B. Kesavanand Bharti vs. State of Kerala
C. Article 10
A.I.R. 1973 S.C. 1961
C. Indira Gandhi vs. Rajnarain A.I.R. 1975 D. Article 8
S.C. 2299 34. The theory of Fundamental Rights implies:
D. None of the above [NDA 1992]

244
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 A. Sovereignty of people D. Council of Scientific and Industrial research
B. equality of opportunity for all
40. In the National Flag, what does green colour
C. limited government represent
D. Equality of all before law A. Animals
35. The concept of ’Directive principles of state B. Soil
policy’ was taken from the constitution of
C. Human Nature
A. Canada
D. Spiritual Philosophy
B. Ireland
41. The authority competent to suspend the oper-
C. Britain ation of Fundamental Rights guaranteed under

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

D. France the Constitution of India is
36. Liberty, Equality and Fraternity, this inspiration A. Supreme Court
was derived from

M
B. Prime Minister
A. American Revolution C. Parliament
B. French Revolution
C. Russian Revolution
D. None of the above
RA D. President
42. The High Courts at Calcutta, Madras and Bom-
bay, were established under the Indian High
Courts Act of
37. Who was the Deputy Speaker of the First Lok
RI
A. 1909
Sabha
B. 1911
A. M. A. Ayyangar
H

C. 1861
B. Sardar Hukam Singh
D. 1865
IS

C. M. Thambidurai
43. The quorum requirement in the Rajya Sabha
D. None of the above
A. 25
JA

38. In the Constitution of India, promotion of inter-

national peace and security is included in the B. 50

A. Preamble to the Constitution C. 100

D. 126
B. Directive Principles of State Policy
44. Under which Constitutional Article, Union
C. Fundamental Duties Government has the power to give direction to
D. Ninth Schedule the State Govt. regarding any of the provisions
39. The quarantine regulation for preventing entry of the Constitution
of diseased plants in to the country is done by A. Article 368
which one of the following? [CDSE 2008] B. Article 362
A. National Botanical Research Institute C. Article 365
B. Botanical Survey of India D. Article 367
C. National Bureau of Plant genetic Re- 45. Which among the following is not a part of the
sources electoral reforms?

245
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 15. Miscellenous

A. Installation of electronic voting machines 51. The right to Freedom of Speech in India may
be restricted, if the freedom is used to
B. Appointment of election Commissioner A. Incite people to violence
C. Registration of Political parties B. Propagate nationalisation of the private sec-
tor
D. Disqualifying the offenders
46. Panchayati Raj System was introduced in the C. Level charges of corruption against those in
year power
D. Spread superstition

ER
A. 1948
52. Which of the following Acts had introduced
B. 1959
communal electorate system in India

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

C. 1951

D
A. Indian council Act 1909
D. 1952
B. Government of India Act 1919

G
47. Which Constitutional Article defines the SC
C. Indian Council Act 1861
A. Article 345

N
D. Indian Council Act 1862
B. Article 346
53. Which song was sang in the Constituent As-
C. Article 341
D. Article 342 A
sembly before its Adjournment sine die
H
A. Jana Gana Man
48. Which of the following transferred power from B. Vande Matram
-C
the English East India Company to the British
Crown? C. A&B

A. The Better Government Act of 1858 D. None of the above

N

54. Judicial Review function of the Supreme Court

B. Government of India Act 1919
means the power to
YA

C. Indian Council Act 1861

A. Review the functioning of judiciary in the
D. Government of India Act 1935 country
RA

49. Which House shall not be a subject for dissolu- B. Undertake periodic review of the Constitu-
tion tion.
A. Lok Sabha C. Examine the constitutional validity of the
laws
NA

B. House of People
C. Council of State D. Review its own judgement

D. State Legislature 55. Right to vote and to be elected in India is a

50. In India, when does the financial year com- A. Fundamental Right
mence B. Constitutional Right
A. First April C. Natural Right
B. Second April D. legal Right
C. First March 56. The most irritating factor in the Gentre-State re-
D. Fifteenth March lationship is the

246
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 A. River water dispute 62. Consider the following statements: [CDSE
2009]
B. Interference of the Centre in the functions
allotted to them by the Constitution I. A person who was born in 26 January,
C. Allocation of finances 1951 in Rangoon, whose father was a cit-
izen of India by birth at the time of his
D. None of the above
birth is deemed to be the citizen of India
57. Who was be Deputy Prime Minister of India at by Descent.
the time of Provisional Parliament
II. A person who was born on 1st July, 1988
A. Jawahar Lal Nehru in Itanagar, whose mother is citizen of In-
B. Sardar Ballabh Bahi Patel dia at the time of his birth but the father
was not, is deemed to be a citizen of India

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

C. Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad by birth.
D. Gulzarilal Nanda
Which of the statements given above is/are cor-
58. The beginning word WE in the Preamble refers

M
rect?
to the
A. I only
A. Citizens of India
B. People of India
C. All adult people in India
D. All people above 25 years
RA B. II only
C. Both I and II
D. Neither I nor II
RI
63. The Constitution 44th Amendment (renum-
59. In the Constituent Assembly which words were bered as 43rd Amendment)
associated with the Parliament
A. Ensures the right to property
H

A. Parliament of the Legislature

B. Ensures the press freedom
IS

B. Parliament of the Union

C. Limits the powers of the Government to
C. Parliament of the Federation proclaim internal emergency
D. All the above
JA

D. Restores to the High Courts and to the

60. The total number of High Courts in India at Supreme Court their jurisdiction to consider the
present is validity of any Central or State law.
A. 15 64. For what period does the Vice President of In-
dia hold office?
B. 21
A. 5 years
C. 16
B. Till the age of 65 years
D. 18
61. Who decides allotment of symbols to Political C. 6 years
Parties D. 2 years
A. Political Party leader 65. Directive Principles of State Policy are con-
tained in
B. Political Party Governing Committees
A. Part I of the Constitution
C. Election Committee of Political Party
B. Part II of the Constitution
D. Election Commission
247
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 15. Miscellenous

C. Part III of the Constitution 70. In the National Flag, whom does the wheel rep-
resent
D. Part IV of the Constitution
A. Prithivi Raj Chauhan
66. Under the Indian Constitution, what does
‘Adult Suffrage’ signify B. Raja Man Singh

A. Children C. Ashoka
D. None of the above
B. Persons
71. The Right to Constitutional Remedies are
C. Any Indian citizen who is of the age of 18

ER
A. Fundamental Duties
years and above
B. Directive Principles of State Policy
D. None of the above

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

C. Legal Rights
67. The year of Great Divide, in Indian demogra-

D
phy, is D. Fundamental Rights
72. Which of the following are associated

G
A. 1905 with?Planning? in India? 1. The Finance Com-
B. 1921 mission 2. The National Development Council

N
3.The Union Ministry of Rural Development
C. 1947 4.The Union Ministry of Urban Development
D. 1965
A
5. The Parliament Select the correct answer
using the code given below.
H
68. Which one of the following statements regard-
ing Exit Poll is correct? A. 1, 2 and 5 only
-C

A. Exit Poll is a term used to denote a post- B. 1, 3 and 4 only

election survey of voters regarding the candi- C. 2 and 5 only
N

date in whose favour they had exercised their D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

franchise
73. Under what article of the Constitution of India
YA

B. Exit Poll and Opinion Poll are one and the can the President take over the administration
same of a state in case its constitutional machinery
breaks down?
C. Exit Poll is a device through which results
RA

of voting can be most exactly predicted A. Article 352

D. Exit Poll is an administrative device made B. Article 343
recently by the Chief Election Commissioner to C. Article 356
NA

prevent impersonation
D. Article 83
69. Recognition to a political party is accorded by: 74. Which of the following writs is a bulwark of
[CDSE 1992] personal freedom?
A. the speaker of the Lok Sabha in the case na- A. Certiorari
tional parties and the speaker of the legislative B. Habeas Corpus
assemblies in the case of regional parties.
C. Mandamus
B. the Election Commission.
D. Quo Warranto
C. the ministry of Parliamentary affairs. 75. Which one of the following statements is cor-
D. a committee of whips. rect?

248
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 A. All the members of the Rajya Sabha are 80. Consider the following statements on parlia-
elected by State Legislative Assemblies mentary committees: [CDSE 2008]
B. As the VicePresident is the exofficio Chair- 1. Members of Rajya Sabha are not associ-
man of the Rajya Sabha, only a member of the ated with the committees on Public ac-
Rajya Sabha can contest for the office of the Vi- counts and Public Undertakings.
cePresident
2. Members of the committee on Estimates
C. point of difference between the Lok are drawn from both the Rajya Sabha and
Sabha and the Rajya Sabha is that while a can- the Lok Sabha.
didate to the Lok Sabha can contest from any
State in India, a candidate to the Rajya Sabha Which of the statements given above is/are cor-
should ordinarily be are resident of the State rect?

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

from where he is contesting
A. 1 Only
D. The Constitution of India explicitly pro-
B. 2 Only
hibits the appointment of a nominated member

M
of Rajya Sabha to the post of a minister C. Both 1 and 2
76. Who was the first woman judge of the Supreme D. Neither 1 nor 2

RA
Court of India?
81. The Constitution of India was adopted by the
A. Fatima Beevi
A. Parliament of India
B. Sujitha Manohar
B. Constituent Assembly
C. Ruma Paul
RI
C. Governor General
D. None of the above
D. British Parliament
77. Who among the following has the power to
H

form a new state within the Union of India? 82. Which one of the following statements is not
correct?
IS

A. Speaker of Lok Sabha

A. Indian Parliament is supreme.
B. President
B. The Supreme Court of India has the
C. Prime Minister
JA

power of judicial review.

D. Supreme Court
C. There is a division of powers between the
78. The Vice President of India is the ex-officio Centre and the States.
Chairman of
D. There is a Council of Ministers to aid and
A. Rajya Sabha advise the President.
B. Lok Sabha 83. In which Case did Supreme Court hold that
C. UPSC Preamble was not a part of the Constitution?
D. UG A. Golaknath case
79. Sarkaria Commission has been set up to study B. Maneka Ghandhi case
A. Centre-State relations C. Keshavananda Bharti Case
B. Inter-State relations D. Berubari Case
C. Financial aid to States 84. Nomination of members to Rajya Sabha was
D. Splitting of LIC taken from the constitution of which country

249
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 15. Miscellenous

A. South Africa 90. Is the Prime Minister bound to advise the Presi-
dent on matters on which his advice is sought?
B. Britain
C. France A. If the Council of Ministers so desires.

D. Ireland B. Yes

85. Which of the following is not included in Right C. No

to Freedom? D. It is discretionary
A. Equality before law 91. The Poona Pact (1932) upheld

ER
B. Freedom of speech and expression
A. joint electorate
C. acquire, hold or dispose property

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

B. separate electorate

D
D. Right to freedom of religion
C. joint electorate with reserved seats for the
86. Who decides whether a bill is a Money Bill or scheduled castes

G
Not?
D. joint electorate with reserved seats for the

N
A. President caste Hindus
B. Chairmen of Rajya Sabha 92. Which part of the Constitution refers to the
C. Speaker of Lok sabha
A
responsibility of the state towers international
peace and security?
H
D. Minister of Parliamentary affairs
87. Which constitutional article defines the provi- A. fundamental rights
-C

sion in respect of financial emergency B. directive principles of state policy

A. Article 348 C. emergency provisions
N

B. Article 351 D. preamble of the constitution

YA

C. Article 360 93. Who determines the salaries and allowances of

D. Article 362 the ministers in state?
88. On whose recommendation, Election Com- A. President
RA

missioner or Regional Election Commissioner

B. Lok Sabha
shall be removed from the office
C. State Legislature
A. Chief Judicial Magistrate
NA

B. President D. Rajya Sabha

C. Election Commission 94. Civil Service Day is celebrated in India on

D. None of the above A. 21st April

89. What is the actual strength of Rajya Sabha? B. 24th April
A. 250 C. 21st June
B. 235 D. 7th July
C. 240 95. For the enforcement of Fundamental Rights,
D. 245 the Supreme Court may issue a/an

250
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 A. Notification A. He must not be a member of either House
of Parliament.
B. Writ
B. He should be a domicile of the state to
C. Decree
which he is being appointed.
D. Ordinance
C. He should be a citizen of India.
96. How many Committees were set up by the
D. He must have completed the age of 35 years
Constituent Assembly for framing the Consti-
tution?
101. Who was the President of India when emer-
A. 13
gency was declared in 1975?
B. 15

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

A. V V Giri
C. 12
B. B D Jatti
D. 8
C. Dr. Rajendra Prasad

M
97. In the Constituent Assembly, which committee
D. Fakhruddin Ali Ahmmed
recommended that Indian Constitution adopt
Parliamentary Form of Executive
A. Drafting Committee
B. Constitutional Committee
RA
102. What is the power of Rajya Sabha regarding
Money Bill?
A. It can amend it
B. It can reject it
RI
C. Union Constitution Committee
C. It can withhold the bill for 14 days to
D. All the above
make recommendations
H

98. Article 30 of the Indian Constitution deals with

D. It has no power regarding Money Bill
the
IS

103. According to the Constitution of India, a new

A. freedom of conscience
All India Services can be instituted with the in-
B. right to propagate religion tiative taken by
JA

C. rights of minorities to establish and man- A. more than two third of the states
age educational institutions
B. the interstate council
D. cultural and educational right of the major-
C. the Rajya Sabha
ity community
D. President
99. Two words added into Preamble by the 42nd
Amendment are 104. Article 16 deals with
A. Socialist, Democratic A. Equality before law
B. Sovereign, Socialist B. Equality of Opportunity
C. Sovereign, Secular C. Equality of Participation
D. Socialist, Secular D. Equality of Expression
100. Which of the following is not an essential 105. Vice-President may be removed from his of-
qualification for appointment as a Governor fice by

251
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 15. Miscellenous

A. a resolution of the Council of States (Ra- A. Shivaraj Patil

jya Sabha) passed by a majority of all the then B. G. Laxman
members of the Council and agreed to by the
House of the People (Lok Sabha) C. S.V. Krishnamurthy Rao

B. Supreme Court D. M. A. Ayyangar

110. The maximum duration for which the Vice
C. President
President may officiate as the President, is
D. Union cabinet A. 1 year

ER
106. How many members represented Union terri- B. 6 months
tories in Lok Sabha
C. 4 months

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

A. 20
D. 9 months

D
B. 21 111. Freedom of Expression deals with

G
C. 22 A. Art. 17
D. 23 B. Art. 32

N
107. Which option is not correct? C. Art.19
A. Most of the educational institutions of Na-
A
D. Art. 18
tional repute in scientific and technical sphere 112. Article I of the Constitution says that India, ie,
H
fall Under 64th entry of Union list. Bharath shall be a————–
-C
B. Education, in general, is the subject of con- A. union of states
current list since 42nd Constitutional Amend- B. Federation
ment Act 1976.
N

C. Confederation
C. Central Advisory Board on Education
D. Union of federal units
YA

(CABE) was first established in 1920.

113. Which writ is issued by a High Court or the
D. India had implemented the right to Free Supreme Court to compel an authority to per-
and Compulsory Primary Education in 2002 form a function that it was not performing?
RA

through 86th Constitutional Amendment.

A. Writ of Certiorari
108. On which Administrative Tribunal have no
right to adjudicate disputes B. Writ of Habeas Corpus
NA

C. Writ of Mandamus
A. Members of the Defence Forces
D. Writ of Quo Warranto
B. Officers and Servants of the Supreme Court
or of any High Court 114. Minority rights are given in
A. Article 25 -28
C. Members of the Secretariat Staff of Parlia-
ment or of any legislature of any State or Union B. Article 29 and 30
Territory C. Article 31
D. All of the above D. Article 32
109. Who was the Deputy Speaker of the Con- 115. Which of the following has not declared itself
stituent Assembly (Legislative) as an Islamic Republic?

252
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 A. Pakistan 121. In a Parliamentary System of Government
B. Iran A. The parliament is responsible to the execu-
C. Algeria tive

D. Saudi Arabia B. The parliament is responsible to the judi-

ciary
116. Who can initiate impeachment proceedings
against the President of India? C. The executive is responsible to the parlia-
ment
A. Either House of Parliament
B. Any Vidhan Sabha D. The judiciary is responsible to the parlia-
ment
C. Only Lok Sabha

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

122. Who shall not give vote in the first instance in
D. Rajya Sabha either of the Houses of Parliament
117. Who administers the Oath of Office to the A. Speaker
President?

M
B. Chairman
A. Chief Justice of India
C. A&B
B. Speaker of Lok Sabha
C. Prime Minister
D. Vice president
RA D. None of the above
123. If a Minister loses a no- confidence motion,
then
118. India is a Sovereign Socialist Secular Demo-
RI
cratic Republic. In the Indian Constitution, this A. Lok Sabha is dissolved
expression occurs in B. Only Prime Minister and that Minister re-
H

A. Preamble signs.
IS

B. Union & its Territory C. The whole Council of Ministers resigns

C. Fundamental Rights D. The Minister resigns
D. Directive Principles of State Policy 124. The basic structure theory of the Constitution
JA

119. In the Union List, how many subjects are in- of India implies that
corporated A. certain features of the Constitution are so
A. 95 essential to it that they cannot be abrogated
B. 92 B. fundamental rights cannot be abridged or
taken away
C. 97
D. 99 C. the Constitution cannot be amended except
in accordance with the procedure prescribed in
120. In which State a separate district has been re- Art, 368
served for Scheduled Tribes
D. the Preamble of the Constitution cannot be
A. Assam
amended for it is not a part of the Constitution
B. Andhra Pradesh and at the same time represents its real spirit
C. Karnataka 125. The concept of welfare state is included in the
D. Kerala Constitution of India in

253
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 15. Miscellenous

A. Preamble A. the President of India

B. Fundamental Rights B. the Parliament
C. Fourth Schedule C. the Chief Justice of India
D. Directive Principles of State Policy D. the Law Commission
126. Under the Govt. of India Act 1935, the Indian 131. Which Constitutional Article defines the Pro-
Federation worked through which kind of list vision in case of failure of Constitutional Au-
thority in the state
A. Federal List

ER
B. Provincial List A. Article 356
B. Article 357

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

C. Concurrent List
C. Article 353

D
D. All the above
127. Which one of the following statements is not D. Article 351

G
correct about the University Grants Commis- 132. Which of the following statements regarding
sion (UGC)? judiciary in India are correct?

N
A. It was established in 1956 by an Act of Par-
1. Supreme Court of India is free from the
liament.
B. It is tasked with promoting and coordinating A control and influence of legislature and
executive
H
higher education. 2. Subordinate courts are at the head of the
-C
C. It receives Plan and Non-Plan funds from judicial hierarchy of the state.
the Central Government. 3. The Chief Justice and other judges of the
D. It receives funds from State Governments High Court are appointed by the Gover-
N

in respect of State Universities. nor in consultation with the Chief Justice

of India
YA

128. Under which Chief Election Commissioner,

Election Commission was made a body of mul- 4. High Court can withdraw a case from a
timember Election Commission subordinate court and can deal with the
case itself if it is satisfied that the case in-
RA

A. T. N. Seshan volves a substantial point of constitutional

B. H. K. Sen law
C. S. P. Sen Verma Choose the correct answer from the codes given
NA

D. M. S. Gill below:
129. Who declares financial emergency? A. 1 & 2
A. President B. 1 & 3
B. Parliament C. 1&4
C. Finance Minister D. 2, 3 & 4
D. Finance Commission 133. Article 78 of the Constitution deals with
130. The power to increase the number of judges in A. President’s power to get information from
the Supreme Court of India is vested in the Council of Ministers.

254
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 B. Prime Minister’s duty regarding keeping the A. Soviet Union
President informed about the government’s de-
B. Canada
cisions and policies.
C. USA
C. Emergency powers of the President
D. Australia
D. President’s power to send advisory mes-
sages to the Parliament. 139. The members of Constituent Assembly were
134. Under which Constitutional Article, President A. Elected by the provincial assemblies
has the right for Special Address to the Parlia- B. Elected directly by the people
ment
C. Nominated by the government
A. 87

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

D. Only representatives of princely states
B. 88
140. Sarkaria Commission was set up to
C. 89
A. Investigate about the riots that took place in

M
D. 90 Delhi in 1984
135. When a Bill is passed by the Parliament and B. Maintain Centre-State relationship
the President, what is the status of the name
A. Law
B. Bill approved
RA C. Make necessary investigations and sugges-
tions regarding the problem of Punjab
D. Investigate about the assassination of Mrs.
RI
C. Bill exercised for administration Indira Gandhi

D. Government procedure 141. Which of the following is not included in the

list of Fundamental Duties in the Constitution?
H

136. Through which Constitutional Amendment,

Municipalities continued to be in force in the A. To safeguard public property and to abjure
IS

state which existed before commencement of violence

the Indian constitution B. To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity
and integrity of India
JA

A. Seventy-fourth Amendment Act 1992

B. Forty-fourth Amendment Act 1978 C. Secularism

C. Forty-fifth Amendment Act 1989 D. To abide by the Constitution and respect its
ideals
D. Forty-seventh Amendment Act 1984
142. Which one of the following Jurisdictions of
137. Which Act provided India to become an Inde- the Indian Judiciary covers Public Interest Liti-
pendent state gation? [CDSE 2009]
A. Indian Independence Act 1949 A. Original Jurisdiction.
B. Indian Independence Act 1946 B. Appellate Jurisdiction.
C. Indian Independence Act 1947 C. Epistolary Jurisdiction.
D. None of the above D. Advisory Jurisdiction.
138. India borrowed the idea of incorporating Fun- 143. Who was the Prime Minister at the time of
damental Rights in the Constitution from Second Lok Sabha

255
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 15. Miscellenous

A. Lal Bahadur Shastri A. Powers, authorities and responsibilities of

Panchayaths
B. Pt. Jawahar Lal Nehru
B. List of Recognized languages
C. Narsimha Rao
C. Allocation of Seats in Council of States
D. I. K. Gujral
D. Provisions regarding disqualification on
144. The original structure of the Indian Constitu- grounds of defection
tion cannot be changed. In which of the fol-
lowing cases, Supreme Court of India gave this 149. Which Constitutional Article defines disquali-

ER
verdict? fication for the members of Panchayat

A. The Golak Nath case A. Article 243F

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

B. Article 243G
B. The Minerva Mills case

D
C. Article 243I
C. The Kesavananda Bharati case

G
D. None of the above
D. None of the above
150. The President of Union of India has the same

N
145. Under which Constitutional Article enlarge- constitutional authority as the
ment of the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court
is mentioned
A
A. British Monarch
B. President of U.S. .
H
A. Article 145
B. Article 148 C. President of Egypt
-C

C. Article 138 D. President of U.S.S.R.

151. Considerthe following statements regarding
D. Article 143
N

booth capturing in an election:

146. A bill in the imperial Legislative Council for
YA

compulsory and free primary education was in- 1. It has been defined in theConstitution of
troduced by India after the 61st Amendment.

A. Mohammad Shafi 2. It includes the seizure of andtaking pos-

RA

session of a polling booth to prevent the

B. Feroz Shah Mehta orderly conduct ofelections.
C. G.K. Gokhale 3. It is also committed when anyelector is
threatened and prevented from going to
NA

D. Shankaran Nair the polling station to casthis vote.

147. The lowest court of revenue is that of a 4. It has been declared a cognisableoffence
A. Naib Tehsildar punishable by imprisonment.

B. Sub-judge Of these statements

C. Third class magistrate A. 2, 3 and 4 are correct
D. Munsif B. 1, 2 and 3 are correct

148. What is contained in the Tenth Schedule of the C. 2 and 3 are correct
Indian Constitution? D. 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct

256
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
152. How many times the President of India can A. Minority of members of the Upper House
seek re-election to his post? of Parliament
A. Once B. Majority of the members of the Upper
House of Parliament
B. 3 times
C. Minority of members of the Lower House
C. 2 times
D. Majority of the members of the Lower
D. Any number of times House of Parliament
153. Right to education relates to 158. India has been described under Article 1 of the
Constitution as a
A. Article 19
A. Group of States

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

B. Article 20
B. Federation of States
C. Article 21
C. Cluster of States
D. Article 21A

M
D. Union of States
154. During the absence of the Chairman, who runs
159. Which of the following is correct about the
the Rajya Sabha?

RA
Chief Election Commissioner? He holds the of-
A. Deputy Chairman fice till he attains the age of
B. Prime Minister A. 62 years
C. Home Minister B. 65 years
RI
D. Parliamentary Affairs Minister C. 62 years or completes 3 years of service,
whichever is earlier
155. The42nd Amendment to the Indian Constitu-
H

tion is notable because it gives D. 65 years of age or completes 5 years of ser-

vice, whichever is earlier
IS

A. Primacy to Fundamental Rights over Direc-

160. The design of the National Flag was adopted
tive Principles
by the Constituent Assembly of India in
B. Primacy to Directive Principles over Fun-
JA

A. July, 1947
damental Rights
B. August, 1947
C. Special treatment to Jammu & Kashmir
C. July, 1948
D. Special treatment to Sikkim
D. July, 1950
156. In the Provisional Parliament of India, how
161. The Constitution of India contains ———-
many members were there
Appendices
A. 296
A. 12
B. 313 B. 7
C. 318 C. 8
D. 316 D. 5
157. The council of Ministers in a Parliamentary 162. According to the Constitution of India, which
type of Government can remain in office till it of the following are fundamental for the gover-
enjoys the support of the nance of the country?

257
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 15. Miscellenous

A. Fundamental Rights A. Urdu

B. Fundamental Duties B. Sanskrit
C. Directive Principles of State Policy C. Sindhi
D. Fundamental Rights and Fundamental Du- D. Assamese
ties
167. The Eighth Schedule of Indian Constitution
163. Governor of which State has been entrusted contains
with the special powers for the administration
A. Fundamental Rights

ER
of tribal areas?
A. Bihar B. Directive Principles

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B. Madhya Pradesh C. list of 1 8 languages recognised by the

D
Constitution
C. Assam
D. Number of States and Union Territories

G
D. Arunachal Pradesh
168. Which is our National anthem

N
164. Which one of the following is part of Pream-
ble of the Constitution of India? A. Jana Gana Mana

A. We, the people of India, having

solemnly resolved to constitute India into a A
B. Vande Matram
H
C. A & B
Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Re-
public do hereby Adopt, Enact and D. None of the above
-C

Give to ourselves this Constitution 169. A constitution is

B. We, the members of the Parliament, do A. A set of ordinary laws
N

hereby Adopt, Enact and Give to ourselves this

Constitution B. A set of financial laws.
YA

C. We, the people of Constituent Assembly, do C. A set of official laws

hereby Adopt, Enact and Give to ourselves this
D. The basic structure defining the powers
Constitution
RA

of the state and the rights and duties of the citi-

D. None of the above zens.
165. Which Constitutional Article defines Inter- 170. Nomoney bill can be introduced in the legisla-
pretation’ of Constitutional right of Supreme tive assembly without therecommendations of
NA

Court the
A. Article 163 A. Speaker
B. Article 162 B. Governor
C. Article 147 C. Chief Minister
D. Article 161 D. Finance Minister
166. Which language has been added recently to 171. When was the draft Constitution of India pre-
the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of In- pared by the Drafting Committee submitted to
dia? the President of the Constituent Assembly

258
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 A. 28th Feb. 1948 C. Equality of Participation
B. 26th Feb. 1948 D. Equality of Expression
C. 21st Feb. 1948 176. At the time of V. P. Singh, how many times
President’s Rule was imposed
D. 25th Feb. 1948
172. Under which Constitutional Article, the Elec- A. 2
tion Commission is a Tribunal B. 6
A. Article 136 C. 7
B. Article 136(3) D. 8
C. Article 136 (2) 177. Who /Which of the following is the custodian

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

D. Article 136(1) of the Constitution of India?

173. With reference to the Union Government, con- A. The President of India

M
sider the following statements: 1. The Depart- B. The Prime Minister of India
ment of Revenue is responsible for the prepa-
ration of Union Budget that is presented to the C. The Lok Sabha Secretariat
Parliament. 2. No amount can be withdrawn
from the Consolidated Fund of India without
the authorization from the Parliament of India.
3. All the disbursements made from Public Ac-
RAD. The Supreme court of India
178. How many judges of the Supreme Court were
in the Bench to describe the basic structure of
the Constitution for the first time in the land-
RI
count also need the authorization from the Par-
mark Judgement Kesavananda vs. State of Ker-
liament of India. Which of the statements given
ala
above is / are correct?
H

A. Article 13
A. 1 and 2 only
B. Article 12
IS

B. 2 and 3 only
C. Article 14
C. 2 only
D. Article 15
D. 1, 2 and 3
JA

179. Dietis the name of the Parliament in

174. The Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha can be
removed by a resolution A. U.K.
A. Passed by a two-thirds majority of its total B. U.S. .
members at that time
C. India
B. Passed by a simple majority of its total
D. Japan
members at that time
180. Which Constitutional Amendment fixes 40
C. Moved by Rajya Sabha but passed by Lok
years for reservation of seats for SC and ST in
Sabha
Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assembly.
D. None of the above
A. 55th Amendment Act 1986
175. Article 17deals with
B. 56th Amendment Act 1987
A. Abolition of Titiles
C. 52nd Amendment Act 1985
B. Abolition Untouchability
D. 45th Amendment Act 1980
259
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 15. Miscellenous

181. Through which Constitutional Amendment, 186. Which Constitution is in the written form for
30 years were fixed for reservation of seats for the first time by an elected body during the
SC and ST in Lok Sabha and State Assembly Modern period
A. 45th Amendment Act 1980 A. India
B. 50th Amendment Act 1984 B. America
C. 23rd Amendment Act 1969 C. Britain
D. 51st Amendment Act 1984 D. France
182. Indicate the number of Regional Offices of 187. Which Constitutional Article elaborated

ER
National Council of Teacher Education. power of Parliament to make provision with
respect to election to legislatures

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A. 04
A. Article 329

D
B. 05
B. Article 327
C. 06

G
C. Article 328
D. 08
D. Article 330

N
183. Who can be Vice President can be removed
188. After retirement, a High Court Judge
by a resolution of the Rajya Sabha passed by an
effective majority (more than 50% of effective
membership(total membership - Vacant seats)) A
A. Can plead in the same High Court
B. Cannot plead in the same High Court
H
and agreed to by a simple majority (50% of
present and voting members) of the Lok Sabha C. Can plead in the Supreme Court
-C

A. President D. Can plead in any of the High Courts

189. Who among the following is directly responsi-
B. Chief Justice of Supreme Court ble to Parliament for all matters concerning the
N

C. Vice President Defence Services of India?

YA

D. Prime Minister A. President

184. The original copies of the Constitution of In- B. Prime Minister
dia are kept in special helium-filled cases in
C. Defence Minister
RA

A. the personal custody of President of India D. Cabinet Committee on Political Affairs

B. the Library of Supreme Court of India 190. Thevalue of a vote of a member of the Parlia-
C. the Library of the Parliament of India ment for the election of the Presidentof India is
NA

determined by dividing the

D. None of the above
A. Nations population as per thelatest census
185. Before which Constitutional Amendment, 20
by the number of Lok Sabha members.
years were fixed for reservation of seats for
Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in Lok B. Population as per the latest censusby the to-
Sabha and State Legislature tal strength of the two Houses of the Parliament.
A. 23rd Amendment Act 1969
C. The total value of votes of themembers
B. 8th Amendment Act 1959 of all the State Legislative Assemblies by the
C. 44th Amendment Act 1978 elected members of thetwo Houses of the Par-
liament
D. 45th Amendment Act 1980
260
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 D. Particular States population as per the lat- A. South Africa
est census by the number of membersof Parlia- B. Sri Lanka
ment elected from that State
C. Fiji
191. Who is the Protector and Guarantor of the
Fundamental Rights? D. Malaysia
A. Supreme Court 197. A citizen can directly move the Supreme
Court for any violation of Fundamental Rights
B. President under
C. Parliament A. Article 31
D. Prime Minister B. Article 226

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192. At a time, President’s rule can be imposed on
C. Article 34
a state for a maximum period of
D. Article 32
A. 1 year
198. Ad hoc Committees in Parliament are

M
B. 5 years
A. Committee on Draft Five Year Plan, etc.
C. 2 years
B. Committee in the conduct of certain mem-
D. 4 years
193. The concept of ’procedure established by law’
was taken from the constitution of
RA bers during the President Address
C. Select or Joint Committee on Bills
D. All the above
A. Soviet Union
RI
199. The latest regional economic block to be
B. Britain formed is
C. Germany
H

A. ASEAN
D. France B. COMECON
IS

194. The joint session of the two Houses of Parlia- C. APEC

ment is chaired by
D. NAFTA
A. Vice-President of India
JA

200. The details of salaries, allowances, etc. of the

B. Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha President, Vice President, Speaker, Judges of
C. Prime Minister Supreme Court, etc. are provided in Schedule
A. II
D. Speaker of Lok Sabha
195. What is the maximum strength of Rajya B. III
Sabha? C. IV
A. 245 D. VII
B. 260 201. Holding of election for the Panchayats is de-
cided by
C. 250
A. The District Magistrate
D. 235
B. Constitutional mandate
196. Whichone of the following countries has tri-
cameral legislature with one House forethnic C. The State government
group? D. The Election Commission
261
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 15. Miscellenous

202. Which Constitutional Article lays down dis- 206. The Constituent Assembly which framed the
tribution of work through the Union List, State Constitution for Independent India was set up
List, and Concurrent List between the Union in
and State
A. 1947
A. 246
B. 1949
B. 247
C. 1945
C. 248
D. 1946
D. 249

ER
207. Indian Institute of Advanced Study is located
203. Currently how many members are elected at
from Union territories?

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

A. Dharmshala

D
A. 1
B. Shimla
B. 2

G
C. 4 C. Solan
D. Chandigarh

N
D. 3
204. Consider the following statements in respect 208. Equal opportunity in matters of public em-
of protection of Copy Rights in India: [CDSE
2009] A
ployment is guaranteed under
A. Article 16
H
1. Copy right is a legal right given to creators B. Article 15
-C
of literacy, dramatic, musical and artis-
tic works and produces of Cinematograph C. Article 17
films and sound recordings. D. Article 18
N

2. Copy right protects only the expressions 209. The impeachment proceedings against the
and not the ideas. There is no copy right
YA

Vice- President can be initiated

in an idea.
A. Only in Lok Sabha
Which of the statements given above is/are cor-
B. In neither Hosue of Parliament
RA

rect?
C. In either House of Parliament
A. 1 Only
B. 2 Only D. Only in Rajya Sabha
NA

C. Both 1 and 2 210. Through which offer, the British Government

authoritatively supported a Constituent Assem-
D. Neither 1 nor 2 bly for making the Indian Constitution
205. Which of the following organizations deals A. August offer
with?capacity building programe? on Educa-
tional Planning? B. Viceroy offer
A. NCERT C. Sir Strafford Cripps offer
B. UGC D. None of the above
C. NAAC 211. Right to property according to Constitution of
D. NUEPA India is a

262
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 A. Fundamental Rights A. 62 years
B. Directive Principle B. 60 years
C. Legal Right C. 65 years
D. Social Right D. 58 years
212. Who is the legal advisor of the Government of 218. According to Article 164 (1) of the Constitu-
a State? tion of India, in three states there shall be a min-
A. The Attorney General ister in charge of tribal affairs who may in addi-
tion be in charge of the welfare of the scheduled
B. Advocate General castes and backward classes. Which one of the
C. The Solicitor General following states is not covered by the Article?

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

[CDSE 2009]
D. The Comptroller-Auditor
213. MOOC stands for A. Jharkhand
B. Punjab

M
A. Media Online Open Course
B. Massachusetts Open Online Course C. Madhya Pradesh
C. Massive Open Online Course
D. Myrind Open Online Course
214. Who took interest in the Public Interest Liti-
gation cases?
RA D. Orissa
219. Under which Constitutional Amendment, pro-
vision for minimum age as 18 years for the In-
dian citizen was made to become eligible to
RI
vote
A. Bhagawati and Krishna Iyer
A. 60th Amendment Act 1988
B. Kania and Sastri
H

B. 61st Amendment Act 1989

C. Ray and Beg
C. 62nd Amendment Act 1989
IS

D. Shah and Sikri

D. None of the above
215. In the Constituent Assembly, it was said that
Parliament of the Federation shall consist of the 220. Match the following:
JA

President and what else Set - I Set - II

A. National Legislature a. Chief Election 1. Elected by
B. National Assembly Commissioner members of Rajya
Sabha
C. House of People b.Speaker of Lok 2. Appointed by
D. Council of State Sabha the President
216. Who said, Swaraj is my birth right? c.Deputy Chair- 3. Elected by
man of Rajya members of Lok
A. Bala Gangadar Tilak
Sabha Sabha
B. Bibin Chandra Pal
C. Gopala Krishna Gokhale A. a-1, b- 2, c- 3

D. Lala Lajpat Rai B. a-2, b- 3, c- 1

217. The age of retirement of the Judges of the C. a-3, b- 2, c- 1
High Court is D. None of these
263
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 15. Miscellenous

221. What is the Quorum laid down to constitute a 226. Which Constitutional Article was very much
meeting of either of the Houses of Parliament affected in the Supreme Court Judgement of
Kesavanand Bharti vs. State of Kerala
A. one-tenth of the total number of members
of that House A. Article 352
B. one-fourth of the total number of members B. Article 368
of that House
C. Article 351
C. one-fifth of the total number of members of
D. Article 342
that House

ER
227. The members of Gram Sabha are
D. one-half of the total number of members of
that House A. Sarpanch, Upsarpanch and all elected Pan-

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

222. Eurodollars are chas

D
A. a currency issued by European Monetary B. Sarpanch, Upsarpanch and Village level

G
Union worker

B. special currency issued by federal govern- C. Sarpanch, Gram Sevak and elected Panchas

N
ment of U.S. . to be used only in Europe
C. U.S. dollars circulating In Europe
A
D. Registered voters of Village Panchayat

D. European currencies exchanged for the U.S. 228. Under which Constitutional Amendment of
H
dollar in U.S Article 334, reservation of seats for Scheduled
Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha
-C
223. India is called a Republic because and State Legislative Assembly has been laid
A. Executive is answerable to legislature down
N

B. Judiciary is separate from legislature A. 31st Amendment Act 1959

C. The Head of the State is an elected head B. 23rd Amendment Act

YA

for a fixed period C. 45th Amendment Act 1980 & 62nd Amend-
D. None of the above ment Act 1989
RA

224. Which Constitutional Article states that Hindi D. All the above
is the official language
229. When Speaker and Chairman shall give their
A. Article 343 votes on the Parliament.
NA

B. Article 346 A. When Prime Minister asks them to give vote

on the Bill
C. Article 345
B. When the House passes such a resolution
D. Article 347
225. Quit India movement was in the year, C. In the case of a tie between Yes and No

A. 1945 D. All the above

B. 1942 230. Under which Article Salaries and allowances

of the Chairman and Deputy Chairman of Ra-
C. 1941 jya Sabha and Speaker and Deputy Speaker of
D. 1946. Lok Sabha are mentioned

264
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 A. 97 236. Which Schedule details the boundaries of the
B. 96 States and the Union Territories?

C. 95 A. 1st

D. 94 B. 2nd
231. Where does a money bill originate in Indian C. 3rd
Parliament? D. 4th
A. Lok Sabha 237. Match List I with List II and select the correct
B. Rajya Sabha answer using the codes given below: [CDSE
2009]
C. Both the House

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

Provision of the Source
D. none of the above
Constitution of In-
232. The idea of ’single citizenship’ was taken from dia
the constitution of

M
A) Amendment of 1 Constitution of
A. Canada the Constitution Germany
B. Britain B) Directive Princi- 2 Constitution of
C. USA
D. South Africa
233. Article 30 of the Indian Constitution deals
RA ples
C)
Power
Emergency

President
of the
Canada
3 Constitution of
South Africa
RI
with D) The Union 4 Irish Constitution
A. right to propagate religion State Relationship
H

B. Abolition of untouchability A. A - 1, B - 2, C - 4, D - 3
C. right of the minorities to establish and
IS

B. A - 3, B - 4, C - 1, D - 2
manage educational institutions
C. A -1, B - 4, C - 2, D - 3
D. freedom of conscience
D. A - 3, B - 1, C - 4, D - 2
JA

234. To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity

and integrity of India, a provision has been 238. The small causes court can hear cases involv-
made in the ing a maximum amount of
A. Directive Principles of State Policy A. Rs 5000
B. Preamble to the Constitution B. Rs 2000
C. Fundamental Duties C. Rs 1000
D. Fundamental Rights D. Rs 500
235. In the National Flag, what does saffron colour 239. The High Court has the power to issue writs
represent under
A. Spirit of Renunciation A. 224
B. Spirit of colours B. 226
C. Spirit of Human nature C. 225
D. None of the above D. 227
265
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 15. Miscellenous

240. India is known as Parliamentary Democracy 245. What is the term of a member of Rajya
because Sabha?
A. Executive is responsible to the Parliament A. 2 Years
B. 6 Years
B. Head of the States is elected for a fixed pe- C. 5 Years
riod
D. 4 Years
C. Independent judiciary
246. The budget is presented in the House of people
D. None of the above

ER
by
241. Next to Hindi, the language spoken by the A. the Prime Minister

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

largest number of people in the Indian sub-
continent is B. the President

D
A. Urdu C. the Finance Minister

G
B. Telugu D. the Defense Minister
247. The concept of freedom of trade and com-

N
C. Bengali
merce within the country and between the states
D. Tamil was taken from the constitution of
242. Which Constitutional Article lays down qual-
ifications for the Indian citizens for election to A
A. Soviet Union
H
B. Australia
Parliament
C. Canada
-C
A. Article 81
D. USA
B. Article 80
248. What power the President may exercise from
N

C. Article 83 time to time in respect of Parliament

D. Article 84
YA

A. Prorogue either of the House of Parliament

243. Who nominates 12 members in the Council of
B. Dissolve House of the People
State
C. A&B
RA

A. Chairman of Rajya Sabha

D. None of the above
B. Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha
249. Under the British rule, how many acts came
C. President of India into operation
NA

D. Prime Minister of India A. Govt. of India Act 1858, Indian Council

244. Democracy exists in India. Government is run Act 1861
by the elected representatives of the people. For B. Indian Council Act 1892, Indian Council
proper functioning of this system Act 1809
A. One should cast vote in elections C. Govt. of India Act 1919, Govt. of India Act
B. One must be prompt in paying taxes 1935, Indian Independence Act 1947
C. One must be good to himself and to the so- D. All the above
ciety 250. The Constitution of India contains ———
D. None of these Schedules

266
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 A. 12 255. Which of the following articles incorporated
with international peace and security?
B. 24
C. 18 A. Article 25

D. 10 B. Article

251. In the Govt. of India Act 1835, Federal List C. Article 44

contained which kind of subjects D. Article 51
A. External Affairs 256. Which law officer shall have the right to speak
B. Currency and Coinage in both the Houses of Parliament
A. Solicitor General

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

C. Naval, Military and Force, Census
D. All the above B. Advocate General
252. Who is empowered to admit a new State to the C. Attorney General

M
Union of India?
D. Legal Advisor
A. Parliament

RA
257. Which of the following Asian languages are
B. State Legislative UN official languages?
C. Supreme Court A. Chinese and Japanese
D. Governor of State
B. Chinese and Arabic
RI
253. Consider the statement which Is followed by
two arguments (i) and (ii). Statement: India C. Japanese and Arabic
should have a very strong and powerful Lok- D. Chinese and Hindi
H

pal. Arguments: (i) Yes, it will go a long in

eliminating corruption in bureaucracy. (ii) No; 258. Which of the following is the basis for the
IS

it will discourage honest officers from making President s impeachment?

quick decisions. Codes: A. lose of confidence in the lok Sabha
JA

A. Only argument (i) is strong. B. proven misbehavior

B. Only argument (ii) is strong. C. proven incapacity
C. Both the arguments are strong. D. violation of the constitution
D. Neither of the arguments is strong. 259. A common High Court for two or more states
254. Which one of the following Councils has been and Union Territory may be established by
disbanded in 2013?
A. Parliament by Law
A. Distance Education Council (DEC)
B. Chief Justice of India
B. National Council for Teacher Education
(NCTE) C. President

C. National Council of Educational Research D. Governer of the state

and Training (NCERT) 260. Joint sitting of the two Houses of Parliament
D. National Assessment and Accreditation was taken from the constitution of which coun-
Council (NAAC) try

267
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 15. Miscellenous

A. Irelabd A. 361
B. Australia B. 361A
C. Britain C. 361B

D. Canada D. 361C

261. India has the highest number of students in 266. The Anti-Defection Law was enacted as early
colleges after as 1979 in
A. Kerala
A. the U.K.

ER
B. Jammu and Kashmir
B. the U.S.A.

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

C. West Bengal
C. Australia

D
D. Tamil Nadu
D. Canada
267. Which of the following rights was considered

G
262. The First Class Magistrates are competent to the?Heart and Soul? of the Indian Constitution
award sentence of imprisonment upto by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar?

N
A. 4 years A. Freedom of Speech
B. 2 years
A
B. Right to Equality
H
C. 1 year C. Right to Freedom of Religion
D. 3 years D. Right to Constitutional Remedies
-C

263. Whose signatures are found on a hundred ru- 268. In which case Supreme Court declared that the
pee note? Preamble is the integral part of the Constitu-
N

tion?
A. President of India
A. Kesavananda Bhrati case
YA

B. Governor of Reserve Bank of India

B. Nenaka Gandhi case
C. Prime Minister
C. A K .Gopalan case
RA

D. Finance Minister
D. Kerala Education Bill case
264. Under which Article, House of the People can 269. Is the Prime Minister bound to advise the Pres-
have the Speaker and Deputy Speaker ident on matters on which his advice is sought?
NA

A. 95 A. If the Council of Ministers so desires.

B. 93 B. Yes
C. 98 C. No
D. 96 D. It is discretionary
265. Under which constitutional articles, newspa- 270. What is not true about a Money Bill?
pers do not have the right to publish report of
A. It can be introduced in any of the House.
the proceedings of a secret session of either of
the Houses of Parliament or Legislative Assem- B. The Speaker has the final power to decide
bly & Legislative Council its character.

268
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 C. The President or Governor, as the case may A. Article 362
be, has limited powers in case of a Money Bill.
B. Article 363
C. Article 368
D. It shall not be introduced or moved ex-
cept on the recommendation of the President or D. Article 361
Governor, as the case may be. 276. Which constitutional article provides personal
271. Election of members of Rajya sabha was taken immunity to the head of the states for his of-
from the constitution of which country ficial act from legal action, including proceed-
ings for contempt of Court?
A. Canada
A. Article 361
B. Ireland

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

B. Article 362
C. South Africa
C. Article 368
D. Britain

M
D. Article 369
272. TheConstitution of India provides for the
277. The Constitution of India provides
nomination of two members to the LokSabha
by the President to represent
A. Men of eminence in arts, letters, science,
etc.
RA
A. Single citizenship
B. Double citizenship
C. Both A & B
B. Parsis
RI
D. Neither A nor B
C. The business community 278. The order of following words seen in
Preamble is DEMOCRATIC SOCIALIST
H

D. The Anglo-Indian community

SOVEREIGN SECULAR REPUBLIC
273. Who administers the oath of office to the Pres-
IS

ident of India before he enters upon the office? A. 3, 2, 4, 1, 5

A. Chief Justice B. 2, 3, 4, 1, 5
JA

B. Speaker C. 3, 2, 1, 4, 5

C. Vice President D. 3, 1, 2, 5, 4
279. Which Constitutional Article defines the ST
D. Prime Minister
A. Article 345
274. Who was the chairman of the Rajya Sabha at
the time of fist Lok Sabha B. Article 343
A. N.C. Chatterjee C. Article 347
B. Dr. S. Radhakrishnan D. Article 342
C. A. K. Gopalan 280. Which of the following is correct regarding
the Indian Constitution?
D. Mahavir Tyagi
A. It is completely based on British Constitu-
275. Which constitutional article provides personal tion.
immunity for President and Governors for offi-
cial act B. It is original

269
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 15. Miscellenous

C. It is made only on the basis of Government 286. Which Constitutional Article defines law de-
of India Act, 1935 clared by Supreme Court to be binding on all
courts
D. It is a mixture of several Constitutions.
281. In the National Flag, which colour is used in A. Article 142
the wheel B. Article 141
A. Blue C. Article 143
B. Navy Blue D. Article 144

ER
C. Red Green 287. When Parliament is not in session, the Presi-
D. Green-White dent can promulgate an ordinance which is to

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

be ratified by the Parliament within
282. At which case, the Supreme Court specifically

D
opined that Preamble is not a part of the Con- A. 6 weeks from the reassembly of Parlia-
stitution ment

G
A. Berubari Union case (1960) B. 6 months from the reassembly of the Parlia-
ment

N
B. Kesavananda Bharati case (1973)
C. 6 weeks from the date of issue of ordinance.
C. Both A & B
D. None of the above
A
D. 3 months from the date of issue of the ordi-
H
283. Who was the Chairman of the Constituent As- nance.
sembly?
288. Who among the following was not a member
-C

A. Dr. Rajendra Prasad of the Constituent Assembly? [CDSE 2009]

B. C. Rajagopalachari A. Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel
N

C. Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru B. Acharya JB Kriplani

YA

D. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar C. Lok Nayak Jay Prakash Narayan

284. Panchayati Raj administration is primarily D. KM Munshi
aimed
289. Right to education incorporated in
RA

A. To increase agricultural production

A. Art. 17
B. To ensure rural development
B. Art. 32
C. To work for the upliftment of Harijans
NA

C. Art.19
D. To arouse in the people of each area in-
tensive and continuous interest in the commu- D. Art. 21A
nity development programme 290. Which Constitutional Article defines that only
285. In the Indian Constitution, which type of the the union has the power to protect states against
Sabha is mentioned under Panchayat Raj external aggression and internal disturbance
A. District Sabha A. Article 359
B. Gram Sabha B. Article 360
C. Nagar Panchayat Sabha C. Article 355
D. Zila Sabha D. Article 361
270
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
291. The Indian Constituent Assembly, after the C. A is true but R is false.
partition, had the following number
D. A is false but R is true.
A. 298 296. The Constituent Assembly for undivided India
B. 299 first met on
C. 300 A. 6th December, 1946
D. 301 B. 3rd June, 1947
292. Right to Freedom can be restricted in the in- C. 20th February, 1947
terest of
D. 9th December, 1946
A. Public order 297. Which was considered as the basis of Indian

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

B. Security of the State Independence Act of 1947?
C. Friendly relations with foreign States A. Mount batten Plan
B. Cripps proposal

M
D. All the above
293. The concept of power of the national legis- C. Simon commission report
lature to make laws for implementing treaties,

RA
D. Nehru report.
even on matters outside normal Federal juris-
diction was taken from the constitution of 298. According to the Constitution (52nd Amend-
ment) Act 1985 as amended in 2003, a leg-
A. Australia islator attracts disqualification under the 10th
RI
B. Canada Schedule if: [CDSE 2009]
C. Japan 1. he voluntarily gives up the membership of
the party on whose ticket he was elected.
H

D. USA
294. Which of the following is not a fundamental 2. he votes or abstains from voting contrary
IS

duty to any direction issued by his political

party.
A. To respect national Anthem
3. as a result of split, less than 1/3rd of the
JA

B. To protect monuments and places of na- members formed a new group or party in
tional importance the house.
C. To safeguard private property 4. a member who has been elected as an
D. To protect and improve the natural environ- independent member joins any political
ment party.
295. Assertion (A): Equality before the law is no- Select the correct answer according to the codes
tapplicable to the President of India. given below:
Reason (R): The President of India enjoys spe-
A. 2 and 3
cialpowers and privileges under the Constitu-
tion. B. 1, 2 and 4
A. Both A and R are true and R is thecorrect C. 1 and 3
explanation of . D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
B. Both A and R are true but R is nota correct 299. In the Parliament of India Upper House in
explanation of . known as

271
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 15. Miscellenous

A. Lok Sabha A. 58 years

B. Rajya Sabha B. 62 years
C. Council of States C. 60 years

D. None of the above D. 65 years

304. Which of the following States in India has no
300. Consider the following Statements: [NDA
Legislative Council?
2008]
A. Tamil Nadu

ER
1. A Bill pending in the legislature of three
B. Bihar
States shall not lapse by the reason of
the Prorogation of the House or Houses C. West Bengal

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

thereof. D. Maharashtra

D
2. A bill pending in the legislative council of 305. Which Constitutional Article lays down the
a state which has not been passed by the

G
reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and
legislative assembly shall not lapse on the Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha
dissolution of the assembly.

N
A. Article 330
Which of the statements given above is/are cor-
rect?
A
B. Article 332
C. Article 333
H
A. 1 Only
D. Article 334
B. 2 Only
-C
306. Which one of the following is INCORRECT
C. Both 1 and 2 in respect of Parliamentary Control over the
Budget?
N

D. Neither 1 nor 2
A. Parliament has no say In the preparation of
301. The process for removing Vice President from the budget
YA

his office may be initiated from

B. Parliament has the power to increase ex-
A. Rajya Sabha penditure charged on the Consolidated Fund
RA

B. Lok Sabha C. Parliament has no power to impose a tax

without the Presidents recommendation
C. Supreme Court
D. Parliament has no power to increase a tax
D. President without the Presidents recommendation
NA

302. The Preamble of Indian Constitution is based 307. Who among the following has the right to
on speak and otherwise take part in theproceedings
of either House of the Parliament and to be a
A. Philosophy of India
member of anyParliamentary Committee in In-
B. Objective Resolution dia but is not entitled to vote?
C. Indian Culture A. The Chief Election Commissioner
D. Religious Concept B. The Comptroller and Auditor-General
303. A Judge of the Supreme Court of India is to C. The Chairman of the Finance Commission
hold office until he attains the age of D. The Attorney-General

272
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
308. The only-Union Territory which has a High A. 1 only
Court of its own
B. 2 only
A. Daman and Diu
C. both 1 and 2
B. Delhi
D. neither 1 nor 2
C. Lakshadweep
313. Who stated, As to the execution that the Draft
D. Chandigarh Constitution has produced a good part of the
309. India has Parliamentary democracy system be- provisions of the Government of India Act
cause 1935, make no apologies. There is nothing to
be ashamed of in Borrowing.
A. Members of the Lok Sabha are elected by

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

the public A. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
B. Council of Ministers is responsible to the B. Jawhar Lal Nehru
Legislature
C. Gandhiji

M
C. Of distribution of power between the Centre
D. Dr. Ambedkar
and the States
314. Under which Constitutional Article repeal of
D. Of a single constitutional framework
310. Which article says that ’the Vice President
to be ex-officio Chairman of the Council of
States’
RA special provision as to disposal of questions re-
lating to constitutional validity of law is men-
tioned
A. Article 144A
RI
A. Article 63
B. Article 345
B. Article 64
C. Article 248
H

C. Article 61
D. Article 249
D. Article 62
IS

311. All responsibilities regarding elections in In- 315. The Prevention of Food Adulteration Act
dia are entrusted to came into force in
JA

A. President A. 1954
B. Prime Minister B. 1955
C. Chief Justice C. 1964
D. Chief Election Commissioner D. 1976
312. Consider the following statements: [CDSE 316. In what way our Indian Parliament is not
2008] Sovereign or Supreme with respect to the Con-
stitution
1. The Ministries/departments of the Union
Government are created by Prime Minis- A. In the Preamble, Constitution of India de-
ter. fines people of India as Sovereign
2. The cabinet secretary is the ex - officio B. Written Constitution of India
chairman of the Civil Services Board.
C. Separation of Power and Checks and Bla-
Which of the statements given above is/are cor- nees between the three constitutional organ
rect? D. All the above
273
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 15. Miscellenous

317. Gandhiji wrote which article in the Harijan of A. I and II

19th November 1939 to support the formation B. I and III
of Constituent Assembly for making the Con-
stitution of India C. I, II and III

A. The need of Constitution D. II, III and Lv

322. Which of the following is an extensive origi-
B. Formation of Constituent Assembly
nal jurisdiction given by the Constitution of In-
C. The only way dia to the Supreme Court?
D. The way A. Enforcement of Fundamental Rights

ER
318. Article 15 (4) confers a special provisions for B. Advising the Chief Executive in legal mat-
the advancement of ters

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

D
A. Linguistic Minorities C. Hearing revenue cases of appeal
B. SCs and STs D. Hearing criminal cases of appeal

G
C. Women and Children 323. Up to which year Chief Election Commis-
sioner functioned as one-man Commission

N
D. Mentally retarded people
A. 1988
319. Who was the first Speaker of the First Lok
Sabha
A
B. 1989
C. 1987
H
A. G.V. Mavalankar
B. C. D. Deshmukh D. 1986
-C
324. Who boicotted the Indian Constituent Assem-
C. Dr. S. Radhakrishnan bly
D. Pandit Govind Ballabh Pant A. Unionist Muslim
N

320. During the British rule, which community got B. Muslim League
separate representation from which Act
YA

C. Unionist Scheduled Caste

A. Christian Community & Indian Council Act
1909 D. Krishak Poja
325. Which of the following statements are correct
RA

B. Buddhist Community & Indian Council Act

about the National Assessment and Accredita-
1907
tion Council? 1. It is an autonomous institu-
C. Muslim Community & Indian Council tion. 2. It is tasked with the responsibility of
Act 1909 assessing and accrediting institutions of higher
NA

D. All the above education. 3. It is located in Delhi. 4. It has

regional offices. Select the correct answer from
321. Which of the following electoral systems have the codes given below: Codes:
been adopted for various elections in India? I.
System of direct elections on the basis of adult A. 1 and 3
suffrage. II. System of proportional represen- B. 1 and 2
tation by means of the single transferable vote.
C. 1, 2 and 4
III. List system of proportional representation.
IV. Cumulative system of indirect elections. Se- D. 2, 3 and 4
lect the correct answer from the codes given be- 326. Which article says about election of Vice-
low. Codes: President

274
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 A. Article 66 332. Which statement is not correct about
B. Article 65 the?National Education Day? of India?

C. Article 67 A. It is celebrated on 5th September every

year.
D. Article 64
B. It is celebrated on 11th November every
327. Who was the Chairman of the Draft Commit- year.
tee of the Constituent Assembly
C. It is celebrated in the memory of India?s
A. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar first Union Minister of Education, Dr. Abul
B. K. M. Munshi Kalam Azad.
C. Jagjivan Ram D. It is being celebrated since 2008

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D. None of the above 333. .Who saluted Gandhi as Mahatma?
328. How many members retire from Rajya Sabha A. Bala Gangadar Tilak
every second year.

M
B. Raveendra Nath Tagore
A. 1/3
C. Gopala Krishna Gokhale
B. 1/5
C. 1/2
D. 2/3
329. The Constitution has the following number of
RA
D. Lala Lajpat Rai
334. Constitutionally, who notifies the phenomenal
area of
A. Parliament
RI
articles
B. Governor
A. 315
C. Chief Minister
H

B. 333
D. State Government
C. 365
IS

335. In which of the following categories the enrol-

D. 395 ment of students in higher education in 2010-11
330. When a bill is referred to a joint sitting of both was beyond the percentage of seats reserved?
JA

the Houses of the Parliament, it has to be passed A. OBC students

by
B. SC students
A. a simple majority of members present
and voting C. ST students

B. three-fourths majority of members present D. Women students

and voting 336. What is the meaning of Indian State in the
Constitution
C. two-thirds majority of the Houses
D. absolute majority of the Houses A. Any territory recognised by President of In-
dia
331. 44th amendment was passed in the year
B. Any territory before commencement of In-
A. 1975 dian Constitution by the British ruler
B. 1976 C. Any territory which government of the Do-
C. 1977 minion of India recognised
D. 1978 D. B&C
275
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 15. Miscellenous

337. When did the first Lok Sabha function 343. U.S.S.R. stands for
A. 1952-1956 A. Union of Secular Socialist Republics
B. 1953-1957 B. Union of Sovereign Socialist Republics
C. 1952-1957 C. Union of Soviet Secular Republics
D. None of the above D. Union of Soviet Socialist Republics
338. To ensure impartiality, the retired Chief Jus- 344. Match List? I with List? II and select the cor-
tice and other Judges of the Supreme Court are rect answer from the codes given below: List?
debarred from practising law

ER
I List? II
A. In any court other than State High Courts A. Poverty Reduction Programme (i) Mid-day

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

B. In any Criminal Court Meals

D
C. In any court of India B. Human Development Scheme (ii) Indira
D. In any court other than the Supreme Court Awas Yojana (IAY)

G
339. When the Vice President officiates as Presi- C. Social Assistance Scheme (iii) National Old
Age Pension (NOAP)

N
dent he draws the salary of
A. Chairman of Rajya Sabha D. Minimum Need Scheme (iv) MNREGA
B. Both A and ( C )
A
Codes:
E.
H
C. President
D. Member of Parliament F.
-C

340. Which one of the following can be prorogued G.

but cannot be dissolved? H.
N

A. Rajya Sabha I. (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)

B. State Council
YA

J. (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

C. Municipal Corporation
K. (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
D. Governing Council in a Union Territory
L. (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
RA

341. Who appoints the Prime Minister of India?

345. The authority to declare war or peace under
A. Lok Sabha the Indian Constitution
B. President A. the Prime Minister
NA

C. Parliament B. the President

D. Citizens of India
C. the Parliament
342. Which one of the following is used by the In-
ternational Court of Justice in disputes concern- D. the Defense Minister
ing riparian rights? 346. The Constitution provides
A. Geneva Agreement A. Powers
B. Helsinki Agreement B. Responsibilities
C. Paris Agreement C. Limitations
D. Reykjavik Agreement D. All the above
276
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
347. Who said, I feel, however, good a Constitution 352. In Rajeev Gandhi time, how many times Pres-
may be, it is sure to turn out bad because those ident Rule was imposed
who are called to work it, taken to be a bad lot.
A. 15
However bad a Constitution may be, it may turn
out to be good if those who are called to work B. 20
it, happens to be a good lot. The working of a C. 5
Constitution does not depend wholly upon the
nature of the Constitution D. 6
353. Which of the following statements are correct
A. Dr. Ambedkar
about a Central University? 1. Central Univer-
B. Dr. Rajendra Prasad sity is established under an Act of Parliament.
2. The President of India acts as the visitor of

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

C. Dr. Subhash Kashyap
the University. 3. President has the power to
D. None of the above nominate some members to the Executive Com-
348. In the Govt. of India Act 1935, who was au- mittee or the Board of Management of the Uni-

M
thorised to make a law on the Provincial sub- versity. 4. The President occasionally presides
ject over the meetings of the Executive Committee
or Court. Select the correct answer from the

RA
A. Governor
code given below: Codes:
B. Governor General
A. 1, 2 and 4
C. Federal Legislature
B. 1, 3 and 4
D. None of the above
RI
C. 1, 2 and 3
349. Who called the word for Preamble as Political
Horoscope of India? D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
H

A. K.M. Munshi 354. When a money bill is passed by the Parlia-

ment, the President has the power to
IS

B. B.R Ambedkar
A. Amend it
C. Sardar K.M Panikikar
B. Reject it
D. Jawaharlal Nehru
JA

350. Who selects persons for appointment to the C. Kept it with him
Central Civil Services in India? D. Return it for reconsideration
A. President 355. Who said, If the people who are elected are
capable and men of character and integrity, they
B. Prime Minister
would be able to make the best even of a defec-
C. Planning Commission tive Constitution. If they are lacking in these,
D. UPSC the Constitution cannot help the country
351. Which of the following States has Urdu as its A. Sardar Hukam Singh
official language? B. K. M. Munshi
A. Bihar C. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
B. Jammu & Kashmir D. Sardar Ballabh Bhai Patel
C. Madhya Pradesh 356. The first woman Governor of a state in free
D. Rajasthan India was

277
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 15. Miscellenous

A. Mrs. Indira Gandhi A. Freedom of speech and expression

B. Mrs. Vijaya Laxmi Pandit B. Right to assemble peaceably and without
arms
C. Mrs. Sarojini Naidu
D. Mrs. Sucheta Kripalani C. Right to property

357. On the subject of budget, demands for grant D. Right to equality

are arranged in which way 362. The President can proclaim a state of emer-
A. Prime Minister gency in case of

ER
B. Finance Minister A. Failure of Constitutional machinery in a
particular state.

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

C. Ministry wise
B. Threat to financial stability of the country.

D
D. All the above
C. External aggression or internal disturbances
358. When was the Council of States named as Ra-

G
threatening the security of the country.
jya Sabha in Hindi
D. All of the above

N
A. 1 September 1957
363. Whose satisfaction is required under Consti-
B. 2 October 1960
C. 23 August 1954
A
tutional Article 347 regarding special provision
for creating language spoken by a section of the
H
population of a state
D. 15 August 1950
A. Parliament
-C
359. Who among the following was the chairman
of the drafting committee of the Indian Consti- B. Judiciary
tution? [CDSE 1992]
C. President
N

A. Rajendra Prasad
D. Prime Minister
YA

B. Tej Bahadur Sapru

364. By which fundamental right other fundamen-
C. C Rajagopalachari tal rights is protected?
D. BR Ambedkar A. Right to Constitutional Remedies
RA

360. Who has ample powers under Article 324(1) B. Right to live
to make appropriate orders as to the conduct of
Elections, e.g., cancellation of poll and order- C. Right to freedom
NA

ing to poll according to exigencies in particu- D. Right to equality

lar areas, introduction of electronic voting ma-
chines, postponing of election, etc. 365. Preamble has been amended by which amend-
ment act
A. Regional Election Commissioner
A. 27 th
B. Election Committee of Government
B. 44 th
C. Electoral Officer
C. 42 nd
D. Election Commission
D. 40 th
361. Which one of the following is not a Funda-
mental Right? 366. Rajya Sabha has exclusive jurisdiction in

278
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 A. the creation and abolition of states 372. If the President returns a Bill sent to him for
B. in amending the Constitution his assent and the Parliament once again passes
the Bill in its original form, then the President
C. in the removal of the Government
A. Can seek the opinion of the Supreme Court
D. autorising Parliament to legislate on a on the bill
subject in the State List
B. Gives assent to the bill
367. Which article says that ’there shall be a Vice-
President of India’ C. Can once again return the bill for further re-
consideration
A. Article 63
D. Can ask for a referendum on the bill
B. Article 62
373. Who among the following can attend meetings

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

C. Article 61 of the Union Cabinet?
D. Article 64 A. President
368. Panchayati Raj as introduced in 1959 operates

M
at B. Cabinet Ministers

A. Samiti and block levels C. Ministers of State

B. Block and district levels

C. Samiti and district levels
D. Village, block and district levels
RA D. Deputy Ministers
374. As per Article 262 of Indian Constitution, dis-
putes relating to waters shall be solved by
A. President
RI
369. The Indian President is
B. Supreme Court
A. None of these
C. Prime Minister
H

B. Titular executive
D. Parliament
C. Real executive
IS

375. Judges of the High Court are appointed by the

D. Real/Titular executive
A. Chief Justice of the High Court
370. The demand for a Constitution made by
JA

the people of India without outside interfer- B. President

ence was officially asserted by the National C. Governor
Congress in
D. Chief Justice of India
A. 1939
376. Match the List? I with the List? II and select
B. 1942 the correct answer from the codes given below:
C. 1935 List? I (Commissions and Committees) List? II
(Year)
D. 1929
371. The concept of terminology for the Preamble A. First Administrative Reforms Commission
was taken from the constitution of (i) 2005

A. Soviet Union B. Paul H. Appleby Committee I (ii) 1962

B. Britain C. K. Santhanam Committee (iii) 1966

C. Canada D. Second Administrative Reforms Commis-
sion (iv) 1953
D. Australia
279
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 15. Miscellenous

E. A. Speaker of the Lok Sabha

F. B. President
G. C. Prime Minister
H. D. Vice-President
I. (i) (iii) (ii) (iv) 382. Which article of the Constitution empowers
the Parliament to enact the provisions for ac-
J. (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
quisition and termination of Citizenship?
K. (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)

ER
A. Article 6
L. (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
B. Article 11

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

377. The concept of ’a Constitutionally mandated
Planning Commission to oversee the develop- C. Article 13

D
ment of the economy’ was taken from the con- D. Article 10
stitution of

G
383. The Constitution of India, was drafted and en-
A. Germany acted in which language

N
B. Soviet union A. Hindi
C. Austria
D. USA A
B. English
C. Tamil
H
378. When did the origin and evolution of the office D. Telugu
of Speaker start in India
-C
384. What is the period of Lok Sabha
A. In Hindu period A. Four years
B. In British Period
N

B. Six years
C. In Mughal period C. Five years
YA

D. None of the above D. Three years

379. The Indian Constitution was enforced on
385. Which constitutional article defines protection
A. 15th Aug, 1947 against publication of proceedings of Parlia-
RA

B. 26th Nov, 1949 ment and Legislature

C. 26th Jan, 1950 A. Article 361D

B. Article 361A
NA

D. 30th Jan, 1950

380. Which was described by Dr. B. R. Ambedkar C. Article 364
as the Heart and Soul of the Constitution? D. Article 365
A. Preamble 386. There is no appeal except on a point of law
B. Directive Principles of State Policy against the decisions of the

C. Right to Constitutional Remedies A. Sub Judges

D. Right to freedom B. Small causes courts

381. Who decides whether a Bill is a Money Bill or C. Court of Munsifs
not? D. High Court

280
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
387. The first Lok Adalat was held in the year A. Speaker of the Lok Sabha
A. 1985 B. Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha
B. 1986 C. Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
C. 1987 D. The post of Chairman remains vacant
D. 1988 393. A federal structure of India was first put for-
388. How may Standing Committees are there in ward by the
Lok Sabha A. Act of 1909
A. 14 B. Act of 1919
B. 15 C. Act of 1935

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

C. 15 D. Act of 1947
D. 18 394. How many types of Emergency have been vi-
sualised in the Constitution of India?

M
389. The Uniting for Peace Resolution adopted by
the U.N. has A. Four

RA
A. enhanced the powers of the General Assem- B. Three
bly in a comprehensive way
C. One
B. reduced the powers of the General Assem-
D. Two
bly
395. How many elected members are in Rajya
RI
C. made no difference to the powers of the Sabha?
General Assembly
A. 233
H

D. empowered the General Assembly to act

in specific situations in matters of peace and se- B. 245
IS

curity C. 250
390. Financial Committees in Lok Sabha are D. 240
A. Committee on Estimates
JA

396. After declaration of financial emergency by

B. Public Accounts Committee the President, what is the period of operation
without approval by the Parliament
C. Public Undertaking Committee
A. Three Months
D. All the above
B. Four Months
391. During what period, Constituent Assembly of
India worked C. Two Months
A. 1948-1950 D. One Month
B. 1949-1951 397. The first Open University in India was set up
in the State of
C. 1947-1949
A. Andhra Pradesh
D. 1951-1952
B. Delhi
392. Who performs the duties of the office of the
Chairman of the Rajya Sabha when the Vice- C. Himachal Pradesh
President is acting as the President of India? D. Tamil Nadu
281
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 15. Miscellenous

398. In which case did the Supreme Court of In- A. Sachchidananda Sinha
dia determine that the Parliament has power to B. P. Upendra
make amendment in fundamental rights, but it
cannot make any change in the basic structure C. B.R. Ambedkar
of the Constitution? D. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
A. Golak Nath case 404. Under whose advice the President of India de-
B. Keshavanand Bharati case clares Emergency under Article 352?

C. Both A and B A. Chief Ministers of all states

ER
B. Prime Minister
D. Neither A nor B
399. If the Speaker of the Lok Sabha intends to va- C. Cabinet

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

cate his office before the expiry of his term, he D. Council of Ministers

D
sends his resignation to the: 405. The term ’We’ in preamble means

G
A. Chairman of the Rajya Sabha A. Indian Government
B. Leader of the House (Lok Sabha) B. Supreme Court

N
C. Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha C. Indian Parliament
D. President of India
400. The Indian Constitution Consists of A
D. The People of India
406. Which of the following powers, the President
H
A. Articles 298 has in relation to Lok Sabha? 1. Summoning 2
Adjournment- sine die 3. Prorogation 4. Disso-
-C
B. Articles 399 lution Select the correct answer from the codes
C. Articles 388 given below:
N

D. Articles 395 A. 1 and 4

401. Appointment of officers and servants of a B. 1, 2 and 3
YA

High Court are made by the

C. 1, 3 and 4
A. None of these
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
RA

B. Chief Justice of the High Court 407. Who was the first Indian to be the President of
C. President Central Legislative Assembly
D. Governor A. M. A. Ayyanger
NA

402. At which part of constitution declared that In- B. B. R. Bhagat

dia is a SOVEREIGN SOCIALIST SECULAR C. Dr. Balarm Jakhar
DEMOCRATIC REPUBLIC
D. Vithalbhai J. Patel
A. Fundamental Right
408. Consider the statement which is followed by
B. Directive Principles of State Policy two arguments (I) and (II): Statement: Should
C. Preamble persons with criminal background be banned
from contesting elections? Arguments: (I) Yes,
D. Fundamental Duties it will decriminalize politics. (II) No, it will en-
403. Who presided over the inaugural meeting of courage the ruling party to file frivolous cases
the Constituent Asembly of India? against their political opponents.

282
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 A. Only argument (I) is strong. A. President of India
B. Only argument (II) is strong. B. Chief Justice of India
C. Both the arguments are strong. C. Prime Minister
D. Neither of the arguments is strong. D. Governor of the State
409. The Vice-President of India is elected by 414. When does the President assent the Bill
A. The people directly A. Lok Sabha passes the Bill
B. The members of Lok Sabha and Rajya B. Rajya Sabha passes the Bill
Sabha
C. Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha both passed

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

C. The members of Rajya Sabha only the Bill
D. The members of Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha D. None of the above
and State Legislatures
415. Which of the following writs is issued by the

M
410. ‘Economic Justice’ the objectives of Constitu- court in case of illegal detention of a person?
tion has been as one of the Indian provided in
A. Quo Warranto
A. the Preamble and Fundamental Rights
B. the Preamble and the Directive Principles of
State Policy
RA B. Habeas Corpus
C. Mandamus
D. Certiorari
RI
C. the Fundamental Rights and the Directive
Principles of State Policy 416. Which of the following is ’TRUE’ about
Preamble
H

D. None of the above

A. It is a source of power to legislature and a
411. Which Indian President was the Speaker of the
IS

source of prohibition upon the powers of legis-

Fourth Lok Sabha
lature
A. S. D. Sharma
B. It is Justiciable
JA

B. Dr. Rajendra Prasad

C. Its provisions are enforceable in courts of
C. N. Sanjiva Reddy law
D. Dr. S Radhakrishanan D. None of the above
412. Jurisdiction of the Administrative Tribunal is 417. Under whose advice, the President shall have
not supplementary but is a complete substitute the power of summoning, prorogation and dis-
for whom solution
A. High Court A. Home Minister
B. Civil Courts B. Prime Minister
C. A&B C. Council of Ministers
D. None of the above D. Parliamentary Affairs Ministers
413. The Judges of the Supreme Court are ap- 418. The Constitution of India was enacted by a
pointed by Constituent Assembly set up

283
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 15. Miscellenous

A. Through a resolution of the provisional gov- A. Britain

ernment
B. US
B. By the Indian National Congress
C. France
C. Under the Indian Independence Act, 1947
D. Australia
D. Under the Cabinet Mission Plan, 1946 424. The most controversial provision in the 42nd
419. The dispute regarding the election of President Constitution Amendment is
of India is to be referred to
A. Supremacy of Parliament

ER
A. Chief Election Commissioner
B. Enumeration of ten Fundamental Duties
B. Supreme Court
C. Term of Lok Sabha and Legislative Assem-

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

C. Parliament blies

D
D. Attorney-General D. Primacy to the Directive Principles over

G
420. The Directive Principles of State Policy seek the Fundamental Rights
to establish 425. When was the Second Reading of the Consti-

N
tution completed in the Constituent Assembly
A. political democracy
A. 18 Nov. 1949
B. cultural democracy
C. social and economic democracy A
B. 17 Nov. 1949
H
C. 15 Nov. 1949
D. political and cultural democracy
-C
421. Which one of the following statements reflects D. 16 Nov. 1949
the republic character of Indian democracy? 426. Who among the following conducted the
CNN-IBN - The Hindu 2013 Election Tracker
N

A. Written Constitution
Survey across 267 constituencies in 18 States?
B. No State religion
YA

A. The Centre for the Study of Developing

C. Devolution of power to local Government Societies (CSDS)
institutions
B. The Association for Democratic Reforms
RA

D. Elected President and directly or indi- (ADR)

rectly elected Parliament
C. CNN and IBN
422. Which Government pioneered 44th constitu-
tional amendment? D. CNN, IBN and The Hindu
NA

427. Whichof the following committees was ap-

A. Nehru Govt.
pointed for investigating into the Delhiriots in
B. Morarji Desai Govt. November 1984?
C. V P.Singh Govt. A. Sarkaria Commission
D. P V. Rao Govt. B. Ranganath Mishra Commission
423. Bicameralism (a system of government in C. Thakkar-Natarajan Commission
which legislative power is vested in two cham-
bers - upper house and a lower house) in Indian D. Santhanam Commission
constitution was taken from the constitution of 428. Under which Article Conduct of Business of
which country Parliament is mentioned

284
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 A. Article 99 capital of two States. Select the correct answer
from the codes given below
B. Article 93
A. 1 and 3 only
C. Article 76
B. 2 and 4 only
D. Article 92
429. Objective Resolution was moved on the Con- C. 2, 3 and 4 only
stituent Assembly by Jawaharlal Nehru on D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
A. 13.12.1946 434. Consider the following statements 1. An
amendment to the Constitution of India can be
B. 22.01.1947 initiated by an introduction of a bill in the Lok
C. 26.01.1948 Sabha only. 2. If such an amendment seeks

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

to make changes in the federal character of the
D. 06.12.1946
Constitution, the amendment also requires to be
430. Parliament can legislate matters in the State ratified by the legislature of all the States of In-

M
List dia. Which of the statements given above is/are
A. By wish of the President correct?

RA
B. If Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by A. 1 only
2/3rd majority B. 2 only
C. Under any circumstances C. Both 1 and 2
D. By asking the legislature of the State con- D. Neither 1 nor 2
RI
cerned 435. The method of amendment of Indian Consti-
431. What was the important landmark judgement tution has been incorporated in Article
H

regarding amendment of the Constitution (Arti-

A. 368
cle 368)
IS

B. 299
A. Shankari Prasad vs. Union of India
C. 378
B. Golak Nath vs State of Punjab
D. 301
JA

C. Kesavananda vs State of Kerala, Minerva

Mill vs. Union of India 436. The Concurrent list in the Constitution of In-
dia was adopted from
D. All the above
A. United Kingdom
432. Who is the head of a state in India?
B. Australia
A. Prime Minister
C. Canada
B. President
D. United States of America
C. Governor
437. The Chief - Minister of a Union Territory
D. British Monarch whenever such a set up exists, is appointed by
433. Which of the following statements are cor- A. The Lt. Governor
rect? (1) There are seven Union Territories in
B. The majority party in the legislature
India. (2) Two Union Territories have Legisla-
tive Assemblies (3) One Union Territory has C. The President
a High Court. (4) One Union Territory is the D. The Prime Minister
285
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 15. Miscellenous

438. The Constituent Assembly of India held its 443. Which Constitutional Article defines Election
first meeting on to Municipalities
A. 23.01.1947 A. Article 243A
B. 06.12.1946 B. Article 243ZA
C. 11.12.1946 C. Article 243ZB

D. 09.12.1946 D. Article 243P

444. Which of the following is/are instance(s) of vi-
439. Apart from the Jammu & Kashmir, which

ER
olation of Human Rights? [NDA 2010]
other State has been provided special protection
in certain matters? 1. A person was detained by the security

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

A. Sikkim forces while going for casting vote in a

D
Parliamentary election.
B. Goa
2. A civilian was killed by the Army while

G
C. Assam undertaking combing operation.
D. Nagaland

N
A. 1 Only
440. Representation of any State in Rajya Sabha, is B. 2 Only
according to
A. Population of the State A
C. Both 1 and 2
H
D. Neither 1 nor 2
B. Area of the State 445. Considerthe following statements regarding a
-C

C. Fixed number of candidates for each State No-confidence Motion in the Parliament.

D. Number of representation in Lok Sabha 1. There is no mention of aNo-confidence

N

from that State Motion in the Constitution of India.

441. For the philosophy underlying our Constitu- 2. period of six months must elapsebetween
YA

tion, the historic Objectives Resolution was the introduction of one No-confidence
moved in the Constituent Assembly on 22nd Motion and the other.
January, 1947 by 3. At least 100 members must support aMo-
RA

A. Jawaharlal Nehru tion of No-confidence before it is intro-

duced in the House.
B. Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
4. motion of No-confidence can beintro-
NA

C. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar duced in the Lok Sabha only.

D. Dr. Rajendra Prasad Of these statements
442. All doubts and disputes arising out of or in A. 2 and 4 are correct
connection with the election of Vice-President
B. 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
shall be inquired into and decided by
C. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
A. Lok Sabha
D. 1 and 4 are correct.
B. Rajya Sabha
446. The Constitution gives the powers of super-
C. Supreme Court intendence over all sub-ordinate courts to the
D. President High Courts under Article

286
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 A. 229 A. Swami Dayanand Saraswathi
B. 227 B. Sree Ramakrishna Parama Hamsa
C. 226 C. Raja Ram Mohan Roy
D. 228 D. Swami Vivekananda
447. Which organ does not have the right to ques- 452. In the context of India, which of the follow-
tion and justify as null and void the law which ing principles is/are implied institutionally in
violates Fundamental Rights article? the parliamentary government? 1. Members of
the Cabinet are Members of the Parliament. 2.
A. Executive Ministers hold the office till they enjoy confi-
B. Judiciary dence in the Parliament. 3. Cabinet is headed

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

by the Head of the State. Select the correct an-
C. Legislative swer using the codes given below.
D. None of the above A. 1 and 2 only

M
448. With respect to Article 371 (A) of the Con- B. 3 only
stitution of India, the Governor of which one
C. 2 and 3 only

RA
of the following state has special responsibil-
ity with respect to law and order of the state? D. 1, 2 and 3
[CDSE 2008]
453. When the Vice president acts as President or
A. Assam discharges the functions of the President under
Article 65
RI
B. Manipur
A. He shall not perform the duties of the office
C. Nagaland
of the Chairman of the Council of States
H

D. Andhra Pradesh
B. He shall not be entitled to any salary or al-
449. Which of the following Acts gave representa-
IS

lowance payable to the Chairman of the Coun-

tion to the Indians for the first time in legisla- cil of States
tion?
C. Both A and B
JA

A. Indian Councils Act, 1919

D. None of the above
B. Govt. of India Act, 1935 454. Which article provides protection against ar-
C. Indian Councils Act, 1909 rest and detention

D. Govt of India Act, 1919 A. Art. 22

450. In the election of Vice-President ——– B. Art. 32
method of voting system is used C. Art.19
A. Proportional representation method D. Art. 21A
B. Semi proportional method 455. What is the nature of India’s political system
C. Majoritarian method A. Presidential System
D. Cumulative voting method B. Parliamentary System
451. Which Indian social reformer lived in 18th C. A & B
century fought against social evils in Hinduism D. None of the above
287
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 15. Miscellenous

456. In the Constituent Assembly how many seats A. 1, 2 and 3 only

were got by the Congress
B. 1, 3 and 4 only
A. 204
C. 2 and 4 only
B. 205
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
C. 203
462. India is a
D. 208
A. Federal, Presidential, Republiccs
457. If the Speaker of the State Legislative Assem-
B. Republic, Parliamentary, Unitary

ER
bly decides to resign, he shouldsubmit his res-
ignation to the C. Unitary, Presidential, Republics

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

A. Chief Minister D. Federal, Parliamentary, Republics

D
B. Governor 463. The concept of the Judicial review has been
C. Judge of the High Court borrowed from the Constitution of

G
D. President A. U.K.

N
458. Who was the first speaker of the Lok Sabha? B. Switzerland
C. U.S.A
A. P. Upendra
B. Hukam Singh A
D. U.S.S.R.
H
C. Anantha Sayanam Ayyanagar 464. The Right to private property was dropped
from the list of fundamental rights by the
-C
D. Malvankar
A. 44th Amendment
459. Whom the Rajya Sabha has the power for re-
moval B. 42nd Amendment
N

A. Speaker C. 61st Amendment

YA

B. Deputy Speaker D. 75th Amendment

C. Council of President 465. Which of the following Union Territories at-
tained statehood in February, 1987?
RA

D. Deputy Chairman
460. The abolition of the I. A .S. and the I.P.S. has A. Arunachal Pradesh
been recommended by the B. Daman and Diu
NA

A. Dhebar Commission C. Goa

B. Kalekar Commission D. Pondicherry
C. Kher Commission 466. The Vice President discharges the duties of the
D. Rajamannar Commission President during his / her illness for a maximum
period of
461. Who among the following constitute the Na-
tional Development Council? 1. The Prime A. 6 months
Minister 2. The Chairman, Finance Commis- B. 3 months
sion 3. Ministers of the Union Cabinet 4. Chief
Ministers of the States Select the correct answer C. 1 year
using the codes given below: D. Indefinitely

288
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
467. Under the term ”Double Jeoparady” implied D. Must have been a High Court Judge for at
in Clause 2 of Article 20 of the Constitution of least 5 years
India, a person 472. Who was the first Prime Minister of India?
A. convicted by a court of law cannot be pun- A. Jawaharlal Nehru
ished under departmental proceedings for the
B. Mrs. Indira Gandhi
same offence
C. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
B. punished departmentally cannotbe proce-
cuted in a court of law for the sameoffence D. Mahatma Gandhi
C. shallnot be prosecuted and punished for 473. Under Article 365 what are the duties of the
the same offence more than once Union Government with respect to State Gov-
ernments

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

D. cannot be subjected proceedings in civil
A. Ensure that every State Minister should act
courts for disobedence of an injunction along
in accordance with the advice of Chief Minister
with criminal proceedings

M
468. Which occupation was represented more in
the Provisional Parliament B. Ensure that Governor acts under advice of
the Chief Minister

RA
A. Agriculturists
C. Ensure that Governance in the State is in
B. Businessmen accordance with the Constitution
C. Teachers/Academicians D. All of the above
D. Lawyers 474. For the first time, British Parliament enacted
RI
469. The High Courts in India were first started at which laws for the British Government to gov-
ern in India
A. Bombay, Delhi, Madras
H

A. Govt. of India Act 1857

B. Madras and Bombay
B. Govt. of India Act 1858
IS

C. Bombay, Madras, Calcutta

C. Govt. of India Act 1891
D. Delhi and Calcutta
D. Govt. of India Act 1888
JA

470. Who is the ex- officio Chairman of the Coun- 475. who among the following was the Chairman
cil of States? of the State Committee of the Constituent As-
A. Vice- President sembly?
B. Leader of the opposition A. B R.Ambedkar
C. President B. B N. Rao
D. Speaker C. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
471. Which is not an eligibility criterion for ap- D. Jawaharlal Nehru
pointment as a Judge of the High Court? 476. When did India become a fully Sovereign
A. Must have been an advocate of a High Democratic Republic
Court for not less than 10 years A. 26th Nov. 1949
B. Must be, in the opinion of the President, a B. 26th Nov. 1930
distinguished jurist.
C. 26th Jan. 1949
C. Must have attained the age of 55 years D. 26th Nov. 1951
289
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 15. Miscellenous

477. Which Party supported formation of a Con- A. Minister

stituent Assembly
B. Deputy Speaker
A. Congress
C. Prime Minister
B. Muslim League
D. Member of the said House
C. Unionist Muslim
482. Who prepared the first draft Constitution of
D. Unionist Scheduled Castes India
478. Which of the following is correct regarding
A. Jawahar Lal Nehru

ER
the Governor of a State?
A. He can recommend to the President to im- B. Gandhiji

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

pose President’s Rule in the State. C. Advisory Branch of the Constituent As-

D
B. No money bill can be introduced in the State sembly
Legislature without his prior permission. D. Sardar Ballabh Bhai Patel

G
C. He has the power of issuing ordinances
483. The Constitution of India came into force on:

N
when the legislature is not in session.
A. 26 January 1950
D. All of the above
479. The concept of ’Amendment of Constitution’
was taken from the constitution of A
B. 26 November 1949
H
C. 15 August 1947
A. South Africa D. 01 January 1950
-C

B. Britain
484. When the Constituent Assembly for the Do-
C. France minion of India reassembled on 31st October,
N

1947, its reduced membership was

D. Ireland
A. 331
YA

480. Consider the following Vice president of In-

dia: [CDSE 2009] B. 299
1. V. V. Giri C. 311
RA

2. M. Hidayatullah D. 319
3. B. D. Jatti
485. Which of the following is covered under the
4. G. S. Pathak original jurisdiction of the supreme court?
NA

Which one of the following is the correct A. Dispute relating to civil matters
chronology of their tenures?
B. Dispute between two citizens from two dif-
A. 1-4-3-2 ferent states
B. 2 - 1 - 3 - 4 C. Dispute relating to criminal cases involving
C. 3 - 2 - 1 - 4 murder

D. 4 - 1 - 3 - 2 D. Disputes between two states of the Indian

Union
481. Who has the power to present adjournment
motion in Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha 486. Finance Commission is appointed after every

290
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 A. 2 years 492. Article 14 deals with
B. 5 years A. Equality before law
C. 7 years B. Equality of Opportunity
D. 10 years C. Equality of Participation
487. Which constitution is the longest written con- D. Equality of Expression
stitution of any independent country in the
493. The State of Jammu & Kashmir was accorded
world
special status under
A. Constitution of USA
A. Article 370
B. Constitution of India
B. Article 380

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

C. Constitution of Britain
C. Article 390
D. Constitution of Canada
D. Article 360
488. Vice President may resign from his office any-

M
494. Salaries of the Judges of the Supreme Court
time by submitting his resignation to
are drawn from the
A. Prime Minister

RA
A. Grants-in-aid
B. Supreme Court Chief Justice
B. Public Accounts
C. Deputy Speaker of Rajya Sabha
C. Contingency Fund
D. President
D. Consolidated Fund
RI
489. The first war of Indian Independence was in
495. Directive Principles of State Policy incorpo-
A. 1856 rated in which part of the Constitution?
H

B. 1757 A. Part III

C. 1857
IS

B. Part II
D. 1758 C. Part IV
490. Who among the following moved the objec-
D. Part IX
JA

tives resolution which formed the basis of the

Preamble of the Constitution of India in the 496. Who submitted the Objective Resolution in
Constituent Assemble on December 13, 1946? the Constutuent Assembly?
[CDSE 2009] A. B R.Ambedkar
A. Dr B R Ambedkar B. B N. Rao
B. Dr Rajendra Prasad C. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
C. Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel D. Jawaharlal Nehru
D. Pt Jawahar Lal Nehru 497. Which act was accepted as the provisional
491. Right to property is a legal right under the constitution of India, after Independence?
A. Article 22 A. Indian Councils Act 1909
B. Article 200 A B. Government of India act1919
C. Article 24 C. Government of India Act1935
D. Article 300 A D. Indian Independence act 1947.

291
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 15. Miscellenous

498. At which case, the Supreme Court rejected the A. July 1946
earlier opinion and held that Preamble is an in-
B. Aug. 1946
tegral part of the Constitution
C. Sep. 1946
A. Berubari Union case (1960)
D. Oct. 1946
B. Kesavananda Bharati case (1973)
504. The Vice-President of India can be removed
C. Both A & B from the office
D. None of the above A. by a resolution in the Council of states

ER
499. What was the expenditure made by the Con- approved by Lok sabha
stituent Assembly while framing the Constitu- B. by a resolution of Lok Sabha agreed to by

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

tion of India the council of states

D
A. Rs. 63, 96, 729 C. by a resolution adopted by the two House
B. Rs. 64, 98, 725 meeting in a joint session

G
C. Rs. 69, 92, 769 D. following the normal process of impeach-
ment

N
D. Rs. 65, 92, 926
505. Consider the following statements: The Par-
500. Which of the following shall not be considered
an adequate ground for the issue of a proclama-
A
liamentary Committee on Public Accounts
(PAC) 1. consists of not more than 25 Members
H
tion of national emergency? of the Lok Sabha 2. scrutinizes appropriation
A. war and finance accounts of Government 3. Exam-
-C
ines the report of CAG. Which of the statements
B. external aggression given above is / are correct? ‘
C. armed rebellion A. 1 only
N

D. internal disturbance B. 2 and 3 only

YA

501. In India political parties are given recognition C. 3 only

by
D. 1, 2 and 3
A. President
RA

506. Which of the following is contained in the

B. Law Commission Concurrent List?
C. Speaker of Lok Sabha A. Forests
NA

D. Election Commission B. Education

502. Who restored the Judicial Review power of Ju- C. Police
diciary under Indian Constitution
D. Agriculture
A. Supreme Court of India 507. Who proposed Preamble before the Drafting
B. High Court Committee of the Constitution?
C. Chief Metropolitan Magistrate A. B.R Ambedkar
D. District Court B. Jawaharlal Nehru
503. When were the election to the Constituent As- C. K. M Munshi
sembly held D. Sardar Vallabhai Patel
292
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
508. Who has said that basic features of the Indian 514. Who appoints Ad hoc Committee on Parlia-
Constitution do not amount to a change ment
A. Prime Minister A. Speaker of Lok Sabha
B. Parliament B. Chairman of Rajya Sabha
C. Supreme Court of India
C. A & B
D. Government
D. None of the above
509. Who was the last British Governor General
who addressed the Constituent Assembly? 515. The Supreme Court has the power to issue
writs under
A. Lord Attlee
A. Article 25

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

B. Lord Mount Batten
C. Lord Bentick B. Article 34
D. None of the above C. Article 44

M
510. Who was the last President of the Indian Cen- D. Article 32
tral Legislative Assembly during the British

RA
time 516. The trio Lal- Bal- Pal, Lal represents

A. G. V. Mavalankar A. Bala Gangadar Tilak

B. Abdul Rahim B. Bibin Chandra Pal
C. Sir R. K. Shanumukham Chetty
RI
C. Gopala Krishna Gokhale
D. None of the above D. Lala Lajpat Rai
511. The Cabinet Mission Plan envisaged for India
H

517. Name of the Chairman of the Committee, on

A. Federation whose recommendations Panchayati Raj sys-
IS

B. Confederation tem with two tiers was introduced in India:

C. Quasi-Federation A. Balwant Rai Mehta
JA

D. Union of State B. Ashok Mehta

512. Who presented the Objective Resolution in the
C. G.V. K. Rao
Constituent Assembly
D. Dr. L. M. Singhvi
A. Jawaharlal Nehru
B. Motilal Nehru 518. The ideals of ’Liberty, Equality and Frater-
nity’ was taken from the constitution of
C. Sardar Ballabah Bhai Patel
A. Soviet Union
D. None of the above
513. Right to privacy as a Fundamental Right is im- B. Germany
plied in C. France
A. Right to Freedom
D. Japan
B. Right to Life and Personal Liberty
519. Which Constitutional Article defines official
C. Right to Equality language for communication between the state
D. Right against Exploitation and another state and the Union

293
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 15. Miscellenous

A. Article 349 C. 1 and 3 only

B. Article 346 D. 1, 2 and 3
C. Article 243 524. The Chief Minister of a Union Territory where
such a set up exists, is appointed by the
D. Article 305
A. Lt. Governor
520. Which one of the following statements is
true? B. Majority party in Legislature

A. Union Territories are not represented in the C. President

ER
Rajya Sabha D. Prime Minister
B. Jurisdiction regarding election disputes 525. Judicial Review signifies that the Supreme

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

rests with the Chief Election Commissioner Court

D
C. Jnaneshwar BengaliThe Speaker continues A. Can impeach the President
in his post even after the state council is dis- B. Can declare a state law as unconstitutional

G
solved till a new speaker is elected by the suc-
C. Can review cases decided by the High
ceeding state council
Courts.

N
D. According to the Indian Constitution Parlia- D. Has final authority over all cases
ment consists of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
only
A
526. Who was the second President of the Indian
Republic?
H
521. How can member of Parliament resign from
his seat A. Dr. Zakir Hussain
-C
B. Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
A. By speaking in the House
C. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
B. By an announcement in the Press
N

D. None of the above

C. By writing under his signature addressed
to the Chairman or the Speaker 527. Constitutionally, who has the power to make
YA

a law on the subject mentionable in the Union

D. All the above List
522. Which is the highest and final judicial tribunal A. Lok Sabha
RA

in respect of the Constitution of India

B. Parliament
A. President
C. Rajya Sabha
B. Union Cabinet
D. Legislative Council
NA

C. Supreme Court 528. Under which article of our constitution, the

D. Parliament Governor can reserve the bill for the considera-
tion of the president?
523. Which of the following bodies does not/do not
find mention in the Constitution? 1. National A. 199
Development Council 2. Planning Commission B. 200
3. Zonal Councils Select the correct answer us-
C. 201
ing the codes given below.
D. 202
A. 1 and 2 only
529. Who said As President, I have no eyes but con-
B. 2 only stitutional eyes. I cannot see you

294
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 A. Dr. Rajendra Prasad A. Sindhi and English
B. Dr. Radhakrishnan B. English and Kashmiri
C. Abraham Lincoln C. Kashmiri and Konkani

D. Mahatma Gandhi D. Sindhi and Kashmiri

530. Which Bill President can neither return nor 535. Who is the Head to transact the business of the
withhold his assent Lok Sabha

A. Defence Bill A. Prime Minister

B. Members of Lok Sabha
B. Money Bill

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

C. Speaker
C. Law Bill
D. President
D. Financial Account Committee Bill
536. In the Govt. of India Act 1935, which subjects

M
531. One feature distinguishing the Rajya Sabha are included in the concurrent list
from the Vidhan Parishad is
A. Criminal Law & Procedure, Civil Procedure

RA
A. Power of impeachment
B. Indirect election B. Marriage
C. Nomination of members C. Divorce, Arbitration
RI
D. Tenure of membership D. All the above
532. Who fixes salaries and allowances for the 537. The idea of the ’Rule of law’ was taken from
the constitution of
H

Chairman and Deputy Chairman of the Rajya

Sabha and the Speaker and Deputy Speaker of A. USA
IS

the Lok Sabha

B. Germany
A. Lok Sabha
C. Britain
JA

B. Rajya Sabha
D. Soviet Union
C. Members of the Parliament
538. If any State Government fails to comply with
D. Parliament by Law or to give effect to any direction given by the
Union Government, who can come to conclu-
533. From which area, more members were repre-
sion that a situation has arisen in which the
sented in the Provisional Parliament
State cannot carry out governance in accor-
A. Rural area dance with the provision in the Constituion

B. Urban area A. President

C. Municipalities B. Prime Minister

D. Panchayats C. Home Minister

534. Which of the following languages are in- D. Supreme Court

cluded in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian 539. If the President wants to resign from office, he
Constitution? may do so by writing to the

295
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 15. Miscellenous

A. Chief Justice of India A. Business Advisory Committee & Commit-

tee of Privileges
B. Speaker of Lok Sabha
B. Committee on Absence of Members from
C. Prime Minister
the sitting of the House & Committee on Es-
D. Vice- President timates
540. The concept of ’Equal Protection under law’ C. Committee on Government assurances and
was taken from the constitution of Committee on papers laid on the Table
A. USA D. All the above

ER
B. Japan 545. Whichamong the following is not a part of
electoral reforms?
C. Britain

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

A. Registration of political parties

D
D. Canada
B. Disqualifying the offenders
541. Assertion (A): Panchayati Raj institutions

G
were set upto decentralise planning to village C. Installation of electronic voting machines
level.

N
Reason (R): Village panchayats are in a better- D. Appointment of the Election Commissioner
position to have a proper appreciation of their
developmental needs.
A. Both A and R are true and R is thecorrect A
546. Which Constitutional Article defines ‘consti-
tution of Municipalities’
H
explanation of A. Article 243M
-C
B. Both A and R are true but R is nota correct B. Article 243I
explanation of
C. Article 243L
C. A is true but R is false
N

D. Article 243Q
D. A is false but R is true 547. The Fundamental Rights of the Indian citizen
YA

542. Seasonalmigration of men and animals from

A. can be suspended by the Supreme Courts
lower to higher altitudes during the summeris
during national emergency
known as
RA

B. can be suspended by the Parliament during

A. Nomadism national emergency
B. Migration C. can be suspended by the President during
C. Transhumance national emergency
NA

D. Pastoralism D. can be suspended by the President in any

time
543. Under Article 324, Election Commission has
vast functions which are as given in what area 548. Recognition to a political party is accorded by
A. Administrative power A. The Election Commission

B. Marginally Judicative power B. A Committee of Whips

C. Legislative power C. The ministry of parliament Affairs

D. The speaker of the Lok Sabha in the case of
D. All of the above
national Parties and the Speaker of Legislative
544. Standing Committees in Lok Sabha are assemblies in the case of regional parties

296
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
549. The Bombay High Court does not have a D. Giving more importance to Directive Prin-
bench at which one of the following places? ciples over Fundamental Rights.
[CDSE 2008] 554. The Council of Ministers is responsible to
A. Nagpur A. President
B. Panaji B. Parliament
C. Pune C. Lok Sabha
D. Aurangabad D. Rajya Sabha
550. For Election of Members to Lok Sabha and 555. The Council of Ministers in a State is collec-
Legislative Assembly, electoral constituencies tively responsible to

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

comprise wholly or partly of which area A. Chief Minister
A. A Transitional Area B. Lok Sabha
B. Municipal Area C. State Legislative Assembly

M
C. Legislative Council D. Governor
D. None of the above 556. The term Fourth Estate refers to
551. The Union Council of Ministers is collectively
responsible to
A. Rajya Sabha
RA A. very backward State
B. Judiciary
C. Parliament
RI
B. President
D. Press
C. House of the People 557. The idea of Rule of Law has been taken by the
H

D. Prime Minister Indian Constitution from

552. Which article of Indian Constitution provides A. USA
IS

the Oath of Affirmation for the Office of Vice B. France

President
C. South Africa
JA

A. Article 68
D. Britain
B. Article 69
558. With reference to National Legal Services Au-
C. Article 70 thority, consider the following statements: 1.
Its objective is to provide free and competent
D. Article 67
legal services to the weaker sections of the so-
553. 44th Amendment of the Constitution speaks ciety on the basis of equal opportunity. 2. It is-
of sues guidelines for the State Legal Services Au-
A. Right to property as no longer a Funda- thorities to implement the legal programs and
mental Right schemes throughout the country. Which of the
statements given above is / are correct?
B. Suspension of individual liberty during
emergency A. 1 only

C. Barring the courts from interfering in the B. 2 only

disputes regarding the election of Prime Min- C. Both 1 and 2
ister
D. Neither 1 nor 2
297
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 15. Miscellenous

559. The Judges of the District Court are appointed A. 10

by B. 15
A. President of India C. 20
B. Chief Justice of India D. 25
C. Prime Minister 564. Who was the first President of Indian National
Congress
D. Governor of the State
A. A O Hume
560. On whose recommendation was the Con-

ER
B. W C Banerjee
stituent Assembly formed?
C. Dadabai Navoraji

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

A. Cabinet Mission Plan
D. Annie Besant

D
B. Govt. of India Act, 1935 565. Parliament consists of
A. Prime Minister and other Ministers

G
C. Mountbatten Plan
D. Cripp’s Mission B. President, Prime Minister and other Minis-

N
ters
561. What is meant by a Court of Record?
C. President, Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha
A. The court that maintains records of all lower
courts. A
D. President, Chief Justice and Lok Sabha
H
566. Which of the following are the fundamental
B. The court that is competent to give direc- duties?
-C
tions and issue writs.
a) To respect the National Flag.
C. The court that can punish for its contempt. b) To protect and improve the natural environ-
N

D. The court that preserves all its records. ment.

c) For a parent to provide opportunities for ed-
YA

562. Under which Supreme Court Judgment, ac- ucation to his/her child.
tion of the President to summon, prorogue and
d) To protect monuments and places of na-
dissolve either of the Houses of the Parliament
tional importance.
shall be unconstitutional if acted without advice
RA

of Council of Ministers Select the correct answer from the codes given:
Codes:
A. Indira Gandhi vs. Raj Narain A.I.R. 1975
S.C. 2299 A. (a), (b) and (c)
NA

B. Rao vs. Indira Gandhi A.I.R. 1971 S.C. B. (a), (b) and (d)
1002 C. (a), (c) and (d)
C. Anandan vs. Chief Secretary, A.I.R. 1966 D. (a), (b), (c) and (d)
S.C 657 567. Consider the following statements regarding
the Directive Principles of State Policy: 1. The
D. None of the above
Principles spell out the socio-economic democ-
563. According to the constitution of India the racy in the country. 2. The provisions contained
maximum number of members representing the in these Principles are not enforceable by any
Union Territories in the Lok Sabha cannot ex- court. Which of the statements given above is /
ceed: [CDSE 1992] are correct?

298
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 A. 1 only A. Parliament
B. 2 only B. President
C. Both 1 and 2 C. Prime Minister
D. Neither 1 nor 2 D. Chief Justice
568. The concept of ’Parliamentary form of gov- 572. Through which constitutional amendment in
ernment’ was taken from the constitution of article 359, it has been laid down that Funda-
mental Rights under articles 20 and 21 are en-
A. Britain forceable during the operation of emergency
B. USA A. 44th Amendment Act

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

C. Soviet Union B. 46th Amendment Act
D. Canada C. 45th Amendment Act

M
569. Consider the following Statements: [NDA D. 48th Amendment Act
2008]
573. Kashmiri is the Official Language of
1. Salary and allowances for the Speaker of
the Lok Sabha are charged on the consol-
idated fund of India.
2. In the warrant of precedence, the Speaker
RA A. Jammu & Kashmir
B. Himacha Pradesh
C. Uttarakhand
RI
of the Lok Sabha ranks higher than all the
D. No State in the Indian Union
Union Cabinet Ministers other than Prime
Minister. 574. What is land ceiling?
H

Which of the statements given above is/are cor- A. To fix a land area for irrigation purposes
IS

rect? B. To fix rural land holdings at the existing

A. 1 Only level
C. To fix urban land holdings at the existing
JA

B. 2 Only
level
C. Both 1 and 2
D. To fix the quantum of land held by a fam-
D. Neither 1 nor 2 ily
570. No person shall be eligible for election as 575. Under which part of the Constitution, Tri-
Vice-President unless he bunals have been defined
A. is a citizen of India A. Part Four
B. has completed the age of thirty-five years B. Part Seven
C. is qualified for election as a member of the C. Part Fifteen
Council of States
D. Part Ten
D. All the above
576. EconomicJustice, as one of the objectives of
571. Council of Ministers of the Union of India is the Indian Constitution, has beenprovided in
responsible to the the

299
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 15. Miscellenous

A. Preamble and Fundamental Rights A. Any other Union Territory

B. Preamble and Directive Principles B. Any other place as decided by the Chief
C. Fundamental Rights and Directive Princi- Justice of India in consultation with the Presi-
ples dent

D. Preamble, Fundamental Rights and Direc- C. Any other metropolitan city

tive Principles D. Any other major city
577. Which of the following is not a condition for 581. Under Article 331, how many members of the
becoming an Indian citizen? Anglo-Indian Community can be nominated in

ER
A. Registration Lok Sabha by the President
A. 3

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

B. Registration
B. 4

D
C. Acquiring property
D. Naturalization C. 2

G
578. Which is the highest court of appeal in India? D. 1
582. Britishers called the first war of Indian Inde-

N
A. Supreme Court
pendence as
B. President
C. High Court A
A. Sipoy mutiony
B. Indian Revolution
H
D. Privy Council
C. terrorism
579. Which one of the following statement is/are
-C

correct? [CDSE 2009] D. First world war

583. Who appoints the Chairman of the UPSC?
1. The committee on status of women in In-
N

dia (NSWI) recommended the setting up A. President

of a National Commission for Women. B. Speaker of Lok Sabha
YA

2. The first chairperson of the National Com- C. Chief Justice of India

mission for Women was Mrs. Jayanti Pat-
naik. D. Prime Minister
RA

3. The main task of the commission is to 584. Who is authorized to initiate a Bill for Consti-
study and monitor all matters relating tutional Amendment?
to the constitutional and legal safeguards A. Rajya Sabha
NA

provided for women.

B. Lok Sabha
Select the correct answer using the code given C. Either A or B
below:
D. President
A. 1, 2 and 3
585. The University Grants Commission was estab-
B. 2 only lished with which of the following aims
C. 1 and 2 a) Promotion of research and development in
D. 1 and 3 higher education
580. Besides its permanent seal at Delhi, the b) Identifying and sustaining institutions of po-
Supreme Court can also meet at tential learning

300
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 c) Capacity building of teachers 590. Who was the founder of Indian National
d) Providing autonomy to each and every Congress?
higher educational institution in India A. A O. Hume
A. (a), (b), (c) and (d) B. W C. Banerjee
B. (a), (b) and (c) C. Dadabhai Naoroji
C. (b), (c) and (d) D. Motilal Nehru
D. (a), (b) and (d) 591. Whichof the following is the most industri-
586. Which one of the following would be con- alised country?
strued as a reasonable restriction of the “Right A. Bangladesh

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

to Freedom”? [CDSE 2009]
B. Malaysia
A. When the state disallows a candidate from
securing votes in the name of religion. C. Nepal

M
B. When the state disallows citizens from D. Singapore
forming a club out of state funds that denies ac- 592. The concept of ’institution of Speaker and his

RA
cess to women. role’ was taken from the constitution of
C. When the Government of Nagaland dis- A. Canada
allows temporary residents to buy immovable
property in Nagaland. B. France
RI
D. All of the above C. Germany
587. The session of the parliament is summoned by D. Britain
H

A. The President 593. Who decides disputes relating with the allot-
B. The Prime Minister ment of symbols to Political Parties
IS

C. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha A. Representation Act 1952

D. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha and the B. Representation Act 1953
JA

Chairman of the Rajya Sabh C. Representation of the People Act 1951

588. The Constituent Assembly was set up to under
D. Election Commission
the
594. Which of the following is a qualification to ac-
A. Mountbatten Plan 1947 quire Citizenship by Naturalization?
B. Cripps Mission Plan 1942
A. A person is ordinarily resident in India for
C. Cabinet Mission Plan of 1946 12 months
D. Government of India Act 1935 B. A person is in service of Government of In-
589. China has which type of Parliamentary Sys- dia from 12 months
tem? C. A person is in service of Government of In-
A. One party dia from 24 months
B. Two-party D. Both a) and b)
C. Multi-party 595. Which article was known as seven freedoms
D. None of these in our constitution

301
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 15. Miscellenous

A. Art. 17 601. Under which article of the constitution, the ex-

ecutive power of the Union is vested in the Pres-
B. Art. 32
ident?
C. Art.19
A. Article 25
D. Art. 18
B. Article 53
596. Under Constitutional Article 243U, what is
the maximum duration of Municipalities C. Article 54
D. Article 55
A. 4 years
602. Which Constitutional Article mentions

ER
B. 6 years Claims of SC and ST in Govt. services and
C. 5 years post

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

D. 3 years A. Article 336

D
597. In the Second Reading, what kind of process B. Article 335

G
is adopted to approve the Bill C. Article 338
A. A general discussion on the Bill D. Article 339

N
B. Clause by clause consideration of the Bill 603. During the time of P. V. Narsihmha Rao, what
C. A&B
D. None of the above A
was the number of President’s Rule
A. 90
H
598. Under which act, the Bicameral Central Legis- B. 100
-C
lature was established during the British period C. 7
for the first time
D. 11
A. Govt. of India Act 1938
N

604. The Ordinance refers to

B. The Indian Council Act 1861 A. the executive orders passed by the Parlia-
YA

C. Govt. of India Act 1919 ment

D. Govt. of India Act 1935 B. the executive order issued by the Presi-
dent
RA

599. Which High Court has jurisdiction over the

state of Arunachal Pradesh? C. the decision made by the Supreme Court
A. Guwahati D. the ruling given by the Speaker of Lok
Sabha
NA

B. Chandigarh
605. Which of the following groups of schedule
C. Bombay deal with the division of powers between Union
D. Calcutta and the States?
600. In which two Lok Sabhas Women Representa- A. IVth
tion was equal B. VI th
A. First and Sixth Lok Sabha C. VII th
B. First and Eighth Lok Sabha D. IX th
C. First and Fifth Lok Sabha 606. Which are the two States next to U.P. having
D. First and Ninth Lok Sabha maximum representation in Lok Sabha?

302
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 A. Bihar and Maharashtra 612. In the Constituent Assembly who proposed
B. Bihar and Madhya Pradesh the name of Dr. Rajendra Prasad as President
of India
C. Madhya Pradesh and Tamil Nadu
A. Jawaharlal Nehru
D. Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra
B. Sardar Patel
607. Who has the authority to call a joint sitting of
the two Houses of Parliament C. A&B
A. Prime Minister D. None of the above
B. President 613. Which Constitutional Article defines,
C. Member of Lok Sabha Comptroller and Auditor General of India

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

D. Member of Rajya Sabha A. Article 148
608. During the British period, under which Act B. Article 149
election was introduced in India C. Article 150

M
A. Indian Council Act 1913
D. Article 151
B. Indian Council Act 1909

RA
614. Which session of the year, President addresses
C. Indian Council Act 1906 both the Houses of Parliament
D. Indian Council Act 1907 A. First session (Budget)
609. which amendment incorporated Right to Edu- B. Second session (Monsoon)
RI
cation to the Constitution?
C. Third session (Winter)
A. 86th
D. None of the above
H

B. 42nd
615. Under which constitutional article, jurisdic-
C. 44th
IS

tion of the Supreme Court has been retained

D. 74th over the Administrative Tribunals
610. The concept of Charter of Fundamental Rights A. Article 356
JA

was taken from the constitution of

B. Article 136
A. Soviet Union
C. Article 132
B. Canada
D. Article 134
C. USA
616. Which of the following was adopted from the
D. Britain Maurya dynasty in the emblem of Government
611. Which of the following qualification is not es- of India?
sential for a person to become the Vice- Presi-
dent? A. Horse

A. He must be an Indian. B. Words Satyameva Jayate

B. He must be qualified to be a member of the C. Four lions

Rajya Sabha. D. Chariot Wheel
C. He must not be less than 35 years. 617. After retirement, a Judge of a High Court can
D. He must be a graduate. undertake practice in

303
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 15. Miscellenous

A. Any other court except the same court 623. The Directive Principles of State Policy
have been given precedence over Fundamen-
B. Wherever he intends to practice.
tal Rights in the Constitutional
C. The same court Amendment
D. Lower courts only A. 41st
618. What is the nature of the Indian Constitution B. 42nd
A. Rigid Constitution C. 43rd
B. Flexible Constitution D. 45th

ER
C. A&B 624. The idea of Fundamental Duties has been
taken from

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

D. None of the above

D
619. Which of the following is described as the A. USSR
Soul of the Constitution? B. USA

G
A. Directive Principles of State Policy C. Germany

N
B. Fundamental Rights D. France
C. Fundamental Duties 625. The Appellate Jurisdiction of the Supreme-
D. Preamble
A
Court dose not involve
H
620. Under which Government of India Act, Fed- A. Criminal Cases
eration and Provincial Autonomy were intro- B. Disputes arising out of pre-Constitution
-C
duced in India treaties and agreements
A. Govt. of India Act 1935 C. Civil Cases
N

B. Govt. of India Act 1930 D. Cases involving interpretation of the Con-

C. Govt. of India Act 1940 stitution
YA

D. Govt. of India Act 1936 626. Who curbed the Judicial Review power of Ju-
diciary through Amendment of the Constitu-
621. In the event of dissolution of Lok Sabha, who tion
RA

need not resign or get dismissed immediately

A. State Legislature
A. Prime Minister
B. Parliament
B. Home Minister
C. Council of State
NA

C. Union Council of Ministers

D. Legislative Council
D. None of the above
627. Pitt Inida Act was passed
622. How many Princely States existed at the time
when the Constituent Assembly was making A. 1784
the Constitution B. 1757
A. 600 C. 1857
B. 800 D. 1758
C. 900 628. Who decides the number of Judges in a High
D. 950 Court?

304
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 A. Governor of the State A. Local taxes
B. Parliament B. regional funds
C. President C. government grants
D. State Government D. share in Union Government revenue
629. Under Constitutional Articles 327 or 328, 634. How many members are fixed for Lok Sabha
which subject shall not be called to be ques-
tioned in any Court A. 501
A. Delimitation of Constituencies B. 551
B. The allotment of seats to such Constituency C. 530

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

D. 506
C. A&B
635. Who makes law with respect to Elections for

M
D. None of the above State Legislature
630. In which year were the first general election A. Parliament

RA
held in India?
B. Judiciary
A. 1950-51
C. Government
B. 1948-49
D. Election Commission
C. 1951-52
RI
636. Through which Supreme Court Judgement,
D. 1947-48
it has been pronounced that Chief Election
631. Which one of the following amendments of
H

Commissioner should have two other members

the Constitution of India deals with the issue called Election Commissioner with Coordinate
of strengthening of the Panchayati Raj? [NDA
IS

power
2008]
A. Durga Shankar vs. Raghuraj A.I.R. 1954
A. 42nd S.C. 520
JA

B. 44th B. Mohinder vs. Election Commission A.I.R.

C. 73rd 1978 S.C. 851

D. 86th C. Inderjeet vs. Election Commission A.I.R.

1984 S.C 1911
632. The Vice-President shall hold office for a term
of ——— years from the date on which he en- D. Dhanoa vs. Union of India A.I.R. 1991
ters upon his office S. C. 1745
A. 6 637. How many readings were held on the Consti-
tution in the Constituent Assembly
B. 4
C. 3 A. First Reading

D. 5 B. Third Reading

633. The source of maximum income to Panchayati C. Second Reading

Raj institution is: [CDSE 1993] D. None of the above
305
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 15. Miscellenous

638. In which House, Janta Government failed to A. DMK in Tamil Nadu

secure two-third majority for new clause under
B. Communist Party of India in Kerala
Article 368 for introducing referendum for ef-
fecting changes in certain logic features of the C. CPI (M) in West Bengal
Constitution D. None of the above
A. Legislative Council 643. Which Article empowers the Parliament to
B. State Legislature amend the Indian Constitution?

C. State Assembly A. Article 370

ER
B. Article 360
D. Rajya Sabha
C. Article 368

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

639. Conduct of Election Rules, 1961 was made by
the Central Govt. in consultation with which D. Article 366

D
commission 644. India is a federal state because of

G
A. Parliamentary Members Inquiry Commis- A. Dual Citizenship prevalent here
sion

N
B. Dual judiciary
B. Regional Election Commissioners
C. Share of power between the Centre and
C. Election Commission
D. None of the above A
the States
D. Written Constitution
H
640. Which one of the following statements regard- 645. In which Case did Supreme Court hold that the
-C
ing the office of the Speaker is correct? Preamble was a part of the Constitution?
A. He holds office during the pleasure of the A. Maneka Ghandhi case
President
N

B. Berubari Case
B. He need not be a member of the House at the
C. Keshavananda Bharti Case
YA

time of his election but has to become a member

of the House within six months from the date of D. Golaknath case
his election 646. Which constitutional article defines the Bar to
RA

C. He loses his office if the House is dissolved interference by Courts in disputes arising out of
before the end of its normal tenure certain treaties, agreements, etc.

D. If he intends to resign, the letter of his A. Article 363

resignation is to be addressed to the Deputy
NA

B. Article 370
Speaker
C. Article 371
641. Death penalty for drug smuggling is given in
D. Article 372
A. Thailand
647. The Speaker of the lower house of a State can
B. Singapore step down by submitting his resignation to the
C. Malaysia A. Chief Minister
D. Bangladesh B. Governor
642. First non-Congress government to come in C. Deputy Speaker of the House
power in any Indian State is D. President
306
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
648. Which Constitutional Article defines the sub- A. 2: 3
ject Officers and servants and expenses of the
B. 2: 4
Supreme Court.
C. 2: 5
A. Article 296
D. 2: 6
B. Article 147
654. The aim of value education to inculcate in stu-
C. Article 247 dents is
D. Article 245 A. the moral values
649. After independence, who decided to deter- B. the social values
mine the Future Constitution of India

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

C. the political values
A. Jawahar Lal Nehru
D. the economic values
B. Sardar Ballabh Bhai Patel
655. Who was the member of the Rajya Sabha

M
C. Constituent Assembly when first appointed as the Prime Minister of
D. None of the above India

650. The control of the preparation of electoral

rolls for parliament and legislature vests with
the
A. President
RA A. Lal Bahadur Shastri
B. Charan Singh
C. Morarji Desai
RI
D. Indira Gandhi
B. Election Commision
656. The term of Member of the Rajya Sabha is:
C. Cabinet
H

A. 5 years
D. Prime Minister
B. 6 years
IS

651. During the time of Morarji Desai and Charan

Singh, what was the number of times President C. Same as that of the Lok Sabha
Rule imposed D. Two years
JA

A. 16 657. Which of the following is not a writ issued by

a superior court to an inferior court?
B. 4
A. Mandamus
C. 5
B. Certiorari
D. 10
C. Quo Warranto
652. Rajya Sabha is dissolved once in
D. Prohibition
A. 2 years
658. Consider the following statements: A Consti-
B. 3 years tutional Government is one which 1. places ef-
C. 6 years fective restrictions on individual liberty in the
interest of State Authority 2. places effective
D. It is never dissolved
restrictions on the Authority of the State in the
653. In the National Flag, what shall be the Ratio interest of individual liberty Which of the state-
of the width to the length ments given above is / are correct?

307
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 15. Miscellenous

A. 1 only A. Soviet Union

B. 2 only. B. Germany
C. Both 1 and 2 C. Canada
D. Neither 1 nor 2 D. Britain
659. Who was the Speaker of the second Lok 664. How many Articles and Schedules were in the
Sabha First Draft Constitution presented by the Draft-
A. K. S. Hegde ing Committee to the Constituent Assembly

ER
B. M. A. Ayyangar A. 318 Articles and 7 Schedules

C. Salman Khurshid B. 319 Articles ad 10 Schedules

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

C. 315 Articles and 8 Schedules

D
D. Rabi Roy
660. Which one of the following statement is true D. 399 Articles and 5 Schedules

G
about election of Vice President 665. Consider the following statements regarding
A. Both elected and nominated members of a No-Confidence Motion in India: 1. There

N
the both Houses of Parliament can vote is no mention of a No-Confidence Motion in
the Constitution of India. 2. A Motion of No-
B. Only elected members of the both Houses
of Parliament can vote A
Confidence can be introduced in the Lok Sabha
only. Which of the statements given above is /
H
C. All members of the state legislative assem- are correct?
blies as well of UT Legislative Assemblies can
-C
A. 1 only
vote
B. 2 only
D. All of the above are false
N

661. The Constituent of India was enacted by a C. Both 1 and 2

Constituent Assembly set up D. Neither 1 nor 2
YA

A. By the Indian National Congress 666. Who appoint the Chief Election Commis-
B. Through a resolution of the provisional gov- sioner of India?
RA

ernment A. Chief Justice of India

C. Under the Cabinet Mission Plan, 1946 B. President
D. Under the Indian Independence Act, 1947 C. Prime Minister
NA

662. In Financial Emergency, salaries and al- D. Parliament

lowances of which groups get reduction
667. Where wards Committees are found
A. Central Government Employees
A. Gram Sabha
B. Judges of the Supreme Court and High
Courts B. Gram Panchayat
C. A&B C. Municipalities
D. None of the above D. None of the above
663. The concept of Single Citizenship is borrowed 668. Most-Favoured-Nations (MFN) clause under
from the Constitution of GATT implies

308
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 A. most favour to some countries 674. Which one of the following States has a sepa-
rate Constitution?
B. most favour to all countries
A. Sikkim
C. no favour to any country
B. Arunachal Pradesh
D. no favour to some countries
669. In how many parts, the Budget is presented in C. Jammu & Kashmir
Lok Sabha D. Maharashtra
A. One 675. The Institute of Ombudsman was first estab-
lished in
B. Two
A. Norway
C. Three

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

B. Sweden
D. Four
C. Finland
670. Who describes the Indian federation as ’a co-
operative federation’? D. Denmark

M
676. Constitutionally the registration and recogni-
A. Granville Austin
tion of political parties is the function per-
B. Sir Ivor Jennuings
C. k C Where
D. Alexandrowicz
RA formed by
A. The State Election Commission of respec-
tive States
671. Vice President of India draws salary in the B. The Law Ministry of Government of India
RI
designation of C. The Election Commission of India
A. Vice President of India D. Election Department of the State Govern-
H

B. President of India ments

677. Under the British Rule, who was the First
IS

C. Chairman of Rajya Sabha

Deputy President of Central Legislative Assem-
D. None of the above bly
JA

672. Article 20 of the Fundamental Rights repre- A. Shri Sachchidananda Sinha

sents which subject
B. Shri Abdul Matia Chaudhary
A. Equality of opportunity in matters of public
C. Sir Muhammad Yakub
employment
D. Shri R. R. Shamnukhaym Chetty
B. Protection in respect of Conviction of Of-
fence 678. Which Amendment Act conferred on the
Supreme Court the jurisdiction to tranfer cases
C. Protection of life and personal liberty from one High Court to another?
D. None of the above A. 43rd
673. Who appoints the Attorney General? B. 45th
A. the Prime minister C. 42nd
B. the President D. 39th
C. the Parliament 679. Which one of the following is not a Constitu-
D. the Governor tional Body?

309
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 15. Miscellenous

A. Election Commission 685. Which of the following can be done under

B. Finance Commission conditions of financial emergency? 1. State
Legislative Assemblies can be abolished. 2.
C. Union Public Service Commission Central Government can acquire control over
D. Planning Commission the budget and expenditure of States. 3.
680. Which Prime Minister of India imposed Pres- Salaries of the Judges of the High Courts and
ident Rule for more number of times the Supreme Court can be reduced. 4. Right
to Constitutional Remedies can be suspended.
A. Jawahar Lal Nehru Select the correct answer from the codes given

ER
B. Lal Bahadur Shastri below: Codes:
C. N. D. Deva Gowda A. 1, 2 and 3

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

D. Indira Gandhi B. 2, 3 and 4

D
681. Morely-Minto reform is associated with C. 1 and 2
which Act

G
D. 2 and 3
A. Indian Council Act 1856 686. Council of Ministers of the Union of India is

N
B. Indian Council Act 1909 responsible to
A. Rajya Sabha
C. Indian Council Act 1908
D. Indian Council Act 1912 A
B. Prime Minister
H
682. The Chairman of Rajya Sabha is elected by C. President
D. Lok Sabha
-C
A. elected members of Rajya Sabha
B. members of Rajya Sabha 687. Who was the Minister of Home Affairs in the
first Lok Sabha
N

C. the elected members of Rajya Sabha

A. Jagjivan Ram
D. all the members of the Parliament
YA

B. C. D. Deshmukh
683. Which of the following powers is exclusively
vested in the Rajya Sabha? C. Pandit Govind Ballabh Pant
A. creation of new all India Services. D. Abdul Kalam Azad
RA

688. Indian Constitution ensure ’Justice’ in which

B. initiation of impeachment proceedings
of the following
against the President.
A. Social
C. legislation on subjects from the Union List
NA

B. Economic
D. rejection of Money Bills.
684. To elect the President of India which one of C. Political
the following election procedures is used? D. All of the above
A. System of proportional representation by 689. In the Constituent Assembly who was the
means of a single transferable vote Head of the Union Constitution Committee
B. Proportional representation through list sys- A. Jawaharlal Nehru
tem B. Sardar Patel
C. Collective voting system C. Subhash Buse
D. Secondary voting system D. None of the above
310
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
690. Battle of Plassey was in the year 2. Children below 5 years of age are not
taken into consideration even if they are
A. 1856
able to read and write
B. 1757 3. For the purpose of census, a person is
C. 1857 deemed literate if he or she can read and
write with understanding in any of the 15
D. 1758 languages mentioned in the Eighth Sched-
691. Abolition of Untouchability deals with ule of the Constitution
A. Art. 17 4. The fact that a district has attained hun-
dred per cent literacy does not mean that
B. Art. 32 the entire population in the district is liter-

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

C. Art.14 ate

D. Art. 18 A. 1, 3 and 4

M
692. Which article is described in the Constitu- B. 2, 3 and 4
tional delberations as the soul and heart of the
C. 1, 2 and 3
constitution?
A. Art. 26
B. Art. 32
RA D. 1, 2 and 4
696. According to which article of the Indian Con-
stitution, Hindi in devnagari script is the official
language of the Union?
C. Art.19
RI
D. Art. 21A A. Article 243
693. Minimum age required to contest for Presi- B. Article 343
H

dentship is C. Article 223

IS

A. 23 years D. Article 123

B. 21 years 697. Original constitution classified Fundamental
Rights into seven categories but now there are
JA

C. 35 years
A. Six
D. 30 years
B. Five
694. The President can proclaim emergency on the
written advice of the C. Ten
A. Speaker of Lok Sabha D. Eight
B. Prime Minister 698. The Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitu-
tion contains
C. Chief Justice of India
A. States and Union Territories
D. Union Cabinet
B. Salaries of the President, Governors of
695. Which of the following statements regarding States, Judges of Supreme Court, etc.
literacy in India are correct?
C. Union List, State List and Concurrent
1. person who can only read but cannot write List
is not defined literate D. Allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha

311
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 15. Miscellenous

699. The power of the Supreme Court to review any A. Winston Churchil.
judgement pronounced or order made by it pre- B. Clement Attlee.
viously is provided in Article?
C. Mount Batten
A. 126
D. Gopalakrishna Gokhale.
B. 139
705. The concept of President as supreme comman-
C. 138 der of armed forces was taken from the consti-
D. 137 tution of

ER
700. If suitable Scheduled Caste/Tribe candidates A. USA
are not available, the posts B. Britain

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

A. May for the time being be filled by other C. Canada

D
candidates D. Soviet Union
B. Are left vacant 706. When was the last Twelfth session of the Con-

G
C. Are filled by Other Backward Classes can- stituent Assembly held

N
didates A. 24th Jan. 1950
D. None of the above B. 24th Feb. 1950
701. In case President Rule in the state is not
A
C. 24th April 1950
H
approved by the Parliament, For how many
D. 24th Dec. 1950
months the same promulgation shall last .
707. What does secularism mean?
-C
A. Four Months
A. State patronising all religions
B. Two Months
B. State having its own religion
N

C. Three Months
C. State having no official religion and citi-
YA

D. Six Months zens are free to follow any religion or faith

702. In the Parliament, what is the meaning of the D. State having one official religion and show-
Government Bill ing respect to all other religions
RA

A. Bill presented by Ruling Party member 708. Education as a subject of legislation figures in
the
B. Bill approved by the Government
A. Union List
C. Only the Prime Minister presents the Bill
NA

B. State List
D. A Bill introduced by any Minister in ei-
ther of the Houses of the Parliament C. Concurrent List
703. When was the First Lok Sabha dissolved D. Residuary Powers
709. Who among the following holds office during
A. 4th April 1957
the pleasure of the President?
B. 3rd April 1957
A. Governor
C. 6th April 1957 B. Election Commissioner
D. 8th April 1957 C. Speaker of Lok Sabha
704. Who scolded Gandhi as a half-naked fakkir? D. Prime Minister
312
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
710. How the election to either House of Parlia- 715. Who was the first Governor General of Inde-
ment or to either House of the Legislature of pendent India?
the State shall be called in question in the courts
A. Sardar Vallabhai Patel
whose manner of presentation may be provided
made by law by appropriate Legislature B. Mount Batten
A. PIL (Public Interest Litigation) C. C Rajagopal Achari
B. SLP (Special Leave Petition) D. Dr. Rajendra Prasad.
C. Action under Article 32 716. The concept of ’due procedure of law’ was
D. Election Petition taken from the constitution of
711. Who rules a State in the event of declaration A. Britain

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

of emergency under article 356?
B. Canada
A. the Prime minister
C. Japan

M
B. the President
D. USA
C. the Parliament
717. The five year term of the President is calcu-
D. the Governor
712. Which of the following is not true regarding
the payment of the emoluments of the Presi-
dent?
RA lated from the
A. First day of the month following the month
he assumes charge
RI
A. They can be reduced during a Financial B. Date of his election result
Emergency. C. Day he assumes charge
H

B. They are shown separately in the budget. D. First day of the month he assumes charge
C. They are charged on the Contigency Fund 718. Under Article 326, what was the Constitu-
IS

of India. tional requirment for the Indian citizen not to

D. They do not require any parliament sanc- become eligible as a voter
tion.
JA

A. Non Resident
713. How many Schedules are incorporated in the
B. Unsoundness of Mind
Constitution of India
C. Crime or Corrupt or Illegal practive
A. Eleventh Schedule
B. Tenth Schedule D. All the above

C. Ninth Schedule 719. Who among the following was a moderate

leader of Indian National Congress?
D. Twelfth Schedule
A. Bala Gangadar Tilak
714. How many number of sessions were held in
the Constituent Assembly B. Sarojini Naidu
A. Twenty sessions C. Gopala Krishna Gokhale
B. Twelve sessions D. Subash Chandra Bose
C. Twenty-five sessions 720. India is opposed to the Nuclear Non-
D. Twenty-eight sessions proliferation Treaty (NPT) because

313
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 15. Miscellenous

A. It is discriminatory against the non- A. 42nd

nuclear powers
B. 44th
B. It forbids India to use nuclear energy for
peaceful purposes C. 45th

C. It aims at making South Asia a nuclear free D. 43rd

zone 726. Deemed Universities declared by UGC under
D. It allows Pakistan to develop its own nuclear Section 3 of the UGC Act 1956, are not permit-
capability ted to

ER
721. Who among the following did not serve as the A. Offer programmes in higher education and
Vice president before becoming president of In- issue degrees.

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

dia?
B. give affiliation to any institute of higher ed-

D
A. Dr. S Radhakrishnan ucation.
B. Dr. Zakir Hussain

G
C. open off-campus and off-shore campus
C. Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy anywhere in the country and overseas respec-

N
D. R. Venkataraman tively without the permission of the UGC.

722. Indian National Congress began to work as a D. offer distance education programmes with-
political party since
A
out the approval of the Distance Education
Council
H
A. 1946
727. Consider the following statements: 1. The
B. 1885
-C
Council of Ministers in the Centre shall be col-
C. 1907 lectively responsible to the Parliament. 2. The
D. 1920 Union Ministers shall hold the office during
N

the pleasure of the President of India. 3. The

723. What is the maximum period during which
Prime Minister shall communicate to the Presi-
YA

Parliament may not meet?

dent about the proposals for Legislation.
A. Six months
A. only 1
B. One year
RA

B. only 2 and 3
C. Two years
C. only 1 and 3
D. Three years
724. In the absence of the Speaker who performs D. 1, 2 and 3
NA

the duties of transacting the business in Lok 728. Which of the following is not included in Fun-
Sabha damental Rights in the Constitution of India?
A. Deputy Speaker A. Right to property
B. Prime Minister
B. Right to freedom of religion
C. Members of Parliament
C. Right to vote in all elections
D. Parliamentary Affairs Minister
D. Right to freedom of speech and expression
725. Which of the following amendments took
away the right to property from the list of the 729. When the Vice President officiates as Presi-
fundamental rights? dent he draws the salary of

314
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 A. Chairman of Rajya Sabha 735. The members of the Constituent Assembly
B. President were

C. Both A and B A. Elected by Provincial Assemblies

D. Member of Parliament B. Only representatives of the princely states.
730. Within what period, the Parliament has to
C. Elected directly by people.
approve Financial emergency declared by the
President D. Nominated by the government.
A. Six Months
736. Which of the following are Central Univer-
B. Two Months sities? 1. Pondicherry University 2. Vishwa

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

C. Three Months Bharati 3. H.N.B. Garhwal University 4. Ku-
rukshetra University Select the correct answer
D. Four Months from the code given below:
731. For which Election, one General Electoral

M
Roll for every territorial Constituency shall ex- A. 1, 2 and 3
ist B. 1, 3 and 4
A. Lok Sabha
B. Rajya Sabha
C. Legislature
RA C. 2, 3 and 4
D. 1, 2 and 4

737. The reduced number of the Constituent As-

RI
D. All the above
sembly members after the partition was
732. Acts and Regulations validated by Article 31
are specified in of the Constitution A. 299
H

A. Concurrent List B. 333

IS

B. State List
C. 365
C. Union List
D. 305
JA

D. Ninth Schedule
733. Which of the following is enforceable in a 738. The Chief Minister of a State In India is NOT
court of law? eligible to vote in the Presidential election if
A. Fundamental Rights A. he himself is a candidate
B. Fundamental Duties B. he is yet to prove his majority on the floor
C. Directive Principles of the Lower House of the State legislature
D. Preamble C. he is a member of the Upper House of the
734. What was the name of India’s First Legisla- State legislature
ture
D. he is a caretaker Chief Minister
A. Parliament
739. Article 340 of the Constitution of India pro-
B. Union Parliament
vides for the appointment of a Commission to
C. Constituent Assembly investigate the conditions for the improvement
D. National Assembly. of: [CDSE 2004]

315
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 15. Miscellenous

A. Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes A. Prime Minister

B. Socially and Educationally Backward B. President
Classes
C. Parliament
C. Socially and Economically Backward
D. the national Development Council
Classes
745. Most of the Universities in India
D. Educationally and Economically Backward
Classes A. conduct teaching and research only
740. In which of the following situations does the B. affiliate colleges and conduct examinations

ER
President act in his own discretion? C. conduct teaching/research and examina-
tions

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

A. In returning a proposal to the Council of
Ministers for reconsideration

D
D. promote research only
B. None of the Above 746. In the election of Vice-President ——– type

G
C. In appointing the Prime Minister of ballots are used

N
D. Both of these A. Semi Secret Ballot

741. The office of Governor General of India was B. Open Ballot

created by
A
C. Secret Ballot
H
A. Government of India Act, 1935 D. None of the above
B. Charter Act, 1833 747. In the last session of the Constituent Assembly
-C

C. Charter Act, 1813 which song was sung

A. Jan Gana Mana
D. Governor of India Act, 1858
N

742. Who was the head of the committee, known as B. Vande Matram
YA

Nehru Committee? C. A&B

A. B K Nehru D. None of the above
B. Arun Nehru 748. Most of the Universities in India are funded
RA

by
C. Motilal Nehru
A. the Central Government
D. Jawaharlal Nehru
B. the State Governments
NA

743. Being a non-member who among the follow-

ing can participate in the proceedings of either C. the University Grants Commission
House of Parliament without having the voting
D. Private bodies and Individuals
right?
749. The quorum for the join sitting of the Indian
A. Vice-President Parliament is: [CDSE 2009]
B. Chief Justice of India A. 1/12th of the total members of the house.
C. Comptroller & Auditor-General B. 1/6th of the total members of the house.
D. Attorney General C. 1/10th of the total members of the house.
744. An Inter -State Council may be established by D. 2/3rd of the total members of the house.
316
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
750. Which Constitutional Article defines func- 755. What was the ’privy purse’ in the context of
tions of Comptroller and Auditor General of In- the history of Modern India?
dia.
A. A purse given privately by one organization
A. Article 148-150 to another
B. Article 149-150 B. A purse given by the government of India to
C. Article 148-155 dignitaries for service rendered
D. Article 148-151 C. A grant given by the Government of India
751. Who was the great disciple of Ramakrishna to the erstwhile Princes of India
Parama Hamsan D. A gift given by an erstwhile Prince of India
A. Swami Dayanand to the Government of India

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

756. Who appoints the Finance Commission?
B. Sree Narayana Guru
C. Rajaram Mohan Roy A. the Prime Minister

M
D. Swami Vivekananda B. the President
752. Who has the Authority to approve President C. the Parliament

RA
Rule in the state D. the Governor
A. Parliament 757. Indian councils act 1909 is also called as
B. Lok Sabha A. Minto- morely reforms
C. State Legislature
RI
B. Montague- Chemsgord reforms
D. Council of State
C. Cripps proposal
753. The Members of the Constituent Assembly
H

were D. Mount batten plan

A. Elected by Provincial Assemblies 758. The President may for violation of the Consti-
IS

tution be removed from the office by

B. Nominated by princely States
A. The Prime Minister
C. Nominated by Chief Commissioners’
JA

Provinces B. The Electoral College consisting of mem-

bers of Parliament and the State Legislatures.
D. All the above
C. Impeachment
754. Assertion (A): Minimum wages in India are
fixed in accordance with the levels of living and D. no- confidence vote
the labour participation ratios. 759. When did the Constituent Assembly adopt Na-
Reason (R): All workers covered by the Min- tional Anthem
imum Wages Acts are above the poverty line.
Of these statements A. 25th Jan. 1950

A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct B. 26th Jan. 1950
explanation of C. 24th Jan. 1950
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the cor- D. 29th Jan. 1950
rect explanation of
760. The Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER) in insti-
C. A is correct while R is wrong tutions of higher education in India at present
D. A is wrong while R is correct (2015) is about

317
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 15. Miscellenous

A. 8 percent 766. In the First Lok Sabha, how many seats were
B. 12 percent A. 500
C. 19 percent B. 499
D. 23 percent C. 544
761. When a State Governor dies or resigns, who D. 521
normally exercises his functions till a new Gov-
ernor is appointed? 767. Which Constitutional Article empowers the
State Legislature to adopt Hindi or any state

ER
A. Chief Justice of the High Court language as the official language of that state
B. Advocate General of the State A. Article 345

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

C. Secretary General of the Governor B. Article 346

D
D. A person designated by State Cabinet C. Article 348

G
762. Who acts as the President of India when nei-
D. Article 349
ther the President nor the Vice President is

N
available? 768. Who was the Speaker of the Constituent As-
sembly
A. Seniormost Governor of a State
B. Chief Justice of India
A
A. Sir Abdul Rahim
B. G. V. Mavalankar
H
C. Speaker of Lok Sabha
C. M. A. Ayyangar
D. Auditor General of India
-C

763. Who appoints the Finance Commission? D. Sir Ibrahim Rahim Toola
769. In which amendment the right to property was
A. the President
N

deleted from Fundamental Rights?

B. the Prime Minister
A. 42nd
YA

C. the Parliament
B. 44th
D. the Governor
C. 73rd
RA

764. The South Asia University is situated in the

city of D. 48th
A. Colombo 770. How many nominated members are in Rajya
Sabha?
NA

B. Dhaka
A. 5
C. New Delhi
B. 7
D. Kathmandu
C. 11
765. In the Federation established by the Act 1935,
residuary powers were given to the D. 13
A. Federal Legislature 771. The concept lok Adalat is mainly to expedite
cases relating to: 1. Matrimonial dispute 2.
B. Provincial Legislature
murder 3. motor vehicle accidents 4. suits re-
C. Governor General lating to banks Which one of these statements
D. Provincial Governors are correct?

318
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 A. 1, 3 and 4 776. Which of the following are the circumstances
under which an elected member of Parliament
B. 3, 4 and 5
may be disqualified on the ground of defection?
C. 1, 2 and 4
1. If he voluntarily gives up his membership
D. 1, 3 1) The provisions in Fifth Schedule and
of a political party
Sixth Schedule in the Constitution of India are
made in order to 2. If he votes or abstains from voting con-
trary to any direction issued by his polit-
E. protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes
ical party without prior permission of the
F. determine the boundaries between States political party
G. determine the powers, authority and respon- 3. If he speaks against the political party

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

sibilities of Panchayats
4. If he joins a political party other than the
H. protect the interests of all the border States party on whose ticket he contested and got
772. What is the meaning of Foreign State as given elected

M
in our Indian Constitution
Select the correct answer from the codes given
A. Federal State below:
B. Commonwealth State
C. Nation
D. Any State other than India
RA A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1, 2 and 4
RI
C. 1, 3 and 4
773. Who has the power to accord his assent or
withhold his assent to a Bill passed by the par- D. 2, 3 and 4
H

liament 777. What is the minimum percentage of the

A. President strength of opposition required in a State leg-
IS

islature for the appointment of an opposition

B. Member of the House leader?
C. Minister
A. 20%
JA

D. None of the above

B. 25%
774. Which one of the following is the largest Com-
mittee of the Parliament? C. 40%

A. The Committee on Public Accounts D. None of the above

B. The Committee on Estimates 778. Lawmaking procedure was taken from the
constitution of
C. The Committee on Public Undertakings
D. The Committee on Petitions. A. Britain

775. Who appoints Chief Election Commissioner B. Soviet Union

A. President C. South Africa
B. Prime Minister D. Ireland
C. Parliament 779. Which article says about term of office of Vice
D. None of the above President

319
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 15. Miscellenous

A. Article 66 A. Elected members of Lok Sabha and State

Legislative Assemblies.
B. Article 67
B. Elected member of both Houses of Par-
C. Article 65
liament and State Legislative Assembly
D. Article 69 C. Elected members of both Houses of Parlia-
780. What is the period laid down by the Constitu- ment.
tion before the proposal for removal of Speaker D. Elected member of State Legislative As-
and Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha can be taken semblies

ER
up by a resolution in the Lok Sabha
785. The Constitution of India contains ——– arti-
A. 15 Days cles

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

B. 18 Days A. 448

D
C. 16 Days B. 395

G
D. 14 Days C. 410

N
781. The minimum age required for becoming the D. 380
Prime Minister of India is 786. Which Articles in the Indian Constitution rep-
A. 30 years
A
resent emergency provisions
A. Article 348-354
H
B. 35 years
B. Article 352-360
C. 40 years
-C
C. Article 359-361
D. 25 years
D. Article 368-380
782. Which of the following political parties was
N

first de-recognized and later on again recog- 787. The appointment of the Judges of Supreme
nized as a National Party by Election Commis- Court is done by
YA

sion of India? A. The Prime Minister on the advice of the

A. Communist Party of India Union Cabinet
RA

B. Communist Party of India-Marxist B. The President in consultation with the

Chief Justice of India
C. Samajwadi Party
C. The Prime Minister in consultation with the
D. Republican Party of India Chief Justice
NA

783. What are the name of list of subjects enumer- D. The President in consultation with the Law
ated in Schedule- VII of Indian Constitution Commission of India
A. Union list 788. In the Constituent Assembly, which parties
were members
B. State list
A. Congress, Muslim League, Unionist Mus-
C. Concurrent list lim
D. All the above B. Unionist Scheduled Caste, Krishak Poja,
784. The President of India is elected by an Elec- Scheduled Castes Federation, Sikh (Non
toral College comprising of Congress)

320
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 C. Communists, Independents A. Political Revolution
D. All the above B. Discussion
789. Who was the first Prime Minister of India at C. Made by a body of eminent representatives
the time of Provisional Parliament of the people

A. Jawahar Lal Nehru D. All the above

795. In the Constitution of India, the term Federal
B. Lal Bahadur Shastri
A. figures in the Preamble
C. Indira Gandhi
B. figures in part III of the Constitution
D. Rajiv Gandhi C. figures in Article 368

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790. Governor issues a notification for which areas D. does not figure anywhere
on the subject of constitution of Municipal area
796. Indian Federalism is described as
A. A Transitional Area A. a federal structure with centralising fea-

M
B. A Smaller Urban Area tures
B. a unitary structure with federal features

RA
C. A Larger Urban Area
C. more federal and less unitory
D. All the above
D. a federation of states
791. Which colours are included in the National
Flag 797. First woman judge to be appointed to Supreme
RI
Court was:
A. Deep Saffron
A. Rani Jethmalani
B. White
H

B. Anna George Malhotra

C. Dark Green C. M. Fathima Beevi
IS

D. All the above D. Leila Seth

792. Fundamental Rights are not applicable to 798. The Chairman of the Planning Commission in
India is the
JA

A. Armed Forces
A. President
B. Foreign Citizens
B. Prime Minister
C. Government Civilian Employees C. Minister of Planning
D. None of the above D. Finance Minister
793. What shall be the composition of National 799. Which of the following territories is not abso-
Commission for SC and ST lutely independent?

A. Chairperson A. Hong Kong

B. Singapore
B. Vice-Chairperson
C. Switzerland
C. Five other members
D. Mozambique
D. All the above
800. During the time of Indira Gandhi, what was
794. Indian Republic is not the product of the number of President’s Rule imposed

321
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 15. Miscellenous

A. 16 806. Which two houses, can have a joint sitting

B. 48 A. Legislative Assembly and Parliament
C. 4 B. Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
D. 6 C. Council of State and Legislative Council
801. Who is called as the father of Indian unrest D. None of the above
A. Bala Gangadar Tilak 807. What will follow if a Money Bill is substan-
B. Bibin Chandra Pal tially amended by the Rajya Sabha?

ER
C. Gopala Krishna Gokhale A. The Lok Sabha may still proceed with the
Bill, accepting or not accepting the recommen-
D. Lala Lajpat Rai

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

dations of the Rajya Sabha
802. The Preamble to the Indian Constitution is

D
B. The Lok Sabha cannot consider the Bill fur-
borrowed from the
ther

G
A. Objective Resolution passed by the Con-
C. The Lok Sabha may send the Bill to the Ra-
stituent Assembly
jya Sabha for reconsideration

N
B. Sacred text of various religions
D. The President may call a joint sitting for
C. Indian Philosophy
D. None of the above A
passing the Bill
808. Which Constitutional Article defines qualifi-
H
803. Bengal was partioned in the year cations for the Indian citizen for election to a
State Legislature
-C
A. 1905
A. Article 173
B. 1911
B. Article 175
N

C. 1857
C. Article 177
D. 1947
YA

D. Article 178
804. The Constitution of India was promulgated on
January 26, 1950 because 809. In which Schedule of the Constitution salaries
and allowances for the Chairman and Deputy
A. It was an auspicious day.
RA

Chairman of Rajya Sabha and Speaker and

B. This day was being celebrated as the In- Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha are specified
dependence Day since 1929.
A. First
C. It was the wish of the farmers of the Consti-
NA

B. Second
tution.
C. Third
D. The British did not want to leave India ear-
lier than this date. D. Fourth
805. The Preamble of Indian Constitution has been 810. Indian Constitution is called Quasi-Federal
amended so far because it has
A. Twice A. Union of states
B. Once B. Single Citizenship
C. Never C. Single Judiciary
D. More than three times D. Residue Power to Central Government
322
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
811. The Supreme Court originally consisted of A. Unites States of America
how many other judges besides the Chief Jus-
B. Soviet Union
tice?
C. Australia
A. 6
D. Canada
B. 12
817. The Right to equality guaranteed by the Indian
C. 14
Constitution does not include
D. 7
A. Equality of status
812. Which Constitutional Article deals with ‘Rep-
resentation of the Anglo-Indian Community’ B. Economic equality

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

with House of the People C. Equality of opportunity
A. Article 334 D. Equality before law
B. Article 331 818. Proclamation of emergency by the President

M
C. Article 332 of India can be made on the written provision
of the Cabinet only. This has been added

RA
D. Article 333
A. After 44th constitutional amendment
813. In which of the following years did Right to
Information Act came in to Force? [CDSE B. after 42nd amendment
2008] C. by the Constituent assembly
RI
A. 2003 D. the Supreme Court of India in 1975
B. 2004 819. When a financial emergency is proclaimed
H

C. 2005 A. Union budget will not be presented

IS

D. 2006 B. Salaries and allowances of any class of

814. Who elected Dr. Rajendra Prasad as the First employees may be reduced
President of India C. Repayment of government debts will stop
JA

A. Constituent Assembly D. Payment of salaries to public servants will

B. Legislative Assembly be postponed
C. Council of State 820. To elect the President of India, which one of
the following election procedures is used?
D. Lok Sabha
A. System of proportional representation by
815. The Cabinet Mission to India was headed by means of the single transferable vote
A. Stafford Cripps
B. Secondary voting system
B. Hugh Gaitskell
C. Proportional representation through list sys-
C. A.V. Alexander tem
D. Lord Pethick Lawrence D. Collective Voting system
816. The Indian Federal system is modeled on the 821. How many judges are there in the Interna-
Federal system of tional Court of Justice?

323
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 15. Miscellenous

A. 10 A. 1 and 2
B. 12 B. 2 and 3
C. 15 C. 1, 2 and 3
D. 20 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
822. The President of India is 826. The Fundamental Rights, which cannot be
suspended even during the emergency are
A. The Head of State
A. Articles 20 and 22

ER
B. The Head of Government
B. Articles 20 and 21
C. Both Head of the State and the Head of

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

the Government C. Articles 19 and 32

D
D. None of the above D. Articles 17 and 20

823. The term of office of the Advocate General of 827. In which Supreme Court Judgement. it has

G
a State is: been pronounced that ‘Article 356 cannot be in-
voked unless it can be held that government of

N
A. 4 years the state cannot be run in accordance with the
provision of the Constitution’
B. 5 years
C. 6 years or 65 years of age whichever is ear- A
A. Arun vs. Union of India A.I.R. 1992 Alla-
H
habad S.C. 1918
lier
B. S. R. Bommai vs. Union of India A.I.R.
-C
D. not fixed
1990 Kant 95
824. The concept of Concurrent List was taken
C. A&B
from the constitution of
N

D. None of the above

A. Ireland
YA

828. The Constitution of India was adopted on:

B. Australia
A. 26 January 1950
C. Britain
B. 26 November 1949
RA

D. Canada
C. 26 December 1949
825. Considerthe following activities indulged in
by a candidate during an election campaign: D. 01 January 1950
NA

829. Which Fundamental Right deleted by 44th

1. Giving gifts to voters to inducethem to constitutional amendment?
vote
A. Right to equality
2. Appealing for votes on the groundsof
caste or religion B. Right to Assembly
3. False character assassination ofother can- C. Right to Property
didates
D. Right to Expression
4. Propagation and glorification ofsati
830. In the Constituent Assembly, what was the
Which of these constitute the corruptprac-
number of population fixed for one Represen-
tices?
tative

324
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 A. 7, 500 C. Bombay
B. 7, 50, 000 D. Porbandher
C. 50, 000 835. Which constitutional article provides personal
D. 78, 500 immunity to the head of the states for his of-
ficial act from legal action, including proceed-
831. Consider the following statements: Attorney ings for contempt of Court
General of India can 1. take part in the pro-
ceedings of the Lok Sabha 2. be a member of A. Article 361
a committee of the Lok Sabha 3. speak in the B. Article 362
Lok Sabha 4. vote in the Lok Sabha Which of
the statements given above is/are correct? C. Article 368

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

A. 1 only D. Article 369
B. 2 and 4 836. Decision on question as to disqualifications of
membership of either House of Parliament rests

M
C. 1, 2 and 3
with the
D. 1 and 3 only
A. Election Commission
832. In which Supreme Court Judgement it has
been pronounced that the Union Government
cannot dismiss a duly elected State Government
on the sole ground that the ruling party in the
RA B. the Chief justice of India
C. the Parliament
D. President after consultation with the
RI
state suffered an overwhelming defeat in the
election of the Lok Sabha Election commission
A. S. R. Bommai vs. Union of India A.I.R. 837. Who decides de-recognition of the Political
H

1994 S.C. 1916 Party solely on the basis of its performance at

the election, e.g., bycotting of the election
IS

B. State of Rajasthan vs. Union of India A.I.R.

1977 S.C. 1361 A. Supreme Court of India
C. A&B B. Election Commission
JA

D. None of the above C. High Court

833. Under which Constitutional Amendment Act, D. District Court
Article 368 of the Constitution was amended
for the first time 838. Who among the following appointed by the
Governor can be removed by only the President
A. 25th Amendment Act of India?
B. 26th Amendment Act A. Chief Minister of a State
C. 24th Amendment Act B. A member of the State Public Service
D. 27th Amendment Act Commission
834. Where did M.K.Gandhi experiment sathya- C. Advocate-General
graha in India first?
D. Vice-Chancellor of a State University
A. Chambaran
839. Montagu-Chelmsford report is associated with
B. Jallian vala bagh which Govt of India Act

325
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 15. Miscellenous

A. Govt. of India Act 1918 A. By the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
B. Govt. of India Act 1920 B. By the President
C. Govt. of India Act 1930 C. On the basis of a resolution of the Cabinet

D. Govt. of India Act 1919 D. On the basis of proved misbehaviour by

2/3rd majority of both Houses of Parliament
840. The concept of Judicial review was taken from
845. Identify the correct sequence of passing a bud-
the constitution of
get in the Parliament: [CDSE 2009]
A. Soviet Union

ER
A. Vote on Account - Finance Bill - Appropri-
B. USA ation Bill - Discussion on Budget

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

C. Canada B. Finance Bill - Appropriation Bill - Discus-

D
sion on Budget - Vote on Accounts
D. Britain
C. Discussion on Budget - Vote on Accounts -

G
841. Match: List I List II Measuring instruments Finance Bill - Appropriation Bill
Which measure . Anemometer 1. Motor power

N
D. Discussion on Budget - Appropriation
. Tachometer 2. Wind speed . Dynamometer 3.
Bill - Finance Bill - Vote on Accounts
Revolutions per minute . Barometer 4. Atmo-
spheric pressure 5. Current from a dynamo
A
846. Which authority in the Parliament has the right
to adjourn the House
H
A. 1 3 5 4
A. Speaker of Lok Sabha and Chairman of
B. 2 1 3 4 Rajya Sabha
-C

C. 2314 B. President
D. 1 3 5 2 C. Parliamentary Affairs Minister
N

842. Centre-State financial relations are looked af- D. Prime Minister

YA

ter by the 847. Who was the first Deputy Chairman of Rajya
A. Finance Commission Sabha?
A. Violet Alva
RA

B. Sarkaria Commission
B. S.V.Krishnamoorthy Rao
C. Ministry of Finance
C. B. D. Khobragade
D. Planning Commission
NA

D. Godey Murahari
843. Which act introduced dyarchy in the
provinces? 848. Chief Ministers of all the states are ex-officio
members of the
A. Indian Councils Act 1909
A. Planning Commission
B. Government of India Act1919
B. National Development Council
C. Government of India Act1935 C. Inter State Council
D. Indian Independence act 1947. D. Finance Commission
844. The Chief Election Commissioner can be re- 849. Which of the following declares India to be a
moved from his office: federal state?

326
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 A. Golak Nath Case Set - I Set - II
B. Bommai Case (A) person with (i) List system
maximum num-
C. Shankari Prasad Case ber of votes gets
elected
D. Minerva Mill Case
( b ) person votes (ii) Limited vote
850. The sequence in which the given terms are for the party not for plan
mentioned in the preamble to the Constitution the candidate
of India is (c ) 1 candidate = (iii) Single transfer-
A. Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Demo- 1 vote able vote
cratic, Republics ( d ) 1 elector = (iv) Relative major-

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

many votes ity
B. Socialist, Secular, Sovereign, Democratic,
(v) Cumulative
Republic
vote

M
C. Secular, Socialist, Sovereign, Democratic,
Republics A. a- (i), b- (ii), c- (iii), d- (iv)

RA
D. Sovereign, Democratic, Socialist, Secular, B. a-(iv), b- (i), c- (ii), d- (v)
Republics
C. a-(v), b- (iv), c- (ii), d- (i)
851. The Supreme Court has the exclusive jurisdic-
D. a- (ii), b- (v), c- (i), d- (iii)
tion in regard to
RI
855. The case of dispute in the presidential election
A. constitutional validity of state laws is referred to
B. constitutional validity of concurrent laws A. Chief Election Commissioner
H

C. constitutional validity of central laws B. Supreme Court

IS

D. none of the above C. Parliament

852. What is the maximum strength of the Legisla- D. None of these
tive Assembly?
JA

856. India has been described as

A. 400
A. Union of States
B. 500 B. Federation of States
C. 425 C. Confederation of states
D. 545 D. Centralisation of State
853. Article 18deals with 857. Which Amendment of the Constitution gave
A. Abolition of Titiles priority to Directive Principles over Fundamen-
tal Rights?
B. Abolition Untouchability
A. 36th Amendment
C. Equality of Participation
B. 38th Amendment
D. Equality of Expression
C. 40th Amendment
854. Matchthe following: D. 42nd Amendment
327
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 15. Miscellenous

858. The Supreme Court or High Court command- 863. If President wants to resign, he should address
ing a person or a body to do that which is his or his resignation letter to the
its duty to do is A. Parliament
A. mandamus B. Prime Minister
B. Habeas Corpus C. Chief Justice of India
C. prohibition D. Vice-President
D. certiorari 864. The maximum age prescribed for election as

ER
859. Which one of the following does not constitute president is
the electoral college for electing the President A. No such Limit
of India?

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

B. 62 years

D
A. Elected members of Lok Sabha
C. 58 years
B. Elected members of the Legislative Assem-

G
bly of each state. D. 60 years
865. TheInterest Rate Policy is a component of
C. Elected members of the Legislative

N
Council A. Fiscal Policy
D. Elected members of Rajya Sabha
860. Ina political party of 36 members, the min- A
B. Monetary Policy
C. Trade Policy
H
imum number of members needed to splitfor
D. Direct Control
disqualifying the original political party as per
-C

Anti-Defection Law shouldbe 866. The Preamble states that the Constitution de-
rives its authority from
A. 12
A. Indian Culture
N

B. 18
B. Government of India
YA

C. 24
C. The People of India
861. Through which Constituional Article, the sub-
ject of Bar to interference by courts in electoral D. Princely States
RA

matters have been elaborated 867. Who appoints the Governor of Jammu and
Kashmir?
A. Article 327
A. Chief Minister of the State
B. Article 229
NA

B. Prime Minister
C. Article 329
C. Chief Justice of the High Court
D. None of the above
862. Which part of the Constitution refers to the D. President
responsibility of the state towards international 868. Which Constitutional Amendment introduced
peace and security? the subject Tribunal in the Indian Constitution
A. Fundamental Rights A. Forty-second Amendement Act
B. Directive Principles of State Policy B. Sixty-ninth Amendment Act
C. emergency provisions C. Seventeenth Amendment Act
D. Preamble of the Constitution D. Seventy-one Amendment Act

328
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
869. Who declares the financial emergency A. While one-third of the members of the Ra-
jya Sabha retire every second year, one-fourth
A. President
of the members of the Legislative Council re-
B. Prime Minister tire every eighteen months
C. Finance Minister B. There is no provision for a joint sitting
of the Legislative Assembly and the Legislative
D. None of the above Council in the States for resolving deadlocks
870. Which of the following Fundamental rights is while there is such a provision in the case of
guaranteed only to the citizens the two Houses of Parliament

A. Equality before law C. While no Bill other than a Money Bill can
originate in the State Legislative Council, no

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

B. Freedom of speech and expression Bill can originate in the Rajya Sabha
C. Right to life and liberty D. While Rajya Sabha has twelve nominated
members, the State Legislative Council has

M
D. Right to freedom of religion
none
871. Who among the following introduced local 875. Through which procedure, a writ can be filed

RA
self-government in India? in the Supreme Court against decision of the
A. Lord Mountbatten Election Commission on recognising or de-
recognising a political party for the purpose of
B. Lord Rippon an electoral symbol, or which group within a
particular party, constitutes that party for been
RI
C. Lord Cunning
allotted of Election symbol to that party
D. Lord Macaulay
A. Under Article 32
H

872. Which Supreme Court judgement described

the basic structure of the Constitution of India B. Under Article 229
IS

for the first time C. Special leave petition

A. Sankari Prasad vs. Union of India D. Public Interest Litigation
876. Did the Constituent Assembly exist at the time
JA

B. Kesavananda vs. State of Kerala

of Indian Independence
C. Indira Gandhi vs. Union of India
A. No
D. Golak Nath vs. State of Punjab
B. Only idea emerged
873. A Municipal Council is situated in which area C. Yes
A. Larger Urban area D. Uncertainty regarding formation of said As-
B. Urban area sembly
877. In the Indian Constitution, the power to issue
C. Smaller Urban area
a writ of Hebeas Corpus is vested
D. None of the above
A. the Supreme Court
874. Which one of the following correctly reflects B. the High Courts
the position of the Upper House of the State leg-
islature as compared to the position of the Up- C. the Subordinate courts
per House of the Parliament? D. the Supreme Corts and the High Courts

329
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 15. Miscellenous

878. The two highest gallantry awards in India are 883. On whose satisfaction period of emergency
shall be extended for operation in case secu-
A. Param Vir Chakra and Maha Vir Chakra
rity of India or any part of the Indian territory is
B. Param Vir Chakra and Vir Chakra threatened
C. Ashok Chakra and Maha Vir Chakra A. Prime Minister
D. Param Vir Chakra and Ashok Chakra B. Home Minister
879. In the Constituent Assembly how many total C. President of India
number of Amendments were proposed in the

ER
Draft Constitution D. Vice-President of India

A. Approx. 7935 884. The important test to identify the basic fea-

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

tures of the Indian Constitution is
B. Approx. 7892

D
A. Directive Principles of State Policy
C. Approx. 7365
B. Preamble

G
D. Approx. 2473
C. Fundamental rights
880. Who was the de facto Prime Minister at the

N
time of evolution of the Indian Constituent As- D. Fundamental duties
sembly
A. Moti Lal Nehru A
885. After the death of Shri G. V. Mavrlankar, who
became the Speaker of the first Lok Sabha
H
B. Sardar Ballabh Bhai Patal A. M. A. Ayyangar
B. K.S. Hegde
-C
C. Jawahar Lal Nehru
D. H. N. Kunzru C. N. Sanjiva Reddy
N

881. andamus means D. None of the above

A. writ issued by a superior court command 886. The final interpreter to Indian Constitution is
YA

that a specified thing be done. A. President

B. legal term for a prisoners right to appear in B. Supreme Court
person and be tried in court.
RA

C. Parliament
C. written public declaration of the intentions,
opinions or motives of a sovereign or of a D. Supreme Courts
leader, party or body. 887. Rajya Sabha has equal powers with Lok
NA

Sabha
D. The principle of hybridisation, discovered
by Gregor Mendel which led to the improved A. in the matters of creating a new All India
breeds of plant and animal life. Service
882. The Ninth Schedule was added to the Consti- B. in amending the Constitution
tution by the
C. in the removal of the Government
A. 1st Amendment
D. in making cut motions
B. 9th Amendment
888. Parliamentor a State Legislature can declare a
C. 11th Amendment seat vacant if a member abstains himselfwith-
D. 2nd Amendment out permission from the sessions for atleast

330
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 A. 30 days A. Punjabi
B. 60 days B. Manipuri
C. 90 days C. Hindi
D. 120 days D. Urdu
889. In Lok Sabha, who can not preside in the 894. Election to the house of the people and the
House while a Resolution for Removal from his Legislative Assemblies of States in India are
office is under consideration conducted on the basis of
A. Speaker A. Single Transferable vote

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

B. Deputy Speaker B. Proportional Representation
C. A&B C. Limited suffrage
D. None of the above D. Adult Franchise

M
890. The Parliament can make any law for whole or 895. Who decides disputes regarding the election
any part of India for implementing international of the Vice President?
treaties
A. with the consent of all the States
B. with the consent of the majority of States
RA A. President
B. Supreme Court
C. Election Commission
RI
C. with the consent of the States concerned
D. Parliament
D. without the consent of any State
H

896. Which Constitutional Institution conducts

891. Who was the first Speaker of free India’s first elections of Parliament and State Legislatures
IS

Legislature (Constituent Assembly) and to the offices of President and Vice-

President
A. G. V. Mavalankar
A. State Election Commission
JA

B. K. M. Munshi
B. Provisional Election Commission
C. Frank Anthony
C. Election Commission
D. Smt. Sarojini Naidu
D. None of the above
892. Which Article of the Constitution of In-
dia mentioned the posts of the Chairman and 897. Who among the following can attend meetings
Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha of the Union Cabinet?
A. 90 A. President
B. 89 B. Deputy Ministers
C. 93 C. Ministers of State
D. 94 D. Cabinet Ministers
893. In Article 394A which language is the author- 898. Who was the last British Governor General
itative text of the constitution of India who addressed the Constituent Assembly

331
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 15. Miscellenous

A. Lord Attlee 904. January 26th was selected as the date for the
inauguration of the Constitution because
B. Lord Mount Batten
C. Lord Bentick A. Quit India Movement announced

D. None of the above B. Congress had observed it as the Indepen-

dence Day in 1930
899. Which article in the Constitution of India de-
fines effect of proclamation of Emergency C. Constituent Assembly was established for
framing the Constitution?
A. Article 356

ER
D. None of the above
B. Article 353
905. Which Chief Election Commissioner appealed
C. Article 354

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

the Supreme Court that under Article 324, Elec-
D. Article 257 tion Commission as a multi member Election

D
900. Under the writ of Mandamus, the Court can Commission is not valid

G
A. Ask the person to be produced A. K. B. Sundram
B. T. Swaminathan

N
B. Order to transfer the case from one court
C. Ask to let a person free for a temporary pe- C. H. S. Shakdhar
riod
A
D. T. N. Seshan
D. Direct the Government to do or not to do 906. With reference to India, consider the follow-
H
a thing ing electoral systems: [CDSE 2004]
-C
901. Mandal Commission report pertains to other
1. System of direct election on the basis of
A. Backward Classes adult suffrage.
N

B. Minorities 2. System of proportional representation by

C. Scheduled Castes means of single transferable vote.
YA

3. List system of proportional representa-

D. Scheduled Tribes
tion.
902. Which is the most decorative award given by
4. Cumulative system of indirect representa-
RA

govt. of India
tion.
A. Padmasree
Which of these have been adopted for various
B. Padma Bhusion
elections in India?
NA

C. Bhrath Ratna
A. 1 and 2
D. Padma Vibushion
B. 2 and 3
903. Which of the following amendments curtailed
the power of Judicial review of the Supreme C. 1, 3 and 4
Court and the High Court? D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
A. 24th 907. Consider the following statements: [CDSE
B. 44th 2008]

C. 26th 1. The Chairman and the members of the

D. 42nd UPSC are appointed by the President.

332
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 2. The Chairman and the members of the Set - I Set - II
UPSC are eligible for further employment a.English 1. Israel
under the Government. b. Amharic 2. Namibia
c .Swahili 3. Ethiopia
Which of the statements given above is/are cor-
d. Hebrew 4. Kenya
rect?
A. 1 Only A. a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2
B. 2 Only B. a-4, b- 1, c- 2, d- 3

C. Both 1 and 2 C. a-2, b- 4, c- 1, d- 3

D. a-2, b- 3, c- 4, d- 1

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

D. Neither 1 nor 2
912. In which Article of the Constitution of India,
908. Which of the following writs is issued by an duration of House of Parliament has been men-
appropriate judicial body in order to free a per- tioned

M
son who has been illegally detained?
A. 83
A. Heabeas Corpus

RA
B. 84
B. Prohibition C. 85
C. Quo- Warranto D. 88
D. Certiorari 913. Who has the power to accept adjournment in
RI
the House
909. Who among the following Indian prime Min-
isters could not vote for himself during the Vote A. Prime Minister
H

of Confidence that he was seeking from the Lok B. Home Minister

Sabha? [CDSE 2009]
IS

C. Speaker in the Lok Sabha and Chairman

A. V. P. Singh in the Rajya Sabha
B. P. V. NaraSimha Rao D. All the above
JA

C. Chandra Shekhar 914. In case a President dies while in office, the

vice President can act as President for a max-
D. Manmohan Singh imum period of
910. Which of the following cases cannot be filed A. 1 years
directly in the Supreme Court? B. 3 months
A. Cases against encroachment on Fundamen- C. 6 months
tal Rights
D. 2 years
B. If one’s property is forcefully occupied by 915. The term of the Governor is
the other
A. 5 years
C. Both A and B above.
B. 6 years
D. Disputes between two or more States C. 7 years
911. Match the columns: D. 10 years

333
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 15. Miscellenous

916. The election Commission dose not conduct 921. The Panchayati Raj was first introduced in the
the elections to the States of Rajasthan and
A. Lok Sabha A. Andhra Pradesh
B. President’s election B. Bihar
C. Rajya Sabha C. Gujarat
D. Local Bodies D. Orissa
917. Which one of the following declares India as 922. Consider the following statements 1. The Ex-

ER
a Secular State? ecutive Power of the Union of India is vested
A. Preamble of the Constitution in the Prime Minister. 2. The Prime Minister

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

is the ex officio Chairman of the Civil Services
B. Directive Principles of State Policy Board. Which of the statements given above is

D
C. Fundamental Rights / are correct?

G
D. Fundamental Duties A. 1 only
918. The total number of members nominated by B. 2 only

N
the President to the Lok Sabha and the Rajya
Sabha is C. Both 1 and 2

A. 16
A
D. Neither 1 nor 2
923. Which of the following institutions are em-
H
B. 18
powered to confer or grant degrees under the
C. 14 UGC Act, 1956?
-C

D. 12
1. A university established by an Act of Par-
919. Which of the following prefix President liament.
N

Pranab Mukherjee desires to be discontinued

while interacting with Indian dignitaries as well 2. A university established by an Act of Leg-
YA

as in official notings? 1. His Excellency 2. islature.

Mahamahim 3. Hon?ble 4. Shri/Smt. Select 3. A university / institution established by a
the correct answer from the codes given below: linguistic minority.
RA

Codes: 4. An institution which is a deemed to be

A. 1 and 3 university.
B. 2 and 3 Select the correct answers from the codes given
NA

C. 1 and 2 below:
D. 1, 2 and 3 A. 1 and 2
920. Under which Article of the Constitution of In- B. 1, 2 and 3
dia, qualification for membership of Parliament
C. 1, 2 and 4
has been mentioned
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
A. 88
924. In which months and year, the President no-
B. 84
tified that besides the Chief Election Commi-
C. 89 sioner the Commission should have two other
D. 91 members called as Election Commissioner

334
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 A. Nov. 1989 A. IV A
B. Feb. 1989 B. IX A
C. Oct. 1989 C. XIV A
D. Dec. 1989 D. X
925. Under which Constitutional Amendment 930. Fundamental Rights are incorporated in which
Privy Purses were abolished part of the Constitution?
A. 36th Amendment Act 1975 A. Part III
B. 26th Amendment Act 1971 B. Part II
C. 16th Amendment Act 1963 C. Part IV

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

D. 17th Amendment Act 1964
D. Part IX
926. Which of the following is not a fundamental
931. Members of Rajya Sabha are elected by which
right?

M
members
A. Right to Speak
A. Lok Sabha

RA
B. Right to Strike
B. Legislative Assembly
C. Right to carry out religious rituals
C. Council of State
D. Right to Equality
D. Legislative Council
927. Under the Govt. of India Act 1935, who had
RI
the power to proclaim emergency 932. As per the procedure, the election of Vice
President is conducted at first at
A. Governor General
H

A. Lok Sabha
B. General of India
B. Rajya Sabha
IS

C. Governor of the State

C. Joint sitting of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
D. None of the above
928. Which emergency has an initial life of one D. None of the above
JA

month? 933. Raj Pramukh represents whom under the In-

A. under article 352 dian Constitution

B. under article 356 A. President

C. under article 360 B. Governor

D. none of the above C. A&B
929. Which part of the Constitution deals with the D. None of the above
Fundamental Duties?

335
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 16
CDS

1. Under which Constitutional Article, President D. Art 339

has the power to consult Supreme Court
3. How many women members were in the Con-
A. Article 145 stituent Assembly
B. Article 146 A. 12
C. Article 143 B. 10
D. Article 144 C. 15
2. Which Article of the Constitution empowers D. 18
the President to appoint a Commission to in-
vestigate the condition of backward classes in 4. At the time of commencement of the Indian
general and suggest ameliorative measures? Community how many years were laid down
for appointment to the post in the Railways,
A. Art 342 Customs, Postal & Telegraph services for the
B. Art 344 Anglo-Indian community

C. Art 340 A. 2 years

336
 B. 5 years 10. When was the Objective Resolution adopted by
the Constituent Assembly?
C. 4 years
A. 13.12.1946
D. 6 years
B. 22.01.1947
5. Who appoints the Chairman of UPSC?
C. 26.01.1948
A. the Prime Minister
D. 15.08.1945
B. the President
11. The Constitution of Jammu & Kashmir came
C. the Parliament
into force on
D. the Chief Justice of India
A. 15.08.1947

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

6. The power of the Supreme Court of India to de-
B. 26.01.1957
cide disputes between the Centre and the States
falls under its C. 01.11.1956

M
A. advisory jurisdiction D. 26.01.1950
B. appellate jurisdiction. 12. Who was the first foreign minister of free India?

RA
[NDA 2008]
C. original jurisdiction
A. Jawahar Lal Nehru
D. writ jurisdiction
B. Gulzari Lal Nanda
7. Thefirst Leader of the opposition to get recog-
RI
nition in the Indian Parliament was C. Lal Bahadur Shastri
A. Y. Chavan D. John Mathai
H

B. Ram Subhag Singh 13. In the final form of the Constitution adopted by
the Constituent Assembly, how many Articles
C. K. Gopalan
IS

and Schedules were there

D. .M. Stephen A. 397 Articles and 9 Schedules
8. Who of the following held the Office of the B. 395 Articles and 4 Schedules
JA

Vice President of India for two full terms?

C. 396 Articles and 7 Schedules
A. K R Narayanan
D. 395 Articles and 8 Schedules
B. S. Radhakrishnan
14. Administrative Tribunals entertain those em-
C. Shankar Dayal Sharma ployees who are under employment with
D. Krishna Kant whom?

9. The ideal of justice - social, economic and A. Union or State Government

political- mentioned in the preamble has been B. A Local or other authority within the terri-
taken from tory of India
A. French Revolution C. A Corporation owned or controlled by the
B. Russian Revolution Government

C. American Civil War D. All of the above

D. None of the above 15. The word secular denotes

337
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 16. CDS

A. Keeping away from all religions 20. If the office of the President of India falls va-
cant, within what time should the next President
B. Freedom of religion and worship to all
be elected?
citizens
A. Within 2 months
C. Belief in God
B. Within 1 year
D. Practising different religions
16. Which of the following statement(s) is/are cor- C. Within 6 months
rect about a Judge of the Supreme Court of In- D. Immediately
dia? 1) A Judge of the Supreme Court is ap- 21. Fundamental Rights guaranteed in the Consti-

ER
pointed by the President of India. 2) He holds tution can be suspended
office during the pleasure of the President. 3)

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

He can be suspended, pending an inquiry. 4) A. Proclamation of national emergency

D
He can be removed for proven misbehaviors or B. an Act passed by the Parliament
incapacity. Select the correct answer from the
C. an amendment of the Constitution

G
codes given below: Codes:
D. judicial decision of the Supreme Court
A. 1, 2 and 3

N
22. The Constitution confers a special authority for
B. 1, 3 and 4 the enforcement of Fundamental Rights on the
C. 1 and 3
D. 1 and 4 A
A. Parliament
H
B. Supreme Court
17. The 25th Indian state to achieve statehood is C. President
-C

A. Sikkim D. Election Commission

B. Goa 23. Consider the following statements: 1 The Leg-
N

C. Arunachal Pradesh islative Council of a State in India can be larger

in size than half of the Legislative Assembly of
YA

D. Mizoram that particular State

18. When did Mr. Attlee, Prime Minister of Eng- 24. the President wants to tender the resignation be-
land, announce the transfer of power to the In- fore expiry of normal term, he / she has to ad-
RA

dians? dress the same to —-

A. February, 1947 A. Vice President
B. June, 1949 B. Supreme Court Chief Justice
NA

C. August, 1947 C. Prime Minister

D. June, 1948 D. Lok Sabha Speaker
19. Under which Article of the Constitution of In- 25. Under the Govt. of India Act 1935, which com-
dia, Constitution of Parliament has been de- munities were provided separate representation
fined in the Electorate system
A. 80 A. Sikh, Europeans
B. 79 B. Indian Christians
C. 82 C. Anglo-Indians
D. 81 D. All the above
338
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
26. A person who is not a member of Parliament C. Once get accredited by NBA or NAAC,
can be appointed as a Minister by the President the institution is free from renewal of grading,
for a maximum period of which is not a progressive decision.
A. 9 months D. This accreditation amounts to approval of
minimum standards in the quality of education
B. 3 months
in the institution concerned.
C. 12 months
31. Constitution does not recognise the caste sys-
D. 6 months tem because
27. In the Govt. of India Act 1935, provincial list A. India is secular
included which kind of subjects

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

B. It leads to inequality which is against the
A. Police Constitution
B. Provincial Public Service C. It leads to untouchability

M
C. Education D. All of the above
D. All the above 32. Who among the following has the Constitu-
28. The 45th Amendment to the Indian Constitu-
tion relates to
A. Minorities Commission
RA
tional authority to make rules and regulations
fixing the number of members of the UPSC
A. Vice- President
RI
B. Commission for Scheduled Castes and B. President
Scheduled Tribes
C. Home Ministry
C. Extension of reservation of seats for
H

Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes D. Cabinet Secretary

IS

D. None of the above 33. In the Parliament, Lower House is called as

29. The system of Public Interest Litigation has A. Legislative Assembly

been introduced in India
JA

B. Legislative Council
A. through constitutional amendment C. Rajya Sabha
B. by judicial initiatives
D. Lok Sabha (House of People)
C. by political parties
34. By which procedure the Indian President and
D. by parliamentary Act American President are elected as laid down by
their country’s constitution
30. The accreditation process by National Assess-
ment and Accreditation Council (NAAC) dif- A. Elected through Member of Legislature
fers from that of National Board of Accredita-
tion (NBA) in terms of B. Elected by the People

A. Disciplines covered by both being the same, C. Elected by State Legislatures

there is duplication of efforts. D. Elected by an Electoral College
B. One has institutional grading approach and 35. When can a President use his discretion in ap-
the other has programme grading approach. pointing the Prime Minister

339
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 16. CDS

A. When no political oarty enjoys a clear A. Article 328

majority in the Lok Sabha.
B. Article 339
B. Only when the Lok Sabha has been dis-
C. Article 326
solved.
D. Article 295
C. In all circumstances
41. In the Parliament, every Bill has to pass through
D. In no circumstances
which stages of Reading before it becomes act
36. The concept of distribution of powers between
A. First Reading

ER
the central government and state governments
was taken from the constitution of B. Second Reading

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

A. USA C. Third Reading

D
B. Canada D. All the above

G
C. Ireland 42. Parliamentary bill passed by the Lok Sabha is
sent to the President for assent. The President
D. South Africa

N
sends it back to Lok Sabha for reconsideration.
37. Which of the Act Introduced Dyarchy in the If the Lok Sabha again sends it back to the Pres-
provinces?
A
ident without making any changes, the Presi-
dent
H
A. Government of India Act 1909
A. Must give his assent to it
B. Government of India Act 1919
-C
B. Can again send the bill for reconsideration
C. Indian Council Act 1861
C. Can take help of the Supreme Court
D. Indian Council Act 1862
N

D. Can arrange referendum

38. Which Article mentions the conduct of business
YA

of the Houses of Parliament 43. After how many years, one-third of the mem-
bers of the Rajya Sabha retire
A. 99
A. 6 years
RA

B. 100
B. 3 years
C. A & B
C. 5 years
D. None of the above
NA

D. 2 years
39. The Vice President of India discharges the du-
ties of President in the event of 44. At the time of H. D. Deva Gowda, what was the
number of President’s Rule
A. His death
A. 2
B. His resignation
B. 5
C. His absence due to illness
C. 13
D. All the above
D. 16
40. Which Constitutional Article lays down quali-
fication for becoming a voter 45. Which act introduced dyarchy in the centre?

340
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 A. Indian Councils Act 1909 51. The maximum number of fake institutions / uni-
versities as identified by the UGC in the year
B. Government of India act1919
2014 are in the State / Union territory of
C. Government of India act1935
A. Bihar
D. Indian Independence Act 1947.
B. Uttar Pradesh
46. The Chairman and members of State Public
Service Commission are appointed by the C. Tamil Nadu
A. President D. Delhi
B. Chairman, UPSC 52. Which of the following are Financial Commit-
C. Governor tees of Parliament in India?

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

D. Prime Minister 1. Public Accounts Committee
47. Right to Information is 2. Estimates Committee

M
A. Fundamental Rights 3. Committee on Public Undertakings
B. Constitutional Rights

RA
A. 1 and 3
C. Natural Rights
B. 1 and 3
D. legal Rights
48. Which one of the following is the largest com- C. 2 and 3
mittee of the Parliament? [CDSE 2009]
RI
D. 1, 2 and 3
A. The Public Accounts Committee 53. Which of the following are the tools of good
governance?
H

B. The Estimates Committee

C. The Committee on Public Undertakings 1. Social Audit
IS

D. The Committee on Petitions 2. Separation of Powers

49. After Indian Independence who represented
3. Citizen’s Charter
JA

Provisional Parliament
4. Right to Information
A. Lok Sabha
B. Parliament Select the correct answer from the codes given
below:
C. Rajya Sabha
A. 1, 3 and 4
D. Constituent Assembly
50. The concept of independence of the judiciary B. 2, 3 and 4
and separation of powers among the three C. 1 and 4
branches of the government was taken from the
constitution of D. 1, 2, 3, and 4
A. USA 54. Spell out the condition under Article 361A by
which any person or newspaper cannot be sued
B. Soviet Union
for legal proceeding if any report of proceed-
C. Japan ings of Parliament and State Legislature is pub-
D. Ireland lished

341
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 16. CDS

A. The report must be a report of the ‘proced- 59. On which date the objective resolution was
ings’ of a House of the Union or a State Legis- moved in the Constituent assembly?
lature. Hence, it must be relevant to a motion or
A. December 13, 1946.
other business before the House, and must not
have been expunged B. December 09, 1946
B. It must be a report as distinguished from one C. December 16, 1946
article or ‘Comment’.
D. December 19, 1946
C. Such report must be substantially true.
60. Before 61st Amendment Act 1989, what was

ER
Hence, an extract or a garbed or perverted re-
the age of Indian citizen eligible to vote in the
port would not be protected. The reporting
Election
must not be actuated by malice

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

A. 23

D
D. All of the above
55. The second mass movement launched by B. 24

G
Gandhi in India was C. 21
A. Non-co-perative movement D. 22

N
B. Civil disobedient movement 61. How many seats were obtained by the Muslim
C. Quit- India movement
A
League in the Constituent Assembly
A. 74
H
D. Khilafat movement.
56. Chief Minister of a State is responsible to B. 75
-C

A. Prime Minister C. 73

B. Rajya Sabha D. 76
N

C. Legislative Assembly 62. How much time did the Constituent Assembly
YA

take to prepare the Constitution of India?

D. Governor
A. 2 yera 12 months 5 days
57. Which Fundamental Rights article is enforce-
able during the period of emergency B. 2 year 11 month 18 days
RA

A. 20 C. 2 year 11 month 15 days

B. 21 D. 2 year 10 month 18 days
NA

C. A&B 63. Who has the constitutional power not to ap-

prove ‘President Rule’ in the state under Article
D. None of the above
356
58. The Prime Minister, Union Cabinet Minister,
A. Prime Minister
Chief Minister and Council of Ministers are all
members of B. Parliament
A. National Development Council C. Union Council of Ministers
B. Regional Council D. State Government
C. Planning Commission 64. Chairman of Constitution Drafting Committee
D. Zonal Council at the time of independence was

342
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 A. Sardar Patel A. Chief Justice of India
B. B.R. Ambedkar B. Senior most judge of the supreme court
C. S. Radhakrishnan C. Prime Minister
D. President
D. J.L. Nehru
70. The Panchayati Raj was first introduced in the
65. The plan of Sir Stafford Cripps envisaged that States of Rajasthan and
after the Second World War,
A. Andhra Pradesh
A. India should be granted complete indepen-
B. Bihar
dence
C. Gujarat
B. India should be partitioned into two before

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

granting independence D. Haryana
71. Which Union Territory has a High Court of its
C. India should be made a republic
own?

M
D. India should be given dominion status A. Pondicherry
66. How long did the Constituent Assembly take to B. Delhi
finally pass the Constitution?
A. About 6 months in 1949
B. About 2 years since Aug 15, 1947
RA C. Chandigarh
D. Lakshadeep
72. Which High Court in India, has held that the
pronouncement of Talaq thrice in one go is ille-
RI
C. Exactly a year since Nov 26, 1948
gal?
D. About 3 years since Dec 9, 1946
A. Bombay High Court
H

67. Who among the following holds office during B. None of these
the pleasure of the President of India?
IS

C. Calcutta High Court

A. Chief Election Commissioner
D. Allahabad High Court
B. Comptroller and Auditor General of India 73. What was the last session of the Constituent As-
JA

C. Chairman of the Union Public Service sembly

Commission A. Eleventh session
D. Governor of a State B. Twelfth session
68. Which one of the following pairs is not cor- C. Sixteenth session
rectly matched: STATE or UT —– Seat of High D. Seventh session
Court
74. Consider the following statements: 1. The
A. Uttarakhand – Nainital Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Ra-
jya Sabha are not the members of that House.
B. Daman and Diu – Ahmedabad
2. While the nominated members of the two
C. Arunachal Pradesh - Guwahati Houses of the Parliament have no voting right
in the presidential election, they have the right
D. Chhattisgarh - Bilaspur
to vote in the election of the Vice President.
69. A Judge of a Supreme court may resign his of- Which of the statements given above is/are cor-
fice by writing under his hand addressed to the rect?

343
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 16. CDS

A. 1 only A. 27
B. 2 only B. 34
C. Both 1 and 2 C. 22

D. Neither 1 nor 2 D. 39
80. In the warrant of precedence, the Speaker of the
75. The President of India can be removed from his
Lok Sabha comes next only to
office by the
A. The President
A. Parliament

ER
B. The Vice-President
B. Chief Justice of India
C. The Prime Minister

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

C. Prime Minister
D. The Cabinet Ministers

D
D. Lok Sabha 81. Which of the following High Courts covers
more than one State/ Union Territories

G
76. Article 21 of the Fundamental Rights deals with
which subject A. Allahabad

N
A. Protection of certain rights regarding free- B. None of these
dom of speech,
B. Protection in respect of conviction of of-
A
C.
D. Delhi
Guwahati
H
fence
82. Right to privacy as a Fundamental Right is im-
C. Protection against arrest and detention in plied in
-C
certain cases A. Right to Freedom
D. Protection of life and personal liberty B. Right to Life and Personal Liberty
N

77. Who among the following was not a member C. Right to Equality
of the Constituent Assembly established in July
YA

1946? D. Right against Exploitation

83. Through which Constitutional Amendment,
A. K.M. Munshi Article 329A relating with the subject of Elec-
RA

B. J.B. Kripalani tion was inserted

C. Mahatma Gandhi A. 25th Amendment Act 1971

B. 27th Amendment Act 1971
D. Vallabhbhai Patel
NA

C. 28th Amendment Act 1972

78. What are the Union territories having represen-
tation in Rajya Sabha D. 39th Amendment Act 1975
A. Delhi and Lakshadweep 84. The demand for the Constituent Assembly was
put forward by the Indian National Congress in
B. Puducherry and Lakshadweep 1936 at its session held at
C. Delhi and Andaman & Nicobar Islands A. Fezpur
D. Delhi and Puducherry B. Lahore
79. In the First Lok Sabha, what was the Represen- C. Bombay
tation of Women D. Kanpur

344
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
85. Which one of the following recommended a 90. After which Constitutional Amendment, even
change in the pattern of Dyarchy introduced un- though decision of the Election Commission is
der the Act of 1919? issued from New Delhi, the order of the com-
A. Simon Commission mission can be challenged by the aggrieved
party in another state in the High Court of that
B. Sapru Commission State under Article 226
C. Butler Commission A. 15th Amendment Act
D. Muddiman Commission B. 10th Amendment Act
86. Consider the following statements: 1. The Ra- C. 11th Amendment Act
jya Sabha has no power either to reject or to
amend a Money Bill. 2. The Rajya Sabha can- D. 12th Amendment Act

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

not vote on the Demands for Grants. 3. The 91. Consider the following statements with respect
Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the Annual Finan- to The Attorney General of India: [CDSE 2009]
cial Statement. Which of the statements given
1. He is appointed by the President.

M
above is / are correct?
2. He must have the same qualifications as
A. 1 only
required by a judge of High Court.
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
RA 3. In the performance of his duties he shall
have the right of audience in all courts of
India.
RI
87. Right to equality before law is guaranteed un- Which of the statements given above is/are cor-
der rect?
A. Article 15 A. 1 Only
H

B. Article 13 B. 1and 3
IS

C. Article 16 C. 2 and 3
D. Article 14 D. 1, 2 and 3
JA

88. Which one of the following is not in the State 92. Which one of the following is not a Constitu-
List under the Constitution of India? tional Body?
A. Fisheries A. Union Public Service Commission
B. Agriculture B. Finance Commission
C. Insurance C. University Grants Commission
D. Betting and Gambling D. Election Commission
89. The British Secretary of the State governed In- 93. Under which Article of the Constitution, the
dia through which Institution Council of State (Rajya Sabha) has a Chairman
and Deputy Chairman
A. Executive Council
A. Article 109
B. Parliament
B. Article 108
C. Governor assisted by an Executive Council
C. Article 89
D. Governor General appointed by an Exec-
utive Council D. Article 91
345
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 16. CDS

94. The President of India referred the Ayodhya is- A. 26 January 1950
sue to the Supreme Court of India under which
B. 26 November 1949
Article?
A. 143 C. 11 December 1946

B. 132 D. None of the above

C. 138 100. In which language script, Constitution of India

was signed by the members of the Constitutent
D. 136 Assembly on 21st Jan. 1950

ER
95. Which Constitutional Article mentions transfer A. English
of certain cases for Supreme Court

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

B. Hindi
A. Article 139A

D
C. A&B
B. Article 139B
D. None of the above

G
C. Article 139C
101. Which Fundamental Rights Article is not in
D. Article 138

N
operation during the emergency
96. The first mass movement launched by Gandhi
in India was
A. Non-co-perative movement A
A. Article 22
B. Article 19
H
B. Civil disobedient movement C. Article 23
-C

C. Quit- India movement D. Article 24

D. Khilafat movement. 102. The Preamble was amended by the

N

97. In which Supreme Court Judgement, it has been A. 43rd Amedment 1978
YA

pronounced that Parliament cannot enlarge its

B. 44th Amendment 1978
own powers by making itself new Constitution
C. 42nd Amendment 1976
A. Sasanka vs. Union of India
RA

D. 41st Amendment 1976

B. Kesavananda vs. State of Kerala
C. Minerva Mills vs. Union of India 103. The Swaran Singh Committee considered the
Q of
D. Sankari Prasad vs. Union of India
NA

A. more autonomy to Punjab on the model of

98. Who among the following is the defacto execu- Jammu & Kashmir.
tive head of the planning Commission?
B. the suitability of the Presidential form of
A. Chairman government for India.
B. Deputy Chairman C. the precedence of the Directive Principles
C. Minister of State of Planning over Fundamental Rights.
D. Member Secretary D. administrative reforms
99. As per preamble date of adoption of the Consti- 104. Consider the following statements: Identify
tution was the statement which implies natural justice.

346
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 A. The principle of natural justice is followed A. 1, 2 and 3
by the Courts.
B. 1, 2 and 4
B. Justice delayed is justice denied.
C. 2, 3 and 4
C. Natural justice is an inalienable right of a
D. 1, 3, 4 and 2
citizen
109. Consider the statement which is followed by
D. A reasonable opportunity of being heard two arguments (I) and (II): Statement: Should
must be given. India switch over to a two party system? Argu-
105. Who was the First Lok Sabha Speaker unani- ments: (I) Yes, it will lead to stability of Gov-
mously elected ernment. (II) No, it will limit the choice of vot-
ers.
A. Hukam Singh

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

A. Only argument (I) is strong.
B. Dr. G.S. Dhillon
B. Only argument (II) is strong.
C. M.A. Ayyangar

M
C. Both the arguments are strong.
D. B.R. Bhagat
106. Which Constitutional article defines the work D. Neither of the arguments is strong.
of Administrative Tribunal
A. Article 323A
B. Article 233B
RA
110. The Lok Sabha Secretariat comes under the
supervision of the
A. Ministry of Home Affairs
B. Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs
RI
C. Article 223B
C. Prime Minister s office
D. None of the above
H

107. What are the subjects for adjudication or trial D. Speaker of Lok Sabha
by Administrative Tribunal 111. What is the position of a Minister of State in
IS

the Central Government?

A. Private sector employee recruitment dis-
putes A. He is a Minister of Central Government
but not a member of the Cabinet.
JA

B. Decide on recruitment in Public sector

B. He looks after the interests of the State Cab-
C. Dispute and complaints with respect to
inet.
recruitment and condition of service of persons
appointed in the public services in connection C. He is the nominee of the State Governor.
with the officers of the Union or of any State or D. He is the nominee of the State Cabinet.
of any local or other Authority within the terri-
tory of India 112. The concept of ’Emergency Provisions’ under
article 356 was taken from the constitution of
D. None of the above
A. Soviet Union
108. The Fundamental Duties of a citizen include
(1) Respect for the Constitution, the National B. USA
Flag and the National Anthem (2) To develop C. Germany (Weimar Constitution)
the scientific temper. (3) Respect for the Gov-
ernment. (4) To protect Wildlife. Choose the D. South Africa
correct answer from the codes given below: 113. Indicate the number of Regional Offices of
Codes: University Grants Commission of India.

347
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 16. CDS

A. 10 A. 15 days
B. 07 B. 14 days
C. 08 C. 13 days
D. 09 D. 17 days
114. Which of the following universities has 119. The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court is ap-
adopted the meta university concept? pointed by the President
A. Assam University A. In consulation with the Judges of the

ER
supreme court and the High Court
B. Delhi University
B. Alone
C. Hyderabad University

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

C. In consulation with the Governor

D
D. Pondicherry University
D. In consulation with the Judges of the
115. Who among the following enjoys the rank of supreme court alone

G
a Cabinet Minister of the Indian Union?
120. Which constitutional article defines the vari-
A. None of the Above ous definitions of constitutional subject

N
B. Deputy Chairman of the Planning Com- A. Article 366
mission
C. Deputy Chairman, Rajya Sabha A
B. Article 369
H
C. Article 375
D. Secretary to the Government of India D. Article 378
-C
116. Before which Constitutional Amendment, 121. Who was the first deputy Prime Minister of
Prince, Chief or other person were recognised India?
by the President of India as the Ruler of the In-
N

dian State A. Sardar Vallabhai Patel

B. Nehru
YA

A. 26th Amendment Act 1971

B. 24th Amendment Act 1971 C. B R Ambedkar
D. Dr. Rajendra Prasad.
C. 16th Amendment Act 1963
RA

122. The only instance when the President of India

D. 17th Amendment Act 1964 exercised his power of veto related to the
117. By which amendment Act of the Constitution
A. Indian Post Office (Amendment Bill)
of India were the Directive Principles of the
NA

State Policy given precedence over the Funda- B. Dowry Prohibition Bill
mental Rights wherever they come in to con- C. Hindu Code Bill
flict? [CDSE 2005]
D. PEPSU Appropriation Bill
A. 40th
123. Which constitutional organ has the power to
B. 42nd amend Constitution of India
C. 44th A. Judiciary
D. 46th B. Executive
118. The Council of States can keep a money bill C. Legislative
for a maximum period of D. Parliament
348
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
124. The Constitution of India borrowed the 128. Who was the first elected chairman of the
scheme of Indian Federation from the Consti- Constituent Assembly?
tution of
A. B R.Ambedkar
A. USA B. B N. Rao
B. Canada C. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
C. Ireland D. Jawaharlal Nehru
D. UK 129. Under the Scheduled Tribes and Other Tradi-
125. Directive Principles of State Policy are in- tional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest
cluded in which part of the Indian Constitu- Rights) Act, 2006, who shall be the authority
to initiate the process for determining the na-

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

tion?
ture and extent of individual or community for-
A. Part IV est rights or both?
B. Part III A. State Forest Department

M
C. Part II B. District Collector/Deputy Commissioner

RA
D. Part I C. Tahsildar /Block Development Officer /
Mandai Revenue Officer
126. Which of the following is/are among the func-
tions of the Election Commission of India? I. D. Gram Sabha
Conduct of election for the posts of the Speaker 130. The only instance when the President of India
RI
and the Deputy Speaker, Lok Sabha and the exercised his power of veto related to
Deputy Chairman, Rajya Sabha. II. Conduct of
election to the Corporations and Municipalities. A. the Hindu Code Bill
H

III. Deciding on all doubts and disputes arising B. the PEPSU Appropriation Bill
out of the elections. Select the correct answer
C. the Indian Post Office (Amendments) Bill
IS

from the codes given below. Codes:

A. I and II
D. the Dowry Prohibition Bill
JA

B. I and III 131. After which report, President promulgates

C. II and III President Rule in the State

D. None of these A. Prime Minister

127. What is the meaning of the adjournment mo- B. Union Home Minister
tion under Parliamentary procedure C. Chief Minister
A. Member draws attention regarding impor- D. Governor
tant subject-matter 132. In which respect have the CentreState rela-
B. Member wants the House to discuss his tions been specifically termed as municipal re-
subject-matter lations?

C. Member wants to raise complicated issue A. Centres control of the State in the legislative
sphere
D. Member wants to draw the attention of
the House to way recent matter of urgent public B. Centres control of the State in financial mat-
importance having serious consequences. ters

349
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 16. CDS

C. Centres control of the State in the adminis- 137. Which one of the following Vice President(s)
trative sector resigned from his Office to contest for the Of-
fice of the President?
D. Centres control of the State in the plan-
ning process A. VV Giri
133. Who among the following have a right to vote B. G. S. Pathak
in the VicePresidential election butnot in the
Presidential election? C. S. Radhakrishnan

A. Ministers who are not members of either D. B D Jatti

ER
House of theParliament 138. The Federal features of the Indian Govern-
B. Elected members of the Upper Houses of ment was taken from

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

the States A. Government of India Act, 1919

D
C. Nominated members of the Parliament
B. Indian Independence Act, 1947

G
D. Members of the Parliament who abstain
C. Cabinet Mission Plan, 1946
from all meetings of the House for aperiod of

N
sixty days without permission of the House D. Government of India Act, 1935
134. The High Court of West Bengal (Calcutta) 139. The Lok Sabha is more powerful than the Ra-
has got the additional jurisdiction to hear cases
from A
jya Sabha in
H
A. electoral powers
A. Arunachal Pradesh
B. emergency powers
-C
B. Mizoram
C. amending powers
C. Tripura
N

D. financial powers
D. Andaman and Nicobar islands
140. Whom the Indian Constituent Assembly rep-
YA

135. Where in the Indian Constitution, Economic

resented
Justice has been provided as one of the objec-
tives? A. Fully representative of the Hindus
RA

A. Preamble B. Fully representative of the State in India

B. Directive Principles of State Policy C. Fully representative of the Provinces in In-
C. Fundamental Rights dia
NA

D. Both a) and b) D. Fully representative of the States and

Provinces in India
136. The Election commission holds election for
141. Who was the Speaker of the Sixth Lok Sabha
A. The Parliament, State Legislature and the
posts of the president and the Vice-President A. N. Sanjiva Reddy
B. The parliament, State legislative Assem- B. K. S. Hegde
blies and the State Council
C. A and B
C. The Parliament
D. None of the above
D. The parliament and the State Legislative
Assemblies 142. The Constitution of India is

350
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 A. Rigid C. On certain subjects even when Parliament is
in session.
B. Flexible
C. Partly rigid and partly flexible D. During the recess of the Parliament

D. None of the above 148. The Appellate Jurisdiction of the Supreme

Court dose not involve
143. What is the minimum age for appointment as
a Governor? A. Criminal Cases
A. 35 years B. Cases involving interpretation of the Con-
stitution
B. 40 years
C. Civil Cases
C. 25 years

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

D. 30 years D. Disputes arising out of pre-Constitution
treaties and agreements Answer; Disputes aris-
144. Who appoints the members of the State Elec- ing out of pre-Constitution treaties and agree-

M
tion Commission? ments
A. the Prime minister 149. Constitutionally, how a law can be made out
B. the President
C. the Parliament
D. the Governor
RA of the subject in the Concurrent List
A. Union
B. State
RI
145. In the election of the President, the value of C. Council of State
the vote of the Lok Sabha members
D. A & B
A. Differs according to the geographical size
H

of the respective state. 150. What is the special Constitutional position of

Jammu and Kashmir?
IS

B. None of these
A. Indian laws are not applicable.
C. Differs according to the number of votes
a member represents. B. It is above Indian Constitution.
JA

D. is same C. It is not of the integral parts of Indian Union.

146. Which article guarantees freedom to manage
religious affairs? D. It has its own Constitution
A. Art. 26 151. Which one of the following is one of the
B. Art. 32 the objects of the Indian National Congress in
1885?
C. Art.19
A. Promotion of friendship
D. Art. 21A
B. Eradication of Poverty
147. The President can make laws through ordi-
nances C. Demand for Swaraj
A. Only on subjects contained in the concur- D. Independence
rent list
152. Which of the following presides over the sit-
B. Under no circumstances ting of the House of the people?

351
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 16. CDS

A. Vice-President of India A. Right to equality

B. Chief Justice of India B. Right to property
C. Prime Minister C. Right against exploitation
D. Speaker of Lok Sabha D. Right to freedom of speech and expression
153. Under which Constitutional Article, Special 159. Considerthe following pairs: Constitutional
leave to appeal lies with the Supreme Court Subject Amendment
A. Article 136
1. 52nd Anti-Defection Law

ER
B. Article 137
2. 56th Statehood for Goa
C. Article 138

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

3. 59th Emergency in Punjab
D. Article 139

D
4. 62nd Reservation for Scheduled Castes
154. Article 15 (3) confers a special provisions to and Tribes in services

G
A. Women and Children
A. 1, 2 and 3 are correctly matched.
B. SCs and STs

N
B. 3 and 4 are correctly matched
C. Linguistic Minorities
C. 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correctlymatched.
D. Tribal People
155. Which Act provided separate representative A
D. 2, 3 and 4 are correctly matched.
H
system for Muslim community? 160. Which schedule gives details regarding the
subjects included in the three lists Central, State
-C
A. Indian councils act 1909 and Concurrent Lists?
B. Government of India act1919
A. Schedule VIII
N

C. Government of India act1935

B. Schedule VII
D. Indian Independence Act 1947.
YA

C. Schedule V
156. The ideal of Welfare State’ in the Indian Con-
stitution is enshrined in its D. Schedule VI
161. The Constitution names our country as
RA

A. Preamble
B. Directive Principles of State Policy A. Bharat

C. Fundamental Rights B. Aryavarta

NA

D. Seventh Schedule C. Hindustan

157. The total number of central universities in In- D. India, that is Bharat
dia in April 2015 was 162. Who is authorised to decide over a dispute re-
A. 8 garding disqualification of a member of Parlia-
ment?
B. 14
A. Election Commissioner
C. 27
B. Speaker of the Lok Sabha
D. 43
158. Which of the following is not a Fundamental C. President of India
Right? D. committee set up by the Parliament

352
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
163. Which of the following dignitaries who be- A. Advocate General of a State is appointed
came Vice Presidents after having held diplo- by President of India upon recommendation of
matic positions? Governor
A. S. Radhakrishnan B. Person with non-law background can?t be
appointed as Advocate General.
B. G. S. Pathak
C. During pleasure of Governor, Advocate
C. K R Narayanan General can hold his office.
D. All the above D. Advocate General can take part in the pro-
ceedings of Legislative Assembly.
164. Rajya Sabha can delay the Money Bill passed
by the Lok Sabha for a period not exceeding 169. candidate to become a member of Lok Sabha

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

should not be less than
A. 9 days
A. 21 years
B. 14 days
B. 25 years

M
C. 15 days C. 30 years
D. 30 days D. 35 years

tution includes power to amend by way of

A. Addition
RA
165. The power of Parliament to amend the Consti- 170. Under the Indian Constitution, what is the
concept behind the protection of President and
Governors
A. President & Governors are above the law
RI
B. Variation
B. President & Governors make any law for the
C. Repeal Constitution
H

D. All the above C. President and Governors are answerable to

Prime Minister
IS

166. The Directive Principles of state policy is

taken from D. President and Governors shall not be an-
swerable to any court to the exercise and perfor-
A. Irish constitution mance of the powers and duties of their office
JA

B. British constitution
171. Consider the following statements: I. National
C. US constitution Development Council is an organ of the Plan-
D. Japan constitution ning Commission. II. The Economic and Social
Planning is kept in the Concurrent List in the
167. Arya Samaj, a social reform movement was Constitution of India. III. The Constitution of
founded by India prescribes that Panchayats should be as-
A. Swami Dayanand signed the task of preparation of plans for eco-
nomic development and social justice. Which
B. Sree Ramakrishna Parama Hamsa of the statements given above is/are correct?
C. Rajaram Mohan Roy A. 1 only
D. Swami Vivekananda B. 2 and 3 only
168. Read the following statements and find the C. 1 and 3 only
wrong one. D. 1, 2 and 3

353
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 16. CDS

172. Before Indian Independence, how was the 177. Who among the following are appointed by
Post of Deputy Speaker in the Central Legisla- the President of India?
tive Assembly called
I) The Chairman, Finance Commission .
A. Vice President
II) The Deputy Chairman, Planning Com-
B. Vice Chairman mission
C. Deputy President III) The Chief Minister of a Union Territory.
D. None of the above Choose the correct answer from the codes given
below. Codes:

ER
173. Assertion (A): Finance Commission aims to
safeguard the fiscal autonomy ofthe States. A. I only
Reason (R): Finance Commission is constituted

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

every fifth year. B. I and II only

D
C. I and III only
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanationof D. II and III only

G
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the 178. Cripps Mission visited India in

N
correctexplanation of A. 1927
C. A is true but R is false B. 1946
D. A is false but R is true A
C. 1942
H
174. When did the Constituent Assembly passed a D. 1939
resolution for translation of the Constitution of
179. Which Constitutional Amendment lays down
-C
India into Hindi and other many languages of
50 years for reservation of seats for SC and ST
India
in the House of People and State Legislative
N

A. 17th Sep. 1949 Assembly

B. 17th Oct. 1949 A. 62nd Amendment Act 1989
YA

C. 17th Nov. 1949 B. 44th Amendment Act 1928

D. 17th Dec. 1949 C. 45th Amendment Act 1980
RA

175. Which constitutional article defines protection D. None of the above

of President and Governors 180. China attacked Vietnam because
A. Article 362 A. Of armed provocations and encroachment
NA

B. Article 363 against Chinese territory

C. Article 368 B. Of Vietnams alliance with U.S.S.R.
D. Article 301 C. Of Vietnams involvement in Kampuchea
176. Which of the following is described as the D. Of Paracel Islands dispute
Soul of the Constitution? 181. When was the title Speaker assumed in India
A. Fundamental Right A. 1947
B. Fundamental Duties B. 1948
C. Directive Principles for State Policy C. 1949
D. Preamble D. 1946
354
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
182. Under Constitutional Article 343D, a A. Chief of the Army
metropolitan area represent how many number
B. Speaker of the Lok Sabha
of population
C. Chief Justice of India
A. Ten Lakhs or more
D. Chief of the Air Force
B. Fifteen Lakhs or more
188. In the First Lok Sabha Election, what was the
C. Less than Ten Lakhs expenditure incurred
D. Less than Five Lakhs A. Rs. 10. 45 crore
183. Who decides disputes relating with the allot- B. Rs. 5.90 crore
ment of symbols to Political Parties:

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

C. Rs. 7.81 crore
A. Representation Act 1952
D. Rs. 13.43 crore
B. Representation Act 1953
189. During the time of Jawahar Lal Nehru, how

M
C. Representation of the People Act 1951 many Times Presidents Rule was reproduced
D. Election Commission A. Seven
184. Which Constitutional Article defines ‘Form of
Accounts of the Union and the State.’
A. Article 151
RA B. Two
C. Zero
D. Four
RI
B. Article 152
190. The administrative and operational control of
C. Article 150 the Armed Forces is exercised by the
H

D. Article 153 A. Cabinet Committee on Political Affairs

IS

185. 42nd amendment of Indian Constitution with Prime Minister as the Chairman
(1976) added which of the terms to Preamble B. Ministry of Defence
A. Socialist C. Three Chiefs of the Army, Navy and Air
JA

B. Secular Force Staff

C. Sovereign D. President

D. Both 1 & 2 191. For Election to the lok sabha, a nomination pa-
per can be field by
186. In the National Flag, how many colours are
there A. Any citizen of India

A. Four B. Any citizen of India whose name appears

in the electoral roll of a Constituency
B. Three
C. Anyone residing in India
C. Two
D. A resident of the Constituency from which
D. Five the election to be contested
187. Which of the following appointments is not 192. Electoral college for electing the Vice-
made by the President of India? President shall consist of

355
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 16. CDS

A. Elected members of both the Houses of Par- A. 65

liament B. 66
B. Nominated members of both the Houses of C. 64
Parliament
D. 63
C. All members of the state legislative assem-
blies as well of UT Legislative Assemblies 198. How are the parts of the Budget known as

D. Both 1 & 2 A. General Budget

193. Holdingof elections for the Panchayats is de- B. Railway Budget

ER
cided by C. A&B
A. The District Magistrate D. None of the above

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

B. Constitutional mandate 199. Which of the following rights was described

D
by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as The Heart and soul
C. The State Government
of the Constitution?

G
D. The Election Commission
A. Right to Equality
194. When was the First Draft of the Constitution

N
of India proposed B. Right to Constitutional Remedies

A. Oct. 1945
B. Oct. 1947 A
C. Right to Freedom of Religion
D. Right to Property Answer; Right to Consti-
H
tutional Remedies
C. Oct. 1946
200. Which Constitutional Article specifies official
-C
D. Oct. 1948 language of the Union
195. Who acts as the Chairman of the Elec- A. Article 343
N

tion Commission after appointment as Election

Commissioner B. Article 344
YA

A. Prime Minister C. Article 345

B. Home Minister D. Article 346

201. Which of the Following is a cognizable of-
C. Chief Appointment Officer
RA

fence?
D. Chief Election Commissioner
A. First offence committed by any person
196. Under the panchayati Raj system Gram sabha
consist of? B. Offence committed by a minor
NA

A. Elected executives of a village C. Offence other than murder

B. Persons who is registered in the electoral D. Offence which can be dealt with by the
rolls relating to a village court
202. Separation of the Judiciary from the Executive
C. Elected executives of a village and officials
is enjoined by
nominated by him/Her
A. VII Schedule to the Constitution
D. The village surpanch ad the persons nomi-
nated by him/Her. B. Judicial decision
197. In the State List, how many subjects are in- C. Directive Principles
cluded D. Preamble
356
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
203. Which Article mentions disqualification of 2. Adjournment- sine die
members in the Parliament 3. Prorogation
A. Article 101 to Article 104 4. Dissolution
B. Article 101 to Articles 105
Select the correct answer from the codes given
C. Article 102 to Article 106 below:
D. Article 106 to Article 110 A. 1 and 4
204. Which article defines suspession of the provi-
sions of Article 18 during emergency B. 1, 2 and 3

A. Article 344 C. 1, 3 and 4

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

B. Article 345 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

C. Article 343 209. Match List-I with List-II and select the cor-
rect answer from the codes given below: List?

M
D. Article 358 I List? II (Articles of the Constitution) (Institu-
205. Can de-recognition of the Political Party by tions)

RA
the Election Commission on the basis of its per-
A. Article 280 (i) Administrative Tribunals
formance at the last Election be subjected to
scrutiny B. Article 324 (ii) Election Commission of In-
dia
A. Judicial Review
C. Article 323 (iii) Finance Commission at
RI
B. Judicial Order
Union level
C. Judicial Scrutiny
D. Article 315 (iv) Union Public Service Com-
H

D. None of the above mission

206. Which of the plan provided for the Constitu-
IS

E. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

tional Assembly of India?
F. (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
A. Cripps Plan
JA

G. (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

B. August Offer
C. Wavell Plan H. (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)

D. Cabinet Mission Plan 210. The Chief Minister of a state in India is not
eligible to vote in the Presidential election if
207. Rajya Sabha has exclusive power
A. He is a member of the Upper House of
A. in the matter of creating new All India the State Legislature
Services
B. He is a caretaker Chief Minister
B. in amending the Constitution
C. He himself is a candidate
C. in the removel of the Government
D. He is yet to prove his majority on the floor
D. in making cut motions
of the Lower House of the state Legislature
208. Which of the following powers, the President
has in relation to Lok Sabha? 211. Which one of the following Schedules of the
Constitution of India contains provisions re-
1. Summoning garding anti-defection?

357
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 16. CDS

A. Second Schedule A. Dr. S. Radhakrishnan

B. Fifth Schedule B. Zakir Husain

C. Eighth Schedule C. S.V.Krishnamoorthy Rao

D. Tenth Schedule D. None of the above

217. The President gives his resignation to the
212. Which constitutional organ has wider powers
when emergency is in operation A. Chief Justice

A. Executive B. Parliament

ER
B. Legislative C. Vice President

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

D. Prime Minister
C. Judiciary

D
218. Which one of the following acted as the Provi-
D. A&B sional President of the Constituent Assembly?

G
213. The charge of impeachment against the Pres- A. Rajendra Prasad
ident of India for his removal can be preferred

N
by B. B. R. Ambedkar
C. Sachidananda Sinha
A. Both Houses of Parliament
B. Speaker of Lok Sabha and Chairman of Ra- A
D. Sardar Vallabhai Patel
H
jya Sabha 219. The impeachment of the President of India can
be initiated in
-C
C. Rajya Sabha
A. either house of Parliament
D. Lok Sabha
B. a joint sitting of both House of Parliament
N

214. The last mass movement launched by Gandhi C. the Lok Sabha alone
in India was
YA

D. the Rajya Sabha alone

A. Non-co-perative movement
220. Who proposed the Preamble before the Draft-
B. Civil disobedient movement ing Committee of the Constitution?
RA

C. Quit- India movement A. B.R. Ambedkar

D. Khilafat movement. B. Mahatma Gandhi

215. The Governor of a State nominates the Chair- C. B.N. Rao

NA

man of Legislative Council of that particular D. Jawaharlal Nehru

State. Which of the statements given above 221. The President of India is elected indirectly by
is/are correct? the electoral college consisting of the elected
A. 1 only members of the

B. 2 only A. Lok Sabha only

C. Both 1 and 2 B. Rajya Sabha only

C. Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha only
D. Neither 1 nor 2
D. Lok Sabha, the Rajya Sabha and the Leg-
216. Who was the first Chairman of Rajya Sabha? islative Assemblies of the States
358
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
222. Who make composition of Panchayat under A. Pandit Govind Ballabh Pant
Constitutional Article 243
B. Jawahar Lal Nehru
A. C. Abdul Kalam Azad
B. State Assembly D. C. D. Deshmukh
C. Lok Sabha 228. Which one of the following determines that
the Indian Constitution is Federal?
D. Council of State
A. written and rigid Constitution
E. Legislature of State
B. An independent Judiciary
223. For a Election to Lok Sabha, each State shall
be divided into C. Vesting of residuary powers with the Centre

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

A. Constituencies
D. Distribution of powers between the Cen-
B. Territorial Constituencies tre and the States

M
C. Union Constituencies 229. Which Constitutional Article defines the dura-
tion of the Panchayat
D. State Constituencies
224. Which Independent State merged into Indian
Union with the consent of the people?
A. Jammu & Kashmir
RA A. Article 243N
B. Article 243O
C. Article 243E
RI
B. Sikkim D. Article 243B

C. Goa 230. Cripps Mission visited India in

H

A. 1927
D. Hyderabad
IS

B. 1946
225. In which session of Parliament, Railway and
General Budgets are presented C. 1939
A. Monsoon session D. 1942
JA

B. First session 231. If in a country there happens to be the office

of monarchy as well as a Parliamentary form of
C. Winter session government this monarch will be called
D. None of the above A. Head of the State
226. Under whose advice, President of India ap- B. Head of the Cabinet
points Regional Election Commissioner
C. Head of the government
A. Prime Minister D. Both Head of the government and State
B. Chief Justice of High Court 232. Lok Sabha has the supremacy in which matter
C. Governor A. Railway Budget
D. Chief Election Commissioner B. Defence Budget
227. Who was the Prime Minister of India in the C. Foreign affairs
first Lok Sabha D. Financial Bill
359
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 16. CDS

233. Which of the following statements regarding A. 22nd Aug. 1947

the Constituent Assembly are true? B. 22nd July 1947
I) It was not based on adult franchise. C. 22nd Jan. 1947
II) It resulted from direct elections. D. 22nd Oct. 1947
III) It was a multi-party body. 238. The Chief Justice and other Judges of the High
Court are appointed by the
IV) It worked through several committees.
A. Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
Select the correct answer from the codes given

ER
B. Chief Minister of the concerned state
below. Codes:
C. Governor of the concerned state

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

A. I and II
D. President

D
B. II and III 239. Which of the following States are not covered
C. I and IV by the Panchayati Raj?

G
D. I, II, III and IV A. Tripura and Sikkim

N
234. Which famous judgement restricted the au- B. Manipur and Assam
thority of the Parliament to amend the Consti- C. Meghalaya and Nagaland
tution so as to damage or destroy its basic or
essential features or its basic structure? A
D. Assam and West Bengal
H
240. which of the following was the basis on which
A. Golaknath case the Government of India Act 1919 was made?
-C
B. Balananda Saraswati case A. The Council Act of 1909
C. Minerva Mills Ltd. and others case B. Montague s Declaration 1917
N

D. Keshvanand Bharti case C. The victory of England in World War I

YA

235. The first country who adopted Preamble for its D. None of the above
written constitution 241. The first woman president of Indian National
A. USA Congress
RA

B. India A. Sonia Gandhi

B. Sarojini Naidu
C. Britain
C. Indira Gandhi
D. Canada
NA

D. Annie Besant
236. The concept of Electoral College was taken
242. The Constitutional remedies under the Article
from the constitution of
32 can be suspended by the
A. Soviet Union
A. Parliament
B. Britain B. President
C. USA C. Supreme Courts
D. Germany D. Central cabinet
237. When did Constituent Assembly adopt a na- 243. When was the Constituent Assembly estab-
tional Flag lished to form the Constitution?

360
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 A. 06.12.1946 A. President
B. 13.12.1946 B. Union Parliament
C. 22.01.1947 C. Governor of the state
D. 01.12.1946 D. Supreme Court
244. Who among the following created the office of 249. Who supported the views of the Constituent
the District Collector in India? Assembly for making the Indian Constitution

A. Lord Cornwallis A. Sardar Patel

B. Gandhiji
B. Warren Hastings
C. Jinnah
C. The Royal Commission on Decentralisation

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

D. None of the above
D. Sir Charles Metcalfe 250. Who appoints the Chief Justice of India?
A. the Prime Minister

M
245. When was the Madras state renamed Tamil
Nadu? B. the President

RA
A. 1968 C. the Parliament
B. 1971 D. the Governor
C. 1969 251. In India who amended the Constitution
through the first Amendment Bill 1951
D. 1970
RI
A. Lok Sabha
246. Which Constitutional Article define ‘Munici-
palities’ B. Rajya Sabha
H

A. Article 243P C. Provisional Parliament

D. Parliament
IS

B. Article 243Q
252. The first session of the Constituent Assembly
C. Article 243T was held in
D. Article 343U
JA

A. Bombay
247. The Right to Information Act, 2005 makes the B. Lahore
provision of
C. Calcutta
A. Dissemination of all types of information
by all Public authorities to any person. D. New Delhi
253. In the Constituent Assembly, when was the
B. Establishment of Central, State and District
ad-hoc Committee appointed for the National
Level Information Commissions as an appellate
Flag
body.
A. 23rd June 1947
C. Transparency and accountability in Public
authorities. B. 23rd July 1947
D. All of the above C. 23rd Jan. 1947
248. Under a single, integrated, hierarchical judi- D. 23rd Feb. 1947
cial system, the High Court in the states are di- 254. Which of the following has ceased to be a fun-
rectly under the damental right in the Indian Constitution?

361
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 16. CDS

A. Right to live A. 296

B. Right to Constitutional remedies B. 293
C. Right to Property C. 291

D. Right to education for the children upto 14 D. 292

years 260. Under Constitutional Article 343, which is the
255. Vice President of India can be removed from official language of the Union
Office before expiry of his / her term by A. Urdu

ER
A. President B. Hindi
B. Supreme Court C. English

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

D. b&c

D
C. Two Houses of Parliament
261. The first state to become bifurcated after inde-
D. None of the above

G
pendence was
256. The Indian State is regarded as federal because
A. Punjab

N
the Indian Constitution provides for
B. Assam
A. Strong Central Government
B. Sharing of power between Center and
A
C. Bombay
D. Bengal
H
States
C. Residue Powers provide to Central Govern- 262. Which of the following taxes is/are levied by
-C
ment the Union and collected and appropriated by the
States?
D. Head of the State is elected for a fixed pe-
A. Stamp Duties
N

riod
B. Passenger and Goods Tax
257. In a parliamentary system the executive is re-
YA

sponsible C. Estate Duty

A. Directly to the people D. Taxes on Newspapers
RA

B. To legislature 263. Which Constitutional Article defines the Pan-

chayat Raj
C. To judiciary
A. 243O
D. None of the above
NA

B. 243A
258. Under Article 356 Governor shall not be
C. 243
bound by whose advice
D. 243I
A. Chief Minister Council of Ministers
264. Who was the first President of Central Legisla-
B. President tive Assembly before India was Independent
C. Prime Minister A. Sir Frederick Whyte
D. None of the above B. Sir C.H. Seetalbad
259. How many total members were elected in the C. Sardar Patel
Constituent Assembly D. Sir Mohammad Yakub
362
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
265. In which of the following Ministries, the cen- 270. Match List I with List II and select the correct
sus organisation has been functioning on a per- answer by using the codes given below the lists:
manent footing since 1961? [CDSE 2009] List I List II (Features of the Indian Constitu-
tion) (Borrowed from) I. Fundamental Rights (
A. Health and Family Welfare
) U.K. II. Parliamentary system of Government
B. Home Affairs ( ) U.S. . III. Emergency provisons ( ) Ireland
C. Social Justice and Empowerment IV. Directive Principles of State Policy ( ) Ger-
man Reich (E) Canada Codes:
D. Human resource development
A. I-, II-, III-E, IV-
266. The President’s Rule in a State can be contin-
ued for a maximum period of B. I-E, II-, III-, IV-

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

A. 2 years C. I-, II-, III-, IV-
B. 1 year D. I-, II-, III-, IV-
C. 6 months 271. Which of the following writs may be issued to

M
enforce a Fundamental Right
D. 2
years
A. Certiorari

RA
267. With reference to Indian History, the Mem-
bers of the Constituent Assembly from the B. Habeas Corpus
Provinces were C. Mandamus
A. directly elected by the people of those D. Prohibition
RI
Provinces
272. Under which Schedule of the Constitution ev-
B. nominated by the Indian National Congress ery member of Parliament takes oath or affir-
and the Muslim League
H

mation
C. elected by the Provincial Legislative As- A. First
IS

semblies
B. Third
D. selected by the Government for their exper-
tise in constitutional matters C. Fifth
JA

268. Which party said that Indian Constituent As- D. Sixth

sembly does not have a fully representative 273. Which one of the following comes under the
character jurisdiction of both the High Courts and the
A. Congress Supreme Court?
B. Muslim League A. Disputes between the Centre and the
States
C. Unionist Muslim
B. Disputes between the States interse
D. Unionist Scheduled Castes
C. Protection of the Fundamental Rights
269. Who was the father of the Lok Sabha
A. Hukam Singh D. Protection against the violation of the Con-
stitution
B. N. Sanjiva Readdy
274. The power of the Supreme Court of India to
C. G. S. Dhillon decide disputes between two or more States
D. G. V. Mavalankar falls under its

363
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 16. CDS

A. Advisory Jurisdiction 279. Who among the following was the Chairman
of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Con-
B. Appellate Jurisdiction
stitution
C. Original Jurisdiction
A. Rajendra Prasad
D. Writ Jurisdiction
B. C. Rajagopalachari
275. With reference to the presidential election
in India, consider the following statements: C. Tej Bahadur Sapru
[CDSE 2004] D. B.R. Ambedkar

ER
1. The nomination paper of a candidate for 280. In 1938, who among the following definitely
the presidential election should be signed formulated his demand for a Constituent As-

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

by at least 50 electors as proposers and an- sembly elected on the basis of adult franchise?
other 50 as seconders.

D
A. C.R. Das
2. The prescribed security deposit in the
B. Subhash Chandra Bose

G
presidential election is Rupees 25, 000
C. Mahatma Gandhi

N
Which of these statements is are correct?
D. Jawaharlal Nehru
A. 1 Only
B. 2 Only
A
281. Which act separated Burma and Aden from
India?
H
C. Both 1 and 2 A. Indian Councils Act 1909
D. Neither 1 nor 2 B. Government of India Act1919
-C

276. The Council of States is a C. Government of India Act1935

A. house elected every six years
N

D. Indian Independence act 1947.

B. house elected every five years 282. Through which Constitutional Article duties
YA

C. House which is permanent and powers of ‘Comptroller and Auditor Gen-

eral’ is detailed
D. House which can be dissolved
A. Article 153
277. Who of the following acted as the Constitu-
RA

tional Adviser to the Constituent Assembly? B. Article 149

A. M. N. Roy C. Article 199
NA

B. B. N. Rau D. Article 168

C. B. R. Ambedkar 283. Who is authorized to lay down qualifications
to acquire the Citizenship?
D. Sachidananda Sinha
278. Under the British Rule in India, Governor A. Parliament
General was responsible to B. Supreme Court
A. Secretary of India C. President
B. Secretary of Britain D. Prime Minister
C. Secretary of State 284. In which case a joint session of the Lok Sabha
D. None of the above and Rajya Sabha is convened by the President?

364
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 A. When a Finance Bill is to be passed by the A. Arrests can be made without warrant.
Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha with 2/3rd ma-
B. Arrests can be made with warrant.
jority
C. It is under the jurisdiction of a court.
B. To impeach the President
D. Police can register a case without formal
C. If after a bill has been passed by one
complaint.
House and transmitted to the other House and
the bill is rejected by the other House 290. According to the newly adopted Constitution
of Russia, the Prime Minister is appointed by
D. All of the above
285. The impeachment of the President can be ini- A. the State Duma, the Lower Chamber of the
tiated by Federal Assembly

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

A. Either House of the Parliament B. the President, with the consent of the
State Duma
B. a joint sitting of both house of the Parlia-
ment C. the President, with the consent of the Fed-

M
eral Council
C. the Lok Sabha
D. the Federal Council

RA
D. the Rajya Sabha
291. The Constituent Assembly elected ————
286. Which of the following State has a separate on 11.12.1946 as its Permanent Chairman
constitution of its own?
A. Sachidananda Sinha
A. AndhraPradesh
RI
B. Jawaharlal Nehru
B. Karnataka
C. B. R. Ambedkar
C. Tamil Nadu
H

D. Rajendra Prasad
D. Jammu and Kashmir
292. How many visitors came to witness the pro-
IS

287. After 44th Constitutional Amendment provi-

ceedings of the Constituent Assembly
sions relating with election in Part XV of the
Constitution of India have been retained in how A. 52, 500
JA

many Articles
B. 53, 000
A. 324-329A
C. 54, 000
B. 324-329
D. 54, 500
C. 324-327
293. The original copy of the Constitution of India
D. 224-228 was handwritten and calligraphed in
288. Which constitutional article defines the provi- A. Sanskrit
sion in respect of financial emergency
B. English
A. Article 359
C. Hindi
B. Article 357
D. Both English and Hindi
C. Article 356
294. ”To uphold and protect the Sovereignty, Unity
D. Article 350 and Integrity of India” is a provision made in
289. Cognizableoffence refers to an offence where the

365
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 16. CDS

A. Preamble of the Constitution A. President of India

B. Directive Principles of State Policy B. Chief Justice of India

C. Fundamental Rights C. Prime Minister

D. Speaker of Lok Sabha
D. Fundamental Duties
300. The Financial emergency is declared by the
295. Panchayati Raj is mainly aimed at President on which ground?
A. Rural employment A. war

ER
B. Agricultural and rural industries develop- B. threat of war
ment C. breakdown of constitutional machinery

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

C. Political awareness among village people D. credit Goodwill is under threat

D
D. Giving training to villagers for fighting 301. How many copies of the Constitution were
elections printed after the Constituent Assembly framed

G
the same
296. The concept of ’Fundamental Duties’ was

N
taken from the constitution of A. Two
B. One
A. USA
B. Canada
C.
A Three
H
D. Four
C. Australia
302. Which among the following is/are the fea-
-C

D. Soviet Union ture(s) of a Federal State? [NDA 2008]

297. Who made a law for conduction of services 1. The powers of the central and the
N

and tenure of the office of Election Commis- state (Constituent Unit) governments are
sioners and Regional Election Commissioner clearly laid down.
YA

A. Chief Election Commissioner 2. It has an unwritten constitution.

B. President Select the correct answers using codes given
RA

below:
C. Parliament
A. 1 Only
D. State Legislature
B. 2 Only
298. Which one of the following nationalist leaders
NA

has been described as being radical in politics C. Both 1 and 2

but conservative on social issues? D. Neither 1 nor 2
A. Bala Gangadar Tilak 303. Congnizable offence refers to an offence
where
B. Madan Mohan Malaviya
A. Arrests can be made without warrant
C. Gopala Krishna Gokhale
B. Police can register a case without formal
D. Lala Lajpat Rai complaints
299. Whose prior permission is required before the C. Arrests can be made with warrant
money bill is introduced in the Lok Sabha? D. It is under the jurisdiction of a court

366
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
304. Public Order as an item in the Constitution fig- A. Mr. Justice J. M. Shelat
ures in
B. Mr. Justice J. S. Verma
A. the Union List C. Mr. Justice C. J. Sikri
B. the State List D. Mr. Justice K. V. Chandrachud
C. the Concurrent List 310. The term of the Indian President is
D. the Residuary Powers A. 5 years
305. Indian National Congress was established in B. 6 years
the year
C. 7 years
A. 1885

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

D. 10 years
B. 1886 311. Members of the Constituent Assembly were
C. 1857 A. directly elected by the people

M
D. 1887 B. nomonated by the Governor General

RA
306. During the period of Chandra Shekhar, how C. elected by the legislature of the various
many times President’s Rule was imposed provinces
A. 9 D. nominated by Congress and the Muslim
Legue
B. 4
RI
312. Who elected the Chairman of the Drafting
C. 3
Committee of the Constituent Assembly?
D. 11
H

A. B. R. Ambedkar
307. President of India is elected by B. Jawaharlal Nehru
IS

A. Lok Sabha C. Rajendra Prasad

B. Rajya Sabha D. Sardar Vallabhai Patel
JA

C. Elected representatives of Lok Sabha, Rajya 313. Which of the following statements are cor-
Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies rect about the Central Information Commis-
sion? (1) The Central Information Commission
D. People directly
is a statutory body. (2) The chief Information
308. Elections to the Constitutent Assembly was Commissioner and other Information Commis-
held in the year, sioners are appointed by the president of India.
(3) The Commission can impose a penalty upto
A. 1945
a maximum of Rs 25, 000 (4) It can punish an
B. 1942 errant officer. Select the correct answer from
the codes given below: Codes:
C. 1941
A. 1 and 2 only
D. 1946.
B. 1, 2 and 4
309. Under which Chief Justice of India, the Con-
stitution Bench described the basic structure of C. 1, 2 and 3
the Constitution for the first time D. 2, 3 and 4

367
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 16. CDS

314. Which one of the following is not an indepen- A. Article 245

dent department under the Government of In- B. Article 248
dia? [CDSE 2009]
C. Article 146
A. Department of Atomic energy
D. Article 144
B. Department of Bio technology
320. What happens when Rajya Sabha recom-
C. Department of space mends some amendments to a Money Bill?
D. Planning Commission A. the Lok Sabha must implement the amend-

ER
ments.
315. Which one of the following comes under the
jurisdiction of both the High Court and the B. a joint sitting of the Lok Sabha and Rajy

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

Supreme Court? Sabha is called.

D
A. Disputes between the States inter se C. the Lok Sabha may proceed with or with-
out the amendments.

G
B. Protection against the violation of the Con-
stitution D. the Lok Sabha has to return the bill to Ra-
jaya Sabha within fourteen days for reconsider-

N
C. Protection of the Fundamental Rights ation.
D. Disputes between the Centre and the States 321. The office of Vice President was adopted from
316. Delhi was declared as the capital of India in A
the constitution of which country
H
the Following year A. Britain
A. 1909 B. Canada
-C

B. 1911 C. United States

D. Australia
N

C. 1913
322. Which article of the Constitution empowers
D. 1915
YA

the Parliament to legislature on any matter of

317. The National Anthem was written by the State List?
A. Rabindranath Tagore A. 115
RA

B. Bankim Chandra Chatterji B. 183

C. Mohammed Iqbal C. 221

D. None of the above D. 249

NA

323. Under which article of the Indian Constitu-

318. The principal language of Nagaland is
tion, Citizenship of a person can be determined
A. English at the commencement of the Constitution?
B. Naga A. Article 5
C. Assamese B. Article 4
D. Khasi C. Article 6

319. Under which Constitutional Article, Civil and D. Article 9

Judicial authorities are to act in aid of the 324. candidate to become a member of Lok Sabha
Supreme Court should not be less than

368
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 A. 21 years C. Freedom of religion and worship to all
citizens
B. 25 years
D. Practising different religions
C. 30 years
330. Right to education is a
D. 35 years
A. fundamental right
325. Which one of the following right conferred
by the Constitution is not available to non- B. legal right
citizens? C. natural right
A. Protection of life & liberty D. neither fundamental nor legal right
B. Equality before Law 331. Which Constitutional Article deals with rep-

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

resentation of the Anglo-Indian Community in
C. Freedom of expression and speech
the Legislative Assembly
D. Right to constitutional remedies
A. Article 334

M
326. Which of the following organizations looks af-
B. Article 335
ter the quality of Technical and Management
education in India?

RA
C. Article 336
A. NCTE D. Article 333
B. MCI 332. Which Constitutional Article lays down the
provision for a National Commission for SC
C. AICTE
RI
and ST
D. CSIR A. Article 337
327. MISA means
H

B. Article 334
A. Maintenance of Internal Security Act C. Article 338
IS

B. Maintenance of International Security Act D. Article 339

C. Making of Internal Security Act 333. By which Constitutional amendment, the ap-
JA

D. Maintenance of Internal Surety Act pellation Rajpramukh was omitted

328. If there is any disagreement between the Sen- A. 7th Amendment Act 1956
ate and the House of Representatives in USA, it B. 4th Amendment Act 1955
is resolved by
C. 6th Amendment Act 1956
A. The President
D. 10th Amendment Act 1961
B. The Vice-President 334. Chief Election Commissioner cannot be re-
C. The Speaker moved except by which process
D. Conference committee consisting of 3 to A. Resignation
9 members from each House B. Presidential Order
329. The word secular denotes C. Impeachment
A. Keeping away from all religions D. Judicial Decision
B. Belief in one God 335. Which of the following is incorrect?

369
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 16. CDS

A. 1951-56 First Five-Year Plan 340. How many seats were acquired by the other
parties in the Constituent Assembly
B. 1956-61 Second Five-Year Plan
A. 14
C. 1961-66 Third Five-Year Plan
B. 15
D. 1966-71 Fourth Five-Year Plan
336. Who is popularly known as Lokmanya C. 17

A. Bala Gangadar Tilak D. 18

341. Assertion (A): The Indian Constitution closely
B. Bibin Chandra Pal

ER
follows the Britishparliamentary model.
C. Gopala Krishna Gokhale Reason (R): In India the Upper House of the

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

Parliament has judicialpowers.
D. Lala Lajpat Rai

D
337. Under Article 333, how many members from A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct
the Anglo-Indian Community can be nomi- explanationof

G
nated by the Governor in the Legislative As- B. Both A and R are true but R is NOT a cor-
sembly rect explanationof

N
A. 8 C. A is true but R is false
B. 1
A
D. A is false but R is true
H
C. 4 342. The Vice President is elected by an Electoral
College consisting of members of
D. 3
-C

338. Any Court including Supreme Court does not A. Both Houses of Parliament and state legisla-
have constitutional right under Article 143 to tive
N

exercise jurisdiction over any dispute arising B. Both Houses of Parliament

out of any provision of which agreements that
C. Lok Sabha
YA

were in operation before commencement of the

Constitution D. Rajya Sabha
A. Treaty, Agrrement 343. The trio Lal- Bal- Pal, Pal represents
RA

B. Covenant, Engagement A. Bala Gangadar Tilak

C. Sanad B. Bibin Chandra Pal
D. All of the above C. Gopala Krishna Gokhale
NA

339. What was the reasonfor the rejection of the D. Lala Lajpat Rai
Cripps Plan by the Congress? 344. Which Indian leader participated in all the
A. It granted domain status to the Indian Union three round-table conferences?
A. Bala Gangadar Tilak
B. It granted domain status to the provinces B. M.K.Gandhi
C. It indirectly conceded the demand for par- C. Dr.B.R.Ambedkar
tition
D. Jawaharlal Nehru.
D. It was aimed at continuing British rule eve-
nafter the war 345. Who appoints the Chairman of State PSC?

370
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 A. the Prime minister C. The term veto was used in Article 27 of the
United Nations Charter to enable any perma-
B. the President
nent member of the Security Council to prevent
C. the Parliament any resolution from being passed by the major-
ity
D. the Governor
346. During Lal Bahadur Shastri time, how many D. Any member of the Security Council can
times President Rule was imposed prevent any resolution from being passed by
voting against it
A. Four
350. Representative of Union territories in the
B. Ten Council of State shall be choosen in such a
manner as decided by

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

C. Two
D. Fifteen A. As prescribed by law in the Assembly

347. Who had given the idea of a Constitution for B. As prescribed by law by State

M
India of all? C. As prescribed by law by the Union
A. Mahatma Gandhi D. As prescribed by law in the Parliament
B. M. N. Roy
C. B. R. Ambedkar
D. Jawaharlal Nehru
RA
351. Who, among the following, has the final right
to sanction the expenditure of public money in
India
RI
A. Speaker
348. Which one of the following is a feature com-
mon to both the Indian Federation and the B. President
H

American Federation? C. Prime Minister

A. single citizenship D. Parliament
IS

B. Three lists in the Constitution 352. The accountability or responsibility of the

C. Dual judiciary Prime Minister and Cabinet to the Lok Sabha
is
JA

D. federal Supreme Court to interpret the

constitution A. intermittent

349. Which one of the following statements regard- B. indirect

ing the veto power in the Security Council is C. at the time of election
correct according to the United Nations Char-
ter? D. direct, continuous, and collective
353. Under which of the following conditions the
A. The decisions of the Security Council on all
security deposit of a candidate contesting for a
nonprocedural matters must be made by an af-
Lok Sabha seat is returned to him/her? [CDSE
firmative vote of nine members, including the
2009]
concurring, votes of the permanent members of
the Council I. The nomination made by the candidate is
B. Every permanent member of the Security found to be invalid.
Council can prevent any decision from being II. The candidate has withdrawn his/her
accepted, by vetoing it nomination even though it is found valid.

371
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 16. CDS

III. The candidate lost the polls but secured 358. Assertion (A): In India, the political parties
1/6th of the total number of valid votes which formed the governments represented the
polled in that election. majority of seats secured in the elections to the
House of the People at the Centre and the Leg-
Select the correct answers using the codes given islative Assemblies in the States but not the ma-
below: jority of votes. Reason (R): The elections based
A. I and II on the majority vote system decide the result on
the basis of relative majority of votes secured.
B. I, II and III In the context of the above statements, which

ER
one of the following is correct?
C. II and III
A. Both and R are true, and R is the correct ex-
D. I only

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

planation of

D
354. India’s first Defence University is in the State B. Both and R are true, but R is not a correct
of explanation of

G
A. Haryana C. is true, but R is false

N
B. Andhra Pradesh D. is false, but R is true
C. Uttar Pradesh 359. Article 15 deals with
D. Punjab A
A. Equality before law
H
355. National Commission for SC and ST shall be B. Equality of opportunity
made by which constitutional institution C. Prohibition of discrimination
-C

A. Parliament D. Equality of Expression

B. Executive 360. Administrative Tribunal is meant for whom
N

C. Judiciary A. Union
YA

B. Each State
D. State Legislature
C. Two or more States
356. Chief Minister of a State is responsible to
D. All the above
RA

A. Prime Minister
361. Yuan is the currency of
B. Rajya Sabha
A. China
C. Legislative Assembly
NA

B. Japan
D. Governor C. Indonesia
357. Which Constitutional article defines the provi- D. Burma
sions in case of failure of constitutional machi-
362. The Governor of a State is appointed by the
nary in States
President on the advice of the
A. Article 356 A. Prime Minister
B. Article 358 B. Vice- President
C. Article 359 C. Chief Minister
D. Article 369 D. Chief Justice
372
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
363. The power to decide an election petition is 368. Which section of the society has to be rep-
vested in the resented in the Lok Sabha, nominated by the
President?
A. High Court
A. Scheduled caste
B. Election Commission
B. Scheduled tribe
C. Parliament
C. Anglo Indians
D. Supreme Court
364. is the most fundamental of Fun- D. Christians
dametal Rights 369. AllIndia Services can be created by the
A. Personal Liberty A. President

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

B. Right to equality B. U.P.S. .
C. Minority rights C. Prime Minister
D. Religious rights D. Parliament

M
365. Panchayati Raj system was adopted to 370. The President nominates 12 members of the
Rajya Sabha according to

RA
A. Make people aware of politics
A. Their performance as office bearers of cul-
B. Decentralise the power of democracy tural societies.
C. Educate the peasants B. The recommendations made by the Vice
D. To introduce a form of local self- President.
RI
government at the village, block and district C. Their role played in political set up of the
levels country.
H

366. The Union Council of Ministers consists of D. Their distinction in the field of science,
A. Cabinet Ministers, Minister of State and art, literature and social service.
IS

Deputy Ministers 371. Which community gets special provision for

B. Cabinet Ministers and Chief Ministers of Central Services in Article 336
JA

the States A. Sikh Community

C. Prime Minister B. Muslim Community
D. Cabinet Ministers C. Hindu Community
367. Freedom of the Press in India D. Anglo-Indian Community
A. is specifically provided in Article 19 (1) 372. Which women presented National Flag in the
B. of the Constitution Constituent Assembly

C. is implied in the wider freedom of expres- A. Smt. Sarojini Naidu

sion guaranteed by Article 19(1) B. Smt. Hansa Mehta
D. of the Constitution C. Smt. Indira Gandhi
E. is guaranteed under the provisions of Article D. None of the above
361 of the Constitution 373. Which Constitutional Article mentions con-
F. emanates from the operation of the Rule of formation the Supreme Court of powers to issue
Law In the country certain writs

373
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 16. CDS

A. Article 145 C. C R Das

B. Article 168 D. Manabendra Nath Roy
C. Article 169 378. The report of Public Account committee is
presented to
D. Article 139
A. President of India
374. Which Constitutional Article relating with the
subject of election was omitted through 44th B. Chief Justice of India
Amendment Act 1975 C. Prime Minister

ER
A. 329A D. Lok Sabha
B. 329B 379. Which of the following are the tools of good

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

governance?
C. 329C

D
1. Social Audit
D. 329
2. Separation of Powers

G
375. Which one of the following statements is cor-
3. Citizen’s Charter
rect?

N
4. Right to Information
A. In India, the same person cannot be ap-
pointed as Governor for two or more States at Select the correct answer from the codes given
the same time
A
below:
H
B. The Judges of the High Court of the States A. 1, 3 and 4
in India are appointed by the Governor of the B. 2, 3 and 4
-C
State just as the Judges of the Supreme Court
C. 1 and 4
are appointed by the President
D. 1, 2, 3, and 4
C. No procedure has been laid down in the
N

380. Who is appointed as an adhoc judge of the

Constitution of India for the removal of a Gov-
Supreme Court?
ernor from his/her post
YA

A. A sitting judge of a High Court duly qual-

D. In the case of a Union Territory having
ified for appointment as a Supreme Court Judge
a legislative setup, the Chief Minister is ap-
RA

pointed by the Lt. Governor on the basis of

majority support B. A person fully qualified for appointment as
a Judge of the Supreme Court
376. Which part is described by Dr.Ambedkar most
criticised part of the Constitution? C. A retired judge of Supreme Court
NA

A. Part III D. An acting judge of the Supreme Court

381. Which constitutional article emopowers
B. Part II
amendment in the Constitution of India
C. Part IV
A. Article 368
D. Part IX B. Article 356
377. The idea of a constituent assembly for India
C. Article 357
was proposed by
D. Article 359
A. Motilal Nehru
382. Which constitutional article abolished the
B. Mahatma Gandhi Privy Purses

374
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 A. Article 374 387. Who was the last Deputy President of Central
Legislative Assembly during the British Period
B. Article 392
A. Sir Muhammad Yamin Khan
C. Article 363A
B. Shri Abdul Matia Chaudhary
D. Article 364
C. Sir Muhammad Yakub
383. Fundamental rights guaranteed in the Indian
Constitution can be suspended only by D. Shri R. R. Shamnukham Chetty
A. a proclamation of an emergency 388. During T. N. Seshan period as Chief Elec-
tion Commissioner, who was the other Com-
B. an Act passed by the Parliament missioner in the Election Commission
C. an amendment of the Constitution A. M. S. Gill

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

D. the judicial decision of the Supreme Court B. G. V. Krishnamurthy
384. Who among the following was the constitu- C. A&B
tional adviser to the constituent assembly of In-

M
dia? [CDSE 1995] D. None of the above
389. In India, political parties are given recognition
A. Dr B N Rao
B. Dr B R Ambedkar
C. K M Munshi
D. M C Setalvad
RA by
A. Election Commision
B. Speaker of Lok Sabha
C. President
RI
385. The Statutory Status was given to the erst-
D. Law Commision
while Minorities Commission in the year:
390. The Constituent Assembly was created by
H

A. 1994
A. Simla Confrence, 1945
B. 1978
IS

B. Cripps Mission
C. 1993
C. Cabinet Mission Plan
D. 1990
JA

D. Indian Independence Act

386. Which of the following are the discretionary 391. In the Constituent Assembly, how many seats
powers given to the Governor of a State? 1. were fixed for House of People
Sending a report to the President of India for
imposing the President?s rule 2. Appointing A. 500
the Ministers 3. Reserving certain bills passed B. 400
by the State Legislature for consideration of the
C. 300
President of India 4. Making the rules to con-
duct the business of the State Government Se- D. 250
lect the correct answer using the code given be- 392. British educational policy was introduced in
low. India by
A. 1 nd 2 only A. Robert Clive
B. 1 and 3 only. B. Charles Metcalfe
C. 2, 3 and 4 only. C. George Cornewalewis
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4 D. Lord Macaulay

375
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 16. CDS

393. The Balwant Rai Mehta committee recom- 396. In whom are the powers of Judicial Review
mended which one of the following Panchayati vested in India
Raj Structures? [CDSE 2008]
A. All the courts
A. Gram Panchayat at the village level and the B. Supreme Court and all the High Courts
Panchayat Samiti at the block level only.
C. President
B. Panchayat Samiti at the block level and Zilla
Parishad at the district level only. D. Parliament

C. Gram Panchayat at the village level and 397. How many members can be nominated to the

ER
the Panchayat Samiti at the block level and the Lok Sabha by the President?
Zilla Parishad at the district level. A. 2

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

D. Gram Panchayat at the village level and the B. 4

D
Zilla Parishad at the district level only. C. 5
394. Which of the following is / are the function/-

G
D. 12
functions of the Cabinet Secretariat? 1. Prepa-
ration of agenda for Cabinet Meetings 2. Secre- 398. Jurisdiction of the High Courts under Article

N
tarial assistance to Cabinet Committees 3. Al- 226 over service matters has been taken over by
location of financial resources to the Ministries which judicial institution
Select the correct answer using the code given
below. A
A. District Court
H
B. Administrative Court
A. 1 only
C. Chief Metropolitan Magistrate
-C

B. 2 and 3 only
D. High Court
C. 1 and 2 only 399. Righty to Property is now a
N

D. 1, 2 and 3 A. Legal Right

YA

395. Which of the following Statements is/are cor- B. Fundamental Right

rect: Article 26 of the Constitution of India
states that subject to public order, morality and C. Executive Law
health, any religious domination or any section
RA

D. Directive Principle
there of shall have the right [CDSE 2008]
400. Who of the following became President of In-
1. to establish and maintain the institutions dia without serving as Vice President?
for religious and charitable purposes
NA

A. Zakir Husain
2. to manage its own affairs in matters of re- B. V V Giri
ligion
C. Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy
3. to own and acquire movable and immov-
able property D. K R Narayanan
401. Consider the following statements: 1. The
A. 1 Only President shall make rules for the more con-
B. 2 and 3 venient transaction of the business of the Gov-
ernment of India, and for the allocation among
C. 1 and 3 Ministers of the said business. 2. All execu-
D. 1, 2 and 3 tive actions of the Government of India shall be

376
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 expressed to be taken in the name of the Prime A. Directly Elected Body
Minister. Which of the statements given above
B. Indirectly Elected Body
is / are correct?
C. Sovereign Body
A. 1 only
D. None of the above
B. 2 only
407. Balwant Rai Mehta committee suggested that
C. Both 1 and 2
the structure of Panchayati Raj should consist
D. Neither 1 nor 2 of: [CDSE 1992]
402. A proclamation of emergency issued under A. The village, the block and the district lev-
Article 356 must be approved by the Parliament els.

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

within
B. The Mandal and the district levels.
A. 3 months
C. The village, the districts and the state levels.
B. 2 months

M
C. 1 Month D. The village, the Mandal, the district and the
D. 6 weeks state levels.

403. good citizen is one who is

A. Conscious of social obligations
B. Not bothered about anything
RA
408. Which one is considered as the foundation of
British Empire in India?
A. Battle of Plassey
RI
B. Thirty years war
C. Educated
C. India- Pak war
D. Rich in cultural heritage
H

D. India China war

404. Apolitical party is recognised as a national
409. Who among the following was a extremist
IS

party
leader of Indian National Congress?
A. When it contests elections in all the States
of thecountry. A. Bala Gangadar Tilak
JA

B. When it secures at least five per cent of the B. Sarojini Naidu

totalvotes cast in a national election. C. Gopala Krishna Gokhale
C. If it captures power at least in three States. D. M K Gandhi
D. If it is recognised as a political party in 410. Which is correct?
four or more States
A. Lok Sabha cannot be dissolved before 5
405. The President is bound by the years
A. Article 74(1) B. Rajya Sabha lasts only for 6 years
B. Article 74(2) C. Lok Sabha can be dissolved before 5 years
C. Article 74(3)
D. Life of Lok Sabha can be extended indefi-
D. Article 74(4) nitely Defense
406. After Indian Independence, what was not Pro- 411. Which of the following statements about the
visional Parliament provided Indian political system is/are correct?

377
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 16. CDS

a) The president is both Head of the State and A. Article 352

Head of the Government.
B. Article 353
b) Parliament is Supreme.
C. Article 354
c) The Supreme Court is the guardian of the
Constitution. D. Article 358
416. Which one of the following statements regard-
d) The Directive Principles of State Policy are
ing the election of the President of India-is cor-
justiciable.
rect?

ER
Select the correct answer from the codes given A. candidate securing the majority of votes
below: is not automatically elected

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

A. (a), (b), (c) and (d) B. The Supreme Court has no jurisdiction in

D
any doubt or dispute arising in connection with
B. (b), (c) and (d)
the election of the President

G
C. (b) and (c)
C. The Presidential election cannot take place
when one or more State Assemblies stand dis-

N
D. (c) only
solved because all the State Assemblies form
412. Under which Constitutional Article, President
part of the electoral college
has the right to address and send message to the
Parliament A
D. The total value of the votes allotted to both
H
Houses of Parliament is much more than the to-
A. 84 tal value of the votes of all the States taken to-
-C
B. 83 gether

C. 85 417. The Government enacted the Panchayat Ex-

N

tension to Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act in

D. 86 1996. Which one of the following is not identi-
YA

413. On what basis, Election to Lok Sabha and fied as its objective?
State Legislature shall be conducted A. To provide selfgovernance
A. Adult Suffrage B. To recognize traditional rights
RA

B. Indirect Election C. To create autonomous regions in tribal ar-

eas
C. Direct Election
D. To free tribal people from exploitation
NA

D. None of the above

418. What is the minimum age for appointment as
414. Who appoints the Advocate General? a Governor?
A. the Prime Minister A. 35 years
B. the President B. 40 years
C. the Parliament C. 25 years
D. the Governor D. 30 years
415. Under which article of the Indian Constitution 419. Who is responsible for protecting and defend-
proclamation of emergency has been defined ing the Constitution?

378
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 A. President 425. Any violation of Fundamental Rights can be
presented to
B. Chief Justice of India
C. Prime Minister A. Supreme Court only

D. Supreme Court of India B. High Courts only

420. Which Constitutional Article states This Con- C. Both Supreme Court and High Courts
stitution may be called the Constitution of In- D. Tribunal appointed by Government
dia
426. Writs can be issued for the enforcement of
A. Article 397 Fundamental Rights by the
B. Article 396
A. Supreme Court

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

C. Article 395
B. High Courts
D. Article 394
C. Parliament

M
421. A person can lose citizenship through
D. Both a) & b)
A. Deprivation

RA
427. One-rupee currency note in India bears the
B. Termination signature of
C. Renunciation A. The President of India
D. All the above
B. Finance Minister of India
RI
422. The idea of the Constitution of India was first
of all given by C. Governor, Reserve Bank of India
D. Finance Secretary of Government of In-
H

A. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

dia
B. Jawaharlal Nehru
IS

428. In the Concurrent list, how many subjects have

C. Shri M.N. Roy been included
D. Mahatma Gandhi A. 42
JA

423. Which among the following States has the

B. 43
highest number of seats in the Lok Sabha?
C. 45
A. Maharashtra
B. Rajasthan D. 47

C. Tamil Nadu 429. Who decides whether a bill is a Money Bill or

not
D. West Bengal
A. President of India
424. The Judges of the Supreme Court can be re-
moved from office by the B. Chief Justice of India
A. President on request of Parliament C. Prime Minister
B. Chief Justice of India D. Speaker of Lok Sabha
C. President 430. Prohibiton and certiorari are writs issued
D. Prime Minister against

379
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 16. CDS

A. Individuals A. 38th
B. Courts B. 40th
C. Government C. 42nd
D. Legislature D. 44th
431. The interval between two sessions of parlia- 436. When was the Indian National Congress es-
ment must not exceed tablished

A. 3 months A. 1888

ER
B. 1885
B. 6 months
C. 1889

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

C. 4 months

D
D. 1890
D. 100 days
437. Who among the following recommends to the

G
432. Under which Constitutional Article review of Parliament for the abolition of a legislative
judgement or orders lies with the Supreme Council in a state? [CDSE 2009]

N
Court
A. The President of India
A. Article 139
B. Article 137
A
B. The Governor of the concerned state.
C. The legislative council of the concerned
H
C. Article 140 state.
-C
D. Article 141 D. The Legislative assembly of the Con-
433. Who had said that the preamble is the keynote cerned State.
to the Costitution 438. Till 1920, who presided over the Legislative
N

Council of India
A. K M. Munshi
YA

A. Speaker
B. Earnest Barker
B. Deputy Speaker
C. D.D.Basu
C. Governor
RA

D. B R. Ambedker
D. Governor General
434. Who has the power to declare that citizen has
no right to move any court for the enforcement 439. The dispute regarding the election of Prime
Minister and President of India can be decided
NA

of the rights conferred by Part 3 of Fundamen-

tal Rights during the course of emergency by
A. High Court
A. Executive
B. Election Tribunal
B. President
C. Chief Election Commissioner
C. Governor
D. None of the above
D. Prime Minister
440. Of the following, with which does Article 78
435. By which Amendment to the Constitution, the of the Constitution deal with?
Fundamental Duties of the citizens were speci-
fied? 1. Emergency powers of the President

380
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 2. The Prime Ministers duty regarding keep- 444. Under the British Rule when Dyarchy Gov-
ing the President informed about the gov- erning System was introduced for the first time
ernments decisions, policies and actions
A. Govt. of India Act 1919
3. The Presidents power to send advisory
B. Govt. of India Act 1929
messages to the Parliament
4. The Presidents power to get information C. Govt. of India Act 1925
from the Council of Ministers D. Govt. of India Act 1935
A. 1 and 4 445. The state of Bombay was bifurcated into Ma-
harashtra and Gujarat on May 1, in the year
B. 2 and 3
A. 1959

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

C. 2 and 4
B. 1962
D. 2 only
441. The Constitution of India Does not mentions C. 1960

M
the post of: [CDSE 1994] D. 1958
A. The Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha 446. The Union Council of Ministers is appointed

RA
by the
B. The Deputy Prime Minister
C. The Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha A. President of India according to his discre-
tion
D. The Deputy Speaker of the State Legislative
Assemblies B. President of India on the advice of the
RI
Prime Minister
442. The fundamental object of Panchayati Raj sys-
tem is to ensure which among the following? 1. C. Prime Minister of India
H

People’s participation in development 2. Polit- D. Parliament

ical accountability 3. Democratic decentraliza-
tion 4. Financial mobilization Select the correct 447. Which of the following statements regarding
IS

answer using the code given below. the advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court
are correct?
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
JA

I) It is binding on the Supreme Court to give

B. 2 and 4 only
its opinion on any matter referred to it by
C. 1 and 3 only the President.
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4 II) The full bench of the Supreme Court
443. On which subject, Parliament has the power to hears any reference made to it under its
amend the Constitution and the same also need power of advisory jurisdiction.
ratification by the State Legislature III) The opinion given by the Supreme Court
A. Articles 54, 55, 73, 162 and 241 or Chapter on a reference under advisory jurisdiction
IV of Part V, Chapter V of Part VI or Chapter I is not binding on the government.
of Part XI IV) Not more than one reference at a time can
B. Any of the Lists in the Seventh Schedules of be made to the Supreme Court under its
the representation of State on Parliament power of advisory jurisdiction.

C. The Provisions of Article 368 Select the answer from the codes given below:
D. All the above Codes:

381
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
 Chapter 16. CDS

A. I and II C. Wheel of the Dharm

B. I and III D. Wheel of the Law
C. II and III 452. Judges of a High Court are appointed by the
President with the consent of the
D. II and IV
A. Governor
448. Which of the following statement(s) is/are not
correct about the Attorney General of India? (1) B. Governor, the Chief justice of India and
The President appoints a person, who is quali- the Chief Justice of the High Court concerned
fied to be a Judge of a High Court, to be the

ER
C. Governor and the preceding Chief
Attorney General of India. (2) He has the right
of audience in all the Courts of the country. (3) D. Justice of the High court

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

He has the right to take part in the proceedings 453. Inthe estimation of expenditure charged on the

D
of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha. (4) He Consolidated Fund of India, theParliament has
has a fixed tenure. Select the correct answer
A. No power to discuss.

G
from the codes given below: Codes:
B. Full power to discuss.
A. 1 and 4

N
C. Full power to discuss during financial emer-
B. 2, 3 and 4
gency.
C. 3 and 4
A
D. None of the above
H
D. 3 only 454. The original copy of the Constitution of India
449. Who among the following was the finance was
-C
minister of India in the interim government dur-
A. Typeset
ing 1946 - 47? [CDSE 2008]
B. Printed
N

A. RK Shanmukham Chetty
C. Handwritten
B. John Mathai
YA

D. None of the above

C. Liaquat Ali Khan
455. The maximum gap between two sessions of
D. Chintaman Rao Deshmukh the Parliament can be of
RA

450. Under which Constitutional subject in opera-

A. Six months
tion, life of Lok Sabha can be extended by one
year B. Three months
A. Proclamation of Emergency C. Nine months
NA

B. Proclamation of President Rule in the State D. Twelve months

C. Proclamation of Amendment to the Consti- 456. The philosophical society is associated with
tution A. Swami Dayanand
D. None of the above B. Sree Narayana Guru
451. In the Indian National Flag, what does C. Rajaram Mohan Roy
Ashoka’s wheel represent
D. Annie Besant
A. Wheel of the Truth
457. The objective resolution was moved in the
B. Wheel of the Moral Constituent Assembly on

382
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT
A. December 13, 1946 C. November 26, 1946
D. November 26, 1950
B. January 26, 1950

WISHES YOU GOOD LUCK FOR UPCOMING EXAMINATION

M
RA
RI
H
IS
JA

383
EVERY ASPIRANT MUST SOLVE IT