OBJECTIVE

QUESTIONS

ON
PAEDIATRIC

NURSING
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 PAEDIATRIC NURSING
OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS

NOTE: For each of the following questions, select the most appropriate answer and write in the
space provided, the letter which correspond to your choice
…………………………….

1. When examining a 2-year old child with an otoscope the nurse should
A. hold just the head and arms
B. hold the head straight
C. pull the pinna down and back
D. Pull the pinna up and back Ans. ……………….

2. Nursing care for a 7-year-old girl admitted with tetanus should be primarily direction
towards
A. careful monitoring of urinary output
B. decreasing external stimuli
C. encouraging high intake of fluid
D. Giving adequate diet Ans. ……………….

3. Esther, 4years is rushed to the emergency ward convulsing, with the skin very hot to touch.
What immediate step would you take to reduce the temperature?
A. Give her 5mls paracetamol syrup
B. Take the axillary temperature
C. Reassure the mother
D. Tepid sponge the child Ans. ……………….

4. When teaching an adolescent with Type I diabetes about dietary management the nurses
should instruct him to
A. Always carry a concentrated form of glucose
B. Eat all meals at home
C. Let parent prepare food separately for him
D. Weigh all food on a gram scale Ans. ……………….

5. Adolescent girl suffering from cancer is on antineoplastic drugs. The side effect of these
drugs that requires early preparation of the patient is
A. alopecia
B. constipation
C. generalized short-term paralysis
D. Retarded growth in height Ans. ……………….

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6. An essential nursing action when caring for a small child with severe diarrhoea and
vomiting is to
A. check weight daily
B. encourage oral fluids intake
C. keep body temperature below 38oC
D. Replace lose calories Ans. ……………….

7. During the teenage years, the nutrition focus emphasizes

A. fat intake
B. prevention of drug abuse
C. prevention of obesity
D. Self and body image Ans. ……………….

8. A 7-year-old boy has a fractured femur. He is put in P.O.P cast and is being discharged.
What is the most important advice that the nurse must teach about the boy’s care? The
A. Cast should be kept clean
B. Cast should not be touched for at least 12 hours
C. Circulation must be watched closely
D. Pain should be assessed every 4 hours Ans. ……………….

9. A 7-year-old boy is admitted to the kids ward with suspected right sided pneumonia. The
appropriate position for the child would be
A. head of bed elevated 10o
B. in a prone position
C. in supine position
D. Turned on the right side Ans. ……………….

10. A one –year-old girl is admitted to the ward diagnosed with dysentery. On discharge, what
is the most important information the nurse must impart to the mother?
A. As soon as the child has diarrhoea place her on NPO for 8 hours
B. Do not wait for so long the next time before you bring the child to the hospital
C. Observe good hygiene to reduce faeco-oral spread
D. Start with anti-diarrhoea medication before bringing the child
to hospital Ans. ……………….

11. The purpose of traction for children with fracture is to

A. Make the bone grow faster
B. Prepare the area for surgery
C. Prevent future fractures
D. Realign bone fragments Ans. ……………….

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12. To promote absorption of an iron supplement it should be administered
A. During meal
B. Immediately before meals
C. Two hours after meals with orange juice
D. Two hours after meals with milk Ans. ……………….

13. The side effects of oral iron therapy include

I. Blackened stools
II. Darkened teeth
III. Darkening of the skin
IV. Gastric irritation

A. I, II and III
B. I, II and IV,
C. II, III and IV
D. I, II, III and IV Ans. ……………….

14. A child with lymphatic leukaemia has a very low platelets count. An appropriate nursing
intervention would be to
A. discourage active play to avoid getting hurt
B. Encourage a high fibre diet
C. Keep the child isolated to avoid infection
D. Provided frequent rest periods Ans. ……………….

15. What signs and symptom would you expect in a 3-year old girl diagnosed to diabetes
mellitus?
A. Bed-wetting, increased thirst, huger, weight gain
B. Bed-wetting, lethargy, poor appetite, weight loss
C. Increased hunger, thirst, weight gain
D. Weight loss, bed-wetting, lower leg cramping Ans. ……………….

16. Nursing care that helps to prevent sickle cell crisis is

A. careful observation of all vital signs
B. high iron, low fat, high-protein diet
C. limitation of activity
D. Protection from infection Ans. ……………….

17. A 6-year-old girl is admitted sickle cell crisis. Priority nursing concerns would be
A. Hydration and pain management
B. Nutrition and antibiotics
C. Nutrition and hydration
D. Pain management and antibiotics Ans. ……………….

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18. The nurse would explain to a mother whose child has been given tetanus toxoid the
injection will confer
A. Life-long active natural immunity
B. Life-long passive immunity
C. Long-lasting active immunity
D. Temporary passive natural immunity Ans. ……………….

19. A common finding on most children with cardiac abnormalities

A. A family history of cardiac abnormalities
B. Cyanosis and clubbing of finger tips
C. Delayed physical growth
D. Mental retardation Ans. ……………….

20. When administering IV fluids to a dehydrated infant the most critical factor confronting
the nurse is the
A. Assurance of sterility
B. Calculation of fluid volume to be infused
C. Maintenance of the fluid at body temperature
D. Maintenance of the prescribed rate of flow Ans. ……………….

21. Before administering a tube feeling to an infant the nurse should

A. Irrigate the tube with water
B. Place the baby in the recumbent position
C. Provide the baby with a pacifier
D. Slowly instil 10ml of formula Ans. ……………….

22. An 18months girl on admission with severe asthmatic attack is put on prednisone 15mg
tid. the nurse should
A. Check the child’s oesinophils count daily
B. Ensure the child rests as much as possible
C. Keep the child NPO except for medication
D. Prevent exposing the child to infection Ans. ……………….

23. The primary task to be accomplished by an infant between 12 and 15 months of age is to
learn to
A. Climb stairs
B. Say simple words
C. Use a spoon
D. Walk erect Ans. ……………….

24. Which of the following will make you suspect that a child with measles is developing
bronchopneumonia?
A. Increased pulse rate
B. Increased respiration
C. Redness of eyes
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 D. Wheezing Ans. ……………….

25. Growth and development of the infant is influenced by

i. Environment
ii. Heredity
iii. Nutrition
iv. Religion

A. I and II
B. II and IV
C. I, III and IV
D. I, II and III Ans. ……………….

26. Which of the under listed drugs will you get ready for use when a child is brought to the
emergency room with convulsion?
A. Ampicillin
B. Chloroquine
C. Hydrocortisone
D. Phenobarbital Ans. ……………….

27. How would you reduce anxiety in a child on admission?

I. Changing nurses daily
II. Confining child to bed
III. Involving parents in the care
IV. Seeing familiar faces daily
A. I and II
B. I and III
C. III and IV
D. I, II and III Ans. ……………….

28. Who should sign the consent form of an 11-year old boy for operation
A. Parents after explanation
B. Relative of the child
C. Sister in charge
D. The child after careful explanation Ans. ……………….

29. The most influential factor negatively affect the health status of children is
A. Chronic illness
B. Family predisposition to illness
C. Poverty
D. Prematurity Ans. ……………….

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30. The mouth of an infant who has thrush will be managed by
I. Administration of nystatin suspension
II. Brushing the teeth
III. Gently removing the white patches
IV. Saline swabbing of mouth
A. I and IV
B. II and III
C. I, II and III
D. II, III and IV Ans. ……………….

31. What action would a nurse take when a child refuses to take his medication?
A. Coax or plead with him to take it
B. Let him see other children taking their medication
C. Tell him that you will give him an injection
D. Urge him to take it to make him well Ans. ……………….

32. Which of the following is an early complication of meningitis?

A. Cerebral oedema
B. Deafness
C. Hydrocephalus
D. Paralysis Ans. ……………….

33. The clinical manifestations of a child with marasmus include

I. Good appetite
II. Miserable looking
III. Oedema
IV. Wasting
A. I and II
B. I, II and IV
C. I, III and IV
D. II and IV Ans. ……………….

34. An 8-year old boy on admission with sickle cell crisis is for discharge. The education you
would give to the child and parents should include
I. Ensuring that prescribed drugs are taken daily
II. Sleeping at least 14 hours a day
III. Taking balanced diet
IV. Taking plenty of nourishing fluids
A. I and II
B. I, II and III
C. II, III and IV
D. I, III and IV Ans. ……………….

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35. Factors contributing to normal growth before and after birth include
I. Nutrition
II. Sex hormones
III. Trophic hormones
IV. Weight of mother
A. I and II
B. I, II and III
C. I and III
D. I, II and IV Ans. ……………….

36. Which of the following sets of symptoms will suggest that a child is suffering from
meningitis?
A. Fever, headache, vomiting, opisthotonus
B. Fever, headache, trismus, opisthotonus
C. Fever, headache, trismus, spasms
D. Photophobia, trimus, headache, opisthotonus Ans. ……………….

37. What is the immediate priority in the nursing care of a 6-year-old child admitted with
pneumonia?
A. Elimination
B. Exercise
C. Nutrition
D. Rest Ans. ……………….

38. A mother of 6 months old child wants to know what foods are introduced first. The answer
would be
A. Cereal an soft boiled egg for breakfast
B. Milled rice, cereal and mashed fruits
C. Meat, fish then add fruits and vegetables
D. Sweets such as fruits and vegetable Ans. ……………….

39. What care would you give to a baby undergoing phototherapy?

I. Ensure adequate fluid intake
II. Ensure maximum skin exposure
III. Maintain the baby’s temperature
IV. Protect the eyes from light
A. I, II and III
B. I, II and IV
C. I, III and IV
D. I, II, III and IV Ans. ……………….

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40. In nursing an unconscious child your objective is to
I. Ensure the child is safe and comfortable
II. Maintain hydration, nutrition and excretion
III. Prevent complications
IV. Stimulate the child
A. I, II and III
B. I, II and IV
C. I, III and IV
D. I, II, III and IV Ans. ……………….

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NOTE: For each of the following questions, select the most appropriate answer and write in the
space provided, the letter which correspond to your choice
…………………………….

1. After circumcision of a new born male, the most essential immediate post-operative thing
to observe is:
A. Decreased urinary output
B. Haemorrhage
C. Infection
D. Shrill or plercing cry Ans. ……………….

2. The physician should be informed the following observation in a 7 year old child with
fractured femur with full leg cast.
A. Cast still damp and worm after 24 hours
B. Increase urinary output
C. Inability to move the toe
D. Pedal pulse of 90 b/m Ans. ……………….

3. The following criterion is most likely to be used by the physician to select drug for a 6 year
old with pneumonia
A. Child tolerance of the drug
B. Physician’s preference for the drug
C. Selectivity of the causative organism
D. Sensitivity of the causative organism Ans. ……………….

4. The most earliest sign of sexual maturity in young girls between 9 to 12 years
A. Attention to grooming
B. Increase in size of the breast
C. Interest in opposite sex
D. The appearance of axillary and pubic hair Ans. ……………….

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5. In leukaemia the following occur EXCEPT
A. Decreased platelets
B. Increase white blood cell production
C. Liver remains normal
D. Normal bone marrow is replaced with blast cells Ans. ……………….

6. The phallic stage in Freud’s psychosexual development is between age;

A. 1 to 3 years
B. 3 to 5 years
C. 3 to 6 years
D. 6 to 8 years Ans. ……………….

7. The nurse understands that in patent ductusarteriosus, blood shunt

A. Aorta into the pulmonary artery
B. Inferior vena cava to left atrium
C. Left atrium to right atrium
D. Pulmonary artery to the aorta Ans. ……………….

8. A three year old child who has ingested a bleach will exhibit the following EXCEPT
A. Anxiety
B. Drooling
C. Severely burning pain in the mouth
D. Cyanosis Ans. ……………….

9. A viral infection in a child characterized by red blotchy rash and Koplik’s spot is known
as;
A. Chicken pox
B. Diphtheria
C. Measles
E. Pertussis Ans. ……………….

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10. In caring for a child with superficial burns, the following actions are taken EXCEPT
A. Break the blisters before dressing
B. Clean the area
C. Cover area with sterile dressing
D. Serve analgesics Ans. ……………….

11. When responding to a call of a visually impaired child on admission, it is important for the
nurse to
A. Address the child when she enters the room
B. Respond to the call promptly
C. Send an orderly to attend to the child
D. Touch the child before speaking to him or her Ans. ……………….

12. The nurse would assess the following in an infant with hydrocephalus
A. Abdominal girth
B. Fontanels
C. Urinary output
D. Vital signs Ans. ……………….

13. The most critical factor in the immediate care of an infant after repair of cleft lip is
A. Administration of drugs to reduce oral secretions
B. Administration of intravenous infusion
C. Maintenance of patent airway
D. Prevention of vomiting Ans. ……………….

14. How long after birth physiological jaundice usually occurs

A. 24 hours
B. 48 hours
C. 72 hours
D. 1 week Ans. ……………….

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15. Rhesus incompatibility usually occurs when the mother
A. And foetus are both rhesus
B. And foetus are both rhesus positive
C. Is rhesus negative and foetus is rhesus positive
D. Is blood group O and foetus is group AB Ans. ……………….

16. The first step in the management of toxic substances is

A. Administer appropriate antidote
B. Administer supportive and symptomatic care
C. Prevent further absorption
D. Remove obvious remnants Ans. ……………….

17. The following is the best way to detect fluid retention in a child with nephrotic syndrome
A. A measurement of abdominal girth daily at the same time
B. Monitoring of the amount of 24 hours urine collected daily at same time
C. Monitoring of child’s weight daily at the same time
D. None of the above ` Ans. ……………….

18. Which of the following disease condition in vitamin B1 deficiency

A. Beriberi
B. Mumps
C. Pellagra
D. Scurvy Ans. ……………….

19. In assessing a 2-month old infant the nurse expects the child to
A. Bang hold object together
B. Raise hand chest and can hold in position
C. Roll from supine to prone position
D. Sits alone, uses hands for support Ans. ……………….

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20. At which age in the developmental stages is an infant expected to have first tooth eruption?
A. 3-4 months
B. 5-9 months
C. 10-12 months
D. 13-18 months Ans. ……………….

21. An infant with birth weight 2,500mg without regards to gestational age is termed as
A. Intra uterine growth retardation
B. Low birth rate
C. Preterm
D. Small for date Ans. ……………….

22. Which of the following is a causative organism for pemphigus neonatorium

A. Candida albican
B. Staphylococcus areus
C. Streptococcus
D. Varicella zoster Ans. ……………….

23. In caring for a child with sickle cell crisis the most important nursing intervention would
be
A. Give iron supplement
B. Maintenance of adequate nutrition
C. Prevention of infection
D. Relief of pain Ans. ……………….

24. When teaching a mother how to administer eye drop to a 5-year old child the nurse should
ask her to place the drop
A. Anywhere that makes contact with the eye surface
B. Inside the lower eyelid
C. On the sclera as the child looks to the side
D. Under the upper eyelid Ans. ……………….

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25. A 5-month old child develops severe diarrhoea and has been put on IV fluids. The nurse
must observe the rate of flow to
A. Avoid fluid getting into the tissue
B. Prevent cardiac overload
C. Prevent increased urinary output
D. Replace all fluids lost Ans. ……………….

26. A child in sickle cell crisis will need the following

I. Analgesic
II. Exercise
III. Plenty of fluid
IV. Warmth
A. II and II
B. II and IV
C. IV and I
D. I, III and IV Ans. ……………….

27. The nurse suspect bleeding when a child who has had tonsillectomy
A. Becomes pale
B. Complains of thirst
C. Cough persistently
D. Swallows frequently Ans. ……………….

28. Which of the following will make you suspect that a child with measles is developing
bronchopneumonia
A. Increase pulse rate
B. Increased respiration
C. Redness of eye
D. Wheezing respiration Ans. ……………….

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29. The nurses’ immediate action when a child is rushed in with severe diarrhoea and vomiting
will be
I. Keep child warm in bed
II. Prepare trolley for intravenous infusion
III. Reassure mother of safety of the child in the hospital
IV. Start oral rehydrated therapy
A. I and II
B. II and IV
C. II,III and IV
D. I, II, III and IV Ans. ……

30. How would you reduce anxiety in a child on admission

I. Changing nurses daily
II. Confining child to bed
III. Involving parent in the care
IV. Seeing familiar faces daily
A. I and II
B. I and III
C. III and IV
D. I, II and III Ans. ……………….

31. The presence of parents during painful procedure on their toddler should be
A. Based on individual assessment of the parent
B. Based on the type of procedure to be performed
C. Discourage for the benefit of the parent and the child
D. Encourage and permitted if the child desires their presence Ans. ……………….

32. The most important nursing intervention for a 3-year old child with nephrotic syndrome is
A. Encourage fluids
B. Maintaining bed rest
C. Prevention of infection
D. Regulating the diet Ans. ……………….

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33. Which of the following children should a nurse in the out-patient department see first
A. An 18 months old with jaundice
B. A 4-year old with nephrotic syndrome
C. 12 months old with febrile convulsion
D. 2 years old with sickle cell crisis Ans. ……………….

34. A 6 year old child is admitted to the hospital with pneumonia. An immediate priority in the
child’s nursing care would be
A. Nutrition
B. Medication
C. Reassurance
D. Rest Ans. ……………….

35. When caring for a neonate with an imperforate anus, the nurse should observe the urine for
A. Acetone
B. Bile
C. Blood
D. Meconium Ans. ………

36. A child with acute leukaemia is put on prednisolone and other drugs. One side effect of
prednisolone is
A. Alopecia
B. Anorexia
C. Mood changes
D. Weight loss Ans. ……

37. One of the complication of pinworm infections is

A. Appendicitis
B. Hepatitis
C. Pneumonia
D. Stomatis Ans. ……………….

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38. A child sitting on a chair in the playroom begins a tonic seizure with a clenched jaw. What
should the nurse do?
A. Attempt to open the jaw
B. Lower the child to the floor
C. Place a large pillow under the head
D. Shout for assistance Ans. ………

39. A primary task to be accomplished between 12 and 15 months of age is to start

A. Climbing stairs
B. Say simple words
C. Use a cup
D. Walk erect Ans. ………

40. The following are common childhood communicable disease EXCEPT

A. Measles
B. Pneumonia
C. Tuberculosis
D. Whooping cough Ans. …………

…………………………………………

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NOTE: For each of the following questions, select the most appropriate answer and write in the
space provided, the letter which correspond to your choice
…………………………….

1. An infant should be able to hold its head erect at

A. 1 month
B. 2 month
C. 3 month
D. 4 month Ans. ……………….

2. Permanent dentition begins at/around what age(in years)

A. 2 years
B. 4 years
C. 6 years
D. 8 years Ans.
……………….

3. If a child develops a reaction during blood transfusion the nurse should

A. Call the paediatrician
B. Relief symptoms with drugs
C. Slow the flow rate
D. Stop the transfusion Ans. ……………….

4. A 9 year old boy with acute lymphocyte leukaemia having prednisolone and vincristine
complain of constipation. What is the cause of the constipation
A. Enlarged spleen obstructing the bowel
B. Leukaemia mass obstructing the bowel
C. Side effect of vincristine
D. Toxic effect of prednisolone Ans. ……………….

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5. Kojo who has tetralogy of Fallot usually squats when he is dyspnoeic. The squatting
relives the symptoms by
A. Allowing maximal chest expansion and oxygenation
B. Delaying venous return to the heart
C. Increasing the production of red blood cells
D. Increasing venous return to the heart Ans. ……………….

6. A sudden onset of enuresis in a previously dry child is indicative of

A. Emotional stress
B. Nephritis
C. Nephrotic syndrome
D. Pyelonephritis Ans. ……………….

7. Which of the following parts will you use when giving an injection to a 6 month old
A. Anterior thigh
B. Deltoid muscle
C. Dorsogluteal
D. Lateral parts of the thigh Ans. ……………….

8. In examining a 2 year old child with an otoscope the nurse

A. Holds just the head and arms
B. Holds the head straight
C. Pulls the pinna down and back
D. Pulls the pinna up and back Ans. ……………….
9. A child in sickle cell crisis will need the following
I. Analgesic
II. Exercise
III. Plenty of fluids
IV. Warmth
A. I and IV
B. II and III
C. II and IV
D. I, III and IV Ans. ……………….
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10. The earliest sign of respiratory distress in a young infants
A. Cyanosis
B. Grunting
C. Rapid respiration
D. Sternal and subcostal retraction Ans. …………

11. The nurse suspects bleeding when a child who has had tonsillectomy
A. Becomes pale
B. Complains of thirst
C. Coughs persistently
D. Swallows frequently Ans. ……………….

12. A vital disease that affects the motor cell of the anterior horn of the spinal cord is
A. Chicken pox
B. Poliomyelitis
C. Rubella
D. Shingles Ans. ……………….

13. High concentration of oxygen to small infants may cause blindness from
A. Corneal ulceration
B. Iridocyclitis
C. Retinoblastoma
D. Retrolental fibroplasia Ans. ……………….

14. The vomitus in pyloric stenosis is not bile stained because

A. The bile duct is obstructed
B. The obstruction is above the opening of the common bile duct
C. The obstruction of the cardiac sphincter prevent bile from entering the oesophagus
D. The sphincter of the bile duct is connected to the hypertrophied
pyloric muscle Ans. ……………….

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15. Which of the following blood disorders are found in children?
I. Haemophilia
II. Sickle cell disease
III. Spherocytosis
IV. Thalassaemia
A. I and II
B. I, II and IV
C. I, II and III
D. I, II, III and IV Ans. ……………….

16. The cardiac defects associated with Fallots tetralogy include

A. Abnormal connection between the pulmonary artery and the aorta, right
ventricular hypertrophy and atrial septal defect
B. Origin of the aorta from the right ventricle and of the pulmonary artery for the left
ventricle
C. Right ventricular hypertrophy, ventricular septal defects, and stenosis of pulmonary
artery from the left ventricle.
D. Right ventricular hypertrophy, atrial and ventricular defect and mitral valve
Stenosis Ans. ……………….

17. A frequent finger pricks and daily injections may be distressing to a diabetic child. How
can you help the child to adjust and adapt?
I. Always reward after an injection with a cuddle or praise
II. Always tell the child what is going to happen to promote trust
III. Never surprise an unprepared child with a syringe
IV. Understand her distress and encourage her to talk about it if she wish
A. I and II
B. I and III
C. II, III and IV
D. I, II, III and IV Ans. ……………….

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18. Hypospadias is a congenital malformation in which the urethra in the male
A. Fails to develop
B. Fails to open
C. Opens on the lower surface of the penis
D. Opens on the upper surface of the penis Ans. ……………….

19. An 8 year old child with sickle cell disease is admitted with a vaso-occlusive crisis.
Priority nursing concerns would be
A. Hydration and pain management
B. Nutrition and antibiotics
C. Nutrition and hydration
D. Pain management and antibiotics Ans. ……………….

20. The following are findings needed to diagnose hookworm infestation EXCEPT
A. Anaemia
B. Hookworm ova in the stool
C. Pus in the stool
D. Positive occult blood test Ans. ……………….

21. Immunity by antibody formation during the course of a disease is

A. Active natural
B. Active artificial
C. Passive natural
D. Passive artificial Ans. ……………….

22. An injection consisting of bacteria cells that have been modified is

A. An antitoxin
B. Toxin
C. Toxoid
D. Vaccine Ans. ……………….

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23. Nursing care for a child admitted with tetanus following a punctured wound should be
primarily directed towards
A. Careful monitoring of urinary output
B. Decreasing external stimuli
C. Encouraging high intake of fluid
D. Maintaining body alignment Ans. ……………….

24. Nursing care for an infant after surgical repair of a cleft lip should include
A. Giving the baby nil per os (N.P.O)
B. Keeping the infant from crying
C. Placing the infant in a semi fowler’s position
D. Spoon feed for the first 2 days after surgery Ans. ……………….

25. Anaemia in a child may occur as a result of

I. Destruction of red cells
II. Insufficient production of haemoglobin
III. Insufficient production of red cells
IV. Loss of blood
A. I and II
B. III and IV
C. II, III and IV
D. I, II, III and IV Ans. ……………….

26. Sessey, 3 years old, is rushed to the emergency room convulsing; the skin is very hot to
touch. What immediate stop will you take to reduce the temperature?
A. Give cold bath
B. Take the axillary temperature
C. Tepid sponge the child
D. Reassure mother Ans. ……………….

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27. A 9-year old boy has a fractured femur and a full leg cast has been applied. The nurse
should immediately notify the physician if assessment demonstrates
A. A cast that remains damp and warm after 4 hours
B. An increased urinary output
C. An inability to move the toes
D. Pedal pulse of 90 bpm Ans. ……………….

28. Aku is to be admitted to hospital for skeletal traction. The nurse explains to his mother that
the purpose of the traction is to
A. Make the bone grow faster
B. Prepare the area for surgery
C. Realign bone fragments
D. Prevent future fractures Ans. ……………….

29. Signs of under feeding in babies include

I. Abdominal discomfort
II. Constipation
III. Crying
IV. Failure to gain weight
A. I and II
B. I, II and IV
C. II and III
D. II, III and IV Ans. ……………….

30. One complication of otitis media is

A. mastoiditis
B. meningitis
C. parotitis
D. tonsillitis Ans. ……………….

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31. A child suspected of having pulmonary tuberculosis will undergo all the following
investigations EXCEPT
A. general x-ray examination
B. investigation of the family
C. sputum examination
D. Tuberculin skin test Ans. ……………….

32. Some babies develop slight jaundice from the third day after birth or later. This is called
A. hepatitis
B. jaundice in the infant
C. neonatal hepatitis
D. Physiological jaundice Ans. ……………….

33. The following are helpful suggestions in handling a diabetic child who refuses to eat
EXCEPT
A. ensure her meals are attractive and the environment appealing
B. do not overload plate in the hope she will eat “something”
C. force the child to eat when food is ready
D. try to ensure she eats in the company of others Ans. ……………….

34. The rate of flow of IV infusion must be regulated often by the nurse to
A. Avoid IV infiltration
B. Prevent increased flow rate
C. Prevent cardiac overload
D. Prevent decrease body weight Ans. ……………….

35. A child has been admitted for surgery to correct a congenital mega colon. Enemas are
ordered pre- operative to cleanse the bowl. The best solution to use is
A. Hypertonic saline
B. Isotonic saline
C. Soap suds
D. Tap water Ans. ……………….

25
36. An essential nursing action when caring to the small child with severe diarrhoea is to
I. Encourage fluid orally
II. Examine the skin for dehydration
III. Replace lost electrolyte
IV.Check body weight
A. I and II
B. I, II and III
C. II, III and IV
D. I, II, III and IV Ans. ……………….

37. All parents of children with the following condition will need counselling EXCEPT
A. Down’s syndrome
B. Glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency (G6PD)
C. Haemophilia
D. ABO incompatibility Ans. ……………….

38. The following are stages of grand mal epilepsy EXCEPT

A. Aura
B. Clonic
C. Focal
D. Tonic Ans. ……………….

39. Jane developed reddened rushes on the cheek which later involve the arm flexures, leg and
gams. Which of the following has she got?
A. Eczema
B. Impetigo
C. Psoriasis
D. Scabies Ans. ……………….

40. The test which would be done to confirm the diagnosis of meningitis
is…LUMBERPUNCTURE

26
For each of the following questions, select the most appropriate answer and write in the space
provided, the letter which corresponds to your choice
……………………………………

1. An infant should be able to sit fairly well unsupported at

A. 3 months
B. 4 months
C. 7 months
D. 9 months Ans. ……………….

2. Permanent dentition begins at around

A. 6 months
B. 4 months
C. 6 years
D. 8 years Ans. ……………….

3. Which of the following activities will the child NOT do at 3 months?

A. Follows a light to the periphery
B. Has taste preference
C. Listens to sounds
D. Smile in response to a person or an object Ans. ……………….

4. Which of the following parts will you use when giving IM injection to a 5-month-old
child?
A. Anterior thigh
B. Deltoid
C. Dorsogluteal
D. Lateral part of the thigh Ans. ……………….

5. Which of the following blood disorders is sex-linked?

A. Haemophilia
B. Sickle cell disease
C. Spherocytosis
D. Thalassaemia Ans. ……………….

27
6. Which of these will be a priority need of a child with sickle cell crisis?
I. Adequate nutrition
II. Analgesics
III. Plenty of fluids
IV. Warmth
A. I and II
B. I, II and III
C. I, III and IV
D. II, III and IV Ans. ……………….

7. Hypospadias is a congenital malformation in which the urethra in the male

A. Fails to descend
B. Fails to develop
C. Opens on the lower surface of the penis
D. Opens on the upper surface of the penis Ans. ……………….

8. A 7-year-old with a fractured had P.O.P applied. The nurse should notify the doctor at
once when assessment shows
A. An inability to move the toes
B. An increased urinary output
C. Pedal pulse of 90bpm
D. That the P.O.P remains damp after 4 hours Ans. ……………….

9. Anaemia in a child may occur as a result of

I. Destruction of erythrocytes
II. Insufficient production of haemoglobin
III. Insufficient production of red blood cells
IV. Severe bleeding
A. I and II
B. II and III
C. II, III and IV
D. I, II, III and IV Ans. ……………….

28
10. A 7-year old had tonsillectomy done. He is still unconscious but is swallowing frequently.
This is a sign of
A. Anoxia
B. Bleeding
C. Hypoxia
D. Thirst Ans. ……………….

11. A viral disease that affects the motor cells of the anterior horn of the spinal cord is
A. Chicken pox
B. Herpes zoster
C. Multiple sclerosis
D. Poliomyelitis Ans. ……………….

12. Administering high concentrations of oxygen to premature babies may cause retrolental
fibroplasia with
A. Blindness
B. bronchiolitis
C. Deafness
D. Sterile meningitis Ans. ……………….

13. Children with Fallot’s tetralogy often squats when dyspnoeic because squatting
A. Allows maximal chest expansion and oxygenation
B. Delays venous return to the heart
C. Increases the production of red blood cells
D. Increases venous return to the hear Ans. ……………….

14. Before introducing a tube feeding to a baby the nurse should

A. Irrigate the tube with water
B. Place the baby in the Trendelenburg position
C. Provide the baby with pacifier
D. Slowly instil 10mls of formula Ans. ……………….

29
15. A 2-year-old on admission with severe bronchial asthma is on prednisone 15mg bd. The
nurse should
A. Check the child’s eosinophil count
B. Give the child nothing by mouth
C. Let the child rest as much as possible
D. Prevent exposing the child to infection Ans. ……………….

16. The primary indication of prednisone in the treatment of leukaemia in children is that it
A. Decrease inflammation
B. Increases appetite and sense of well being
C. Reduces irradiation oedema
D. Suppresses mitosis is lymphocyte Ans. ……………….

17. Tetracycline is contraindicated in children under 8 years and pregnant women because it
may cause
A. Changes in the bone structure of children and pregnant women
B. Lower erythrocytes production
C. Persistent vomiting in children under 8 years
D. Tooth enamel defects in children under 8 years and foetus Ans. ……………….

18. A 3-year-old wets the bed during sleep. The nurse should
A. Change his bed and put rubber sheet on it
B. Change his bed clothes and make no issue of it
C. Explain to him that big boys should try to call the nurse
D. Tell him to help remake the bed Ans. ……………….

19. The most important complication of mumps in male children is

A. Bronchopneumonia
B. Diphtheria
C. Renal disorders
D. Sterility Ans. ……………….

30
20. A 4-year-old girl being admitted for surgery is crying and pulling her mother’s dress while
clutching a baby doll. The nurse should say;
A. “Hello, little girl, let me show you to your bed”
B. “Hello, my name is sister Andy, let’s go to your room, then we can play”
C. “Hi, I know you are afraid. Is this your special baby doll”?
D. “Oh, come on, stop crying. Nobody will hurt you” Ans. ……………….

21. A child sitting on a chair in the playroom suddenly begins to have tonic-clonic seizure with
clenched jaw. The nurse should immediately
A. Attempt to open the jaw and insert a gag
B. Call for an assistant
C. Lower the child to the floor
D. Place a large pillow under the head Ans. ……………….

22. Nursing care for an infant after the surgical repair of cleft lip should include
A. Giving the baby nothing by mouth
B. Keeping the infant from crying
C. Placing the infant in a semi-siting position
D. Spoon feeding for the first 2 days after surgery Ans. ……………….

23. Thirty six hours after delivery a new born has not passed meconium and Hirschsprung’s
disease in suspected. To help relieve the obstruction and confirm the diagnosis the doctor
will order.
A. insertion of a rectal tube p.r.n
B. multiple saline enemas
C. passing of nasogastric tube
D. Surgical intervention Ans. ……………….

24. A 5-month old infant has diarrhoea and is on IV fluids. The rate of flow must be observed
often by the nurse to
A. Avoid IV infiltration
B. Prevent cardiac overload
C. Prevent air from entering the tube
D. Replace all fluid lost Ans. ……………….

31
25. Of primary importance when planning for the discharge of a child admitted of sickle cells
crisis is the child’s need for
A. A high calorie diet
B. At least 14 hours of sleep per day
C. Drinking copious fluid daily
D. Taking iron mixtures daily Ans. ……………….

26. When a child vomiting continuously the nurse should observe for signs of
A. Acidosis
B. Alkalosis
C. Hypokalaemia
D. Tetany Ans. ……………….

27. The difference between cephal haematoma and caput succedaneum is that with caput
succedaneum the
A. Affected area will be tender
B. Scalp over the swelling becomes ecchymosis
C. Swelling crosses the suture line
D. Swelling increased within 24 hours Ans. ……………….

28. A preterm neonate is admitted to the NICU with muscle twitching, shrill cry, cyanosis and
abnormal respiration. This infant may have
A. Intracranial haemorrhage
B. Neonatal tetanus
C. Spinal bifida
D. Tetany Ans. ……………….

29. The following are findings needed to diagnose hookworm infestation EXCEPT
A. Anaemia
B. Ova of hookworm in the stool
C. Pus in the stool
D. Positive occult blood test of stool Ans. ……………….

32
30. When examining a new-born the nurse identifies a swelling on the baby’s scalp. Which of
the following assessment would indicate the swelling is cephalhaematoma?
A. Diffuse discoloration over the entire scalp
B. Ecchymotic area over the affected eye
C. Swelling confined to a single skull bone
D. Usually wide suture line Ans. ……………….

31. An 8-year old girl has Type I diabetes. The nurse understands that Type I diabetes
A. Begins more rapidly than adult-onset diabetes
B. Does not always require insulin
C. Involves early vascular changes
D. Occurs more often in obese children Ans. ……………….

32. The nurse teaches a mother that she can best help her toddler learn to control his behaviour
by
A. Allowing the child to learn b mistakes
B. Punishing the child for misbehaviour
C. Rewarding good behaviour
D. Setting limit and being consistent Ans. ……………….

33. Koplik’s spot is a diagnosis of which of the following infectious disease?

A. Chicken pox
B. Diphtheria
C. Herpes zoster
D. Measles Ans. ……………….

34. Which of these observations would confirm that a 3-year-old child is developmentally
delayed? The child will be unable to
A. Balance on one foot
B. Catch a ball
C. Copy a square
D. Use a spoon effectively Ans. ……………….

33
35. A child test positive for tuberculosis during screening. This indicates
A. A depressed immune system
B. An active tuberculosis infection
C. Previous exposure of the acid-fast bacilli
D. That tuberculosis infection is imminent Ans. ……………….

36. A 4 hour old baby’s cheek was touched and she turns toward the stimulus and opens her
mouth. This reflex is called
A. Babinsky
B. Moro
C. Rooting
D. Sucking Ans. ……………….

37. One characteristic of second-degree burns is that

A. Blisters cover the entire burns
B. The child will not feel pain
C. The tissues will be white in colour
D. The tissues will turn bright red Ans. ……………….

38. All children with burns should receive a tetanus booster immunization if they have not
received a booster in the last
A. 2 years
B. 4 years
C. 5 years
D. 7 years Ans. ……………….

39. A 6-year-old boy is to have an injection and the mother tells the nurse not to tell him about
it as he fears injection. The nurse should say
A. “Alright, but I have to give him the injection anyway”
B. Do you want the doctor to tell the boy about it”
C. If we want the boy to trust us we must tell him the truth”
D. Why don’t we tell his father to tell him about the injection” Ans. ……………….

34
40. The cerebrospinal fluid examination results that would suggest bacterial meningitis are/is
A. Clear CSF
B. High glucose, low protein
C. High protein, low glucose
D. No red blood cells seen Ans. ……………….

……………………………………………………

35
NOTE: For each of the following questions, select the most appropriate answer and write in the
space provided, the letter which correspond to your choice
…………………………….

1. The largest body part of in an infant is

A. Head
B. Neck
C. Pelvic area
D. Trunk Ans. ……………….

2. For children younger than 2-years which of the following is used to measure the pulse rate
A. Apical pulse
B. Brachial pulse
C. Distal pulse
D. Radial pulse Ans. ……………….

3. The anterior fontanel has the following characteristics EXCEPT

A. It is a diamond shaped
B. It measures 4-5cm at its widest part
C. It closes at 2 months of age
D. It closes 12-18 months of age Ans. ……………….

4. Permanent dentition begins around

A. 2 years
B. 4 years
C. 6 years
D. 8 years Ans. ……………….

5. When examining a 2-year old child’s ears with an otoscope, the nurse pulls the
A. Lobe down and forward
B. Pinna down and forward
C. Pinna down and back
D. Pinna up and back Ans. ……………….

6. Baby Kwame has eyes with wide set position, upward slant and thick pericardial folds. This is
a suggestive of
A. Down syndrome
B. Hypothyroidism
C. Mallory-weiss syndrome
D. Post maturity Ans. ……………….

36
 7. An infant turns towards the stimulus and opens the mouth when the cheek is touch. This
reflex is called
A. Babinsky
B. Moro
C. Rooting
D. Sucking Ans. ……………….

8. The characteristics of second degree burns are:

A. Blister cover the entire burn
B. The child will not feel pain
C. The tissue will be white in colour
D. The tissue will turn bright red Ans. ……………….

9. The major complication from burns is

A. Infection
B. Oedema
C. Pain
D. Scarring Ans. ……………….

10. Children with burns should receive a tetanus booster immunization if they have not receive a
booster in the last
A. 2 years
B. 4 years
C. 5 years
D. 7 years Ans. ……………….

11. Which clinical finding should the nurse expect in a 9-months-old with sickle cell anaemia?
A. Fine macular rash
B. Infected leg ulcer
C. Normal haemoglobin level and haematocrit
D. Painful swelling of hands and feet Ans. ……………….

12. A definitive diagnosis of sickle cell disease is based on which diagnostic results?
A. Blood chemistry test
B. Bone marrow aspiration
C. Full blood count (FBC)
D. Haemoglobin electrophoresis Ans. …………

13. The progression of the lesion is best described as

A. Crust, macule, in chicken pox, vesicle
B. Macule, papule, vesicle, rash
C. Papule, vesicle, macule, rash
D. Vesicle, papule, crust, macule Ans. …………

37
 14. A child with chickenpox is not contagious when
A. All the vesicles have crusted
B. The trunk vesicles have crusted but not those of the face
C. There are still water like blisters on extremities
D. The vesicles are still visible Ans. …………

15. Which of the following disease states would chickenpox post the greatest danger?
A. Asthma
B. Emphysema
C. HIV/AIDS
D. Pneumonia Ans. …………

16. The stool of a 2-year old child with Hirschisprung’s disease can be described as
A. Cord like
B. Large anal
C. Ribbon like
D. Small, hard pebbles Ans. …………

17. Malnutrition during pre-school years can have effect on the child’s
I. Intellectual abilities
II. Resistance to infectious disease
III. Social responsiveness
A. I and II
B. I and III
C. II and III
D. I, II and III Ans. …………

18. Which of the following will result in Otitis Media?

I. Common cold
II. Dental caries
III. Infectious fever
IV. Tonsillitis
A. I and II
B. I and III
C. II and IV
D. I, II, III and IV Ans. …………

19. The drug to set in readiness for use when a child is rushed into your unit with convulsion is
injection
A. Adrenaline
B. Aminophylline
C. Diazepam
D. Hydrocortisone Ans. …………

38
20. The MOST common complication of whooping cough in infant
A. Atelectasis
B. Bronchiectasis
C. Bronchopneumonia
D. Hernia Ans. …………

21. Which worm infestation would you suspect when a child has marked perineal itching?
A. Hook worm
B. Round worm
C. Tape warm
D. Thread worm Ans. …………

22. Which of the following is an early complication of meningitis?

A. Cerebral Oedema
B. Deafness
C. Hydrocephalus
D. Paralysis Ans. …………

23. Nursing care of an infant with repaired cleft lip should include
I. Keeping the suture area clean and dry
II. Placing the infant in a semi-setting position
III. Preventing the infant from crying
IV. Spoon feeding after surgery
A. I and II
B. I and III
C. I, III and IV
D. I, II, III and IV Ans. …………

24. Ophthalmianeonatorum may be caused by

I. Chlamydia
II. Gonococcus
III. Treponema

A. I and II
B. II only
C. II and III
D. I, II and III Ans. …………

39
25. What explanation will you give to a 5-year old child on admission with acute lymphocytic
leukaemia who is been nursed in isolation?
A. To keep the child away from other children
B. To protect the child from too many visitors
C. To protect the child from infectious organism
D. To provide quiet private environment Ans. …………

26. Kernig’s sign is a characteristic sign on

A. Brain tumour
B. Cerebral palsy
C. Meningitis
D. Osteomyelitis Ans. …………

27. A procedure in which a baby’s blood is withdrawn and is replaced with fresh blood is known
as
A. Direct transfusion
B. Exchange transfusion
C. Replacement therapy
D. Top up transfusion Ans. …………

28. Deficiency in vitamin A can lead to

A. Beriberi
B. Opthalmianeonatorium
C. Scurvy
D. Xerophthalmia Ans. …………

29. Children who are at risk of vitamin D deficiency include

I. Low birth weight babies
II. Babies of mother who lack vitamin D
III. Children who live in crowded shanty towns and play mainly inside
A. I and II
B. II and III
C. II only
D. I, II and III Ans. …………
40
30. Which of the following is the best rationale for delay circumcision in a neonate with
hypospadias and chordee
A. The associated chordee is difficult to remove during circumcision
B. The foreskin is used to repair the deformity surgically
C. The infant is too small to have a circumcision
D. The meatus can become stenosed, leading to urinary retention Ans. …………

31. The main purpose of passing an urethral catheter after surgical repair of hypospadias is
A. To decrease pain at the surgical site
B. To keep the new urethra from closing
C. To measure urine correctly
D. To prevent bladder spasm Ans. …………

32. The following conditions are all neurological disorder in infant EXCEPT
A. Exomphalus
B. Hydrocephalus
C. Myelomeningocele
D. Spinal bifida occulta Ans. …………

33. Which of the following illnesses in children will lead the nurse to suspect pneumococcus
meningitis?
A. Bladder infection
B. Fractured clavicle
C. Middle ear infection
D. Septic arthritis Ans. …………

34. Which of the following medications would the nurse question when ordered for relief of
discomfort in a child with leukaemia?
A. Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
B. Acetaminophen with codeine
C. Ibuprofen
D. Propozyphene hydrochloride ( Darron) Ans. …………

41
35. How would you reduce anxiety in a child on admission
I. Changing nurse daily
II. Confining child to bed
III. Involving parents in the care
IV. Seeing familiar faces daily
A. I and II
B. I and III
C. III and IV
D. I, II and IV Ans. …………

36. The MOST effective way of helping an infant with cleft lip and palate to retain oral feeding is
to
A. Bubble the infant at frequent intervals
B. Feed the infant small amount at a time
C. Maintain the infant in a lying position while feeding
D. Put the end of the nipple far to the Ans. …………

37. The urine output of a neonate with an imperforated anus is associated which of the following
A. Acetone
B. Bile
C. Blood
D. Meconium Ans. …………

38. When developing the preoperative care plan for infant with Hirschsprung’s disease, the nurse
is expected to include
A. Administration of soap enema
B. Insertion of a gastrostomy tube
C. Restriction of oral intake to clear liquid
D. Using povidine- iodine solution to prepare the perineum Ans. …………

42
39. Which of the following assessment would be MOST important to the nurse before adding
potassium chloride to intravenous fluid therapy for a child with severe gastroenteritis?
A. Ability to void
B. Baseline electrocardiogram
C. Passage of stool today
D. Serum calcium level Ans. …………

40. What action will you take when a child is rushed to your ward with severe vomiting and
diarrhoea?
I. Keep child warm in bed
II. Prepare trolley for infusion
III. Reassure mother of safety of child in hospital
IV. Start oral rehydration therapy
A. I,II and III
B. I,II and IV
C. II,III and IV
D. I, II, III and IV Ans. …………

43
For each of the following questions, select the most appropriate answer and write in the space
provided, the letter which corresponds to your choice
………………………………

1. A patient with enteritis would be placed on this diet

A. High carbohydrate
B. High residue
C. Low fat
D. Low residue Ans. ………

2. Increased blood pressure with bounding pulse and a complaint of headache during infusion
is indicative of
A. Air embolism
B. Fluid overload
C. Hypoglycaemia
D. Sepsis Ans. ………

3. Which of the following is responsible for Haemophilia ‘A’?

A. VIII
B. IX
C. X
D. XIII Ans. ………

4. Which of these would be LEAST helpful in communicating with an aphasic

Cerebrovascular Accident (CVA)?
A. Allowing plenty of time for patient to respond
B. Completing the sentence that patient cannot finish
C. Looking directly at patient during attempt at speech
D. Speaking to the patient at a lower rate Ans. ………

5. The MOST sensitive indicator of all cardiac enzymes in myocardial cell damage is
A. Alkaline phosphate
B. Creatine kinase
C. Lactic dehydrogenase
D. Serum glutamic-oxaloacetic transaminase Ans. ………

6. An intravenous analgesic is frequently administered to relieve chest pain associated with

myocardial infarction. The drug of choice is usually
A. Codeine sulphate
B. Hydromorphine hydrochloride
C. Meperidine hydrochloride
D. Morphine sulphate Ans. ………

44
7. The basic cause of angina pectoris is believed to be
A. Dysrhythmias triggered by stress
B. Insufficient coronary blood flow
C. Emboli found in the coronary vessels
D. Spasms of the vessel walls owing to excessive secretion of adrenaline Ans. ………

8. Which of the following instructions would you give to a patient with pulmonary emboli on
discharge?
A. Dorsiflex your feet several times, hourly whilst sitting
B. Do postural drainage exercise on waking up and at bed time
C. Increase your fluid intake daily to one litre
D. Sleep with the head of your bed elevated thirty to forty degrees Ans. ………

9. Which of these interventions would prevent respiratory complication in caring for an

elderly patient on bed rest?
A. Changing the position every 2 hours
B. Decreasing oral fluid intake
C. Holding the breath every hour
D. Monitoring vital signs very shift Ans. ………

10. Which of the following assignments would you give to a nursing assistant?
A. Administering medication
B. Giving evacuate enema
C. Patient teaching after discharge
D. Giving blood transfusion Ans. ………

11. Subcutaneous injection is given for the following reasons. When

I. Small volume of the drug is required
II. Slow absorption is a priority
III. The drug is not likely to damage the superficial tissue
IV. The drug is not likely to damage the muscles
A. I, II and III
B. I, II and IV
C. I, II and IV
D. I, II, III and IV Ans. ………

12. Precautions to be taken during oxygen administration include the following EXCEPT
A. Avoid naked flames or fire
B. Apply alcohol on patient’s skin
C. Do not use oil on the oxygen cylinder
D. Keep cylinder in a cool place Ans. ………

45
13. Nursing diagnosis represents the
A. Assessment of client data
B. Actual nursing intervention
C. Client’s health problems
D. Proposed plan of care Ans. ………

14. The most common symptom of pruritus is

A. A rash
B. Itching
C. Flaking
D. Pain Ans. ………

15. Which of the following is a symptom of increased intracranial pressure?

A. Facial flushing
B. Photophobia
C. Tachycardia
D. Vomiting Ans. ………

16. In inspecting the turbinate’s of a patient, which instrument should the nurse use?
A. Ear speculum
B. Laryngoscope
C. Nasal speculum
D. Otoscope Ans. ………

17. An important component of the physical examination in relation to nursing process is

A. A holistic approach to the assessment phase
B. Completion of the nursing evaluation phase
C. Establishment of baseline for the patient
D. The generation of a definitive nursing diagnosis Ans. ………

18. When evaluating the extracellular fluid volume deficit state (ECFVD), the nurse should
initially assess the patient for
A. Cardiac arrhythmias
B. Polyuria
C. Signs of dehydration
D. Trousseau’s sign Ans. ………

19. A patient suffering from coronary artery disease is MOST likely at risk of developing
A. Extracellular fluid volume excess
B. Hyperosmolar fluid volume deficit
C. Intracellular fluid volume deficit
D. Iso-osmolar fluid volume deficit Ans. ………

46
20. Osteoarthritis is associated with the following signs and symptoms EXCEPT
A. Bouchard’s nodes
B. Pannus formation
C. Tenderness of the joint
D. Joint pain Ans. ………

21. The nurse knows that the most critical time period for diagnosis of myocardial infarction is
A. Between the third and fifth day after the attack
B. The first hour after symptoms begin
C. Within 24 hours of the onset of symptoms
D. Within the first 48 hours after the attack Ans. ………

22. The following are composition of urine EXCEPT

A. Ammonia
B. Bronides
C. Chlorides
D. Oxalates Ans. ………

23. The basis or framework used to evaluate the patient’s response to nursing intervention can
be found in the nursing
A. Care plan
B. Diagnosis
C. Goals
D. Interventions Ans. ………

24. A decrease in peristalsis noted in an older client by the nurse is most likely to result
A. Bowel incontinence
B. Constipation
C. Fluid volume deficit
D. Impaired swallowing Ans. ………

25. Which of the following laboratory tests would the nurse monitor when a client is receiving
warfarin sodium (Coumadin) therapy?
A. Arterial blood gases
B. Serum potassium
C. Prothrombin time (P.T)
D. Partial thromboplastin time (P.T.T.) Ans. ………

26. What measure would the nurse employ to ensure that a patient receiving total parenteral
nutrition (TPN) does not develop osmotic diuresis as a complication?
A. Administer the solution slowly
B. Keep infusion at room temperature
C. Monitor the flow rate carefully
D. Protect the solution from light Ans. ………

47
27. Which of the following is most likely to be associated with bulimia patients?
A. Denial of abnormal eating
B. Depression
C. Fear of thinness
D. Social withdrawal Ans. ………

28. The nurse assists the patient to assume which position for insertion of gastrointestinal
tube?
A. High fowler’s
B. Recumbent
C. Lateral
D. Supine Ans. ………

29. Nursing assessment of a patient with liver failure would include observation of
A. Abnormal bleeding
B. Diarrhoea
C. Hypotension
D. Hypothermia Ans. ………

30. The hormone aldosterone is produced by the

A. Adrenal cortex
B. Adrenal medulla
C. Adrenal matrix
D. Adrenal parenchyma Ans. ………

31. The extent of a patient’s renal damage would be reflected by the results of this blood test
A. Alkaline phosphatase
B. Creatinine
C. Potassium
D. Uric acid Ans. ………

32. Why should a client’s bowel be cleansed before intravenous pyelogram? To

A. Facilitate passage of the cystoscope into the urethra
B. Minimize his discomfort during the process
C. Promote visualization of the kidney’s, ureters and bladder
D. Permit maximum filling of the bladder with the radio-opaque dye Ans. ………

33. Hypoglycaemia is associated with

A. Facial flushing
B. Pruritus
C. Thirst
D. Tremors Ans. ………

48
34. Insulin is not taken orally because
A. Molecules are too large to be absorbed through the gastrointestinal tract
B. It inhibits the action of pancreatic digestive enzymes
C. It causes ulceration of gastrointestinal tract
D. It is destroyed by gastrointestinal enzymes Ans. ………

35. Which of the following under listed statements is a symptom of meningitis?

A. A negative Babinski response
B. Areas of paraesthesia of lower extremities
C. Peri-orbital oedema
D. Resistance to neck flexion Ans. ………

36. Which of these exercises would you prescribed for a client after an acute phase of
rheumatoid arthritis?
A. Cycling
B. Jumping
C. Running
D. Swimming Ans. ………

37. The achievement of haemostasis would be indicative first by a decrease in

A. Blood pressure
B. Pulse rate
C. Respiration
D. Temperature Ans. ………

38. Which of these positions is BEST for a client on heparin with phlebitis?
A. Low-Fowler’s with legs elevated
B. Reverse Trendelenburg’s
C. Supine with legs flexed
D. Lateral with legs flexed Ans. ………

39. The purpose of dexamethasone administration is to

A. Alleviate pain
B. Promote urinary diuresis
C. Prevent infection
D. Reduce intracranial swelling Ans. ………
40. A child has rheumatoid fever which of the following nursing measures is likely to be most
effective in minimizing his joint pains?
A. Applies ice to the affected joints
B. Limits movement of the affected joints
C. Massages the affected joints
D. Puts affected joints through range of the motion exercise Ans. ……

49
For each of the following questions, select the most appropriate answer and write in the space
provided, the letter which corresponds to your choice
………………………………

1. Which group of food would you recommend for a patient having iron deficiency anaemia?
A. Eggs, fortified cereals, meat, and green vegetables
B. Eggs, fruits, milk and mixed vegetables
C. Fruits, cereals, milk and yellow vegetables
D. Juices, fruits, milk and red meal Ans. ………

2. The non-surgical treatment of constipation includes the following EXCEPT

A. Dietary fibre intake
B. Exercises
C. Large fluid intake
D. Regular use of laxatives Ans. ………

3. In administering aminophylline intravenously to relieve severe asthma, the nurse should

observe for
A. Decreased pulse rate
B. Decreased urinary output
C. Hypotension
D. Visual disturbances Ans. ………

4. Before administering morphine the nurse should assess the client’s

A. Blood pressure
B. Pulse
C. Respiratory rate
D. Temperature Ans. ………

5. The most common cause of lower back pain is

A. Herniated disk
B. Muscle strain
C. Osteoporosis
D. Spondylosis Ans. ………

6. The immediate priority care for a client who has bled massively from oesophageal varices is to
A. Control haemorrhage
B. Maintain patent airway
C. Replace fluids
D. Relieve the client’s anxiety Ans. ………

50
7. The diet is suitable for a client suffering from agranulocytosis
A. Balanced diet
B. High protein diet
C. High carbohydrate diet
D. High fat diet Ans. ………

8. Which of the following assessment findings would a nurse expect to find in a client with
bacterial pneumonia?
A. Bilateral expiratory wheezing
B. Increased phlegms production
C. Resonance on percussion
D. Vesicular breath sounds Ans. ………

9. What should a client on warfarin sodium do?

A. Avoid the use of a toothbrush during oral hygiene
B. Consult the physician before having tooth extraction
C. Eat a lot of green leafy vegetables
D. Use rectal suppositories to treat constipation Ans. ………

10. Prominent neck veins, hypertension and bouncing pulse are indicative of fluid excessive
this compartment
A. Extracellular
B. Interstitial
C. Intravascular
D. Intracellular Ans. ………

11. Which of the following signs is indicative of hypokalaemia in a patient who is having
severe diarrhoea?
A. Arrhythmia
B. Confusion
C. Muscle spasms
D. Thirst Ans. ………

12. Which of these pathophysiological alterations causes a depressed immune system in a

client with acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS)?
A. Decreased leucocyte count
B. Fragility of red blood cells
C. Low platelet count
D. Reduction of nucleated erythrocytes Ans. ………

51
13. Which of the following measures should be carried out after a bone marrow aspiration a
client with leukaemia?
A. Check femoral pulse on the side where the procedure was performed
B. Encourage client to take in large amount fluids
C. Keep client flat in bed
D. Observe the site for drainage Ans. ………

14. Symptoms suggestive of acute glomerulonephritis include

A. A sweet odour from urine
B. Pain on voiding
C. Smoky-brown coloured urine
D. Voiding frequently in small amount Ans. ………

15. A patient with cirrhosis of the liver would have symptom?

A. Elevated serum glutamic oxalo-acetic transaminase (S.G.O.T)
B. Increased serum albumin
C. Increased serum magnesium
D. Normal Prothrombin time Ans. ………

16. Which of these measures should be taken following a liver biopsy?

A. Assessing lung sounds
B. Evaluating pedal pulses
C. Listening to bowel sounds
D. Monitoring blood pressure Ans. ………

17. In planning the care of a patient with chronic lymphocytic leukaemia who is weak and
cachectic, the priority nursing diagnosis would be
A. Altered body image
B. Fluid volume deficit
C. Impaired gas exchange
D. Potential for haemorrhage Ans. ………

18. The primary purpose for regulating nursing practice by the state is to protect
A. Practical nursing
B. Professional standards
C. The public
D. The employing agency Ans. ………

19. To utilize the nursing process, the nurse must first

A. Evaluate the effectiveness of nursing actions
B. Identify goals for nursing care
C. Obtain information about the client
D. State client needs Ans. ……

52
 20. In taking a client’s apical pulse, the nurse should place the stethoscope
A. Between the third and fourth ribs and to the left of the sternum
B. Between the sixth and seventh ribs at the left mid-axillary line
C. In the fifth intercostal space along the left mid-clavicular line
D. Just to the left of the medium point of the sternum Ans. ………

21. Sudden onset of Enuresis in a previously dry child indicates:

A. Emotional stress
B. Nephritis
C. Nephrotic syndrome
D. Pyelonephritis Ans. ………

22. In examining a 2-year old child with an otoscope, the nurse

A. Holds just the head and arm
B. Holds the head straight
C. Pull the pinna down and back
D. Pull the pinna up and back Ans. ………

23. Which of the under listed is an infectious skin lesion that affect the new born
A. Bullous impetigo
B. Erythema toxicum
C. Milia
D. Pigmented naevus Ans. ………

24. Which of the following statements mean the mother understands the practice of demand
feeding?
A. I will feed, baby only when the baby cries
B. I will feed only when the baby is awake
C. I will feed baby as often and as long as he needs it
D. I will have schedule times to feed the baby Ans. ………

25. The nurse’s primary role relating to sexually transmitted disease is

A. Case reporting
B. Diagnosis and treatment
C. Recognizing symptoms
D. Sexual counselling Ans. ………
26. A mother brought her 6 week baby boy to the clinic with the following features: small head,
flattened forehead and a receding chin. On examination, which of the following condition could
apply?
A. Down’s Syndrome
B. Edward’s Syndrome
C. Patu’s Syndrome
D. Potter’s Syndrome Ans. ……

53
 27. When examining of a four day old baby, the midwife should look for which of the following?
I. Equality of the limbs
II. Jaundice of the skin
III. Patency of the anus
IV. Signs of infection of the cord
A. II and IV
B. II and III
C. II, III and IV
D. I, II, III and IV Ans. ………

From question 23 – 28 match the disease in Column A with their corresponding symptoms in
column B.

COLUMN A COLUMN B

28. Down syndrome Ans…G…… A. Small baby with disproportionately large

head and short limbs
29. Anencephaly Ans…F…… B. Deformity of the foot where the ankle is bent
downwards and the front part of the foot is
turned inward
30. Hydrocephalus Ans…C……. C. Sun-setting appearance to the eyes
31. Microcephaly Ans…D…. D. Disproportionately small head
32. Talipes Ans…B……. E. A tuft of hair or sinus at the base of the spine
33. AchondroplasiaAns……A…. F. Absence of the forebrain and vault
G.Widely set and oblique slanted eyes

34. Which of these conditions in the newborn must be reported to the doctor immediately?
A. Exomphalus
B. Extra digit
C. Moon face
D. Tongue tie Ans. ………

35. Intramuscular vitamin K is given to babies at birth because of

A. High level of foetal cells
B. High level of haemoglobin
C. Low level of Prothrombin
D. Low level of thrombocytes Ans. ………

54
 36. Which of these injuries may occur as a result of difficult labour?
I. Erb’s palsy
II. Facial paralysis
III. Fracture of femur
IV. Torticollis
A. I, II and III
B. I, II and IV
C. II, III and IV
D. I, II, III and IV Ans. ………

37. Which of the underlisted reflexes provide an indication for normality in the skeletomuscular
system?
A. Blinking
B. Cough
C. Gag
D. Grasp Ans. ………

38. Mr Owam suffered from mumps when he was 8 years old. Which of the following condition is
likely to affect the functions of the testes?
A. Cryptorchildism
B. Hypospadias
C. Orchitis
D. Phimosis Ans. ……

39. The congenital abnormality in which a sac is formed on the umbilical area is
A. Meningocele
B. Omphalocele
C. Pyloric stenosis
D. Umbilical hernia Ans. ………

40. Which of the following in the newborn baby girl is normal?

A. Bleeding from umbilicus
B. Passage of meconium within the first 24 hours
C. Respiratory rate of 70 beats per minute at rest
D. Yellow skin tones at 12 hours after birth Ans. ………

55
NOTE: For each of the following questions, select the most appropriate answer and write in the
space provided, the letter which correspond to your choice
…………………………….

1. The main aim of play in infancy:

A. Teaching how to share
B. Socialisation
C. Physical development
D. Diverting the infant’s mind from the mother Ans. ………

2. Which of the following should the parents of a one-year old child be MOST concern
about?
A. Toilet training
B. Accident in the home
C. Adequate nutrition
D. Sexual development Ans. ………

3. A 9-year old boy has been on admission with sickle cell crisis and is for discharge. What
education will you give to the parents and the child?
A. Take high protein diet
B. Take high calorie diet
C. Take plenty of nourishing diet
D. Undertake regular vigorous diet Ans. ………

4. Which of the following conditions would cause congenital abnormalities in a child, if the
mother suffers from it during pregnancy?
A. Diphtheria
B. Measles
C. Rubella
D. Tetanus Ans. ………

5. The most serious complication of meningitis in children is;

A. Hydrocephalus
B. Blindness
C. Epilepsy
D. Peripheral circulatory collapse Ans. ………

6. Problems with nutrition may arise in children if during early childhood food is used as a
means of:
A. Socialisation
B. Reward and punishment
C. Teaching discipline
D. Teaching culture Ans. ………

56
7. The primary task to be accomplished between 12 and 15 months of age is to learn to:
A. Climb stairs
B. Say simple words
C. Use a spoon
D. Walk erect Ans. ………

8. The commonest complication of mumps is

A. Glossitis
B. Sterility
C. Encephalitis
D. Tonsillitis Ans. ………

9. Which of the following is the reason why a child with glomerulonephritis is weight every
morning
A. Weight gain will indicate that the condition is improving
B. It measures how much protein is being lost
C. To help plan caloric requirement of the child
D. It is the best way to measure the child’s fluid balance Ans. ………

10. Which of the following conditions may result in atelectasis?

A. Measles
B. Mumps
C. Pertussis
D. Diphtheria Ans. ………

11. A deficiency of this vitamin in diet of a child may lead to pellagra.

A. B2
B. B12
C. Niacin
D. Thiamine Ans. ………

12. The features of the paroxysmal stage of pertussis include;

i. Cyanosis in the face
ii. Short inspiratory cough
iii. Series of short sharp cough
iv. Expectoration of thick sticky mucus
A. I and II
B. I,II and III
C. II, III and IV
D. I, II, III and IV Ans. ………

57
 13. Which of the following is a characteristic of developmental task?
A. There is no uniform time for learning a task
B. Tasks are learned at the same age in children
C. Tasks occur with predictable rhythm
D. Most tasks are learned by school age Ans. ………

14. Which of the following should the mother of a child with chalasia do?
A. Keep the child prone after feeds
B. Prevent the child from crying for prolong periods
C. Keep the child in a semi-sitting position after feeds
D. Give frequent small feeds Ans. ………

15. Untreated streptococcal tonsillitis in a child may later result in:

A. Dehydration
B. Acute rheumatic fever
C. Gastric ulcer
D. Laryngitis Ans. ………

For questions 16 – 19, match the conditions listed under COLUMN A. with the treatment listed in
COLUMN B. use responses only once.
COLUMN A
(Conditions)
16. Whooping cough…………F………………………
17. Ascariasis…………………D……………………………
18. Leprosy…………………B…………………………..
19. Typhoid fever…………C………………………….
COLUMN B.
(Condition)
A. Ampicillin
B. Rifampicin
C. Chloramphenicol
D. Antepar
E. Alcopar
F. Tetracycline

20. Nursing care for a child with tetanus should be primarily directed toward:
A. Carefully recording urinary output
B. Decreasing external stimuli
C. Encouraging copious fluid
D. Increased urinary output
Ans. ………

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21. A 9-year-old boy has fractured femur and a full leg plaster of Paris has been applied.
Which of the flowing observations should be reported to the doctor immediately?
A. A pulse of 100 bpm
B. Inability to move the toe
C. Increased urinary output
D. P.O.P is still damp after 6 hours Ans. ………

22. A 6-year-old is admitted to the hospital with bronchopneumonia. An immediate priority in

this child’s care would the:
A. Adequate nutrition
B. Elimination
C. Prevention of complications
D. Rest Ans. ………

23. The major influence on eating habits of the early school age child is:
A. Food preferences of peer group
B. Availability of food selections
C. Examples of parents at mealtime
D. Smell and appearance of food Ans. ………

24. Which of the following is an indication that a child may be ill?

A. Longer periods of sleep
B. Profuse sweating
C. Grunting and rapid respirations
D. Desire for increased fluids Ans. ………

25. As a pre-school child, the 5-year-old’s response to hospitalization is influenced by fear of?
A. Bodily harm
B. Death
C. Missing classes
D. Other patients Ans. ………

26. A small toddler develops sudden hoarseness and makes unintelligible speech. Which of the
following may be responsible?
A. Acute respiratory tract infection
B. Undetected laryngeal abnormality
C. Respiratory obstruction due to foreign body
D. Pharyngeal abscess Ans. ………

59
27. Under certain circumstances the virus that causes chickenpox can also cause:
A. German measles
B. Athlete’s foot
C. Hepatitis
D. Herpes zoster Ans. ………

28. The poisonous substance produced by the organism which causes diphtheria can be
neutralized by:
A. Diphtheria toxoid
B. Diphtheria antitoxin
C. Hydrocortisone
D. Penicillin Ans. ………

29. The rash in measles appears on the

A. First day
B. Second day
C. Third day
D. Fourth day Ans. ………

30. The most critical factor in the immediate care of an infant after repair of cleft lip would be
the:
A. Prevention of vomiting
B. Administration of drugs to reduce oral secretions
C. Administration of parenteral fluids
D. Maintenance of a patent airway Ans. ………

31. When vomiting is very severe in an infant the nurse should observe for signs of
A. Acidosis
B. Alkalosis
C. Hyperactivity
D. Tetany Ans. ………

32. Which of the following infections may be followed by encephalitis?

A. Diphtheria
B. Dysentery
C. Measles
D. Pertussis Ans. ………

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33. Which of the following will indicate that a child suffering from measles is developing
bronchopneumonia?
A. Increase in pulse rate
B. Rise in temperature
C. Increased respiratory rate
D. Corneal ulceration Ans. ………

34. Dietary management of phenylketonuria (PKU) includes:

A. Phenylalanine-free diet
B. Low-phenylalanine diet
C. Dietary supplement for phenylalanine
D. Protein – free diet Ans. ………

35. Hydrocephalus if untreated may cause:

A. Mental retardation
B. Exophthalmos
C. Spontaneous skull rapture
D. Dilution of CSF Ans. ………

36. In severe burns the most important goal of the initial therapy is:
A. Prevention of fluid loss
B. Prevention of infection
C. Reduction of pain
D. Replacement of fluid lost Ans. ………

37. One of the rare complications of pinworm infestation is

A. Appendicitis
B. Hepatitis
C. Stomatitis
D. Pneumonia Ans. ………

38. When does lung expansion recur after surgical treatment of atelectasis?
A. 1 hour
B. 4 hours
C. 12 to 48 hours
D. 48 to 72 hours Ans. ………

39. When nursing a child with severe diarrhoea the nurse should
A. Take daily weight
B. Keep body temperature normal
C. Replace lost calories
D. Force fluids orally Ans. ………

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40. The vomitus of an infant having pyloric stenosis takes the colour of the infant’s feeds and
does not contain bile because the;
A. Liver does not secrete bile in this condition
B. Obstruction at the pyloric sphincter prevents the flow of bile to the stomach
C. Obstruction is above the opening of the common bile duct
D. Stenosis of the common bile duct prevents bile form flowing properly Ans. ………

62
NOTE: For each of the following questions, select the most appropriate answer and write in the
space provided, the letter which correspond to your choice
…………………………….

1. A seven –month-old child develops severe diarrhoea and has been put on I.V. fluids. The
nurse must observe the rate of flow to:
A. Avoid fluid getting into the tissues
B. Prevent cardiac overload
C. Prevent increased urinary output
D. Replace all fluids lost Ans. ………

2. To help relieve an 8-year-old boy’s apprehension about I.V. infusion the nurse should;
A. Explain the procedure to him in detail
B. Give him a simple and honest explanation
C. Tell him it is just a small prick
D. Try to divert his attention Ans. ………

3. Exclusive breastfeeding of a baby before the age of six months is meant to prevent;
A. Cancer
B. Malaria
C. Diarrhoea and ensure proper feeding
D. Skin rashes and ensure that the baby does not cry Ans. ………

From questions 19-21, match the clinical features in COLUMN I with the disease in COLUMN
II. Use response once only
COLUMN I
(Clinical features)
4. Development of papules…………C………………………………………
5. Enlarged lymph nodes……………A……………………………………..
6. Fits………………………………B……………………………………….
7. Jaundice…………………………F……………………………………….
COLUMN II
(Diseases)
A. AIDS
B. Cerebral malaria
C. Chicken pox
D. Iron deficiency anaemia
E. Poliomyelitis
F. Sickle cell anaemia

63
 From questions 8 to 10, fill in the blank space (s) with word (s) that best complete (s) the
sentences.

8. A congenital abnormality where there is incomplete closure of the spinal column is

…SPINAL BIFIDA…………
9. Anaemia can be prevented in children by giving them foods that are rich
in……IRON………….
10. To reduce a fracture …TRACTION…..is provided by weights applied to the distal bone
fragment.

11. When instituting measures to reduce the temperature of a 3 –year-old child nurse should
consider;
A. Monitoring vital signs every 10 minutes
B. Force oral fluids
C. Measure fluid output hourly
D. Limit exposure to prevent shivering Ans. ………

12. The average 5-year-old is NOT capable of:

A. Making decisions
B. Putting on sandals correctly
C. Abstract thought
D. Hand-eye coordination Ans. ………

13. After repair of a cleft lip the:

A. Infant should be fed using a medicine dropper
B. Infant should be encouraged to cry to prevent hypostatic pneumonia
C. Infant should be placed on his abdomen
D. Suture line should be touched often to prevent adhesions Ans. ………

14. After tonsillectomy, the nurse would suspect postoperative haemorrhage when the child
A. Swallows frequently
B. Becomes pale
C. Snores noisily
D. Complains of thirst Ans. ………

15. Stomach washout may be done in the following poisoning EXCEPT:

A. Akpeteshie

64
 B. Kerosene
C. Paracetamol tablets
D. Valium tablets Ans. ………

16. At what stage in measles do the koplik’s spots appear?

A. Catarrhal
B. Convalescence
C. Eruption
D. Prodromal Ans. ………

17. Which of the following observations of the cerebrospinal fluid will confirm the diagnosis
of meningitis?
A. Amber coloured
B. Blood stained
C. Cloudy
D. Crystalline clear Ans. ………

18. Patent ductusarteriosus is

A. A connection between the pulmonary artery and the aorta
B. A narrowing of the pulmonary artery
C. An abnormal opening between the right and left ventricles
D. An enlarged aorta and pulmonary artery Ans. ………

19. An infant is receiving one litre of IV fluid in 24 hours. Using an IV set with a drop factor
of 30 drops per minutes the nurse should regulate the rate at
A. 10 drops per minute
B. 13 drops per minute
C. 21 drops per minute
D. 24 drops per minute Ans. ………

20. A child with acute leukaemia is on prednisone. A side effect of prednisone that she may
exhibit is
A. Alopecia
B. Anorexia
C. Mood changes
D. Weight loss Ans. ………

65
21. When nursing an 11-year-old boy with acute glomerulonephritis the nurse should observe
him primarily for;
A. Dehydration, haematuria
B. High fever
C. Hypotension, haematuria
D. Hypertensions, facial oedema Ans. ………

22. A 9-year-old has a full leg cast for a fractured femur. Which of the following signs
should
be reported to the physician as soon as detected?
I. Pedal pulse of 100 bpm
II. Inability to move the toes
III. Pain in the leg
IV. Cold toes
A. I and II only
B. II and III only
C. I, II and II only
D. II, III and IV only Ans. ………

23. In tetralogy of Fallot the MOST common sign is:

A. Bradycardia
B. Cough
C. Cyanosis
D. Orthopnoea Ans. ………

24. Pemphigus in children is best treated by using:

A. Benzyl benzoate emulsion and penicillin syrup
B. Hibitane baths and penicillin injection
C. Penicillin injection and dusting powder
D. Whitfield ointment and griseofulvin Ans. ………

25. The consent form of a 13-year-old boy should be signed by:

A. Parents after explanation
B. Relative of child
C. Sister in charge
D. The child after careful explanation Ans. ………

66
26. A few hours after delivery the baby boy began to be increasingly jaundiced. A diagnosis
of
rhesus (Rh) incompatibility was made. The nurse can conclude that:
A. Both parents were Rh- negative
B. Both parents were Rh positive
C. His mother was Rh negative
D. His mother as Rh position Ans. ………

27. The most important factor of toilet training for a toddler is the
A. Ability of the child to sit still
B. Approach and attitude of the parent
C. Child’s desire to be dry
D. Parent’s willingness to train the child Ans. ………

28. Which of the following is the MOST important responsibility of the nurse towards child
having a seizure in a crib?
A. Insert a padded tongue blade
B. Start oxygen at 10L by mask
C. Protect child from harm from the environment
D. Restrain child to prevent injury to soft tissue Ans. ………

29. Common nursing care that helps prevent sickle cell crisis in children is
A. Limitation of activity
B. Protection form infection
C. high-protein, low-fat, high-iron diet
D. Careful monitoring of all vital signs Ans. ………

30. A child suffering from xerophthalmia may lack which of the following vitamins?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D Ans. ………

31. Which of the following will indicate that a child with measles is developing
bronchopneumonia?
A. Increased pulse rate
B. Increased respiration
C. Redness of eyes
D. Wheezing Ans. ………

67
32. Which of the following groups of drugs are NOT used in the treatment of Whooping
cough?
A. Antibiotics
B. Cough suppressants
C. Cough expectorants
D. Phenobarbitone Ans. ………

33. In the paediatric ward the nurse should involve a pre-school child in the therapeutic play
to give the child the opportunity to
A. Forget the reality of the situation for a while
B. Learn to accept the situation
C. Meet other children in the ward
D. Work out ways of coping with fears Ans. ………

34. Vincristine and prednisone are prescribed for a child with leukaemia. Because of their
toxicity the nurse should expect:
A. Anaemia and fever
B. Gastrointestinal symptoms
C. Irreversible alopecia
D. Neurologic symptoms Ans. ………

35. Which of the following does not contribute to good dental care in children?
A. Adequate intake of vitamin C
B. Cleaning of teeth regularly
C. Drinking water containing fluoride
D. Visiting the paediatrician regularly Ans. ………

36. A primary nursing goal in the care of a child with meningomyelocele is prevention of
A. Infection
B. Cold
C. Tiredness
D. Anaemia Ans. ………

37. An infant’s daily protein requirement in milligram per kilogram of body weight is
A. 2
B. 3

68
 C. 4
D. 5 Ans. ………

38. The reason for studying child development include, to;

A. Administration of vitamin C
B. Intravenous infusion of normal saline
C. intravenous pyelography
D. Stomach washout Ans. ………

39. The reason for studying child development include, to;

I. advise mother on child care
II. advise father on his role in the house
III. assist in developing care appropriate to age
IV. assist plan care appropriate to age
A. I and II only
B. II and IV only
C. I, II and III only
D. II and IV only Ans. ………

40. Which of the following meals will you recommend for Kwashiorkor child?
A. Beans stew with fish and fried plantain
B. Porridge/akasa with bread and butter
C. Rice and gravy
D. Roasted plantain with groundnuts Ans. ………

69