THE LEGALEDGE TEST SERIES

Part of the most Comprehensive Classroom Training, Prep Content & Test Series across the Nation.
From the producers of A.I.R. 1 three times in the last 4 Years in CLAT.

(MOCK) COMMON LAW ADMISSION TEST 2019

MOCK 36 (MOCK CLAT #25)

Candidate Name : _________________
Duration : 120 Minutes Batch : _________________
Max. Marks : 200 Contact No. : _________________
Centre Name : __________ Date of Exam : _________________

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

1. No clarification on the question paper can be sought. Answer the questions as they are.
2. There are 200 multiple choice objective type questions.
3. Each question carries ONE mark. Total marks are 200.
4. There is a negative marking of 0.25 marks for every incorrect answer.
5. Candidates have to indicate the correct answer by darkening one of the four responses provided, with a BALL
PEN (BLUE OR BLACK) in the OMR Answer Sheet.
Example: For the question, "Where is the Taj Mahal located?", the correct answer is (b).
The candidate has to darken the corresponding circle as indicated below :
(a) Kolkata (b) Agra (c) Bhopal (d) Delhi
Right Method Wrong Methods

6. Answering the questions by any method other than the method indicated above shall be considered incorrect
and no marks will be awarded for the same.
7. More than one response to a question shall be counted as wrong.
8. The candidate shall not write anything on the OMR Answer Sheet other than the details required and in the
spaces provided for.
9. After the Test is over, the candidate has to return the OMR Answer Sheet to the invigilator. The candidate
should take the Test Paper along with them.
10. The use of any unfair means by any candidate shall result in the cancellation of his/her candidature.
11. Impersonation is an offence and the candidate, apart from disqualification, may have to face criminal
prosecution.
12. Electronic gadgets like mobile phones, pagers or calculators are strictly not permitted inside the Test
Centre/Hall.
13. The candidates shall not leave the hall before the Test is over.
MOCK #36 (MOCK CLAT #25)

SECTION-A : ENGLISH LANGUAGE

Directions: (Q.1 - Q.3): The passage given below is followed by a set of three questions. Choose the most
appropriate answer to each question.

Passage: To discover the relation between rules, paradigms, and normal science, consider first how the historian
isolates the particular loci of commitment that have been described as accepted rules. Close historical
investigation of a given specialty at a given time discloses a set of recurrent and quasi-standard illustrations of
various theories in their conceptual, observational, and instrumental applications. These are the community's
paradigms, revealed in its text books, lectures, and laboratory exercises. By studying them and by practicing
with them, the members of the corresponding community learn their trade. The historian, of course, will discover
in addition a penumbral area occupied by achievements whose status is still in doubt, but the core of solved
problems and techniques will usually be clear. Despite occasional ambiguities, the paradigms of a mature
scientific community can be determined with relative ease.

That demands a second step and one of a somewhat different kind. When undertaking it, the historian must
compare the community's paradigms with each other and with its current research reports. In doing so, his object
is to discover what isolable elements, explicit or implicit, the members of that community may have abstracted
from their more global paradigms and deploy it as rules in their research. Anyone who has attempted to describe
or analyse the evolution of a particular scientific tradition will necessarily have sought accepted principles and
rules of this sort. Almost certainly, he will have met with at least partial success. But, if his experience has been
at all like my own, he will have found the search for rules both more difficult and less satisfying than the search
for paradigms. Some of the generalizations he employs to describe the community's shared beliefs will present
more problems. Others, however, will seem a shade too strong. Phrased in just that way, or in any other way he
can imagine, they would almost certainly have been rejected by some members of the group he studies.
Nevertheless, if the coherence of the research tradition is to be understood in terms of rules, some specification
of common ground in the corresponding area is needed. As a result, the search for a body of rules competent to
constitute a given normal research tradition becomes a source of continual and deep frustration.

Recognizing that frustration, however, makes it possible to diagnose its source. Scientists can agree that a
Newton, Lavoisier, Maxwell, or Einstein has produced an apparently permanent solution to a group of
outstanding problems and still disagree, sometimes without being aware of it, about the particular abstract
characteristics that make those solutions permanent. They can, that is, agree in their identification of a paradigm
without agreeing on, or even attempting to produce, a full interpretation or rationalization of it. Lack of a standard
interpretation or of an agreed reduction to rules will not prevent a paradigm from guiding research. Normal
science can be determined in part by the direct inspection of paradigms, a process that is often aided by but
does not depend upon the formulation of rules and assumption. Indeed, the existence of a paradigm need not
even imply that any full set of rules exists.

1. What is the author attempting to illustrate through this passage?

(a) relationships between rules, paradigms, and normal science
(b) how a historian would isolate a particular 'loci of commitment'
(c) how a set of shared beliefs evolve in to a paradigm
(d) ways of understanding a scientific tradition

2. The term ‘loci of commitment’ as used in the passage would most likely correspond with which of the
following?
(a) loyalty between a group of scientists in a research laboratory
(b) loyalty between groups of scientists across research laboratories
(c) loyalty to a certain paradigm of scientific inquiry
(d) loyalty to global patterns of scientific inquiry

3. The author of this passage is likely to agree with which of the following?
(a) paradigms almost entirely define a scientific tradition
(b) a group of scientists investigating a phenomenon would benefit by defining a set of rules
Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433| www.legaledge.in Page 2 of 36
MOCK #36 (MOCK CLAT #25)

(c) acceptance by the giants of a tradition is a sine qua non for a paradigm to emerge
(d) paradigms are a general representation of rules and beliefs of a scientific tradition
Directions(Q.4 - Q.6) The passage given below is followed by a set of three questions. Choose the most
appropriate answer to each question

Passage: The difficulties historians face in establishing cause-and-effect relations in the history of human
societies are broadly similar to the difficulties facing astronomers, climatologists, ecologists, evolutionary
biologists, geologists, and palaeontologists. To varying degrees each of these fields is plagued by the
impossibility of performing replicated, controlled experimental interventions, the complexity arising from
enormous numbers of variables, the resulting uniqueness of each system, the consequent impossibility of
formulating universal laws, and the difficulties of predicting emergent properties and future behaviour. Prediction
in history, as in other historical sciences, is most feasible on large spatial scales and over long times, when the
unique features of millions of small-scale brief events become averaged out. Just as I could predict the sex ratio
of the next 1,000 new borns but not the sexes of my own two children, the historian can recognize factors that
made inevitable the broad outcome of the collision between American and Eurasian societies after 13,000 years
of separate developments, but not the outcome of the 1960 US presidential election. The details of which
candidate said what during a single televised debate in October 1960 could have given the electoral victory to
Nixon instead of to Kennedy, but no details of who said what could have blocked the European conquest of
Native Americans.

How can students of human history profit from the experience of scientists in other historical sciences? A
methodology that has proved useful involves the comparative method and so-called natural experiments. While
neither astronomers studying galaxy formation nor human historians can manipulate their systems in controlled
laboratory experiments, they both can take advantage of natural experiments, by comparing systems differing in
the presence or absence (or in the strong or weak effect) of some putative causative factor. For example,
epidemiologists, forbidden to feed large amounts of salt to people experimentally, have still been able to identify
effects of high salt intake by comparing groups of humans who already differ greatly in their salt intake; and
cultural anthropologists, unable to provide human groups experimentally with varying-resource abundances for
many centuries, still study long-term effects of resource abundance on human societies by comparing recent
Polynesian populations living on islands differing naturally in resource abundance.

The student of human history can draw on many more natural experiments than just comparisons among the
five inhabited continents. Comparisons can also utilize large islands that have developed complex societies in a
considerable degree of isolation (such as Japan, Madagascar, Native American Hispaniola, New Guinea, Hawaii,
and many others), as well as societies on hundreds of smaller islands and regional societies within each of the
continents. Natural experiments in any field, whether in ecology or human history, are inherently open to potential
methodological criticisms. Those include confounding effects of natural variation in additional variables besides
the one of interest, as well as problems in inferring chains of causation from observed correlations between
variables. Such methodological problems have been discussed in great detail for some of the historical sciences.
In particular, epidemiology, the science of drawing inferences about human diseases by comparing groups of
people (often by retrospective historical studies), has for a long time successfully employed formalized
procedures for dealing with problems similar to those facing historians of human societies.

In short, I acknowledge that it is much more difficult to understand human history than to understand problems
in fields of science where history is unimportant and where fewer individual variables operate. Nevertheless,
successful methodologies for analysing historical problems have been worked out in several fields. As a result,
the histories of dinosaurs, nebulae, and glaciers are generally acknowledged to belong to fields of science rather
than to the humanities.

4. Why do islands with considerable degree of isolation provide valuable insights into human history?
(a) isolated islands may evolve differently and this difference is of interest to us
(b) isolated islands increase the number of observations available to historians
(c) isolated islands, differing in their endowments and size, may evolve differently and this difference can
be attributed to their endowments and size

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433| www.legaledge.in Page 3 of 36
MOCK #36 (MOCK CLAT #25)

(d) isolated islands, differing in their endowments and size, provide a good comparison to large islands
such as Eurasia, Africa, Americas and Australia

5. According to the author, why is prediction difficult in history?

6. According to the author, which of the following statements would be true?

(a) students of history are missing significant opportunities by not conducting any natural experiments
(b) complex societies inhabiting large islands provide great opportunities for natural experiments
(c) students of history are missing significant opportunities by not studying adequate variety of natural
experiments
(d) a unique problem faced by historians is their inability to establish cause and effect relationships and
guttural anthropologists have overcome the problem of confounding variables through natural
experiments

Directions(Q.7 - Q.9) In each question, there are five sentences or parts of sentences that form a paragraph.
Identify the sentence(s) or part(s) of sentence(s) that is/are correct in terms of grammar and usage. Then, choose
the most appropriate option.

7. A. When I returned to home, I began to read

B. Everything I could get my hand on about Israel
C. That same year Israel's Jewish Agency sent
D. A Shaliach a sort of recruiter to Minneapolis
E. I became one of his most active devotees
(a) C and E (b) C only (c) E only (d) C, D and E

8. A. So once an economy is actually in recession

B. The authorities can, in principle, move the economy
C. Out of slump—assuming hypothetically
D. That they know how to—by a temporary stimuli
E. In the longer term, however, such policies have no affect on the overall behaviour of the economy.
(a) A, B and E (b) B, C and E (c) E only (d) B only

9. A. It is sometimes told that democratic

B. Government originated in the city-states
C. Of ancient Greece. Democratic ideals have been handed to us from that time.
D. In truth, however, this is an unhelpful assertion.
E. The Greeks gave us the word, hence did not provide us with a model.
(a) A, B and D (b) B, C and D (c) B and D (d) B only

Directions(Q.10 - Q.12) The passage given below is followed by a set of three questions. Choose the most
appropriate answer to each question.

Passage: Human Biology does nothing to structure human society. Age may enfeeble us all, but cultures vary
considerably in the prestige and power they accord to the elderly. Giving birth is a necessary condition for being
a mother, but it is not sufficient. We expect mothers to behave in maternal ways and to display appropriately
maternal sentiments. We prescribe a clutch of norms or rules that govern the role of a mother. That the social
role is independent of the biological base can be demonstrated by going back three sentences. Giving birth is
certainly not sufficient to be a mother but, as adoption and fostering show, it is not even necessary!

The fine detail of what is expected of a mother or a father or a dutiful son differs from culture to culture, but
everywhere behaviour is coordinated by the reciprocal nature of roles. Husbands and wives, parents and
children, employers and employees, waiters and customers, teachers and pupils, warlords and followers; each
makes sense only in its relation to the other. The term Vole' is an appropriate one, because the metaphor of an
actor in a play neatly expresses the rule-governed nature or scripted nature of much of social life and the sense
that society is a joint production. Social life occurs only because people play their parts (and that is as true for
Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433| www.legaledge.in Page 4 of 36
MOCK #36 (MOCK CLAT #25)

war and conflicts as for peace and love) and those parts make sense only in the context of the overall show. The
drama metaphor also reminds us of the artistic license available to the players. We can play a part straight or,
as the following from J.P. Sartre conveys, we can ham it up.

Let us consider this waiter in the cafe. His movement is quick and forward, a little too precise, a little too rapid.
He comes towards the patrons with a step a little too quick. He bends forward a little too eagerly; his voice, his
eyes express an interest a little too solicitous for the order of the customer. Finally there he returns, trying to
imitate in his walk the inflexible stiffness of some kind of automaton while carrying his tray with the recklessness
of a tightrope-walker. ... All his behaviour seems to us a game.... But what is he playing? We need not watch
long before we can explain it: he is playing at being a waiter in a cafe.

The American sociologist Erving Goffman built an influential body of social analysis on elaborations of the
metaphor of social life as drama. Perhaps his most telling point was that it is only through acting out a part that
we express character. It is not enough to be evil or virtuous; we have to be seen to be evil or virtuous.

There is distinction between the roles we play and some underlying self. Here we might note that some roles are
more absorbing than others. We would not be surprised by the waitress who plays the part in such a way as to
signal to us that she is much more than her occupation. We would be surprised and offended by the father who
played his part 'tongue in cheek'. Some roles are broader and more far-reaching than others. Describing
someone as a clergyman or faith healer would say far more about that person than describing someone as a
bus driver.

10. What is the thematic highlight of this passage?

(a) in the absence of strong biological linkages, reciprocal roles provide the mechanism for coordinating
human behaviour
(b) human behaviour is independent of biological linkages and reciprocal roles
(c) human behaviour depends on biological linkages and reciprocal roles
(d) reciprocal roles determine normative human behavior in society

11. Which of the following would have been true if biological linkages structured human society?
(a) the role of mother would have been defined through her reciprocal relationship with her children
(b) we would not have been offended by the father playing his role 'tongue in cheek'
(c) women would have adopted and fostered children rather than giving birth to them
(d) even if warlords were physically weaker than their followers, they would still dominate them

12. It has been claimed in the passage that "some roles are more absorbing than others". According to
passage, which of the following seem(s) appropriate reason(s) for such a claim?
A. Some roles carry great expectations from the society preventing manifestation of the true self
B. Society ascribes so much importance to some roles that the conception of self may get aligned with the
roles being performed
C. Some roles require development of skill and expertise leaving little time for manifestation of self
(a) A only (b) B only (c) C only (d) A and B

Directions(Q.13 - Q.16) In each question, there are five sentences/paragraphs. The sentence/paragraph
labelled A is in its correct place. The four that follow are labelled B, C, D and E, and need to be arranged in the
logical order to form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose the most appropriate option.

13. A. In America, highly educated women, who are in stronger position in the labour market than less qualified
ones, have higher rates of marriage than other groups.
B. Some works support the Becker thesis, and some appear to contradict it.
C. and, as with crime, it is equally inconclusive.
D. But regardless of the conclusion of any particular piece of work, it is hard to establish convincing
connections between family changes and economic factors using conventional approaches.
E. Indeed, just as with crime, an enormous academic literature exists on the validity of the pure economic
approach to the evolution of family structures.
Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433| www.legaledge.in Page 5 of 36
MOCK #36 (MOCK CLAT #25)

(a) BCDE (b) DBEC (c) BDCE (d) ECBD

14. A. Personal experience of mothering and motherhood are largely framed in relation to two discernible or
"official" discourses; the "medical discourse and natural childbirth discourse" Both of these tend to focus
on the "optimistic stories'' of birth and mothering and underpin stereotypes of the "good mother"
B. At the same time, the need for medical expert guidance is also a feature for contemporary reproduction
and motherhood. But constructions of good mothering have not always been so conceived and in
different contexts may exist in parallel to other equally dominant discourses
C. Similarly, historical work has shown how what are now taken for granted aspects of reproduction and
mothering practices result from contemporary "pseudo-scientific directives" and "managed constructs".
These changes have led to a reframing of modern discourses that pattern pregnancy and motherhood
leading to an acceptance of the need for greater expert management
D. The contrasting, overlapping and ambiguous strands within these frameworks focus to varying degrees
on a woman's biological tie to her child and predisposition to instinctively know and be able to care for
her child
E. In addition, a third, "unofficial popular discourse" comprising "old wives" tales and based on maternal
experiences of childbirth has also been noted. These discourses have also been acknowledged in work
exploring the experiences of those who apparently do not "conform" to conventional stereotypes of the
"good mother"?
(a) EDBC (b) BCED (c) DBCE (d) EDCB

15. A. Indonesia has experienced dramatic shifts in its formal governance arrangements since the fall of
President Soeharto and the close of his centralized, authoritarian "New Order" regime in 1997
B. The political system has taken its place in the nearly 10 years since Reformasi began. It has featured
the active contest for political office among a proliferation of parties at central, provincial and district
levels; direct elections for the presidency (since 2004); and radical changes in centre-local government
relations towards administrative, fiscal, and political decentralization
C. The mass media, once tidily under Soehartos thumb, has experienced significant liberalization as has
the legal basis for non-governmental organizations, including many dedicated to such controversial
issues as corruption control and human rights
D. Such developments are seen optimistically by a number of donors and some external analysts, who
interpret them as signs of Indonesia's political normalization
E. A different group of analysts paint a picture in which the institutional forms have changed, but power
relations have not. Vedi Hadiz argues that Indonesia's "democratic transition" has been anything but
linear
(a) BDEC (b) CBDE (c) CEBD (d) BCDE

16. A. I had six thousand acres of land, and had thus got much spare land besides the coffee plantation. Part
of the farm was native forest, and about one thousand acres were squatters' land, what [the Kikuyu] called
their shambas.
B. The squatters' land was more intensely alive than the rest of the farm, and was changing with the
Seasons the year round. The maize grew up higher than your head as you walked on the narrow hard-
trampled footpaths in between the tall green rustling regiments.
C. The squatters are Natives, who with their families hold a few acres on a white mans farm, and in return
have to work for him a certain number of days in the year. My squatters, I think, saw the relationship in
a different light, for many of them were born on the farm, and their fathers before them, and they very
likely regarded me as a sort of superior squatter on their estates.
D. The Kikuyu also grew the sweet potatoes that have a vine like leaf and spread over the ground like a
dense entangled mat, and many varieties of big yellow and green speckled pumpkins.
E. The beans ripened in the fields, were gathered and thrashed by the women, and the maize stalk and
coffee pods were collected and burned, so that in certain seasons thin blue columns of smoke rose
here and there all over the farm.
(a) CBDE (b) BCDE (c) CBED (d) DBCE

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433| www.legaledge.in Page 6 of 36
MOCK #36 (MOCK CLAT #25)

Directions(Q.17 - Q.19) The passage given below is followed by a set of three questions. Choose the most
appropriate answer to each question.

Passage: Every civilized society lives and thrives on a silent but profound agreement as to what is to be accepted
as the valid mould of experience. Civilization is a complex system of dams dykes, and canals warding off,
directing, and articulating the influx of the surrounding fluid element; a fertile fenland, elaborately drained and
protected from the high tides of chaotic, unexercised, and inarticulate experience. In such a culture, stable and
sure of itself within the frontiers of 'naturalized’ experience, the arts wield their creative power not so much in
width as in depth. They do not create new experience, but deepen and purify the old. Their works do not differ
from one another like a new horizon from a new horizon, but like a Madonna from a Madonna.

The periods of art which are most vigorous in creative passion seem to occur when the established pattern of
experience loosens its rigidity without as yet losing its force. Such a period was the Renaissance, and
Shakespeare its poetic consumption. Then it was as though the discipline of the old order gave depth to the
excitement of the breaking away, the depth of job and tragedy, of incomparable conquests and irredeemable
losses. Adventurers of experience set out as though in lifeboats to rescue and bring back to the shore treasures
of knowing and feeling which the old order had left floating on the high seas. The works of the early Renaissance
and the poetry of Shakespeare vibrate with the compassion for live experience in danger of dying from exposure
and neglect. In this compassion was the creative genius of the age. Yet, it was a genius of courage, not of
desperate audacity. For, however elusively, it still knew of harbours and anchors, of homes to which to return,
and of barns in which to store the harvest. The exploring spirit of art was in the depths of its consciousness still
aware of a scheme of things into which to fit its exploits and creations.

But the more this scheme of things loses its stability, the more boundless and uncharted appears the ocean of
potential exploration. In the blank confusion of infinite potentialities flotsam of significance gets attached to jetsam
of experience; for everything is sea, everything is at sea –
.... The sea is all about us;
The sea is the lands edge also, the granite
Into which it reaches, the beaches where it tosses
Its hints of earlier and other creation ...
- and Rilke tells a story in which, as in T.S. Eliot's poem, it is again the sea and the distance of other creation
that becomes the image of the poets reality. A rowing boat sets out on a difficult passage. The oarsmen labour
in exact rhythm. There is no sign yet of the destination. Suddenly a man, seemingly idle, breaks out into song.
And if the labour of the oarsmen meaninglessly defeats the real resistance of the real waves, it is the idle single
who magically conquers the despair of apparent aimlessness. While the people next to him try to come to grips
with the element that is next to them, his voice seems to bind the boat to the farthest distance so that the farthest
distance draws it towards itself. 'I don't know why and how,' is Rilke's conclusion, 'but suddenly I understood the
situation of the poet, his place and function in this age. It does not matter if one denies him every place—except
this one. There one must tolerate him.'

17. In the passage, the expression "like a Madonna from a Madonna" alludes to:
(a) the difference arising as a consequence of artistic license
(b) the difference between two artistic interpretations
(c) the difference between 'width' and 'depth' of creative power
(d) the difference between the legendary character and the modern day singer

18. The sea and 'other creation' leads Rilke to:

(a) define the place of the poet in his culture
(b) reflect on the role of the oarsman and the singer
(c) muse on artistic labour and its aim lessens
(d) understand the elements that one has to deal with

19. According to the passage, the term "adventurers of experience" refers to:
(a) poets and artists who are driven by courage
(b) poets and artists who create their own genre
Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433| www.legaledge.in Page 7 of 36
MOCK #36 (MOCK CLAT #25)

(c) poets and artists of the renaissance

(d) poets and artists who revitalize and enrich the past for us

Directions(Q.20 - Q.23) For the words given on the top of the table, match the dictionary meanings with the
corresponding usages.

20. Get
A. To seek out and obtain I. He got little for his trouble
B. To cause to come or go II. The nanny finally got them to tidy up their
room
C. To achieve as a result of military activity III. Radhae quickly got his luggage through
customs
C To prevail on IV. We hoped to get dinner at the inn

(a) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II (b) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
(c) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I (d) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II

21. Make
A. A chiefly dialect I. He hoped to make a thorough job of it
B. To conclude as to the nature or meaning of II. Don't provide him an opportunity to make a
something sweeping gesture
C. To produce as a result of action, effort or III. What do you make of this development?
behaviour with respect to something
D. To perform with a bodily movement IV. The doors are made against you

(a) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I (b) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
(c) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II (d) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II

22. Hold
A. To have possession or ownership of or have at I. The bank holds the title to the car
one's disposal
B. To have or maintain in the grasp II. This book holds a number of surprises
C. To support in a particular position or keep from III. The clamp will hold the whole thing together
falling or moving
D. To have as a principal or essential feature or IV. This is how you hold the racket
attribute

(a) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I (b) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
(c) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II (d) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II

23. Pick
A. To remove bit by bit I. Please pick meat from bones
B. To make (one's way) slowly and carefully II. He has a habit of picking his teeth into everything
C. To dig into III. The rag picker picked his way through the rubble
D. To obtain useful information from by IV. He picked the brains of the mentor till he got
questioning irritated

(a) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I (b) A-I, B-III, C-II, 4-IV
(c) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II (d) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II

Directions(Q.24): In the question, the word at the top of the table is used in four different ways, lettered a to d.
choose the option in which the usage of the word is incorrect or inappropriate.

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433| www.legaledge.in Page 8 of 36
MOCK #36 (MOCK CLAT #25)

24. Paper
(a) Your suggestions look great on the paper, but are absolutely impractical.
(b) Do you know how many trees are killed to make a truckload of paper.
(c) So far I have been able to paper over the disagreements among my brothers.
(d) Dr. Malik will read a paper on criminalization of politics.

Directions(Q.25 - Q.29) For each of the words underlined, a contextual usage is provided. Pick the word from
the alternatives given that is closest in the given context.

25. It was a rude shock to witness him being proscribed to publish in writing his diverse views on the subject.
(a) servitude (b) deliberate (c) prohibit (d) exile

26. The professor’s prescient mind was appealing to some students and off-putting to others.
(a) execrable (b) foresight (c) malodorous (d) cortege

27. Parsy, in all his honesty, said that there is a difference between eating and drinking for strength and from
mere gluttony.
(a) indulgence (b) inexactitude (c) prevaricate (d) extravagance

28. To make animadversion on someone's conduct or supporting the wrong ideas and the wrong courses of
action is not characteristic of him.
(a) animus (b) contempt (c) sardonic (d) comments

29. The washing machine went suddenly kaput.

(a) seethe (b) burnout (c) jammed (d) inoperative

Directions(Q.30 - Q.36) In each of the following sentences, a part of the sentence is left unfinished. Beneath
each sentence four different ways in which the sentence can be completed are indicated. Choose the best
alternative among the four.

30. The gridlock afforded residents of the nation's __________ regions occasion to _________ about DC's
reputation for panicking when faced with even the lightest of dustings.
(a) soothing; giggle (b) restricted; tabulate
(c) apparent; laud (d) balmier, snicker

31. The __________ blast is expected to blanket Washington's __________ residents with another 10 inches
or more of snow.
(a) icy ; frightened (b) frigid ; beleaguered
(c) freezing ; unprotected (d) snow ; vulnerable

32. Plenty of archaeological sites date back that far, or nearly so, but scientists have found only about 50
skeletons of such __________ most of them_________.
(a) splendor ; fragmented (b) antique ; immovable
(c) antiquity ; fragmentary (d) tinkering ; oblivious

33. It is both a/an __________ truth and a/an __________one that our lives loop and twist from age to age.
(a) splendid; futile (b) veritable; discursive
(c) stable; unsettling (d) obvious; oblivious

34. Researchers have __________ the most ___________ difference in attitude between men and women at
middle age is that women are twice as likely to be hopeful about the future.
(a) established ; fatal (b) insured ; bold
(c) ascertained ; profound (d) ensured ; ecstatic

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433| www.legaledge.in Page 9 of 36
MOCK #36 (MOCK CLAT #25)

35. The challenge before them is to __________ an agenda and a schedule for _________ interaction despite
each having a very different set of immediate priorities.
(a) elaborate ; delayed (b) craft ; continuous
(c) design ; blowhard (d) decorate ; joyous

36. When faced with an event that makes them ___________ or angry, they often become __________or
enraged.
(a) mirth ; happy (b) sad; ebullient (c) sour ; livid (d) depressed ; inconsolable

Directions(Q.37 - Q.40) A sentence below is written in four different forms. Mark the one that is grammatically
correct.

37. (a) He is as much a statesman than a politician and has always held that the only force capable of
stabilising the situation is maintaining peace and stability.
(b) He is more a statesman than a politician and has always held that the only force capable of stabilising
the situation was maintaining peace and stability.
(c) He is more a statesman than a politician and has been always held that the only force capable of
stabilising the situation for maintaining peace and stability.
(d) He is more statesman than a politician and had always held that the only force capable of stabilising
the situation is maintaining peace and stability.

38. (a) Although the practice of paid admissions is not a recent phenomenon, there are no less than fifty
students in the class, who used this route.
(b) Although the practice of paid admissions is not a recent phenomenon there are no fewer than fifty
students in the class, who used this route.
(c) Although the practice of paid admissions is not a recent phenomenon there are not fewer than fifty
students in the class whom used this route.
(d) Although the practice of paid admissions is not a recent phenomenon there are not lesser than fifty
student in the class, which used this route.

39. (a) Good night, madam; we are honoured by your visit.

(b) Good evening madam; we are honoured by your visit.
(c) Good night, madam; we are honoured due to your visit.
(d) Good evening, madam; we are honoured at your visit.

40. (a) I seldom or ever take medicine even when I'm sick.
(b) I seldom or ever took medicine even when I'm sick.
(c) I seldom or never take medicine even when I'm sick.
(d) I seldom take medicine even when I'm sick.

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433| www.legaledge.in Page 10 of 36
MOCK #36 (MOCK CLAT #25)

SECTION - B : GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

41. _____________Indian sportsperson has been selected as Barbie role model

(a) Anjum Chopra (b) Dipa Karmakar (c) Anisa Sayyed (d) Anjali Bhagwati

42. As per the Stockholm International Peace Research Institute latest report which country has become the
largest arms importer in 2014-18
(a) Saudi Arabia (b) India (c) Pakistan (d) UAE

43. In which of the following historical sites has a dockyard been found?
(a) Lothal (b) Kalibangam (c) Ropar (d) Banwali

44. The 34th edition of Aahar 2019-The international Food and Hospitality Fair is organized by which among
the following countries
(a) United States of America (b) China
(c) France (d) India

45. Black soil is an excellent medium for growing which of the following?
(a) Cotton (b) Coffee (c) Tea (d) Cactus

46. National Crime Records Bureau is a part of which among the following ministries
(a) Ministry of statistics and programme implementation
(b) Ministry of Home Affairs
(c) Ministry ofpolitical and parliamentary affairs
(d) None of the Above

47. Lunar Reconnaissance Orbiter is a robotic Spacecraft of _______

(a) ISRO (b) NASA (c) CERN (d) Canadian Space Agency

48. ‘DOLPHIN’-optical imaging system for finding tiny tumours has been discovered by researchers of which
among the following institutes
(a) Canada Space Agency (b) Indian Institute of Science Bangalore
(c) IIT Bombay (d) Massachusetts Institute of Technology

49. World Kidney Day is celebrated on

(a) 2nd Thursday of March (b) 3rd Thursday of March
(c) 1st Thursday of March (d) 4th Thursday of March

50. Recently GI Tag was granted to Marayoor Jaggery, it is associated with which among the following states
(a) Karnataka (b) Tamil Nadu (c) Assam (d) Kerala

51. Which among the following defence labs with an aim to reduce causalities in Pulwama type attacks has
developed ‘combat drugs’,
(a) Institute of Nuclear Medicine and Allied Sciences (INMAS)
(b) Indian Institute of Science
(c) Indian Space Research Organization
(d) Defence research and Development organization

52. ________________ has been named as the new Prime Minister of Palestine
(a) Ismail Haniyeh (b) Shimon Peres (c) Yaseer Arafat (d) Mohammad Shtayyeh

53. Solution to detect fake notes at Smart India Hackathon 2019 has been devised by students of among the
following IIT’s
(a) IIT Kanpur (b) IIT Bombay (c) IIT Delhi (d) IIT Kharagpur

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433| www.legaledge.in Page 11 of 36
MOCK #36 (MOCK CLAT #25)

54. Which among the following organizations is associated with Large Hadron Collider
(a) ISRO (b) CERN
(c) Canada Space Agency (d) NASA

55. Rome Statute is associated with

(a) International Criminal Court (b) International Labour Organization
(c) World Health Organization (d) Convection on Refugees

56. First All-female spacewalk at the International Space Station (ISS) will be carried by which among the
following space agencies
(a) CERN (b) ISRO
(c) European Space Agency (d) NASA

57. IRDAI & NHA has constituted a Joint Working Group to curb fraud in Ayushman Bharat Scheme. Who
among the following has been appointed as head of the same
(a) Ranjit Kumar (b) Dinesh Arora (c) Radha Singh (d) Amitabh Kant

58. Who among the following has been appointed as the new UNDP Goodwill Ambassador
(a) Ranjit Kuamar (b) Padma Lakshmi (c) Jeff Klein (d) Radha Mohan

59. Kiru Hydro Electric Project is located on which among the following rivers
(a) Ganga (b) Baes (c) Ravi (d) Chenab

60. The National Mission on Transformative Mobility and Battery Storage will be headed by which among the
following
(a) Amitabh Kant (b) Ranjit Singh (c) A K Singh (d) Rajeev Singh

61. Theme of the World Consumer Rights Day 2019 was___________

(a) “Smart and Trusted Products”
(b) “Trusted and Smart Products”
(c) “Trusted, Smart and Safe Products”
(d) “Trusted, Safe and Smart Products”

62. The headquarters of National Centre for Good Governance is located in ___________
(a) New Delhi (b) Mumbai (c) Hyderabad (d) Kolkata

63. The Andhra Pradesh government has signed a pact which among the following IT companies to build a
3D printing centre in the state
(a) Microsoft (b) Google (c) Hewlett Packard (d) IBM

64. PM launched 'Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Mandhan (PM-SYM) Yojana' was launched in which among
the following states
(a) Chhattisgarh (b) Madhya Pradesh (c) Gujarat (d) New Delhi

65. Who among the following has been awarded with the first-ever Bhagwan Mahavir Ahimsa Puraskar
(a) S S Sangawan (b) Jasbir Walia (c) Bimal Verma (d) Abhinandan Varthaman

66. Who among the following has been honored by Guinness World Records as the world’s oldest living
person.
(a) Chiyo Miyako (b) Nabi Tajima (c) Kane Tanaka (d) Jiroemon Kimura

67. Government of India has made who among the following as the head of the committee to formulate
insurance cover for advocates
(a) Tushar Mehta (b) Pramod Kumar Misra
(c) Snehlata Pandey (d) Alok Srivastava
Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433| www.legaledge.in Page 12 of 36
MOCK #36 (MOCK CLAT #25)

68. In which sport do participants stamp their feet and clap their hands to ward off evil spirits before a
competition?
(a) Boxing (b) Football (c) Sumo Wrestling (d) Karate

69. On 8th March 2019 the first every India-Japan Space Dialogue was held in New Delhi, which of the
following represented the Indian delegation?
(a) Vinod Kumar Yadav (b) Desh Deepak Verma
(c) Indra Mani Pandey (d) K. Vijay Raghavan

70. On the occasion of International Women’s Day, 2019 who became first ever Thari Hindu woman to be
elected to the Senate of Pakistan
(a) Krishna Kumari Kohli (b) Taniya Bhatia
(c) Ekta Bisht (d) Ravi Yadav

71. Who among the following has been designated as the New Finance Secretary of India
(a) Rajiv Kumar (b) Subhash Chandra Garg
(c) Atanu Chakraborty (d) Ajay Bhushan Pandey

72. Who hails to be the first journalist to be included into the list of “100 Global Leaders of Tomorrow” by
World Economic Forum (WEF)?
(a) BarkhaDutt (b) VirSanghvi (c) SuchetaDalal (d) Kanchan Gupta

73. Union Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports has granted recognition to which sports federation as India’s
national sport federation
(a) Carrom (b) Cricket (c) Golf (d) Karate

74. In the context of personal computing, what was created by Douglas Engelbart?
(a) Keyboard (b) Portable Laptop (c) Computer Mouse (d) Email

75. Which among the following districts of Assam has been brought under BOLD-QIT surveillance
(a) Golaghot (b) Dhubri (c) Biswanath (d) Udalguri

76. The autobiography ‘Living History’ has been penned by:

(a) Margaret Thatcher (b) Benazir Bhutto
(c) Hillary Clinton (d) Barack Obama

77. Which among the following country recently launched the ‘Beresheet’ spacecraft to Moon
(a) United States (b) China (c) Israel (d) India

78. What was the name of autobiography of Jahangir?

(a) El-e-Jahangiri (b) Tuzk-e-Jahangiri (c) Din-e-Jahangiri (d) None of the above

79. The committee to review cases against tribals in naxal-hit areas of Chhattisgarh will be headed
by___________
(a) Amitabh Kant (b) Rajeev Kuamr (c) A K Patnaik (d) Usha Singh

80. Who was declared as the ‘Finance Minister of the Year for Asia’ by the Emerging Markets, the daily
newspaper of record for the World Bank and the International Monetary Fund (IMF), in 2010?
(a) Mohammed ChatibBasri (b) Pranab Mukherjee
(c) P. Chidambaram/ (d) Mohammad Ishaq Dar

81. BOLD-QIT stands for

(a) Border electronically dominated quick response team interception technique
(b) Border electronically dominated quick response target interception technique
Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433| www.legaledge.in Page 13 of 36
MOCK #36 (MOCK CLAT #25)

(c) Border electronically dominated quick response team integrating technique

(d) Border electronically dominated quick response target integrating technique

82. Which Indian scientist is renowned for his work on ‘Theory of Relativity’ and ‘Bose Einstein Condensate’?
(a) JC Bose (b) SN Bose (c) SC Bose (d) Hargobind Khorana

83. The principal Bench of National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) will be established in which among the
following cities.
(a) New Delhi (b) Indore (c) Mumbai (d) Bangalore

84. Which Indian inventor is popularly known as the Father of Pentium Chip, for the development of widely
successful Pentium processors?
(a) Sabeer Bhatia (b) SatyaNadella (c) VinodDham (d) VinodKhosla

85. Center of Excellence for European Union Studies in India (CEEUSI) was inaugurated in which among the
following universities
(a) Sri Ram College of Commerce, Delhi University
(b) IGNOU
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru University
(d) Dr. Hari Singh Gour University

86. Who was popularly known as ‘Sher-e-Punjab’?

(a) Lala Lajpat Rai (b) Aurobindo Ghose (c) B.C. Pal (d) B.G. Tilak

87. 2019 SAFF Women’s Championship is organized by which among the following countries
(a) Bhutan (b) Sri Lanka (c) Nepal (d) India

88. The slogan “No taxation without representation” was raised during which revolution?
(a) Russian Revolution (b) Industrial Revolution
(c) American Revolution (d) French Revolution

89. Nice agreement is associated with which among the following fields
(a) Environment Protection (b) Terrorism
(c) Intellectual Property (d) Oceanology

90. The first battle of Panipat was fought between which two forces?
(a) Babur And Ibrahim Lodhi (b) Humayun and Akbar
(c) Babur and Humayun (d) BahlolLodhi and Akbar

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433| www.legaledge.in Page 14 of 36
MOCK #36 (MOCK CLAT #25)

SECTION - C : MATHEMATICS

91. A man invests Rs. 1200 at 10% p.a. At the end of the year he withdraws 30% of total amount and pays
Rs. 24 as transaction fee. At the end of 2nd year he withdraws 30% of the amount and pays Rs. 93 as
transaction fee. What is the balance at the end of the third year?
(a) Rs. 660 (b) Rs. 825 (c) Rs. 500 (d) Rs. 770

92. There are 30 students in a class. The average age of first 10 students is 12.5 years. The average age of
the remaining 20 students is 13.1 years. The average age (in years) of the students of the whole class is:
(a) 12.5 years (b) 12.7 years (c) 12.8 years (d) 12.9 years

93. M is the smallest positive integer such that for any integer n≤ 𝑚, the quantity 𝑛3 - 7𝑛2 + 11𝑛 − 5 is
positive. What is the value of m?
(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 8 (d) None of these

94. A cistern can be filled with water by pipe A in 5 hours and it can be emptied by a second pipe B in 4
hours. If both the pipes are opened when the cistern is full, the time in which it will be emptied is:
(a) 25 (b) 20 (c) 16 (d) 18

95. Asmita invests an amount of Rs. 9535 at the rate of 4% per annum, for how many years did she invest
the amount to obtain the double her sum?
(a) 10 years (b) 25 years (c) 5 years (d) 4 years

96. A train-A passes a stationary train B and a pole in 18 sec and 6 sec respectively. If the speed of train A is
54 kmph what will be the length of train B?
(a) 190 m (b) 160 m (c) 180 m (d) 210 m

97. A divisor is 25 times the quotient and 5 times the remainder. The quotient is 16, the dividend is
(a) 6400 (b) 6480 (c) 400 (d) 480

98. Two cask of 48 and 42 liters are filled with mixtures of wine and water, the proportions in the two casks
being respectively 13 : 7 and 18 : 17. If the contents of the two casks be mixed, and 20 liters of water
added to the whole what will be the proportion of wine to water in the resultant mixture?
(a) 13 : 12 (b) 12 : 13 (c) 21; 31 (d) 31: 21

99. A pole 5 m high is fixed on the top of a tower. The angle of elevation of the top of the pole observed from
a point A on the ground is 60° and the angle of depression of the point A from the top of the tower is 45°.
The height of the tower is
(a) 5.83 m (b) 7.83 m (c) 6.83 m (d) 4.83 m

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433| www.legaledge.in Page 15 of 36
MOCK #36 (MOCK CLAT #25)

100. The prices of a room air conditioner and an automatic washing machine are in the ratio of 3 : 2. What
would be the price of the washing machine if it costs Rs. 6000 less than the air conditioner?
(a) Rs. 18000 (b) Rs. 10000 (c) Rs. 12000 (d) Rs. 6000

101. Two trains measuring 100 m and 80 m respectively, run on parallel lines of track. When travelling in
opposite direction they are observed to pass each other in 9 seconds, but when they are running in the
same direction at the same rate as before, the faster train passed the other in 18 seconds. Find the
speed of the two trains in km per hour.
(a) 12 km/hr, 5 km/hr (b) 14 km/hr, 18 km/hr
(c) 16 km/hr, 54 km/hr (d) 18 km/hr, 54 km/hr

102. The distance between two parallel chords of length 8 cm each in a circle of diameter 10 cm is
(a) 6 cm (b) 7 cm (c) 8 cm (d) 5.5 cm

103. Two cards are drawn at random from a pack of 52 cards. What is the probability that either both are black
or both are queen?
(a) 55/221 (b) 155/221 (c) 61/1326 (d) 98/1326

104. A trader marked his good at 20% above the cost price. He sold half the stock at the market price, one
quarter at a discount of 20% on the marked price and the rest at a discount of 40% on the marked price.
His total gain is:
(a) 2% (b) 15% (c) 2.75% (d) 13.5%
105. Heena and Renu are competing in a 100 meters race. Initially, Heena runs at twice the speed of Renu for
1
the first fifty meters. After the 50 meters mark, Heena runs at th her initial speed while Renu continues to
4
run at her original speed. If Renu catches up with Heena at a distance of N meters from the finish line,
then N is equal to:
(a) 75 meters (b) 55 meters (c) 25 meters (d) 30 meters

106. Base of a right prism is an equilateral triangle of side 6 cm. If the volume of the prism is 108√3 cu cm. its
height is –
(a) 9 cm (b) 10 cm (c) 11 cm (d) 12 cm

107. If N= 22x 32 x 52, then: Find number of factors of N excluding 1 & itself.
(a) 7 (b) 17 (c) 77 (d) 25

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433| www.legaledge.in Page 16 of 36
MOCK #36 (MOCK CLAT #25)

108. A man invests some money partly in 9% stock at 96 and partly in 12% stock at 120. To obtain equal
dividends from both, he must invest the money in the ratio:
(a) 3 :4 (b) 3 : 5 (c) 4 : 5 (d) 16 : 15

109. The LCM of two numbers is 20 times their HCF. The sum of HCF and LCM is 2520. If one of the numbers
is 480, the other number is
(a) 400 (b) 480 (c) 520 (d) 600

110. A watch gains 12 seconds every 3 hours, what time will it show at 10 A.M. on Tuesday if the watch is set
right at 3 A.M. on Sunday?
(a) 9 hrs. 58 minutes (b) 09 hrs. 57 minutes 8 seconds
(c) 10 hrs. 2 minutes (d) 10 hrs. 3 minutes 40 seconds

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433| www.legaledge.in Page 17 of 36
MOCK #36 (MOCK CLAT #25)

SECTION - D : LOGICAL REASONING

Directions(Q.111 - Q.115): Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.
Ten students namely viz A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I and J of ten different colleges but not necessarily in the same
order have match on five different days starting from Monday to Friday of the same week. Each student have
match at two different time slots, i.e 09.00 AM and 5 P.M. Each student like different states namely viz - UP, MP,
AP, HP, Gujarat, TN, Kerala, Karnataka, West Bengal and J&K.

Persons who like Karnataka, UP, HP, TN and J&K have match at 9.00 AM. Persons who like Kerala, MP, AP,
Gujarat and West Bengal have match at 5:00 P.M. I has a match on Tuesday at 9.00 AM. The number of people
who have match between G and D is same as the number of people who have match between C and H. Persons
who like Karnataka and Gujarat have match on Monday and the persons who like J&K and West Bengal have
match on Friday. B has a match immediately before I. I does not have match on any of the days before G. The
one who has match at 9.00 AM immediately before J. H does not has match at 5 P.M D has a match immediately
after the day of one who has match on Monday. F does not have match at 5 P.M. D does not has match on any
one of the days after E. Only three people have match between G and E. Persons who like HP and AP went to
match neither on Tuesday nor Thursday. Neither E nor G does not have match on Friday. Only two people have
match between F and J. F does not has match on any of the days after H. Persons who like UP and MP does
not have match on Thursday.

111. How many persons have match at 5.P.M between G and H?

(a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 2 (d) 4

112. Who among the following person has match at 09 A.M?

(a) C (b) B (c) D (d) E

113. Four among the following form a group in a certain way. Which of the following does not belong to Group?
(a) G – Tuesday (b) I – Wednesday (c) F – Friday (d) G – Wednesday

114. Who among the following likes West Bengal state?

(a) I (b) J (c) F (d) D

115. Who among the following have match on Thursday?

(a) I, E (b) H, J (c) F, A (d) D, E

116. How many such pairs of letters are written in the word COMPOSE each of which has many letters between
them in the word as they have between them in the English alphabetical series?
(a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) None of these

117. A car starts from point A and travel 10 km towards North. It takes a right turn and travels 15 km. Now it
travels 6 km after taking a left turn. Finally, it takes a left turn, travels 15 km and stops at point B. If Point
Q is 10m North from Point A. What is the difference between the Points AQ-QB?
(a) 6 km (b) 4 km (c) 5 km (d) None of these

Directions(Q.118 – Q.120): The following questions are based on the five three digit number given below:
674, 522, 427, 386, 286

118. If 2 is added to the first digit of each of the numbers how many numbers thus formed will be divisible by
three ?
(a) Two (b) One (c) Three (d) None of these

119. If all the digits in each of the numbers are arranged in descending order within the number, which of the
following will be highest number in the new arrangement of numbers?
(a) 674 (b) 386 (c) 286 (d) None of these

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433| www.legaledge.in Page 18 of 36
MOCK #36 (MOCK CLAT #25)

120. What will be the resultant number if the second digit of the second lowest number is divided by the third
digit of the highest number ?
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 0 (d) 1

Directions(Q.121 and Q.122): Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions:
Among five friends P, Q, R, S and T each bought a saree of a different price. P paid more than both T and R.
Only Q paid more than S. R did not pay the minimum amount.
R paid Rs 2000 for the saree.

121. Who among the following paid the second highest amount?
(a) Q (b) S (c) R (d) None of these

122. Who among the following possibly paid Rs 1500?

(a) Q (b) S (c) R (d) T

Directions (Q.123 – Q.127): Study the following arrangement of letters, numbers and symbols carefully to
answer the given questions.
L4B%R3A6#GN@I2D9©KU$W1MP5*Q8T

123. If all the numbers are dropped from the above arrangement, which of the following will be ninth to the left
of W?
(a) A (b) #
(c) R (d) Other than those given as options

124. How many such numbers are there in the given arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a
symbol and immediately followed by a letter ?
(a) None (b) Two (c) Three (d) More than three

125. Which of the following is fifth to the right of the eighteenth from the right end of the above arrangement ?
(a) © (b) I
(c) A (d) Other than those given as options

126. Which of the following is fourth to the right of twelfth from the left end of the above arrangement ?
(a) 2 (b) D (c) 9 (d) M

127. Three of the following four are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the given arrangement and
hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(a) G@# (b) D©2 (c) %3B (d) 5QM

128. Statements: Z>N=I≥W<O≤M; O>S; T<N

Conclusions: i. M>S ii. Z<W
(a) Only I is true (b) Only II is true
(c) Either I or II true (d) Neither I nor II is true

129. Statements: A≥D≥O>I≤R≤F

Conclusions: i. A>R, ii. D≤F
(a) Only I is true (b) Only II is true
(c) Either I or II true (d) Neither I nor II is true

130. Statements: A<P≤K = R≥B; H≥R<I; L≥P

Conclusions: I. P≤B, II. A<H
(a) Only I is true (b) Only II is true
(c) Either I or II true (d) Both I and II are true

131. Statements :
Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433| www.legaledge.in Page 19 of 36
MOCK #36 (MOCK CLAT #25)

C≥D>E=M<J=L
Conclusions :
I. L > E II. C ≥J
(a) Either conclusion I or II is true (b) Both conclusions I and II are true
(c) Only conclusion I is true (d) Only conclusion II is true

Directions (Q.132): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
A is brother of B. G is brother of H. A is married to sister of G. Q is son of A. B is son of K. H is daughter of M. M
is wife of T.
132. How is Q related to G?
(a) Nephew (b) Paternal Uncle (c) Maternal Uncle (d) Brother

133. In a certain code language “SERIES” is written as “QCGTGU”. How is EXPERT written in that code
language?
(a) VTGRZG (b) RPCRZG
(c) GZRCPR (d) RPCGZR

134. In a row of 34 students, W is fifth after X from the left and X is 20th from the right. What is the position of
W form the left?
(a) 20 (b) 25 (c) 30 (d) None of these

135. What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following series.
TG HU VI JW ?
(a) KX (b) YK (c) XK (d) None of these

Directions (Q.136 – Q.140): Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions:
Eight people viz. A,B,C,D,E,F,G and H are sitting around a square table in such way that four of them sit at four
corners of the table while four sits in the middle of each of the four sides, but not necessarily in the same order.
Persons sitting in the middle of the sides are facing the centre and the persons sitting at the corners of the table
are facing outside.
A sits in the middle of one of the sides the square. D is not an immediate neighbor of C. B sits second to the
right of D. F sits second to the right of B. C is an immediate neighbour of A. E sits second to the left of C. Only
three people sit between E and G. Only two people sit between G and D (either from left or right).

136. How many people sit between C and H when counted from the left of H?
(a) None (b) Two (c) Three (d) More than three

137. Which of the given statements is not true as per the given arrangement?
(a) G sits at one of the corners of the table (b) All the given statements are true
(c) Only three people sit between F and D (d) E sits second to the right of F

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433| www.legaledge.in Page 20 of 36
MOCK #36 (MOCK CLAT #25)

138. Which of the following pairs represents the people sitting between H and F , when counted from the left of
F?
(a) G, B (b) C, G (c) C, E (d) A, D

139. As per the given arrangement, four of the following five are alike in a certain way and thus they form a
group. Which one of the following does not belong to that group?
(a) C (b) D (c) H (d) G

140. Who sits third to the left of B ?

(a) G (b) A (c) E (d) H

Directions (Q.141 – Q.145) Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions:
A, B, C, D, E, F and G are seven people live on seven different floors of a building but not necessarily in the
same order. The lowermost floor of the building is numbered 1, the one above that is numbered 2 and so on till
the topmost floor is numbered 7. Each one of them earn different amount per month. i.e. 23000, 16000, 11000,
26000, 31000, 36000 and 41000.

The one who earns Rs.16000 lives on one of the odd numbered floors above D. Only three people live between
C and the one who earns 16000. The one who earns Rs.11000 lives immediately above C. F earns 11000. The
one who earn Rs.23000 lives immediately above the one who earns Rs.41000. Only one person lives between
B and E. B lives on one of the floors above E. Neither C nor A earns Rs.26000. E does not earn Rs. 11000. A
lives on an odd numbered floor but not on the floor numbered three. The one who earns Rs.31000 lives
immediately above A. Only two people live between A and the one who earns Rs.11000.

141. Which among the following is the salary of B?

(a) Rs. 23000 (b) Rs. 41000
(c) Rs. 36000 (d) Rs. 31000

142. Which of the following combination is true as per the given arrangement?
(a) A – 16000 (b) C – 31000
(c) B – 36000 (d) F – 23000

143. Who among the following lives in floor no 3 ?

(a) A (b) C (c) D (d) F

144. Three among the following form a group in a certain way.Which of the following does not belong to Group?
(a) G – 16000 (b) A – 41000
(c) B – 23000 (d) F – 41000

145. Who among the following earns Rs. 36000?

(a) A (b) C (c) D (d) F
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433| www.legaledge.in Page 21 of 36
MOCK #36 (MOCK CLAT #25)

Directions (Q.146 and Q.147): Question consists of Six statements followed by five conclusions. Consider the
given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the
conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions does not logically follow from the given statements
using all statements together.

146. Statements: Some file is copy. All copy is kite. Some kite is joy. All joy is orange. All orange is toy. All file
is black.
Conclusions:
(a) Some kite is black (b) Some kite is orange
(c) Some kite is toy (d) Some toy is copy

147. Statements: Some mango is banan(a) No banana is apple. All grapes are apple. Some grapes are tree.
No tree is green. All green is goo(d)
Conclusions:
(a) No grapes is banan (a) (b) Some mango is not apple.
(c) All tree being good is a possibility (d) Some good are tree.

Direction (Q.148 – Q.150): In this question two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II have
been given. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with common
known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements
disregarding commonly known facts.

148. Statements: Some tables are chairs. All desks are tables.
Conclusions: I. At least some tables are desks.
II. Some desks being chairs is a possibility.
(a) Only conclusion I follows (b) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
(c) Either conclusion I or II follows (d) Both conclusions I and II follow

149. Statements: No book is a library. Some books are diaries.

Conclusions: I. At least some libraries are diaries.
II. No diary is a library.
(a) Only conclusion I follows (b) Only conclusion II follows
(c) Either I or II follows (d) Neither I nor II follows

150. Statements: No bank is a school. Some schools are colleges.

Conclusions: I. Some colleges are definitely not schools.
II. All banks being colleges is a possibility.
(a) Only conclusion I follow
(b) Only conclusion II follows.
(c) Either conclusion I or conclusion II follows.
(d) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433| www.legaledge.in Page 22 of 36
MOCK #36 (MOCK CLAT #25)

SECTION – E : LEGAL APTITUDE/REASONING

Legal Principles (Q.151 – Q.152):

I. Battery involves intent to cause the unwanted or offensive contact.
II. If the actor knew with reasonable degree of certainty that his action will result in the unwanted or offensive
contact, then that gives rise to liability.
151. Factual Situation: 12 year old Sasha was playing in the backyard of Mrs. Paul’s house during her lunch
party. Mrs. Timothy who is about 75 years old and is suffering from arthiritis was also in the backyard and
was about to sit on a chair when Sasha pulled chair thinking it will be funny. Mrs. Timothy fell on the ground
and hurt her hips pretty bad. She sued Sasha. Will she succeed?

(a) No, Sasha is a minor. There cannot be a suit against a minor.

(b) Yes, Sasha wanted Mrs. Timothy to hit the ground.
(c) Yes, Sasha had a duty to inform Mrs. Timothy while taking the chair.
(d) No, Sasha did not have the requisite intent.

152. Factual Situation: AbhaBai was washing clothes on a second floor balcony. The wastewater from the
washing machine was very hot. On the road downstairs, a bunch of people were standing. AbhaBai knew
they were standing there. She had to drain the water out, so she threw the bucket full of wastewater from
the balcony. It fell on the people standing downstairs causing burn injuries to some of them. They sue
AbhaBai. Will they succeed?

(a) Yes, she knew the water was hot and it will cause some form of injuries to the people standing
downstairs.
(b) Yes, she intended to burn them.
(c) No, she did not intend to burn them. She was merely throwing wastewater out of the balcony.
(d) No, she did not owe any duty to the people standing downstairs.

Legal Principles:
I. The offence of defamation consists of making or publishing by words, signs or representations any
imputation to harm the reputation of a person. Imputing anything true in public good is not an offence of
defamation.
II. An imputation on the character of a person is not considered defamatory if such imputation is made in
good faith to protect someone’s interest or in public good.
III. A statement made in order to convey a caution to another person or in public good is not considered to
be a defamatory statement.
Factual Situation: Ajay was accused of committing the crime of sedition and was facing investigation. During
the interrogation proceedings, he was subjected to narco-analysis testing, the results of which pointed towards
the involvement of a renowned businessman Vijay Thakral in sedition activities. The next day a national daily,
SandhyaVichar carried an article on the results of the tests and reported Vijay Thakral’s involvement. Vijay
Thakral sued the newspaper for defamation.

153. The best argument that may be adopted by the newspaper is that:
(a) The investigation agencies provided the information and hence these agencies were liable.
(b) The statement had been published without any imputation on Vijay Thakral’s character.
(c) The suit was an attempt by Vijay Thakral to misuse judicial remedies and the suit is baseless.
(d) The statement published was true in light of the narco-analysis test and hence was not defamatory.

Legal Principle: The government can be sued for the negligent acts of its servants except for acts performed
as a part of sovereign functions of the government.
154. Factual Situation: The armed forces hockey team is travelling to Chandigarh for the national hockey
championship in an army bus. The bus collides with a car due to the negligence of the driver of the bus
and the car passengers are severely injured. The car owner sues the armed forces.

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433| www.legaledge.in Page 23 of 36
MOCK #36 (MOCK CLAT #25)

(a) A hockey team for the army is a necessary part of the government machinery. Therefore the
government is not liable
(b) The transport of a hockey team is not a sovereign function. Government is liable
(c) The armed forces are a sovereign function. Government is not liable
(d) The car should prove that there was no negligence on its part.

Legal Principle (Q.155 - Q.156): If in the exercise of the right of private defence against an assault which
reasonably causes the apprehension of death, the defender be so situated that he cannot effectually exercise
that right without risk of harm to an innocent person, his right of private defence extends to the running of that
risk.
155. Factual Situation: Tomar is chased by goons baying for his blood. He tries to distract them by pulling a
pedestrian off the street and shoving them in their path, to get time to run away.
Does his right of private defence extend to risking the life of that pedestrian?

(a) Yes (b) No

(c) It depends on the pedestrian (d) None of the above

156. Factual Situation: Ramesh had gone to a mela (fair) with his family. There, he saw four men armed with
rifles approaching him. He told his wife they had threatened to kill him as he owed them some money. They
opened fire on him. Ramesh pushed his family to one side and took out his licensed gun to return fire and
save himself and others, as that was the only way to effectually exercise his right of private defence.
However, he cannot do so without risking harm to the other innocent people in the fair.
How would the answer change in comparison to the one in the previous question?

(a) It will be in the affirmative (b) It will remain the same

(c) It would depend on the harm caused (d) None of the above

Legal Principles (Q.157 - Q.159):

I. An assembly of 5 or more persons is designated an “unlawful assembly”, if the common object of the
persons composing the assembly is:
II. To overawe by criminal force, or show of criminal force, the Central or any State Government or Parliament
or the Legislature of any State, or any public servant in the exercise of the lawful power of such public
servant; or
III. To resist the execution of any law, or of any legal process; or
IV. To commit any mischief or criminal trespass, or other offence; or
V. By means of criminal force, or show of criminal force, to any person to take or obtain possession of any
property, or to deprive any person of the enjoyment of a right of way, or the use of water or other incorporeal
right of which he is in possession or enjoyment, or to enforce any right or supposed right; or
VI. By means of criminal force, or show of criminal force, to compel any person to do what he is not legally
bound to do, or to omit to do what he is legally entitled to do.
VII. An assembly which was not unlawful when it assembled, may subsequently become an unlawful assembly.
Factual Situation: The Lok Sabha elections were due to be held in three months’ time. All the parties were
campaigning in full swing. Many parties had started unofficially endorsing organizations that held gatherings to
promote the party’s ideology and increase awareness among people. The Janata Lok Party (JLP) also enrolled
a group of youth leaders who said they would campaign for the party in several parts of the city. In Kangar, a
marketplace, JLP youth leader Kishore assembled with four of his friends. They made speeches about the JLP’s
ideology and when the local police inspector came to disburse the assembly since they did not have permit for
it, they beat him up. In another area, Sublar, JLP leader Harilal held a party meeting but only two people turned
up. They told him that the rest of the party workers had gone to watch a newly released film.Harilal was furious
and threatened to vandalize the theatre. An exit poll conducted a day before the actual polls indicated that JLP
would lose by a huge margin. All the party workers in Khairabad, a city, gathered at a polling booth and began
to restrain people from casting votes.

157. Which of the following could be said to be an “unlawful assembly” under the Principles given?
I. The gathering at Kangar
Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433| www.legaledge.in Page 24 of 36
MOCK #36 (MOCK CLAT #25)

II. The gathering at Sublar

III. The gathering at Khairabad

(a) I, II, III (b) I, II (c) I, III (d) II, III

158. Choose the correct alternative:

(a) The assembly at Kangar was unlawful as per Principle II.
(b) The assembly at Kangar was unlawful as per Principle II.
(c) Both (a) and (b).
(d) None of the above.

159. The assembly at Khairabad could be called ‘unlawful’ because:

(a) More than five people were present. (b) As per Principle I.
(c) As per Principle II. (d) All of the above.

Legal Principle: A valid consideration is reuired for a valid agreement. Therefore to make a valid agreement
there has to be a consideration having some value or worth in the eyes of law.
Factual Situation: Priya is a 5th Year student of WBNUJS. She is leaving college in one month and is therefore
trying to sell some of her stuff that she got for her room. She voluntarily enters into an agreement with Sanya to
sell her study table for Rs 3500. However, after 2 days Trisha shows interest in buying that table and offers Rs
8000 for the same. Priya cancels her agreement with Sanya and refused to deliver the table saying that the
consideration involved was of a negligible amount. She contends that the agreement in invalid due to the same.

160. Decide whether Priya can cancel her agreement with Sanya or not.
(a) Priya can cancel her agreement with Sanya since she was unaware about the actual worth of the table.
(b) Priya can cancel her agreement since the consideration was of meager value and she definitely
deserved more price for her table.
(c) Priya cannot cancel her agreement since the agreement was entered into voluntarily and the
consideration had some worth in the eyes of law.
(d) Priya cannot cancel her agreement and she can be accused of cheating by Sanya.

Legal Principles (Q.161 - Q.162):

I. A person would not be liable for a tort/wrongdoing, if that incident was an act of God or Force Majeure.
II. A person would be liable for an act of negligence if his duty falls below a prescribed degree of duty of care.
Factual Situation: The Government of Mahaland decided to build a Nuclear power plant in the area of Nagar
bhai, which falls under the seismic zone of the state of Mahaland. The area has witnessed 5 earthquakes in the
past 12 years of major intensity. The contract of building the nuclear power plant was given to one Ratan
Constructions Pvt ltd, which completed the construction of the plant in record 1.5 years. During the construction
it was very apparent that the quality of cement which was used was not quite suitable for the construction of
nuclear plant but it was widely used in construction of houses and offices. 2 months after the construction of the
reactor, there was an earth quake measuring 6 in the Richter scale. The earthquake caused several damages
to the nuclear power plant which developed cracks. This led to emission of harmful gases and radiation causing
death of over 50residents of the nearby area of Nagarbhai.

161. The relatives and people of Nagarbhai sued the government of Mahaland who in turn took the plea of Act
of God. Decide.

(a) The construction company will be liable because the earthquake could be reasonably foreseen and
they were clearly negligent in using a lower grades of product for building it.
(b) The construction company will not be liable since the act of building was done through the Government
of Mahaland and in effect they should be liable for doing it vicariously.
(c) The construction company will be liable since they were the builders of the nuclear power plant and
therefore they should be the ones who should be penalized.
(d) The construction company will not be liable since the incident of earthquake was purely an Act of God.

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433| www.legaledge.in Page 25 of 36
MOCK #36 (MOCK CLAT #25)

162. Factual Situation: The National Football Fever Organization (NFFO) based in Calcutta decided to
celebrate the victory of Germany over Argentina in the World Cup final. It decided to sell the tickets to 50
people. However, seeing the increasing number of enthusiasts, it decided to increase the number of tickets
to 100. They decided to set up a stage in the JC Bose Park and ensured that good quality electric
connections and wooden work is done for maximum safety of the people. However, on the day of the event
huge storm swept of the stage and also caused serious injuries to 30 people. The family members of the
families sued National Football Fever Organization (NFFO) which in turn took the defense of Act of God.
Will they succeed?

(a) The NFFO will succeed since they were conducting the programme in good will and for the pleasure of
people and hence should not be penalized to do a good act.
(b) The NFFO will not succeed since they should have taken proper measures before conducting such a
programme and inviting so many people
(c) The NFFO will succeed because people came there at their own risk and they should not blame NFFO
for taking up such an initiative.
(c) The NFFO will succeed because the act was an Act of God and NFFO took reasonable precautions to
ensure safety of people.

Legal Principles:
I. The State is prohibited from discriminating on the basis of sex, religion, caste and region for the purpose
of employment.
II. Tests designed for the purpose of employment, including but not limited to, psychometric tests, physical
examinations, mental-ability tests, to ascertain the suitability of a candidate, should be designed only to
test the skills necessarily reuired for the employment position, and should not be irrelevant.
163. Factual Situation: The State Bank of Sabremala has to hire 40 software engineers. The CEO of the State
Bank of Sabremala is a misogynist, and wants to eliminate women through the different steps in the
recruitment process. He is well aware that the recruitment process will be subject to screening by State
authorities to check for instances of discrimination based on sex, religion, caste and region. He devises a
three-step recruitment process in which women will get eliminated automatically during the course of the
recruitment process: the first step is an upper-body strength test which requires the candidate to lift a 35
kg weight; the second step is a stress-test where candidates are eliminated if their heart-beat increases
beyond a certain limit; the third step is an interview with the CEO where candidates are eliminated if they
are married, have children or, if they intend to get married, or have children.

Tullika, a woman who is a software engineer, with a qualification from a reputed institute undergoes the
recruitment process. She is unable to lift the 30 kg weight, she registered light increase in heart-beat when
she was placed in a dark room, and made to watch disturbing war videos, and she told the CEO that she
intended to get married in the near future. Tullika was eliminated because she failed all three tests. Tullika
wishes to challenge this recruitment policy.

(a) A software engineer is subject to a lot of stress, and cannot afford to have a family life. The test tests
important personality traits to determine suitability for a job position. Tullika’s complaint will not be
considered by the Court.
(b) It is the discretion of the CEO to appoint whomsoever he believes is fit for the job- denying him the
flexibility to recruit people who he believes are a correct fit for the organisation is commensurate to
denying him the right to practice his profession as a CEO.
(c) Tullika will have a claim, because she has a suitable qualification from a reputed university, and cannot
be denied any software engineer position.
(d) Tullika’s claim will succeed, because the tests were ludicrous.

Legal Principle: To commit the offence of defamation, there must be communicationof defamatory statement
to a third party.
164. Factual Situation: Shashank is a businessman well known in the world business circles. Ved Vyas,
another businessman, has had dealing with him. In one big project, Ved Vyas suffered heavy losses, which
he thought resulted from some unscrupulous dealings of Shashank with Ved Vyas’s business rivals. Highly
Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433| www.legaledge.in Page 26 of 36
MOCK #36 (MOCK CLAT #25)

disappointed, Ved Vyas decided to teach Shashank a lesson. He flooded the e-mail contacts of Shashank
with messages seeking to tarnish the image of the latter. Can Shashank sue Ved Vyas for defamation?

(a) Yes, defamation may result through any medium, so long as persons who had/are likely to have
dealings with Shashank are the target group.
(b) No print media is involved and so there was no maligning in public.
(c) No. Shashank has the option to inform all his contacts the real story.
(d) Ved Vyas is not liable as there was no publication

Legal Principle:
I. A statement is defamatory in nature if it is injurious to a person’s reputation and if the statement has been
published.
II. The person must have published the defamatory statement himself, or intentionally made the
circumstances such that such publication was inevitable.
III. The exception to the tort of defamation could be the defence of genuine belief of the person’s guilt.
165. Factual Situation: Lakshmi accuses Malika of stealing her watch because she believes that Malika had
certain malicious reasons to do so. She pens down her allegations and leaves it on the table. She
subsequently forgets about the piece of paper. After a couple of days, Nastassia, Malika‟s arch enemy
chances upon the paper. Finding it to be the perfect opportunity to spite Malika, she publishes the paper in
their monthly building review paper. Decide:

(a) Lakshmi is not liable for defamation since she did not doubt the veracity of her claim.
(b) Lakshmi is liable for the defamatory statement since she made the defamatory statement that ruined
Malika’s reputation in the building.
(c) Lakshmi is not liable for the defamatory statement since her act of leaving the paper lying around was
negligent and was not intentional to have it published.
(d) Lakshmi is liable for defamation since her statement ultimately got published.

Legal Principle: The tort of conversion is committed when a person deals with the goods in such a manner that
another person, who is entitled to immediate use and possession of the same, is deprived of that.
166. Factual Situation: Rocket Sales Corporation, a software company, provides a fully furnished apartment
to anyone who takes up the post of General Manager. Mr. Mehra, who is newly appointed to the post, shifts
to the apartment bringing with him some of his old furniture also. When Mr. Mehra’s tenure ends, his wife
decides to sell their old furniture which they had brought. In this process, they sell some of the furniture
provided by the office also. When the Company comes to know of this, they file a suit for conversion against
Mr. Mehra.

(a) Mr. Mehra will not be liable as he sold the office furniture accidentally and without intention.
(b) Mr. Mehra will not liable as he has been an honest employee throughout his tenure.
(c) Mr. Mehra will be liable as he deprived the next manager the opportunity to use the furniture.
(d) None of the above.

Legal Principle: A stranger to a contract does not get a right to sue in India.
167. Factual Situation: A mortgaged his property to B. Later A sold the same property to X. X at the time of
sale agreed to pay the mortgage amount to A but was not able to pay. B sued X to recover the mortgage
amount.

(a) B can recover the amount from X, as he promised A that he would pay the amount to him.
(b) B cannot recover the amount as X never promised to pay the amount to him.
(c) B can recover the mortgaged amount from A.
(d) B cannot recover the amount, as he was a stranger to the contract between A and X.

Legal Principles:
I. Any person may use reasonable force in order to protect his property or person.
II. However, the force employed must be proportionate to the apprehended danger.
Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433| www.legaledge.in Page 27 of 36
MOCK #36 (MOCK CLAT #25)

168. Factual Situation: Krishna was walking on a lonely road. Maniyan come with a knife and said to Krishna,
“Your life or your purse”. Krishna pulled out his revolver. On seeing it, Maniyan ran. Krishna shot Maniyan
in his legs.

(a) Krishna will not be punished, as there was danger to his property.
(b) Krishna will not be punished, as the force he used was proportionate to the apprehended injury.
(c) Krishna will be punished, as the force employed was disproportionate to the apprehended injury.
(d) As Maniyan ran to escape there was no longer a threat to Krishna’s property. So Krishna will be
punished.

Legal Principle: An agent is entitled to such commission as was agreed between himself and his principal at
the time of the entering into contact of agency.
169. Factual Situation: Gopal wanted to lease out his house and he asked the local estate agent, Shivappa,
to find a tenant for him. As per the terms of Shivappa, which were generally followed by all the agents of
the locality, an agent would get one month’s rent as commission in the case leasing and 5% of sales price
in the event of sale. Shivappa found one Krishappa who was desperately looking for a house to stay,
Krishappa met Gopal for negotiation, and on a further talk, he found that Gopal was really interested in
selling the house. Finally, instead of taking the house on a rent of Rs. 2000/- to per month, Krishappa
bought the house for Rs. 2 lakhs. Gopal offered to pay Rs. 2000/- to Shivappa, since that was the rent he
specified to Shivappa while instructing him to find a tenant. But Shivappa demanded the commission on
the sale price.

(a) Shivappa should get only Rs. 200/- since he was asked to find a tenant for that rent.
(b) Shivappa should get Rs. 10,000/- since it was through him the buyer contacted the seller.
(c) Shivappa should get Rs. 10,000/- taking into account the ultimate result of the transaction.
(d) None of the above.

Legal Principles (Q.170 - Q.171):

I. No person shall be convicted of any offence except for violation of law in force at the time of the commission
of the act charged as an offence, nor be subjected to a penalty greater than that which might have been
inflicted under the law in force at the time of the commission of the offence.
II. Double jeopardy is a procedural defence which means that no person shall be prosecuted and punished
for the same offence more than once.
170. Factual Situation: DM is a leading bollywood actress, and makes frequent visits abroad for shooting
purposes. On December 3rd, she is caught at the Mumbai airport while coming back from Bangkok with
undeclared jewellery worth Rs. 15 lakhs. However, after prolonged questioning, she is let off as there was
no law in force under which the officials could have proceeded against her. However, on December 15th,
the government passes The Customs Act (hereinafter TCA) which makes travelling with undeclared
jewellery over Rs. 10 lakhs a punishable crime, retrospectively from December 1st and releases a press
release that all the cases of duty evasion reported between December 1st and December 15th will also be
covered under TCA. The custom officials file a case against DM for duty evasion in a competent court.

Will the custom officials succeed in their case?

(a) Yes, since the only purpose of giving TCA a retrospective effect was to make sure that the evasions
carried on between December 1st and 15th were also included in the same
(b) Yes, as the government has also given an official press release towards the same
(c) No, as DM has already been questioned by the custom officials and proceeding against her would
amount double jeopardy
(d) No, as TCA was not in force when the offence was committed

171. Factual Situation: The case has subsequently been filed against DM. She asserts that since she has
already been questioned by the custom officials, a subsequent case cannot be filed against her and claims
that her right against double jeopardy has been violated.
Decide.
(a) The right against double jeopardy cannot be invoked in this case as she was not prosecuted earlier

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433| www.legaledge.in Page 28 of 36
MOCK #36 (MOCK CLAT #25)

(b) The right against double jeopardy cannot be invoked in this case as she was not proceeded against
under any particular law when she was questioned earlier
(c) The right against double jeopardy cannot be invoked as she was merely questioned and not convicted
of any offence
(d) The right against double jeopardy can be invoked as the officials have filed a case against her even
after questioning her at the airport earlier

Legal Principles:
I. At the commencement of the constitution, every person who has his domicile in the territory of India and a)
was born in the territory of India or b) either of whose parents were born in the territory of India or c) has
been ordinarily a resident in the territory of India 5 years immediately preceding commencement, shall be
a citizen of India.
II. Every Citizen of India shall have the Right to Freedom of Speech and Expression.
172. Factual Situation: Raghu’s father Vishwanath (Born in Thiruvananthapuram, India on 10th Nov 1958) is
an Indian diplomat and consequently has been posted in several countries throughout the world. Raghu
was born on 2nd May 1995 in London and completed his schooling there. He decides to become a lawyer
and appears for CLAT examination as an NRI. He manages to get into NALSAR and moves to Hyderabad,
India. After graduation from college he becomes disenchanted with the ruling party and writes an incensed
article criticising the Prime Minister which is published the Deccan Times. In the middle of the night, the
police enter Raghu’s home and take him away. He is charged with libel and put in lock-up. Raghu
approaches the court claiming he has the freedom of speech and expression, the Police argues that he
was born in London which implies that he is not a citizen of India and hence does not have the freedom of
speech and expression which is guaranteed to ‘citizens’ only.

Decide:
(a) Raghu is a citizen of India as he is now ordinarily resident in India.
(b) Raghu is a citizen of India as his Father was born in India.
(c) Both (a) and (b).
(d) Raghu is not a citizen of India though he is ordinarily resident in India as he was born in London, UK.

Legal Principle: Every person has the right against self-incrimination. Though a person can be forced to
provide fingerprints or DNA or other similar physical evidence.
173. Factual Situation: Bijju Singh was suspected of committing murder. Inspector Sandhya was a very
persistent interrogator and was losing her patience with the non-cooperative Bijju. She had Bijju tied up
and forcibly obtained fingerprints, blood samples and DNA samples. Bijju’s prints were found on the murder
weapon.

(a) Bijju’s right against self-incrimination was violated.

(b) Bijju’s right was not violated as fingerprints and DNA can be obtained by force.
(c) Bijju’s right vas violated only to the extent of the blood sample.
(d) Biiju’s right was not violated as he had actually committed murder.

Legal Principle: A geographical indication (GI) is a name or sign used on certain products that possess certain
qualities due to their geographical location or origin.
174. Factual Situation: Biriyani-e-Bengal is a delicacy prepared in a number of restaurants in West Bengal,
using a number of ingredients, available across Central and East India. The restaurateurs in West Bengal
apply for a GI label for this delicacy, as people from all over India come to try it in West Bengal.

(a) A GI label should be granted to the delicacy, as it is prepared in Bengal, exclusively

(b) A GI label should be granted to the delicacy, as its name imparts an identity to it
(c) A GI label should be granted to the delicacy as it can be replicated and prepared elsewhere
(d) A GI label should not be granted to the delicacy since Bengal imparts no special quality to it

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433| www.legaledge.in Page 29 of 36
MOCK #36 (MOCK CLAT #25)

Legal Principle: The right to information is subject to reasonable restriction by the state or its authorities.
175. Factual Situation: A wants to know the total amount spent on the renovation of his hall of residence in
JNU, Delhi. The Proctor refuses his request in general interest and puts a reasonable restriction. A,
therefore approaches the court.

(a) The Proctor cannot refuse to give information

(b) The refusal by the Proctor is unreasonable and likely to be quashed by the court.
(c) The university authority is competent to decide the reasonableness of a request. The court should not
intervene.
(d) None of the above.

Legal Principle: A wrongdoer has no remedy in law unless the other party has also done a wrong.
176. Factual Situation: The owner suffers pilferage of goods stocked in the warehouse of his factory every
night. On the advice of experts, a very high compound wall, 10 feet in height, is constructed around the
warehouse, with 4 feet of wire over the wall on iron angles, A strong electric current is passed through the
wire every night after 10 p.m. One day Y a thief, who tries to enter into the compound is hit by the current
and fails dead on the roadside. Is the owner of the factory liable?

(a) The factory owner is not liable for the death of the thief.
(b) The factory owner is liable for the death of the thief.
(c) The factory owner has exercised his right of self-defence, and he cannot be held liable.
(d) None of the above.

Legal Principle:
I. A contract of guarantee is a contract between the creditor and the surety stipulating that the surety will
discharge liabilities of the debtor in case of the debtor being unable to do so. The liability of the debtor then
shifts from the creditor to the surety.
II. The surety's right to claim the money back from the principal debtor only begins once he has discharged
his entire liabilities as a surety in respect to the creditor.
177. Factual Situation: Mishra becomes surety for a loan that Arti takes from a bank to set up a fashion
boutique. When Arti defaults on the payments, Mishra compensates the bank and thereby discharges the
liability. Now Mishra wants to claim the money from Arti. Decide.

(a) Mishra can legally claim the loan amount from Arti since he fulfilled his duties as surety and thus she
is now liable to him.
(b) Arti need not pay Mishra anything since there was no contract between them.
(c) Mishra can now take over the fashion boutique since he has a direct interest over it because of the
money he paid.
(d) Mishra cannot claim the money from Arti because her fashion boutique is running in a loss.

Legal Principle:
I. Whoever, intending to take dishonestly any movable property out of the possession of any person without
that person's consent, moves that property in order to such taking, is said to commit theft.
II. Whoever, by deceiving any person, fraudulently or dishonestly induces the person so deceived to deliver
any property to any person, or to consent that any person shall retain any property, or intentionally induces
the person so deceived to do or omit to do anything which he would not do or omit if he were not so
deceived, and which act or omission causes or is likely to cause damage or harm to that person in body,
mind, reputation or property, is said to "cheat".
178. Factual Situation: A is carrying a book that B wants. B distracts him and removes the book from under
A's arm. !s B guilty for theft or cheating?

(a) B is guilty of theft.

(b) This is just a joke.
(c) B is guilty of cheating.
(d) Since the book was dislodged so easily, it was never in A's possession or keeping.
Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433| www.legaledge.in Page 30 of 36
MOCK #36 (MOCK CLAT #25)

Legal Principle: A master can be held vicariously liable for the wrongs of his servant if the wrongs have been
committed within the course of the letter's duty. The government can also be held vicariously liable for the acts
of its servants.
179. Factual Situation: D is arrested at the airport on the charge of trying to smuggle jewels out of the country.
While he is awaiting further action on his case (at the airport itself- in the customs office) a man comes up
to him and demands that he hands over the jewels as the superior officer wanted to inspect them. Given
the present location and the situation, D does not protest and hands them over. Later it turns out that D
was only trying to take the jewels outside the country to exhibit them in an exhibition and was not trying to
evade tax. He is duly cleared but it is found out that the man who took the jewelsfrom D was an impostor
and not connected to the customs department. Is the government liable?

(a) No. You can never be too careful when travelling with such precious items, and this was sheer
carelessness on D's part.
(b) No. The wrong wasn't committed by a servant of the government,
(c) Yes. The wrong was committed by the employees of the customs department in letting an impostor get
into a restricted area. D had been detained on the suspicion of having committed a serious crime. He
was in no position to dispute the ostensible authority of the thief.
(d) Yes. The theft occurred because of the mistake of the government.

Legal Principle:
I. The tort of defamation is committed when a statement that is likely to lower the reputation of the plaintiff in
the minds of reasonable members of society is published without lawful justification.
II. A statement that merely implies something derogatory about the plaintiff can also be considered
defamatory if the other conditions are met.
180. Factual Situation: X was a big and well-respected firm which banked with the famous bank Y. The owners
of X and Y had a fight and X transferred their business to another bank. They issued a circular to all their
customers saying that they had transferred their bank account from bank Y to Z. As a result of this there
was a run on the bank and Y sued X for defaming it by implying that the bank was insolvent. Will Y's action
succeed?

(a) Yes. Damage has clearly been caused to Y by X's actions.

(b) No. No reasonable man could be expected to draw such a conclusion.
(c) No. This was not a matter of fact.
(d) No. X's actions constitute an economic tort.

Legal Principles: (Q.181 - Q.182):

I. Consideration is the price paid for a promise bought. It must be sufficient, even if not adequate. It must
have some value in the eyes of law. Statutory duties performed are not considerations.
II. Consideration must be certain. Vague consideration is no consideration in the eyes of law. When there is
uncertainty about consideration payable, the surrounding facts and circumstances are relevant.
181. Factual Situation: A had lost his brother B in a car accident by a car owned by C, A’s friend and driven
by D, his driver. In the trial court, charges were levelled against D for criminally negligent driving. The
evidence of C was however vital for the case. Trial Court had issued summons to C for appearance in
court. A wanted to ensure C’s appearance for successful culmination of trial. A promised C all his travelling
expenses for the trip back and forth from the court premises. C appeared before the Court and gave his
testimony about the facts of the case. However, when C claimed for his travelling expenses, A refused. C
sues A for the unpaid consideration as he had performed his part of the agreement.

(a) C will succeed because his action is actually the performance of his part of the agreement.
(b) C will not succeed because his action is not a valid consideration in the eyes of law.
(c) C will succeed because his action is a public duty in the eyes of law.
(d) C will not succeed because his action amounts to a vague kind of consideration instead of a certain
consideration.

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433| www.legaledge.in Page 31 of 36
MOCK #36 (MOCK CLAT #25)

182. Factual Situation: In the facts and principles above, A pays C the expense as Rs. 50/- which adequately
covers the Star Bus Service rates for a trip back and forth from the house of C. However, C had actually
hired Tata Indigo for the trip and the fare amounted to Rs. 800/-. What would be appropriate consideration,
presuming that the suit for enforcement of consideration for appearance in the trial court was maintainable
in a civil court?

(a) Any consideration that covers the cost of usual means of communication adopted by C.
(b) Any consideration willingly paid by A to C.
(c) Any consideration that covers the full cost of C’s trip back and forth to the Court.
(d) Any consideration that balances the aspirations of both A and C.

Legal Principles: (Q.183 - Q.185):

I. Agreements entered with free consent of the parties concerned, for a legal object and consideration,
wherein the parties are all majors are legally enforceable.
II. Agreements with minors are voidable at their option.
III. However, when the agreement is for ‘necessaries’; it is not affected by Principle II.
183. Factual Situation: EastSide is an apparels company. It has operations in retail market. It also approaches
customers through its website, wherein any customer may register himself as a member of EastSide and
become entitled for various seasonal discounts and offers. The website offers clothing, shoes, bags, ties,
socks etc on its website. The payment can be prepaid or on delivery. Members are enrolled after filling a
detailed form. Mr. Young Kumar, aged 15 enrolled himself with the website and ordered an English Football
Team Arsenal’s jersey worth Rs. 3987/- and opted for payment on delivery. When the jersey was delivered,
Young’s parents refused to pay. Decide.

(a) EastSide can recover its dues because it supplied clothes, which are considered necessaries.
(b) EastSide can recover its dues because Young was educated and was not misled at any stage by
EastSide
(c) EastSide cannot recover its dues because the consent of a minor is no consent in the eyes of law.
(d) EastSide can recover its dues because Young himself might have still wanted the jersey by his free
will.

184. Factual Situation: If Mr. Young Kumar had saved Rs. 4000/- for over two years to buy his favourite football
jersey on his birthday and wished to pay and purchase the jersey despite parents’ objection, would
EastSide be able to recover its dues?

(a) No, EastSide cannot recover dues because the agreement is still affected by minority of consenting
party
(b) No, EastSide cannot recover because parents and guardians have the ultimate say about a minor’s
decision
(c) Yes, EastSide can recover because it supplied clothes, which are considered necessaries.
(d) Yes, EastSide can recover till such time as Mr. Young opts to enforce the contract at his volition

185. Factual Situation: EastSide is a lodge for students in Bhopal. Many students from smaller cities, appearing
in competitive exams flood to Bhopal in search of better coaching institutions. They usually board in
inexpensive lodges like EastSide. Mr. Young Kumar, a 17 year old CLAT aspirant takes lodging at
EastSide. He deposits a security amount of Rs. 1000/-. However, he fails to pay the rent for next two
months. When EastSide decides to ring up his parents, his parents refuse to pay claiming that Mr. Young
had fled home against their wishes and that EastSide should have taken their consent before allowing
lodging to Mr. Young. Decide.

(a) EastSide can recover its dues because it supplied lodging, which is considered as one of the
necessaries.
(b) EastSide cannot recover its dues because the consent of a minor is no consent in the eyes of law.
(c) EastSide can recover its dues because Young was educated and was not misled at any stage by
EastSide
Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433| www.legaledge.in Page 32 of 36
MOCK #36 (MOCK CLAT #25)

(d) EastSide cannot recover its dues because it is expected by law to make sufficient enquiries about its
minor boarders.

186. From where the idea of Concurrent List was borrowed in Indian Constitution?
(a) Australian Constitution (b) American Constitution
(c) English Constitution (d) Canadian Constitution

187. The word ‘armed rebellion’ has been substituted in place of ‘internal disturbance’ under Article 352 by
which Amendment?
(a) 39th (b) 42nd (c) 44th (d) 52nd

188. The basic structure theory of the Constitution of India implies that:
(a) Certain features of the Constitution are so essential to it that they cannot be abrogated
(b) Fundamental rights cannot be abridged or taken away
(c) The Constitution cannot be amended except in accordance with the procedure prescribed in Article
368.
(d) The Preamble of the Constitution cannot be amended for it is not a part of the Constitution and at the
same time represent its real spirit.

189. Who is appointing authority for the post of Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG)?
(a) Speaker of Lok Sabha. (b) President of India.
(c) Chairman, Rajya Sabha (d) Chairman Public Accounts Committee

190. A total of …………… sessions were held by the Constituent Assembly.

(a) Twenty Sessions (b) Nineteen Sessions
(b) Fifteen Sessions (d) Eleven Sessions

191. The gap between two sessions of the LokSabha is termed as:
(a) Suspension period (b) Prorogation period
(c) Adjournment period (d) Dissolution period

192. Which of the following states has the highest number of seats in RajyaSabha?
(a) Maharashtra (b) Uttar Pradesh (c) Tamil Nadu (d) Andhra Pradesh

193. Literally, ‘Secularism’ means:

(a) Freedom to worship any Good
(b) Death of religion
(c) Non-involvement of Church in the State affairs
(d) None of these

194. The authorization for the withdrawal of funds from the Consolidated Fund of India must come from:
(a) The President of India (b) The Parliament of India
(c) The Prime Minister of India (d) The Union Finance Minister

195. The Directive Principles of State Policy are guidelines laid down by the Indian Constitution for:
(a) The Central Government (b) The State Government
(c) Both the Central and the State government(d)The Local Bodies

196. The representation of Anglo-Indian Community in the LokSabha is dealt with which of the following
articles?
(a) Article 332 (b) Article 333 (c) Article 331 (d) Article 330

197. The Governor decides on the question of disqualification of members of the State Legislatures in
consultation with:
(a) The President
Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433| www.legaledge.in Page 33 of 36
MOCK #36 (MOCK CLAT #25)

(b) The Attorney General

(c) The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG)
(d) The Election Commission

198. Can the Parliament make law on the subjects enumerated in the State List during emergency period?
(a) Yes, the Parliament can make laws for whole or any part of territory of India with respect to all or any
matters enumerated in the State List. These laws shall cease to have effect 6 months post the
expiration of the emergency.
(b) No, the Parliament cannot make laws for whole or any part of territory of India with respect to all or
any
matters enumerated in the State List.
(c) Yes, the Parliament can make laws for whole or any part of territory of India with respect to all or any
matters enumerated in the State List. These laws shall cease to have effect immediately after the
expiration of the emergency.
(d) The Parliament can make laws pertaining to only those subjects which have been mentioned in the
text of the Constitution, for whole or any part of territory of India with respect to matters enumerated
in the State List.

199. The Government establishes Gram Nyayalaya for every:

(a) District (b) Circle (c) Block (d) Tehsil

200. Identify the first Chief Justice of India from the following.
(a) Justice Ranganath Mishra (b) Justice Anna Chandy
(c) Justice H.J. Kania (d) Justice Bharucha

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433| www.legaledge.in Page 34 of 36
MOCK #36 (MOCK CLAT #25)

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433| www.legaledge.in Page 35 of 36
MOCK #36 (MOCK CLAT #25)

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433| www.legaledge.in Page 36 of 36