LPT-311

Milk & Milk Product

Technology
By-Dr. PRAVIN M. Shinde

Q.1 Definition
1. Sterilization: It is a process heating milk continuously to a temperature of 115oC for 15
min. or 135- 150oC for a fraction of seconds followed by cooling at room temperature.

2. Standardization: Standardization of milk refers to the adjustment i.e. raising or

lowering of the fat and / or solids not fat percentages of milk to a desired value, so as to
conform to the legal standard.

3. Butter: Butter may be defined as a fat concentrate, obtained by churning cream,

gathering the fat into a compact mask and then working it.

4. Evaporated Milk: Evaporated milk are products obtained by evaporating part

of the water of whole milk or partly or skimmed milk.

5. Basundi: It is indigenous product prepared by concentration of milk partly with

the addition of sugar. It is product analogus to condensed milk.

6. Packaging: Packaging means placing a commodity into a protective wrapper or

container for transport or storage.

7. Colostrum: Secretion which lasts for 3 to 5 days after parturition is known as

colostrums. After the young one is born the animal produces secretion which is quite
different from the normal milk. (raddish yellow colour, an abnormal Odour, a bitter
taste very slimy and viscous).

8. Panir: It refers to pressed variety of coagulated product prepared by small-sized

coagulation of hot whole/ standardized milk with removal of whey and putting
coagulated mass in a wooden box.
9. LTLT: (Low temperature long time) Heating of milk at low temperature viz.
63oC for 30 min. is called as LTLT. It is a type of pasteurization.

10. Cheese: A product made from the curd obtained from milk by coagulating with
casein with the help of rennet or similar enzymes in the presence of lactic acid produced
by added or adventitious micro-organisms, from which part of the moisture has been
removed by cutting, cooking and/ or pressing which has been shaped in a mould and
then ripened by holding it for some time at a suitable temperature and humadities.

11. Sanitizer: Sanitizers are substances capable of destroying all pathogenic and
almost all non-pathogenic micro-organisms.

12. Fermentation: Fermentation has been defined as the metabolic process in

which chemical changes are brought about on an organic substratum through the action
of enzymes liberated by specific living micro-organisms.

13. Over-run in ice-cream: Over-run is usually defined as the volume of ice-cream

obtained in excess of the volume of the mix. This increased volume is composed mainly
of the air incorporation during the freezing process.

14. Market milk: Market milk refers to fluid whole milk that is sold to individuals
usually for direct consumption.
15. Ice- Cream: Ice Cream may be defined as a frozen diary product made by
suitable blending and processing of cream and other milk products, together with sugar
and flavour, with or without stabilizer or colour and with the incorporation of air during
the freezing process.

16. By-product: By-product may be defined as a product of commercial value

produced during the manufacture of a main product.

17. Ghee: Ghee may be defined as clarified butter fat prepared from cream / butter.

18. Butter: Butter may be defined as a fat concentrate which is obtained by

churning cream, gathering the fat into a compact mass and then working it.

19. Sterilized milk: Sterilized milk may be defined as milk, which has been heated
to a temperature of 100oC or above for such lengths of time that it remains fit for human
consumption for at least 7 days at room temperature.

20. Condensed Milk: Condensed milk are the product obtained by evaporating part
of the water of whole milk, or fully or partly skimmed milk, with or without the addition
of sugar.

21. Dried milk: Dried milk or milk powder is the product obtained by the complete
removal of water from milk by heat or other suitable means.

22. Milk: Milk may be defined as the whole, fresh, clean, lacteal secreation
obtained by the complete milking of one or more healthy milch animals, excluding that
obtained within 15 days before or 5 days after calving or such periods as may be
necessary to render the milk practically colostrum – free.
 23. Pasteurization: The term pasteurization, as applied to market milk today‟s,
refers to the process of heating every particle of milk to at least 63oC for 30 minutes or
72oC for 15 sec. After pasteurization, the milk is immediately cooled to 5oC or below.

24. Viscosity: The viscosity of a substance refers to its resistance to flow. It is a

measure of the friction between molecules as they slide past one another. The viscosity
of milk is determined by viscosimeter.

25. Skim milk: Fat present in milk can be removed in the farm of cream and the
remaining portion of milk is called separated milk or skim milk.

26. Cheddaring: This refers to the combined operations of packing, turning, pilling
and repelling the curd cubes.

Q.2 Select the most appropriate answer and write it in the answer book
1. The average size of the fat globule in homogenized milk is around
a) 2 Micron b) 4 Micron c) 5 Micron d) 8 Micron

2. The excellent indication of organoleptic quality of milk is

a) COB Test b) Smell c) Colour d) Taste

3. The sweet that can be made by using khoa is

a) Gulabjamoon b) Rasmalai c) Rasogolla d) Sandesh

4. The sweet that can be made by using both khoa and chhana is
a) Burfi b) Kulfi c) Pantoa d) Kalakand

5. The cheese that can be made by using skim milk is

a) Cheddar b) Swiss c) Cottage d) Mozzarella

6. The milk product that is used in making vegetarian dishes is

a) Chhana b) Paneer c) Khoa d) Yoghurt

7. As compared to other milks human milk is rich in

a) Fat b) Protein c) Lactose d) Ash

8. The well-known fermented milk product in India is

a) Butter milk b) Lassi c) Dahi d) Yoghurt
9. Milk is deficient in
a) Iron b) Copper c) Vit. C d) All

10. Flow diversion valve is present in

a) LTLT parteurizer b) HTST pasteurizer

c) UHT pasteurizier c) Homogenizer

11. Amul factory is located out

a) Ahmedabad b) Anand c) Allahabad d) Ahmadnagar

12. Milk sugar is

a) Maltose b) Fructose c) Lactose d) Sucrose

13. Fat content of cream is about

a) 25-60 % b) 10-15% c) 90% d) 100%

14. The yellow colour of table butter is due to the addition of

a) Annatto b) Potato c) Xanthophyll d) Turmeric

15. Separation of milk fat during ageing/ storage can be prevented by

a) Homogenization b) Crystallization

c) Standardization d) Equalization

16. Koumiss is a popular fermented milk product in

a) America b) Russia c) India d) Pakistan

17. As per PFA rules 1976, table butter should contain a minimum fat percent of
a) 50 b) 90 c) 80 d) 70

18. One of the organisms used as starter culture for yoghurt making is
a) Staphylococcus aureous b) Lactobacillus bulgaricus

c) Micrococcus flavous d) Bacillus cereus

19. The predominant micro-organism for causing ropiness is
a) Pseudomonas fragi b) Bacillus subtilis

c) Alcaligenes viscosus d) Streptococcus lactis

20. Rasogolla is prepared from

a) Cream b) chhana c) Khoa d) Skim milk

21. The primary substrate for chymosin / rennin in cheese making is

a) Whey protein b) Kappa casein c) B-casein d) None

22. The boiling point of milk is

a) 100oC b) 105oC c) 100.17oC d) 110oC

23. Milk fat is made up of __________% of glyceral

a) 12.5% b) 20% c) 85% d) 50%

24. The casein/ fat ratio in cheese making should be adjusted to

a) 0.07 b)1.0 c) 0.50 d) 0.70

25. Renin is a __________ containing protein

a) Calcium b) Suphur c) Potassium d) Magresium

26. The non-enzymatic browning, which occurs by the reaction between the aldehyde
group of lactose and amino group of proteins, leads to __________ type of browning in
milk and milk products.
a) Maillard b) Caramalisation c) Both d) None

27. As per PFA standards, butter should have maximum contents of __________ %
moisture
a) 18 b) 20 c) 80 d) 16

28. The iso- electric point of milk protein is

a) 4.8 b) 4.0 c) 6.6 d) 5.1

29. India ranks __________ in the world milk production

a) Second b) First c) Third d) Fourth
30. By removing fat from milk, the specific gravity of milk
a) Decreases b) Remains same c) Increases d) None

31. Over-run in ice-cream is contributed by

a) moisture b) air c) stabilizer d) none of them

32. Butter milk is the by-product obtained during the preparation of

a) Butter b) Chhanna c) Cheese d) Ice cream

33. Khoa is a __________ milk product

a) fermented b) condensed c) dried d) none of the above

34. Titrable acidity of normal cow milk is

a) 0.09 b) 0.14 c) 0.18 d) 0.21

35. Polyphosphates are used as

a) Detergent b) Disinfectant c) Sanitizer d) All of the above

36. The predominant dissolved gas in milk is

a) Oxygen b) Nitrogen c) Carbon dioxide d) Hydrogen

37. The energy value of milk protein is

a) 9.3 c/g. b) 4.1 c/g. c) 5.2 c/g. d) 5.6 c/g.

38. The lactose content of skim milk is

a) 3.5% b) 4.5% c) 5.0% d) 6.0%

39. The flavour of butter obtain from ripened cream is mainly due to
a) Rennet b) Trimethylamine c) diacetyl d) non of them

40. The lactose content of goat milk is

a) 4.7% b) 4.9% c) 5.2% d) 6.8%

41. The Coliform count per gram of pasteurized cream should be less than
a) 5 b) 10 c) 15 d) 20
 42. The concentration of lactoperoxidase enzymes in milk is about
a) 40 ug/ml b) 35 ug/ml c) 30 ug/ml d) 30 ug/ml

43. The minimum fat percent in recombined milk should be

a) 3% b) 4% c) 5% d) 6%

44. The souring and gassiness in milk is due to

a) Coli group b) Salmonella spp c) Moulds d) Rennin

45. Uperization has been developed in

a) Denmark b) Germany c) Switzerland d) New Zealand

46. The by-product obtained in the manufacture of cheese is

a) Butter milk b) skim milk c) whey d) yoghurt

47. Ice- cream may become sandy due to crystallization of

a) Gelatin b) Casein c) Ice d) Lactose

48. Rancid flavour of milk is due to

a) Proteolysis b) lipolysis c) glycolysis d) oxidation of milk protein

49. HTST method of pasteurization is also known as

a) Flash pasteurization b) UHT pasteurization

c) Uperization d) Vacreation

50. As per PFA rules the fat content of cream must not be less than
a)25% b) 30% c) 40% d) None of the above

51. Sandiness in ice cream is mainly due to

a) High protein content b) High fat content

c) High lactose content d) High mineral content

52. Paneer is a _______ dairy product

a) Fermented b) dehydrated c) coagulated d) concentrated
 53. Alcaligenes viscosus is more closely related to
a) Sliminess b) Ropiness c) Gassiness d) Bitterness

54. Adhesive property of milk is due to

a) Fat b) Globulin c) Albumin d) Casein

55. Gulabjamuns are prepared from

a) Cream b) Khoa c) Chhana d) Ghee

56. The predominant micro-organism of normal souring of milk is

a) Lactobacillus bulgaricus b) Bacillus subtilis

c) Escherichia coli d) Streptococcus lactis

57. According to PFA rules (1976) cow milk in Maharashtra state should prossess a
minimum of
a) 3.5 % Fat & 8.5 % SNF b) 4.5% fat & 8.5% SNF

c) 3.0% fat & 8.5% SNF d) 1.5% fat & 9.0% SNF

58. Freezing point depression of milk is

a) –0.543 b) –0.453 c) 0.453 d) 0.543

59. Pasteurization inactivates _______ enzyme

a) Lipase b) Protease c) Lactose d) Posphatase

60. Double toned milk contains____________%fat.

a) 1.5 b) 3.0 c) 4.0 d) 4.5

61. Time temperature combination in batch method of pasteurization is

a) 63oC/ 30 min. b) 63oC/ 30 sec. c) 72oC/ 15 min d) 72oC/ 15sec.

62. Subdivision of fat globule in milk is achieved by

a) Homogenization b) Standardization

c) Clarification d) Vacreation

63. Evaporated milk is preserved by

a) Boiling b) sterilization c) pasteurization d) vacreation

64. Cooked flavour in boiled milk is due to formation of _______ compound

a) sulfydryl b) TBA c) Tyrosine d) melanoidin
 65. Higher specific gravity in buffalo milk is due to higher.
a) Fat content b) Protein content c) SNF content d) Lactose content

Q.3 Write True or False:

1. The specific gravity of freshly drawn milk is lower than the specific gravity of
milk obtained latter.
2. Lactose is about half sweet as sucrose
3. Oleinase plays an important role in the development of cappy flavour in milk
4. Pasteurization increases the value of freezing point depression
5. Whey is obtained as by-product while paneer is prepared
6. The flavour of batter fat is influenced by its fatty acid content.
7. No cream line is formed on milk after homogenization
8. Sweet curdling usually takes place in unpasteurized milk that is kept at high
temperature.
9. The viscosity of ice-cream mix increases with lowering of temperature 10.
Keeping quality of ghee is not affected by increase in acidity

Q.4 Fill in the blank

1. India ranks ______ in milk production throughout the would
2. As per the ISI standard, the per capita consumption of milk should be ______ gms/
day/ person
3. Double tonned milk contains ______% fat and ______% SNF.
4. ______ state in India is having highest per capita consumption of milk.
5. Apparent acidity of milk is due to ______ and real acidity is due to ______
6. Rennet contains ______ and ______ enzymes.
7. Recovery of khoa from buffalo milk is___________% while that from cow milk is
__________%

8. Ice –cream should contain minimum of ________% fat and ______% total solids.
9. The specific gravity of milk is increased by addition of ___________________.
10. The real acidity of milk is due __________________.
11. Milk solids not fat (MSNF) are also known as _______________________.
12. Cheese should be tempered by holding at a temperature of _________________.
13. _____________ is a fat splitting enzymes which is present in milk in varying
quantities.
14. The permitted antioxidant for ghee and butter in India is __________________.
15. The pasteurized milk should have SPC/ml (or) g not exceeding _____________.

16. A clarifier works with the principle of ________________________.

17. _____________is one of the important flavour component in butter.
18. ________ test is used as a method of detection of inadequate pasteurization of
milk & cream.
19. Adhesive property of milk is due to _________.
20. Serum solids in milk are also known as _________.
21. _________ Calorie energy is produced from 100g of buffalo milk.
22. Removal of fat from milk results in _________ of specific granite.
23. _________ is the average size of milk fat globules.
24. _________ enzyme is inactivated when milk is perfectly pasteurized.
25. _________ is the by-product of chhana.
26. Whey proteins are also known as _________ protein.
27. As per PFA, buffalo milk should have _________% fat & _________ %SNF.
Q.5
Name the organisms (any one) responsible for the following.

1. „Kefir‟ production _________ 6. Acidophillus milk _________

2. Requefot cheese production _________ 7. Ropiness _________
3. Bulgarian butter milk _________ 8. Lipolysis _________
4. Blue milk _________ 9. Diacetyl production _________
5. Pink or red milk _________ 10. Proteolysis _________

Q.6 Write the full form of the following

1. NDDB- Notional Dairy Development Board 7. NDRI – National Dairy
Research Institute
2. FGM – Fat Globule Membrane 8. MMPO – Milk & Milk Products
Order
3. FCBT – Flow Control Balanced Tank 9. MSNF – Milk Solid Not Fat
4. PFA – Prevention of Food Adulteration 10. WPC – Whey Protein Concentrate
 5. LTLT – Low Temperature Long Time 11. ISI – Indian Standards Institutes
6. HTST – High Temperature Short Time 12. BIS – Bureau of Indian Standard
13. FDV – Flow Diversion Valve

Q.7 Give PFA standards for the following.

Fat % (Min) SNF%(Min)

1. Buffalo milk (In Maharashtra) __________ __________

2. Cow milk (In Maharashtra) __________ __________
3. Standardized milk __________ __________
4. Recombined milk __________ __________
5. Toned milk __________ __________
Answer Key : For LPT-311 (Milk & Milk Products Technology)
Q.2
1(a) 2(a) 3(a) 4(d) 5(c) 6(b)

7(c) 8(c) 9(d) 10(b) 11(b) 12(c)

13(a) 14(a) 15(a) 16(b) 17(c) 18(a)

19(c) 20(b) 21(b) 22(c) 23(a) 24(d)

25(b) 26(a) 27(d) 28(a) 29(d) 30(c)

31(a) 32(a) 33(b) 34(b) 35(a) 36(c)

37(b) 38(c) 39(c) 40(a) 41(b) 42(c)

43(a) 44(a) 45(c) 46(c) 47(d) 48(b)

49(a) 50(c) 51(c) 52(c) 53(b) 54(d)

55(b) 56(c) 57(a) 58(d) 59(d) 60(a)

61(a) 62(a) 63(b) 64(a) 65(c)

Q3 1. False 2. False 3. True 4. False 5. True 6. True

7. True 8. False 9. True 10. False

Q.4 1) First 2) 224 3) Haryana 4) 1.5 & 9 5) Citric acid, bacterial action
6) Rennin & Pepsi 7) 21-23 & 17-19 8) 10 & 36 9) skim milk

10) lactic acid 11) Non fat dry milk 12) 18oC (16-21oC)

13) Lipases 14) BHA 15) 30,000 16) Centrifugation 17) Diacetyl
18) Phosphatase 19) Casein 20) MSNF 21) 100 22) Increasing 23) 2-5 24)
Phasphatase 25) Whey 26) soluble 27) 6 & 9

Q.5
1. Betabacterium caueasiny & Streptococcus lactis 6. L.acidophilus
2. P. roqueforti 7. Alkaligenes viscolactis
3. L. bulgaricus 8. Ps.fragi
4. P. synecyanea 9. L.diacetyactis
5. Serratia marcescens / Micrococcus roseus 10. Ps.putrifaciens
Q.7 Fat % (Min) SNF% (Min)
1. 6% 9%
2. 3.5% 8.5%
3. 4.5% 8.5%
4. 3.0% 8.5%
5. 3.0% 8.5%

1. Cottage cheese is a soft, unripened cheese usually made from Skim milk
2. Operation flood was started in the year 1970
3. Plastic cream contains 65-85 per cent milk fat
4. According to PFA Rules the milk fat content of khoa should not be less than 20 per
cent of finished product.

5. The average specific gravity of skim milk ranges from 1.035 to 1.037
6. According to the PFA Rules the mixed milk should contain minimum per cent of milk
fat and milk SNF respectively 4.5, 8.5

7. The chairman of NDDB, has become the first Indian to be elected to the board of the
International Dairy Federation (IDF) Dr. (Ms) Amrita Patel

8. Daily per capita milk consumption recommended by the Medical Authorities is 280g

9. According to the PFA Rules chhana should not contain more than 70 per cent
moisture

10. The acidity in mastitic milk is Lower than normal milk

11. The starter organisms for yoghurt are Streptococcus thermophilus and
Lactobacillus delbruekii subsp. bulgaricus

12. Natural acidity of milk is due to casein,acid phosphates and citrates

13. Temperature and time of flash pasteurization 720Cfor 15 second
14. Pizza is prepared from mozzarella cheese
15. National Dairy Development Board, Anand ,Gujarat was set-up in the year1965

16. Soft ice cream is usually drawn from the freezer at around - 8 to -7°C. The overrun
may be in the range of 30 to 50 per cent.

17. Pasteuization refers to the process of heating every particle of milk to at least 63ºCfor
30 min or heating to 72ºC for 15 sec.
18. The time-temperature combinations used for producing sterilized milk are 145ºC and
3 sec.

19. The low temperature storage of raw milk prior to processing is likely to increase
Psychrotrophic counts.

20. The spores of B. stearothermophilus are known to withstand UHT treatment.

21. Sterilizing effect refers to the number of decimal reductions that the heat treatment is
able to effect in milk.

22. For aseptic packaging of UHT milk, Tetra pack, Tetra-Brick etc are used as
packaging materials

23. The common groups of post-pasteurization contaminants include Coliforms and

psychrotrophs

24. The thermal destruction of bacteria in milk is based on the principle of Protein
denaturation

25. Pseudomonas putrefaciens causes surface taints in butter.

26. The gas producing organisms may enter milk chiefly from soil and manure.
27. The blue discolouration in milk is caused by the associative action of Ps. Syncyanea
and S. lactis.

28. Slime production in milk is mainly caused by Leuconostoc genus of lactic acid
bacteria.
29. Ropiness in milk is mainly caused by Alcaligenes viscolactis
30. Coliforms cause Early blowing in cheese.
31. The two types of materials responsible for ropiness are Gums, and Mucins
32. The three types of rancidity in milk are Hydrolytic, oxidative and ketonic
33. The fruity aroma of milk produced by Ps. fragi is due to the production of Esters;
34. Malty flavour produced by S. lactis var. maltigenes in milk is due to the production of
Aldehydes .

35. Unclean flavour in milk may be due to microbial production of Dimethyl sulfide by
Gram-negative psychrotrophic bacteria.

36. Faecal coliforms in dairy products are detected by Eijkman test test.
37. The common indicator organisms used for determining faecal contamination in frozen
and thermized foods are Enterococci
38. The tentative standards for bacterial count of environment in butter section are 300
cfu/m3.

39. The aflatoxin B1 in dairy animal feed is transformed into aflatoxin M1 and is secreted
into milk.

40. The efficiency of dairy sanitizers is determined by Capacity and suspension tests.

41. Food-borne intoxications through dairy products are mainly caused by Staph.aureus

42. Widal test is used for the detection of Salmonella in dairy products.
43. E.coli forms typical Dark centered with green metallic sheen colonies on Eosin
Methylene Blue (EMB) agar.

44. Indian Standards Institution (ISI) has been renamed as Bureau of Indian Standards

45. ICMSF stands of International Commission on Microbiological Specifications for

Foods;

46. Indole is produced from tryptophan by the action of Tryptophanase enzyme of

micro-organisms during IMViC test.

47. Milk with titratable acidity more than 0.17 % (LA) gives a positive COB test.
48. A special pipette called Breed’s pipette is used for performing direct microscopic
count (DMC).
 49. For staining milk smear during direct microscopic count, a special stain, a special
stain called Newman’s stain is used.

50. The oxidation-reduction potential of resazurin is 0.34 V whereas it is 0.1 V or les for
dihydroresorufin.

51.

Q. 1. Define the following

1. Abattoir 14. Casualty slaughter 27. Flaying
2. Canning 15. Lairage 28. Salting
3. Pithing 16. Drip 29. Casing
4. Porging 17. Carcass 30. DFD meat
5. Freezer 18. Oversticking 31. Radicidation
burn 19. Emergency slaughter 32. Hoisting
6. Stunning 20. Pluck 33. Tenderisation
7. Giblet 21. Meat 34. Rendering
8. Veal 22. Radappertisation 35. Fleshing
9. Scalding 23. Frostbite 36. Trickling filter
10. Breather 24. Hide 37. Composting
can 25. Ante-mortem 38. Seized meat
11. Shrinkage examination 39. By-product
12. Biltong 26. Back fat thickness 40. Sanitizer
13. Watery
pork

Q. 2 Fill in the blanks with appropriate words –

1. Dressing percentage = …………………..
2. Uniform distribution of fat in between muscles is known as …………
3. Intensity of light at work areas should be ……………….. lux.
4. Neats foot oil is prepared from …………………..
5. Meat is chilled at …………. temperature.
6. A short double edged knife used in Evernazione method is called ………….
7. Animal intestines are used for the production of …………. and ……………
8. The five principals of Schechita are that the neck should be cut without …………,
……………, ………….., ………… and …………..
9. Freedom from obvious dirt is termed as ……………. hygiene.
10. Intensity of light at inspection point should be ………. lux.
11. Unfit carcass in Jewish method is termed as …………..
12. Loss of weight during transport is called …………..
13. …………….. concentration of CO2 is required for stunning swine.
14. In Jewish method of slaughter the act of killing animals for food is known as
…………. 15. The rumen and reticulum together is called as ……………
16. In blast freezing temperature of air is ………….. oc.
17. Captive bolt pistol is used for ………………. of animals.
18. In Jewish method, removal of blood vessel from carcass is called …………….
19. Taking midline incision on abdomen and removing thoracic and abdominal
contents is termed as ……………
 20. ……………… are those preservatives permitted within specified limits in specific
foods and need to be declared on label.

Q. 3. Select the correct word -

1. Meat is
a. Flesh b. Flesh and bone
c. Flesh and fat d. Flesh, Fat and connective tissue

2. Marbling refers to
a. Subcutaneous fat b. Intramuscular fat
c. Intermuscular fat d. All

3. Offal in poultry
a. Edible b. Inedible c. Both d. None

4. The holding period for animals in lairage after transport should be minimum of
a. 2 hours b. 4 hours c. 8 hours d. 12 hours

5. Vertical bleeding for maximum recovery of blood is recommended in

a. pigs b. sheep and goat c. cattle d. No relevance with the species

6. Concentration and duration of CO2 stunning in pigs

a. 70% in air for 45 seconds b. 45% in air for 70 seconds
c. 70% in air for 60 seconds d. 45% in air for 7 seconds

7. Watery meat/pork refers to

a. DFD condition b. PSE condition c. PSS condition d. All

8. Exudation of water from the meat is known as

a. Weep b. Drip c. Shrink d. None

9. Predominant chemical changes that takes place during ageing of meat

a. Glycolysis b. Proteolysis c. Lipolysis d. None

10. Adequate temperature maintained in a room where carcasses are chilled before
deboning.
a. 8-10 °C b.10-15 °C c. 0 – 4°C d. more than 20°C.

11. Which of the following operation is not included in poultry slaughtering.

a. Scalding b. Stunning c. Carcass splitting d. Defeathering.

12. Sanitizing agent commonly used in food industry is

a. Quaternary ammonium compound b. Halogen group
c. Acid and Alkalies d. Amphoteric compound.

13. ………….. is most common method of slaughter followed in North India.

a. Jhataka b. Sticking c. Halal d. Jewish.

14. Which of the following condition is excluded under emergency slaughter.

 a. Severe injury b. Post–partum uterine hemorrhages
c. Post–partum paraplegia d. Uterine prolapse.
15. Main decision taken at post–mortem examination includes
i. Fit for reprocessing ii. Total
condemnation iii. Fit for consumption iv.
Partial condemnation.
a. only ii. b. i and ii c. only iii. d. ii, iii and iv.

16. Which of the organism is responsible for sulphur – stinker in canned products.
a. Cladosporium spp. b. Clostridium spp.
c. Staphylococcus spp. d. Streptococcus spp.

17. Meat tenderness is not related to

a. Age of animal b. Species or breed of animal
c. Fat content of the meat d. Glycogen content of the meat.

18. Lobulated lymph nodes are characteristic feature of

a. cattle b. sheep c. goat d. pig.

19. Marbling is rich in

a. Horse meat b. Chevon c. Mutton d. Rabbit meat

20. Rate and extent of lactic acid formation in meat determines

a. Spoilage b. Proteolysis c. Tenderness d. All.

21. Muscle shortening incidence in meat can be reduced by

a. Chilling b. Freezing c. Stunning d. Pithing

22. Venison is meat of

a. Camel b. Deer c. Horse d. Buffalo

23. Post mortem inspection of animals fails to detect

a. Tuberculosis b. Fasciolasis c. Hydatidosis d. Rabies

24. Ante mortem inspection of animals fails to detect

a. Sarcocystosis b. Uterine prolaspe c. Fever d. Tetanus

25. The suspected carcasses during post–mortem examination are kept for
examination in
a. Condemned carcass room b. Ante–room
c. Detention room d. Unsound meat room

26. The carcass yield of pig is

a. 50% b. 70% c. 35% d. 63%

27. Absence of rigor–mortis in the carcass may result when animals were
a. Well rested before slaughter b. having high fever
c. Driven on foot d. Administered sugar solution after transport
 28. The component of modern slaughterhouse where animals are provided rest for
12-24 hours before slaughter is called
a. Waiting room b. Abattoir c. Lairage d. Isolation block

29. A lymph node that lies in front of shoulder and imbedded in fat is known as
a. Pre-scapular lymph node b. Pre-pectoral lymph node
c. Pre-crural lymph node d. Pre-femoral lymph node

30. Per head space required for sheep during transportation by road/truck.
a. 0.5-0.75 m2 b. 1-1.5 m2 c. 0.23-0.24 m2 d. 0.3-0.4 m2
31. Pre-slaughter treatment of animals includes
i. Feeding ii. Resting iii. Fasting iv. Watering
a. only i. b. i and iii c. i, iii and iv d. ii, iii and iv.

32. Animals should be slaughtered after stunning.

a.within 30 minutes b.within 30 seconds c.after 30 minutes d.within 40 seconds

33. Scalding is the necessary step in the dressing of ……………..

a. Deer b. Pig c. Sheep d. Buffalo

34. Trickling filter is …………. method of slaughterhouse waste disposal.

a. Physical b. Chemical c. Biological d. None of these.

35. ………….. is rendered fat obtained from pig.

a. Suet b. Tallow c. Lard d. Neats foot oil.

36. For preparation of paya soup, ………….. feet is usually used.

a. Cattle b. Poultry c. Pig d. Sheep or goat.

37. ………….. rendering results in sticky and oily product.

a. Dry b. Wet c. Both of these d. None of these

38. Lactobacillus spp. culture is used for ………….. of solid waste collected from
slaughterhouse.
a. Rendering b. Tanning c. Fermentation d. Composting

39. ………….. drying method is used for removal of moisture from cured hide.
i. Tent ii. Umbrella iii. Suspension iv. Soaking
a. only i. b. ii and iii c. i, iii and iv d. i, ii and iii.

40. Trotter is obtained from

a. Deer b. Pig c. Buffalo d. Rabbit

Q. 4. Give scientific reason for the following -

1.
Site for slaughterhouse should be impervious and non-water logging.
2.
Rigor mortis is desirable change.
3.
Shrinkage is primarily caused by sweating, exhaustion and excretion of the animal.
 4.
Effluent water from slaughterhouse cannot be used directly for cultivation.
5.
Animals suffered from foot and mouth disease should not slaughtered and passed
for human consumption.
6.
Meat inspector should refuse to slaughter of an animal having history of high
temperature.
7.
The keeping quality of pickled meat is lower than dry salted meat.
8.
Animals are fasted before slaughter.
9.
Freezing of meat ensures killing of bacteria.
10.
Correct exposure, concentration and period are essential in CO2 stunning.
11.
Aerobic lagoons are produce less odour than anaerobic lagoons.
12.
Examination of lymph nodes is necessary during post-mortem inspection.
13.
Stressed animals should be given proper rest, feed and water prior to slaughter.
14.
Absence of rigor-mortis denotes poor quality of carcass.
15.
Pig carcass gives higher yield.
16.
Intensity of light should be maximum at inspection points.
17.
Moribund animals should not be slaughtered.
18.
Screening, centrifugation and settling basins are physical methods of
slaughterhouse waste disposal.
19.
Blood is classified as dual purpose by-product.
20.
Glands to be used for pharmaceutical purpose should be processed immediately.

Q. 5 State your judgement in following conditions as fit/unfit for consumption with proper
justification –
1. Emaciation 6. Yellowish discolouration of
2. Imperfect bleeding musculature
3. High body temperature 7. Pearly nodules on the lung
4. Oedema 8. Boiled rice like nodules in the meat
5. Immature calf 9. Hydatid cyst on liver
10. Pale, soft and exedutive meat

Q. 6. Give correct term for the following.

1. Mucus membrane of esophagus.
2. Trachea along with heart, lung and liver.
3. Recumbent and near to death animal.
4. Place in slaughterhouse where animals are rested prior to slaughter.
5. Cutter in Jewish method.
6. Process of making raw meat more soft.
7. Ritual slaughter of animal in one stroke of sword.
8. Physiological process in which animal becomes stiff after slaughter.
9. Meat from pig.

Q. 7. Match the following

A B
1. Halal a. Physical method of stunning
2. Lairage b. Stunning is not banned
3. Captive bolt pistol c. Shechita
4. Carabeef d. Goat meat
5. Venison e. Physical method of waste disposal
6. Myoglobin f. Resthouse for animals awaiting slaughter
7. NPN g. Meat of deer/game animals
 8. Trickling filter h. Meat pigment
9. Jewish Slaughter i. Meat flavour
10. Chevon j. Buffalo meat

**************

- Key answers LPT 321-

Q. 2 Fill in the blanks with appropriate words –

Carcass weight
1. Dressing percentage = ----------------- x 100 Live weight
2. Marbling
3. 220
4. buffalo or cattle hooves
5. 0-4°C
6. Puntilla
7. casings and catgut
8. pause, pressure, puncture, slanting and tearing
9. visual
10. 540
11. terepha
12. shrinkage
13. 70%
14. Schechita
15. Paunch
16. -40oC
17. stunning
18. searching
19. evisceration
20. Class II preservatives

Q. 3. Select the correct word –

1 –d 7–b 13 – a 19 –c 25 – c 31 - d 37 - b 38 –
2 –b 8–b 14 – a 20 –c 26 – b 32 – b c
3 –c 9–a 15 – d 21 –a 27 – b 33 - b 39 - b
4 –d 10 – c 16 – b 5 – 22 –b 28 –c 34 – 40 – b
d 11 – c 17 – c 23 –d c
6–a 12 – a 18 – b 24 –a 29 –a 35 -
c
30 –d 36 –
Q. 6. Give correct term for the
d
following.
1. Weasand 6. Tenderisation
2. Pluck 7. Jhataka
3. Moribund
 8. Condemned meat
4. Lairage room 9. Rigor mortis
5. Schochet 10. Pork.

Q. 7. Match the following

1 –b 6 –h
2 –f 7 –i
3 –a 8 –e
4 –j 9 –c
5 –g 10- d

1 Natural casings are prepared from____________________

a Mucosa b submucosa c muscular layer d serosa

2 Most commonly used barrier bag for vacuum packaging are

____________________

a polyethylene b poly vinylidene c d polyester

polypropylene

3 Frankfuter is a typical example of ________________

a uncooked b cooked c Cooked sausage d Uncooked

unsmoked smoked sausage sausage smoked
sausage
4 Cold shortening of muscle occurs when pre-rigor muscle is exposed to a temperature between
____________________

a -5 to –10 oC b 0 to 15 oC c -1.5 to –3 oC d -20 to –30 oC

5 Myofibrillar proteins are____________________

a globular b fibrous c globular and d none of

fibrous the above
6 Bloom is referred as the property of ____________________

a fresh carcass b frozen carcass c cooked d smoked meat

meat

7 ________________ is referred as inspectors lymph node

a bronchial b mediastinal c supra scapular d poplitial

8 Livestock unit is ____________________

a 1 adult bovine b 1 adult bovine : c 1 adult bovine : d 1 adult bovine : : 2 pigs : 3 3

pigs : 5 calves 3 pigs : 3 2 pigs : 3 calves : 5 : 10 sheep calves : 5 calves : 6
sheep sheep sheep
9 The colour of the pigment nitrosohemochromogen is ____________________

a brown b pink c red d bright red

10 Casings prepared from small intestine of sheep are called_____________

a weasand b middles c bungs d rounds

11 Average protein content of carcass meal________________

a 50% b 30% c 70% d 40%

12 Cytoplasm of muscle fiber is called as_______________

a protoplasm b sarcoplasm c sarcomere d ground

substance
13 Bacterial spoilage in chilled meat is due to bacteria of ________________group

a psychrophilic b mesophilic c thermophilic d microaerophilic

14 Meat pattice are cooked in an oven to an internal temperature of

____________________

a 70 oC b 90 oC c 60 oC d 85 oC

15 Glycogen content of normal bovine muscle ranges from ____________________

a 0.5-1.3% b 0.1-1% c 2 – 3.5 % d 1- 3 %

16 When meat is frozen slowly the largest crystals are formed ______________

a inside muscle b between c out side muscle d between epi and fiber
muscles fiber perimysium
17 The temperature of the retort during canning of meat chunks is _____________

a 100 oC b 120 oC c 150 oC d 200 oC

18 The radiation dose of _______ is sufficient to kill the pathogenic bacteria.

a 0.1 M rad b 1 M rad C 1.5 M rad d 2 M rad

19 Water activity in intermediate moisture foods is maintained between_______

a 0.6 – 0.85% b 0.3 – 0.4 % c 0.8 – 1 % d 0.2 – 0.5 %

20 Freezing point of meat lies between _____________

 a - 1 to –1.5 oC b - 2 to – 0 oC c 0 to – 3 oC d - 1 to 0 oC

21 Scalding temperature in pigs is about________________

a 50 - 55 oC b 62 - 64 oC c 70 - 85 oC d 90 oC

22 Animals should be bled within ________seconds after electrical stunning to avoid muscle
splashing.

a 60 sec b 30 sec c 90 sec d 10 sec

23 The end product of ATP break down responsible for flavour is _________

a hypoxanthine b furfural c creatinine d furfural

24 The characteristic yellow colour of egg yolk is due to _____________

a carotene b vitamin- a c biotin d xanthophyll

25 Brucellosis is also known as ____________________

a BVD b bangs diseased c black disease d mucosal disease

26 Since Jan 2001 Britain is facing a severe crisis in beef production due to out break of
___________

a FMD b RP c Mad cow disease d Brucellosis

27 Strength of pickle solution is measured by_______

a Barometer b Torry meter c Gyrometer d Salinometer

28 Emulsion is prepared in ________

a Tumbler b Homogenizer c Flaker d Bowl chopper

29 The carcinogenic compounds in smoke are______________

a benzyl pyrenes b carbonyls c aldehydes d PAH

30 Case on systems of dressing is used in___________

a cattle b buffalo c sheep d pig

31 Each muscle fiber is covered by __________

a perimycium b epimysium c endomysium d fascia

32 Bacon is prepared from __________

 a boston butt b leg portion c picnic shoulder d bellies

33 Multiplication of bacteria is highest during ____________phase of growth.

a lag phase b log phase c phase of + ve d stationary

acceleration phase
34 The indicator of fecal contamination is _______

a E.coil b Salmonella c S.faecalis d S. bovis

35 Iodine no. in horse fat is____________.

a 70 - 85 B 35 – 46 c 50 – 70 d 30 - 50
36 Dressed chicken can be stored in a refrigerator at 2oC for __________.

a 7 days b 2 days c 10 days d 15 days

37 The fat content of chicken egg albumen is ____________

a 0.2 % b 10 % c 15 % d 20 %

38 Green rot in egg is caused by ________________

a Pseudomonas b Staphylococcus c Serratia d Cladosporium

39 During ageing the lysosomal enzymes act at the pH__________

a below pH 6 b7–9 c 10 d 12

40 The optimum concentration of CO2 gas in stunning of pigs is _________

a 70% b 20% c 50% d 90%

41 Parasites in meat such as Cysticercus bovis and Trichenella spiralis are killed
by__________

a 0.01 – 0.1 M rad b 0.5 – 1 M rad c 1 – 2 M rad d 10 M rad

42 The voltage during electrical stunning of sheep is usually_________

a 40 V b 75 – 80 V c 90 V d 120 V

43 Speed of freezing of meat is the time taken to pass from_________

a 0 to -5 0 C b +2 to -2 0 C c +1 to -1 0 C d +5 to -2 0 C

44 Antibacterial action of cloves is due to_________

a eugenol b isothiocyanate c carbonic acid d phenol

45 Wet dog flavour is typical of _______________

a AFD meat b Irradiated meat c chilled meat d cooked meat
46 The product corned beef, the corn refers to________________
a Corn flavour b granulated salt c Na – Nitrite d polyphosphate

47 A minimum of ______________ nitrite is necessary to ensure normal colour and flavour in

cured meats.
a 20 – 40 ppm b 100 ppm c 200 ppm d 10 ppm

48 Bound water forms about ___________ % of the total water content in meat a 10 % b 5 %
c 20 % d 25 %

49 Ultimate pH of meat protein is___________________

a 4.5 b 5.4 c 5 d4

50 The moisture content of AFD meat is __________________

a 2% b 10% c 15% d 20%

51 W.B. Shear force meter measure the strength required in _____________ of meat.
a biting b tearing c chewing d cutting

52 Thaw rigor is caused by the activity of _______________ enzyme

a lysozyme b protease c ATPase d lipase

53 For preparing fermented sausages the ______________ culture is used.

a Lactobacillus b Leuconostock c Achromobactor d Psedomonas

54 ___________________ ions are responsible for muscle contraction

a Na b K c Ca d SO4

55 Recovery of fat from the dead carcasses is called as ____________________

a rendering b simmering c braising d pasteurization 56 Humidity in carcass chilling
room should be about _______________
a 90% b 40% c 50% d 60%

57 Cabbage odour due to methanediol in sliced vacuum packed bacon is due to ____
a Pseudomonas b Proteus c Pediococcus d Micrococcus
inconstans
58 The black colouration in bone taints is due to production of _____________
a H2S gas b NH3 c CO2 d mercaptans

59 Heparin is extracted from _________________

a lung b liver c spleen d adrenals

60 The process of tanning sheep skin with fish oil is popularly known as _________
a shammoying b dying c bating d desliming

61 Animal casings are mainly graded based on their___________

a length b diameter c colour d moisture
content
62 Whiskers on meat surface are caused by_______________
a penicillin b tamnidium c aspergillus d achromobactor
63 In meat product preparation maida is used for__________________
a flavour b colour c water binding d fat binding

64 The famous traditional meat products in Jammu and Kashmir is______________

a Rapka b Momo c Rista d Kola urandi

65 Measly beef is an another name for ____________

a Cysticercus b Cysticercus c Cysticercus d Multiceps tenucollis bovis cellusae multiceps

66 Tyrosine value estimates the extent of ___________ breakdown in meat.

a fatty acids b protein c carbohydrate d vtiamin

67 Average generation time for bacteria is _________________

a 20 min b 10 min c 30 min d 40 min

68 Carter’s agar is used for cultivation of ________________

a E.coli b Fungus C Proteus D Stapohylococcus

69 ______________ gives acid fast reaction on Ziehl Neelsen’s staining.

a Closrtidium b Salmonella c Campylobactor d Tuberculosis

70 Example of spirochets is____________

a Leptospira b Vibrio c Mycoplasma d Klebsiella

71 ______________ is the most tender cut in beef carcass.

a Rump b Short plate c Chuck and blade d Sirloin

72 Colour of rabbit meat is ____________

a pale brown b red c cherry red d pink

73 Main objective of adding salt during meat emulsion preparation is____________

a to extract b antioxidant c antimicrobial d flavour myofibrillar
proteins
74 ______________ is the GRAS chemical additive
a citric acid b KMnO4 C Sodium hypochlorite d benzylpyrines

75 Technical fat is used in manufacture of ____________

a soap b fat liquor c lubricant d edible oils

76 Fatty acid composition of oils can be estimated by _____________

a TLC b GLC c Refractometer d AAS

77 Average dressing % in Indian goats is about__________________

a 35-50% b 55% c Above 70% d 60%

78 __________ instrument is used to measure the smoke density in smoke houses.

a Electric eye b Plannimeter c Ameter d Densitometeric scan

79 Alarm water content in fat free dehydrated meats is __________

a 15% b 30% c 40% d 50%
80 Ruffle fat is a fat around _________
a kidney b mesentery c thoracic region d rectum

81 Haugh index is used to determine the internal quality of_____________

a milk b meat c paneer d egg

82 ___________ initiated the concept of canning of foods.

a B.Franklin B R.A.Lawrie c N.Appert d R.Hamm

83 The food poisoning caused by Bacillus cereus is referred as __________

a infection b infestation c intoxication d ingestion

84 The quality standards for foods all over the world are monitored as per____ a ISO
b APEDA c OIE d FAO

85 Yellow fever is an example of _____________zoonoses

a direct zoonoses b meta zoonoses c cyclo zoonoses d sapro
zoonoses

86 An association between two organism in which both are benefited is ___________ a

symbiosis b synnenecrotic c antagonism d mutualistic

87 Mycobacterium piscium causes T.B.in_________

a cattle b sheep c frog d birds

88 Anthrax is also known as __________

a Charbon b Struck c Weil’s disease d Undulant fever

89 Clenbutarol is an ________________
a growth promoter b antiseptic c antibiotic d lipolytic agent

90 _____________ are the principal host for Leptospirosis

a cattle b man c lizard d rodent

91 All organophosphorous compounds produce _____________residue in tissues.

a little or no b moderate c high d heavy

92 ______________ is taken for toxic residue analysis.

a liver b heart c spleen d intestine

93 The method of packing dressed broiler chicken is known as ______________

a trussing b wrapping c tetrapacking d none of the a,b,c
94 Scalding temperature for turkey is usually __________-

a 60o C for 60 b 53 o C for 120 c 60o C for 120 sec d 93 o C for 5 sec sec sec
95 Meat bone ratio in dressed broiler is approximately________
a 4:1 b 2:1 c 3:1 d 5:1
96 National Research Center on meat is situated in____________
a Bombay b Calcutta c Hyderabad d Delhi

97 In India, processed meat products from chicken are manufactured by_______

a Lipton b Venkys c Hindustan liver d Griffon

98 Meat analogues are prepared from________

a pork b vegetable c beef d mutton
proteins
99 The enzyme present in chalyza of chicken gee which has antibacterial effect is
___________
a lysozyme b amylase c protease d pectinase

100 Meat containing sarcocyst is________

a rejected on b rejected due to c passed d passed with caution
aesthetic zoonoses of cooking
ground

ANSWER KEY

Sr no. Answer Sr no. Answer Sr no. Answer Sr no. Answer

1 b 26. a 51. d 76. b

2 b 27. d 52. c 77. a
3 b 28. d 53. a 78. a
4 b 29. d 54. c 79. a
5 c 30. c 55. a 80. a
6 a 31. c 56. a 81. d
7 a 32. d 57. b 82. c
8 a 33. b 58. a 83. a
9 a 34. a 59. a 84. a
10 d 35. a 60. a 85. b
11 a 36. a 61. b 86. d
12 b 37. a 62. c 87. c
13 a 38. a 63. c 88. a
14 d 39. a 64. c 89. a
15 a 40. a 65. b 90. d
16 a 41. a 66. b 91. a
17 b 42. b 67. a 92. a
18 a 43. a 68. d 93. a
19 a 44. a 69. d 94. d
20 a 45. b 70. a 95. a
21 a 46. b 71. d 96. c
22 b 47. a 72. a 97. b
23 a 48. b 73. a 98. b
24 a 49. b 74. a 99. a
25 b 50. a 75. a 100. A

1.Muscle fibers of meat animals with diameters of 50 microns contains ----- no. of Myofibrils

2. The unit of myofibril between two adjacent Z discs is called -----

3.A typical mammalian muscle at rest has a sarcomere length of -------

4. Actin molecule has a --------- shape

5. Myosin constitutes approx --------% of myofibrillar proteins

6. --------- is the most abundant protein in animal body

7. --------- is the most abundant amino acid of collagen

8. Glycine constitute about -----% of amino acids of collagen

9. ------------ is the structural unit of collagen fibril

10. The cervical ligament of neck is made of --------fibers

11. --------- is the amino acid present in the greatest quantity in elastin

12. -------- & --------- are two unique amino acids present in elastin

13. The color of brown fat is due to high content of --------- in mitochondria

14. A primary muscle contains approx ------ number of muscle fibers

15. Intramuscular fat is called ---------- of meat

16. Intermuscular fat is also called --------- fat

17. The element which constitutes maximum % of animal body weight is--------
18. ----------- is the most abundant fatty acid in animal body

19. The most abundant carbohydrate in muscles-----------

20. Average protein percentage of mammalian skeletal muscles-----

21. A genetic condition of cattle causing unusually thick bulging muscles.

22. Excessive fat infiltration in muscle fibers is called--------

23. An action potential enters the interior of a muscle fibers along ---------

24.Only about --------% of total blood volume can be removed via exsanguination.

25. The range of ultimate pH of meat is --------

26. The period of time during which the muscle is extensible and elastic is called---phase of rigor
mortis.

27. ATP complexed with --------is required for a muscle to maintain a relaxed state

28. The decrease in tension with time is described as ------- of rigor mortis.

29. Holding carcass at refrigeration temperature after initial chilling is called--------in US &----in
other countries

30. In------- condition of meat, there is lowered processing yield, increased cooking loss and
reduced juiciness.

31. Cold shortening develops when muscle is chilled below --------before onset of rigor mortis.

32. Thaw rigor shortening is approx. ------- % of original length of muscles.

33.Marked shortening and early onset of rigor induced by maintaining muscles at high temp is
called-------

34. Lipid oxidation in muscles is measured as -----values.

35. Loss of weight during storage of meat is called ------------

36. Lack of space for water molecules within protein structures is known as -------effects.

37. In well bled muscles, Myoglobin constitutes ------% of the total pigments.
38. The typical color of meat from pork is -------

39. The bright red color development of meat is due to oxymyoglobin is called

40. Oxidized myoglobin is called------

41. The bright pink color characteristic of cured meat is due to ---------

42. The amount of nitrite permitted in finished products by US meat inspection regulation is ----
ppm

43. The sodium salts of ------- or -------- acids are most widely used cure accelerators.

44. The greening of cured meat pigment by excessive use of nitrites----------- 45. Large fat
particles coalesce at the end of the sausages to form -------

46. -----flavor develops due to lipid oxidation in pre-cooked frozen meat.

47. The heat resistance of microrganisms is usually expressed as ---------

48. To stabilize meat products, a radiation dosage of ----- megarads is used.

49, Loss of tenderness occuring in the first few hours postmortem is called--------toughning.

50. Cooked testicle of lambs, calves and turkeys are commonly called ------

ANSWERS
1. 1000-2000

2. Sarcomere

3. 2.5 microns

4. Globular

5. 45

6. Collagen

7. Glycine

8. 33
9. Tropocollagen

10. Elastin

11. Glycine

12. Desmosine and Isodesmosine

13. Cytochrome

14. 20 to 40

15. Marbling

16. Seam

17. Oxygen-65%

18. Oleic acid

19. Glycogen

20. 18.5%
21.Double Muscling
22. Steatosis

23. T-tubules

24. 50%

25. 5.3-5.7

26. Delay

27. Mg2+

28. Resolution

29. Aging , conditioning

30. PSE

31. 15-16 degrees

32. 60%

33. Heat Rigor

34. Thiobarbituric Acid

35. Shrinkage

36.Steric

37. 80-90%

38. Grayish Pink

39. Bloom

40. Metmyoglobin

41. Nitrosyl Haemochromogen

42. 200

43. Ascorbic or Erythorbic

44. Nitrite Burn

45. Fat Caps

46. Warmed Over

47.Thermal death time

48. 4.5

49. Actomyosin

50. Mountain Oysters

Q. Choose the appropriate answer and encircle it

1. Protein content of fresh whole chicken egg is ________.
a) 12% b) 15% c) 28% d) 25%
2. The relative humidity suitable for commercial meat chilling plant is ________.
a) 95% b) 90% c) 85% d) 75%
3. Desugarization of liquid eggs is performed by using the enzyme ________.
a) glycose oxidize b) carboxypeptidase
c) ribose oxidize d) protease
4. Moisture content of fresh meat is around ________.
a) 50% b) 60% c) 75% d) 90%
5. In healthy but lean animal meat, the water to protein ratio is ________.
a) less than 4 to 3 b) less than 4 to 12
c) less than 4 to 1 d) less than 1 to 4
6. Monosodium glutamate (MSG) is used in meat as ________
a) colour fixing agent b) flavour enhancer
c) binder d) emulsifier
7. Decrease in post mortem muscle pH is due to ________
a) glycolysis b) Proteolysis c) lipolysis d) all the above
8. Commercially sterile canned meat should be processed to an internal temperature of
______.
a) 100-105oC b) 110-115oC c) 120-121oC d) 130-140oC
9. Black spot in refrigerated beef is caused by ________.
a) sporotrichum sp b) cladosporium sp c) thamnidium sp d) mucor sp
10. The principal gases used in modified atmospheric packaging are ________.
a) Co2 & N b) N2 & O2 c) O2 & Co2 d) O2, N2 & Co2
11. Marbling refers to ________.
a) Subcutaneous fat b) Intramuscular fat
c) Intermuscular fat d) All
12. Exhudation of water from the frozen meat is known as ________
a) weep b) drip c) shrink d) none
13. Mutton refers to a meat of ________.
a) Goat b) Cattle c) Sheep d) Buffalo
14. Halothane anaesthesia is used as a test for pigs prone to ________.
a) PSE b) DFD c) Bruising d) PSS
15. Hide is a skin obtained from ________.
a) Adult animal b) Imamate animal c)Unburned d) New born.
16. The most typical colour of fresh pork is ________.
a) Dull red b) Bright red c) Grayish pink d) whitish
17. The most abundant amino acid in collagen is ________.
a) Lysine b) Glycine c) Alanine d) Valine
18. The average dressing percentage of pig carcass is ________.
a) 50% b) 75% c) 60% d) 55%
19. During smoking of meat, part of the bactericidal action is due to presence of ________.
a) Heat b) Nitrosohaemochromogen c) formaldehyde d) SaH
20. Structural and functional unit of myofibril is ________.
a) Sarcoplasm b) sarcolemna c) Sarcomere d) Sarcotubule
21. Frankfurter is a typical example of ________.
 a) uncooked sausage b) cooked smoked sausage
c) cooked unsmoked sausage d) uncooked smoked sausage
22. The colour of the pigment nitrosohemochromogen is ________.
a) brown b) pink c) red d) bright red
23. Haugh index is used to determine the internal quality of ________.
a) milk b) meat c) paneer d) egg
24. Quality standards for foods all over the world are monitored as per ________.
a) ISO b) APEDA c) OIE d) FAO
25. Critical temperature during meat handling and storage is ________.
a) 5oC b) 10oC c) 12oC d) 15oC
26. Which one out of following egg products has the highest amount of cholesterol (per
100gm sample) ________.
a) dried whole egg powder b) fresh yolk
27. Meat emulsion is prepared in ________
a) Tumbler b) Homogenizer c) Flaker d) Bowl Chopper
28. Dressed chicken can be stored at refrigeration temperature of 2-4oC ________
a) 7 days b) 2 days c) 10 days d) 15 days
29. Green rot in egg is caused by (organism) ________
a) Psedomonas b) staphylococcus c) serratia
30. Protein degradation in meat is assessed by estimation of ________ .
a) protein number b) TBA number c) TCA number d) tyrosine value
31 The major contractile protein of the muscle is ________.
a) Actin b) Myosin c) Titin d) Nebulin
32. Pork pickles is the popular meat product of ________.
a) Delhi b) Bihar c) Arunachal Pradesh d) Kashmir
33. Detectable slime forms on meat surface whey bacterial load reaches to ________.
a) log21cm2 b) log 51cm2 c) log 81cm2 d) log 10cm2
34. Rancidity in meat is assessed by estimating its ________.
a) TBA value b) VFA value c) Tyrosine value d) TVN value
35. The freezing point of tean meat is ________.
a) 0oC b) –0.5oC c) –1.5oC d) –2.5oC
36. Bone darkening is a past freezing condition mostly observed in ________.
a) young chicken b) old chicken c) Adult turkey d) Adult geese
Q. Read the statements carefully and write cethiber the statement is True or False 1.
“Leakers” egg is one in which the shell has broken but the shell membrane remains intact.
2. Faster the rate of freezing the less will be the drip on thawing.
3. More bacterial are found in egg yolk than in egg white
4. A combination of low muscle pH and high temperature leads to tough meat
5. Presence of carotene in buffalo fat helps in identification and segregation from other
meats
6. Collagen is major component of connective tissue which accounts for 1/3 of total proteins
 7. Fertile eggs are more nutritious than unfertile eggs.
8. Vitamin B is relatively higher in pork than in other meats.
9. Conversion of muscle to meat involves a series of complex biochemical changes that have
an influence on the quality of meat.

10. biochemical techniques are the rapid and extremely sensitive analytical techniques for
meat identification.

11. STPP is one of the curing ingredient of meat.

12. Bacon is the only meat product prepared form the primal cuts of pork.
13. Bowl chopper is used for making the meat batter.
14. Poultry manue is a main product of poultry industry.
15. Digestive protein content of feather meal ranges bet 40-50%.
16. Bleeding time for poultry is around 3 min.
17. Meat to bone ration and meat yield has no relationship between them.
18. Candling is commercially practiced to access quality of shell egg.

19. salt is are of the pro-oxidants.

20. Mouthcoating is observed in buffalo meat sausages.

21. BIS specifications are voluntary.
22. Iodine value for horse fat is the highest.
23. Irradiates is a substitute for good hygienic practices in the production & processing of
foods.
24. Average pre-slaughter fastening period in birds should be 12 hours before slaughter
25. Horse meat is rich in glycogen.
26. Meat of the meat spoilage bacteria grow at aw of 0.91.
27. BHT is one of the widely used pro-oxidants in meat products.

28. Geographical component of meat texture is related with size, shape and arrangement of
muscle fibers.

29. Frankfurter is a typical example of uncooked & smoked sausage.

30. Critical temperature during handling & storage is 5oC.

31. In tender meat, the juices are released slowly on chewing.

32. Human senses are biological detectors.

Q. Fill in the blanks
1. Venison is meat form __________.
2. The chief bacteriostatic and bactericidal substance in wood smoke is __________.
3. In poultry processing, the temperature of water in hard scalding is __________.
4. According to MFPO (1973), meat food products should not contain tin in excess of
__________.

5. Protein degradation in meat is assessed by estimation of __________.

6. __________ is a instrument used to measure tenderness of meat & meat products.
7. The gases which are added to atmosphere to improve keeping quality of eggs are
__________.

8. The entry of microorganisms into whole egg is favored by __________.

9. The interior – quality of an A – grade egg should have an air cell not more than
__________.

10. __________ test is used to assess the efficiency of bleeding in meat.

11. Albumen quality of egg is measured by __________ units.
12. In the preparation of __________ the strips of meat are first cured and some times
immersed in vinegar and then dried.

13. Since ionizing radiation destroys micro organisms without appreciably rasing temperature,
the process is termed as __________.

14. The maximum concentration of So2 permissible for preservation of sausages and sausages
and meats in UK is __________.

15. In modern poultry processing plants, usually ______ method is used for slaughtering
birds.
16. __________ yolks occurs, when the yolk membrane becomes attached to shell membranes
in old eggs.

17. __________ is most effective antioxidant compound present in wood smoke.

18. Conditioning is oranoleptically optimum when hypoxanthic level in meat reached
__________ u moles/g.

19. In cooked meats __________ colour is most preferred.

20. Main component of egg shell is __________.
21. __________ formation is indicate of meat spoilage.
22. pH of a normal fresh meat is _________.
23. __________ is the most abundant amino and in collagen.
Q. Expand the following.
1. DFD = Dark Firm Dry
2. AFD = Accterated Freeze Drying
3. PVC = Polyvinyl Chloride
4. MFPO = Meat Food Products Order
5. FFA = Free Fatty Acids
6. APC = Aerobic Plate Count
7. WHC = Water Holding Capacity
8. BIS = Bureau of Indian Standards
9. SSP = Salt Soluble Proteins
10. HMM = Heavy Mero Mysin
11. ICMSF = International Commission on Microbiological Specification
for Foods
12. MSG = Monosodium Glutamate
13. ERV = Extract Release Volume
14. STPP = Sodium Tri Poly Phosphate
15. TVC = Total Viable Count
16. CFU = Clony Forming Unit
17. OIE = Office International des Epizooties
18. APEDA = Agricultural & Processed Food Products Export
Development Authority (APEDA)
19. HACCP = Hazard Analysis Critical Control Point
20. MAP = Modified atmospheric Packaging
21. TDT = Thermal Death Time
Q. Define the following terms.
1. Cold Shortening: It is a cold induced shortening observed in muscle due to sudden
stimulation of ATP ase while the carcass is still warm. This usually occurs in pre-rigor
muscles upon exposure to a temperature of 10-15oC.

2. Rigor Mortis : It reefers to stiffness of muscle after death & it is one of the most dramatic
post mortem change that accurse during conversion of muscle to meat.

3. Meat Emulsion: It is a two phase system where in dispersed phase consists of solid/ liquid
fat particles and continuous phase being water containing salts and dissolved, gelled and
suspended proteins. Meat emulsion is a oil – in water type of emulsion.

4. Sausage: It refers to blending of minced meat or combination of meats alongwith various

seasoning agents and salt followed by encasingle putting in casing‟s or container.

5. Thermostablization: The process of sealing the egg shell pores with a layer of coagulated
albumin by holding egg in an oil bath at 60oC for 10 min.

6. Scalding of poultry: It refers to immersion of birds in not water for loosening the feathers.
7. Ageing of meat: It is the process of holding meat under controlled conditions of
temperature & relative humidity in order to achieve desirable tenderness & flavour in
meat.

8. Sensory evaluation of food: It refers to its scientific evaluation through the application of
human senses.

9. Water holding capacity: Ability of meat to retain its water during application of external
force such as cutting, heating, girding or pressing.

10. Thaw rigor: When preriger meat is frozen, severe type of rigor mortis ensures during
thawing. This condition results in tough meat & heavy drip losses.

11. Flavour: It is a complex sensation comprising mainly of taste & odour.

12. Blending: Refers to additional mixing for the purpose of solubilizing and swelling the
meat proteins before further processing.

13. Freezer burn: Freezer burn is abnormal condition occurs due to progressive surface
dehydration resulting in accentuates condition.

14. Thermal Death Time: TDT is defined as a time required to kill a specified no. of cells /
spores under specific conditions.

15. Canning: Canning is a process of preservation by thermal sterilization of a product had in

„
hermetically‟ sealed containers.
: Answer Key – LPT 411 :

Q. 1 1) a 2) c 3) a 4) c 5) c 6) b 7) a 8) c 9) a
10) d 11) b 12) b 13) c 14) a 15) a 16) c 17) b 18) b
19) c 20) c 21) b 22) b 23) d 24) a 25) a 26) b 27) d
28) a 29) a 30) d 31) b 32) c 33) c 34) a 35) c 36) a

Q. 2 1) True 2) True 3) True 4) False 5) False 6) True

7) False 8) True 9) True 10) False 11) True 12) False
13) True 14) False 15) False 16) True 17) False 18) True
19) True 20) True 21) True 22) True 23) False 24) True
25) True 26) True 27) False 28) True 29) False 30) True
31) False 32) True

Q. 3 1) Deer 2) Formaldehyde 3) 600 C 4) 250 ppm 5) Tyrosine

value
6) Warner-Bratzler shear 7) Carbon dioxide & ozone 8) High humidity

9) 4 mm 10) Malachite green 11) Haugh 12) Biltong/Cherque

13) Cold sterilization 14) 450 ppm 15) Modified kosher
16) Struck 17) Phenol 18) 1.5 to 2.0 19) Brown/Gray
20) Calcium carbonate 21) Slime 22) 6.0 – 6.5 23) Glycine