4. Which of the following neoplasms is malignant? C a. hypermobility c.

hypertrophy
a. Chondroma c. Neuroblastoma b. hyperplasia d. hypotrophy
b. Fibroma d. Osteoma
64. An individual with spontaneous attacks of wheezing and
6. A condition in which the loss of cellular and dyspnea is otherwise usually free of these symptoms.
organizational differentiation tends to parallel the What is the most likely diagnosis? B
degree of malignancy? A a. acute bronchitis c. chronic bronchitis
a. Anaplasia c. Metaplasia b. bronchial asthma d. pulmonary emphysema
b. Hyperplasia d. Neoplasia
65. An individual states that he becomes short of breath and
7. Which of the following vitamin is essential or important wheezes when he runs, mows the lawn, or does other
in callus production in fracture repair? D heavy work. What is the most likely diagnosis? D
a. Vitamin A c. Vitamin B12 a. acute bronchitis c. chronic bronchitis
b. Vitamin B1 d. Vitamin C b. bronchial asthma d. pulmonary emphysema

10. The lymphoid system is composes of all the following 68. All of the following are sites of metastasis of Hodgkin's
EXCEPT: B disease EXCEPT: D
a. bone marrow c. spleen a. liver c. lymph nodes
b. liver d. thymus b. lungs d. spleen

12. In congestive heart disease which of the following 70. Hemophilia is usually transmitted from an affected male
organs is most seriously affected due to decreased blood and through which member of the family? A
supply? C a. daughter c. grandson
a. the brain c. the kidneys b. granddaughter d. son
b. the intestines d. the lungs
MEDICINE
24. Which of the following cell type is involved in a chronic
inflammatory process ? B 121. Which of the following is characteristic of Cushing's
a. eosinophil c. mast cell syndrome? A
b. lymphocyte d. polymorphonuclear leukocyte a. acne and hirsutism c. osteoarthritis
b. hypotension d. slender body type
49. Which of the following is the most frequently involved
chamber of the heart in myocardial infarction? B 122. What is the most serious manifestation of rheumatic
a. the left atrium c. the right atrium fever? A
b. the left ventricle d. the right ventricle a. heart disease c. liver malfunction
b. hypertension d. renal incontinence
51. Which of the following is the most common cause of
cerebral vascular accidents (stroke)? D 123. All of the following are physical signs of emphysema
a. Aneurysm c. neoplasms EXCEPT: A
b. Hemorrhage d. thrombosis a. decrease resonance to percussion over lung fields
b. increase anterior-posterior diameter of the chest
54. A diet deficient in vitamin B2, riboflavin will cause c. increase respiratory rate
which of the following? B d. use of accessory muscles of respiration during
a. beriberi c. pernicious anemia breathing.
b. cheilosis and eye lesions d. scurvy
130. The P-wave of an EKG corresponds to which of the
58. What is the principal ion in extracellular fluids? D following? A
a. chloride c. potassium a. Atrial depolarization
b. phosphate d. sodium b. Atrial repolarization
c. Mitral depolarization
60. What is the most chronic disease of the lungs? C d. Mitral repolarization
a. asthma c. emphysema
b. bronchiectasis d. tuberculosis 132. The T-wave of an EKG corresponds to which of the
following? B
61. All of the following are favorable conditions for a. atrial deplarization
thrombosis EXCEPT: A b. atrial repolarization
a. decreased viscosity of the blood c. ventricular depolarization
b. increased blood platelets d. ventricular repolarization
c. rough vessel lining
d. venous stasis 134. Adams-Stokes syndrome is associated with the onset of
which of the following? B
63. A patient who is a weight-lifter has increased the size of a. atrial flutter
the deltoid, biceps, and triceps. What do you call this b. serious degree of heart block
phenomenon? C c. sinus arrythmia
 d. thyrotoxic heart disease with each breath? B
a. inspiratory capacity c. total lung capacity
135. A disease characterized by dilatation of bronchi and b. tidal volume d. vital capacity
bronchioles? A
a. bronchiectasis c. endocarditis 200. Which of the following is known as the amount of air left
b. emphysema d. spondylitis in the lungs after a forced exhalation? B
a. functional capacity c. tidal volume
140. A disease in which the air spaces distal to the terminal b. residual volume d. total lung capacity
bronchioles are dilated beyond their normal size? A
a. bronchiectasis c. endocarditis 204. Which of the following is a condition exhibits the cardinal
b. emphysema d. spondylitis symptom of abnormal fatigability of muscles? B
a. Guillain-Barre syndrome
142. Intermittent claudication in the lower extremities b. myasthenia gravis
suggests which of the following? A c. myotonia congenita
a. Buerger's disease c. Raynaud's disease d. pseudohypetrophic muscular dystrophy
b. Pott's disease d. Still's disease
206. All of the following are classified as chronic obstructive
152. Clinically, necrosis of which of the following is referred to pulmonary disease EXCEPT: A
as myocardial infarction? B a. acute bronchitis c. chronic bronchitis
a. left atrium c. right atrium b. bronchial asthma d. pulmonary emphysema
b. myocardium d. right ventricle
210. What is the most common site for carcinoma of the large
154. Which of the following is a clinical feature of Grave's intestine? C
disease? A a. ascending colon c. rectum
a. atrophied thyroid gland b. cecum d. transverse colon
b. exopthalmos
c. myxedema 214. What is the most characteristic symptom of pulmonary
d. tachycardia that disappears during sleep. emphysema? B
a. cough c. hemoptysis
155. Which of the following conditions are associated with b. dyspnea d. pain
hypothyroidism in children? B
a. Addison's disease c. Cushing syndrome 216. What is most common early symptom of bronchial
b. cretinism d. exopthalmos carcinoma? A
a. cough c. hemoptysis
161. What is the most common form of arrhythmia? C b. dyspnea d. pain
a. ventricular ectopic beats
b. ventricular fibrillation 234. What is the maximum amount of air that can be
c. ventricular premature beats contained in the lungs after a maximum inspiration? C
d. ventricular tachycardia a. inspiratory capacity c. total lung capacity
b. residual volume d. vital capacity
175. Acromegaly is caused by a tumor in which of the
following? D
a. adrenal cortex 240. In congestive heart failure, signs and symptoms will
b. adrenal medulla indicate? C
c. anterior lobe of the pituitary gland a. cardiac arrest
d. posterior lobe of the pituitary gland b. left atrium failure
c. left ventricular failure
176. The most important factor in contributing to or d. right atrium failure
determining blood pressure at any given moment is? A
a. arteriolar tone c. blood viscosity 246. The primary defects of cystic fibrosis are in which
b. blood viscosity d. competence of aortic valve structure? D
a. duodenum c. lungs
178. The most common lesion caused by hydrochloric acid is? b. kidneys d. pancreas
D
a. duodenal ulcer c. gastritis
b. gastric ulcer d. peptic ulcer 623. What is the most probable site of athetosis? B
a. cranial nerve V c. motor cortex
183. What is the basic problem of Cushing's syndrome? A b. globus pallidus d. neuromuscular junction
a. adrenal cortical hyperfunction c.
hyperpituitarism 625. A cerebrovascular patient, with left-sided weakness of
b. hyperaldosteronism d. upper lower and lower extremity likely has a lesion
hypopituitarism located in the ? D
a. brainstem
191. What do you call the amount of air inhaled of exhaled b. left cerebral hemispheres
 c. medulla b. Jacksonian seizure d. psychomotor seizure
d. right cerebral hemispheres
667. A patient presents with a sudden onset of fever,
630. What is a common cause of epidural compression of the headache, and nuchal rigidity. This is followed by
spinal cord? B drowsiness, confusion, and loss of consciousness. One
a. Erb's-Duchenne-Klumpke syndrome should suspect? A
b. Hodgkin's disease a. acute purulent meningitis
c. Tay-Sachs disease b. cranial epidural abscess
d. Werdnig-Hoffman syndrome c. cranial subdural empyema
d. subdural hematoma
637. All of the following are characteristic of a lower motor
neuron lesion EXCEPT: D 676. Which of the following is the most common tumor of the
a. atrophy of muscles below the lesion brain and spinal cord? D
b. depressed reflexes below level of the lesion a. meningiomas c. neurilemmomas
c. fasciculations b. metastatic tumors d. gliomas
d. spastic paralysis below the level of the lesion
679. Which of the following is the condition in which there is
638. The following are clinical features of multiple sclerosis abnormal and irresistible attacks of the desire to sleep. C
EXCEPT: B a. cataplexy c. narcolepsy
a. ataxia c. motor weakness b. cerebral norcardiosis d. trichinosis
b. bradykinesis d. visual symptoms
684.In observing a patient, you note that there is absence of
639. Which of the following is the disorder of movement of any response to painful stimuli. This condition is termed?
quick oscillation of the eyes while fixing gaze on an A
object, as a result of a cerebellar tumor? D a. coma c. semicoma
a. asynergia c. dysmetria b. obtundity d. stupor
b. adiadochokinesis d. nystagmus
687. Examination of a patient's visual fields reveals a
641. Which of the following refers to the inability to scotoma. Which of the following best describes this
perform tapping movements quickly and smoothly? condition? B
a. asynergia c. dysmetria B a. it indicates pain on eye movement
b. adiadochokinesis d. nystagmus b. it indicates that the lens is becoming opaque
c. it is a blindspot or defect within the visual field.
649. Segmental levels of C7, 8 include innervation for d. It precedes papilledema
the following? D
a. brachioradialis reflex c. Hoffman reflex 688. Which of the following is the segmental level for
b. finger jerk d. triceps reflex innervation of the knee jerk (patellar reflex)? B
a. L1,L2 b. L2,L3,L4 c. L3,L4,S1 d. L4,S1,S2
658. Which of the following characterizes Wilson's
disease? 696. Which of the following is a manifestation of myasthenia
a. a macroglobulinemia gravis? B
b. increase absorption of copper from the intestinal a. flaccid or spastic paralysis
tract. b. rapid fatigue of skeletal muscle
c. vitamin B12 deficiency c. rapid fatigue of smooth muscle
d. renal failure d. rigidity and tremor

664. Inspection of the muscular system of a patient 701. Pathology of what organ in the body is associated with
reveals fasciculations. These fasciculations are myasthenia gravis? C
evidence of damage to the? a. heart c.thymus
a. anterior horn cell c. motor unit B b. liver d.thyroid
b. cerebral cortex d. upper motor neuron

665. Which of the following characterizes Brudzinki's sign? D ELECTROTHERAPY

a. it may be present in cerebrovascular accident
b. it is characterized by extension at the knees 767. What is the wavelength of short ultraviolet radiation ? B
when the hips are flexed. a. 0.1-3 mm c. 700-1500 mu
c. It is characterized by extension of the knees b. 180-290 mu d. 1660-12,00 mu
when the neck is flexed.
d. It may be present in meningeal irritation 768. What is the wavelength of long ultraviolet radiation ? C
a. 0.1-3 mm c. 290-400 mu
666. Which of the following is defined as a seizure involving a b. 180-290 mu d. 1660-12,00 mu
momentary loss of consciousness usually just a blank
stare? C 769. What ultraviolet wavelength will produce
a. grand mal c. petit mal reticuloendothelial stimulation? D
 a. 2400-2600 A c. 2700-3000
b. 2600-2700 A d. 2900-4000 A 803. Which of the following show the best conductivity of all
tissues to an electrical current? B
773. The penetration of infrared radiation into skin tissue a. Bone c. skin
depends on which of the following? D b. Muscle d. tendon
a. intensity
b. thickness of glass in the heat lamp CLINICAL NEUROLOGY
c. wattage of the lamp
d. wavelength 623. What is the most probable site of athetosis? B
a. cranial nerve V c. motor cortex
774. A natural source of infrared radiation is sunlight. b. globus pallidus d. neuromuscular junction
Approximately what percentage of average sunlight is
infrared radiation as compared to ultraviolet radiation? B 626. A cerebrovascular patient, with left-sided weakness of
a.50% b.60% c.70% d.80% upper lower and lower extremity likely has a lesion
located in the ? D
776. What is the primary effect of radiant energy on tissue? a. brainstem
a. decrease in muscle spasm D b. left cerebral hemispheres
b. increase in circulation c. medulla
c. reduction of pain d. right cerebral hemispheres
d. thermal
630. What is a common cause of epidural compression of the
777. Mottled appearance on the skin after repeated heat spinal cord? B
radiation? C a. Erb's-Duchenne-Klumpke syndrome
a. erythema ab igne c. erythema dosage b. Hodgkin's disease
b. erythema ad lib d. erythema pigmentation c. Tay-Sachs disease
d. Werdnig-Hoffman syndrome
778. What is the normal polar formula for a galvanic current?
a. CCC-ACC-COC-AOC C 637. All of the following are characteristic of a lower motor
b. CCC-COC-AOC-ACC neuron lesion EXCEPT: D
c. CCC-ACC-AOC-COC a. atrophy of muscles below the lesion
d. CCC-AOC-ACC-COC b. depressed reflexes below level of the lesion
c. fasciculations
783. For each degree Fahrenheit rise of body temperature, d. spastic paralysis below the level of the lesion
the pulse rate will increase by about? D
a. 2 beats c. 6 beats 638. The following are clinical features of multiple sclerosis
b. 4 beats d. 10 beats EXCEPT: B
a. ataxia c. motor weakness
784. Which of the following is an example of the transmission b. bradykinesis d. visual symptoms
of heat by conduction?
a. Diathermy c. microthermy 639. Which of the following is the disorder of movement of
b. hot water bottle D. ultrasound quick oscillation of the eyes while fixing gaze on an
object, as a result of a cerebellar tumor? D
785. According to Van't Hoff's law, for every rise of 10 a. asynergia c. dysmetria
degrees centigrade the rate of oxidation is increased by b. adiadochokinesis d. nystagmus
how many times? C
a. once c. 2.5 641. Which of the following refers to the inability to
b. twice d. 3 perform tapping movements quickly and smoothly?
a. asynergia c. dysmetria B
790. Which of the following areas is most sensitive to b. adiadochokinesis d. nystagmus
ultraviolet radiation? B
a. arms c. feet 649. Segmental levels of C7, 8 include innervation for
b. face d. hands the following? D
a. brachioradialis reflex c. Hoffman reflex
795. Which of the following is defined as the b. finger jerk d. triceps reflex
opposition of an electrical conductor to the flow of
current? C 658. Which of the following characterizes Wilson's
a. ampere c. ohm disease?
b. farad d. volt a. a macroglobulinemia
b. increase absorption of copper from the intestinal
796. Which of the following statements apply to positive ions? tract.
a. it is attracted to the anode B c. vitamin B12 deficiency
b. it is attracted to the cathode d. renal failure
c. it produces ionization of acids
d. it produces no ionization 664. Inspection of the muscular system of a patient
 reveals fasciculations. These fasciculations are a. heart c.thymus
evidence of damage to the? b. bliver d.thyroid
a. anterior horn cell c. motor unit B
b. cerebral cortex d. upper motor neuron
ELECTROTHERAPY
665. Which of the following characterizes Brudzinki's sign? D
a. it may be present in cerebrovascular accident 767. What is the wavelength of short ultraviolet radiation ? B
b. it is characterized by extension at the knees a. 0.1-3 mm c. 700-1500 mu
b. 180-290 mu d. 1660-12,00 mu
when the hips are flexed.
c. It is characterized by extension of the knees
768. What is the wavelength of long ultraviolet radiation ? C
when the neck is flexed.
a. 0.1-3 mm c. 290-400 mu
d. It may be present in meningeal irritation b. 180-290 mu d. 1660-12,00 mu
666. Which of the following is defined as a seizure involving a 769. What ultraviolet wavelength will produce
momentary loss of consciousness usually just a blank reticuloendothelial stimulation? D
stare? C a. 2400-2600 A c. 2700-3000
a. grand mal c. petit mal b. 2600-2700 A d. 2900-4000 A
b. Jacksonian seizure d. psychomotor seizure
773. The penetration of infrared radiation into skin tissue
667. A patient presents with a sudden onset of fever, depends on which of the following? D
headache, and nuchal rigidity. This is followed by a. intensity
drowsiness, confusion, and loss of consciousness. One b. thickness of glass in the heat lamp
should suspect? A c. wattage of the lamp
a. acute purulent meningitis d. wavelength
b. cranial epidural abscess
c. cranial subdural empyema 774. A natural source of infrared radiation is sunlight.
d. subdural hematoma Approximately what percentage of average sunlight is
infrared radiation as compared to ultraviolet radiation? B
a.50% b.60% c.70% d.80%
676. Which of the following is the most common tumor of the
brain and spinal cord? D
776. What is the primary effect of radiant energy on tissue?
a. meningiomas c. neurilemmomas
a. decrease in muscle spasm D
b. metastatic tumors d. gliomas b. increase in circulation
c. reduction of pain
679. Which of the following is the condition in which there is d. thermal
abnormal and irresistible attacks of the desire to sleep. C
a. cataplexy c. narcolepsy 779. Mottled appearance on the skin after repeated heat
b. cerebral norcardiosis d. trichinosis radiation? C
a. erythema ab igne c. erythema dosage
684.In observing a patient, you note that there is absence of b. erythema ad lib d. erythema pigmentation
any response to painful stimuli. This condition is termed?
A 780. What is the normal polar formula for a galvanic current?
a. coma c. semicoma a. CCC-ACC-COC-AOC C
b. obtundity d. stupor b. CCC-COC-AOC-ACC
c. CCC-ACC-AOC-COC
687. Examination of a patient's visual fields reveals a d. CCC-AOC-ACC-COC
scotoma. Which of the following best describes this
condition? B 783. For each degree Fahrenheit rise of body temperature,
a. it indicates pain on eye movement the pulse rate will increase by about? D
a. 2 beats c. 6 beats
b. it indicates that the lens is becoming opaque
b. 4 beats d. 10 beats
c. it is a blindspot or defect within the visual field.
d. It precedes papilledema
784. Which of the following is an example of the transmission
688. Which of the following is the segmental level for of heat by conduction?
a. Diathermy c. microthermy
innervation of the knee jerk (patellar reflex)? B
a. L1,L2 b. L2,L3,L4 c. L3,L4,S1 d. L4,S1,S2 b. hot water bottle D. ultrasound

785. According to Van't Hoff's law, for every rise of 10

696. Which of the following is a manifestation of myasthenia
gravis? B degrees centigrade the rate of oxidation is increased by
a. flaccid or spastic paralysis how many times? C
b. rapid fatigue of skeletal muscle a. once c. 2.5
c. rapid fatigue of smooth muscle b. twice d. 3
d. rigidity and tremor
790. Which of the following areas is most sensitive to
701. Pathology of what organ in the body is associated with ultraviolet radiation? B
myasthenia gravis? C a. arms c. feet
 b. face d. hands b. galvanic d. static

795. Which of the following is defined as the 827. When a motor nerve has been sectioned, the chronaxie
opposition of an electrical conductor to the flow of will: C
current? C a. decreases
a. ampere c. ohm b. disappears
b. farad d. volt c. remains unaltered for a period of a week to 10
days.
796. Which of the following statements apply to positive ions? d. undergoes a longitudinal reaction.
a. it is attracted to the anode B
b. it is attracted to the cathode 828. Which component does the Dubois-Reymond's law deal
c. it produces ionization of acids with? B
d. it produces no ionization a. chronaxie c. make-break law
b. intensity of stimulus d. rheobase
803. Which of the following show the best conductivity of all
tissues to an electrical current? b 831. In ultraviolet radiation, the intensity of radiation varies
a. bone c. skin inversely with the square of the distance from the
b. muscle d. tendon source? C
a. Angulation of rays law
807. What is the high frequency wavelength of 22 meters? C b. Dubois-Reymond's law
a. 11.23 c. 27.12 Mhz/second c. Inverse Square law
b. 13.56 Mhz/second d. 40 Mhz/second d. The law of Grotthus Draper

807. What is the high frequency wavelength of 22 meters? C 833. Who discovered electromagnetic induction?
b. 11.23 c. 27.12 Mhz/second a. Faraday c. Joule A
c. 13.56 Mhz/second d. 40 Mhz/second b. Galvani d. Newton

808. Which high frequency diathermy has a wavelength of 11 842. Which of the following is defined as the minimal amount
meters? C of current necessary to elicit a threshold contraction of a
a. 11.23 c. 27.12 Mhz/second muscle? B
b. 13.56 Mhz/second d. 40 Mhz/second a. chronaxie b. rheobase

812. Which of the following is the unit of power? D CLINICAL APPLICATION CHAPTER 9
a. ampere c. volt
b. Ohm d. watt 882. What is the critical temperature for a sustained cold
tissue application? A
815. What is the pigmentation resulting from infrared a. 43 F b. 48 F c. 50 F d. 54 F
radiation? D
a. dark red, spotted, or forms a network 888. A good reaction to cold will be characterized by? C
b. heterogenous a. a sense of chillingness
c. homogenous b. a sense of remorse
d. mottled c. bright pink skin
d. maintained pulse rate
816. What is the pigmentation resulting from ultraviolet
radiation? C 889. To increase knee flexion range of motion, the
a. dark red, spotted, or forms a network proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation (PNF)
b. heterogenous technique of choice is hold relax. This should be applied
c. homogenous to which muscle? B
d. mottled a. anterior tibialis c. iliopsoas
b. hamstrings d. quadriceps
820. A patient complaining of a burning pain during
ultrasound treatment indicates. 890. What relationship group presents a large problem to
a. insufficient medium A overcome by a supervisor? B
b. too fast movement of the ultrasound head a. authority-responsibility c. peer group
c. too much intensity b. intrapersonal d. subordinate to supervisor
d. too much medium
891. All of the following are part of the "seven deadly sins"
821. To increase the nerve conduction velocity while using of a manager's style EXCEPT: A
ultrasound, what wattage do you use? B a. being a leader instead of a boss
a. 1 w/cm2 c. 2 w/cm2 b. being indifferent toward discipline and
b. 1.5 w/cm2 d. 3 w/cm2 recognition
c. failure to make assignments and instructions
826. What is the rheobase current for denervated muscle? B clear.
a. faradic c. sine d. using a snap judgement
 a. anterior deltoid and biceps
b. latissimus dorsi and lower trapezius
893. The physical therapy supervisor believed the therapists c. middle deltoids and pectoralis major
in the department lacked initiative and did not have d. posterior deltoid and subscapularis
self-discipline in control. His management style is
therefore is? B 914. Which of the following crutch walking is the most difficult
a. theory Y c. theory Z for a paraplegic? B
b. theory X d. theory XYZ a. four-point c. swing to
b. swing-through d. two-point
894. Which of the following muscles has the most important
function as a downward rotator of the scapula? c 915. Which of the following initiates the stance phase? B
a. levator scapulae c. rhomboideus majpr a. the heel leaves the ground
b. pectoralis major d. upper trapezius b. the heel touches the ground
c. the toe leaves the ground
895. During your evaluation a patient's shoulder, you d. the toe touch the ground
discover he has a tear in the supraspinatus muscle.
What test did you use? B 916. Which of the following will be a manifestation of paralysis
a. apley scratch test c. tinel test or weakness of the pretibial muscles? C
b. drop-arm test d. yergason test a. excessive foot eversion
b. excessive foot inversion
898. Which of the following muscles does not attach to the c. foot drop during the swing-phase
humerus? B d. plantar extension
a. pectoralis major c. supraspinatus 917. Which of the following muscles are strengthened using
b. pectoralis minor d. teres major WiILLIAM’S EXERCISES? A
a. abdominals and gluteus maximus
899. You have determined that your patient has a hip flexion b. erectus spinae
contracture. What test did you use to determine the c. gluteus maximus and medius
contracture? B d. gluteus maximus and minimus
a. Ober's c. Tinel's
b. Thomas' d. Yergason's 918. Which of the following muscles act during inspiratory
movements? A
901. Herzberg's two-factor motivation theory includes which a. external intercostals
of the following? D b. internal intercostals
a. advancement and promotion c. scalene
b. longer work hours and increased work load d. sternohyoid
c. responsibility and growth
d. satisfied and dissatisfies 919. When proprioceptive neuromuscular technique is being
used, movement is facilitated at its onset by which of the
905. In a quality assurance program the outcome C following? D
assessment is based upon the condition of the patient? a. active stretch c. flexor thrust
a. after discharge c. at time of evaluation b. extensor thrust d. quick stretch
b. at conclusion of care d. after treatment
921.When using a cane for ambulation, usually its used: B
906. In quality assurance program, retrospective audit is a. same side as the injury
performed? A b. opposite the affected side
a. after discharge c. at time of evaluation c. only during the stance phase
b. at conclusion of care d. after treatment d. only during the swing phase

907. What is the primary purpose for record keeping in a 922. During ambulation, the adductor muscles of the thigh? D
physical therapy department? A a. have a peak activity just after heel contact.
a. betterment of patient care b. have a high activity level in the early stance
b. communication of patient care phase
c. medical-legal aspects c. have a high activity level in the late stance phase
d. quality of care assessment d. have peak activity just before toe-off

908. The patient’s medical record is utilized for all of the

following EXCEPT: D 927. Which of the following muscles are important in stabilizing
a. patient’s own use the scapula? D
b. medical-legal aspects a. the deltoid
c. medical treatment b. the latissimus dorsi
d. patient’s own use c. the levator scapulae
d. the serratus anterior
913. Which of the following muscles are the most important for
crutch walking? B 935. Pain that is experienced before any point restriction can
 be felt indicates what type of lesion? A 979. When flexing the thigh the tensor fascia latae is a prime
a. acute stage mover for flexion but it will also tend to abduct the thigh.
b. joint Hypomobility Which muscle neutralizes this unnecessary motion? B
c. painful arc a. the iliacus c. the psoas major
d. subacute stage b. the pectineus d. the sartorius

936. Which of the following is not supplied by the median 990. Which of the following muscles is responsible for
nerve? A unlocking the extended knee? C
a. abductor pollicis longus a. the biceps femoris c. the popliteus
b. flexor carpi radialis b. the gastroc-soleus d. the semitendinosus
c. flexor digitorum superficialis
d. flexor pollicis longus
993. Which of the following statements best describes the
939. All of the following muscles act on the wrist EXCEPT: mechanical advantage of a lever? B
a. extensor carpi ulnaris B a. the product of the force and the resistance
b. extensor digitorum communis encountered.
c. flexor carpi radialis b. The ratio of length of the force arm and length of
d. flexor carpi ulnaris the weight arm.
c. The ratio of the length of the force arm to the
944. Which of the following muscles is necessary to raise the resistance encountered.
arm straight overhead? C d. The ratio of the length of the weight arm to the
a. lower trapezius c. serratus anterior effort applied.
b. middle trapezius d. upper trapzeius

949. If pain is felt during a restricted movement, what 998. Which of the following muscles has the least effect on
type of lesion is present? B the eversion of the ankle? B
a. acute stage c. painful arc a. the extensor digitorum longus
b. joint Hypomobility d. subacute stage b. the extensor hallucis longus
c. the peroneus brevis
965. Which of the following reactions causes segmental d. the Peroneus longus
rotation during normal development? C
a. ATNR c. STLR 1006. Which of the following PNF techniques will provide
b. Body and body d. STNR controlled mobility for your patient? D
a. hold-relax
b. repeated contractions
c. rhythmic stabilization
d. slow reversal hold
960. A positive anterior draw sign indicates what ligament is
torn? A 1007. Which of the following muscles will have the highest
a. anterior cruciate ligament functional excursion? C
b. anterior meniscal a. anterior deltoid c. semimembranosus
c. lateral collateral ligament b. latissimus dorsi d. teres minor
d. posterior cruciate ligament

971. Which of the following muscles performs internal

rotation? A
a. latissimus dorsi c. posterior deltoid
b. pectoralis minor d. teres minor

972. The upper and lower portion of the trapezius are

synergists in: D
a. elevation c. retraction
b. protraction d. upward rotation

974. Which of the following best describe the patellae? A

a. It lifts the quadriceps tendon away from the joint
axis.
b. It plays no role in the mechanics of the knee joint
c. it provides poor leverage for the quadriceps
muscle when the knee is extended.
d. It provides better leverage for the quadriceps
muscle when the knee is flexed.