Radiology: Tadio Physics & Nuclear Medicim
Radiology: Tadio Physics & Nuclear Medicim
CNS
Chest
Cardiology
GIT
Pancreas
1. Most worth investigation for detection of suspected pancreaticobiliary
worms is ERCP
2. Most sensitive investigation for identification of Insulinoma is intraoperative
ultrasound
3. The modality of choice for localizing both primary NETs and their metastases
is Somatostatin receptor scintigraphy
4. Investigation of choice to detect ruptured spleen is CT scan
5. Adrenals should always be imaged in a suspected case of bronchogenic
carcinoma
6. Sentinel loop sign is seen in acute pancreatitis
7. Colon cutoff sign is seen in acute pancreatitis
8. Widening of C loop of duodenum is a feature of pancreatic head growth
9. ERCP in pancreatitis is done to know about pancreatic divisum
Abdominal Trauma
GUT
1. Rapid sequence excretory urography is used in suspected renovascular
hypertension
2. Non-visualization of kidney in excretory urogram is seen in renal vein
thrombosis
3. A dense nephrogram is obtained by rapid (bolus) injection of dye
4. In Nephro graphic phase of IVP, contrast is PCT
5. Hydronephrosis may be absent on ultrasound when obstruction is
associated with Staghorn calculi
6. 90 percent of urological stones are radiopaque
7. The Most Sensitive Imaging Modality for Diagnosing Ureteric Stones in A
Patient with Acute Renal Colic is non Contrast CT Scan of Abdomen
8. For renal stone, diagnosis is not done by MRI
9. Calcification is best detected by CT scan
10. IOC for bladder calculus is CT scan
11. Filarial dance sign is seen with Ultrasonography
12. Medullary cystic disease (MCD) can be best diagnosed by renal biopsy
13. Persistent fetal lobulation of kidney is because of normal variant
14. Most important investigation for posterior urethral valve is MCU
15. The posterior urethra is best visualized by Voiding cystogram
16. The most common sign of renal cell carcinoma on IV is polar enlargement
17. IOC for Carcinoma of Urinary Bladder is CECT
18. Lymphatic spread commonly occurs in carcinoma of prostate
19. Rim sign on nuclear imaging is a feature of testicular torsion
20. IOC for testicular torsion is Doppler USG
OBG
1. Earliest ANC diagnosis on USG is done for anencephaly
2. To detect gestational sac on transabdominal ultrasonography, it should be
minimum of size 20-30 mm
3. Oligohydramnios is commonly associated with renal agenesis
4. Nuchal edema is an ultrasound marker, associated with greatest increased
risk for Trisomy 21 in fetus
5. Color Doppler finding suggestive of impending fetal death is reversal of flow
in umbilical arteries
6. "Ring of fire" appearance in ectopic pregnancy is due to vascularity
7. USG can detect gestation sac earliest at 5-6 weeks of gestation on
transabdominal sonography.
8. Earliest sign of fetal life is best detected by Real time USG
9. Parameters used to estimate gestational age in last trimester is femur length
10. USG done at 18-20 weeks mainly to detect fetal abnormality.
11. Anencephaly can be diagnosed by USG at 10-12 weeks of gestation
12. Best for unruptured ectopic pregnancy is Trans vaginal USG
13. Most accurate assessment of gestational age by USG is done by crown rump
length
14. Ectopic pregnancy, characteristic findings in USG is absence of gestational
sac in uterus
15. On USG findings of cystic hygroma in fetus in suggestive of Turner syndrome
16. Missed IUD (IUCD) is recognized by USG
17. Radiological investigation of female of reproductive age group is restricted
to first 10 days of menstrual cycle
Musculoskeletal System
1. Acro-osteolysis is seen in Pycnodysostosis
2. Metacarpal sign is positive in Turner's syndrome
3. 'Chevron sign' is seen in achondroplasia
4. On X-ray, typical appearance of burning candle with slippage of wax around
is seen in Melorheostosis
5. Absent lateral third of clavicle is seen in Cleidocranial dysostosis
6. "Champagne glass" pelvis is seen in Achondroplasia
7. Most common radiological abnormality predisposing to developmental
dysplasia of the hip is Developmental Acetabular dysplasia
8. Heberden's nodes are found in DIP joint in osteoarthritis
9. Tufting of distal phalanx is characteristically seen in Psoriatic arthropathy
10. Chondrocalcinosis is seen with Pseudogout
11. Calcification of IVD is seen in Non rheumatic ankylosis
12. Calcification of IVD is seen in Alkaptonuria.
13. Calcification around the joint is seen in Pseudogout
14. Bone erosion is a recognized X ray feature of RA
15. Terminal phalangeal sclerosis is associated with rheumatoid arthritis
16. Calcification of meniscal cartilage is a characteristic feature of pseudogout
17. Earliest evidence of healing in rickets is provided by radiological
examination of growing bone ends
18. Radiological features of rickets include cupping of metaphysis
19. Splaying and cupping of metaphysis is seen in rickets
20. Looser's zone is seen in osteomalacia
21. Flaring of anterior end of the ribs is characteristically seen in Rickets
22. Brown tumors are seen in Hyperparathyroidism
23. Osteofluorosis is best characterized by calcification of ligaments and
tendons
24. "Rugger-jersey" spine seen in chronic renal failure patients is mainly due to
Secondary hyperparathyroidism
25. Radiological feature of osteosarcoma is sunray appearance
26. Dense calcification is seen in Chondrosarcoma
27. Expansile pulsating secondary metastasis is a feature of RCC
28. All the statements are true about exostosis, except Growth Continues After
Skeletal Maturity
29. Most common lesion of hand is enchondroma
30. Ollier's disease is Multiple Enchondromatosis
31. Bone tumor that typically affects the epiphysis of a long bone is
Chondroblastoma
32. Secondary tumor in osteochondroma is chondrosarcoma
33. Expansile lytic lesion of sacrum with specks of calcification is suggestive of
chordoma
34. Most common site of osteogenic sarcoma is the upper end of humerus
35. A classical expansile lytic lesion in the transverse process of a vertebra is
seen in aneurysmal bone cyst
36. Ground glass appearance is an X ray feature of fibrous dysplasia
37. Bohler's angle is lost in fracture of calcaneum
38. Radiological sign of spondylolisthesis is the ’Scottish dog with collar’ sign
39. Cl C2 best seen in Odontoid view
40. Clay choveller fracture involves the spinous process of C7
41. Epiphyseal enlargement is seen in Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis
42. Dense metaphyseal band is seen on Hypervitaminosis
43. Windswept deformity is seen in Rheumatoid arthritis and Rickets
44. Trident hand is seen in Achondroplasia
45. Champagne glass pelvis is seen in Achondroplasia
46. Bone within bone appearance is seen in Osteopetrosis
47. X-ray view of choice for lumbar spondylosis is the lateral view
48. Scottish terrier sign is seen in the oblique view
49. Beheaded Scottish terrier sign is Spondylolisthesis
50. In spondylolisthesis, Napoleon sign is seen
51. Pseudo fracture of loser's zone is seen in Osteomalacia
52. Radiographic appearance of Pindborgtumour is Driven snow appearance
53. Sunray appearance on X-rays is suggestive of an osteogenic sarcoma
54. Sunray appearance is seen in Osteosarcoma
Hematology
1. Hair on end appearance is seen in Thalassemia
2. Wide diploic space of skull with brush border (hair on end) appearance is
characteristic of Congenital hemolytic anemia
3. H shaped vertebral body is a feature of sickle cell anemia
4. Autonephrectomy is a feature of Tuberculosis
5. In sickle cell anemia, Salmonella is the major causative organism causing
osteomyelitis
6. Bone infarcts are characteristically seen in sickle cell anemia
7. Hypertelorism is a feature of Thalassemia
8. Widened intercondylar notch is seen in Hemophilia
Pediatrics
1. Invertogram is done in a new born after 6 hrs
2. First sign of hydrocephalus in children is sutural diastasis
3. William's syndrome is associated with congenital supravalvular aortic
stenosis
4. Steeple sign is a feature of croup
5. Thumb sign is a feature of epiglottitis
6. White cerebellum sign is a feature of hypoxic ischemic encephalopathy
Endocrine
1. For the imaging of adrenal glands in neonates, the modality of choice is
ultrasound
2. DOPA - PETscan is most sensitive for evaluation of extra adrenal
pheochromocytoma
3. Light bulb appearance on MRI is seen in Pheochromocytoma
4. Post irradiation thyroid tumour is Papillary CA
5. Radioiodine is used in treatment of Follicular ca thyroid
Investigation of Choice
1. Investigation of choice for juvenile naso angiofibroma is CECT
2. The procedure of choice for evaluation of an aneurysm is Arteriography
3. The best investigation to diagnose a case of acoustic neuroma is Gd
enhanced MRI
4. MRI is the best choice to evaluate radiologically a posterior fossa tumour
5. Ideal imaging method for diagnosis of hydrocephalus in infants is USG
6. Parameningeal rhabdomyosarcoma is best diagnosed by MRI
7. The best x-ray view for minimal pleural effusion is lateral decubitus
8. Decubitus view is useful in diagnosing pleural effusion, Pleural effusion
with dependent hemithorax
9. Best view for Rt pleural effusion in X-raychest is right lateral decubitus
10. Interlobar pleural effusion can be detected in the best way in Reverse
lordotic position
11. Basal skull view (submentovertical) X-ray is best to visualize Sphenoid
sinus
12. In a down's syndrome patient posted for surgery, the necessary
preoperative investigation to be done is echocardiography
13. IOC for aortic dissection is CT scan in stable patient.
14. IOC for pericardial effusion is echocardiography
15. The most accurate investigation for assessing ventricular function is MRI.
16. Cardiotoxicity caused by radiotherapy and chemotherapy is best detected
by Endomyocardial biopsy
17. IOC for detection and characterization of interstitial lung disease is HRCT
18. IOC in bronchiectasis is Bronchography
19. Best diagnostic aid for bronchiectasis is CT scan
20. Most sensitive investigation for air embolism is Doppler USG
21. In patient with high clinical suspicion of pulmonary thromboembolism,
best investigation would be Catheter angiography
22. IOC for pulmonary embolism is CECT
23. Pulmonary embolism is best diagnosed by CT scan
24. Best method for detecting minimal bronchiectasis is CT scan
25. Best view to diagnose pneumothorax is PA view in full expiration
26. In renal cell carcinoma, investigation of choice to evaluate IVC and renal
vein for thrombus is Colour Doppler
27. Functional analysis of kidney is best done by Radionuclide scanning
28. IOC for studying renal cortical mass is Tc 99 DMSAlT
29. IOC in diffuse oesophageal spasm is manometry
30. Gastro - oesophagal reflux is best detected by endoscopy
31. IOC for gall stone is USG
32. Investigation of choice in obstructive jaundice is USG
33. Most common investigation for obstructive jaundice is USG
34. Minimal ascites can be best detected by USG
35. The IOC for acute cholecystitis is HIDA scan
36. Best radiographic view for fracture C1,C2 vertebrae is Odontoid view
37. Best investigation for traumatic paraplegia is MRI
38. The gold standard for assessing bone mineral density and diagnosis of
osteoporosis is Dual Energy X ray absorptiometry
39. Judet view is done for acetabular fracture
40. Neural tube defect best detected by amniocentesis
41. Earliest congenital malformation that may be detected on USG is
Anencephaly
Radiotherapy
1. Inverse square law means radiation from any source increases in intensity
as a function of the square of the distance from the source.
2. Maximum damage to skin is caused by Orthovoltage x-ray therapy
3. Linear accelerator is used to provide electrons and x-rays
4. A positively charged radiation is alpha particle
5. Linear accelerator employs electrons and X -rays
6. Very effective in reducing pain of bone cancer is strontium 89
7. Phosphorous-32 emits beta Particles
8. In the treatment of papillary carcinoma thyroid, radioiodine destroys the
neoplastic cells predominantly by beta rays
9. Electron beam therapy may be used in treatment of Mycosis fungoides
10. Systemic radiation therapy, by using Iodine-131, Phosphorous-32
11. For shield (mould) in eye tumors, Phosphorous-32 is preferred
12. Isotopes used for teleradiotherapy are Cobalt-60
13. In colon malignancy postoperative radiotherapy is minimally used
14. For Prostate malignancy, intensity modulated radiotherapy is the most
suitable
15. Radiotherapy is treatment of choice for Nasopharyngeal CA T3N1
16. cobalt 60 is commonly used as external beam radiotherapy in treatment of
cancer patients
17. Conventional dose per fraction in external radiotherapy is 225-250 cGy
18. Mantle Irradiation is used in Hodgkin's disease
19. Dose of radiotherapy given at point b in carcinoma cervix is 5000 rads
20. The most commonly used form of radiation therapy is teletherapy
21. Stereotactic radiosurgery is a form of radiotherapy
22. Gamma-knife is very useful in the treatment of cerebral metastasis
23. Stereotactic radiotherapy used for CA lung stage 1 single lesion
24. Ibritumomab is drug of choice for NHL
25. RFA is used in treatment of hepatoma
26. Prophylactic craniospinal irradiation is used as treatment modality for
small cell carcinoma lung
27. Radiotherapy can be used with best results to treat Medulloblastoma
28. Testicular tumor most sensitive to radiation is seminoma
29. Seminoma responds best to radiotherapy
30. The most radiosensitive lung cancer is squamous cell carcinoma
31. Poorly differentiated carcinoma responds best to radiation
32. Benign condition that can be treated by radiotherapy is pituitary adenoma
33. Osteosarcoma is radioresistant
34. First sign after radiation treatment is erythema
Miscellaneous
HISTORICAL ASPECT
1. JJ. Thompson - Discovered electrons
2. W.K. Roentgen - discovered X-rays in 1895.
3. Henry Becquerel -- discovered radioactivity in 1896.
4. Madam Marie Curie -- discovered radioactive substances
radium, Uranium, etc.
5. Chadwick -- discovered neutron.
6. Maxwell -- discovered electromagnetic waves
(invented- by Hertz)
Characteristic appearances
a. Spondylolysis- scotty dog wearing a collar app
b. Spondylolisthesis- Scotty dog with separated neck
c. Scottish terrier sign- in oblique view
d. Soap bubble appearance in abd x-ray- Meconium ileus
e. Soap bubble appearance in head CT - Cryptococcal meningitis
f. Soap bubble calcification in x-ray - Osteoclastoma
g. Puffed rice appearance on CT-Scan head -neurocysticercosis
h. Soap bubble cerebral calcification in head CT- Toxoplasmosis
(Congenital)
Important Point
1. Investigation of choice in traumatic paraplegia - MRI
2. Intra-osseous skeletal tumours are best diagnosed by- MRI
3. In fibromuscular dysplasia string of beads appearance on angiography
4. Trethowan sign in Slipped capital femoral epiphysis
5. Trachea lies behind LA so in left atrial enlargement there is widening of
tracheal bifurcation angle. Enlargement is best seen in penetrated chest x-
ray PA view. Descending aorta is displaced to the left by LA enlargement
(Bedford's sign) &in LA enlargement esophagus is displaced towards right
& posteriorly1
6. Amt. of air needed to create pnuemo peritoneum ---------800 ml
7. Amt. of air needed to produce death in air embolism--------- 200 ml
8. Echo cardiography can detect pericardial effusion as little as --------- 15 ml
9. X-ray can detect pericardial effusion as little as—......... 250 ml
10. Minimum amt. of ascitic fluid required to elicit puddle sign ---------- 50 ml
11. Lateral view chest X-ray can detect pleural effusion as little as- 75 ml
12. Lateral decubitus chest-X ray detect pleural effusion as little as—-10-15 ml
RADIOSURGERY
a. y-knife radiosurgery
Focused radiation for limited brain metastasis
b. Cyber knife
Combines robotics and advanced image guidance to deliver radiation to
tumour along spinal cord/other critical location.
Respiratory System
e. Felson's sign
4. Thymic enlargement b. Muivay Wave sign c. Notch sign
a. Sail sign
5. Rounded atelectasis
a. Comet tail sign
6. RUL collapse secondary to a central mass
a. Golden S sign
7. LUL collapse
a. Luftsichel sign
8. LLL collapse
a. Broncho lobar sign
9. Pneumo-mediastinum
a. Ring around artery sign b. Continuous diaphragm sign c.
Tubular artery sign d. Double bronchial wall sign
e. V sign of Naclerio f. Spinnaker sail sign
10. Pneumothorax
a. Deep sulcus sign
b. Visceral pleural line
11. Epiglottitis
a. Thumb sign
12.
Croup
a. Steeple sign
13. Aspergilloma
a. Air crescent sign b. Monod sign
14. Klebsiella pneumonia
a. Bulging fissure sign
15. Pulmonary edema on CXR
a. Batwing sign
16. Diaphragmatic rupture
a. Collar sign b. Dependant viscera sign
17. Pulmonary septic emboli
a. Feeding vessel sign
18. ABPA
a. Finger in glove sign
19. Aspergillosis
a. Halo sign
20. Subacute hypersensitivity pneumonitis
a. Head cheese sign
21. RUL atelectasis
a. Juxta phrenic peak sign
22. Cryptogenic organized pneumonia a.
Reversed halo sign
23. COPD
a. Saber sheath trachea
24. Alveolar microlithiasis a. Sandstorm
lungs
25. Bronchiectasis
a. Signet ring sign
26. RLL atelectasis
a. Superior triangle sign
27. Empyema
a. Split pleura sign
28. Endobronchial spread in TB a. Tree in
bud sign on HRCT
Metastasis in Lung
Calcifying lung metastasis Cavitating lung
metastasis Hemorrhagic
lung
metastasis
with ill
defined
nodules
a. Osteosarcoma/chondro a. SqCC, Sarcoma
sarcoma b. Colon 1.
b. Mucinous adeno Ca.+ c. Transitional cell Choriocarcin
d. Cx under CT oma
c. Lung metastasis following
(Chemotherapy) 2. RCC
RT/CT
3. Melanoma
4. Thyroid Ca
Calcification in Lungs & Pleura
Calcification in Lungs Pleural calcification
a. B/LTB a. Old empyema
b. B/L Histoplasma b. Old Hemothorax
c. B/L coccidiomycosis c. Asbestosis
d. Silicosis
e. Talc exposure
THORAX
THE SILHOUETTE SIGN
Neonatal Cyanosis
With Oligemia + With Oligemia But With Pleonemia (Plethora)
Cardiomegaly No Cardiomegaly
(All have an ASD) (Sign appear usually Cyanosis + CCF
a. PS after 1 wk) TAPVC
b. Pulm atresia •TOF a. Hypoplastic LV
c. Ebstein • Pulm atresia with b. Interrupted aortic
anomaly VSD* arch
d. Tricuspid atresia • Tricuspid atresia C. TGA
d. Truncus arteriosus
e. Hypercyanotic
spells & e. Treat CCF & Rashkind
polycythemia atrial
may develop septostomy is done in these
T/t palliative patients as an emergency
shunt surgery measure to decompress LA
Cardiac Calcification
Intracardiac Myocardial Pericardial
a. Atrial a. Mainly in LV - a. Mainly in right chambers
myxoma apex b. (RV) & A-V groove
b. Valve b. Post-myocarditis c. Constrictive pericarditis
thrombu c. Hydatid ds d. Post-traumatic
s d. Aneurysms e. Uremia/CRF
e. Infarct f. Asbestosis
GIT
Gasless abdomen on X-ray
a. Acute pancreatitis
b. Bowel malrotation
c. Cong. Diaphragm. Hernia
d. Duo-atresia
e. Annular pancreas
f. Cog. Hypertrophic PS
g. Duo. Atresia
h. Infraction (Mesenteric)
Skeletal System
GROSSLY EXPANSILE LUCENT BONE LESIONS
i. Aneurysmal cyst
ii. Enchondroma
iii. Sarcoma
iv. Plasmacytoma
v. Giant cell tumor
vi. Brown tumour (PTH)
vii. Fibrous dysplasia
viii. Hemophilia
Extra Edge
1. Epiphyseal dysgenesis is characteristic of hypothyroidism.
2. Enlargement of Epiphysis is characteristic of JRA.
3. Epiphyseal widening is seen in rickets.
4. Epiphyseal loss of density is seen in scurvy.
Osteolytic Bone Metastasis
a. Neuroblastoma d. Thyroid cancer
b. Lung cancer e. Kidney
c. Breast cancer f. Colon
1. Radiosensitive tumours
a. Embryonic tumours b. ReticulosisAnaplastic, carcinomas
2. Limited sensitivity
a. Epithelial tumours b. Adenocarcinomas
3. Radioresistant
a. Soft-tissue sarcomas b. Osteosarcomas c. Melanomas
Radionuclide Imaging
o Tc 99m (99 is mass and m is metastable) is most commonly used. It is
administered IV and is pure 'Y rays emitter. It has Short half life (6 hrs).
Uses -______ __ ____________________ _ _____________________
m
Tc 99 labeled serum albumin _______________ -To detect pulmonary emboli
Tc 99m labeled RBCs _______________________- For spleen imaging ____
Tc 99m labeled DMSA -is taken up by renal cortical cells, is used for renal
structure, scarring ________ ____________________________________ _
Tc 99m labeled DTPA _______ -Measures GFR _______________
m
Tc 99 MAG3 - Diagnostic of transplant rejection./renal function _________
Tc 99m labeled HIDA/PIPIDA-To study the functions of hepatobiliary tree
Thallium 201 chloride-For cardiac imaging (cold spots in myocardial ______
perfusion studies), reversibility of myocardial ischemia _________________
Ga-67 nitrate-To detect tumours, inflammation and abscess cavities.
Investigation Of Choice
CT SCAN (BEST FOR) MRI US6
a. Bronchiectasis a. For pituitary & Pregnancy
b. Pancreas hypothalamic & optic mass
c. Adrenal chiasma lesion Gall stones
d. Acute SAH cavernous sinus invasion
b. Brain abscess
c. For spinal lesions
d. Prolapse IVD
e. ICSOL (esp. post. Fossa
mass lesions)
1, ECHO - is investigation of choice for minimal pericardial effusion, MS
2. Angiography - is investigation of choice for sequestration lung
Radiotherapy
Radiosensitivity
Most Least sensitive or radioresistant
radiosensitive
1. Stage of cell G2M S phase
cycle Ovary, testis Vagina (bone CNS, cartilage, muscle)
2. Organ Bone marrow, Nervous tissue (bone, CNS, cartilage,
3. Tissue gonads muscle)
4. Cell type Rapidly Quiescent
5. Blood cells dividing Platelet
Lymphocyte
Extra Edge
1. Most common mucosal surface affected is intestinal mucosa
2. Most common organ affected is skin and presents as erythema
3. For Chemotherapy &radiotherapy induced cardiotoxicity investigation of
choice is endomyocardial biopsy
4. Most sensitive
Testicular tumour Seminoma
Ovarian tumour Dysgerminoma
Brain tumour Medulloblastoma
Lung tumour Small cell carcinoma
Basal cell cancer
Skin cancer
Ewing's sarcoma (multiple myeloma)
Bone tumours
Radiotherapy
1. Maximum Half-life is of uranium 701 x 108yrs >Ra (1622 yrs.)
2. Important radioisotopes
a. Gadolinium Paramagnetic contrast dye used in NMR (MRI)
b. Xenon For regional cerebral blood flow (CBF) studies
c. m
Tc" labeled RBCs Imaging of spleen, GIT bleeding,
Ventriculography
d. Tc"MAG3 Gallium Diagnostic of transplant rejection Isotope
e. abscess cavity Tc9Sm selectively concentrated in
(technetium)
Used for infarct avid imaging Standard
Pyrophosphate isotope
g- Thallium (Tl201) for "Hot spot" imaging in Ml
h. studies Agent used for myocardial perfusion