UPSC Civil Services Examination

UPSC Prelims – CSAT

CSAT Sample Paper-I
Q1. Six friends A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting in a close circle facing the centre. E is the immediate left of D. C is
between A and B. F is between E and A. Who is the left of F?
a. A
b. C
c. E
d. B

Q2. Six friends A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting in a close circle facing the centre. E is the immediate left of D. C is
between A and B. F is between E and A. Who is sitting opposite to A?
a. B
b. D
c. C
d. F

Q3. Six friends A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting in a close circle facing the centre. E is the immediate left of D. C is
between A and B. F is between E and A. Who is to the immediate left of B?
a. A
b. C
c. D
d. E

Q4. Six friends A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting in a close circle facing the centre. E is the immediate left of D. C is
between A and B. F is between E and A. Who is to the immediate left of F?
a. E
b. C
c. A
d. B

Q5. A cube of side 25 cm has been painted on all faces and was divided into 125 smaller equal cubes. Answer the
following. How many cubes are painted from only one side?
a. 54
b. 45
c. 48
d. 27
Q6. A cube of side 25 cm has been painted on all faces and was divided into 125 smaller equal cubes. Answer the
following. How many cubes are painted from 3 sides?
a. 9
b. 8
c. 12
d. 5

Q7. Consider the following four statements:

1. All X-brand cars parked here are white.
2. Some of them have radial tyres.
3. All X-brand cars manufactured after 1986 have radial tyres are parked here.
4. All cars are not X-brand.
Which one of the following conclusions can be drawn from the above statements?
a. Only white cars are parked here.
b. Some white X-brand cars with radial tyres are parked here.
c. Cars other than X-brand cannot have radial tyres.
d. Most of the X-brand cars are manufactured before 1986.

Q8. Consider the following statements:

The Third World War, if it ever starts will end very quickly with possible end of civilization. It is only the misuse of
nuclear power which will trigger it.
Based on the above statement which one of the following inferences is correct?
a. Nuclear power will be used in Third World War.
b. There will be no civilization left after the third world war.
c. The growth of nuclear power will destroy civilization in the long run.
d. The third world war will not take place.

Q9. A × B means A is the sister of B.

A + B means A is the father of B.
A – B means A is the mother of B.
If P × Q + R, then how is P related to R?
a. Uncle
b. Nephew
c. Niece
d. Aunt

Q10. Vast numbers of Indian citizens without bank accounts lives in rural areas and are financially and functionally
illiterate, and have little experience with technology. A research study was conducted in a particular area in which
electronic wage payments in Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS) are meant
to go directly to the poor. It was observed that recipients often assume that the village leader needs to mediate the
process, as was the case under the previous paper based system. Among households under this research study area who
claimed to have at least one bank account, over a third reported still receiving MGNREGS wages in cash directly from
a village leader.
Which is most logical, rational and crucial message that is employed in the above passage?
a. MGNREGS should be extended only to those who have a bank account.
b. The paper-based system of payments is more efficient than electronic payment in the present scenario.
c. The goal of electronic wage payments was not to eliminate mediation by village leaders.
d. It is essential to provide financial literacy to the rural poor.
Q11. In a garrison, there was food for 1000 soldiers for one month. After 10 days, 1000 more soldiers joined the
garrison. How long would the soldiers be able to carry on with the remaining food?
a. 10 days
b. 15 days
c. 20 days
d. 5 days

Q12. A person can walk a certain distance and drive back in 6 hrs. He can also walk both ways in 10 hrs. How much
time will he take to drive both ways?
a. 1 hour
b. 5 hours
c. 2 hours
d. 4 hours

Q13. Examine the following three sequences in which the numbers follow a specific pattern:
84, 14, 12
81, 18, 9
88,?, 11
The missing number (?) in the third sequence above is
a. 6
b. 12
c. 8
d. 16

Q14. In a class of 45 students, a boy is ranked 20th. When two boys joined, his rank was dropped by one. What is his
new rank from end?
a. 25th
b. 26th
c. 27th
d. 28th

Q15. A manager wants to select four persons to work on different aspects of a project. Seven persons are available for
this work; they are Rohan, Ted, Shiv, Kavita, Kunal, Mukund and Jay. Rohan and Ted will not work together. Kunal
and Shiv will not work together. Mukund and Kunal want to work together. Which of the following is the most
acceptable group of the people that can be selected by the manager?
a. Rohan, Shiv, Kunal and Kavita
b. Ted, Kavita, Shiv and Rohan
c. Ted, Mukund, Kunal and Jay
d. Shiv, Ted, Rohan and Mukund

Q16. Geeta is older than her cousin Meena. Meena’s brother Bipin is older than Geeta. When Meena and Bipin visit
Geeta they want to play chess. Meena wins the game more than Geeta. Based on the above information, four
conclusions as given below, have been made. Which one of these logically follows from the information given above?
a. While playing chess with Geeta and Meena, Bipin often loses
b. Geeta is the oldest among the three
c. Geeta hates to lose the game
d. Meena is the youngest of the three

Q17. There are some balls of red, green and yellow colour lying on a table. There are as many red balls as there are
yellow balls. There are twice as many yellow balls as there are green ones. The number of red balls
a. is equal to the sum of yellow and green balls
b. is double the number of green balls
c. is equal to yellow balls minus green balls
d. cannot be ascertained

Examine carefully the following statement and answer the three items that follow:
Out of four friends A, B, C and D: A and B play football and cricket, B and C play cricket and hockey, A and D play
basketball and football, C and D play hockey and basketball.
Q18. Who does not play hockey?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D

Q19. Who plays football, basketball and hockey?

a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D

Q20. Which game do B, C and D play?

a. Hockey
b. Basketball
c. Football
d. Cricket
Individuals, groups and leaders who promote human development operate under strong institutional, structural and
political constraints that affect policy options. But experience suggests broad principles for shaping an appropriate
agenda for human development. One important finding from several decades of human development experience is that
focusing exclusively on economic growth is problematic. While we have good knowledge about how to advance health
and education, the causes of growth are much less certain and growth is often elusive. Further, an unbalanced emphasis
on growth is often associated with negative environmental consequences and adverse distributional effects. The
experience of China, with its impressive growth record, reflects these broader concerns and underlines the importance
of balanced approaches that emphasize investments in the non-income aspects of human development.
Answer the following two questions based on the above passage.
Q21. Consider the following statements:
1. In developing countries, a strong institutional framework is the only requirement for human development and
policy options.
2. Human development and economic growth are not always positively inter-related.
3. Focusing only on human development should be the goal of economic growth.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 and 3
c. 2 only
d. 1, 2 and 3

Q22. With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:
1. Higher economic growth is essential to ensure reduction in economic disparity.
2. Environmental degradation is sometimes a consequence of economic growth.
Which of the above assumption/assumptions is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2

Q23. Human history abounds in claims and theories confining the right of governing to a few select citizens. Exclusion
of the many is justified on the ground that human beings may be rightfully segregated for the good of society and
viability of the political process.
Which one of the following statements is least essential as a part of the argument in the above passage?
a. Man seeks control over external things affecting him.
b. In society, there are ‘super’ and ‘sub’ human beings.
c. Exceptions to universal citizen participation are conductive to systemic efficacy.
d. Governing implies recognition of disparities in individual capacities.

Q24. I am facing south. I turn 90º in anticlockwise direction and then 135º in the same direction and then 270º
clockwise. In which direction am I facing now?
a. South-West
b. South-East
c. North-West
d. North-East

Read the following passage and answer the three questions that follow:
I must say that, beyond occasionally exposing me to laughter, my constitutional shyness has been of no disadvantage
whatever. In fact I can see that” on the contrary, it has been all to my advantage. My hesitancy in speech, which was
once an annoyance, is now a pleasure. Its greatest benefit has been that it has taught me the economy of words. I have
naturally formed the habit of restraining my thoughts. And I can now give myself the certificate that a thoughtless word
hardly ever escapes my tongue or pen. I do not recollect ever having had to regret anything in my speech or writing. I
have thus been spared many a mishap and waste of time.
Experience has taught me that silence is part of the spiritual discipline of a votary of truth. Proneness to exaggerate, to
suppress or modify the truth, wittingly or unwittingly, is a natural weakness of man, and silence is necessary in order to
surmount it. A man of few words will rarely be thoughtless in his speech; he will measure every word. We find so
many people impatient to talk.
There is no chairman of a meeting who is not pestered with notes for permission to speak And whenever the permission
is given the speaker generally exceeds the time-limit, asks for more time, and keeps on talking without permission. All
this talking can hardly be said to be of any benefit-to the world. It is so much waste of time. My shyness has been in
reality my shield and buckler. It has allowed me to grow. It has helped me in my discernment of truth.
Q25. The author says that a thoughtless word hardly ever escapes his tongue or pen. Which one of the following is not
a valid reason for this?
a. He has no intention to waste his time.
b. He believes in the economy of words.
c. He believes in restraining his thoughts.
d. He has hesitancy in his speech.

Q26. The most appropriate reason for the author to be spared many a mishap is that
a. He hardly utters or writes a thoughtless word.
b. He is a man of immense patience.
c. He believes that he is a spiritual person.
d. He has a votary of truth.

Q27. For the author, silence is necessary in order to surmount

a. Constitutional shyness
b. Hesitancy in speech
c. Suppression of thoughts
d. Tendency to overstate

Q28. In covering a distance of 30 km, A takes 2 hours more than B. If A doubles his speed, then he would take 1 hour
less than B. A’s speed is
a. 2 kmph
b. 5 kmph
c. 4 kmph
d. 6 kmph
Q29. Arun can do a work in 3 days while Dev can do the same work in 2 days. Both of them finish the work together
and get Rs.150. What is the share of Arun?
a. 30
b. 50
c. 60
d. 75
Q30. A B and C can do a piece of work in 20, 30 and 60 days respectively. In how many days A do the work if he is
assisted by B and C on every third day?
a. 15 days
b. 20 days
c. 25 days
d. 40 days

Q31. Consider the following statements.

1. Either A & B are of same age or A is older than B.
2. Either C & D are of same age or D is older than C.
3. B is older than C.
Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from the above statements?
a. A is older than B.
b. B and D are of the same age.
c. D is older than C.
d. A is older than C.

Q32. Consider the following statements.

1. Only those who have a pair of binoculars can become the member of the birdwatcher’s club.
2. Some members of the birdwatcher’s club have cameras.
3. Those members who have cameras can take part in photo-contests.
Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from the above statements?
a. All those who have a pair of binoculars are members of the birdwatcher’s club.
b. All members of the birdwatcher’s club have a pair of binoculars.
c. All those who take part in photo-contests are members of the birdwatcher’s club.
d. No conclusion can be drawn.

Q33. A train covers a distance in 50 min, if it runs at a speed of 48 kmph on an average. The speed at which the train
must run to reduce the time of journey to 40 min will be
a. 60 kmph
b. 50 kmph
c. 40 kmph
d. 75 kmph
Read the following passage and answer questions (4 – 8):

On August 22, 1939, Adolf Hitler summoned his top military generals to Obersalzberg, where he delivered a speech
explaining his plans for war, first with Poland, then with the rest of Europe. Despite resistance from those both inside
and outside Germany, Hitler felt exceedingly confident that he could defy the will of the international community and
conquer vast amounts of land. In his speech at Obersalzberg, he laid out numerous factors he believed would contribute
to the success of his war plans.
Chief among Hitler’s sources of confidence in Germany’s brazen war plans was German military quickness. Hitler
said, “Our strength lies in our quickness.” On the advice of Colonel-General von Brauchitsch, Hitler believed Poland
could be captured in a few weeks, an astonishingly short amount of time given the recent history of trench warfare and
the long history of protracted European military engagements that resulted in minimal land gains and high casualty
counts.
Hitler’s confidence in the ability of the German military to inflict considerable brutality further strengthened his
determination to pursue an exceedingly ambitious plan of territorial aggrandizement. He said, “I shall shoot everyone
who utters one word of criticism” and noted that “the goal to be obtained in the war is not that of reaching certain lines
but of physically demolishing the opponent.” In this vein, Hitler ordered his military to “be hard, be without mercy,
[and] act more quickly and brutally than others…for it scares the others off.” Hitler believed that enemies, not used to
this type of brutality, would surrender quickly.
In addition to speed and brutality, Hitler believed that, in the end, history would overlook his inhumane conduct. To
support this view, which turned out to be anything but prescient, Hitler invoked a Pollyannaish view of Asian leader
Genghis Kahn. In Hitler’s eyes, Kahn “sent millions of women and children into death knowingly and with a light
heart,” yet “history sees in him only the great founder of States.”
Although Hitler brimmed with confidence and experienced initial yet widely-expected success in Poland and then in
Denmark, he overlooked important considerations. In many ways, Hitler made the same mistake Napoleon Bonaparte
made years earlier. Hitler believed he could advance further and conquer Britain, yet, like Napoleon, Hitler did not
adequately foresee the insurmountable barrier posed by Britain’s island status. Despite the damage inflicted at the
hands of the German Luftwaffe during the Battle of Britain (1940), British forces eventually won this important battle.
Nevertheless, Hitler pressed on and, in an even more fateful decision that carried echoes of a Napoleonic tactical
misstep, invaded the USSR where his forces suffered the decisive defeat of World War II at Stalingrad in 1943. In the
end, Hitler’s reputation in history proved to be as brutal and decisive as the battle plans and philosophy he announced
at Obersalzberg.
Q34. According to the passage, Hitler’s confidence in his military strategy stemmed from its
a. Surprise invasions
b. Emphasis on unconventional warfare
c. Reliance on air supremacy
d. Swift brutality

Q35. The author of the passage is primarily concerned with explaining

a. The logistics of Hitler’s war strategy and the mechanics of its failure.
b. The philosophy of Hitler’s war strategy and the world’s reaction.
c. Why Hitler believed his war plans would succeed and why they eventually failed.
d. Explaining the source of Hitler’s brutality and the reasons for its failure

Q36. Which of the following best characterizes the author’s view of the relationship between Hitler and Napoleon?
a. Governed with similar styles.
b. At a high-level, some similarities in military missteps existed.
c. Fought military conflicts with similar ideologies.
d. In general, shared a legacy as overly ambitious leaders.

Q37. According to the passage, what best describes the author’s understanding of why Hitler’s military campaign
eventually failed?
a. Overlooked important tactical and geographic considerations.
b. Failed to demoralize opponents.
c. Fell behind technological advancements of European enemies.
d. Failed to consolidate initial military and land gains

Q38. According to the passage, Hitler’s confidence in the war plans announced at Obersalzberg stemmed from all of
the following except:
a. The speed of the German military
b. The brutality of the German military
c. The history of overlooking European military brutality
d. The belief that instilling fear weakened enemies

Q39. The ages of the two persons differ by 20 years. If 5 years ago, the older one be 5 times as old as the younger one,
then their present ages are
a. 30, 10
b. 20, 5
c. 40, 20
d. 45, 25

Q40. The average score of a cricketer for ten matches is 38.9 runs. If the average for the first six matches is 42, then
what is the average for the last four matches?
a. 32.34
b. 35.6
c. 30
d. 34.25
Q41. During the summer vacation Sandy went to a summer camp where he took part in hiking, swimming and boating.
This summer, he is looking forward to a music camp where he hopes to sing, dance and learn to play the guitar.
Based on the above information four conclusions as given below, have been made. Which one of these logically
follows from the information given above?
a. Sandy’s parents want him to play guitar.
b. Sandy prefers music to outdoor activities.
c. Sandy goes to some type of camp every summer.
d. Sandy likes to sing and dance.
Answer the questions 42 – 45 based on the pie chart given below. The pie chart shows the amount of subscriptions
generated for India Bonds from different categories of investors.

Q42. If the investments by NRIs are Rs.4000 Crore, then the investment by corporate houses and FIIs together is
a. 24,363 Crore
b. 25,000 Crore
c. 24, 345 Crore
d. 25,500 Crore

Q43. What percentage of the total investment is coming from either FIIs or NRIs?
a. 33%
b. 44%
c. 11%
d. 66%

Q44. If the total investment other than by FIIs and corporate houses is Rs.335,000 crore, then the investment by NRls
and offshore funds will be
a. 274,100
b. 223,899
c. 200,100
d. Cannot be determined

Q45. In the corporate sector, approximately how many degrees should be there in the central angle?
a. 123
b. 122
c. 125
d. 150

Q46. In all family photos, if Ramu is present, his two brothers are also present. A certain photo features five members
of his family. Among the people in that photo are Ramu’s parents with their daughter. Which of these statements is
necessarily true?
a. Ramu is present in the photo
b. Ramu is absent from the photo
c. Ramu may or may not be present in the photo
d. The two brothers of Ramu are present in the photo

Q47. Look at the sentences that are given below,

1. If the contract is valid, then X is liable.
2. If X is liable, he will be bankrupt.
3. If the bank loans him money, he will not go bankrupt.
Select the statement that is consistent with the above statements:
a. The contract is valid and the bank will loan him money.
b. The contract is valid and the bank will not loan him money.
c. The contract is not valid and he will go bankrupt.
d. The contract is not valid and he is liable.

Q48. Electricity would revolutionize agriculture according to a prediction of the not-so-distant future published in
1940. Electrodes would be inserted into the soil, and the current between them would kill bugs and weeds and make
crop plants stronger.
Which of the following, if true, most strongly indicates that the logic of the prediction above is flawed?
a. In order for farmers to avoid electric shock while working in the fields, the current could be turned off at such
times without diminishing the intended effects.
b. If the proposed plan for using electricity were put into practice, farmers would save on chemicals now being
added to the soil.
c. It cannot be taken for granted that the use of electricity is always beneficial.
d. Since weeds are plants, electricity would affect weeds in the same way as it would affect crop plants.

Q49. A can do piece of work in 30 days while B alone can do it in 40 days. In how many days can A and B working
together do it?
a. 16 1/5
b. 17 1/7
c. 18 1/13
d. 19 1/17

Q50. Ten new TV shows started in January- 5 sitcoms, 3 drama and 2 news magazines. By April, only seven of the new
shows were still on, five of them being sitcoms.
Based on the above information, four conclusions, as given below, have been made. Which of these logically follows
from the information given above?
a. Only one news magazine show is still going on.
b. Only one of the drama shows is still going on.
c. At least one discontinued show was a drama.
d. Viewers prefer sitcoms over drama.

Q51. Consider the following statements:

1. All artists are whimsical.
2. Some artists are drug addicts.
3. Frustrated people are prone to become drug addicts.
From the above three statements it may be concluded that:
a. Artists are frustrated.
b. Some drug addicts are whimsical.
c. All frustrated people are drug addicts.
d. Whimsical people are generally frustrated.

Read the following passage and answer the questions 52 – 55 based on it.
Delivering a speech at an institutional gathering recently on the topic of ‘Rethinking religions’, a prominent MP said
that by the middle of this century religion would be very different, that its present form would be completely
unrecognisable, given the changes brought about by an emerging information society. “Religion as we know it will not
be the same in 50 years. There has been a rapid democratisation of the world. The world is a much smaller place. The
pronouncements of religions can therefore not remain the same,” he said. More importantly, he maintained that some
notions central to religion would not survive the future: “You have to stay with the times or you’ll be left behind.”
One wonders, if he had also been sitting in the audience listening to himself would his jaw have dropped‘? For if
there’s one thing we all know that doesn’t change, it’s religion. Christianity, Islam, Hinduism, etc. have lived
comfortably through many technological and other intellectual upheavals in the past such as the Renaissance, printing
and the industrial revolution, for instance, and have emerged even more stubborn and ossified if anything afterwards.
Sure, peripheral elements change —heretics are no longer burned at the stake, sati is outlawed — but “notions central
to religion” not surviving, say, the Internet, is laughable.
That’s because the central notion of all religions, concepts that are cold welded to the first few pages of any scripture, is
that there is a God who is the creator of all things including us, that we have a duty to love and worship Him and that
He stands for everything which is good. These things have so far reliably demonstrated a sure fire ability to endure
millennia.
On the other hand, consider Parsis. More and more members of these modern day descendants of migrants who fled
persecution in Iran more than 1,000 years ago, are turning to new technology to keep their ancient Zoroastrian religion
alive and kicking. “Websites, blogs, on line directories and match making portals are being used by the close knit but
scattered and shrinking community to stay in touch and true to the 3,500 year old faith,” reports AFP. In fact, they’re
doing exactly the opposite of what our prominent MP fears: they’re staying with the times for fear of being left behind.
It’s what all religions have always done in order to keep the faith.
Q52. We can infer, from the use of the phrase “… rapid democratisation of the world”, in the first paragraph, that:
a. The world is shrinking, thanks to improved communication.
b. Countries prefer democracy as a form of government.
c. Religion would have changed beyond recognition.
d. People are accorded more freedom in terms of choices.
Q53. As understood from the passage, what does the phrase “notion central to religion not surviving, say, the internet is
laughable” in the second paragraph mean?
a. Central ideas of religion not able to outlast internet is ridiculous.
b. Central ideas of religion not able to overpower internet is silly.
c. As per information available on the internet, religion is not going to survive.
d. As per information available on the internet, the central ideas of religion will not be pertinent to religion in
future.

Q54. What is the primary reason for Parsis turning to new technologies?
a. To stay in touch
b. To perpetuate their faith
c. To influence the other communities
d. To increase their shrinking population by matchmaking

Q55. Which of the following is NOT a peripheral element?

1. Duty to worship God.
2. Sati being outlawed.
3. Heretics no longer being burned at stake.

a. Only 1
b. Only 2
c. 1 and 2
d. 1, 2 and 3

Q56. A student was asked to divide a number by 6 and add 12 to the quotient. He however, first added 12 to the
number and then divided it by 6, getting 112 as the answer.
The correct answer should have been
a. 123
b. 144
c. 122
d. 110

Q57. A man arranges to pay off a debt of Rs.3600 by 40 annual installments which are in arithmetic progression (AP).
When 30 of the installments are paid, he dies leaving one-third of the debt unpaid. The value of the 8th installment is
a. 60
b. 45
c. 58
d. 65
Answer the following three questions based on the information given below.
There are 5 freshmen, 8 sophomores, and 7 juniors in a chess club. A group of 6 students will be chosen to compete in
a competition.
Q58. How many combinations of students are possible if the group is to consist of exactly 3 freshmen?
a. 4550
b. 4560
c. 2000
d. 5000

Q59. How many combinations of students are possible if the group is to consist of exactly 3 freshmen and 3
sophomores?
a. 450
b. 560
c. 300
d. 590

Q60. How many combinations of students are possible if the group is to consist of an equal number of freshmen,
sophomores, and juniors?
a. 5768
b. 5880
c. 6578
d. 4550

Read the following passage and answer the questions (1-5) that follow.

Although websites such as Facebook and MySpace experienced exponential growth during the middle of the first
decade of the 21st century, some users remain oblivious to the fact that the information they post online can come back
to haunt them. First, employers can monitor employees who maintain a blog, photo diary, or website. Employers can
look for controversial employee opinions, sensitive information disclosures, or wildly inappropriate conduct. For
example, a North Carolina newspaper fired one of its features writers after she created a blog on which she
anonymously wrote about the idiosyncrasies of her job and coworkers.
The second unintended use of information from social networking websites is employers who check on prospective
employees. A June 11, 2006 New York Times article reported that many companies recruiting on college campuses use
search engines and social networking websites such as MySpace, Xanga, and Facebook to conduct background checks.
Although the use of MySpace or Google to scrutinize a student’s background is somewhat unsettling to many
undergraduates, the Times noted that the utilization of Facebook is especially shocking to students who believe that
Facebook is limited to current students and recent alumni.
Corporate recruiters and prospective employers are not the only people interested in college students’ lives. The third
unintended use of social networking websites is college administrators who monitor the Internet—especially
Facebook—for student misconduct. For example, a college in Boston’s Back Bay expelled its student Government
Association President for joining a Facebook group highly critical of a campus police sergeant. In addition, fifteen
students at a state university in North Carolina faced charges in court for underage drinking because of photos that
appeared on Facebook.
Although more users of websites such as Facebook are becoming aware of the potential pitfalls of online identities,
many regular users still fail to take three basic security precautions. First, only make your information available to a
specific list of individuals whom you approve. Second, regularly search for potentially harmful information about
yourself that may have been posted by mistake or by a disgruntled former associate. Third, never post blatantly
offensive material under your name or on your page as, despite the best precautions, this material will likely make its
way to the wider world. By taking these simple steps, members of the digital world can realize the many benefits of e-
community without experiencing some of the damaging unintended consequences.

Q61.Based upon the passage, the author implies which of the following?
a. Information obtained unwillingly from the Internet is permissible in court.
b. It is impossible to protect yourself from unintended uses of information online.
c. Even if you restrict who can view your data, the government may still access it.
d. Making information available only to people whom you trust compromises your online
community.
Q62. Which of the following best describes the author’s logical flow in the passage?
a. Provide examples of a problem, offer a counter point, provide a resolution of the conflicting
views, and offer a brief evaluation of the issue at hand.
b. Define a problem, provide examples of it, offer means of remedying it, and offer a brief
evaluation of the issue at hand.
c. Define a problem, provide examples of it, offer a brief evaluation of the issue at hand, and offer
suggestions to support that evaluation.
d. Provide examples of a problem, provide means of remedying it, offer a brief evaluation of the
issue at hand, and provide a contrasting evaluation of the issue at hand.
Q63.The author implies that users should take all of the following actions to protect their online privacy except
a. Know to whom you make your online information available.
b. Actively hunt for misinformation or damaging information posted about you or under your name.
c. Speak with recruiters to inform them of any misinformation published about you.
d. Carefully select and limit who can view your electronic profile.

Q64.The tone of the passage suggests that the author’s view toward e-community and the digital world can best be
described as
a. Largely Pessimistic
b. Frustrated
c. Guardedly Optimistic
d. Distressed

Q 65.Primary purpose of the passage is to

a. Explain the growth of the digital world through the lens of privacy.
b. Discuss the risks of the digital world and suggest ways to protect yourself.
c. Evaluate the pros and cons of active participation in the digital world.
d. Illustrate potential unintended uses of private information.

Q 66.Priya wrote all the numbers from 100 to 200. Then she started counting the number of one’s that has been used
while writing all these numbers. What is the number that she got?
a. 120
b. 111
c. 119
d. 128

Q 67.
In a survey conducted at a University, it was found that 51% of the students wanted to learn French as a foreign
language, 48% wanted to learn German and 52% wanted to learn Russian. Of the surveyed students, 21% wanted to
learn both French and German, 23% wanted German and Russian and 24% wanted French and Russian. Only 12%
wanted to learn all three languages. A total of 500 students were surveyed.
How many students wanted to learn only German?
a. 16
b. 90
c. 80
d. 45

Q 68.
A, B, C and D play a game of cards. A says to B “If I give you 8 cards, you will have as many as C has and I shall have
3 less than what C has. Also if I take 6 cards from C, I shall have twice as many as D has”. If B and D together have 50
cards, how many cards have A got?
a. 20
b. 56
c. 36
d. 40

Consider the following statements.

a. A primary group is relatively smaller in size.
b. Intimacy is an essential characteristic of a primary group.
c. A family may be an example of a primary group.
Q 69. In the light of the above statements, which one of the following is true?
a. All families are primary groups.
b. All primary groups are families.
c. A group of smaller size is always a primary group.
d. Members of a primary group know each other intimately.

Q 70.
If CAPTAIN is spelled ECRVCKP in another language, what is NGCF?
a. Take
b. Lead
c. Come
d. Herd
Read the following passage and answer the questions (71 – 74) that follow:
Currently the focus of research into artificial intelligence (AI) is on relatively limited applications, including
guiding airplanes and missiles, understanding language, detecting credit card fraud, and diagnosing medical conditions
from electrocardiograms. While these avenues certainly contain promise for commercial and industrial interests, the
populace at large typically is more interested in a slightly less consequential application of AI. In 1997, Deep Blue, a
chess playing computer program, defeated grand master Gary Kasparov in a tournament, marking the first time a
computer was able to beat a human world champion.
But these more “frivolous” applications of AI are actually valuable indicators of the state of technology. Computer
engineers are constantly reviving and reinventing the programming algorithms in an effort to make computers think
more like people do. And the exponential increases in processing and storage technology are allowing artificial
intelligence researchers to greatly increase the power of AI programs while simultaneously reducing the size and
computing needs of the machines. For example, the Deep Blue program required 256 specialized processors to analyze
the millions and millions of combinations of moves. Each of these processors was about one hundred times faster than
a standard home computer, which means Deep Blue was about 25,600 times faster than a 1997 personal computer.
Only five years later, in 2002, AI engineers unleashed a new chess playing program, Deep Fritz. Deep Fritz played
Vladimir Kramnik, the highest ranked chess player in the world, to a draw, but this result was anything but a failure to
the AI community. Whereas Deep Blue required 256 processors to achieve its victory, Deep Fritz had a mere eight.
Deep Blue could analyze 200 million moves per second, but Deep Fritz could deal with only 2.5 million. Yet Deep
Fritz’s chess playing abilities more closely resemble those of a person. Deep Blue was able to defeat Kasparov by brute
strength alone, calculating millions of possible moves and counter moves. Deep Fritz played Kramnik to a draw by
using advanced pattern recognition skills, which allowed it to be competitive despite considering fewer move
combinations.
Q71.The main idea of the passage is that
a. Computer chess programs will soon be able to defeat any human challenger.
b. Computer chess programs are now being designed to be more efficient and perform fewer
calculations.
c. Certain applications of AI technology provide insight into advances in the field.
d. The public pays too much attention to frivolous applications of AI technology.
Q72.According to the passage, the AI community did not view Deep Fritz’s draw as a failure because
a. Kramnik was a higher ranked chess player than Kasparov and was thus harder to defeat.
b. Researchers did not expect Deep Fritz to win because it only had eight processors.
c. Deep Fritz’s performance suggested that programmers were approaching one of their goals.
d. Deep Blue’s victory had already proven that a computer could beat a grand champion in chess.

Q73.The author implies that human chess players

a. Will not lose to Deep Fritz.
b. Will soon be unable to defeat most computer chess programs.
c. Are not able to analyze possible move combinations when playing chess.
d. Rely on pattern recognition skills when playing chess.
Q 74.The primary purpose of the above passage is to
a. Contrast the abilities of two computer programs.
b. Encourage researchers to pursue more serious inquiries.
c. Detail the state of research in a particular field.
d. Compare human chess players to computer chess programs.

Q75.In an objective examination of 90 questions, 5 marks are allotted for every correct answer and 2 marks are
deducted for every wrong answer. After attempting all the 90 questions a students got a total of 387 marks. Find the
number of questions that he attempted wrong.
a. 12
b. 9
c. 5
d. 15
Q76.The ages of Kripa and Tanu are in the ratio of 11:7 respectively. After 8 years the ratio of their ages will be
15:11. What is the difference in years between their ages?
a. 8 years
b. 2 years
c. 14 years
d. 6 years
Q77.A passenger train takes two hours less for a journey of 300 km if its speed is increased by 5 km/hr from its
normal speed. The normal speed is
a. 40 kmph
b. 25 kmph
c. 30 kmph
d. 28 kmph
Q 78. Consider the following statement.
“Price is not the same thing as value. Suppose that on a day the price of everything viz., coal, bread, postage
stamps, a day’s labour, the rent of houses, etc. were to double. Prices then would certainly rise, but – values of all
things except one would not.”
The writer wants to say that if prices of all things were doubled
 a. The values of all things would remain constant.
b. The values of the things sold would be doubled.
c. The values of the things bought would be halved.
d. The value of money only would be halved.
Q79. A gardener increased the area of his rectangular garden by increasing its length by 40% and decreasing its
width by 20%. The area of the new garden
a. Has increased by 20%
b. Has increased by 12%
c. Has increased by 25%
d. Has remained the same
Q 80.Introducing a boy, a girl said, “He is the only son of my mother’s mother”. How is the girl related to that
boy?
a. Aunt
b. Niece
c. Sister
d. Mother