Sreedhar’s CCE UNION BANK OF INDIA (LBO) - MT - 19

UNION BANK OF INDIA (LBO) - MODEL TEST - 19

REASONING AND COMPUTER APTITUDE

Direction (1-3): In the question three statements followed by two conclusions I
and II have been given. You have to take the given statements to be true even if

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they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of
the given conclusions logically follows from the three statements disregarding
commonly known facts.
1. Statements: Only a few movies are dark. Some dark is green.
No green is color.
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Conclusions I: Some dark is not movie.
1) Both conclusions I and II follow
II: Some dark is not color.
2) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
3) Either conclusion I or II follows 4) Only conclusion I follows

2.

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5) Only conclusion II follows
Statements: Only a few leave are G-mail. No g-mail is e-mail.
d
All letters are e-mails.
Conclusions I: No letter is e-mail. II: All leave being G-mail is a
possibility.
ee

1) Both conclusions I and II follow 2) Neither conclusion I nor II follows

3) Either conclusion I or II follows 4) Only conclusion I follows
5) Only conclusion II follows
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3. Statements: Only a few wallets are bags. Some wallets are purses.
All purses are mobiles
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Conclusions I: All purses can be bags II: Some mobiles are bags
1) Both conclusions I and II follow 2) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
3) Either conclusion I or II follows 4) Only conclusion I follows
5) Only conclusion II follows
Direction (4-8): Study the given information carefully to answer the given questions:
Ten people viz. P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W, X and Y were born on ten different
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months viz. January, March, April, May, June, August, September, October,
November and December. W was born four months before T. Both W and T were
born in the months having 31 days. U was born between W and T in the month
having an even number of days. As many people were born before U as born after
X. As many people were born between T and X as between U and V. P was born
two people before the one who was born four people after V. Q was born three
months before S. The number of people were born between R and X is one more
than the number of people born between S and Q.
4. In which of the following months was Y born?
1) December 2) May 3) November 4) April 5) October
5. How many people were born between Q and one who was born immediately before
R?
1) Three 2) Four 3) Two 4) Five 5) One
6. As many people were born before P as after______.
1) Y 2) U 3) S 4) R 5) W

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Sreedhar’s CCE UNION BANK OF INDIA (LBO) - MT - 19

7. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true as per the given arrangement?
1) Only two people were born between S and U
2) X was born in the month having an even number of days
3) No one was born after T 4) Both the statements (1) and (3) are true
5) All the statements are true
8. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions as per
the given arrangement and hence form a group. Which one of the following one
does not belong to that group?
1) V 2) R 3) Q 4) W 5) Y
9. Read the following information and the statements (A),(B),(C), (D),(E) and (F)
given below it carefully and answer the question :

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The high Nitrogen content of the fertilizer Endosulfan must combine with the
bacteria present only in the Gabania soil type to yield results. It has worked
wonders in State A where the yield has doubled in a span of merely three
years.
The government of State B is confident that if Endosulfan is used in State B as
well, its agricultural productivity will definitely improve in 2 to 3 years.
ha
(A) State A was struggling with poor agricultural productivity 3 years ago.
(B) The soil type Gabania is present only in State A in the whole country.
(C) All other factors required for agriculture e.g. climate, water for irrigation etc

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are already favorable and adequate in State B.
(D) The only manufacturing plant of Endosulfan is located in State B.
d
(E) Endosulfan’s high chemical content renders the soil infertile after 5-6 years
of continuous use.
(F) As in other States agriculture in State A and State B is not dependent on the
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amount of monsoon rains.

Which of the given statements is implicit in the opinion of the government of
State B?
C
1) B 2) C 3) A 4) D 5) E
Direction (10-14): Study the given information carefully to answer the given
questions:
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A certain number of people are sitting in a straight line facing north. G sits
third to the right of C. Only one person sits between G and A. Only two people sit
between A and N. J sits third from the right end of the row. K sits second from the
left end of the row. Eight people sit to the right of G. Only two people sit between
J and F. No one sits between J and B. More than nine and less than fifteen people
sit to the left of J. D sits third to the right of K. D sits on the left of C. N is to the
right of A and sits immediate to J.
10. How many people are sitting in the line as per the given arrangement?
C
1) 15 2) 20 3) 17 4) 16 5) 21
11. How many people sit between D and the one who sits immediate right of A as per
the given arrangement?
1) Six 2) Five 3) Four 4) Seven 5) Three
12. What is the position of J with respect to A?
1) Fourth left 2) Second right 3) Third right 4) Fourth right 5) Immediate right
13. Which of the following statement(s) is/are not true about G as per the given
arrangement?
I. As many people sit to the right of G as left of him.
II. Only two people sit between G and D
III. N sits right of G
1) Only I 2) Both II and III 3) Only II 4) Only III 5) Both I and III
14. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions as per
the given arrangement and hence form a group. Which one of the following does
not belong to that group?
1) K, D 2) G, F 3) F, J 4) A, N 5) D, A

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Sreedhar’s CCE UNION BANK OF INDIA (LBO) - MT - 19

Direction (15-17): Study the given information carefully to answer the given
questions:
In a certain code language,
“person popular perfect pink” is coded as “mn ts wo jb”
“pink passage point peak” is coded as “jb xk yr qd”
“perfect pink passage proper” is coded as “wo jb xk ua”
“point popular proper passion” is coded as “yr ts ua cg”
(Note: All the codes are two letter codes only)
15. What is the code for ‘perfect’ in the given code of language?
1) jb 2) wo 3) ts 4) mn 5) ua
16. If “perfect party” is coded as “wo fp” then what could be the possible code for

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“party color”?
1) fp ua 2) ts hg 3) fp hg 4) wo cg 5) xk jb
17. What is the code for ‘peak’ in the given code of language?
1) qd 2) wo 3) jb 4) xk 5) cg
Direction (18-20): In this question relationship between different elements is
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shown in the statement/s. The statement/s is/are followed by two conclusions.
Study the given conclusions based on the given statement/s and select the
appropriate option as your answer.
18.
Conclusion I: K > I

E
Statements: K  R < E  V > I; K  F  A = N

1) Neither Conclusion I nor II is true

Conclusion II: R > N
2) Both Conclusions I and II are true
d
3) Only Conclusion II is true 4) Only Conclusion I is true
5) Either Conclusion I or II is true
19. Statements: H < D  P; Y  S  D; H = L
ee

Conclusion I: Y > P Conclusion II: P  Y

1) Only Conclusion I is true 2) Only Conclusion II is true
3) Either Conclusion I or II is true 4) Neither Conclusion I nor II is true
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5) Both Conclusions I and II are true
20. Statements: A  R > C  S; H < T  A
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Conclusion I: A > C Conclusion II: R = A

1) Only Conclusion I is true 2) Only Conclusion II is true
3) Either Conclusion I or II is true 4) Neither Conclusion I nor II is true
5) Both Conclusions I and II are true
21. Given below is a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and
II.You have to assume everything in the statement to be true and on the basis of
the information given in the statement,decide which of the suggested course of
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actions logically follows for pursuing.
Give answer:
1) Either Course of action I or Course of action II follows.
2) Both Course of action I and Course of action II follow.
3) Only Course of action I follows.
4) Only Course of action II follows.
5) Neither Course of action I nor Course of action II follows.
Statement: State ‘X’ has been declared as the ‘least green’ state of its country.
Recently, the state government announced a three-day long drive for its residents
to plant around 10,000 seedlings across the state. Starting from the day
immediately following the announcement. Despite every effort to make the drive
successful, only 23% of the expected population turned up to plant the seeds.
Course of action I : All the people of the state who did not turn up for the drive
should either be fined or be charged an extra amount of tax.
Course of action II : The state government should re-organize the drive and
advertise/announce it atleast two or three weeks in advance.

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Sreedhar’s CCE UNION BANK OF INDIA (LBO) - MT - 19

Direction (22-26): Study the given information carefully to answer the given
questions:
Nine people - A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and K are lives in nine different floors of
a building such that ground floor is numbered as 1, the one above that is numbered
as 2 and so on till the top most floor is numbered as 9 and all of them like
different colors of Blue, Green, Orange, Purple, Grey, White, Black, Violet and
Indigo but not necessarily in the same order. No two persons living each other
according to alphabetical order. (eg: H is neither an immediate neighbour of G
nor I).
F is living in an odd numbered floor and only two people living between F and
the one who likes Purple and F is living below to him. The one who likes Blue is

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living immediately below either F or the one who likes Purple. Only two people
are living between B and the one who likes Blue and one of them living either
ground or top floor of the building. H likes Black and living in an odd numbered
floor and living above the fifth floor. Only two people living between C and the one
who likes Green. People living above the one who likes Green is one less than the
people living below to C. No one is living between D and the one who likes White
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and both are not living below fifth floor. F and the one who likes Violet are living
immediate to each other and one of them living in 5th floor. E is living between G
and the one who likes Orange and no other person living between them. A and E
doesn’t like Purple and Grey color respectively.
22.

23.
Who likes White color?
1) D 2) F

E 3) H 4) C
How many people are living between K and the one who likes Grey?
5) A
d
1) One 2) Two 3) Three 4) Four 5) More than four
24. Who is living on sixth floor of the building?
1) A 2) K 3) D 4) F 5) G
ee

25. How many of them living below to G?

1) Two 2) Three 3) One 4) Four 5) Five
26. Who are living in even numbered floors?
C
1) K, D, E, A 2) G, B, D, K 3) E, C, D, K 4) H, A, C, E 5) H, A, G, E
Direction (27-29): Study the given information carefully to answer the given
questions:
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Amongst six boxes viz. A, B, C, D, E and F are having a different weights.

Weight of the box C is more than the box E but not more than box F and D. Weight
of the box B is more than box A and E but not more than box F. Weight of box F is
more than box D. Weight of box D is 76kg. Weight of the one whose weight is
fourth highest is 64kg. The weight of box A is more than box C but not more than box D.
27. If the weight of heaviest box is 98kg, then what will be the possible weight of box
B?
C
1) 76kg 2) 63kg 3) 70kg 4) 78kg 5) Cant’ be determined
28. If the total weights of box A and box B is 130kg then what is the total weights of
box B and box D?
1) 135kg 2) 150kg 3) 142kg 4) 140kg 5) 139kg
29. What can be the possible weight of box C?
1) 77kg 2) 65kg 3) 69kg 4) 85kg 5) 60kg
30. Statement: A study suggests that teachers should make every effort to control
any sense of competition amongst students in the school.
Which of the following would weaken the argument presented in the study most
appropriately?
1) The more competitive the person, the greater his/her chances to succeed in life.
2) Competition is acceptable everywhere except in school.
3) A sense of competition reduces the time spent of constructive thoughts.
4) Many schools have started grading systems in order to control competition
generated due to marks.
5) A sense of competition adversely affects the personality development of the
students.

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Sreedhar’s CCE UNION BANK OF INDIA (LBO) - MT - 19

Direction (31-35): Study the given information carefully to answer the given
questions:
Ten people viz. D, E, F, G, H, I, J, K, L and M are sitting around a rectangular
table such that all of them are facing outside the table. Four people are sitting at
the four corners, two people are sitting on each longer side and one person is
sitting on each shorter side of the table. The consecutive alphabetically named
persons are not sitting adjacent to each other (e.g. B is not sitting adjacent to
either A or C).
K sits third to the right of E and sits immediate left of M. M neither sits at
the corner of the table nor sits at the shorter side of the table. Not more than two
people are sitting between E and H when counted from the left of E. H sits at one

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of the corners of the table. D sits second to the right of J but does not sit at any of
the corners. As many people sit between M and H as between G and E. Both I and
F are sit adjacent to each other.
31. What is the position of L with respect to D?
1) Second left 2) Seventh left 3) Second right 4) Fifth right 5) Third right
32. How many people are sitting between M and the one who sits immediate left of I
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when counted right of M?
1) Four 2) Three 3) Six 4) Two 5) Five
33. In which of the following pair sits shorter side of the table?

34.
1) D, G 2) I, F

E 3) H, E 4) F, D 5) I, G
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions as per
the given arrangement and hence form a group. Which one of the following does
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not belong to that group?
1) I 2) H 3) L 4) G 5) K
35. Who amongst the following person sits third to the right of F?
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1) The one who sits immediate left of M 2) L 3) K

4) The one who sits opposite to L 5) The one who sits opposite to H
Direction (36-38): Study the given arrangement of symbol, letter and digits carefully
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to answer the given question:
! 3 7 E 8 5 < P M 9 7 & V L 1U 2 $ C F 4 6 @ P T 8 2 # D A *
K?2
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36. What is the difference between the number of symbols and letters in the given
arrangement?
1) 4 2) 9 3) 5 4) 8 5) 11
37. How many symbols in the arrangement which are immediately preceded by a
number but not immediately followed by a letter?
1) None 2) One 3) Two 4) Three 5) Four
38. How many consonants in the arrangement are immediately preceded by a symbol?
C
1) One 2) Five 3) Three 4) Two 5) More than five
Direction (39-43): Study the given information carefully to answer the given
questions:
Seven boxes - A, B, C, D, E, F and G are arranged in a stack such that
topmost box is numbered as seven and lowermost box is numbered as one. All
seven boxes have different colors viz. Red, Black, Purple, Gray, White, Orange
and Yellow.
Only four boxes are kept below Black box. Only one box is kept between box A
and Black box. As many boxes below box B as above box C. Neither box A nor box B
is White colored. Purple box is kept immediately below A. As many boxes between
box A and Black box as between box B and Black box. Orange colored box is placed
at even numbered position and kept just above D. Only two boxes are kept between
box C and box E. Box E is a Red colored box. Yellow colored box is not kept at top.
Minimum two boxes are kept above G.
39. How many boxes are kept above box F?
1) Five 2) Six 3) One 4) Three 5) None

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Sreedhar’s CCE UNION BANK OF INDIA (LBO) - MT - 19

40. Which of the following box is Gray color?

1) F 2) G 3) D 4) A 5) B
41. How many boxes are kept between box D and the box which is in White color?
1) Two 2) Three 3) One 4) Four 5) Five
42. Which of the following color does Box C has?
1) Yellow 2) Orange 3) White 4) Black 5) Gray
43. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions as per
the given arrangement and hence form a group. Which one of the following does
not belong to that group?
1) B, Black 2) A, White 3) F, Red 4) E, Purple 5) C, Gray
44. Read the given information to answer the given question :

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With the onset of summer, despite offering attractive discount schemes, King
Coolers, a renowned chain for a variety of shakes, icecreams and desserts, has
not been making enough profits this season. As compared to last year for the
month of April, the profits of King Coolers are only 20% of the last year in the
same month.
Which of the following can be a reason for less profits made by 'King Coolers' this
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year in the month of April?
(A) 'Mango Mania', the signature product of 'King Coolers' was modified this year
and served with a mixture of different blends of shakes.
(B) 'King Coolers' have been struggling with manpower issues for the last six

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months leading to the closure of six stores.
(C) King Coolers' have started offering 'combo packs' of ice-creams and desserts
this year attracting a handsome number of customers.
d
(D) 'Cuisine Bonanza', another renowned ice cream parlour has started giving 5%
discount on all its products.
1) Only (A) 2) Only (A), (B) & (D) 3) Only (B)
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4) Only (A) and (B) 5) Only (B), (C), & (D)

45. How many such pairs of digits are there in the number ‘5938276’ each of which
has as many digits between them in the number (in both forward and backward
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directions) as they have between them in the arithmetic numerical order?
1) Two 2) Four 3) One 4) Three 5) More than four
GENERAL/ECONOMY/BANKING AWARENESS
Sr

46. Recently which city won the “City with the Most Sustainable Transport System”
award at the 17th Urban Mobility India (UMI) Conference, held in Gandhinagar,
Gujarat?
1) Kochi 2) Delhi 3) Bengaluru 4) Ahmedabad 5) Mumbai
47. Sports Ministry announced the discontinuation of the Dhyan Chand Award for
Lifetime Achievement from this year onwards and the introduction of the Arjuna
Award Lifetime in its place in a bid to “rationalise” the various sporting honours of
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the country. When was the Dhyan Chand Lifetime Achievement Award instituted?
1) 1999 2) 2000 3) 2005 4) 1995 5) 2002
48. The government recently expanded the scope of the Agricultural Infrastructure
Fund (AIF) scheme to make it more attractive, as part of its objective to strengthen
farm-related infrastructure facilities in the country. With reference to the
Agriculture Infrastructure Fund (AIF) Scheme. Which of the statements given
below is/are Incorrect?
1) It is a Central Sector Scheme which was launched in 2020.
2) It provides a medium- to long-term debt financing facility for investment in
viable projects for post-harvest management infrastructure and community farming
assets through interest subvention and financial support.
3) All loans up to a limit of Rs. 2 crores under this financing facility will have
interest subvention of 3% per annum. This subvention will be available for a
maximum period of 7 years.
4) Under the scheme, it is mandatory for borrowers to contribute at least 25% of
the total project cost, irrespective of available capital subsidy.
5) All the given statements are correct.

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Sreedhar’s CCE UNION BANK OF INDIA (LBO) - MT - 19

49. Recently, which institute signed an agreement with the Indian Register of Shipping
to develop a ship trajectory prediction tool aimed at improving maritime safety?
1) IIT Bombay 2) IIT Delhi 3) IIT Madras 4) IIT Kharagpur 5) IIT Hyderabad
50. International Translation Day is celebrated every year on _________to celebrate
the work of translators and language professionals around the world. This day
was first established in 1991 by the International Federation of Translators (FIT).
1) September 28 2) September 16
3) September 10 4) September 20 5) September 30
51. Recently, National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR) launched a
portal for drugs and substance abuse in schools is named as?

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1) Prahari 2) Smarth 3) Sugam 4) WB Health 5) Raksha
52. Which countries recently signed NASA's Artemis Accords, becoming the 41st and
42nd countries respectively to join the U.S.-led agreement on the safe exploration
of space? ha
1) Argentina and Brazil 2) Chile and Slovenia
3) Argentina and Hungary 4) Peru and Slovakia 5) Chile and Peru
53. Bank clinic often seen in news, is an initiative launched by which organisation?

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1) All India Insurance Employees Association
2) All India Bank Pensioners & Retirees Confederation
3) All India farmers association
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4) All-India Bank Employees' Association 5) Indian Banks' Association
54. Liquid funds are debt funds that invest in short-term assets such as treasury
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bills, government securities, repos, certificates of deposit, or commercial paper.

An important aspect of a liquid fund is to invest only in those instruments that
are expected to mature within ______.
C
1) 30 days 2) 15 days 3) 45 days 4) 49 days 5) 91 days
55. Toyota Kirloskar Motor has recently signed a Memorandum of Understanding
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(MoU) with which bank to provide vehicle financing solutions. Under this, customers
can get financing up to 90 percent on the on-road price of any Toyota vehicle.
1) State Bank of India 2) Canara Bank
3) Central Bank of India 4) Union Bank of India 5) Punjab National Bank
56. The Ministry of Ports, Shipping, and Waterways (MoPSW) has approved a research
proposal on Valorization of Dredged Sediments in July, 2024. The project,
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sanctioned at an estimated cost of Rs. 46,47,380, will be implemented over a
duration of 3 years by the _________.
1) IIT Delhi 2) IIT Bhubaneswar 3) IIT Kanpur 4) IIT Bombay 5) IIT Madras
57. Which of the following is expected to occur when monetary policy becomes
ineffective due to very low interest rates combined with consumers who prefer to
save rather than invest?
1) Social vulnerability trap 2) Malthusian trap
3) Poverty trap 4) Productivity trap 5) Liquidity trap
58. India has been elected as the Vice-Chair of the Supply Chain Council under the
Indo-Pacific Economic Framework for Prosperity (IPEF), alongside the USA as Chair.
The IPEF launched in which year?
1) 2012 2) 2014 3) 2022 4) 2018 5) 2020
59. The Headquarters of International Financial Services Centres Authority (IFSCA)
is in _______.
1) Ahmedabad 2) Gandhinagar 3) Surat 4) Baroda 5) Jaipur

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Sreedhar’s CCE UNION BANK OF INDIA (LBO) - MT - 19

60. The Government's ambitious Khelo India Rising Talent Identification (KIRTI)
program is set to get a fresh boost under the leadership of the Union Minister for
Youth Affairs. Consider the following statements regarding the Khelo India Rising
Talent Identification (KIRTI) program.
I) It is aimed at school children between 9 and 18 years age group.
II) It has an objective to use sports as a tool to curb addiction towards drugs and
other gadgetry distractions.
III) It aims to conduct 20 lakh assessments across the country throughout the FY
2024-25 to identify talent through notified Talent Assessment Centres.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
1) Only (I) 2) Only (II) 3) Only (III)

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4) Both (II) and (III) 5) All (I), (II) and (III)
61. Under the New Tax Regime, introduced in the Union Budget 2024-25, what is the
tax rate applicable to taxpayers earning between 12 to 15 lakh rupees?
1) 20% 2) 10% 3) 15% 4) 25% 5) 30%
62. _________ is a statistic that quantifies the extent of possible financial losses

1) Asset at Risk
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within a firm, portfolio, or position over a specific time frame.
2) Value at Risk
3) Money at Risk 4) Management Risk 5) Credit at Risk
63.

64.

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What is the allocation for MNREGA in this year’s budget (2024)?
1) 17% 2) 7.18% 3) 1.78% 4) 2.24% 5) 4.18%
The Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C) recently issued an alert against
d
illegal payment gateways created using mule bank accounts by transnational
organised cyber criminals facilitating money laundering as a service. I4C has
been established under which of the following Ministry?
ee

1) Ministry of Defence 2) Ministry of Home Affairs

3) Ministry of Finance
4) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
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5) Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
65. Which organisation has recently (in August ‘24) collaborated with the Indian
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Railway Catering and Tourism Corporation (IRCTC) to launch the ‘One India –
One Ticket’ initiative?
1) Rail Vikas Nigam Limited 2) Ircon International Limited
3) Titagarh Rail Systems Limited
4) Delhi Metro Rail Corporation Limited
5) National Capital Region Transport Corporation
66. Which company has become the biggest provider of digital financial services when
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it comes to the value of Prepaid Payment Instrument (PPI) Wallet transactions in
April and May of 2024?
1) Razorpay 2) MobiKwik 3) PhonePe 4) Google pay 5) Paytm
67. What is the capital city of Colombia?
1) Buenos Aires 2) Vienna 3) Damascus 4) Prague 5) Bogota
68. India's membership in the MSFN is a strategic move to enhance the stability and
security of mineral resources crucial for global economic and technological
development. The MSFN is a continuation of the Minerals Security Partnership
(MSP), initiated by the US in _______.
1) 2020 2) 2021 3) 2022 4) 2023 5) 2019
69. The Reserve Bank - Integrated Ombudsman Scheme, 2021 (RB-IOS, 2021) was
launched on November 12, 2021, integrating the erstwhile three Ombudsman
schemes of RBI. Under the Reserve Bank - Integrated Ombudsman Scheme,
2021 (RB-IOS, 2021), regulated entities (REs) must resolve customer complaints
within how many days?
1) 7 days 2) 15 days 3) 21 days 4) 5 days 5) 30 days

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Sreedhar’s CCE UNION BANK OF INDIA (LBO) - MT - 19

70. Name the film director who is set to be honoured with the 2024 Pioneer of the
Year Award by the Will Rogers Motion Picture Pioneers Foundation (WRMPPF)?
1) Greta Gerwig 2) Martin Scorsese
3) James Cameron 4) Christopher Nolan 5) Steven Spielberg
71. The maximum investment limit under the Mahila Samman Savings Certificate
(MSSC) scheme is set at Rs. 2, 00,000. The MSSC scheme is available from April
2023 to _______
1) December 2026 2) January2028
3) October 2025 4) March 2025 5) March 2026
72. Which company launched India's largest hydrogen blending project, blending 2.2-

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2.3% green hydrogen in piped natural gas in Ahmedabad. This initiative aims to
reduce emissions and align with net-zero goals.
1) Reliance Industries 2) Essar Group
3) Adani Group 4) ONGC 5) Indian Oil Corporation
73. The rate at which the Reserve Bank is ready to buy or rediscount bills of exchange
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or other commercial papers is known as_______.
1) Savings Deposit Rate 2) LAF
3) MCLR 4) Bank Rate 5) Term Deposit Rate
74.

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Which city received the prestigious 'City with the Best Public Transport System'
award at the 17th Urban Mobility India (UMI) Conference 2024, recognizing its
d
efforts to improve public transportation infrastructure?
1) Bhubaneswar 2) Srinagar 3) Jammu 4) Gurugram 5) Chennai
75. As of October 2024, the Indian men's football team has achieved a notable
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improvement in the FIFA rankings, climbing to the 125th position globally. Which
country is ranked number one in the FIFA Men's World Ranking?
1) France 2) Germany 3) Italy 4) England 5) Argentina
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76. In August, President Droupadi Murmu approved 103 Gallantry awards for personnel
from the Armed Forces and Central Armed Police Forces. Which among the following
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is NOT correctly matched?

1) Kirti Chakras - Four awards 2) Shaurya Chakras- Ten awards
3) Bar to Sena Medal (Gallantry): One award.
4) Sena Medals (Gallantry): Sixty-three awards
5) Nao Sena Medals (Gallantry): Eleven awards.
77. The New Development Bank (NDB) has approved the Himachal Pradesh Ropeways
C
Corporation to float advance tenders for the construction of the Shimla ropeway
project valued at Rs. 1,734 crore. Who is the present president of NDB?
1) K. V. Kamath 2) Marcos Prado Troyjo
3) Dilma Rousseff 4) Ajay Banga 5) Kristalina Georgieva
78. Nagaland has collaborated with Wales for the __________ edition of the Hornbill
Festival, marking the culmination of the year-long Wales in India 2024 celebration.
1) 35th 2) 20th 3) 30th 4) 15th 5) 25th
79. For what contribution were Demis Hassabis and John M. Jumper jointly awarded
the Nobel Prize in Chemistry 2024?
1) Artificial protein synthesis 2) Protein structure prediction
3) Development of biosensors
4) Degradation of plastics 5) Discovery and synthesis of quantum dots
80. Which country did the Society of Indian Defence Manufacturers (SIDM) sign MoUs
with for enhanced defence cooperation?
1) Saudi Arabia 2) Qatar 3) Oman 4) USA 5) UAE

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Sreedhar’s CCE UNION BANK OF INDIA (LBO) - MT - 19

81. Fiscal deficit in the union budget is equal to______.

1) Net increase in Union government's borrowings from RBI
2) The difference between current expenditure and current revenue
3) The sum of monetized deficit and budgetary deficit
4) Net increase in the union government’s borrowing from the Reserve Bank of
India
5) The difference between total revenue and total expenditure
82. Assam government introduced the 'Nijut Moina' scheme, which offers monthly
stipends to female students in order to promote women's education and reduce
dropout rates. Who is the current governor of Assam?
1) Lakshman Prasad Acharya 2) Rajendra Vishwanath Arlekar

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3) Acharya Dev Vrat 4) Dr. C.V. Ananda Bose 5) Ramen Deka
83. Who won the gold medal in Taekwondo at the 1st Khelo India Women’s Taekwondo
League?
1) Ananya Mehta 2) Nazira Banoo 3) Priya Sharma 4) Riya Gupta 5) R Dinesh
84. Prime Minister Narendra Modi today addressed the Global Fintech Fest (GFF)
ha
2024 at the Jio World Convention Centre in Mumbai. Payments Council of India,
National Payments Corporation of India and Fintech Convergence Council are
jointly organizing the Global Fintech Fest. Payments Council of India (PCI) was

which year?
1) 2010

E
formed under the aegis of the Internet and Mobile Association of India (IAMAI) in

2) 2015 3) 2013 4) 2016 5) 2018

d
85. Which country has secured the hosting rights for the 2026 Commonwealth Games,
following Australia's withdrawal due to cost concerns?
ee

1) England 2) India 3) Scotland 4) Ireland 5) Japan

DATA ANALYSIS AND INTERPRETATION
Directions (86-87): The following question is accompanied by two statements I
C
and II. You have to determine which statements(s) is/are sufficient/necessary to
answer the given question.
Sr

86. There are a total 400 People who like at least one sport person among Virat,
Ronaldo and Neeraj. 16% of People like both Ronaldo and Virat but not Neeraj and
14% of people like both Virat and Neeraj but not Ronaldo. How many People like
Ronaldo as well as Neeraj?
Statement I: 21% of People like Virat as well as Neeraj and 44% of People like
only two sport persons.
Statement II: 52% of People like at least two sport persons.
C
1) Only statement I alone is sufficient.
2) Only statement II alone is sufficient.
3) Either statement I or II sufficient.
4) Neither statement I nor II sufficient.
5) Both statements together sufficient.
87. A, B and C are engaged in a project. In how many days A and B can complete 20%
of the project?
Statement I: A and C together can complete the 50% of the project in 3 days and
C alone can complete the 20% of the project in 2 days.
Statement II: B and C together can complete the project in 5 days.
1) Only statement I alone is sufficient.
2) Only statement II alone is sufficient.
3) Either statement I or II sufficient.
4) Neither statement I nor II sufficient.
5) Both statements together sufficient.

10
Sreedhar’s CCE UNION BANK OF INDIA (LBO) - MT - 19

88. The respective ratio between speed of the boat upstream and speed of the boat
downstream is 7 : 9. What is the speed of the boat in still water if it covers 48 Km
downstream in 2 hours 40 minutes ? (in km/h)
1) 14 2) 18 3) 12 4) 16 5) 15
89. At present, the respective ratio between the ages of A and B is 2 : 9 and that
between A and C is 1 : 5. 4 years ago, the sum of the ages of A, B and C was 72
years. What is the present age of C ?
1) 30 years 2) 35 years 3) 40 years 4) 50 years 5) 45 years
90. Sum invested in scheme B is 2.5 times the sum invested in Scheme A. Investment
in Scheme A is made for 7 years at 6% p.a simple interest and in Scheme B for 5

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years at 8% p.a simple interest. The total interest earned from both the schemes
is Rs. 2840. How much was invested in Scheme A ?
1) Rs. 2000 2) Rs. 3000 3) Rs. 1800 4) Rs. 2500 5) Rs. 3600
91. The sum of the radius and height of a cylinder is 20 m. if the total surface area of
the cylinder is 880 m2, what is the volume of the cylinder ? (in m3)

92.
1) 2028 2) 2366
ha 3) 2184 4) 2106 5) 2002
A bag contains 7 red balls, 2 yellow balls and 6 pink balls, if two balls are drawn at
random from the bag, one after another, what is the probability that the first ball

1) 2)
3

E
is red and the second ball is pink ?
1
3)
1
4)
2
5)
1
d
7 10 5 5 10
93. A and B started a business with the investments in the ratio of 2 : 5 respectively.
After 4 months from the start of the business C joined and the respective ratio
ee

between the investments of B and C was 2 : 1. If the annual profit earned by them
was Rs. 6,500, What was the difference between B’s share and C’s share in the
profit ?
C
1) Rs. 2500 2) Rs. 2200 3) Rs. 2600 4) Rs. 2650 5) Rs. 2250
Direction(94-98) : Study the table and answer the given question :
Sr

Data related to Number of employees in

5 different Companies in December, 2021 :

Companies Total number Out of total number of employees

of employees
Percentage Percentage of Percentage
C
of Science Commerce of Arts
graduates graduates graduates
A --- 20% 25% ---
B --- 35% 35% ---
C 780 --- --- 45%
D 850 42% 38% ---
E --- --- 30% 40%

Note : (I) Employees of the given companies can be categorized only in three
types: Science graduates, Commerce graduates and Arts graduates.
(II) Few values are missing in the table (indicated by —). A candidate is expected
to calculate the missing value, if it is required to answer the given question, on
the basis of the given data and information.
94. The average number of Science graduate employees and Arts graduate employees
in company A was 270. What was the total number of employees in company A ?
1) 540 2) 810 3) 840 4) 720 5) 1080

11
Sreedhar’s CCE UNION BANK OF INDIA (LBO) - MT - 19

95. What was the difference between number of Science graduate employees and
Arts graduate employees in company D ?
1) 185 2) 187 3) 177 4) 191 5) 193
96. Total number of employees in company E was 3 times the total number of employees
in company B. If the difference between number of Arts graduate employees in
company B and that in company E was 495, what was the total number of
employees in company B ?
1) 750 2) 650 3) 550 4) 580 5) 600
97. Total number of employees in company D increased by 20% from December, 2021

r’s
to December, 2022. If 50% of total number of employees in company D in December,
2022 were Science graduates, what was the number of Science graduate
employees in company D in December, 2022?
1) 550 2) 510 3) 490 4) 530 5) 470
98. If the respective ratio between number of Science graduate employees and
ha
Commerce graduate employees in company C was 5 : 6. What was the number of
Commerce graduate employees in company C ?
1) 210 2) 222

E 3) 234 4) 246 5) 258

Direction(99-103) : In this question two equations numbered I & II are given. You
d
have to solve both the equations and mark the appropriate option :
99. I. 2x2 – 9x + 10 = 0
II. 6y2 – 11y + 3 = 0
ee

1) X  Y 2) X  Y
3) Relationship between X and Y cannot be established
C
4) X < Y 5) X > Y
100. I. 2x2 – 13x + 21 = 0
Sr

II. 3y2 – 16y + 21 =0

1) X  Y 2) X  Y
3) Relationship between X and Y cannot be established
4) X < Y 5) X > Y
2
101. I. 2x – 13x + 18 = 0
C
II. 4y2 – 19y + 22 = 0
1) X > Y 2) Relationship between X and Y cannot be established
3) X  Y 4) X  Y 5) X < Y
102. I. x2 = 49
II. y2 + y – 30 = 0
1) X  Y 2) X > Y 3) X < Y
4) Relationship between X and Y cannot be established 5) X  Y
2
103. I. 3x + 11x + 10 = 0
II. 3y2 + 4y + 1=0
1) Relationship between X and Y cannot be established
2) X  Y 3) X  Y 4) X < Y 5) X > Y

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Sreedhar’s CCE UNION BANK OF INDIA (LBO) - MT - 19

Direction(104-108) : Study the following graph carefully to answer the given

questions.
Number of candidates (in hundreds) applying for three different posts at five
organisations

Management Trainee Jr Engineer Programmer

450
400
350
Number of candidates

r’s
300
250
200
150
100
50
ha
0
V

E W X
Organisation
Y Z
d
104. Total number of candidates applied for Programmer and Management Trainee
together from organisation W is what percent of the total no of candidates applied
ee

for these two posts together for all the given organisations together? (rounded off
to nearest integer)
1) 14 2) 13 3) 17 4) 11 5) 15
C
105. What is the ratio between no.of candidates applied for Jr Engineer from
organisations V, W & X together and the no. of candidates applied for Management
Sr

Trainee from organisations X, Y & Z together respectively ?

1) 10 : 7 2) 9 : 7 3) 11 : 8 4) 11 : 7 5) 9 : 8
106. What is the respective ratio between no.of candidates applied for Jr. Engineer at
organisations V, X & Y together and no.of candidates applied for Management
Trainee at organisations W, Y & Z together ?
1) 17 : 12 2) 16 : 13 3) 16 : 9 4) 15 : 11 5) 16 : 11
107. If the no.of candidates who got selected for the job out of those applied for
C
organisation Y were 18% for Programmer 21% for Management Trainee and 15 %
for Jr. Engineer then what was the total no.of candidates got selected for the job
at organisation Y ?
1) 6630 2) 6870 3) 9177 4) 6470 5) 5780
108. If the no. of candidates who got selected out of those who applied for Programmer
for each organisation was 18% and the no. of candidates who got selected out of
those who applied for Jr. Engineer for each organisation was 14% what is the
difference between no.of candidates got selected for Programmer from all
organisations together and the no.of candidates got selected for Jr. Engineer
from all organisations together ?
1) 8180 2) 8240 3) 8040 4) 7480 5) 7080
Direction(109-113) : What will come in place of the question mark(?) in the given
number series ?
109. 21 11 12 19.5 41 ?
1) 122 2) 101 3) 116 4) 86 5) 105

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Sreedhar’s CCE UNION BANK OF INDIA (LBO) - MT - 19

110. 319 317 326 298 363 ?

1) 237 2) 198 3) 189 4) 245 5) 226
111. 95 47 23 11 5 ?
1) 3 2) 1.5 3) 0.5 4) 2.5 5) 2
112. 2 3 8 27 112 ?
1) 665 2) 425 3) 345 4) 565 5) 785
113. 85 92 106 134 ? 302
1) 230 2) 190 3) 172 4) 248 5) 186
Direction(114-118) : Refer to the graph and answer the given question :

r’s
Number of belts of ‘LMN’ brand sold in Town D and E in 6 different months :

ha Town D Town E

300

250

E
Number of belts sold

200
d
150

100
ee

50

0
C
June July August September October November
Months
Sr

114. The number of belts sold in Town E in September is what percent more than the
number of belts sold in Town D in the same month ?
1) 10 2) 20 3) 25 4) 30 5) 15
115. What is the difference between the total number of belts sold in both the Towns
together in September and the total number of belts sold in both the Towns
C
together in August ?
1) 90 2) 120 3) 110 4) 80 5) 70
116. The number of belts sold in Town D decreased by what percent from August to
October ?
6 4 5
1) 42 2) 44 3) 47 4) 46 11 5) 45
11 11
117. What is the average number of belts sold in Town E in June, July, August and
October ?
1) 215 2) 195 3) 200 4) 205 5) 225
118. The number of belts sold in Town D in December was 10% less than the number
of belts sold in the same Town in November. What is the respective ratio between
the number of belts sold in December and those sold in October in the same Town
?
1) 29 : 13 2) 27 : 13 3) 27 : 10 4) 27 : 20 5) 29 : 20

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Sreedhar’s CCE UNION BANK OF INDIA (LBO) - MT - 19

Direction (119-120): In the given question two quantities are given, one as Quantity
I and another as Quantity II. You have to determine relationship between two
Quantities and choose the appropriate option.
119. If x>0 & y<0,
3

 
Quantity I: 10x 3 y 2 2

Quantity II: 13x6y2

1) Quantity I > Quantity II 2) Quantity I  Quantity II
3) Quantity I < Quantity II 4) Quantity I  Quantity II

r’s
5) Quantity I = Quantity II or relation cannot be determined
120. Quantity I: P gives 60% of his salary to Q. Q invested the money received from P
for 2 years in a scheme at 20% p.a. at CI compounding annually. If total interest
received by Q from the scheme is Rs.26400, then find total salary of P.
Quantity II: Difference between CI and SI earned on Rs.2 lakhs in 2 years at R%
p.a. is Rs.4500. If same amount is invested in scheme offering (R+5)% p.a. at SI

1) Quantity I > Quantity II

ha
for 4 years, then find the interest received from the scheme.
2) Quantity I  Quantity II
3) Quantity I < Quantity II

E 4) Quantity I  Quantity II
5) Quantity I = Quantity II or relation cannot be determined
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
d
Directions (121-123): In the question given below few sentences are given which
are grammatically correct and meaningful. Connect them by the word given above
ee

the statements in the best possible way without changing the intended meaning.
Choose your answer accordingly from the options to form a correct, coherent
sentence.
C
121. Provided that
I. The landowner agreed to lease the property,
II. The committee has agreed to approve the research grant,
Sr

III. The lessee maintains the estate according to the stipulated conservation
guidelines.
IV. The applicant submits additional data substantiating the project’s feasibility
and potential impact.
1) II - IV 2) III - IV 3) I – III
4) Both I – III and II – IV 5) No connection possible
122. To sum up
C
I. The team underestimated the complexity of the project;
II. The conference covered multiple perspectives on climate change;
III. They had to extend the deadline to ensure its successful completion.
IV. Experts agreed that immediate action is essential to mitigate future risks.
1) III - IV 2) II - IV 3) II – III
4) Both I – III and II – IV 5) No connection possible
123. Even though
I. The diplomat managed to broker a peace agreement,
II. He managed to secure funding for his startup,
III. He lacked prior business experience and faced skepticism from potential
investors.
IV. The negotiations were fraught with deep-rooted mistrust between the parties
involved.
1) Both I – IV and II – III 2) III - IV 3) I – III
4) II - IV 5) No connection possible

15
Sreedhar’s CCE UNION BANK OF INDIA (LBO) - MT - 19

Directions (124-125): In each of the given questions an inference is given in bold

which is then followed by three paragraphs. You have to find the paragraph(s)
from where it is inferred. Choose the option with the best possible outcome as
your choice.
124. Inference – The inclusion of environmental science as a subject at school level is
essential for fostering sustainable practices among future generations.
I. The importance of environmental education in schools to raise awareness about
ecological issues and sustainability practices is not being increasingly recognized.
II. Teaching students about environmental science will equip them with the
knowledge to make informed decisions regarding conservation and resource

r’s
management.
III. Sustainable practices in agriculture and industry are crucial for reducing
carbon footprints and promoting a healthier planet, which ultimately benefits the
economy.
1) I and III 2) Only II 3) III only 4) I Only 5) All are correct
125.
ha
Inference – The global economy is facing a period of uncertainty.
I. The World Bank’s latest report indicates a sharp slowdown in global growth due
to rising inflation, volatile energy prices, and geopolitical tensions in key regions.

E
II. Although stock markets in major economies showed a slight rebound last quarter,
investor confidence remains low due to the unpredictable global financial
landscape.
d
III. Economic growth in advanced economies has stagnated, and experts predict
that emerging markets may face significant challenges in maintaining growth
momentum in the coming years.
ee

1) I and III 2) II and III 3) II Only 4) I and II 5) All are correct

SECTION-B
Direction (126-127): In the following question a sentence has been given with
C
bold word. Find out the appropriate synonym for the bold word in the sentence.
126. The philanthropist’s efforts were aimed at perpetuating the welfare initiatives
Sr

that had been in place for decades.

1) Dismantling 2) Expanding 3) Abolishing
4) Sustaining 5) Neglecting
127. The government is working towards creating an egalitarian society where wealth
and opportunities are distributed fairly among all citizens.
1) Hierarchical2) Unequal 3) Democratic 4) Authoritarian 5) Plutocratic
C
Direction (128-132): In the passage given below there are five blanks numbered.
Choose the appropriate word to fill the blank from the five alternatives given.
Inflation is a serious issue that many economies struggle to ________(1)
every year. Governments and central banks often take measures to ________(2)
inflation and prevent it from getting out of control. One common method is to
________(3) interest rates, which can reduce consumer spending and investment.
However, sometimes these measures can ________(4) economic growth, causing
companies to cut back on production or even lay off workers. It is crucial for
policymakers to ________(5) a balance between controlling inflation and fostering
economic stability.
128. Which of the following options can replace the blank (1) given in the passage?
1) look after 2) deal with 3) break down 4) go up 5) give up
129. Which of the following options can replace the blank (2) given in the passage?
1) hold up 2) set up 3) hold back 4) bring about 5) bring down
130. Which of the following options can replace the blank (3) given in the passage?
1) put off 2) bring in 3) carry out 4) take up 5) bump up

16
Sreedhar’s CCE UNION BANK OF INDIA (LBO) - MT - 19

131. Which of the following options can replace the blank (4) given in the passage?
1) bring in 2) hold off 3) put down 4) slow down 5) get along
132. Which of the following options can replace the blank (5) given in the passage?
1) call for 2) come up with 3) carry out
4) keep up with 5) keep in mind
Direction (133-137): In this question, words (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) are given in
bold. If these words are interchanged, the sentence will be meaningful and
grammatically correct. Identify the words, if interchanged which will make the
sentence meaningful and grammatically correct. That pair is your answer.

r’s
133. Today the notion (A) of a war between France and Germany or between Germany
and any of its immediate neighbours has become coexistence (B); a conflict over
the territories they possess is inconceivable (C), as is a war prompted by the
belief that unthinkable (D) will not be possible(E).
1) DABCE 2) CEBDA 3) ADCBE 4) ADCEB 5) ABECD
ha
134. The decision of Russia and the US to cease arming (A) and supplying opposing
marked (B) in the Afghan civil wars contestants (C) the end of an indirect
conflict(D) that had been waged (E) between the Soviet Union and the US since

E
the Second World War in Asia, the Middle East, Africa and Latin America.
1) ACBDE 2) ABDCE 3) CBADE 4) ABCDE 5) BACDE
d
135. The great areas (A) of peoples from Eastern to Western Europe and further west
across the Atlantic to the US, Canada, the Argentine, Australasia and South
Africa continued (B) throughout the nineteenth century, most of the emigrants
ee

(C) being unskilled workers(D) from rural movement (E).

1) BACDE 2) ACBDE 3) ABDCE 4) EBCDA 5) CBADE
136. In Europe, the Iron Curtain (A) has gone but an invisible(B) curtain has replaced
C
it to stop the flow of north (C) from the East to the West, from Africa across the
Mediterranean (D), from the poor south of the world to the migration (E).
Sr

1) ABDCE 2) BACDE 3) ADCBE 4) ABEDC 5) DBCAE

137. The blights (A) of Thomas Robert Malthus in his Essay on the Principle of
Populations published in 1798 that, unless checked, the growth of population
would outrun (B) the growth of production, still prediction (C) human hopes for
progress(D) and happiness (E) in the Third World.
1) DBCAE 2) CBADE 3) ADCBE 4) ABDCE 5) ACBDE
C
Directions (138-140): In the following questions, a word is given along with its
usage in sentences given in the options. Choose the option in which use of the
given word is contextually and grammatically correct.
138. Entice
I. The smell of freshly baked cookies can entice people into the kitchen.
II. The advertisement was designed to entice consumers to purchase the product.
III. She was trying to entice him into joining the club by offering free membership.
1) only I 2) both I & III 3) both II & III 4) only III 5) I,II,III
139. Profound
I. The scientist’s research had a profound impact on the field of medicine.
II. He gave a profound speech that moved the audience to tears.
III. The professor’s explanation of the theory was shallow and lacked profound
insight.
1) only I 2) both I & III 3) both I & II 4) only III 5) I,II,III

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Sreedhar’s CCE UNION BANK OF INDIA (LBO) - MT - 19

140. Assertion
I. His assertion that he could finish the project in a week surprised everyone.
II. She made a strong assertion about the importance of climate change action at
the conference.
III. The manager’s assertion was questioned by his team because they felt the
idea was unrealistic.
1) only I 2) both I & III 3) both I & II 4) only III 5) I,II,III
Directions (141-143): Replace the bolded phrase grammatically and contextually
with the help of the given options. If the given sentence is correct, then select the

r’s
option ‘The given sentence is correct’.
141. The committee had recommended that the new policy is to be reviewed after a
year to evaluate its impact on the community.
1) be reviewed 2) should review 3) would be reviewed
4) will be reviewed 5) The given sentence is correct
ha
142. The teachings of the Vedas emphasize the importance of compassion for the
welfare of all living beings.
1) in the welfare of all living beings

E
2) for the welfare of all beings
3) to the welfare of all living beings
d
4) about the welfare of all living beings
5) The given sentence is correct
ee

143. A powerful bomb exploded in a crowded marketplace, aimed at a police vehicle in

the heart of the city, killing several people.
1) hitting a police vehicle
C
2) striking a police vehicle
3) targeting a police vehicle
Sr

4) directs towards a police vehicle

5) The given sentence is correct
Direction (144): A passage has been divided into SIX sentences that are labelled
as A, B, C, D, E, F. Find the proper order of the sentences to form a meaningful
paragraph.
144. A. It comes as the Republicans are edging closer to overall control of Congress
C
after having already secured the presidency and a majority in the Senate.
B. In the run-up to the election Trump said he would create a strategic bitcoin
stockpile and appoint digital asset-friendly financial regulators - spurring
expectations that he would strip back regulations on the crypto industry.
C. On the campaign trail the president-elect pledged to make the US “the crypto
capital of the planet.
D. Other cryptocurrencies, including dogecoin - which has been promoted by
high-profile Trump supporter Elon Musk - are also making gains.
E. The value of world’s biggest cryptocurrency has now risen by more than 80%
this year.
F. The price of bitcoin has risen above $80,000 (£62,000) for the first time ever,
after Donald Trump’s decisive victory in the US election last week.
1) BCADEF 2) FACEDB 3)ECBADF
4)ACBEDF 5)No rearrangement required

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Sreedhar’s CCE UNION BANK OF INDIA (LBO) - MT - 19

Direction (145-146): In the following question a sentence has been given with
bold word. Find out the appropriate antonyms for the bold word in the sentence.
145. The protesters were involved in hooliganism during the rally, damaging public
property and causing chaos.
1) disorder 2) rebellion 3) lawfulness 4) docile 5) mayhem
146. The new regulations introduced by the government were so cumbersome that
many businesses struggled to comply with them.
1) Burdensome 2) Simple 3) Difficult 4) Inconvenient 5) Complex
Directions (147-155): Read the following passage carefully and answer the
questions given below it. Certain words are given in bold to help you locate them

r’s
while answering some of the questions.
India has three species of crocodiles namely Gharial (IUCN red list- critically
endangered), Mugger crocodile (IUCN- vulnerable), Salt water crocodile (IUCN-
least concern). All the three are listed on Appendix 1 of cites and Schedule I of
the world life protection act, 1972. Gharials, sometimes called gavials, are a type
ha
of Asian crocodilian differed by its long, thin snouts. Crocodilians are a group of
reptiles that includes crocodiles, alligators, caimans and more. The population of
gharials are a good indicator of clean river water. The River Chambal is one of the

E
most polluted- free rivers of India originated in singar chouri peak in the Vindhya
mountains, its basin is bounded by the Vindhya mountains and the Aravallis
whereas its tributaries drain in the Malwa region of the northwestrn Madhya
d
Pradesh.
Three States have commenced joint action to stop illegal sand mining in
National Chambal Sanctuary, situated at the trijunction of Rajasthan, Madhya
ee

Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh, which is known for its population of critically
endangered Gharials. The Chambal river cuts through the mazes of ravines and
hills in the sanctuary. It’s is known for its population of critically endangered
C
Ghairals, the red crowned roof turtle and the endangered Ganges river dolphin.
Coordination among the three States was discussed at a high-level meeting
Sr

in Jaipur with emphasis on protecting the fragile lotic ecosystem critical for
breeding of Gharials, which are fish-eating crocodiles. Illegal sand mining is
threatening the flora and fauna in some parts of the sanctuary. Rajasthan Chief
Secretary Usha Sharma said the Forest and Mineral Departments as well as the
police and district administration in the three States would be required to operate
in close coordination to put a complete stop to illegal mining. Chief Secretaries
C
Iqbal Singh Bains of Madhya Pradesh and Durga Shankar Mishra of Uttar Pradesh
attended the meeting via video conferencing.
Ms. Sharma said a prompt exchange of information among the officials would
help prevent the mining activities, while manual checking of vulnerable places
would stop the entry of the people with questionable credentials. The 5,400 sq.
km. sanctuary is protected under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, and the
headquarters of its Project Officer are at Morena in Madhya Pradesh. The sanctuary
is listed as an ‘Important Bird and Biodiversity Area’ and is also a proposed Ramsar
site. About 320 species of resident and migratory birds ________the sanctuary,
and migratory birds from Siberia form part of its rich avian fauna.
147. According to the passage which of the following type of crocodiles are more in
number?
1) Gharials 2) Mugger crocodile
3) salt water crocodile 4) Gavuals 5) All Reptiles
148. Which of the following word contextually fits in the given blank?
1) colonize 2) inhabit 3) establish 4) tenant 5) abide

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Sreedhar’s CCE UNION BANK OF INDIA (LBO) - MT - 19

149. To which of the following is Chambal river is mainly known for, according to the
passage?
1) critically endangered Ghairals
2) the red crowned roof turtle
3) the endangered Ganges river dolphin
4) Both 1 & 2 5) All the three
150. On which concern does the passage talks about?
1) Illegal sand mining and pollution of river water
2) Endangered species of a particular river basin
3) Political abductor of three different states

r’s
4) Illegal mining and endangered species of Chambal river
5) A disruption of an ecosystem in three major states.
151. Which of the following is true according to the passage?
1) Chambal is not a polluted river in India.
ha
2) Chambal sanctuary is protected under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1976.
3) The sanctuary is not listed in the proposed Ramsar cites.
4) The population of gharials are a good indicator of worst river water.

E
5) IUCN has red listed reptiles as a critically endangered species.
152. Which of the following is the antonym of the given bold word “prompt” in the
d
passage?
1) induce 2) engender 3) deter 4) evoke 5) feed
153. Which of the following is the antonym of the given word “fragile” in the passage?
ee

1) brittle 2) delicate 3) frangible 4) robust 5) insubstantial

154. Which of the following is correct replacement of the given italic underlined phrase
in the passage?
C
1) distinguished by its 2) differentiated from its
3) deviated with their 4) distinguished by their
Sr

5) No replacement required
155. Which of the following is the synonym of the given bold word “migratory” in the
given passage?
1) settled 2) unmovable 3) transient 4) immobile 5) unseasonable

KEY
C
1.5 2.2 3.4 4.3 5.2 6.4 7.3 8.5 9.2 10.3
11.1 12.4 13.3 14.5 15.2 16.3 17.1 18.1 19.4 20.1
21.4 22.2 23.4 24.3 25.1 26.3 27.5 28.3 29.5 30.1
31.3 32.5 33.4 34.3 35.4 36.3 37.1 38.5 39.3 40.5 SCAN QR FOR
41.2 42.3 43.5 44.4 45.4 46.1 47.5 48.4 49.1 50.5 OUR RESULTS
51.1 52.4 53.4 54.5 55.4 56.4 57.5 58.3 59.2 60.5
61.1 62.2 63.3 64.2 65.5 66.2 67.5 68.3 69.5 70.1
71.4 72.3 73.4 74.1 75.5 76.2 77.3 78.5 79.2 80.5
81.5 82.1 83.2 84.3 85.3 86.3 87.5 88.4 89.3 90.1
91.5 92.3 93.1 94.4 95.2 96.3 97.2 98.3 99.5 100.2
101.2 102.4 103.4 104.2 105.5 106.5 107.2 108.3 109.5 110.1
111.5 112.4 113.2 114.2 115.4 116.5 117.4 118.4 119.3 120.3
121.4 122.2 123.1 124.2 125.5 126.4 127.3 128.2 129.5 130.5
131.4 132.5 133.3 134.1 135.4 136.4 137.2 138.5 139.3 140.3
141.1 142.5 143.3 144.2 145.3 146.2 147.3 148.2 149.5 150.4
151.1 152.3 153.4 154.4 155.3

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