Bull-CET 01

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Section I: Logical Reasoning

1. In this question are given two statements (A) and (B) . These statements may be either independent causes or may
be effects of independent causes or a common cause. One of these statements may be the effects of either statement. Read
both the statements and decide which of the given answer.
Statement I: A recent study by Harvard has revealed a higher risk for people with excessive television habits of developing
type 2 diabetes, cardiovascular disease and premature death.
Statement II: We should not only promote increasing physical activity levels but also reduce sedentary behaviours, especially
prolonged TV watching. Americans spend an average of five hours in front of the idiot box.
1. Both (I) and (II) are the effects of some common cause. 2. Both the (I) and (II) are independent causes.
3. Both (I) are (II) are effects of independent causes. 4. (II) is the cause and (I) is the effect.
5. (I) is the cause and (II) is the effect .

Directions for Q.2 to 6 : Study the following information to answer the given question
P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are seated in a straight line but not necessarily in the same order. Some of them are facing South
while some are facing North. T faces south. Only three people sit to the left of T. Only two people sit between T and Q. U sits
third to the right of W. W is an immediate neighbour of neither T nor Q. W does not sit at any of the extreme ends of the line.
Both the immediate neighbours of S face north. S is not an immediate neighbour of W. Only one person sits between S and P. P
faces the same direction as W. The immediate neighbours of Q face opposite directions (ie if one neighbour faces north then
the other faces south and vice versa). Persons sitting at extreme ends face opposite directions. R faces a direction opposite that
of S.
2. How many persons are seated between T and P?
1. Four 2. More than four 3. One 4. Three 5. Two

3. Which of the following pairs represents the person seated at the two extreme ends of the line?
1. R, T 2. P, V 3. P, U 4. Q, R 5. R, S

4. Which of the following is true about V with respect to the given arrangement?
1. Only two people sit between V and Q. 2. Only one person sits to the right of V. 3. None of the options is true
4. U is one of the immediate neighbours of V. 5. R sits second to the right of V.

5. Who among the following sits on the immediate left of R?

1. T 2. P 3. W 4. Q 5. S

6. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that
does not belong to that group?
1. R 2. U 3. P 4. W 5. T

7. Read the following information and answer the question.

Statement: A Washington-based news organisation released a report that claims radioactive and toxic waste has been leaking
out of India's oldest and most important uranium mine, affecting people, livestock, rivers, forests and agricultural produce in the
area. Which of the following can be inferred from the given information?
1. The government has closed the mines.
2. Government of India has taken adequate measures to prevent toxic leaks from the site.
3. People living in the area have evacuated the toxic place.
4. Mining has exposed workers and villagers to radiation, heavy metals and other carcinogens, including arsenic.
5. Adequate measures have not been taken to prevent toxic leaks from the site.

Directions for Q.8 to 14 : In this question, a statement is given followed by two sets of conclusions numbers I and II. You have
to assume the statements to be true and then decide the combination of the correct conclusions. Mark your option as :
1. Only conclusion I is true. 2. If only conclusion II is true.
3. Either conclusion I or conclusion II is true. 4. Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true.
5. Both the conclusion I and conclusion II are true.
8. Statement : H ≥ J; L = M; K ≤ L; J ≤ K
Conclusion I : H < K Conclusion II : H > K

9. Statement : H ≥ J; L = M; K ≤ L; J ≤ K
Conclusions I : L ≥ J Conclusions II : L < H
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10. Statement : A < Y = Z ≥ W; Z < P

Conclusions I : P > A Conclusion II : W < P

11. Statement : A > B, B > C, D = E, D > C

Conclusions I : A > C Conclusion II : E > C

12. Which of the following expressions will be true if the given expression ‘A < C ≥ B = D ≤ E’ is definitely true?
1. A ≤ D 2. E = C 3. D > C 4. E < B 5. None of these

13. Which of the following symbols should replace the question mark in the given expression in order to make the expressions
‘M ≤ K’ as well as ‘L > P’ definitely true? K≥L?M>N>P
1. > 2. < 3. ≤ 4. = 5. Either < or ≤

14. In which of the following expression will the expressions ‘H ≤ F’ as well as ‘J > H’ be definitely true?
1. F > G > H ≥ I = J 2. F < G ≤ H < I < J 3. F ≥ G = H ≤ I < J
4. F = G > H > I = J 5. None of these

15. Statement: It has been reported in a recent study that intake of moderate quantity of milk chocolate reduces the risk of
suffering from central nervous system-related illnesses. Which of the following would weaken the findings of the study
reported in the above statement?
1. People generally prefer to eat chocolate when they are young.
2. Majority of those not diagnosed with diseases related to central nervous system have stayed away from eating chocolates in
their lives.
3. Chocolates contain certain elements which strengthen the functions of the central nervous system.
4. Majority of those suffering from central nervous system related diseases are middle-aged.
5. Many of those who suffer from diabetes also suffer from other major ailments.

Directions for Q.16 to 22 : In this questions two/three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II have given. You
have to take the given statement to be true even if they seem to be variance from commonly known facts and then decide
which of the given conclusions logically follow from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts. decide which
of the conclusions logically follow.
Mark your answer as : 1. If only conclusion I follows 2. If only conclusion II follows
3. If either conclusion I or II follows 4. If neither conclusion I or II follows 5. If both conclusion I or II follow
16. Statement : All scientists are hardworking. No hardworking man is poor.
Conclusion I : No scientist is poor. Conclusion II : No poor man is a scientist.

17. Statements : Some actors are singers. All the singers are dancers.
Conclusion I : Some actors are dancers. Conclusion II : No singer is actor.

18. Statements : All the harmoniums are instruments. All the instruments are flutes.
Conclusion I : All the flutes are instruments. Conclusion II : All the harmoniums are flutes.

19 Statement : Some mangoes are yellow. Some tixo are mangoes.

Conclusion I : Some mangoes are green. Conclusion II : Tixo is a yellow.

20 . Statements : No door is dog. All the dogs are cats.

Conclusions : I : No door is cat. II : No cat is door. III : Some cats are dogs. IV : All the cats are dogs
1. Only (II) and (IV) 2.Only (I) and (III 3.Only (III) and (IV) 4.Only (III 5. All the four

21. Statements : All green are blue. All blue are white.
Conclusions : I : Some blue are green. II : Some white are green.
III : Some green are not white. IV : All white are blue.
1.Only (I) and (II) 2.Only (I) and (III) 3.Only (I) and (IV) 4.Only (II) and (IV) 5.N.O.T.
22. Statements : All men are vertebrates. Some mammals are vertebrates.
Conclusions : I : All men are mammals. II : All mammals are men.
III : Some vertebrates are mammals. IV : All vertebrates are men.
1.Only (IV) 2. Only (II) 3. Only (III) 4. Only (I) 5. Only (I) and (III)
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23. If G is the daughter of H, H is the son of T, B is the sister of T and P is married to H, then which of the following statements is
definitely true?
1. P is the mother of G 2. H is the son of B 3. G is the only child of her parents
4. T has no brother 5. T is the father-in-law of P

Directions for Q.24-28 : Study the given information and answer the question.
When a word and number arrangement machine is given an input line of words and numbers, it arrange them
following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement. (All the numbers are two digit
numbers.)
Input : news 56 72 world 24 68 time moon sun 48 36 in are 62 the 78
Step 1 : news 56 72 sun moon 68 time 24 world 48 36 in are 62 the 78
Step 2 : news 56 72 sun moon 68 36 24 world time 48 in are 62 the 78
Step 3 : news 56 72 sun moon 48 36 24 world time the in are 62 68 78
Step 4 : news moon 72 in 56 48 36 24 world time the sun are 62 68 78
Step 5 : are moon 72 62 56 48 36 24 world time the sun news in 68 78
Step 6 : are in 68 62 56 48 36 24 world time the sun news moon in 78
Step 7 : are 72 68 62 56 48 36 24 world time the sun news moon in 78
Step 8 : 78 72 68 62 56 48 36 24 world time the sun news moon in are
Step 8 is the last step of the given input.
As per the rules followed in the given steps , find out the appropriate steps for the given input
Input : gain loss 54 win are 77 26 68 three parts life 84 32 38 of 42
24. Which step number is the following output? ‘gain loss 54 life 42 38 32 26 win three parts of 77 84 68 are’
1. Step 4 2. Step 5 3. Step 3 4. Step 6 5. There is no such step

25. Which word/number would be at the fourth position from the left end in step 4 ?
1. 42 2. Life 3. 54 4. Parts 5. None of these

26. Which of the following represents the position of ‘77’ in step 6 ?

1. 3rd from the right 2. 2nd from the left 3. 3rd from the left 4. 2nd from the right 5. 4th from the left

27. In step 5 if ‘three’ is related to ‘38’ and ’26 is related to ‘of’ in a certain way, which of the following would ‘life’ be related to
in the same pattern ?
1. 32 2. 26 3. 84 4. Win 5. 42

28. How many elements are there between ‘win’ and ‘77’ as they appear in the third last step of the output ?
1. Two 2. Seven 3. Five 4. Three 5. Four

Directions for Q.29-35 : Study the following information carefully and answer the given question.
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre. Each of them has a different profession, viz
doctor, engineer, architect, pilot, banker, teacher, businessman and politician. The politician sits third to the right of G. C is an
immediate neighbour of G. The architect sits second to the right of C. B sits third to the right of H. H is neither a politician nor
an architect. Only one person sits between C and the teacher. A and F are immediate neighbours of each other. Neither A nor F
is a politician. The doctor sits second to the right of A. Two people sit between D and the engineer. D is not a politician. The
pilot is not an immediate neighbour of the politician. The banker sits second to the left of A.

29. Who amongst the following is a businessman?

1. A 2. H 3. C 4. F 5. D

30. What is the position of F with respect to the politician?

1. Immediate right 2. Third to the left 3. Second to the right 4. Fourth to the left 5. Second to the left

31. Who sit (s) exactly between the teacher and the engineer?
1. C and H 2. Only the politician 3. Only the doctor 4. C and B 5. The architect and the banker
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32. Which of the following is true with respect to the given seating arrangement?
1. D is an immediate neighbour of G
2. G is a banker
3. The banker and the teacher are immediate neighbours of each other
4. The pilot sits exactly between the architect and the businessman.
5. The doctor sits second to the right of the businessman.

33. What is the profession of G?

1. Businessman 2. Pilot 3. Banker 4. Teacher 5. Architect

34. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given seating arrangement and thus form a group. Which is
the one that does not belong to that group?
1. G-Doctor 2. E-Architect 3. H-Businessman 4. E- Politician 5. D-Pilot

35. What is the profession of E ?

1. Businessman 2. Architect 3. Banker 4. Politician 5. Engineer

Directions for Q.36-42 : Study the given information carefully and answer the given question.
Eight people work in different banks, viz ICICI Bank, Syndicate Bank, Canara Bank, PNB, Dena Bank, Oriental Bank of
Commerce, Indian Bank and Bank of Maharashtra, are sitting of two parallel rows containing four people each, in such a way
that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row 1 Ranjan, Sakshi, Chandani and Kirti are seated and all of them
are facing south. In row 2 Umesh, Mahesh, Rakesh and Kapil are seated and all of them are facing north.
Chandani sits second to right of the person from Bank of Maharashtra. Rakesh is an immediate neighbour of the person who
faces the person from Bank of Maharashtra. Only one person sits between Rakesh and the person from PNB. The immediate
neighbour of the person from PNB faces the person from Canara Bank. The person from ICICI bank faces the person from
oriental Bank of Commerce. Rakesh is not from Oriental Bank of Commerce. Umesh is not from PNB. Umesh does not face
the person from Bank of Maharashtra. Mahesh faces the person from Dena Bank. The one who faces Kapil sits to the
immediate left of Ranjan. Sakshi does not sit at any of the extreme ends of the line. The person form Bank of Maharashtra does
not face the person from Syndicate Bank.
36. Which of the following is true regarding Ranjan?
1. The person from ICICI Bank faces Ranjan . 2. Ranjan faces the person who sits second to the right of Rakesh.
3. The person from Bank of Maharashtra is an immediate neighbour of Ranjan.
4. Ranjan is from Oriental Bank of Commerce. 5. Ranjan sits at one of the extreme ends of the line.

37. Who is seated between Rakesh and the person from PNB?
1. The person form Oriental Bank of Commerce 2. Umesh 3. Mahesh
4. The person from Syndicate Bank 5. Kapil

38. Who amongst the following sit at extreme ends of the rows?
1. Kirti and the person from PNB 2. The persons from Indian Bank and ICICI Bank
3. The person from Dena Bank and Umesh 4. The person from Syndicate Bank and Kirti
5. Chandani, Mahesh

39. Who amongst the following faces the person from Bank of Maharashtra?
1. The person form Indian Bank 2. Umesh 3. Rakesh
4. The persons form Syndicate Bank and Kirti 5. The person from Canara Bank

40. If Umesh is related to Dena Bank in the same way as Sakshi is related to PNB based on the given arrangement. Who amongst
the following is Kirti related to, following the same pattern?
1. Syndicate Bank 2. Canara Bank 3. Bank of Maharashtra 4. Indian Bank 5. Oriental Bank of Commerce

41. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given seating arrangement and thus form a group. Which is
the one that does not belong to the group?
1. Canara Bank 2. Rakesh 3. Syndicate Bank 4. Mahesh 5.Oriental Bank of Commerce

42. Who amongst the following is from Syndicate Bank?

1. Chandani 2. Rakesh 3. Umesh 4. Kirti 5. Ranjan
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Directions for Q.43-44 : Study the given information carefully to answer the given question.
43. The door of Purva’s house faces East. From the back side of the house, she walks straight 50 metres, then turns to the right and
walks 50 metres again. Finally she turns towards the left and stops after walking 25 metres. Now she is in which direction from
the starting point ?
1. North-west 2. East 3. South- East 4. South 5. North- East

44. Mehul travelled 6 ft towards west, he turned left and walked 8 ft, then he turned left and walked 4 ft, then turned left and
walked 8 ft again. How far and in which direction is Mehul’s final position with respect to the starting point ?
1. 8 ft north 2. 2 ft west 3. 6 ft south 4. 2 ft south 5. 3ft south

Directions for Q.45-51 : Read the following information and answer the question.
Seven books, namely M, N, O, P, Q, R and S were released on seven different days of the same week starting from
Monday to Sunday (but not necessarily in the same order). Each book was released by a different author namely- Amish,
Sheldon, Bhagat, Sachin, Haley, Vapu and Chetan (but not necessarily in the same order).
Book P was released on one of the days after Friday. Only three books were released between P and the one released by Sachin.
Only one book was released between S and the one released by Sachin. S was not released on Friday. The book released by
Bhagat was released on the day immediately after S was released . Only two books were released between M and the one
released by Bhagat. The book authored in Amish was released on one of the days before M. S was not authored by Amish.
Q was released by Haley but not on Sunday. Only three books were released between N and the one released by Haley. The
book released by Sheldon was released on the day immediately after the book authored by Chetan. O was not released on
Monday.
45. Who is the author of R?
1. Sheldon 2. Chetan 3. Vapu 4. Amish 5. Other than those given as options

46. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way as per the given arrangement and hence form a group. Which of the
following does not belong to that group?
1. Tuesday-R 2. Sunday- P 3. Wednesday –O 4. Monday-M 5. Saturday- N

47. Which of the following combinations is correct as per the given arrangement?
1. Tuesday-N-Bhagat 2. Monday-N- Chetan 3.Saturday-Q-Haley 4. Thursday-S-Vapu 5. None of these

48. Which of the following pairs represent the books which was released immediately before and immediately after S?
1. R, N 2. Q, O 3. O, R 4. N, P 5. M, Q

49. As per the given arrangement, N is related to Friday and Q is related to Monday in a certain way. To which of the following is
P related to in the same way?
1. Sunday 2. Saturday 3. Thursday 4. Wednesday 5. Tuesday

50. On which of th following days was N released?

1. Friday 2. Monday 3.Thursday 4. Tuesday 5. Sunday

51. Which of the given statements is TRUE as per the given arrangement?
1. R was released on Wednesday 2. S was released by Chetan 3. Only two books were released after M
4. Only two books were released between P and Q 5. None of the given statements is true

Directions for Q.52 : Read the given information and answer the given question.
Statement: Company XYZ is hiring every year students from college D, however since past two years managers of company
are not happy with the students of college D as they resign from within a few months of employment for better salaries.
Which of the following can be a course of action by HR managers?
1. The pay package for college D students should be revised and retention bonus be given on completion of one year.
2. College D must be blacklisted and no students be recruited.
3. Management of college D should be informed about the situation and asked to talk to students joining XYZ.
4. Recruits of college D must be asked to sign a bond to stay with company for minimum 5 years
5. Immediately salary of college D recruits be hiked by an appropriate percentage.
53. In a joint family, Amrit is the son of Raman. Sarita, Raman’s sister has a son Sanchay and a daughter Reena. Rajan is the
maternal uncle of Sanchay. How is Amrit related to Sanchay ?
1. Brother 2. Brother-in-law 3. Nephew 4. Cousin 5. Cannot be determined
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54. Statement: After providing LPG in easy-to-carry 5-kg cylinders, the government launched 2-kg bottles of LPG at local kirana
stores and introduced online booking of new connections for subsidised cooking fuel. Which of the following can be concluded
from the above statement?
1. Online booking will end hassles of customers running to gas agencies for getting a new LPG connection.
2. The 2-kg cylinder will cater to the LPG requirements for all sections of society, including economically weaker families.
3. The online booking will help the customers get new cylinders delivered quickly.
4. The scheme will be particularly benefit the rural people and poor who cannot afford the price of a earlier options.
5. All of the above

Directions for Q.55-59 : Study the given information carefully to answer the given question.
55. In a code language ‘pla te lo’ means ‘Children like playing’; ‘te wo de’ means ‘Children hate studying’ and ‘fa al lo’ means
‘All like flowers’. So which word stands for ‘hate’ in that language ?
1. de 2. wo 3. fa 4. Data inadequate 5. None of these

56. In a code language 'sky is clear' is written as 'de ra fa' and 'make it clear' is written as 'de ga jo'. So which word stands for ‘sky’
in the given code language?
1. de 2. ra 3. ga 4. Cannot be determined 5. None of these

57. In a certain code, TRIPPLE is written as SQHOOKD. How is DISPOSE written in that code ?
1. CHRONRD 2. DSOESPI 3. ESJTPTF 4. ESOPSID 5. None of these

58. If in a code language, COULD is written as IDQXP and MARGIN is written as TNCUKN, how will MOULDING be written in
that code ?
1. SHMFINTK 2. LNKTCHMF 3. ONQXPIOU 4. NITKHCMF 5. None of these

59. If ‘tee see pee’ means ‘drink fruit juice’; ‘see kee lee’ means ‘juice is sweet’ and ‘lee ree mee’ means ‘he is intelligent’, which
word in that language means ‘sweet’?
1. see 2. kee 3. lee 4. pee 5. None of these

60. There are six persons in a family A, B, C, D, E and F. C is the sister of F. B is the brother of E’s husband. D is the father of A
and paternal grandfather of F. How is D related to C ?
1. Father 2. Uncle 3. Grandfather 4. Brother 5. None of these

61. Statement: In a bid to secure airports the civil aviation ministry has decided to cut down the number of airport entry passes
(AEPs) being provided to the staff of Union Ministers and MPs. Which of the following can be inferred from the given
information?
1. No follower of any minister will be issued pass at the airport. 2. The airport will be less crowded.
3. Ministers and MPs will be to travel alone at the airports.
4. The sale of visitor tickets will be stopped at all the airports. 5. Airport security will be strengthened.

62. Statement: In a move to strengthen public transport in the Capital, ahead of the implementation of the odd-even vehicle
scheme, Delhi government has decided to issue permits to 10,000 new auto rickshaws by the end of December. Which of the
following statements would best support the decision taken by the Delhi government?
1. New auto rickshaws will cause congestion on the road. 2. Pollution in the city will not be controlled.
3. Most of the people will use public transport in the city. 4. Delhi has the lowest pollution from auto rickshaws among metros
5. People do not use public transport for lack of last-mile connectivity.

Directions for Q.63 to 67: Study the given information and answer the question.
Nine people- A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and I live on nine different floors of a building but not necessarily in the same
order. The lowermost floor of the building is numbered one, the floor above that is numbered two and so on till the
topmost floor is numbered nine. E lives on floor numbered seven. Only one person lives between E and I. Only three people
live between I and B. D lives on even numbered floor immediately above F. F does not live on the lowermost floor.
A lives immediately below H. C lives on an even numbered floor but not numbered six. Only three people live between
C and G.
63. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given arrangement and hence form a group.
Which of the following does not belong to that group?
1. AE 2. GA 3. FI 4. DC 5. FB
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64. Which of following statements true regarding G?

1. G lives on a floor immediately below E. 2. G lives on an odd numbered floor.
3. G lives on a floor immediately above H 4. Only three people live between G and A
5. None of the given statements are true.

65. Who amongst the following lives on a floor immediately above as well as immediately below I?
1. A,D 2. F,G 3. G,D 4. C,F 5. H,C

66. If in the given arrangement A interchanges its position with D and B interchanges its position with G then who
amongst the following will live on a floor exactly between D and B?
1. E 2. C 3. A 4. I 5. G

67. Who amongst the following lives on the floor numbered three?
1. G 2. H 3. A 4. B 5. F

68. Read the following information carefully and answer the question which follows:
The cost of producing radios in Country Q is ten percent less than the cost of producing radios in Country Y. Even after
transportation fees and tariff charges are added, it is still cheaper for a company to import radios from Country Q to Country Y
than to produce radios in Country Y. The statements, if true, best support which of the following assertions?
1. Labour costs in Country Q are ten percent below those in Country Y.
2. Importing radios from Country Q to Country Y will eliminate ten percent of the manufacturing jobs in Country Y.
3. The tariff on a radio imported from Country Q to Country Y is less than ten percent of the cost of manufacturing the radio in
Country Y.
4. The fee for transporting a radio from Country Q to Country Y is more than ten percent of the cost of manufacturing the radio
in Country Q.
5. It takes ten percent less time to manufacture a radio in Country Q than it does in Country Y.

Directions Q.69-75: These questions consist of a question and two statements numbered I and II given it. You have to
decide whether the data given in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Mark your option as :
1. If statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question. 2. If statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
3. If either statement I alone or statement II alone is sufficient. 4. If both the statements together are not sufficient.
5. If the data in both statements I and II together is necessary to answer the question.
69. D, E, F, G, and H are sitting in a circle. Are all of them facing the centre ?
I. D is sitting second to the left of G. H is facing centre and is not an immediate neighbour of G.
II. F is sitting second to the right of E. E is sitting second to the left of D.

70. How many floors are there in the building (including the ground floor) ?
I. The area in which the building stands has a rule that no building can have more than six floors (including the ground floor).
II. Three families reside in the building. No two families live immediately above or immediately below each other.

71. Which direction is Sunny facing?

I. If Sunny turns 90 º to his left, he will be facing north - west.
II. If Sunny turns 45 º to his right he will be facing a direction that is exactly opposite to that of Sunil.

72. How is B related to E ?

I. R is the mother of B and E is the husband of R. II. R has only one daughter who is J.

73. Among J, K, L, M and N, each having different age, who is the youngest ?
I. J is younger than N but elder to K. II. L is younger than M but elder to K.

74. In which month of the year was the exam held ?

I. Suzan correctly remembers that the exam was held before July but after March.
II. Geeta correctly remembers that the exam was held before June but after February.

75. What is K’s position from the left end of a row of thirty children ?
I. D is tenth from the right end of the row and there are five children between D and K.
II. There are nine children between K and M.
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Section : Quantitative Aptitude.

76. The radius of a circle is twice the side of a square of area 196 sq. cm. Length of a rectangle is twice diameter of the circle. What
is the perimeter of the rectangle if the its breadth is half the length of the rectangle ?
1. 244 cm 2. 168 cm 3. 336 cm 4. 450 cm 5. None of these

77. The cost of 4 fans and 3 blowers is ` 16500. Also cost of 2 fans, 2 tables and 2 blowers is ` 12000. Cost of one table is ` 1000.
What is the cost of 3 fans and 1 blower ?
1. ` 8000 2. `7500 3. ` 8500 4. ` 9000 5. None of these

78. Train-A crosses a pole in 33 seconds and train-B crosses a pole in 55 seconds. Length of train-A is three-fourth of train-B.
What is the ratio between the speed of train-A and train-B ?
1. 5 : 11 2. 5 : 4 3. 11 : 3 4. 3 : 5 5. None of these

79. Sunil scored 54 % marks in a test. Ravi scored 450 marks in the same test which is 300 less than Sonu. Sunil’s score is 60 more
than Sonu. If Ram scored 900 marks in the test, what is Ram’s percentage ?
1. 80 2. 65 3. 75 4. 60 5. None of these

80. A vendor sells calculators at the rate of `250 each and earns a commission of 20 % on each. He also sells pens at the rate of `50
each and earns a commission of 10 % on each. How much amount of commission will he earn in three days if he sells 10
calculators and 5 pens a day ?
1. `1575 2. `1445 3. `1550 4. `1450 5. None of these

81. The sum of seven consecutive even numbers of a set is 532. What is the average of first four consecutive even numbers of the
same set ?
1. 76 2. 75 3. 74 4. 73 5. None of these

82. The simple interest accrued on a sum of certain principal `6400 in four years at the rate of 8 % p.a. What would be the
compound interest accrued on that principal at the rate of 2 % p.a. in 2 years ?
1. `800 2. `808 3. `704 4. `700 5. None of these
83. A boat running upstream covers a distance of 10 km in 30 minutes and while running downstream with same speed it covers the
same distance in 25 minutes. What is the speed of the river current in kmph ?
1. 20 2. 2.2 3. 2 4. 0.2 5. None of these

84. A alone can complete a piece of work in 12 days and B alone can complete the same piece of work in 24 days. In how may
days can A and B together complete the same piece of work?
1. 6 days 2. 4 days 3. 10 days 4. 9 days 5. None of these

85. Shalini and Nalini invested `8000 each and started a business. After one year, Shalini invests an additional amount of `2000
and Nalini withdraws `3000. At the end of two years they earn a profit of ` 93000. What will be Nalini’s share in the profit ?
1. `39000 2. `54000 3. `52000 4. `36000 5. None of these

86. If 70 % of a number is equal to three-fifth of another number, what is the ratio between the first number and the second number
respectively ?
1. 7 : 6 2. 6 : 7 3. 3 : 7 4. 7 : 3 5. None of these

87. Salary of Mr. X is 80 % of the salary of Mr. Y. Salary of Mr. Z is 120 % of the salary of Mr. X. What is the ratio of salaries of
Mr. X, Y and Z respectively ?
1. 4 : 6 : 5 2. 4 : 5 : 6 3. 20 : 25 : 24 4. 16 : 24 : 25 5. 16 : 25 : 24

88. Average age of 36 children of the class is 15 years. 12 more children joined whose average age is 16 years. What is the average
age of all the children together ?
1. 15.25 years 2. 15.5 years 3. 15.3 years 4. 15.4 years 5. None of these
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89. The profit earned by selling an article for `1450 is same as the loss incurred by selling the article for `1280. What is the cost
price of the article?
1. ` 1385 2. `1405 3. `1355 4. `1365 5. None of these

90. What would be the simple interest obtained on an amount of `11975 at the rate of 8 p.c.p.a. ?
1. ` 4704 2. `5705 3. `6706 4. `7707 5. None of these

91. What is the area of the circle whose circumference is 176 cm ?

1. 2464 cm2 2. 2608 cm2 3. 2572 cm2 4. 2824 cm2 5. None of these

92. If the length and width of a rectangular garden plot were each increased by 20 % then what would be the percent increase in the
area of the plot ?
1. 20 % 2. 44 % 3. 36 % 4. 40 % 5. None of these

93. A bag contains 10 white and 15 black balls. Two balls are drawn in succession without replacement. What is the probability
that first is white and second is black?
1. 1/3 2.1/4 3. 1/5 4. 1/6 5. None of these

94. How many four digit numbers can be formed using the digits 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 if repetition of digits is not allowed ?
1. 300 2. 400 3. 120 4. 360 5. None of these

95. A vessel is fully filled with milk. Four litres of milk is drawn out of this vessel and is replaced with water. If the ratio of milk to
water becomes 1 : 2 then what is the capacity of the vessel ?
1. 10 litres 2. 6 litres 3. 8 litres 4. 14 litres 5. None of these

96. Two pipes can fill a tank in 10 hours and 12 hours respectively, while the third can empty it in 20 hours. The tank will be filled
in how many hours ?
1. 7 ½ hours 2. 8 hours 3. 9 hours 4. 11 hours 5. None of these

97. A passenger train takes two hours less for a journey of 300 km if its speed is increased by 5 km/hr from its normal speed. What
is the normal speed of the train ?
1. 40 km/hr 2. 50 km/hr 3. 25 km/hr 4. 30 km/hr 5. None of these

98. A can do a piece of work in 10 days while B alone can do it in 15 days. They work together for 5 days and rest of the work is
done by C in 2 days. If they get ` 450 for the whole work, what amount does A, B and C get respectively ?
1. `250, 100, 100 2. `175, 175, 100 3. `200, 150, 100 4. `225, 175, 50 5. `225, 150, 75

99. A shopkeeper sells an article at 5 % profit. If he had bought it at 5% less and sold it for Rs. 1 less, he would have gained 10 %.
What is the cost price of the article ?
1. `150 2. `300 3. `250 4. `200 5. None of these

100. Each member of a club has contributed `10 more than 3 times the number of the members. If the total contribution is `3000,
what is the number of members ?
1. 10 2. 30 3. 20 4. 50 5. None of these

101. A wholesale merchant sells 12 articles to a retail merchant at the price of 9 articles. If the retail merchant sells them at their
marked price, what is his profit percentage ?
1. 33 1/3 % 2. 11 1/9 % 3. 9 1/11 % 4. 16 2/3 % 5. None of these

102. Tickets numbered 1 to 20 are mixed up and then a ticket is drawn at random. What is the probability that the ticket drawn has a
number which is a multiple of 3 or 5?
1. 1/2 2. 2/5 3. 8/15 4. 9/20 5. None of these

103. A box contains 4 red, 3 white and 2 blue balls. Three balls are drawn at random. Find out the number of ways of selecting the
balls of different colours?
1. 12 2. 24 3. 48 4. 62 5. None of these
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104. Find the odd man out : 5, 11, 19, 29, 40, 55, 71, 89
1. 11 2. 55 3. 40 4. 71 5. None of these

105. What is the sum of the first 50 terms of the series 80, 85, 90, 95, 100,...... ?
1. 10125 2. 4000 3. 81250 4. 10250 5. None of these

Directions Q. 106 to 110 : The following graph shows the percentage breakup of the employee strength of Omega Ltd.
For four years. Refer to the graph and answer the questions.

100%
80%
Unskilled
60%
Semi-skilled
40%
Engineers
20%
MBAs
0%
1990 1991 1992 1993

106. Which category has shown a continuous increase in its percentage share over the four years ?
1. MBAs 2. Unskilled labour 3. Semiskilled labour 4. Engineers 5. None of these

107. Which category has shown a continuous decline in its percentage share over the four years ?
1. MBAs 2. Semi-skilled
skilled labour 3. Unskilled labour 4. Engineers 5. None of these

108. If the total number of Engineers in 1992 were 60, then by how much did the total number of MBAs exceed the number of
Unskilled labour ?
1. 120 2. 30 3. 60 4. 90 5. None of these

109. If the total employee strength in 1990 was 500 and it increases by 100 persons per year, then what is the maximum difference
between the strengths of any two categories in 1993 ?
1. 262 2. 140 3. 210 4. 280 5. None of these

110. If the employee cost for the four categories MBAs, Engineers, Semi-skilled
Semi skilled and Unskilled are respectively 5 : 3 : 2 : 1 per
employee, then what is the ratio of the total employee costs in 1993 for the four categories ?
1. 100 : 30 : 90 : 20 2. 20 : 6 : 18 : 5 3. 40 : 12 : 18 : 10 4. Can’t be determined 5. None of these

Directions Q. 111 to 115 : Read the following information and answer the questions that follow.
Out of 800 tourists who visited Agra, 60 % visited the Taj Mahal. Number of tourists who visited all the three places were 1/3rd
of those went to went to see the Taj Mahal. Tourists who visited only the Red Fort were equal to the total of those who visited
visit
the Taj Mahal and either Red Fort or Fatehpur Sikri, but not both.
both. Also the number of tourists visiting Red Fort and Fatehpur
Sikri are same. The number of tourists visiting only Fatehpur Sikri and only Taj Mahal were 140 and 190 respectively. (Assume
that each tourist visits atleast one place.)
111. How many tourists visited the Red Fort ?
1. 480 2. 410 3. 130 4. 140 5. None of these

112. How many tourists visited only one of the three places ?
1. 270 2. 330 3. 460 4. 410 5. None of these

113. How many tourists visited at least at least one of the Red Fort or Fatehpur Sikri ?
1. 610 2. 670 3. 600 4. 640 5. None of these

114. How many tourists have visited Taj Mahal and Fatehpur Sikri but not Red Fort ?
1. 60 2. 220 3. 70 4. 50 5. None of these
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115. How many tourists visited at least two places ?

1. 340 2. 160 3. 180 4. 240 5. None of these

Directions Q. 116 to 120 : The breakup of the percentage of revenue earned by the Times Group, through advertising by
the Times of India (inner circle) and Indiatimes.com (outer circle) in the year 2016 is as shown in the figure given below.
The total revenue earned by Times of India
In is `300 crores and by Indiatimes.com is `200 crores. Refer to the following
pie chart to answer the questions that follow.

Utilities Others
20% 15%

Others Others
Food
Utilities 12% 10% Food
25% Food
Apparel 18% Durables
15%
Durables Apparel
Apparel 30%
20% Utilities
Durables
35%

116. What is the total revenue earned from Food advertising by the Times Group ?
1. `. 54 crores 2. ` 74 crores 3. `20 crores 4. ` 140 crores 5. None of these

117. Which is greater and by how much : Earnings from Durables by Indiatimes.com or Earnings from Durables by the Times of
India ?
1. Indiatimes.com, ` 12 crores 2. Indiatimes.com, ` 10 crores 3. TOI, `20 crores
4. TOI, `15 crores 5. TOI, ` 5 crores

118. Which product apart from Durables earned a revenue of more than `100
100 crores for the Times Group ?
1. Food 2. Apparels 3. Utilities 4. Others 5. None of these

119. By 2017, the Times Group targets a revenue increase of 100 % and Indiatimes.com, an increase of 10 %. What will be the
money earned by The Times of India by advertising for the ‘Others’ category, if the percentage breakup of categories remains
the same ?
1. ` 126.6 crores 2. `120 crores 3. `68.4 crores 4. `93.6 crores 5. None of these

120. If the total revenue generated by The Times of India and Indiatimes.com is interchanged, then what will be the revenue earned
from Apparel by The Times of India ?
1. `30 crores 2. `45 crores 3. `35 crores 4. `37.5 crores 5. None of these

Directions Q. 121 to 125 : The following bar graph shows the percentage of students passing in various standards in a school.

Percentage of students passing in various standards

100
80
Percentage

60
40 Boys
20 Girls
0
5th 6th 7th 8th 9th 10th
Class
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121. If the number of boys and girls who passed in standard 5th are the same, then what is the ratio between the number of boys and
the number of girls in standard 5th ?
1. 4 : 3 2. 3 : 4 3. 3 : 8 4. 8 : 3 5. None of these

122. If the overall pass percentage in standard 7th is 46, and the total number of boys is 200, hen what is the total number of girls ?
1. 56 2. 66 3. 86 4. 106 5. None of these

123. If the total number of boys in each standard is 150 and the number of girls is 120, then what is the overall pass percentage of the
school ?
1. 56 2. 66 3. 86 4. 106 5. None of these

124. If the ratio between the number of boys and the number of girls in standard 9th is 4 : 1, then what is the ratio between the
number of boys passed and number of girls passed ?
1. 5 : 11 2. 7 : 2 3. 11 : 5 4. 11 : 2 5. None of these

125. If the total number of boys in each standard is 150 and the number of girls is 120, and the overall average marks of boys is 50
% and that of girls is 60 %, then what is the average marks of the students in the school ?
1. 54.56 % 2. 64.35 % 3. 47.85 % 4. 58.32 % 5. None of these

Section : English

Directions for Q. 126 to 131 : Read the following passage to answer the given questions.

Health insurance policies were first introduced in 1986 at a time when the Indian insurance industry was nationalised. The policies
on offer were complicated to read and offered limited cover. There were no third party administrators operating in India, and there
was no direct settlement of claims between the health Insurer and the hospital. There were therefore, issues concerning claims
servicing, which involved an Insured following cumbersome procedures to get claims authenticated and paid. The business was not
profitable for the nationalised Insurers, and not popular with the public at large.
The original ‘Mediclaim Policy’, however, developed and in many cases has provided the base model for the health care insurance
policies that were introduced immediately after liberalisation of the general insurance sector at the turn of the Millennium.Health
insurance, however, saw no specialist players until relatively recently. This is because there was a general expectation that the
insurance industry regulator, the IRDA, would set a smaller capitalisation requirement for health insurers and/or amend the rules for
foreign equity ownership in Indian Insurers in recognition of the fact that health insurance loss ratios were not good, and therefore
finding an Indian partner to invest 76% in a health insurer would be a difficult task.
The IRDA did not, however, relax either the capitalisation requirements or foreign investments caps. Initially, therefore, the health
insurance market did not grow as quickly as may have been expected.
Growth in policyholder numbers, more effective third party administration and an effective network of hospitals is expected to see
the numbers improve. Other changes have been effected to encourage growth in this sector. Life insurers have been allowed to sell
health insurance. Initially, life insurers were only allowed to sell certain types of health covers as a supplement to a life policy.
However, the (IRDA) has allowed life insurers to sell pure health insurance products subject to product specific approvals. The
standard mediclaim policy has undergone several revisions and modifications. In recent years, private health insurers have been
offering fresh products with increased covers and sums insured. The expenses of health care in India are growing. Private hospital
rates are still low compared to the rates charged in more developed countries, but high when compared to average Indian earnings. It
is no longer uncommon for Indian employees to now expect that health care will be part of an employment package. With the
opening up of the market to private competition, the claims process has become much less cumbersome.
Support for a health insurance market has also come from some less obvious sources. Indian states have started relying on insurance
policies to meet some of their legal obligations to provide health care to their citizens. The central government has also proposed the
introduction of free health care insurance for the poor. This plan is meant to cover every poor family for INR30,000 per annum. The
central government will pay 75% of the premium, leaving the remaining 25% to be covered by state governments. The IRDA has
also encouraged Micro-insurance as a means of extending the availability of health insurance to areas of the market that,
geographically and economically, may not have been at the forefront of Insurers’ business plans.
At the same time as the market grows, the IRDA and the Courts are stepping in to create a more consumer friendly playing field,
particularly as regards the treatment of senior citizens; the operation of the pre-existing diseases exclusion, and the reluctance of
insurers to renew policies where the claims experience has been bad. Senior citizens had been complaining about the reluctance of
Insurers to issue policies to them, and the inclusion of disadvantageous terms when policies were offered – such as hefty increases
in premium rates, added exclusions and conditions, etc. In May 2007, the IRDA set up a Committee on Health Insurance for Senior
Citizens to make recommendations. The Committee reported in November 2007 and made the following main recommendations:
Senior Citizens should have some assurance that their policies will be renewed. The Industry should adopt standard terms and
conditions, such as for the definition of pre-existing diseases. The Committee also said that policy wordings should be simpler for
the lay person to follow, suggesting that uniform terminology be used by all Insurers to lessen confusion in the public mind.
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126. Which of the following is/are the reason/s because of which the health insurance industry has witnessed growth ?
A. The format of the policy has been improvised since its inception.
B. Organisations provide health insurance cover to their employees as part of their remuneration process.
C. The process of settlement of claims has become less troublesome as compared to the time when it was first introduced.
1. Only B 2. A and C 3. Only C 4. B and C 5. All A, B and C

127. What step has the Central Government taken in terms of insurance for the poor ?
1. The poor will have access to free heath care insurance, the payment of premium for which will be shouldered by the central
and state government in the ratio of 3:1.
2. The poor belonging to a particular region will get group health care insurance cover of INR 30,000 per annum.
3. The poor will be insured for a sum of INR 45,000 per annum
4. The central government will pay the whole premium. 5. None of these

128. Which of the following is possibly the most appropriate title for the passage ?
1. IRDA and its functioning 2. The Indian Health Insurance Industry – The Gradual Change
3. Health Insurance Vs Life Insurance 4. Challenges faced by the IRDA
5. The Downfall of the Health Insurance Industry in India

129. What was the plight of senior citizens with respect to buying insurance cover prior to IRDA intervention ?
A. Insurance companies were unwilling to sell policies to them.
B. Clauses disadvantageous to senior citizens were included in the policies.
C. They had to pay higher premiums.
1. A and C 2. A and B 3. Only A 4. B and C 5. All A, B, and C

130. Which of the following are the recommendations of the Committee on Health Insurance for Senior Citizens ?
A. Standardise wordings in the policy so as to avoid any misinterpretation.
B. Simplify language of the policy so that the common man can understand.
C. Policies of senior citizens may not be renewed.
1. A and C 2. A and B 3. Only A 4. B and C 5. All A, B, and C
131. Which of the following is not true in the context of the passage ?
1. The general public now has a greater choice in selection of health insurance products since its inception.
2. The number of private players in the insurance industry has gone up since 1986.
3. The IRDA’s plan of ‘micro-insurance’ is for people who can easily afford insurance cover.
4. The business of insurance was initially not very profitable. 5. All are true.

Directions for Q. 132 to 133 : Choose the option which is similar in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the
passage.
132. EFFECTED 1. hampered 2. brought about 3. concerned 4. troubled 5. asked for
133. SUBJECT TO 1. conditional on 2. matter for 3. issue to 4. topic of 5. question

Directions for Q. 134 to 135 : Choose the option which is opposite in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the
passage.
134. HEFTY 1. thin 2. uniform 3. small 4. bulky 5. fragile
135. RELUCTANCE 1. intensity 2. unwillingness 3. fanaticism 4. keenness 5. devotion

Directions for Q. 136 to 140 : Read the following passage to answer the given questions.

The Union Government’s present position vis-a-vis the upcoming United Nations conference on racial and related discrimination
world-wide seems to be the following: discuss race please, not caste; caste is our very own and not at all as bad as you think. The
gross hypocrisy of that position has been lucidly underscored by Kancha Ilaiah. Explicitly, the world community is to be cheated
out of considering the matter on the technicality that caste is not, as a concept, tantamount to a racial category. Internally, however,
allowing the issue to be put on agenda at the said conference would, we are patriotically admonished, damage the country’s image.
Somehow, India’s virtual beliefs elbow out concrete actualities. Inverted representations, as we know, have often been deployed in
human histories as balm for the forsaken — religion being the most persistent of such inversions. Yet, we would humbly submit that
if globalising our markets is thought as good for the ‘national’ pocket, globalising our social inequities might not be so bad for the
mass of our people. After all, racism was as uniquely institutionalised in South Africa as caste discrimination has been within our
society; why then can’t we permit the world community to express itself on the latter with a fraction of the zeal with which, through
the years, we pronounced on the former?
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As to the technicality about whether or not caste is admissible into an agenda about race (that the conference is also about ‘related
discriminations’ tends to be forgotten), a reputed sociologist has recently argued that where race is a ‘biological’ category caste is a
‘social’ one. Having earlier fiercely opposed implementation of the Mandal Commission Report, the said sociologist is at least to be
complemented now for admitting, however tangentially, that caste discrimination is a reality, although, in his view,
incompatible with racial discrimination. One would like quickly to offer the hypothesis that biology, in important ways that affect
the lives of many millions, is in itself perhaps a social construction. But let us look at the matter in another way.
If it is agreed — as per the position today at which anthropological and allied scientific determinations rest — that the entire race of
homo sapiens derived from an originary black African female (called ‘Eve’), then one is hard put to understand how, one some
subsequent ground, ontological distinctions are to be drawn either between races or castes. Let us also underline the distinction
between the supposition that we are all god’s children and the rather more substantiated argument about our descent from ‘Eve’, lest
both positions are thought to be equally diversionary. It then stands to reason that all subsequent distinctions are, in modern
parlance, ‘constructed’ ones, and like all ideological constructions, attributable to changing equations between knowledge and
power among human communities through contested histories here, there, and elsewhere.
This line of thought receives, thankfully, extremely consequential buttress from the findings of the Human Genome project.
Contrary to earlier (chiefly 19th-century colonial) persuasions on the subject of race, as well as, one might add, the somewhat
infamous Jensen offerings in the 20th century from America, those finding deny genetic difference between ‘races’. If anything,
they suggest that environmental factors impinge on gene-function, as a dialectic seems to unfold between nature and culture. It
would thus seem that ‘biology’ as the constitution of pigmentation enters the picture first only as a part of that dialectic. Taken
together, the originary mother stipulation and the Genome findings ought indeed to furnish ground for human equality across the
board, as well as yield policy initiatives towards equitable material dispensations aimed at building a global order where, in Hegel’s
stirring formulation, only the rational constitutes the right. Such, sadly, is not the case as everyday fresh arbitrary grounds for
discrimination are constructed in the interests of sectional dominance.
136. When the author writes ‘globalising our social inequities’, the reference is to
1. going beyond an internal deliberation on social inequity.
2. dealing with internal poverty through the economic benefits of globalisation.
3. going beyond an internal delimitation of social inequity.
4. achieving disadvantaged people’s empowerment, globally. 5. None of these

137. According to the author, ‘inverted representations as balm for the forsaken’
1. is good for the forsaken and often deployed in human histories.
2. is good for the forsaken, but not often deployed historically for the oppressed.
3. occurs often as a means of keeping people oppressed.
4. occurs often to invert the status quo. 5. None of these

138 Based on the passage, which broad areas unambiguously fall under the purview of the UN conference being discussed?
A. Racial prejudice B. Racial pride C. Discrimination, racial or otherwise
D. Caste-related discrimination E. Race-related discrimination
1. A and E 2. C and E 3. A, C and E 4. B, C and D 5. None of these

139. According to the author, the sociologist who argued that race is a ‘biological’ category and caste is a ‘social’ one,
1. generally shares the same orientation as the author’s on many of the central issues discussed.
2. tangentially admits to the existence of ‘caste’ as a category.
3. admits the incompatibility between the people of different race and caste.
4. admits indirectly that both caste-based prejudice and racial discrimination exist. 5. None of these

140. An important message in the passage, if one accepts a dialectic between nature and culture, is that
1. the results of the Human Genome Project reinforces racial differences.
2. race is at least partially a social construct. 3. discrimination is at least partially a social construct.
4. caste is at least partially a social construct. 5. None of these

Directions for Q. 141 : Read the following paragraph carefully and answer the question that follows.
There's no doubt that light at night can make us safer, from a lighthouse beam guiding ships from rocky coasts to simply
enough sidewalk light to keep us from tripping on cracked cement. But increasing numbers of lighting engineers and lighting
designers, astronomers and dark sky activists, physicians and lawyers and police now say that often the amount of light we're
using – and how we're using it – goes far beyond true requirements for safety, and that when it comes to lighting, darkness and
security, we tend to assume certain ideas as common sense that, in truth, are not so black and white. Foremost among these
assumptions is that 'because some light improves our safety, more light will improve our safety more'. It's an assumption I will
hear challenged again and again by experts in the field. The idea that 'the more we light up our streets at night, the lower the
crime rate will be on those streets', has no basis in actual crime statistics.
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141. Which of the following, if true, best challenges the assumption people take for granted?
1. Brighter lighting at night only increases glare, which makes it difficult to see something lurking beyond the light.
2. Even criminals need some light to see what they are doing, so despite what people think, criminals don't prefer dark areas.
3. Bright light reduces night vision, so when people go from brightly lit areas to darker ones, they are less able to see their
surroundings clearly.
4. The brighter the lights at night, the more people stay outdoors, which means they are more likely to indulge in crime.
5. Too much bright light at night is neither economically feasible nor environmentally desirable.

Directions for Q. 142 to 145 : Read the following passage to answer the given questions.
Those who wielded the thunder of the state may have more confidence in the efficacy of arms. But i confess, possibly for want of
this knowledge, my opinion is much more in favour of prudent management, than of force; considering force not as an odious but a
feeble instrument for preserving a people so numerous, so active, so growing, so spirited as this, in profitable and subordinate
connection with us. First, Sir, permit me to observe, that the use of force alone is but temporary. It may subdue for a moment; but it
does not remove the necessity of subduing again; and a nation is not governed, which is perpetually to be conquered.
My next objection is uncertainty. Terror is not always the effect of force; and an armament is not a victory. If you do not succeed,
you are without resource; for, conciliation failing, force remains; but force failing, no further hope for reconciliation is left. A
further objection to force is, that you impair the object by your very endeavours to preserve it.. The thing you fought for is not the
thing which you recover; but depreciated, sunk, wasted, and consumed in the contest. Nothing less will content me than whole
America. I do not choose to consume its strength along with our own; because in all parts it is the British strength that I consume.
Lastly, we have no sort of experience in favour force as an instrument in the rule of our colonies. Their growth and their utility has
been owing to methods altogether different. These, Sir, are my reason for not entertaining that high opinion of untried force, by
which many gentlemen, for whose sentiments in other particulars I have great respect seem to be so greatly captivated.
142. The author's purpose in this passage seems to be :
1. to suggest modifications in the terms of peace treaty 2.to persuade the British to surrender
3. to bring about reconciliation through negotiation 4. to advocate the use of economic sanctions rather than force
5. to imply, by presenting them disdainful that the arguments against force are no valid
143. It can be inferred from this passage that the author would have :
1. approved a policy of armed intervention in Vietnam
2.opposed the establishment of United Nations
3. advocated the occupation of Cuba to depose Castro
4. proposed the saturation bombing of Belfast to end Irish terrorist activities in England
5. favoured direct confrontation of Middle East peace problems through face-to-face negotiations

144. In the last sentence of the passage, the author is saying :

1. he has a high opinion of those who fax force
2. he has great respect for sentiment
3. that force can be applied only by gentlemen
4. that although he may respect their views in other matters, he cannot accept the position of those who advocate force
5. that those who oppose him are the captives of the Americans, who consume British strength

145. In setting forth his argument, the author uses an approach that can best be described as :
1. satirical 2. judgemental 3. hostile 4. pragmatic 5. apologetic

Directions for Q. 146 to 150 : Read the following sentences to find out if there is any grammatical error. The error if
any, will be in one part of the sentence. If there is no error, mark (5) i.e. "No error".

146. The power of the mind (1) / over the body (2) / has became a very significant subject (3) / of research in the recent years. (4) /
No error (5)

147. Researchers at the University of Nottingham (1) / have discovered that (2) / putting tobacco outside of sight in shops (3) / can
change the attitude of young people towards smoking. (4) / No error (5)

148. The young sales manager (1) / is about to resign (2) / despite of his success (3) / in the organisation. (4) / No error (5)

149. More and more people (1) / are using different colour schemes (2) / in their homes (3) / that reflecting their personalities (4) /
No error (5)

150. Because art is so subjective, (1) / no form of art (2) can be most effective (3) / than the other. (4) / No error.
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Directions for Q. 151 to 155 : Each question below has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been
omitted. Choose the set of words for each blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence.

151. In his latest book, the author gives a real _____ into the sufferings of individuals who have experienced the loss of loved one
_____ to a physical illness.
1. testimony, owing 2. account, attribute 3. praise, following 4. insight, owing 5. knowledge, new
152. Everybody has had the flu at some point of time, with its _____ symptoms, aches, chills, fatigue and cough. So why is the 'bird
flu' _____ so many headlines ?
1. familiar, making 2. knowledge, hitting 3. same, targeting 4. similar, cause 5. drastic, topping

153. Bollywood actors may have set the stage on fire _____ the rock stars from the Indian music industry _____ the house down
during the gala night.
1. as, bring 2. yet, sang 3. for took 4. and, had 5. but, brought

154. In his latest book and documentary, the world renowned author explains that if we continue to _____ what we are doing to our
planet, we risk _____ the very future of our civilisation.
1. do, appreciating 2. ignore, destroying 3. secure, losing 4. establish, maintenance 5. probe, questioning

155. Although carbon dioxide levels are _____ all over the world, the _____ are most obvious at the North and South Poles.
1. booming, explosion 2. exploding, scene 3. rising, effects 4.firing, consequences 5. spilling, disaster

Directions Q. 156 to 160 : In each of the following sentences, an idiomatic expression or proverb is highlighted. Select
the alternative which best describes its use in the sentence.

156. At an early age my colleague made his mark as a chemist.

1. was destined to be 2. secured good marks 3. distinguished himself 4. created a vacancy 5. got inducted

157. The thief was caught red-handed.

1. in the very act of committing the crime 2. on red tape 3. after being given a warning
4. with blood on is hands 5. in an attempt to escape

158. He decided to jump the gun and apply for the job before it was advertised in the press.
1. play safe 2. fake his credentials 3. use influence 4. call for a personal meeting 5. be over hasty

159. My neighbour was caught stealing, he now has to face the music.
1. ask for forgiveness 2. come face to face with the police 3. attempt to protect himself
4. suffer the consequences of is actions 5. hear the song

160. Rs. 60 for a kilo of onions ? That's daylight robbery.

1. robbing during the day 2. extracting more from the rich 3. unfair overcharging
4. cheating people with regards to the quality of food 5. robbing people on the basis of their income

Directions Q. 161 to 165 : Numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which
fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

The insurance industry is ___161___ myriad challenges arising from intense competition, rising regulatory compliance and
growing payouts due to fraud and natural disasters. It is ___162___ that competitive pressures will make offshoring of information
technology and business processes a growing imperative in the insurance industry. ___163___ to mainstream banking and financial
services, where the early adoption of automation and IT helped facilitate outsourcing, first in IT services and later in BPO, the
insurance industry has lagged behind. This is one reason why insurance companies have been more conservative in their attitude to
"business process outsourcing", and especially to offshoring. With expected cost savings and other advantages such as focussing on
core competencies and ___164___ to skilled labour, it is believed that the insurance offshoring industry is ___165___ for significant
growth in the next few years.

161. 1. looking 2. pressing 3. watching 4. facing 5. focusing

162. 1. featured 2. proof 3. wanted 4. thought 5. expected

163. 1. Compared 2. Similar 3. Unlike 4. Balanced 5. Alike

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164. 1. excess 2. open 3. availability 4. gain 5. access

165. 1. available 2. assured 3. poised 4. gear 5. concentrated

Directions Q. 166 to 170 : Rearrange the following sentences in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and
answer the given questions.
(A) “It makes me happy that people are beginning to change their views on the environment and make changes in their lifestyle”,
he said after receipt of the award.
(B) For him, vindication would be when we stop polluting the earth and turn the corner, the exciting news however, is that there
are a lot of good changes underway.
(C) As part of his campaigns, he turned a lecture on global warming and climate change into a well known documentary titled
‘An Inconvenient Truth’, by which he encouraged millions of people worldwide to make earth-friendly changes in their lives.
(D) Though many people are doing their part by being sensitive to the environment, Al Gore expressed a serious concern of the
world being still at risk due to global warming.
(E) Al Gore, former Vice President of America, is well known for his campaigns on climate change.
(F) Because of this documentary and his tireless efforts to educate the world about global warming he was awarded the Nobel
Peace Prize on Climate Change in 2007.
166. Which of the following will be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
1. E 2. B 3. C 4. D 5. A
167. Which of the following will be the SECOND sentence after the rearrangement ?
1. D 2. B 3. C 4. F 5. A
168. Which of the following will be the THIRD sentence after the rearrangement?
1. D 2. F 3. B 4. C 5. A
169. Which of the following will be the FIFTH sentence after the rearrangement?
1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D 5. E

170. Which of the following will be the LAST sentence after the rearrangement?
1. D 2. B 3. C 4. F 5. E

Directions Q. 171 to 175 : Fill in the blanks with the appropriate form of the verb.
171. The stadium ______ with dance, music and song as troupes from across the country presented a panorama of colors and
costumes.
1. Had reverberated 2. Would reverberate 3. Reverberate 4. Reverberated 5. Reverberates

172. After ______ into the bus we discovered that we ______ the wrong one.
1. Got, boarded 2. Getting, had boarded 3. Get, boarded 4. Getting, board 5. Going, board

173. I ______ the assignment before the bell ______

1. Had finished, rang 2. Finished, had rung 3. Had finished, had rung 4. Finish, will ring 5. had finish, had ring

174. John ______ to join the medical college, but he ______ to get admission.
1. Wanted, had failed 2. Had wanted, failed 3. Had wanted, had failed 4. Want, failed 5. wanted, has failed

175. Ji Corbett ______ animals, but he ______ several man-eaters.

1. Loved, would kill 2. Loved, killed 3. Loved, had killed 4. Love, kill 5. loves, killed
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Section IV : Abstract Reasoning

Directions for Q. 176 to 200 : In the questions given below one of the following figures should come after the problem
figures given, if the sequence were continued. Select the figure which would follow the series.

176.

177.

178.

179.

180.

181.

182.

183.

184.

185.

186.

187.

188.

189.

190.
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191.

192.

193.

194.

195.

196.

197.

198.

199.

200.