DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI,PUNE-45

Class:- TYBBA

Sub:- Labour Law

Unit 1
An Introduction to Labour Laws in India

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1. International Labour Organization is an agency of _________.

a. IBRD

b. UN Security Council

c. International fund for agricultural development

d. United Nations

Answer: d

2. Which of these is an unfair labour practice on part of the employer?

a. To incite or indulge in willful damage to employer’s property connected with the industry

b. To advise or actively support or instigate any strike deemed to be illegal

c. For a recognized union to refuse to bargain collectively in good faith with the employer

d. None of the above

Answer: d

3. Headquarters of International Labour Organisation is located in ________

a. Geneva

b. Rome

c. Paris

d. Tokyo

Answer: a

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4. The ongoing globalization in the country needs reforms in our labour laws. The forces oppose changes in the existing
labour legislations is _______________.

a. Government

b. Labour and Trade Unions

c. Employers’ Associations

d. Human Rights’ Commission

Answer: b

5. Agency of United Nations which deals with international labour standards and providing social protection and working
opportunities is ______________

a. International Corporation of Law

b. International Law Organization

c. International Workforce Recruiters

d. International Labour Organisation

Answer: d

6. Labour Policy highlights ________

a. Creative measures to attract public and private investment

b. Creating new jobs

c. Employee-Employer relationship

d. All of the above

Answer: d

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7. _______________ was established as an agency of the League of Nations following the Treaty of Versailles.

a. IOL

b. ILO

c. AFL

d. UN

Answer: b

8. Two broad categories of labour law.

a. First, collective labour law relates to the tripartite relationship between employee, employer and union

b. Second, individual labour law concerns employees’ rights at work and through the contract for work

c. Both (a) and (b)

d. Neither (a) nor (b)

Answer: c

9. India is permanent member of ILO Governing Body since _______________.

a. 1922

b. 1969

c. 1972

d. 1991

Answer: a

10. Which of the following legislations apply to unorganised sector workers in India?

a. Minimum Wages Act

b. Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986

c. Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act, 1970

d. All of the above

Answer: d

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11. ILO overarching goal is _______________.

a. Employment

b. High wages

c. Education

d. Decent work

Answer: d

12. India a _______________ member of ILO.

a. Founding

b. Only

c. Sole

d. Banned

Answer: a

13. First ILO office in India was established in _______

a. 1919

b. 1922 c

. 1928

d. 1933

Answer: c

14. In industries, it is important for the _______________ to concentrate in areas of harmony.

a. Employers

b. Public

c. Committee

d. Government

Answer: d

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15. There were no restrictions on child labour till _______________ was implemented.

a. Independence

b. Labour Law

c. Commercial Law

d. Trade Union Act

Answer: b

16. Peace and harmony in organisation is very important for _____

a. GDP

b. Economic Development

c. Manpower

d. None of the above

Answer: b

17. For peace and harmony in industries, there is need of _____

a. Reward

b. Punishment

c. Law

d. None of the above

Answer: c

18. Labour issues are solved in _______________.

a. Labour Court

b. District Court

c. High Court

d. Consumer Court

Answer: a

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19. First Annual Conference International Labour Conference began on 29th October, 1919 in _______________.

a. New York

b. Washington DC

c. Paris

d. New Delhi

Answer: b

20. Labour Law covers ______

a. Industrial Relations

b. Workplace health and safety

c. Employment Standards

d. All of the above

Answer: d

21. Which of the following are schemes formulated for unorganised workers (mentioned in the Unorganised Workers’
Social Security Act, 2008)?

1) Indira Gandhi National Old Age Pension Scheme

2) Janani Suraksha Yojana

3) Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana

a. 1, 3

b. 2, 3

c. 1, 3

d. All of the above

Answer: d

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22. Unorganised Workers’ Social Security Act, 2008 stipulates formulation of suitable welfare schemes for unorganised
workers on matters relating to

1) Maternity benefits

2) Disability cover

3) Old age protection

a. 2, 3

b. 1

c. 1, 3

d. All of the above

Answer: d

23. Workers enjoy job security in :

a. Organised Sector

b. Unorganised Sector

c. Agriculture Sector

d. Private Sector

Answer: a

24. Which of these is an unfair labour practice on part of the workmen?

a. To recruit workman during a strike which is not illegal

b. To discharge or dismiss workmen

c. Indulging in coercive activities against certification of a bargaining representative

d. To indulge in acts of force or violence

Answer: c

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25. International Labour Organisation was formulated in ______

a. 1925

b. 1939

c. 1919

d. 1929

Answer: c

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Unit 2:

Employee Provident Funds Act

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1. PF act is applicable to an establishment engaged in any industry specified in ……...

A. Schedule II

B. Hazardous Industries List

C. Schedule IX

D. Schedule I

Answer: D

2. Minimum ……….. persons must be employed in as establishment for the applicability of the PF act. A. 15

B. 20

C. 35

D. 50

Answer: B

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3. The term “Appropriate Government” is defined in which section of the PF Act?

A. Section 2(a)

B. Section 2 (b)

C. Section 2 (d)

D. Section 2 (e)

Answer: A

4. According to Section 2(a) which is the appropriate Government for a mine in a given state?

A. State Government

B. Central Government

C. Both (A) and (B)

D. None of these

Answer: B

5. Section 2(aa) of the PF act defines the term ……………

A. Basic Wages

B. Authorised Officer

C. Government

D. None of these

Answer: B

6. Deputy Provident Fund Commissioner is an authorised officer.

A. True

B. False

Answer: A

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7. The term “Basic Wages” is defined in which section of the Provident Fund Act?

A. Section 2(g)

B. Section 2(d)

C. Section 2(b)

D. None of these

Answer: C

8. Bonus is part of Basic Wages as defined in the respective section in the PF Act.

A. True B.

False

Answer: B

9. The term contribution is defined in the section ………

A. Section 2-bb

B. Section 2-bc

C. Section 2-cc

D. Section 2-c

Answer: D

10. Section 2(d) of the Provident Fund Act defines ………

A. Hazardous Process

B. Employee

C. Employment

D. Controlled Industry

Answer: A

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11. The term “Employer” is defined in the section ……….. of the PF Act.

A. 2(e)

B. 2(g)

C. 2(f)

D. 2(m)

Answer: A

12. Can an agent, of the owner of a factory, be termed as an employer?

A. Yes

B. No

Answer: A

13. The term “Employee” is defined in the section …… of the PF Act, 1952.

A. 2(ab)

B. 2(g)

C. 2(f)

D. 2(d)

Answer: C

14. A person employed through a contractor will not be considered as an employee of the establishment.

A. True

B. False

Answer: B

15. A person engaged as an apprentice under the Apprentices Act, 1961 will not be considered as an employee.

A. True

B. False

Answer: A

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16. The term “Exempted Employee” is defined under section ……. of the PF Act, 1952

A. 2 (gg)

B. 2(hh)

C. 2(ff)

D. 2(cc)

Answer: C

17. An employee is said to be exempted if the exemption is granted under section………

A. 26

B. 17

C. 14

D. 20

Answer: B 18.

18. The term “Exempted Establishment” is defined under which section of the EPF Act, 1952?

A. 2(aaa)

B. 2(ee)

C. 2(j)

D. 2(fff)

Answer: D

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19. Section 2(g) of the PF Act defines ………………

A. Non-Exemption

B. Exemption

C. Factory

D. Exempted Job

Answer: C

20. The term “Fund” is defined under section ………. of the PF Act, 1952

A. 2(i)

B. 2(h)

C. 2(k)

D. None of these

Answer: B

21. Under the PF Act, 1952 “Insurance Fund” means ……………

A. Unit Linked Insurance Plan

B. Deposit Linked Insurance Fund

C. Employees’ Group Accident Insurance

D. Medical Insurance Fund

Answer: B

22. The scheme defined under section 2(i-b) of the PF Act, 1952 is ……………..

A. Pension Scheme

B. Provident Fund Scheme

C. Family Pension Scheme

D. Insurance Scheme

Answer: D

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23. The section 2(i-a) of PF Act, 1952 defines………..

A. Member

B. Insurance

C. Insurance Fund

D. None of these

Answer: C

24. The Insurance Scheme is framed under sub-section (1) of the Section ……… of the PF Act, 1952.

A. 8-A

B. 7-B

C. 6-C

D. 5-D

Answer: C

25. The term “Member” is defined in the section ………… of the PF Act, 1952.

A. 2(j)

B. 2(u)

C. 2(m)

D. 2(p)

Answer: A

26. Section 2(k-A) of the PF Act, 1952 defines …………..

A. Occupier of the factory

B. Pension Fund

C. Establishment

D. Pension Scheme

Answer: B

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27. The Employees’ Pension Fund is established under sub-section (2) of the section ………

A. 8-A

B. 7-A

C. 6-A

D. 5-A

Answer: C

28. Section 2(kb) of the PF Act, 1952 defines ……….

A. Recovery Amount

B. Recovery Office

C. Recover Officer

D. Repayment Amount

Answer: C

29. Section 2(ll) of the PF Act, 1952 defines …………

A. Superannuation

B. Annual Salary

C. Scheme Policies

D. Recovery

Answer: A

30. The Employees’ Provident Funds Appellate Tribunal which is constituted under sec 7-D is defined under which
section?

A. 2(j)

B. 2(k)

C. 2(l)

D. 2(m)

Answer: D

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31. Which of the following statements about The Employees’ Provident Funds and (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act are
true?

a. The Act is not applicable to cooperative societies employing less than 50 persons working with the aid of power.

b. It makes provision for pension scheme, including family pension.

c. There is no wage limit to be covered under the Act.

d. The Act has a provision relating to Employees’ Deposit-linked Insurance Scheme.

A. a, b & d

B. a & c

C. a, c & d

D. b, c & d

Answer: A

32. What is the present wage limit to be eligible to be covered under the Employees’ Provident Funds and Miscellaneous
Provisions Act, 1952?

A. Rs. 12,500

B. Rs. 15,000

C. Rs. 6,500

D. Rs. 6,000

Answer: B

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33. What are the emoluments earned by the employees which are not not come under the definition of 'Basic Wages' in
Employees’ Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952

(i) All emoluments which are earned by an employee while on duty or on leave or on holidays with wages in either case
in accordance with the terms of the contract of employment and which are paid or payable in cash to him

(ii)The cash value of any food concession.

(iii) Any dearness allowance, house-rent allowance, overtime allowance, bonus, commission or other similar allowance
payable to the employee in respect of his employment or of work done in such employment;

(iv) Any presents made by the employer;

A. i & iii

B. ii, iii & iv

C. i, ii & iii

D. ii & iv

Answer: B

34. The Act is applicable to every establishment which is a factory engaged in any industry specified in Schedule I and in
which -------- twenty persons are employed

A. 15 or more

B. 20 or more

C. 10 or more

D. 20

Answer: B

35. The chairman and members of Central Board constituted under Employees Provident Fund are appointed by

A. Supreme Court

B. State Government

C. Central Government

D. None of the above

Answer: C

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36. Under this act, how many members are appointed by the Central Government in Central Board representing
employees in the establishments to which the Scheme applies

A. 15

B. 10

C. 12

D. 20

Answer: B

37. The accounts of the Central Board is audited annually by ____

A. Central Provident Fund Commissioner

B. Any auditor appointed by Central Government

C. Comptroller and Auditor-General of India

D. Any auditor appointed by the Chairman of Central Board

Answer: C

38. The contribution which shall be paid by the employer to the Fund shall be

A. 5%

B. 7%

C. 12%

D. 10%

Answer: C

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39. An employer who contravenes or makes default in complying with the provisions of section 6 of this act, shall be
punishable with imprisonment for a term which may extend to _____ years

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 5

Answer: C

40. This Act shall not apply to any establishment registered under the Co-operative Societies Act, 1912 (2 of 1912),
employing less than ------- persons and working without the aid of power

A. 100

B. 70

C. 50

D. 20

Answer: C

41. No court inferior to that of ......................class shall try any offence under this Act

A. Sureme Court

B. Presidency Magistrate or a Magistrate of the first class

C. Musiff Court

D. High Court

Answer: B

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42. Which of the following statements about Central Board are true?

(i) The Central Provident Fund Commissioner is the Ex officio member of the Central Board

(ii) The Central Board shall maintain proper accounts of its income and expenditure in such form and in such manner as
the Central Government may, after consultation with the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India, specify in the Scheme

(iii) Central Board shall submit annual report of its work and activities to the Central Government

A. i & ii

B. i & iii

C. ii & iii

D. i, ii & iii

Answer: D

43. Employees’ Provident Funds Appellate Tribunal was constituted under Section ....... the this act

A. 6D

B. 7C

C. 6A

D. 7D

Answer: D

44. Under this act, “Insurance Fund” means ……………

A. Employees’ Group Accident Insurance

B. Unit Linked Insurance Plan

C. Deposit Linked Insurance Scheme

D. Medical Insurance Fund

Answer: C

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI,PUNE-45

45. The Central Government has amended the ceiling for contributions under the Employees' Provident Fund and
Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952 (EPF Act) and the Employees' Provident Fund and Miscellaneous Provisions Scheme,
1952 (EPF Scheme) from __________ to __________, with effect from 1 September 2014.

A. Rs. 5000/- to Rs.12000/-

B. Rs. 6500/- to Rs.15000/-

C. Rs. 6500/- to Rs.13000/-

D. Rs. 7500/- to Rs. 15000/-

Answer: B

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Unit 3:-
Employee State Insurance Act 1948

1. Which of the following labour legislations is implemented only by the Central Implementation Machinery?

A. Trade Unions Act

B. Maternity Benefit Act

C. Industrial Disputes Act

D. Employees’ State Insurance Act

Answer D

2. Under Section 2(12) the Act is applicable to non-seasonal factories employing---------- persons

A. 10 or more

B. 25 or more

C. 20 or more

D. 5 or more

Answer A

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3. Employees’ Deposit Linked Insurance Scheme was introduced in the year

A. 1976

B. 1961

C. 1923

D. 1948

Answer A

4. The Payment of Gratuity Act was introduced in the year

A. 1961

B. 1923

C. 1972

D. 1976

Answer C

5. The Maternity Benefit Act was introduced in the year

A. 1961

B. 1923

C. 1976

D. 1948

Answer A

6. Which of the following benefits is covered under social security schemes?

A. Medical facilities

B. Retirement benefits

C. Compensation facilities

D. All of the above

Answer D

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7. Making peace with employees by fulfilling all their needs without any resistance is the essence of the

A. Appeasement theory

B. Policing theory

C. Benevolence theory

D. Religious theory

Answer A

8. The age of dependent for obtaining dependent’s benefit under the Employees State Insurance Act has now been
enhanced from 18 years to

A. 22 years

B. 24 years

C. 20 years

D. 25 years

Answer D 9.

9. Employees who are getting a daily average wages up to ________ are exempted from contributing employees’ share of
ESI contribution.

A. Rs 70

B. Rs 384.60

C. Rs 100

D. Rs 50

Answer C

10. The employer’s share of contribution under the ESI Act is

A. 8.33 %

B. 1.75 %

C. 12 %

D. 4.75%

Answer D

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11. As per the latest amendment under the ESI Act, 1948 medical treatment is now available to persons under voluntary
retirement scheme also.

A. True

B. False

C. Partly True

D. The Act is silent

Answer A

12. Which of the following legislations in India is governed by a tripartite organisation consisting of representatives of
labour, management and Government?

A. Payment of Bonus Act

B. Industrial Disputes Act

C. ESI Act

D. Maternity Benefit Act

Answer c

13. What is the wage limit for employees to be covered under the Employee State Insurance Act as per the latest
amendment?

A. Rs. 25,000 per month

B. Rs. 18,000 per month

C. Rs. 15,000 per month

D. Rs. 20,000 per month

Answer C

14. Employees’ share of contribution under the ESI Act is

A. 1.75 %

B. 4.75%

C. 12%

D. 8.33%

Answer A

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15. Which of the following legislations extends some sort of benefit to retired employees also?

A. Employees’ State Insurance Act

B. Payment of Bonus Act

C. Maternity Benefit Act

D. Employees’ Compensation Act

Answer A

16. ’Unemployment allowance’ payable is stated in

A. Factories Act, 1948

B. Unorganised Sector Workers Social Security Act, 2005

C. Employee State Insurance Act, 1948

D. None of the above

Answer C

17. Which of the following legislations was based on the recommendations of the B.P. Adarkar Committee Report?

A. Employees’ State Insurance Act, 1948

B. Employees’ Provident Funds Act

C. Maternity Benefit Act

D. Employees’ Compensation Act

Answer A

18. Who is an ‘exempted employee’ under the Employee’s state Insurance Act, 1948?

A. Employee who is not liable under the Act to pay the employee’s contribution

B. Minor employee who is not liable under the Act to pay the employee’s contribution

C. Employee who is minor

D. None of the above

Answer A

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19. The Workmen’s Compensation Act, 1923, the Maternity Benefit Act, 1965 and the Employees State Insurance Act,
1948

A. If the Workmen’s Compensation Act and the Maternity Benefit Act are applicable, the Employees State Insurance Act is
not applicable.

B. Together can be applicable

C. The Maternity Benefit Act and the Employees State Insurance Act can be applicable at a time

D. The Workmen’s Compensation Act and the Employees State Insurance Act can be applicable at a time.

Answer A

20. What is the content of the Schedule I of the ESI Act, 1948?

A. List of occupational diseases.

B. List of injuries deemed to result in permanent total disablement.

C. List of injuries deemed to result in permanent partial disablement.

D. None of the above

Answer D

21. Under ESI Act, 1948 a member of the Corporation, Standing Committee or the Medical Council shall cease to be a
member of the body if he fails to attend

A. Three consecutive meetings

B. Three meetings intermittently

C. Four consecutive meetings

D. Two consecutive meetings

Answer A

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22. Which of the following benefits have not been provided under the Employee’s State Insurance Act, 1948?

A. Disablement Benefit

B. Children’s’ Allowance

C. Sickness Benefit

D. Unemployment Allowance

Answer B

23. Which one of the following Labour Legislations provides comprehensive benefits to industrial workers in India?

A. Maternity Benefit Act

B. Employees’ State Insurance Act

C. Employee Provident Funds Act

D. Employees’ Compensation Act

Answer B

24. An employer is liable to pay his contribution in respect of every employee and deduct employees contribution from
wages bill and shall pay these contributions at the specified rates to the Corporation within -----------days of the last day of
the Calendar month in which the contributions fall due.

A. 21

B. 30

C. 7

D. 15

Answer A

25. Dependants’ Benefit paid at the rate of ----------% of wage in the form of monthly payment to the dependants of a
deceased Insured person in cases where death occurs due to employment injury or occupational hazards.

A. 80%

B. 50%

C. 90%

D. 75%

Answer C

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26. If an Insured Women or an I.P. in respect of his wife confinement occurs at a place where necessary medical facilities
under ESI Scheme are not available, how much amount shall be payable per case for two confinements only. A. Rs. 5000/-

B. Rs. 7500/-

C. Rs. 2500/-

D Rs.10000/-

Answer A

27. How much amount is payable to the dependents for funeral expenses?

A. Rs.15,000/-

B. Rs 10000/-

C. Rs. 12000/-

D. Rs.5000

Answer : B

28. Minimum wage limit for Physically Disabled Persons for availing ESIC Benefits is

A. Rs.20000/-

B. Rs.50000/-

C. Rs.15000/-

D. Rs.25000/- Answer D

29. Maternity Benefit for confinement/pregnancy is payable for three months, which is extendable by further one month
on medical advice at the rate of full wage subject to contribution for -------- days in the preceding year.

A. 65 days

B. 70 days

C. 91 days

D. 75 days

Answer B

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30. Enhanced Sickness Benefit equal to full wage is payable to insured persons undergoing sterilisation for --------- days for
male and ________ female workers respectively.

A. 7 days and 14 days

B. 14 days and 7 days

C. 5 days and 10 days

D. 6 days and 14 days

Answer A

31. Extended Sickness Benefit(ESB) is extendable upto two years in the case of 34 malignant and long-term diseases at an
enhanced rate of -------- percent of wages.

A. 90%

B. 85%

C. 75%

D. 80%

Answer D

32. In order to qualify for sickness benefit, the insured worker is required to contribute for ------- days in a contribution
period of 6 months.

A. 78 days

B. 60 days

C. 75 days

D. 91 days

Answer A

33. Sickness benefit in the form of cash compensation at the rate of 70 per cent of wages is payable to insured workers
during the periods of certified sickness for a maximum of ------ days in a year.

A. 90 days

B. 91 days

C. 75 days

D. 100 days

Answer B

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34. Medical care is provided to retired and permanently disabled insured persons and their spouses on payment of a
token annual premium of ----------

A. Rs.125/-

B. Rs.100/-

C. Rs.120/-

D. Rs.75/-

Answer C

35. The State Governments, as per provisions of the Act, contribute 1/8th of the expenditure of medical benefit within a
per capita ceiling of --------- per Insured Person per annum.

A. Rs.1000/-

B. Rs.2000/-

C. Rs.850/-

D. Rs.1500/-

Answer D

36. The employee welfare facilities available outside the organisation are called

A. extra-mural facilities

B. extravagance

C. intra-mural facilities

D. None of the above

Answer A

37. The employee welfare facilities available inside the organization are called

A. intra-mural facilities

B. extravagance

C. extra-mural facilities

D. None of the above

Answer A

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38. Who among the following has the responsibility for employee welfare?

A. State government

B. Central government

C. Employers

D. All of the above

Answer D

39. An inclination to do something good for others can influence the employers to undertake welfare facilities. This is the
assumption of the

A. Benevolence theory

B. Appeasement theory

C. Policing theory

D. Religious theory

Answer A

40. In the absence of statutory requirements, the employers may not provide even the basic facilities to the employees.
This is the basic assumption of the

A. Religious theory

B. Policing theory

C. Benevolence theory

D. None of the above

Answer B

41. Which of the following benefits have not been provided under the Employee’s State Insurance Act, 1948?

(A) Sickness Benefit

(B) Unemployment Allowance

(C) Children’s’ Allowance

(D) Disablement Benefit

Answer - (C)

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42. Under ESI Act, 1948 a member of the Corporation, Standing Committee or the Medical Council shall cease to be a
member of the body if he fails to attend

(A) Two consecutive meetings

(B) Three meetings intermittently

(C) Three consecutive meetings

(D) Four consecutive meetings

Answer Answer - (C)

43. What is the content of the Schedule I of the ESI Act, 1948?

(A) List of injuries deemed to result in permanent total disablement.

(B) List of injuries deemed to result in permanent partial disablement.

(C) List of occupational diseases.

(D) None of the above

Answer Answer - (D)

44. The Workmen’s Compensation Act, 1923, the Maternity Benefit Act, 1965 and the Employees State Insurance Act,
1948

(A) Together can be applicable.

B) The Maternity Benefit Act and the Employees State Insurance Act can be applicable at a time.

C) The Workmen’s Compensation Act and the Employees State Insurance Act can be applicable at a time.

D) If the Workmen’s Compensation Act and the Maternity Benefit Act are applicable, the Employees State Insurance Act is
not applicable.

Answer Answer - (D)

45. Who is an ‘exempted employee’ under the Employee’s state Insurance Act, 1948?

(A) Employee who is minor

B) Employee who is not liable under the Act to pay the employee’s contribution

C) Minor employee who is not liable under the Act to pay the employee’s contribution

D) None of the above

Answer Answer - (B)

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46. Which of the following legislations was based on the recommendations of the B.P. Adarkar Committee Report?

(A) Maternity Benefit Act

(B) Employees’ Compensation Act

C) Employees’ Provident Funds Act

(D) Employees’ State Insurance Act, 1948

Answer Answer - (D)

47. ‘Unemployment allowance’ payable is stated in

(A) Employee State Insurance Act, 1948

B) Unorganized Sector Workers Social Security Act, 2005

C) Factories Act, 1948

(D) None of the above

Answer Answer - (A)

48. Which of the following legislations extends some sort of benefit to retired employees also?

(A) Maternity Benefit Act

(B) Employees’ Compensation Act

(C) Employees’ State Insurance Act

(D) Payment of Bonus Act

Answer Answer - (C)

49.Employees’ share of contribution under the ESI Act is

(A) 12%

(B) 8.33%

(C) 1.75 %

(D) 4.75%

Answer Answer - (C)

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50. What is the wage limit for employees to be covered under the Employee State Insurance Act as per the latest
amendment?

(A) Rs. 15,000 per month

(B) Rs. 18,000 per month

(C) Rs. 20,000 per month

(D) Rs. 25,000 per month

Answer Answer - (A)

51. Which of the following legislations in India is governed by a tripartite organization consisting of representatives of
labour, management and Government?

(A) Industrial Disputes Act

(B) ESI Act

(C) Maternity Benefit Act

(D) Payment of Bonus Act

Answer Answer - (B)

52. As per the latest amendment under the ESI Act, 1948 medical treatment is now available to persons under voluntary
retirement scheme also.

(A) True

(B) False

(C) Partly True

(D) The Act is silent

Answer Answer - (A)

53.The employer’s share of contribution under the ESI Act is

(A) 12 %

(B) 8.33 %

(C) 1.75 %

(D) 4.75 %

Answer Answer - (D)

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI,PUNE-45

54.Employees who are getting a daily average wages up to ________ are exempted from contributing employees’ share of
ESI contribution.

(A) Rs 70

(B) Rs 50

(C) Rs 100

(D) Rs 384.60

Answer Answer - (C)

55. The age of dependent for obtaining dependent’s benefit under the Employees State Insurance Act has now been
enhanced from 18 years to

(A) 20 years

(B) 22 years

(C) 24 years

(D) 25 years

Answer - (D)

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Unit 4
The Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986

-----------------------------------------------------------------------
1. Which is the year for "The Declaration of the Rights of Child"?

A. 1967

B. 1962

C. 1960

D. 1959

Answer D

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI,PUNE-45

2. When was the "International Convention on the Rights of Child" adopted by the General Assembly?

A. 20/11/1989

B. 12/12/1990

C. 26/01/1995

D. 15/08/1999

Answer A

3. Who was the President of the General Assembly, when the International Convention on the Rights of Child was adopted
by the General Assembly?

A. Mr. Joseph N Garba

B. Mr. Martin J Garba

C. Mr. Suresh S

D. Mr. Ajay Chauhan

Answer A

4. The International Convention on the Rights of Child consisted of how many Articles when it was presented to the
General Assembly?

A. 95

B. 84

C. 55

D. 35

Answer D

5. Which Section of The Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986 defines the term "Child"?

A. Section 1

B. Section 2 (i)

C. Section 2 (ii)

D. Section 2 (iii)

Answer C

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6. As per the act, Day means a period of 24 hours beginning at ___

A. Morning 8 AM

B. Noon

C. Evening 4 PM

D. Midnight

Answer D

7. As per the The Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986 a Shop is an establishment.

A. True

B. False

Answer A

8. Identify Section 2(v) of The Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986.

A. Family

B. Occupier

C. Port Authority

D. Establishment

Answer A

9. As per section 2(viii) "prescribed" means prescribed by rules made under Section ___

A. 18

B. 20

C. 3

D. 28

Answer A

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10. As per the Act, Week means a period of 7 days beginning at midnight on ___

A. Sunday

B. Monday

C. Saturday

D. Thursday

Answer C

11. As per the act, a child should not be permitted to work between ___ & ___.

A. 8 PM; 7 AM

B. 7 PM; 8 AM

C. 6 PM; 7 AM

D. 5 PM; 9 AM

Answer B

12. Is "Overtime Work" permissible for a child?

A. Yes

B. No

Answer B

13. Identify Section 8 of The Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986.

A. Hours and period of work

B. Notice to inspector

C. Daily hours

D. Weekly holidays

Answer D

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI,PUNE-45

14. The notice specifying the weekly holiday of a child shall be kept displayed permanently.

A. True

B. False

Answer A

15. The day specified in notice as a weekly holiday for a child shall not be altered by the occupier more than once in ___.

A. 1 week

B. 1 month

C. 2 months

D. 3 months

Answer D

16. The "Notice to Inspector", as mentioned in Section 9 of the act, shall be sent within how many days of employment of
a child and commencement of this act with respect to that particular establishment?

A. 10

B. 15

C. 20

D. 30

Answer D

17. To whom shall the case be initially referred by the Inspector in case of any question regarding age of a child permitted
to work in an establishment.

A. Tribunal

B. Police Commissioner

C. Chief Inspector

D. Prescribed Medical Authority

Answer D

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI,PUNE-45

18. Which Section of The Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986 demands for display of notice containing
abstract of Sections 3 and 14.

A. Section 9

B. Section 10

C. Section 11

D. Section 12

Answer D

19. The provisions of Section 7, 8 & 9 of the act shall not apply to any establishment wherein any process is carried out by
the occupier with the aid of his family.

A. True

B. False

Answer A

20. The provisions of Section 7, 8 & 9 shall not apply to any school established by Government.

A. True

B. False

Answer A

21. Which Section of The Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986 details about "Penalties"?

A. Section 12

B. Section 13

C. Section 14

D. Section 15

Answer C

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI,PUNE-45

22. Anybody who contravenes the provisions of Section 3 (Prohibition of employment of children in certain occupations
and processes) shall be punished with minimum ______ which may extend up to _______ of imprisonment

A. 1 month; 1 year

B. 3 months; 1 year

C. 6 months; 3 years

D. 6 months; 5 years

Answer B

23. Anybody who contravenes the provisions of Section 3 (Prohibition of employment of children in certain occupations
and processes) shall be fined with minimum ______ which may extend up to ______.

A. Rs. 10,000 ; Rs. 20,000

B. Rs. 20,000 ; Rs. 40,000

C. Rs. 25,000 ; Rs. 100,000

D. Rs. 5,000 ; Rs. 40,000

Answer A

24. Having been convicted once, if a person again contravenes the provisions of Section 3 of the act, such person shall be
punished with imprisonment for a term not less than ___ which may extend up to ___.

A. 6 months; 2 years

B. 6 months; 4 years

C. 6 months; 8 years

D. 2 years; 10 years

Answer A

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI,PUNE-45

25. If an occupier fails to maintain appropriate register as required by the Section 11 of the act, then he may be punished
with an imprisonment for a term up to ____ or with fine which may extend to ____.

A. 1 month; Rs. 10,000

B. 6 months; Rs. 15,000

C. 8 months; Rs. 18,000

D. 12 months; Rs. 20,000

Answer A

26. Identify Section 16 of the act.

A. Penalties

B. Procedure relating to offences

C. Appointment of Inspectors

D. Power to make rules

Answer B

27. If the Government appoints any person as an Inspector for the purpose of securing compliance with the Provisions of
the Act, then shall that person be deemed to be a public servant within the meaning of the Indian Penal Code (45 of
1860)?

A. Yes

B. No

Answer A

28. Which Section of the Act details out the provisions related to Health and Safety under the Act?

A. Section 11

B. Section 12

C. Section 13

D. Section 14

Answer C

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI,PUNE-45

29. Identify Section 15 of the Act.

A. Penalties

B. Power to make rules

C. Modified application of certain laws in relation to penalties

D. Appointment of Inspector

Answer C

30. Identify the Section ("Certain other provisions of law not barred") of the Act.

A. Section 15

B. Section 16

C. Section 18

D. Section 20

Answer D

31. Identify section 3 of the act.

A. Prohibition of employment of children in certain occupations and processes.

B. Power to form committee

C. Power to amend schedule

D. Power to appoint chairman

Answer A

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI,PUNE-45

32. Whom does the Power to amend the Schedule lie with?

A. Chief Inspector

B. Occupier

C. State Government

D. Central Government

Answer D

33. In order to add any occupation or process in the Schedule, the Central Government shall give notice, in the Official
Gazette, of not less than ___.

A. 1 month

B. 2 months

C. 3 months

D. 4 months

Answer C

34. Under which section of The Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986 shall the Central Government form the
Child Labour Technical Advisory Committee?

A. Section 4

B. Section 5

C. Section 6

D. Section 7

Answer B

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI,PUNE-45

35. The Child Labour Technical Advisory Committee shall consist of ___ persons.

A. 5

B. 8

C. 10

D. 12

Answer C

36. Which section of The Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986 details about the Hours and Period of Work?

A. Section 7

B. Section 8

C. Section 9

D. Section 10

Answer A

37. The period of work of a child under this act shall not exceed ___.

A. 3 hours

B. 4 hours

C. 8 hours

D. None of these

Answer A

38. A break of at least ___ shall be given to a child as per section for Hours and Period of Work under the act.

A. 30 minutes

B. 1 hour

C. 2 hours

D. 3 hours

Answer B

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI,PUNE-45

39. The spread over for work of a child shall not exceed ___ hours as per The Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation)
Act, 1986.

A. 5

B. 6

C. 7

D. 9

Answer B

40. The time spent for waiting for work on any day shall be included in the spread over for work of a child as per the act.

A. True

B. False

Answer A

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Unit 5
The Maternity Benefits Act,1961

-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------

1. Which section of the maternity act states the conditions for eligibility of benefits?

A. Section 18

B. Section 5

C. Section 10

D. Section 8

Answer B

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI,PUNE-45

2. In the maternity act, an inspector is appointed under which section?

A. Section 14

B. Section 2

C. Section 10

D. Section 15

Answer A

3. What is the minimum number of days that a woman should have worked in an establishment before claiming the
maternity benefit?

A. 365 days

B. 120 days

C. 80 days

D. 240 days

Answer: C

4. What is the maximum period for which any woman is entitled to maternity benefit?

A. 6 weeks

B. 12 weeks

C. 18 weeks

D. 24 weeks

Answer B

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI,PUNE-45

5. What is the amount of medical bonus entitled to a woman who is also entitled to receive maternity benefit?

A. 3500 rupees

B. 5000 rupees

C. 2000 rupees

D. 1500 rupees

Answer A

6. The maternity benefit act's objectives were achieved by the enactment of _______________

A. Factories Act, 1948

B. Payment of wages act, 1936

C. Employees State Insurance Act of 1948

D. Standing orders act, 1946

Answer C

7. In which year did the amendment act come into force?

A. 1996

B. 1961

C. 1998

D. 1976

Answer A

8. Which section of the act states the conditions for eligibility of benefits?

A. Section 18

B. Section 5

C. Section 10

D. Section 8

Answer B

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI,PUNE-45

9. Till what age of the child will a mother get 2 nursing breaks in the course of her daily work?

A. 12 months

B. 6 months

C. 18 months

D. 15 months

Answer D

10. How many weeks in advance a written notice for maternity leave has to be given to the employer by the expecting
women?

A. 4 weeks

B. 7 weeks

C. 1 week

D. 8 weeks

Answer B

11. Section 10 discusses about the leave for illness arising out of pregnancy.

A. True

B. False

Answer A

12. State the objectives of the Maternity act?

A. To regulate the employment of women workers in such establishments for certain period before and after child birth.

B. Application of act in every establishment being a factory, mine or plantation

C. To provide satisfactory conditions to expectant women

D. All of the above Answer A

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI,PUNE-45

13. As per section 18, if an employer discharges or dismisses a woman during or on account of her absence from work
during the maternity leave, then what is the punishment faced by an employer?

A. 3 months or more and will extend to 1 year

B. 6 months or more and will extend to 2 years

C. 3 months or more and will extend to 2 years

D. None of the above

Answer A

14. As per section 9, for how many weeks a woman is entitled for leave in case of a miscarriage?

A. 3 weeks

B. 9 weeks

C. 1 week

D. 6 weeks

Answer D

15. Section 17 describes the obligations of the employer under the maternity benefit act.

A. True

B. False

Answer B

16. Which of the following enactment stipulates for nursing break to a women employee?

A. Equal Remuneration Act, 1976

B. Maternity Benefit Act, 1961

C. Apprentices Act, 1961

D. The Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986

Answer: B

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI,PUNE-45

17. Every woman entitled to maternity benefit under the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961 shall also be entitled to receive from
her employer

A. Medical bonus

B. Leave for miscarriage

C. Leave with wages for tubectomy operation

D. All of the above

Answer: D

18. The condition of 80 days of employment in the 12 months immediately preceding the date of benefit has been made
an eligibility condition for getting

A. Maternity Benefit under the Maternity Benefit Act

B. Disablement benefit under the ESI Act

C. Gratuity under the Payment of Gratuity Act

D. Sickness benefit under the ESI Act

Answer A

19. The Royal Commission on Labour examined which of the two States’ Maternity Benefit Acts and recommended
enactment of similar laws all over the country?

A. Bombay and Madhya Pradesh

B. Madras and Mysore

C. Bihar and Bengal

D. Punjab and Assam

Answer A

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI,PUNE-45

20. No contribution is required for getting benefit under which of the following legislations?

A. Maternity Benefit Act

B. Employees’ Compensation Act

C. Both under (A) & (B)

D. None of the above

Answer C

21. _____________ means in relation to an establishment being a mine (or an establishment wherein persons are
employed for the exhibition of equestrian, acrobatic and other performances) the Central government and in
relation to any other establishment.

a. Employer
b. Appropriate government
c. Establishment
d. Factory

ANSWER: b.

22. In the maternity act, an inspector is appointed under which section?

a. Section 14
b. Section 2
c. Section 10
d. Section 15

ANSWER: a.

23. What is the minimum number of days that a woman should have worked in an establishment before claiming
the maternity benefit?

a. 365 days
b. 120 days
c. 80 days
d. 240 days

ANSWER: c.

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI,PUNE-45

24. What is the maximum period for which any woman is entitled to maternity benefit?

a. 6 weeks
b. 12 weeks
c. 18 weeks
d. 24 weeks

ANSWER: b.

25. What is the amount of medical bonus entitled to a woman who is also entitled to receive maternity benefit?

a. 250 rupees
b. 500 rupees
c. 1000 rupees
d. 100 rupees

ANSWER: a.

26. The maternity benefit act's objectives were achieved by the enactment of _______________

a. Factories Act, 1948

b. Payment of wages act, 1936
c. Employees State Insurance Act of 1948
d. Standing orders act, 1946

ANSWER: c.

27. In which year did the amendment act come into force?

a. 1996
b. 1961
c. 1998
d. 1976

ANSWER: a.

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI,PUNE-45

28. Which section of the act states the conditions for eligibility of benefits?

a. Section 18
b. Section 5
c. Section 10
d. Section 8

ANSWER: b.

29. Till what age of the child will a mother get 2 nursing breaks in the course of her daily work?

a. 12 months
b. 6 months
c. 18 months
d. 15 months

ANSWER: d.

30. How many weeks in advance a written notice for maternity leave has to be given to the employer by the
expecting women?

a. 4 weeks
b. 7 weeks
c. 1 week
d. 8 weeks

ANSWER: b.

31. State true or false:

i. Section 10 discusses about the leave for illness arising out of pregnancy.

a. True
b. False

ANSWER: a. True

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI,PUNE-45

32. State the objectives of the act?

a. To regulate the employment of women workers in such establishments for certain period before and after child birth.

b. Application of act in every establishment being a factory, mine or plantation

c. To provide satisfactory conditions to expectant women

d. All of the above

ANSWER: a.

33. As per section 18, if an employer discharges or dismisses a woman during or on account of her absence from
work during the maternity leave, then what is the punishment faced by an employer?

a. 3 months or more and will extend to 1 year

b. 6 months or more and will extend to 2 years
c. 3 months or more and will extend to 2 years
d. None of the above

ANSWER: a.

34. As per section 9, for how many weeks a woman is entitled for leave in case of a miscarriage?

a. 3 weeks
b. 9 weeks
c. 1 week
d. 6 weeks

ANSWER: d.

35. State true or false:

i. Section 17 describes the obligations of the employer under the maternity benefit act.

a. True
b. False

ANSWER: b.

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI,PUNE-45

36. _____________ means in relation to an establishment being a mine (or an establishment wherein persons are
employed for the exhibition of equestrian, acrobatic and other performances) the Central government and in
relation to any other establishment.

a. Employer
b. Appropriate government
c. Establishment
d. Factory

ANSWER: b.

37. In the maternity act, an inspector is appointed under which section?

a. Section 14
b. Section 2
c. Section 10
d. Section 15

ANSWER: a.

38. What is the minimum number of days that a woman should have worked in an establishment before claiming
the maternity benefit?

a. 365 days
b. 120 days
c. 80 days
d. 240 days

ANSWER: c.

39. What is the maximum period for which any woman is entitled to maternity benefit?

a. 6 weeks
b. 12 weeks
c. 18 weeks
d. 24 weeks

ANSWER: b.

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI,PUNE-45

40. What is the amount of medical bonus entitled to a woman who is also entitled to receive maternity benefit?

a. 250 rupees
b. 500 rupees
c. 1000 rupees
d. 100 rupees

ANSWER: a.

41. The maternity benefit act's objectives were achieved by the enactment of _______________

a. Factories Act, 1948

b. Payment of wages act, 1936
c. Employees State Insurance Act of 1948
d. Standing orders act, 1946

ANSWER: c.

42. In which year did the amendment act come into force?

a. 1996
b. 1961
c. 1998
d. 1976

View Answer / Hide Answer

ANSWER: a. 1996

43. Which section of the act states the conditions for eligibility of benefits?

a. Section 18
b. Section 5
c. Section 10
d. Section 8

ANSWER: b.

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI,PUNE-45

44. Till what age of the child will a mother get 2 nursing breaks in the course of her daily work?

a. 12 months
b. 6 months
c. 18 months
d. 15 months

ANSWER: d.

45. How many weeks in advance a written notice for maternity leave has to be given to the employer by the
expecting women?

a. 4 weeks
b. 7 weeks
c. 1 week
d. 8 weeks

ANSWER: b.

================================== =============end=========================================

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