THE ATMOSPHERE

1. How does the height of the tropopause normally vary with latitude in the
Northern Hemisphere?
a. It decreases from south to north
b. It increases from south to north
c. It remains constant from north to south
d. It remains constant throughout the year
2. What, approximately, is the average height of the tropopause over the
Equator?
a. 8 km
b. 16 km
c. 11 km
d. 50 km
3. In the International Standard Atmosphere the decrease in temperature
with height below 11 km is:
a. 0.5°C/100 m
b. 0.6°C/100 m
c. 0.65°/100 m
d. 1°C/100 m
4. The 200 hPa pressure altitude level can vary in height. In temperate regions
which of the following average heights is applicable?
a. FL390
b. FL300
c. FL100
d. FL50
5. The temperature at FL110 is -12°C. What will the temperature be at FL140
if the ICAO standard lapse rate is applied?
a. -6°C
b. -18°C
c. -9°C
d. -15°C
6. At a certain position the temperature on the 300 hPa chart is -54°C, and
according to the significant weather chart the tropopause is at FL330. What is
the most likely temperature at FL350?
a. -48°C
b. -60°C
c. -56.5°C
 d. -64°C
7. What is the boundary between the troposphere and the stratosphere called?
a. Ionosphere
b. Stratosphere
c. Atmosphere
d. Tropopause
8. Which constant pressure altitude chart is standard for 4781 ft pressure
level (FL50)?
a. 500 hPa
b. 300 hPa
c. 850 hPa
d. 700 hPa
9. An outside air temperature of -30°C is measured whilst cruising at FL200.
What is the temperature deviation from the ISA at this level?
a. 5°C colder than ISA
b. 5°C warmer than ISA
c. 10°C colder than ISA
d. 10°C warmer than ISA
10. What is the most likely temperature at the tropical tropopause?
a. -56.5°C
b. -75°C
c. -40°C
d. -25°C
11. Which one of the following statements applies to the tropopause?
a. It is, by definition, an isothermal layer
b. It indicates a strong temperature lapse rate
c. It is, by definition a temperature inversion
d. It separates the troposphere from the stratosphere
12. In the lower part of the stratosphere the temperature:
a. is almost constant
b. decreases with altitude
c. increases with altitude
d. increases at first and decreases afterwards
13. What is the approximate composition of the dry air by volume in the
troposphere?
a. 10% oxygen, 89% nitrogen and the rest other gases
b. 88% oxygen, 9% nitrogen and the rest other gases
c. 50% oxygen, 40% nitrogen and the rest other gases
d. 21% oxygen, 78% nitrogen and the rest other gases
14. How does temperature vary with increasing altitude in the ICAO standard
atmosphere below the tropopause?
a. Remains constant
b. Decreases
c. Increases
d. At first it increases and higher up it decreases
15. How would you characterize an air temperature of -15°C at the 700 hPa
level over western Europe?
a. Within +/-5°C of ISA
b. 20°C below standard
c. Low
d. High
16. If you are flying at FL300 in an air mass that is 15°C warmer than a
standard atmosphere what is the outside temperature likely to be?
a. -15°C
b. -30°C
c. -45°C
d. -60°C
17. If you are flying at FL140 and the outside temperature is -8°C at what
altitude will the freezing level be?
a. FL75
b. FL100
c. FL130
d. FL180
18. What is the most important constituent in the atmosphere from a weather
standpoint?
a. Carbon dioxide
b. Oxygen
 c. Water vapour
d. Methane
19. The average height of the tropopause at a latitude of 50° is about:
a. 8 km
b. 11 km
c. 14 km
d. 16 km
20. Between mean sea level and a height of 20 km the lowest temperature in
the international standard atmosphere (ISA) is:
a. -273°C
b. -44.7°C
c. -56.5°C
d. -100°C
21. The international standard atmosphere (ISA) assumes that the
temperature will reduce at a rate of:
a. 1.98°C per 1000 feet up to 36 090 feet after which it remains constant to
65 617 feet
b. 1.98°C per 1000 feet up to 36 090 feet and then will rise at 0.3°C per 1000
feet up to 65 617 feet when it will remain constant
c. 2°C per 1000 feet up to 65 617 feet after which it will remain constant to
104 987 feet
d. 2°C per 1000 feet up to 36 090 feet and will then increase at 0.3°C per
1000 feet up to 65 617 feet
22. In the mid-latitudes the stratosphere extends on average from:
a. 0 to 11 km
b. 11 to 50 km
c. 50 to 85 km
 d. 11 to 20 km
23. In relation to the total weight of the atmosphere, the weight of the
atmosphere between mean sea level and a height of 5500 m is approximately:
a. 1%
b. 25%
c. 50%
d. 99%
24. A temperature of +15°C is recorded at an altitude of 500 metres above
mean sea level. If the vertical temperature gradient is that of a standard
atmosphere, what will be the temperature at the summit of a mountain 2500
metres above mean sea level?
a. 0°C
b. +2°C
c. +4°C
d. -2°C

PRESSURE

1. The barometric pressure at the airfield datum point is known as:

a. QFF
b. QNH
c. QFE
d. Standard Pressure
2. The instrument that gives a continuous printed reading and record of the
atmospheric pressure is:
a. barometer
b. hygrometer
c. anemograph
d. barograph
3. The pressure of the atmosphere:
a. decreases at an increasing rate as height increases
b. decreases at a constant rate as height increases
c. decreases at a decreasing rate as height increases
d. decreases at a constant rate up to the tropopause and then remains
constant
4. When considering the actual tropopause which statement is correct?
a. It is low over the poles and high over the Equator
b. It is high over the poles and low over the Equator
c. It is the same height of 36 090 ft all over the world
d. It is at a constant altitude of 26 000’
5. Atmospheric pressure may be defined as:
a. the weight of the atmosphere exerted on any surface with which it is in
contact
b. the weight of the atmosphere at standard sea level
c. the force per unit area exerted by the atmosphere on any surface with
which it is in contact
d. a pressure exerted by the atmosphere of 1013.2 hPa
6. The QFF is the atmospheric pressure:
a. at the place where the reading is taken
 b. corrected for temperature difference from standard and adjusted to MSL
assuming standard atmospheric conditions exist
c. at a place where the reading is taken corrected to MSL taking into account
the prevailing temperature conditions
d. as measured by a barometer at the aerodrome reference point
7. The pressure of 1013 hPa is known as:
a. standard pressure setting
b. QNH
c. QFE
d. QFF
8. The aircraft altimeter will read zero at aerodrome level with which
pressure setting set on the altimeter subscale:
a. QFF
b. QNH
c. SPS
d. QFE
9. The aerodrome QFE is:
a. the reading on the altimeter on an aerodrome when the aerodrome
barometric pressure is set on the subscale
b. the reading on the altimeter on touchdown at an aerodrome when 1013 is
set on the subscale
c. the reading on the altimeter on an aerodrome when the sea level
barometric pressure is set on the subscale
d. the aerodrome barometric pressure
10. When an altimeter subscale is set to the aerodrome QFE, the altimeter
reads:
a. the elevation of the aerodrome at the aerodrome reference point
b. zero at the aerodrome reference point
 c. the pressure altitude at the aerodrome reference point
d. the appropriate altitude of the aircraft
11. The aerodrome QNH is the aerodrome barometric pressure:
a. corrected to mean sea level assuming standard atmospheric conditions
exist
b. corrected to mean sea level, assuming isothermal conditions exist
c. corrected for temperature and adjusted to MSL assuming standard
atmosphere conditions exist
d. corrected to MSL using ambient temperature
12. A line drawn on a chart joining places having the same barometric
pressure at the same level and at the same time is:
a. an isotherm
b. an isallobar
c. a contour
d. an isobar
13. An isobar on a meteorological chart joins all places having the same:
a. QFE
b. QFF
c. QNH
d. standard pressure
14. Pressure will _________ with increase of height and will be about
__________ at 10 000 ft and ___________ at 30 000 ft.
a. Increase 800 hPa 400 hPa
b. Decrease 700 hPa 300 hPa
c. Increase 200 hPa 800 hPa
d. Decrease 500 hPa 200 hPa
15. An airfield in England is 100 m above sea level, QFF is 1030 hPa,
temperature at the surface is -15°C. What is the value of QNH?
a. Impossible to determine
b. Less than 1030 hPa
c. Same as QFF
d. More than 1030 hPa

DENSITY

1. Consider the following statements relative to air density and select the one
which is correct:
a. Because air density increases with decrease of temperature, air density
must increase with increase of height in the International Standard Atmosphere
(ISA)
b. At any given surface temperature the air density will be greater in
anticyclonic conditions than it will be when the MSL pressure is lower
c. Air density increases with increase of relative humidity
d. The effect of change of temperature on the air density is much greater
than the effect of change of atmospheric pressure
2. The tropopause in mid latitudes is:
a. lower in summer with a lower temperature
b. lower in winter with a higher temperature
c. lower in summer with a higher temperature
 d. lower in winter with a lower temperature
3. Generally as altitude increases:
a. temperature decreases and density increases
b. temperature, pressure and density decreases
c. temperature and pressure increase and density decreases
d. temperature decreases and pressure density increases
4. In the troposphere:
a. over cold air, the pressure is higher at upper levels than at similar levels
over warm air
b. over cold air, the pressure is lower at upper levels than at similar levels
over warm air
c. over warm air, the pressure is lower at upper levels than at similar levels
over warm air
d. the upper level pressure depends solely on the relative humidity below
5. Density at the surface will be low when:
a. pressure is high and temperature is high
b. pressure is high and temperature is low
c. pressure is low and temperature is low
d. pressure is low and temperature is high
6. Which of the following combinations will give the lowest air density?
a. Low pressure, low humidity, low temperature
b. High pressure, high temperature, high humidity
c. High pressure, low temperature, low humidity
d. Low pressure, high humidity, high temperature
 PRESSURE SYSTEMS

1. A steep pressure gradient is characterized by:

a. isobars close together, strengthened wind
b. isobars far apart, decreased wind
c. isobars close together, temperature increasing
d. isobars far apart, temperature decreasing
2. QNH at Timbuktu (200 m AMSL) is 1015 hPa. What is the QFE? (Assume
1 hPa = 8 m)
a. 1000 hPa
b. 990 hPa
c. 1020 hPa
d. 995 hPa
3. In temperate latitudes in summer what conditions would you expect in the
centre of a high pressure system?
a. Thunderstorms
b. Calm winds, haze
c. Showers
d. Dense cloud
4. If the pressure level surface bulges upwards, the pressure system is a:
a. cold low
b. warm low
c. cold high
d. warm high
5. The QNH at an airfield 200 m AMSL is 1009 hPa; air temperature is 10°C
lower than standard. What is the QFF?
 a. Not possible to give a definite answer
b. Less than 1009 hPa
c. 1009 hPa
d. More than 1009 hPa
6. QNH is defined as:
a. the pressure at MSL obtained using the standard atmosphere
b. the pressure at MSL obtained using the actual conditions
c. QFE reduced to MSL using the actual conditions
d. QFE reduced to MSL using the standard atmosphere
7. Landing at an airfield with QNH set the pressure altimeter reads:
a. zero feet on landing only if ISA conditions prevail
b. zero
c. the elevation of the airfield if ISA conditions prevail
d. the elevation of the airfield
8. Airfield is 69 metres below sea level, QFF is 1030 hPa, temperature is ISA -
10°C. What is the QNH?
a. Impossible to tell
b. Less than 1030 hPa
c. 1030 hPa
d. More than 1030 hPa
9. What is the vertical movement of air relating to a trough?
a. Descending and diverging
b. Ascending and diverging
c. Descending and converging
d. Converging and ascending
10. What is the vertical movement of air relating to a ridge?
 a. Descending and diverging
b. Ascending and diverging
c. Descending and converging
d. Ascending and converging
11. What is subsidence?
a. Horizontal motion of air
b. Vertical down draught of air
c. Vertical up draught of air
d. Adiabatic cooling
12. Aerodrome at MSL, QNH is 1022 hPa. QFF is:
a. greater than 1022 hPa
b. less than 1022 hPa
c. same as QNH
d. cannot tell without temperature information
13. Air at the upper levels of the atmosphere is diverging. What would you
expect at the surface?
a. Rise in pressure with clouds dissipating
b. Rise in pressure with clouds forming
c. Fall in pressure with cloud dissipating
d. Fall in pressure with cloud forming
14. Subsidence would be described as:
a. vertical ascension of air
b. horizontal movement of air
c. the same as convection
d. vertical down flow of air
15. You are flying at FL170. The pressure level which is closest to you is the:
 a. 300 hPa
b. 700 hPa
c. 500 hPa
d. 850 hPa
16. On a surface weather chart, isobars are lines of:
a. QNH
b. QFE
c. QFF
d. QNE
17. At FL60 what pressure chart would you use?
a. 700 hPa
b. 500 hPa
c. 800 hPa
d. 1000 hPa
18. (For this question use Annex B) A ridge is indicated by letter:
a. D
b. A
c. B
d. C
19. (For this question use Annex A) Which of the following best describes
Zone D?
a. Ridge of high pressure
b. Anticyclone
c. Trough of low pressure
d. Col
20. (For this question use Annex A) Which of the following best describes
Zone C?
a. Trough of low pressure
b. Depression
c. Ridge of high pressure
d. Anticyclone
21. (For this question use Annex B) Which of the following best describes
Zone A?
a. Col
b. Ridge of High Pressure
c. Depression
d. Trough of low pressure
22. (For this question use Annex B) Which of the following best describes
Zone B?
a. Ridge of high pressure
b. Depression
c. Anticyclone
d. Col
23. (For this question Annex C) The pressure system at position A is a:
a. trough of low pressure
b. anticyclone
c. col
d. secondary low
24. (For this question use Annex C) The pressure system located in area “B” is
a
a. Ridge of high pressure
b. col
 c. trough of low pressure
d. depression
25. At which average height can the 500 hPa pressure level be expected in
moderate latitudes?
a. 12.2 km
b. 3 km
c. 5.5 km
d. 9.0 km
26. The average pressure found at a height of 1620 m in mid latitudes would
be:
a. 350 hPa
b. 400 hPa
c. 850 hPa
d. 950 hPa

ANNEX A
ANNEX B

ANNEX C
 TEMPERATURE

1. The measurement of surface temperature is made:

a. at ground level
b. at approximately 10 metres from ground level
c. at approximately 4 feet above ground level
d. at approximately 4 metres above ground level
2. The purpose of a “Stevenson screen” is to:
a. maintain a moist atmosphere so that the wet bulb thermometer can
function correctly
b. prevent the mercury freezing in the low winter temperatures
c. protect the thermometer from wind, weather and from direct sunshine
d. keep the wet and dry bulb thermometers away from surface extremes of
temperature
3. If temperature remains constant with an increase in altitude there is:
a. an inversion
b. an inversion aloft
c. uniform lapse rate
d. an isothermal layer
4. The surface of the earth is heated by:
a. convection
b. conduction
c. long wave solar radiation
d. short wave solar radiation
5. Cloud cover will reduce diurnal variation of temperature because:
 a. incoming solar radiation is reflected back to space and outgoing terrestrial
radiation is reflected back to earth
b. incoming solar radiation is re-radiated back to space and atmospheric
heating by convection will stop at the level of the cloud layer
c. the cloud stops the sun’s rays getting through to the earth and also reduces
outgoing conduction
d. incoming solar radiation is reflected back to space and outgoing terrestrial
radiation is re-radiated from the cloud layer back to the surface
6. Diurnal variation of the surface temperature will:
a. be unaffected by a change of wind speed
b. decrease as wind speed increases
c. increase as wind speed increases
d. be at a minimum in calm conditions
7. Which of the following surfaces is likely to produce a higher than average
diurnal variation of temperature:
a. rock or concrete
b. water
c. snow
d. vegetation
8. Most accurate temperatures above ground level are obtained by:
a. tephigram
b. aircraft reports
c. temperature probe
d. radiosonde
9. The method by which energy is transferred from one body to another by
contact is called:
a. radiation
 b. convection
c. conduction
d. latent heat
10. The diurnal variation of temperature is:
a. greater over the sea than overland
b. less over desert areas then over temperate grassland
c. reduced anywhere by the presence of cloud
d. increased anywhere as wind speed increases
11. The troposphere is heated largely by:
a. absorption of the sun’s short wave radiation
b. radiation of heat from cloud tops and the earth’s surface
c. absorption by ozone of the sun’s short wave radiation
d. conduction from the surface, convection and the release of latent heat
12. An inversion is one in which:
a. there is no horizontal gradient of temperature
b. there is no change of temperature with height
c. there is an increase of temperature as height increases
d. there is a decrease of temperature as height increases
13. The sun gives out________ amount of energy with _________ wavelengths.
The earth gives out relatively___________ amounts of energy with
relatively___________ wavelengths:
a. large, large, small, small
b. small, small, large, large
c. large, large, small, large
d. large, small, small, large
14. With a clear night sky, the temperature change with height by early
morning is most likely to show:
a. a steady lapse rate averaging 2°C per 1000 ft
b. a stable lapse rate of 1°C per 1000 ft
c. an inversion above the surface with an isothermal layer above
d. an inversion from near the surface and a 2°C per 1000 ft lapse rate above
15. Over continents and oceans, the relative temperature conditions are:
a. warmer in winter over land, colder in summer over sea
b. colder in winter over land, warmer in winter over sea
c. cold in winter over land and sea
d. warmer in summer over land and sea

HUMIDITY

1. Throughout the 24 hours of a day the Relative Humidity can be expected to:
a. increase during the day and decrease at night
b. stay reasonably constant throughout the 24 hours
c. reduce during the day and increase at night
d. only change with a change of air mass
2. During a night with a clear sky, surface temperature will ____________ RH
will______________ and dew point will___________.
a. fall, rise, rise
 b. rise, rise, fall
c. fall, rise, remain the same
d. fall, fall, remain the same
3. A change of state directly from a solid to a vapour or vice versa is:
a. insolation
b. condensation
c. evaporation
d. sublimation
4. The instrument used for measuring the humidity of air is a:
a. hydrometer
b. hygrometer
c. wet bulb thermometer
d. hygroscope
5. The process of change of state from a gas to a liquid is:
a. evaporation in which latent heat is absorbed
b. evaporation in which latent heat is released
c. condensation in which latent heat is absorbed
d. condensation in which latent heat is released
6. The process of change of state from a liquid to a gas is:
a. condensation in which latent heat is released
b. evaporation in which latent heat is released
c. condensation in which latent heat is absorbed
d. evaporation in which latent heat is absorbed
7. Air is classified as dry or saturated according to its relative humidity. If the
relative humidity were 95% the air would be classified as:
a. conditionally saturated
 b. partially saturated
c. saturated
d. dry
8. On a wet bulb thermometer in an unsaturated atmosphere there will be a
reduction of temperature below that of the dry bulb thermometer because:
a. heat is absorbed during the process of condensation
b. heat is released during the process of condensation
c. heat is absorbed by the thermometer during the process of evaporation
d. heat is released from the thermometer during the process of evaporation
9. Relative humidity is:
a. air temperature over wet bulb temperature × 100
b. air temperature over dew point temperature × 100
c. the actual amount of water vapour in a sample of air over the maximum
amount of water vapour that the sample can contain × 100
d. the maximum amount of water vapour that a sample of air can contain
over the actual amount of water vapour the sample does contain × 100
10. Absolute humidity is:
a. the number of water droplets in a given quantity of air
b. the amount of water vapour that a given quantity of air holds
c. the maximum amount of water vapour that a given quantity of air can hold
d. the maximum number of water droplets that a given quantity of air can
hold
11. Wet bulb temperature would normally be lower than the dry bulb
temperature because:
a. condensation causes a release of latent heat
b. evaporation causes cooling
c. latent heat is absorbed by the bulb thermometer
 d. of condensation on the muslin wick of the bulb
12. The wet bulb temperature:
a. is measured using a hydrometer
b. is the minimum temperature to which a thermometer bulb can be cooled
by the evaporation of water
c. measures the dew point of the air
d. is the minimum temperature reached by the surface of the earth as
measured by a thermometer placed 1.2 metres above the ground
13. Which one of the following statements relating to atmospheric humidity is
correct?
a. If the air temperature falls then the absolute humidity must increase
b. The absolute humidity is the mass of water vapour contained in unit
volume of air
c. The diurnal variation of dew point temperature is greatest when skies are
clear at night
d. The dew point temperature is the temperature indicated by the wet bulb
thermometer
14. When condensation takes place, the higher the temperature, the
__________the amount of latent heat___________:
a. lesser; released
b. greater; absorbed
c. greater; released
d. lesser; absorbed
15. When water vapour changes to ice:
a. latent heat is absorbed
b. specific heat is released
c. latent heat is released
d. specific heat is absorbed
 ADIABATICS AND STABILITY

1. If the ELR is 0.65°C / 100 m, the layer is:

a. atmosphere is conditionally stable
b. atmosphere is stable
c. atmosphere is unstable
d. atmosphere is stable when dry
2. ELR is 1°C / 100 m, the layer is:
a. neutral when dry
b. absolute stability
c. absolute instability
d. conditional stability
3. Why does air cool as it rises?
a It expands
b. It contracts
c. The air is colder at higher latitudes
d. The air is colder at higher altitudes
4. From which of the following can the stability of the atmosphere be
determined?
a. Surface pressure
b. Surface temperature
c. DALR
d. ELR
5. When the upper part of a layer of warm air is advected:
a. Stability increases within the layer
 b. Stability decreases within the layer
c. Wind speed will always decrease with increase in height in the Northern
Hemisphere
d. Wind will back with increase in height in the Northern Hemisphere
6. The temperature at the surface is 15°C, the temperature at 1000 m is 13°C.
The atmosphere is:
a. unstable
b. conditionally unstable
c. stable
d. cannot tell
7. Which of the following gives conditionally unstable conditions?
a. 1°C / 100 m
b. 0.65°C / 100 m
c. 0.49°C / 100 m
d. None of the above
8. A mass of unsaturated air is forced to rise till just under the condensation
level. It then settles back to its original position. What happens to the
temperature?
a. Temp. is greater than before
b. Temp. stays the same
c. Temp. is less than before
d. It depends on QFE
9. What happens to the stability of the atmosphere in an inversion? (Temp
increasing with height)
a. Absolutely stable
b. Unstable
c. Conditionally stable
 d. Conditionally unstable
10. What happens to stability of the atmosphere in an isothermal layer?
(Temp constant with height)
a. Absolutely stable
b. Unstable
c. Conditionally stable
d. Conditionally unstable
11. What is the effect of a strong low level inversion?
a. Good visibility
b. Calm conditions
c. Turbulence
d. Unstable conditions
12. A layer of air can be:
a. conditional; unstable when unsaturated and stable when saturated
b. conditional; unstable when saturated and stable when unsaturated
c. neutrally stable when saturated and unstable when unsaturated
d. all of the above
13. What happens to the temperature of a saturated air mass when forced to
descend?
a. It heats up more than dry because of expansion
b. It heats up less than dry because of evaporation
c. It heats up more than dry because of sublimation
d. It heats up less than dry because of latent heat released during
condensation
14. In still air a lapse rate of 1.2°C / 100 m refers to:
a. DALR
 b. SALR
c. ELR
d. ALR
15. What happens to the temperature of a saturated air mass when
descending?
a. It heats up more than dry because of expansion
b. It heats up less than dry because of evaporation
c. It heats up more than dry because of compression
d. It heats up less than dry because of latent heat released during
condensation
16. The DALR is:
a. variable with time
b. fixed
c. variable with latitude
d. variable with temperature
17. An environment cooling at more than 1°C / 100 m is said to be:
a. conditionally stable
b. conditionally unstable
c. unstable
d. stable
 TURBULENCE

1. Maximum turbulence associated with the mountain waves is likely to be:

a. two wavelengths downwind and just above the surface
b. approximately one wavelength downwind of, and approximately level
with, the top of the ridge
c. just below the tropopause above the ridge
d. down the lee side of the ridge and along the surface
2. For the formation of mountain waves, the wind above the level of the ridge
should:
a. decrease or even reverse direction
b. increase initially then decrease
c. increase with little change in direction
d. increase and then reverse in direction
3. When flying in IMC in a region close to a range of hills 2000 ft high, in
stable air and with wind direction at right angles to the axis of the range of
hills, which of the following is probably the most dangerous practice:
a. flying towards the hills, into the wind, at flight level 65
b. flying parallel to the hills on the downwind side at flight level 40
c. flying towards the hills downwind at flight level 55
d. flying parallel to the hills on the upwind side at flight level 40
4. Which of the following statements referring to jet streams is correct?
a. Turbulence associated with jet streams is probably associated with the
rapid windshear in the vicinity of the jet
b. The maximum wind speed in a jet stream increases with increase of height
up to the tropopause and remains constant thereafter
 c. The core of a jet stream is usually located just below the tropopause in the
colder air mass
d. The rate of change of wind speed at any given level is usually greatest on
the warmer side of the jet
5. The wind at square A3 is likely to be:
a. 35 kt
b. 50 kt
c. 25 kt
d. light
6. The wind at ABC 4 may be:
a. 50 kt
b. 40 kt
c. 35 kt
d. a jet stream
7. Flight conditions at B1 are likely to be:
a. smooth
b. turbulent
c. turbulent in breaking wave crests
d. turbulent due to marked up and down currents
8. The most extreme turbulence can occur:
a. at B1
b. at A2
c. at ABC 4
d. at B2, 3, 4 and at C2, 3, 4
9. The significance of lenticular cloud is:
a. there may be mountain waves present and there will be severe turbulence
 b. there are mountain waves present but they may not give severe turbulence
c. a Föhn wind can be expected with no turbulence
d. a katabatic wind is present which may lead to fog in the valleys
10. A mountain range is aligned in an east/west direction. Select the conditions
from the table below that will give rise to mountain waves:
2000 ft 5000 ft 10 000 ft
a. 020/40 020/30 020/50
b. 170/20 190/40 210/60
c. 270/15 270/20 270/40
d. 090/20 090/40 090/60
11. For mountain waves to form, the wind direction must be near
perpendicular to a ridge or range of mountains and the speed must:
a. decrease with height within a stable layer above the hill
b. increase with height within an unstable layer above the hill
c. decrease with height within an unstable layer above the hill
d. increase with height within a stable layer above the hill
12. A north/south mountain range, height 10 000 ft is producing marked
mountain waves. The greatest potential danger exists for an aircraft flying:
a. on the windward side of the ridge
b. at FL350 over and parallel to the ridge
c. towards the ridge from the lee side at FL140
d. above a line of clouds parallel to the ridge on the lee side at FL25
13. Clear air turbulence, in association with a polar front jet stream in the
Northern Hemisphere, is more severe:
a. underneath the jet core
b. in the centre of the jet core
c. looking downstream on the right hand side
 d. looking downstream on the left hand side
14. Mountain waves can occur:
a. up to a maximum of 5000 ft above the mountains and 50 NM to 100 NM
downwind
b. up to mountain height only and 50 NM to 100 NM downwind
c. above the mountain and downwind up to a maximum height at the
tropopause and 50 NM to 100 NM downwind.
d. in the stratosphere and troposphere
15. Clear air turbulence (CAT) should be reported whenever it is experienced.
What should be reported if crew and passengers feel a definite strain against
their seat or shoulder straps, food service and walking is difficult and loose
objects become dislodged?
a. Light TURB
b. Extreme TURB
c. Severe TURB
d. Moderate TURB

ALTIMETRY

1. MSA given as 12 000 ft, flying over mountains in temperatures +9°C, QNH
set as 1023 (obtained from a nearby airfield). What will the true altitude be
when 12 000 ft is reached?
a. 11 940
 b. 11 148
c. 12 210
d. 12 864
2. When flying at FL180 in the Southern Hemisphere you experience a left to
right crosswind. What is happening to your true altitude if indicated altitude
is constant?
a. Remains the same
b. Increasing
c. Decreasing
d. Impossible to tell
3. Flying from Marseilles (QNH 1012) to Palma (QNH 1015) at FL100. You do
not reset the altimeter, why would true altitude be the same throughout the
flight?
a. Not possible to tell
b. Air at Palma is warmer than air at Marseilles
c. Air at Marseilles is warmer than air at Palma
d. Blocked static vent
4. Which of these would cause your true altitude to decrease with a constant
indicated altitude?
a. Cold/Low
b. Hot/Low
c. Cold/High
d. Hot/High
5. An aircraft flying in the Alps on a very cold day, QNH 1013 set in the
altimeter, flies level with the summit of the mountains. Altitude from aneroid
altimeter reads:
a. same as mountain elevation
b. lower than mountain elevation
 c. higher than mountain elevation
d. impossible to determine
6. You are flying in an atmosphere which is warmer than ISA, what might you
expect?
a. True altitude to be the same as indicated altitude
b. True altitude to be lower than indicated altitude
c. True altitude to be the decreasing
d. True altitude to be higher than indicated altitude
7. The QNH is 1030 hPa and at the transition level you set the SPS. What
happens to your indicated altitude (assume 27 ft per 1 hPa)?
a. Drops by 459 ft
b. Rises by 459 ft
c. No change
d. Rises
8. You are flying from Madrid (QNH 1012) to Paris (QNH 1015) at FL80. If
your true altitude and indicated altitude remain the same then:
a. the air at Madrid is warmer than Paris
b. the air at Paris is warmer than Madrid
c. the altimeters are incorrect
d. your indicated altitude must be changing
9. If you are flying on a QNH 1009 on very cold day and you circle the top of a
peak in the Alps, your altimeter will read:
a. the same as the elevation of the peak
b. lower than the elevation of the peak
c. higher than the elevation of the peak
d. not enough information to tell
10. How do you calculate the lowest usable flight level?
 a. Lowest QNH and lowest negative temperature below ISA
b. Lowest QNH and highest negative temperature below ISA
c. Highest QNH and highest temperature above ISA
d. Highest QNH and lowest temperature
11. QNH is 1003. At FL100 true altitude is 10 000 ft. It is:
a. warmer than ISA
b. colder than ISA
c. same as ISA
d. cannot tell
12. How is QNH determined from QFE?
a. Using the temperature of the airfield and the elevation of the airfield
b. Using the temperature
c. Using the elevation
d. Using the temperature at MSL and the elevation of the airfield
13. Using the diagram below you are on a flight from A to B at 1500 ft. Which
statement is true?
a. True altitude at A is greater than B
b. True altitude at B is greater than A
c. True altitude is the same
d. Cannot tell
14. QFE is 1000 hPa with an airfield elevation of 200 m AMSL. What is QNH?
(use 8 m per hPa).
a. 975 hPa
b. 1025 hPa
c. 1008 hPa
d. 992 hPa
15. Which of the following is true?
QNH is:
a. Always more than 1013.25 hPa
b. Always less than 1013.25 hPa
c. Never 1013.25 hPa
d. Can never be above or below 1013 hPa
16. Flying from Marseilles to Palma you discover your true altitude is
increasing, but oddly the QNH is identical at both places. What could be the
reason?
a. Re-check the QNH
b. Re-check the radio altimeter
c. The air at Palma is warmer
d. Palma is lower than Marseilles
17. QNH is 1030. Aerodrome is 200 m AMSL. What is QFF?
a. Higher than 1030
b. Lower than 1030
c. Same
d. Not enough info
18. If an aerodrome is 1500 ft AMSL on QNH 1038, what will the actual
height AGL to get to FL75 be?
a. 6675 ft
 b. 8175 ft
c. 8325 ft
d. 5325 ft
19. Altimeter set to 1023 at aerodrome. On climb to altitude the SPS is set at
transition altitude. What will the indication on the altimeter do on resetting to
QNH?
a. Dependent on temperature
b. Decrease
c. Increase
d. Same
20. What temperature and pressure conditions would be safest to ensure that
your flight level clears all the obstacles by the greatest margin?
a. Cold temp/low pressure
b. Warm temp/high pressure
c. Temp less than or equal to ISA and a QNH less than 1013
d. Temp more than or equal to ISA and a QNH greater than 1013
21. You are flying from Marseilles (QNH 1012 hPa) to Palma de Mallorca
(QNH 1012 hPa) at FL100. You notice that the effective height above MSL
(radio altitude) increases constantly. Hence:
a. one of the QNH values must be wrong
b. you have the altimeters checked, as their indications are obviously wrong
c. the air mass above Palma is warmer than that above Marseilles
d. you have to adjust for a crosswind from the right
22. You are flying from Marseilles (QNH 1026 hPa) to Palma de Mallorca
(QNH 1026 hPa) at FL100. You notice that the effective height above MSL
(Radio Altitude) decreases constantly. Hence:
a. one of the QNH values must be wrong
b. the air mass above Marseilles is warmer than that above Palma
 c. you have the altimeters checked, as their indications are obviously wrong
d. you have to adjust for a crosswind from the right
23. Flying at FL135 above the sea, the radio altimeter indicates a true altitude
of 13 500 ft. The local QNH is 1019 hPa. Hence the crossed air mass is, on
average:
a. at ISA standard temperature
b. colder than ISA
c. warmer than ISA
d. there is insufficient information to determine the average temperature
deviation
24. You are flying in the Alps at the same level as the summit on a hot day.
What does the altimeter read?
a. Same altitude as the summit
b. Higher altitude as the summit
c. Lower altitude as the summit
d. Impossible to tell
25. An airfield has an elevation of 540 ft with a QNH of 993 hPa. An aircraft
descends and lands at the airfield with 1013 hPa set. What will its altimeter
read on landing?
a. 380 ft
b. 1080 ft
c. 0 ft
d. 540 ft
26. When is pressure altitude equal to true altitude?
a. In standard conditions
b. When surface pressure is 1013.25 hPa
c. When the temperature is standard
 d. When the indicated altitude is equal to the pressure altitude
27. What is the relationship between QFE and QNH at an airport 50 ft below
MSL?
a. QFE = QNH
b. QFE < QNH
c. QFE > QNH
d. There is no clear relationship
28. You are flying at FL160 with an OAT of -27°C. QNH is 1003 hPa. What is
your true altitude?
a. 15 540 ft
b. 15 090 ft
c. 16 330 ft
d. 15 730 ft
29. Flying from A to B at a constant indicated altitude in the Northern
Hemisphere.
a. True altitude increases
b. Wind is northerly
c. True altitude decreases
d. Wind is southerly

30. Up to FL180 ISA Deviation is ISA +10°C. What is the actual depth of the
layer between FL60 and FL120?
 a. 6000 ft
b. 6240 ft
c. 5760 ft
d. 5700 ft
31. Up to FL 180 ISA Deviation is ISA -10°C. What is the actual depth of the
layer between FL60 and FL120?
a. 6000 ft
b. 6240 ft
c. 5760 ft
d. 5700 ft
32. What condition would cause your indicated altitude to be lower than that
being actually flown?
a. Pressure lower than standard
b. Pressure is standard
c. Temperature lower than standard
d. Temperature higher than standard
33. You fly over the sea at FL90, your true altitude is 9100 ft and QNH is
unknown. What can be said about the atmosphere temperature?
a. QNH is lower than standard
b. It is colder than ISA
c. It is warmer than ISA
d. Nothing, insufficient information
34. You are flying at FL100 in an air mass that is 15°C colder than ISA. Local
QNH is
983 hPa. What would the true altitude be?
a. 8590 ft
b. 11 410 ft
 c. 10 000 ft
d. 10 210 ft
35. Which statement is true?
a. QFE is always lower than QNH
b. QNH is always lower than QFE
c. QNH can be equal to QFE
d. QFE can be equal to QFF only
36. You fly from east to west at the 500 hPa level in the Northern Hemisphere;
a. if the wind is from the north there will be a gain in altitude
b. if the wind is from the south there is again in altitude
c. if you encounter northerly drift, there is a gain in altitude
d. you fly towards an area of lower pressure, and therefore, experience a loss
in altitude
37. You have landed on an airport elevation 1240 ft and QNH 1008 hPa. Your
altimeter subscale is erroneously set to 1013 hPa. The indication on the
altimeter will be:
a. 1200 ft
b. 1375 ft
c. 1105 ft
d. 1280 ft
38. You are cruising at FL200, OAT is -40°C, sea level pressure is 1033 hPa.
Calculate the true altitude.
a. 20660 ft
b. 21740 ft
c. 18260 ft
d. 19340 ft
 WINDS

1. In central Europe, where are the greatest wind speeds?

a. Tropopause level
b. 5500 m
c. Where the air converges
d. Above the Alps
2. Standing in the Northern Hemisphere, north of a polar frontal depression
travelling west to east, the wind will:
a. continually veer
b. continually back
c. back then veer
d. veer then back
3. ATC will only report wind as gusting if:
a. gust speeds exceeds mean speed by >15 kt
b. gusts to over 25 kt
c. gusts exceeds mean speed by 10 kt
d. gusts to over 25 kt
4. What is a land breeze?
a. From land over water at night
b. From land over sea by day
c. From sea over land by night
d. From sea over land by day
5. When heading south in the Southern Hemisphere you experience starboard
drift:
a. you are flying towards a lower temperature
 b. you are flying away from a lower temperature
c. you are flying towards a low pressure
d. you are flying out of a high
6. What are the factors affecting the geostrophic wind?
a. PGF,r, q, Ω
b. r, q, Ω
c. r, q, PGF
d. r, PGF, Ω
7. What is the Bora?
a. Cold katabatic wind over the Adriatic
b. Northerly wind blowing from the Mediterranean
c. Warm anabatic wind blowing to the Mediterranean
d. An anabatic wind in the Rockies
8. Flying away from an area of low pressure in the Southern Hemisphere at
low altitudes, where is the wind coming from?
a. Right and slightly on the nose
b. Left and slightly on the tail
c. Left and slightly on the nose
d. Right and slightly on the tail
9. What causes the geostrophic wind to be stronger than the gradient wind
around a low?
a. Centrifugal force adds to the gradient force
b. Centrifugal force opposes the gradient force
c. Coriolis force adds to the gradient force
d. Coriolis force opposes the centrifugal force
10. A METAR for Paris gave the surface wind at 260/20. Wind at 2000 ft is
most likely to be:
a. 260/15
b. 210/30
c. 290/40
d. 175/15
11. A large pressure gradient is shown by:
a. closely spaced isobars - low temperature
b. distant spaced isobars - high temperature
c. close spaced isobars - strong winds
d. close spaced isobars - light winds
12. Where would you expect to find the strongest wind on the ground in
temperate latitudes?
a. In an area of Low pressure
b. In an area of High pressure
c. In the warm air between two fronts
d. In a weak anticyclone
13. At a coastal airfield, with the runway parallel to the coastline, you are
downwind over the sea with the runway to your right. On a warm summer
afternoon, what would you expect the wind to be on finals?
a. Crosswind from the right
b. Headwind
c. Tailwind
d. Crosswind from the left
14. What causes wind at low levels?
a. Difference in pressure
b. Rotation of the earth
 c. Frontal systems
d. Difference in temperature
15. If flying in the Alps with a Föhn effect from the south:
a. clouds will be covering the southern passes of the Alps
b. CAT on the northern side
c. wind veering and gusting on the northern side
d. convective weather on the southern passes of the Alps
16. Comparing the surface wind to the 3000 ft wind:
a. surface wind veers and is less then the 3000 ft wind
b. surface wind blows along the isobars and is less than the 3000 ft wind
c. surface wind blows across the isobars and is less than the 3000 ft wind
d. both are the same
17. 90 km/h wind in kt is approximately:
a. 70
b. 60
c. 50
d. 30
18. The geostrophic wind blows at your flight level in Northern Hemisphere
and the true altitude and indicated altitude remain constant. The crosswind
is:
a. from the left
b. from the right
c. no crosswind
d. impossible to determine
19. With all other things being equal with a high and a low having constantly
spaced circular isobars, where is the wind the fastest?
 a. Anticyclonic
b. Cyclonic
c. Where the isobars are closest together
d. Wherever the PGF is greatest
20. Föhn winds are:
a. warm katabatic
b. cold katabatic
c. warm descending winds
d. warm anabatic
21. What is the effect of a mountain valley wind?
a. It blows down a mountain to a valley at night
b. It blows down a mountain to a valley during the day
c. It blows from a valley up a mountain by day
d. It blows from a valley up a mountain at night
22. What is the difference between gradient and geostrophic winds?
a. Difference in temperatures
b. A lot of friction
c. Curved isobars and straight isobars
d. Different latitudes and densities
23. What prevents air from flowing directly from a high to a low pressure?
a. Centripetal force
b. Centrifugal force
c. Pressure force
d. Coriolis force
24. What is the relationship between the 5000 ft wind and the surface wind in
the Southern Hemisphere?
 a. Surface winds are veered from the 5000 ft and have the same speed
b. Surface winds are backed from the 5000 ft and have a slower speed
c. Surface winds are veered from the 5000 ft and have a slower speed
d. Surface winds are backed from the 5000 ft and have a faster speed
25. What is the relationship between the 2000 ft wind and the surface wind in
the Northern Hemisphere?
a. surface winds blow across isobars towards a high
b. surface winds blow parallel to isobars
c. surface winds blow across isobars towards a low
d. surface winds have laminar flow
26. Wind is caused by:
a. mixing of fronts
b. horizontal pressure difference
c. earth rotation
d. surface friction
27. For the same pressure gradient at 50N, 60N and 40N, the geostrophic wind
speed is:
a. greatest at 60N
b. least at 50N
c. greatest at 40N
d. the same at all latitudes
28. The wind in the Northern Hemisphere at the surface and above the
friction layer at 2000 ft would be:
a. veered at the surface, veered above the friction layer
b. backed at the surface, veered above the friction layer
c. veered at the surface, backed above the friction layer
 d. backed at the surface, backed above the friction layer
29. Where are easterly and westerly jets found?
a. Northern Hemisphere only
b. Southern Hemisphere only
c. Northern and southern Hemisphere
d. There are no easterly jets
30. In high pressure systems:
a. the winds tend to be stronger in the morning
b. the angle between the isobars and the wind direction is greatest in the
afternoon
c. the winds tend to be stronger at night
d. the winds tend to be stronger in early afternoon
31. An aircraft is flying East to West in the Northern Hemisphere. What is
happening to its altitude?
a. Flying into a headwind will decrease altitude
b. If the wind is from the south, it will gain altitude
c. If the wind is from the north, it will gain altitude
d. Tailwind will increase altitude
32. Where would an anemometer be placed?
a. Close to station, 2 m above ground
b. On the roof of the station
c. 10 m above aerodrome elevation on a mast
d. Next to the runway, 1 m above ground
33. Which of the following is an example of a Föhn wind?
a. Bora
b. Harmattan
 c. Chinook
d. Ghibli
34. Wind at altitude is usually given as …….. in ……..
a. true, m/s
b. magnetic, m/s
c. true, kt
d. magnetic, kt
35. If you fly with left drift in the Northern Hemisphere, what is happening to
surface pressure?
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Stays the same
d. Cannot tell

UPPER WINDS

1. How do you recognize high level jet streams and associated TURB?
a. High pressure centre at high level
b. Streaks of Cirrus
c. High level dust
d. Lenticularis
2. What type of jet stream blows constantly through the Northern
Hemisphere?
a. Arctic
b. Equatorial
c. Polar night
d. Subtropical
3. In central Europe, where are the greatest wind speeds?
a. Tropopause level
b. 5500 m
c. Where the air converges
d. Above the Alps
4. The Arctic Jet core is at:
a. 20 000 ft
b. 30 000 ft
c. 40 000 ft
d. 50 000 ft
5. FL180, Northern Hemisphere with a wind from the left, what can you say
about temperature with a heading of 360°?
a. Not possible to tell without a pressure
b. Increases from south to north
c. Increases from north to south
d. Nothing
6. When heading south in the Southern Hemisphere you experience starboard
drift:
a. You are flying towards a lower temperature
b. You are flying away from a lower temperature
 c. You are flying towards a low pressure
d. You are flying out of a high
7. With a polar front jet stream (PFJ), the area with the highest probability of
turbulence in the Southern Hemisphere is:
a. in the jet core
b. above the jet core in the boundary of the warm and cold air
c. looking downstream, on your left hand side
d. looking downstream, on your right hand side
8. Contours on a weather chart indicate:
a. heights of pressure levels
b. distance between pressure levels
c. thickness between pressure levels
d. height of ground
9. If an isohypse on a surface pressure chart of 500 hPa shows a figure of 522,
this indicates:
a. topography of 522 m above MSL
b. topography of 522 decametres above MSL
c. pressure is 522 hPa
d. a low surface pressure
10. The polar front jet stream in summer compared to winter in the Northern
Hemisphere moves:
a. north and decreases in strength
b. north and increases in strength
c. south and decreases in strength
d. south and increases in strength
11. A jet stream with a wind speed of 350 kt is:
 a. impossible
b. possible but very rare
c. possible in polar areas
d. common
12. If you fly at right angles to a jet stream and below the jet core in Europe
with a decreasing outside air temperature, you will experience:
a. increasing headwind
b. increasing tailwind
c. wind from the left
d. wind from the right
13. On a particular day the PFJ runs north to south in the Northern
Hemisphere.
a. The temperature gradient runs north to south below the jet core
b. The temperature gradient runs north to south above the jet core
c. The polar air is east of the jet above the core
d. The polar air is below the jet to the east
14. Flying 2500 ft below core of jet, with temperature increasing in the
Southern Hemisphere, where does the wind come from?
a. Head
b. Tail
c. Left
d. Right
15. When flying from south to north in the Southern Hemisphere, you cross
over the polar front jet. What happens to the temperature?
a. It increases
b. It decreases
c. It remains the same
 d. Impossible to determine
16. The core of a jet stream is located:
a. at the level where temperature change with altitude becomes little or nil
and the pressure surface is at maximum slope
b. in the warm air where the pressure surface is horizontal
c. in the warm air and directly beneath at the surface
d. in cold air
17. What is the ratio of height to width in a typical jet stream?
a. 1:10
b. 1:100
c. 1:1000
d. 1:10000
18. When and where does an easterly jet stream occur?
a. All year through the Equator
b. In summer from SE Asia through S. India to Central Africa
c. In summer from the Middle East through N. Africa and the Mediterranean
to S. Spain
d. In winter in Arctic Russia
19. From the preflight briefing you know a jet stream is at 31 000 ft whilst you
are at FL270. You experience moderate CAT. What would be the best course
of action?
a. Stay level
b. Descend
c. Climb
d. Reduce speed
20. What is most different about the equatorial easterly jet stream?
a. Its height
 b. Its length
c. Its direction
d. Its speed
21. Where are easterly and westerly jets found?
a. Northern Hemisphere only
b. Southern Hemisphere only
c. Northern and Southern Hemisphere
d. There are no easterly jets
22. Wind at altitude is usually given as .......... in ..........
a. true, m/s
b. magnetic, m/s
c. true, kt
d. magnetic, kt
23. Under which of the following circumstances is the most severe CAT likely
to be experienced?
a. A westerly jet stream at low altitude in the summer
b. A curved jet stream near a deep trough
c. A straight jet stream near a low pressure area
d. A jet stream where there is a large spacing between the isotherms
 CLOUDS

1. What cloud does hail fall from?

a. Cb
b. Ns
c. Cu
d. Ci
2. Flying conditions in Ci cloud and horizontal visibility:
a. less than 500 m vis, light/mod clear icing
b. greater than 1000 m vis, light/mod rime ice
c. less then 500 m vis, no icing
d. greater than 1000 m vis, no icing
3. What is the composition of Ci cloud?
a. Super cooled water droplets
b. Ice crystals
c. Water droplets
d. Smoke particles
4. What cloud types are classified as medium cloud?
a. Ns + Sc
b. Ac + As
c. Cb + St
d. Ci + Cs
5. What type of cloud is associated with drizzle?
a. St
b. Cb
 c. Ci
d. Ac
6. Fair weather cumulus gives an indication of:
a. poor visibility
b. thunderstorms
c. turbulence
d. smooth flying below
7. What best shows Altocumulus Lenticularis?

a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
8. What are lenticularis clouds a possible indication of?
a. Mountain waves
b. Instability
c. Developing Cu and Cb
d. Horizontal windshear in the upper atmosphere
9. In what cloud is icing and turbulence most severe?
a. Cb
b. Ns
 c. Sc
d. Ci
10. What will snow most likely fall from?
a. Ns
b. Ci
c. Cs
d. Ac
11. A plain in Western Europe at 500 m (1600 ft) AMSL is covered with a
uniform altocumulus cloud during summer months. At what height AGL is
the base of the cloud expected?
a. 100 - 1500 ft
b. 15000 - 25000 ft
c. 7000 - 15000 ft
d. 1500 - 7000 ft
12. What best shows Cumulonimbus capillatus?

a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
13. Clouds classified as low level are considered to have a base height of:
a. 500 - 1000 ft
 b. 1000 - 2000 ft
c. the surface - 6500 ft
d. 100 - 200 ft
14. In a tropical downpour the visibility is sometimes reduced to:
a. 1000 m
b. 500 m
c. 200 m
d. less than 100 m
15. What type of cloud is usually found at high level?
a. St
b. Ac
c. Cc
d. Ns
16. What best shows Acc?

a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
17. Altostratus is:
a. a low level cloud
b. a medium level cloud
c. a high level cloud
 d. a heap type cloud
18. What would be reflected to radar?
a. Fog
b. Hail
c. Cloud
d. Mist
19. Which cloud would you encounter the most intensive rain?
a. Ci
b. Ns
c. St
d. Sc
20. CB cloud in summer contains:
a. water droplets
b. ice crystals
c. water droplets, ice crystals and super cooled water droplets
d. water droplets and ice crystals
21. Which cloud would produce showers?
a. NS
b. AS
c. CS
d. CB
22. When would you mostly likely get fair weather Cu?
a. 15:00
b. 12:00
c. 17:00
 d. 07:00
23. What type of cloud extends into another level?
a. As
b. Acc
c. Ns
d. Ci
24. Ceilometers measure:
a. RVR
b. cloud height
c. met vis
d. turbulence
25. Which of the following will indicate medium level instability, possibly
leading to thunderstorms?
a. Halo
b. Altocumulus Castellanus
c. Altocumulus Capillatus
d. Red Cirrus
26. What is the base of altocumulus in summer?
a. 0 - 1500’
b. 1500 - 7000’
c. 7000’ - 15 000’
d. 7000’ - 16 500’
27. When a CC layer lies over a West European plain in summer, with a mean
terrain height of 500 m above sea level, the average cloud base could be
expected to be:
a. 0 - 100 ft above ground level
 b. 5000 - 15 000 ft above ground level
c. 15 000 - 25 000 ft above ground level
d. 15 000 - 35 000 ft above ground level
28. Which of the following cloud types can stretch across all three cloud levels
(low, medium and high level)?
a. CI
b. ST
c. AC
d. CB
29. Which of the following cloud types can stretch across at least two cloud
levels?
a. ST
b. NS
c. CI
d. SC
30. From which cloud do you get hail?
a. Sc
b. Cb
c. Ns
d. Ts
31. If you see Alto Cu Castellanus what does it indicate?
a. The upper atmosphere is stable
b. Subsistence
c. Instability in the lower atmosphere
d. Middle level instability
32. To dissipate cloud requires:
 a. subsidence
b. a decrease in temperature
c. an increase pressure
d. convection
33. Cu is an indication of:
a. vertical movement of air
b. stability
c. the approach of a warm front
d. the approach of a cold front
34. Which clouds are evidence of stable air?
a. St, As
b. Cb, Cc
c. Cu, Ns
d. Cu, Cb
35. Lack of cloud at low level in a stationary high is due to:
a. instability
b. rising air
c. sinking air
d. divergence at high level
36. What is the most common freezing precipitation?
a. Freezing pellets
b. Freezing rain and freezing drizzle
c. Freezing graupel
d. Freezing hail and freezing snow
37. From which of the following clouds are you least likely to get precipitation
in summer?
 a. CS/NS
b. CS/AS
c. CB/CU
d. CU/ST
38. A layer of air cooling at the SALR compared to the DALR would give
what kind of cloud?
a. Stratus if saturated
b. Cumulus if saturated
c. No cloud if saturated
d. Convective cloud
39. Over flat dry land what would cause cloud?
a. Orographic uplift
b. Convective uplift during the day
c. Release of latent heat
d. Advection

CLOUD FORMATION AND PRECIPITATION

1. If you observe drizzle falling, the cloud above you is most likely to be:
a. AS
b. CU
 c. ST
d. NS
2. Turbulence cloud is usually a sheet of stratus, stratocumulus some 2000 ft
thick with a flat top because:
a. the air is usually at low temperatures containing little water vapour
b. turbulence steepens the lapse rate producing an inversion above the
friction layer
c. air is not allowed to remain in contact with the surface due to the strong
wind thus maintaining cool surface air with warm air above
d. the lapse rate becomes stable in the friction layer, due to turbulent mixing
3. Clouds formed by convection will always:
a. be layer clouds
b. be CU, CB or NS
c. have a rising cloud base and may develop into CB as the day progresses
d. form only in Polar maritime air
4. With reference to anticyclones affecting the UK, which of the following
statements is correct?
a. The pressure gradient is greatest towards the centre of the anticyclone
b. Anticyclones are more common in winter than they are in summer. This is
why radiation fog is much more frequent in the winter
c. Apart from turbulence cloud, the formation of all other cloud types is
unlikely in anticyclonic conditions
d. Warm anticyclones are those which are caused by the extreme air density
associated with warmer weather
5. The type of cloud from which continuous moderate or heavy rain is likely to
fall is:
a. large cumulus
b. altostratus
 c. nimbostratus
d. cumulonimbus
6. The movement of cool moist air over a warmer surface is likely to cause:
a. cumulus or cumulonimbus cloud
b. advection fog
c. nimbostratus cloud
d. altocumulus lenticular cloud
7. Intensity of precipitation is described as either:
a. intermittent, continuous or showery
b. drizzle, rain or snow
c. slight, moderate or heavy
d. intermittent, moderate or heavy
8. The term “shower” implies that:
a. precipitation is in the form of rain and is continuous
b. precipitation is from cumulonimbus cloud and lasts for short periods
c. precipitation is intermittent and is from strato form cloud
d. precipitation is continuous for long periods from cumuloform cloud
9. Precipitation in the form of snow will not reach the surface unless the
surface temperature is:
a. less than +4°C
b. less than 0°C
c. less than 45°F
d. less than 30°F
10. The type of precipitation in which visibility is likely to be most reduced is:
a. drizzle
b. snow
 c. light rain
d. sleet
11. The type of precipitation usually associated with shallow stratocumulus is:
a. mainly water droplets which can be supercooled if the temperature is low
enough
b. ice crystals
c. supercooled water droplets only
d. large water droplets due to the strong up-currents associated with this type
of cloud
12. If there are small cumulus in the morning in summer, it is reasonable to
forecast later in the day:
a. clear skies
b. St and drizzle
c. CB Cloud
d. haze

THUNDERSTORMS

1. The conditions which must exist to allow thunderstorms to develop are:

a. a trigger action, a plentiful supply of moisture and a very stable
atmosphere
b. a steep lapse rate, a stable atmosphere through a large vertical extent and a
plentiful supply of moisture
 c. a plentiful supply of moisture and a steep lapse rate through a large
vertical extent and a trigger action
d. a steep lapse rate through a large vertical extent, a low relative humidity
and a trigger action
2. When moist air moves across France in the . . . . . . . . . . . . TS activity is
common in southern UK in the . . . . . . . . . . .
Complete the above statement correctly using one of the following:
a. winter/morning
b. summer/late afternoon or evening
c. winter/late afternoon or evening
d. summer/morning
3. Hazards of the mature stage of a TS cell include lightning, turbulence and:
a. microburst, windshear and anvil
b. icing, microburst and windshear
c. icing, drizzle and microburst
d. windshear, hail and fog
4. On a significant weather chart the thunderstorm symbol signifies:
a. moderate turbulence and moderate icing
b. severe turbulence and severe icing
c. moderate turbulence and severe icing
d. moderate/severe turbulence and/or moderate/severe icing
5. Thunderstorms require a trigger action to release the conditional
instability. Which of the following would be the least suitable as a trigger?
a. Convergence in temperate latitudes
b. Convergence in tropical latitudes
c. Subsidence in tropical latitudes
d. Convection in polar latitudes
6. During the . . . . . . . . . stage of a thunderstorm cell, the cloud contains . . . . .
. . . Complete the above statement correctly using one of the following:
a. building/up currents and down currents
b. mature/up currents and down currents
c. dissipating/up currents and down currents
d. building/down currents only
7. The following is unlikely to be a hazard below a thunderstorm:
a. severe turbulence
b. severe icing
c. windshear
d. large variations in pressure setting values
8. Thunderstorms are likely if:
a. air is unstable, there is sufficient water vapour and there is trigger action
b. air is completely stable, there is sufficient water vapour and there is lifting
orographically
c. there is a warm front
d. there is a col in winter
9. Hail grows by:
a. freezing as it leaves the cloud
b. up and down progress in CU cloud
c. collision with supercooled water drops
d. collision with ice crystals
10. How long approximately does a cumulonimbus cell take to complete the
full cycle from the cumulus (building) to dissipating stage?
a. 2-3 hours
b. 1-2 hours
 c. 4-5 hours
d. About 1 hour
11. When approaching at flight level 300 a cumulonimbus cloud with an anvil
top, pilots should aim to avoid the cloud by ---- NM horizontally if avoiding
visually, or by ---- NM horizontally if using cloud avoidance radar. Select the
appropriate respective ranges from those given below:
a. 10 20
b. 15 10
c. 10 15
d. 5 10
12. A microburst usually lasts for _________ and is about
____________across.
a. 20 minutes 20 NM
b. 5 minutes 5 km
c. 30 minutes 10 NM
d. 45 minutes 5 NM
13. Thunderstorms caused by _________are most common in the summer and
by ____________in the__________
a. lapse rate air masses late spring
b. air masses frontal activity winter
c. cold fronts air masses autumn
d. air masses frontal activity summer
14. When flying through an active CB cloud, lightning strikes are most likely:
a. above 5000’ and underneath the anvil
b. in the clear air below the cloud in rain
c. in the temperature band between +10°C and –10°C
d. at or about 10 000 ft AMSL
15. Regarding thunderstorms, the most accurate statement amongst the
following is:
a. there will always be windshear under the cloud
b. the average movement is in accord with the wind at 10 000 ft
c. if the cloud base has a temperature below 0°C then freezing rain will
occur
d. the number of lightning flashes is directly proportional to the degree of
turbulence

VISIBILITY

1. Which of the conditions given below is most likely to lead to the formation
of radiation fog?
Wind speed Cloud Cover Temperature Dew Point
a. 7 kt 8/8 St 12°C 11°C
b. 15 kt NIL 15°C 14°C
c. 3 kt 1/8 Ci 8°C 7°C
d. 12 kt NIL -2°C -3°C
2. When _______ moist air passes over a surface which is _________ than the
dew point of the air, _______fog can form. This occurs over____________
Examine the statement above; the line which contains the correct words in the
correct order to complete the statement is:
a. cool warmer radiation the sea
 b. warm cooler radiation the land only
c. cool warmer frontal land
d. warm cooler advection land and sea
3. Radiation fog is most likely at an inland airfield in the UK with a relative
humidity of 80% in the ________with ___________and a wind of _______
a. autumn clear skies 2-8 knots
b. spring 6/8 ST& SC 2-10 knots
c. winter clear skies 15/20 knots
d. summer clear skies no wind
4. Advection fog is formed when __________air moves over
a___________surface and is __________its dew point:
a. humid cold kept above
b. warm moist cooler cooled below
c. dry frozen well below
d. warm moist warmer kept above
5. On a night when radiation fog is forming over most of southern England,
the aerodromes likely to be first to experience the fog will be those situated:
a. near the coast with a light onshore wind and clear skies
b. at the bottom of the hill with a light katabatic wind blowing
c. near the coast with a land breeze and cloudy skies
d. at the top of a hill with clear skies and no wind
6. Radiation fog is most likely:
a. with a wind speed up to 15 kt, a clear sky and a high relative humidity
b. with a wind of 2-8 kt, a high density and the summer season
c. in an anticyclone in winter
d. on a hill in autumn
7. If a station equipped with IRVR equipment reports RVR 1000, this means:
a. RVR at touchdown is 1000 metres
b. RVR at touchdown is 1000 metres and at ‘mid point’ and ‘stop end’ the
RVR is 800 metres or more
c. RVR at touchdown is 1000 metres and ‘mid point’ and ‘stop end’
equipment is unserviceable
d. RVR all along the runway is 1000 metres or more
8. Changes of RVR are reported for increments of:
a. 25 m up to 250 m
b. 25 m up to 200 m
c. 50 m between 300 m and 800 m
d. 50 m between 500 m and 800 m
9. Frontal fog is most likely to:
a. form ahead of a vigorous fast moving cold front
b. form ahead of a warm front
c. form on a vigorous cold front and last for many hours
d. form to the rear of a warm front but only last for 1 to 2 hours
10. Fog may be defined as:
a. a reduction of visibility to less than 1000 metres due to the presence of
water vapour in the atmosphere
b. a reduction of visibility to less than 1000 metres due to the presence of
water droplets in suspension in the atmosphere
c. a reduction of visibility to less than 1500 metres due to the presence of
water droplets in suspension in the atmosphere
d. a reduction of visibility to less than 1000 ft due to the presence of water
vapour in suspension in the atmosphere
11. Several types of pressure distribution may be associated with radiation fog
but all have one feature in common which is:
 a. closely spaced isobars
b. a tight pressure gradient
c. a slack pressure gradient
d. a rapidly falling pressure
12. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . forms when moist air . . . . . . . . . . over a surface which is .
. . . . . . . . than the dew point of the air. Fill in the missing words from the list
given below:
a. Radiation fog, passes, warmer
b. Advection fog, settles, cooler
c. Advection fog, passes, cooler
d. Radiation fog, settles, warmer
13. Advection fog:
a. only occurs at night and early morning
b. is most likely with Polar Maritime air
c. will only clear by insolation
d. can sometimes last for 24 hours or more in winter
14. In circumstances where there is a clear sky, calm wind and a high relative
humidity in autumn:
a. radiation fog is likely over night
b. advection fog will form
c. radiation fog is likely at sunrise after previous mist
d. hill fog can be expected
15. At a station equipped with IRVR, reports are given:
a. every ½ hour
b. when the normal visibility is 1500 m or less
c. when there is mist
 d. when there is haze

ICING

1. At temperatures of between 0°C and –10°C clouds will consist of:

a. entirely water droplets
b. entirely ice crystals
c. mostly water vapour
d. mostly supercooled water droplets and a few ice crystals
2. Turbulent clouds are most serious from the icing standpoint because:
a. strong vertical currents mean that a predominance of large supercooled
water droplets will be present
b. strong vertical currents mean that a predominance of small supercooled
water droplets will be present
c. turbulent clouds produce hail which sticks to the aircraft
d. turbulent clouds indicate a low freezing level
3. Hoar frost forms on an aircraft when:
a. the aircraft suddenly enters a cloud at below freezing temperature
b. the aircraft in subzero clear air suddenly enters a colder region
c. the aircraft in subzero clear air suddenly enters a warmer moist region
d. the aircraft suddenly enters a cloud which is at a higher temperature than
the surrounding air
4. Most cases of serious piston engine icing occur in cloud, fog, or
precipitation with a temperature range between:
a. -10°C to +25°C
b. -18°C to +5°C
c. -10° C to 0°C
d. -20°C to +15°C
5. Stratus cloud of limited depth at a temperature of -5°C will most likely give:
a. moderate to heavy rime ice
b. moderate to heavy glaze ice
c. light to moderate rime ice
d. light to moderate glaze ice
6. Clear ice forms as a result of:
a. large supercooled water droplets spreading as they freeze
b. ice pellets splattering on the aircraft
c. small supercooled water droplets splashing over the aircraft
d. water vapour freezing to the aircraft
7. Orographic uplift in stable conditions gives a strong vertical component to
air movement thus supporting larger supercooled droplets in orographically
formed cloud. Consideration should also be given to the fact that in this cloud:
a. the 0°C isotherm will be higher
b. the 0°C isotherm will be lower
c. the lapse rate will be isothermal
d. an inversion can be anti-cyclonic
8. Which of the following conditions is most favourable for the formation of
carburettor icing if the aircraft is descending with glide power set?
Relative Humidity Ambient Temperature
a. 25% +25°C
 b. 40% +20°C
c. 50% -10°C
d. 30% -5°C
9. Flying in large CU at a temperature of -20°C, the amount of each cloud
droplet that will freeze on impact with the aircraft will be:
a. all the droplet
b. ½ of the droplet
c. ¼ of the droplet
d. 20% of the droplet
10. Carburettor icing is unlikely:
a. in cloud
b. at temperatures between –10°C and –30°C
c. in clear air
d. when the RH is 40%
11. Flying 50 NM ahead of a warm front out of cloud at 1000 ft in winter, with
an ambient temperature of -8°C, there is a strong risk of:
a. hoar frost
b. rime icing and carburettor icing
c. structure damage caused by hail
d. clear ice in the form of rain ice
12. In AS cloud at FL170 and a temperature of -20°C the airframe icing most
likely to be experienced is:
a. moderate clear icing
b. light rime icing
c. hoar frost
d. severe clear icing
13. Mixed (rime and clear) icing is most likely to be encountered:
a. in nimbostratus at a temperature of –10°C
b. in stratocumulus cloud at a temperature of –20°C
c. in fair weather cumulus at a temperature of –15°C
d. in towering cumulus at a temperature of –10°C
14. When considering icing in cloud over high ground compared with icing in
other clouds, the effect of orographic lifting is to:
a. cause the height of the freezing level to fall and increases the intensity of
the icing
b. cause the height of the freezing level to rise and increases the severity of
the icing
c. cause the free water content of the cloud to increase and the freezing level
to rise so reducing the icing risk
d. increase the temperature inside the cloud due to the release of extra latent
heat so reducing the icing risk
15. Kinetic heating will:
a. increase the risk of icing if it raises the airframe temperature to just below
0°C
b. increase the risk of icing if it raises the airframe temperature to just above
0°C
c. always increase the risk of airframe icing
d. always decrease the risk of airframe icing
 AIR MASSES

1. An air mass that has travelled over an ocean is known as:

a. continental air and has a high humidity
b. continental air and has a low humidity
c. maritime air and has a high humidity
d. maritime air and has a low humidity
2. Characteristic weather associated with a mPc air mass transiting the
British Isles in summer would include:
a. widespread Cu and Cb activity overland during the day
b. clear quiet settled weather overland by day with good visibility
c. warm moist conditions with some Sc or Cu and moderate to poor visibility
d. extensive low stratus cloud giving drizzle to light rain overland by day
3. If air in transit is heated from below it tends to become more:
a. stable
b. neutrally stable
c. unstable
d. none of these
4. The weather associated with polar maritime air is:
a. overcast, moderate drizzle
b. overcast moderate intermittent rain
c. broken cloud, light, moderate or heavy rain
d. broken cloud, moderate continuous rain
5. Polar maritime air is . . . . . . . . . . . and can bring . . . . . . . . . . . in the UK in
winter but . . . . . . . . . in summer.
Complete the above sentence correctly using one of the following:
 a. very unstable/heavy snow showers/does not arrive
b. cold and stable/advection fog/rain showers
c. unstable/intermittent or continuous snow/cool dry weather
d. unstable/heavy showers/light rain showers
6. Tropical continental air normally brings to the UK:
a. hot dry cloudless weather with a thick haze
b. warm weather with broken Cu and showers on coasts, visibility very good
except in showers
c. warm dry cloudless weather with very good visibility
d. hot dry cloudless weather on coasts but Cu building up inland with rain
showers, visibility good except in showers
7. Referring to the area of the North Atlantic, the mean position of the polar
front in January is:
a. from Florida to southwest England
b. from Newfoundland to the north of Scotland
c. from Florida to the north of Scotland
d. from Newfoundland to southwest England
8. When air from an air mass moves to a lower latitude, it can be expected
that:
a. surface layer air will become warmer, the RH will rise and the air will
become unstable
b. surface layer air will become colder, the RH will rise and the air will
become more stable
c. surface layer air will become warmer, the RH will fall and the air will
become unstable
d. surface layer air will become warmer, the RH will fall and the air will
become more stable
9. In the N. Hemisphere when flying in the troposphere above the surface
friction layer in the polar maritime air mass behind the cold front of a fully
developed frontal depression:
a. the wind will tend to veer in direction and increase in speed with
progressive increase of altitude
b. the wind will tend to veer in direction with increase of altitude but the
speed may remain constant in the lower layers of the atmosphere
c. the wind speed will reduce progressively with increase of altitude until at
about 10 000 feet above mean sea level where it will then tend to increase in speed
from another direction
d. the wind will tend to back in direction and increase in speed with
progressive increase of altitude
10. The average surface level winds at A3, B3 and C3 in Appendix ‘A’ are
respectively:
a. easterly, westerly, southwesterly
b. westerly, westerly, southwesterly
c. southwesterly, westerly, northwesterly
d. southwesterly, westerly, northerly
11. The average upper winds at A1, B1 and C1 in Appendix ‘A’ are
respectively:
a. easterly, westerly, northwesterly
b. northwesterly, westerly, southwesterly
c. southwesterly, westerly, northwesterly
d. southwesterly, westerly, northerly
12. It can be expected that the depth of the friction layer over the UK will be:
a. greater in Polar Maritime air due to the instability and moderate wind
b. greater in Tropical Maritime air due to the warm temperature
c. greater in Polar Continental air due to the very low temperatures
 d. greater in Tropical Continental air due to the relatively high temperatures
in winter
13. The air masses involved in the development of a polar front depression
are:
a. Polar Maritime and Polar Continental
b. Tropical Maritime and Polar Continental
c. Tropical Continental and Polar Maritime
d. Polar Maritime and Tropical Maritime
14. When a cold front passes a station in the British Isles:
a. The wind veers and the dew point falls
b. The wind backs and the dew point falls
c. The wind veers and the dew point rises
d. The wind backs and the dew point rises
15. Refer to Appendix B
The air masses indicated in the diagrams by the hand are respectively:
a. Arctic, Tropical Continental, Polar Maritime, Arctic Maritime
b. Polar Continental, Tropical Maritime, Tropical Continental, Arctic
c. Polar Maritime, Tropical Maritime, Polar Continental, Arctic
d. Polar Continental, Polar Maritime, Tropical Maritime, Arctic
 OCCLUSIONS

1. The cloud in grid square M11 is most likely to be:

a. cirrus
b. nimbostratus
c. altocumulus
d. stratus fractus
2. Precipitation will reach the ground mainly in the area:
a. L14 -R14
b. Q14 -S14
c. O14 -T14
d. J14-O14
3. In grid square M6 the worst cloud conditions for flying could be:
a. altrocumulus
b. cumulonimbus embedded in nimbostratus
c. cumulonimbus
d. nimbostratus
4. Which of the conditions below would lead to the worst icing condition:
Size of Drop Ambient Temp.
a. 2 mm -30°C
b. 1 mm -1°C
c. 5 mm -4°C
d. 3 mm -12°C
5. Refer to Appendix ‘B’. In a warm occlusion flying at 20 000’ where will the
most turbulence be found?
 a. A
b. B
c. C
d. A and C
6. Refer to Appendix ‘C’. Which area will get the most rain at the surface?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
7. Refer to Appendix ‘D’. What type of cloud will be found at X?
a. CS
b. NS
c. SC
d. CB
8. Refer to Appendix ‘D’. What type of cloud is most likely at Z?
a. CU
b. CB
c. AS
d. NS
9. After passage of an occluded front in the Northern Hemisphere:
Wind Temperature Precipitation
a. backs stops falling continues
b. veers drops rapidly stops abruptly
c. veers drops or rises begins to dry up
d. backs rises quickly increases in strength
10. With a cold occlusion:
a. the air ahead of the warm front is colder than the air behind the cold front
b. the warm sector remains on the surface
c. the cloud type is predominately layer with a wide precipitation band
d. there is a risk of CB embedded in NS
Refer to Appendix ‘A’ for question 11
11. The front at P14 is:
a. cold
b. warm
c. warm at an occlusion
d. cold at an occlusion
Refer to Appendix ‘B’ for questions 12 -14
12. The relative temperatures at A, B, and C could be respectively:
a. +6 +8 +10
b. +6 +10 +8
c. +8 +10 +8
d. +10 +6 +8
13. Precipitation at the surface underneath B is likely to be:
a. Light drizzle
b. Continuous moderate
c. Showers, heavy with the possibility of hail
d. Nil
14. Flight conditions at B are likely to be:
a. smooth and clear
b. layer clouds with only light turbulence
 c. some turbulence in NS with the possibility of embedded CB giving
moderate/severe turbulence
d. flight in CU, CB with some turbulence
15. When flying from west to east through a cold occlusion (below the warm
air) over the North Atlantic you would expect the wind to . . . . . . . . . . and the
temperature to . . . . . . . . . . . . . .:
a. veer/decrease
b. back/increase
c. back/decrease
d. veer/increase
16. A warm occlusion occurs when:
a. warm air is forcing cool air over cold air
b. cold air is forcing cool air over warm air
c. cool air is forcing warm air over cold air
d. cool air is forcing cold air aloft

OTHER DEPRESSIONS

1. A thermal depression is likely to form:

a. over the Iberian peninsular during the summer
b. in the lee of the Alps over northern Italy in winter
c. in association with a marked trough of low pressure over the USA
 d. on the trailing edge of a warm sector mid latitude depression
2. Tropical revolving storms usually:
a. form close to one side of the Equator and while moving slowly in a
westerly direction, cross over to the other hemisphere
b. move in a westerly direction before recurving towards the Equator
c. move in an easterly direction before recurving towards the nearest pole
d. do not form within 5° of the Equator
3. With reference to tropical revolving storms, which of the following
statements is correct?
a. Typhoons are found in the South China sea in January
b. Cyclones occur in the Bay of Bengal in winter
c. Hurricanes in the South Atlantic sometimes affect the east coast of Brazil
d. Hurricanes affect the southeast of the USA in late summer
4. Which of the following statements accurately describes the “West African
tornado”?
a. The West African tornado is similar to the North American and European
tornadoes
b. It is a line of thunderstorms producing a line squall aligned roughly north/
south
c. It is another name for the cyclones that affect the West African coast in
summer
d. It is the name given to a line of thunderstorms that lie along the ITCZ but
some 200 miles to the south
5. Extensive cloud and precipitation is often associated with a non-frontal
thermal depression because of:
a. surface divergence and upper level convergence causing widespread
descent of air in the depression
b. surface convergence and upper level divergence causing widespread
descent of air in the depression
 c. surface convergence and upper level divergence causing widespread
ascent of air in the depression
d. surface divergence and upper level convergence causing widespread
ascent of air in the depression
6. In comparison with a primary depression a secondary depression is:
a. always more active
b. sometimes more active
c. never more active
d. unlikely to produce gale force winds
7. A secondary depression would form in association with:
a. a polar depression
b. a col
c. a summer thermal depression over the Mediterranean or Caspian Sea
d. a polar front low
8. Tropical revolving storms:
a. are always given a male first name beginning with “A” for the first of the
season and thereafter named in alphabetical order of occurrence
b. have internal wind speeds of 10-20 knots rotating cyclonically round a
subsiding clear air core known as the eye
c. usually have the most severe weather in the quadrant to the right of the
track in a hurricane
d. regenerate after crossing the coast from sea to land
9. Which of the following are thermal depressions?
a. Tropical revolving storms, polar air depressions, tornadoes
b. The equatorial trough, monsoon lows, some depressions over the central
and eastern Mediterranean sea in summer
c. The equatorial trough, polar air depressions, monsoon lows, orographic
lows
 d. The lows forming over flat land in summer, polar air depressions, tropical
revolving storms, some of the lows which form over inland seas in winter
10. A secondary low pressure system rotates around a primary low:
a. cyclonically
b. anticyclonically
c. into the primary
d. at a constant distance
11. Flying conditions in a secondary low pressure system are:
a. always more severe than in a primary low
b. sometimes more severe than in a primary low
c. less severe than in a primary low
d. relatively calm
12. Tropical revolving storms:
a. do not occur in the South Atlantic
b. generally move from east to west before turning towards the Equator
c. intensify after crossing coasts
d. occur principally in spring and early summer