ST. LOUIS REVIEW CENTER –CDO CITY c. Fundus d.

Corpus
Tel. no. (088) 8511413 / CP no. 09051529184 17. The convex segment between the insertion points of the
fallopian tubes is called
OBSTETRICS a. Cornua b. Cervix
MIDWIFE LICENSURE EXAMINATION c. Fundus d. Corpus
TEST I 18. In nulliparous women, the ratio of the uterine body length to the
cervix is
a. 1:2 b. 1:1
DIRECTION: Choose the correct answer for each of the following c. 2:1 d. 2:2
question. Mark only one answer for each item. 19. During pregnancy which of the following portions of the uterus
forms the lower uterine segment
1. Which of the following is NOT synonymous? a. External os b. Fundus c. Isthmus
a. Vulva b. External generative organ d. Cornua
c. Organ for ovulation and fertilization d. Pudenda 20. Which of the following statements of anatomy of the cervix is
2. Which of the following is NOT part of the vulva? CORRECT
a. Labia majora b. Labia minora a. The posterior
c. Clitoris d. Vagina b. The cervix is attached laterally to the cardinal
3. The following describe the labia majora correctly EXCEPT ligaments
a. The labia majora are embryonically homologous with c. The cervix softens, dilates, effaces during labor
the male scrotum d. All of the above
b. In multiparous, the labia majora are prominent than 21. The blood supply to the uterus is derived from
nulliparous a. Uterine artery c. Pulmonary artery
c. In nulliparous, the labia majora lie in close apposition b. Ovarian artery d. Both a and b
d. Posteriorly, the labia majora merge into the perineum 22. Which of the following is correct sequence of oviduct segments
4. The following tissues are prominent organs is erectile? through which the sperm travels
a. Fat b. Sebaceous gland a. Infundibulum, ampulla, isthmus, interstitium
b. c. Muscle d. Connective tissue b. Interstitium, isthmus,ampulla, infundibulum
5. Which of the following organs is erectile? c. Isthmus, interstitium, infundibulum, ampulla
a. Clitoris b. Frenulum d. Ampulla, interstitium, infundibulum
c. Fourchet d. Labia minora 23. Which of the following statements about the structure of the
6. The following are boundaries of the vestibule EXCEPT oviduct is CORRECT?
a. Labia majora b. Labia minora a. The muscular layer of the tube is usually arranged in
c. Fourchet d. Clitoris two layers
7. Which of the following best describes the Bartholin’s glands? b. The tubal musculature undergoes rhythmic
a. Also called the major vestibular gland contractions that vary with ovarian cyclic
b. Situated beneath the vestibule and side of the vaginal c. The tubal mucosal undergoes cyclic histologic
orifice changes
c. Can harbor bacterial pathogen d. All of the above
d. All of the above 24. The arterial blood supply to the middle one-third of vagina
8. Which of the following is NOT richly supplied by nerve fibers a. Inferior vesical arteries
a. Labia majora b. Labia minora b. Middle hemorrhoidal artery
c. Hymen d. Clitoris c. Cervicovaginal branches of uterine arteries
9. Which of the following is NOT function of vagina d. Internal iliac artery and abdominal aorta
a. Excretory duct for the uterus 25. The labia majora is covered by which of the following
b. Female organ for copulation a. Mucous membrane
c. Excretory duct for the bladder b. Hair
d. Birth canal c. Transitional epithelium
10. The arterial blood supply to the lower one-third of vagina is d. Stratified squamous epithelium
a. Inferior vesical arteries 26. What is the origin of the pudendal nerve?
b. Middle hemorrhoidal a. L4 – L5 , S1 – S2 c. L1 – L2
c. Carvicovaginal branches of uterine arteries b. T11 – T12 d. S2 – S4
d. Internal iliac artery and abdominal aorta
11. In which of the following statements about vagina is correct? ********** e n d o f t e s t **********
a. Nulliparous c. Before menarche
b. Multiparous d. After menopause “We must be willing to accept responsibility for failure before we are able
12. Which of the following statements about vagina is correct? to accept responsibility for success.”
a. Uterine secretion contributes to vaginal moisture in
non-pregnant ST. LOUIS REVIEW CENTER – ZAMBOANGA CITY
b. During pregnancy vaginal secretion decreases Tel. no. (062) 992-2218 / CP no. 09177112954
c. There are numerous glands present in the vagina
d. All of the above
13. Which of the following muscles formed the perineal body?
a. External anal sphincter c. Superficial
transverse perineal muscle
b. Bulvocavemous muscle d. All of the
above
14. The upper triangular portion of the uterus is called
a. Cornua b. Cervix c. Fundus
d. Corpus
15. The lower fusiform or cylindrical portion of the uterus is called
a. Cornua b. Cervix c. Fundus
d. Corpus
16. The junction of the superior and lateral margins of the uterus is
called
a. Cornua b. Cervix
 OBSTETRICS b. b and c d. a and c
MIDWIFE LICENSURE EXAMINATION 17. Pregnancy is least likely to occur if coitus occur at which time?
TEST II a. At ovulation c. 2 days before ovulation
b. 2 days after ovulation d. 1 day before ovulation
DIRECTION: Choose the correct answer foe each of the following 18. Which of the following chronological sequence of developmental
questions. Mark only one answer for each item. events is correct?
a. Ovulation, implantation, blastocyst formation,
fertilization, primitive villi formation
1. What phase of menstrual cycle, development of coiled or spiral b. Blastocyst formation, implantation, ovulation,
arterioles and basal, compact, spongy zone of endometrium fertilization, primitive villi formation
occur? c. Ovulation, fertilization, blastocyst formation,
a. Secretory phase c. Premenstrual phase implantation, primitive villi formation
b. Proliferative phase d. Menstrual phase d. Ovulation, fertilization, primitive villi formation,
2. The menstrual phase of menstrual cycle is? blastocyst formation, implantation
a. Preceded by corpus luteum regression 19. At what stage of development does conceptus implant?
b. Preceded by falling of the levels of progesterone a. Zygote b. Morula c. Blastocyst . Embryo
c. Characterized by slough off of endometrial tissues 20. What is the most common uterine site for implantation in the
d. All of the above human?
3. The female primordial cells originate in the: a. Upper posterior wall c. Upper anterior wall
a. Yolk sac c. Mesenchyme of the developing ovary b. Lower posterior wall d. Lower anterior wall
b. Genital ridge d. Germinal epithelium 21. After which of the following events is the fertilized ovum referred to
4. The number of germ cells in the ovaries increases by: as embryo?
a. Mitosis b. Meiosis a. Entrance to the uterus c. Implantation
c. Capacitation d. All of the above b. Blastocyst formationD. Development of the chronic villi
5. The unique process by which either the mature ova or spermatids 22. The term conceptus include all of the following
are produced through reduction and division is called? a. Embryo b. Fetal membranes
a. Mitosis b. Meiosis c. Decidua d. Placenta
c. Capacitation d. Migration 23. What is the solid ball of cells formed by 16 or more blastomeres?
6. Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in the a. Zygote b. Blastocyst
development of human ovum? c. Morula d. Embryo
a. Migration, division, maturation 24. The term conceptus includes all of the following EXCEPT
b. Migration, maturation, division a. Embryo b. Fetal membranes
c. Division, maturation, migration c. Decidua d. Placenta
d. Maturation, Division, migration 25. Which of the following fetal vessels carries blood with highest
7. The number of germ cells in the ovary at birth is? oxygen content?
a. 400,000 c. 2,000,000 a. Umbilical artery b. Aorta
b. 600,000 d. 6,800,00 c. Umbilical vein d. Pulmonary artery
8. In oogenesis, the haploid number of chromosomes first appears in 26. The average length of the umbilical cord is
the: a. 30 cm b. 55 cm c. 80 cm d. 100 cm
a. Primitive germ cell c. Secondary 27. Which of the following fetal vessels empties directly into the
oocyte inferior vena cava?
b. Primary oocyte d. Oogonia a. Umbilical vein c. Ductus venosus
9. At ovulation, the ovum is extruded along with the: b. Portal vein d. Hepatic vein
a. Zona pellucida c. Theca itema 28. Blood from the right ventricle into the pulmonary trunk is shunted
b. Corona radiated d. Both a and b to the descending aorta through the
c. a. Foramen ovale c. Ductus arteriosus
10. The temperature elevation seen just before ovulation is primarily b. Ductus venosus d. Umbilical vein
caused by: 29. Arrange the following fetal vessels in order from the LOWEST to
a. Thermogenic effect of LH and FSH HIGHEST oxygen concentration
b. Thermogenic effect of progesterone a. Inferior vena cava, umbilical vein, superior vena cava,
c. Thermogenic effect of estrogen umbilical artery
d. All of the above b. Umbilical artery, superior vena cava, umbilical vein,
11. Menstruation is ultimately due to: inferior vena cava
a. Estrogen withdrawal c. Progesterone withdrawal c. Umbilical vein, inferior vena cava, superior vena cava,
b. Estrogen stimulation d. Progesterone stimulation umbilical artery
12. The follicular phase menstrual cycle is synonymous with: d. Umbilical artery, superior vena cava, inferior vena
a. Pre-ovulatory phase c. Proliferative phase cava, umbilical vein
b. Post-ovulatory phase d. Both a and c 30. When the intraabdominal portion of the duct of the umbilical
vessels persists and extends from the umbilicus to the intestine, it
13. What is the duration of the proliferative phase of the menstrual is called
cycle? a. Allantois remnants c. Meckel diverticulum
a. Variable c. 12 to 14 days b. Duct of Hoboken d. Emphalocele
b. 10 to 12 days d. Most commonly over 14 days 31. Which of the following is NOT normally found in the umbilical cord
14. The number of germ cells in the ovary at age 10 years at term?
a. 400,000 c. 2,000,000 a. Right umbilical artery c. Right umbilical vein
b. 600,000 d. 6,800,000 b. Left umbilical artery d. Left umbilical vein
15. Gestational age is calculated from the:
a. Time of ovulation Match the following umbilical blood vessels with its remnants after delivery
b. Time of fertilization (no. 32-34)
c. First day of the last menstrual period A. Umbilical ligaments
d. Last day of the last menstrual period 32. Umbilical vein B. Ligamentum teres
16. Which of the following terms are synonymous? 33. Ductus venosus C. Ligamentum venosum
a. Gestational age c. Fertilization age 34. Umbilical artery D. Umbilical venosum
b. Ovulation age d. Menstrual age 35. Which of the following characteristics of the placenta is NOT
a. a and b c. a and d correct?
 a. Discoid shape c. 10 cm thick 55. Which of the following factors does NOT influence the birth weight
b. 20 cm d. Both a and b in term pregnancies?
36. Which of the following statements about HCG is correct? a. Sex of infant b. Parity c. Race d. Maternal age
a. The greatest HCG concentration in the plasma of the 56. Which of the following statements about fetal measurement is
pregnant woman is found at 8 to 10 weeks gestation CORRECT?
b. Urinary excretion of HCG is maximal between the 60th a. Sitting height is synonymous with crown – rump length
and 70th day gestation b. Standing height is more accurate than sitting height
c. A nadir in the urinary excretion is reached between c. Length is more accurate criterion of fetal age than
100 to 130 days weight
d. All of the above d. All of the above
37. The highest level of HPL is found in the 57. Which of the following statements about fetal weight is
a. Cord blood c. Maternal blood CORRECT?
b. Maternal urine d. Fetal urine a. Male birth weight tend to be higher than the female
38. The normal amount of HPL production in a normal singleton birth weight
pregnancy at term is b. Socioeconomic factors affect the fetal growth rate
a. 250 – 260 mg/day c. 1 g/day c. Parity of the mother affects the birth weight
b. 50 – 150 mg/day d. 10 – 20 d. All of the above
mg/day 58. The determination of the degree of prematurity or immaturity
39. Which of the following hormones acts to prevent lactogenesis? should be based on
a. Human placental lactogen c. Cortisol a. Fetal length c. Fetal gestational age
b. Prolactin d. Progesterone b. Fetal weight d. Reported date of LMP
40. Which of the following is NOT an action of human placental 59. There is good correlation of fundal height in centimeters and
lactogen? gestational age during which weeks of gestation
a. Lipolysis c. Stimulates protein synthesis a. 14 to 32 weeks c. 18 to 32 weeks
b. Anti-insulin action d. Stimulates production of fetal b. 16 to 34 weeks d. 20 to 36 weeks
testosterone 60. Which of the following does NOT contribute to difficulties in
41. Which of the following is a function of amniotic fluid? determining the gestational age?
a. Medium for fetal movements c. a. Menstrual cycle significantly longer than 30 days
Maintains constant temperature b. Irregular menstrual cycle
b. Cushions the fetus against injury d. All of c. Use of steroidal contraceptive
the above d. Presence of IUD
42. The half life of HCG is
a. 30 minutes b. 4 hours c. 24 hours
d. 36 hours
43. The best known function of HCG is ********** E N D O F T E S T **********
a. Maintenance of the corpus luteum
b. Protection against paternal antibodies “Don’t let your learning lead to knowledge, let learning lead to action.”
c. Stimulates human placental lactogen secretion
d. Stimulates the fetal ovaries to produce estrogen
44. What is the quantitatively important source of placental estrogen
precursor in the human?
a. Maternal adrenal c.
Cytotrophoblast ST. LOUIS REVIEW CENTER – ZAMBOANGA CITY
b. Syncytiotrophoblast d. Fetal adrenal Tel. no. (062) 992 – 2218 / CP # 09177112954
45. Which of the following are sites of hematopoiesis?
a. Yolk sac b. Liver c. Bone marrow OBSTETRICS
d. All of the above MIDWIFE LICENSURE EXAMINATION
46. Which of the following organs is an important source of TEST III
erythropoietin?
a. Liver b. Kidneys c. Adrenal gland DIRECTION: Choose the correct answer for each of the following
d. Pituitary gland question. Mark only one answer for each item.
47. The uteroplacental blood flow near term is approximately
a. 100 ml/min b. 300 ml/min c. 500 1. The goal of prenatal
ml/min d. 700 ml/min a. To establish a good relationship with your patient
48. What is the approximate urine output per day of a term fetus? b. To deliver a healthy baby without impairing the health
a. 100 ml b. 350 ml c. 650 ml of the mother
d. 1000 ml c. To set up a payment schedule for the delivery
49. The fetal head and the thorax can be first identified at what d. To see the patient often enough so that you feel
gestational age? comfortable with your patient
a. 9 to 10 weeks b. 11 to 12 weeks c. 2. Which of the following factors may warrant classification of
13 to 14 weeks d. 15 weeks pregnancy as high risk?
a. Preexisting medical illness
Match the following fetal development with its AOG (no. 50 – 53) b. Previous poor pregnancy outcome and placental
50. Crown – rump length 6 to 7 cm accidents
A. 8 weeks c. Evidence of malnutrition
51. Less than 4 cm long d. All of the above
B. 12 weeks 3. The most useful and appropriate unit of measure for pregnancy
52. Fetal sex can be determined by examination of the external is
genitalia C. 16 weeks a. Trimester c. Weeks of
53. Audible FHT using fetoscope gestation completed
D. 20 weeks b. Months of gestation d. All of the above

54. Eyebrows and eyelashes are present at what age of gestation? Match the following terms with its definition. (No. 4 – 11)
a. 12 weeks b. 16 weeks c. 20 weeks d. 24 weeks
4. A woman who delivered once a fetus or fetuses who reached a.0.1 g b. 1 g c. 10 g
the state of viability d. 100 g
5. A woman who is or has been pregnant 24. The amount of iron needed for the fetus and the placenta
6. A woman who has never completed a pregnancy beyond an a. 200 mg b. 300 mg c. 500 mg
abortion d. 800 mg
7. A woman who has just given birth
8. A woman in labor Match the following vitamin deficiency and excess with the
9. A woman who has completed 2 or more pregnancies to the disorders. (No. 25 – 30)
state of viability 25. Vitamin C excess A. Fetal cretinism
10. A woman who has never been pregnant 26. Iodine deficiency B. Hypersegmented
11. A woman who has delivered one set of twins and has no other neutrophils
pregnancies 27. Iodine excess C. Acrodermititis
enteropathica, impaired wound healing
A. Nulligravida 28. Folic acid deficiency D. Fetal goiter
B. Gravida 29. Zinc deficiency E. Megaloblastic anemia
C. Nullipara 30. Vitamin B12 deficiency F. Strict vegetarian
D. Primipara
E. Multipara
F. Parturient 31. Amount of iron needed to expand maternal hemoglobin
G. Puerperal a. 200 mg b. 300 mg c. 500 mg
12. At what gestational age should screening tests for gestational d. 800 mg
diabetes be performed?
a. At 1st prenatal visit of women with positive family Match the following terms with its definition. (No. 32 – 35)
history 32. Menarche A. Cessation of menses
b. Between 20 to 24 weeks gestation 33. Puberty B. Transition between
c. Between 24 to 28 weeks gestation childhood and adulthood
d. Between 32 to 34 weeks gestation 34. Menopause C. Onset of first
13. Iron supplementation during pregnancy menstruation
a. Is not necessary during the first 4th month 35. Climacteric D. Change of life
b. It can exacerbate nausea and vomiting during the 1 st E. Sign of puberty
trimester 36. Myometrial enlargement during pregnancy is primarily the result
c. Should be taken at night to minimize adverse reaction of
d. A and B
14. Which maternal physical signs is NOT monitored every prenatal a. Hyperplasia c. Both A and B
visit b. Hypertrophy d. None of the
a. Blood pressure c. Fundal height above
b. Weight d. Cervical 37. Uterine enlargement during pregnancy is MOST marked in the
dilatation a. Cervix c. Fundus
15. Which article clothing should be avoided during pregnancy? b. Lower uterine segment d. Uterine
a. Jeans c. Pantyhose cornua
b. Constricting garters d. High – heeled 38. Which of the following statements during vaginal secretions in
shoes pregnancy is NOT correct?
16. Smoking during pregnancy is associated with an increased a. The pH ranges from 3.5 to 6.0
incidence of b. The pH predisposes to bacterial infection of the vagina
a. Maternal hypertension c. Diabetes in c. Lactic acid is produced from glycogen by the action of
pregnancy lactobacillus acidophilus
b. Low birth weight d. All of the above d. There is an increase in both cervical and vaginal
17. Which of the following immunization is NOT contraindicated secretion
during pregnancy?
a. Measles b. Mumps c. Typhoid Match the following terms with its definition. (No. 39 – 42)
d. Rubella 39. Striae gravidarum A. Abdominal skin markedly pigmented at
18. Which of the following is more common early in pregnancy than the midline
late pregnancy? 40. Linea nigra B. Irregular brownish patches on the face
a. Backache b. Fatigue c. Heartburn and the neck
d. Hemorrhoids 41. Chloasma C. Maybe stimulated by the use of oral
19. What is the recommended daily caloric increase during contraceptive
pregnancy? 42. Diastases recti D. Appear as reddish slightly depressed
a. 100 calories b. 300 calories c. 500 calories streaks
d. 1000 calories E. Separation of the rectus muscles in the
20. What is the recommended additional protein in the diet during midline during pregnancy
pregnancy? F. Appear as glistening silvery lines from
a. 10 g b. 20 g c. 30 g previous pregnancies
d. 50 g
21. What is the recommended minimum daily supplement of iron as 43. During pregnancy the heart is
simple salt during pregnancy?
a. 60 mg b. 30 mg c. 50 mg a. Displaced upward to the right
d. 60 mg b. Slightly rotated in its long axis
22. Which of the following that contained in some vitamin – mineral c. Displaced due to progressive elevation of the
supplement can impair the absorption of iron diaphragm
a. Potassium and sodium c. Calcium d. All of the above
and magnesium 44. Which of the following is increased during pregnancy?
b. Vitamin C d. Zinc and a. Cardiac volume c. Stroke volume
iodine and heart rate
23. The total iron requirement during singleton pregnancy is b. Ventricular wall mass d. All of the above
approximately
45. Blood pressure in the brachial artery is highest when the gravida
is in
a. Lateral recumbent position c. Sitting position
b. Supine position d. All of the ANSWER KEY IN OBSTETRICS – TEST I
above (Which of the following is NOT synonymous?)

********** E N D O F T E S T ********** 1. C
2. D
3. –
4. B
5. A
6. A
7. D
8. C
9. C
10. B
11. C
12. A
13. D
14. D
15. B
16. A
17. B
18. B
19. B
20. D
21. D
22. B
23. D
24. A
25. B
26. C

ANSWER KEYS IN OBSTETRICS – TEST II (What phase of menstrual cycle, development of coiled or spiral…)
1. A
2. D
3. A
4. –
5. A
6. A 31. C
7. C 32. B
8. C 33. C
9. D 34. A
10. B 35. C
11. C 36. D
12. D 37. C
13. C 38. C
14. A 39. D
15. C 40. D
16. C 41. D
17. B 42. –
18. C 43. A
19. C 44. D
20. A 45. D
21. D 46. A
22. C 47. C
23. C 48. C
24. C 49. C
25. C 50. B
26. B 51. A
27. C 52. C
28. C 53. C
29. D 54. C
30. C 55. C
56. D
57. D
58. C
59. C
60. D
 ANSWER KEY IN OBSTETRICS – TEST III
(The goal of prenatal…)
1. B 23. B
2. D 24. B
3. C 25. E
4. D 26. A
5. B 27. D
6. C 28. F
7. G 29. C
8. F 30. F
9. E 31. C
10. A 32. C
11. D 33. B
12. C 34. A
13. D 35. D
14. D 36. A
15. B 37. C
16. B 38. B
17. C 39. F, D
18. B 40. A
19. B 41. C, B
20. C 42. E
21. B 43. D
22. C 44. D
45. C