BHARATI VIDYAPEETH'S COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING FOR WOMEN

Dept. of Electronics and Telecommunication.

Multiple Choice Question Bank.
Course Name: Mechatronics Unit No : 1 Pattern :2015
Name of the course teacher: S.V.Shelke

Q1. Where and when was the word Mechatronics invented?

A) Japan(1960)
B) Japan(1980)
C) Europe(1960)
D) Europe(1980)
Answer A
Q2. A servo motor is a typical example of _____
A) Electronics system
B) Mechanical system
C) Computer System.
D) Mechatronics System.
Answer D
Q3. What is the function of an input signal conditioning unit?
A) To produce control signals
B) To amplify the signal and convert it into digital form
C) To perform mechanical work
D) To produce electrical signals
Answer B
Q4. The main mechanical components of a servo motor are stator and rotor.
A) TRUE
B) FALSE
Answer A
Q5. The main function of Actuator is _____
A) To produce motion
B) Detect input
C) Detect output
D) Detect the state of the system
Answer A
Q6. Example of ‘Stand-alonesystem’ is _____
A) Machining centers
B) Washing Machines
C) Robots for parts handling
D) Automated inspection stations
Answer B
Q7. Which among the following carry out the overall control of a system?
A) Graphical displays
B) Sensors
C) Actuators
 D) Digital controls
Answer D
Q8. A humanoid robot is an example of _____
A) Artificial intelligence
B) Stand-alone systems
C) Large factory systems
D) High level distributed sensor microcontroller actuator
Answer A
Q9. Where is the feedback generated by sensors in a mechatronics system given?
A) Input sensors
B) Comparators
C) Mechanical actuators
D) Output sensors
Answer B
Q10. A Mechatronics system contains feedback.
A) TRUE
B) FALSE
Answer A
Q11. Which is the first aspect which needs to be considered in the Mechatronics design process?
A) Hardware integration and simulation
B) Conceptual design
C) Mathematical modeling
D) Modeling and simulation
Answer D
Q12. In the level of integration of Mechatronics system, an example of the first level is _____
A) Fluid valves
B) Automatic machine tools
C) Industrial robots
D) Microprocessors
Answer A
Q13. What is the role of the second level in the mechatronics system design?
A) Integrates microelectronics into electrically controlled devices
B) Integrates electrical signal with mechanical action
C) Advanced control strategy level
D) Providing artificial intelligence
Answer A
Q14. Interface design is an example of hardware integration.
A) TRUE
B) FALSE
Answer B

Q15. Microprocessor based electrical motors are used for ____

A) Prediction of fault in the system
B) Correction before a fault occurs
C) Actuation purpose in robots
 D) Providing intelligence
Answer C

Q16. Deployment in mechatronics design is associated with the final product.

A) TRUE
B) FALSE
Answer A

Q17. Which phase of a mechatronics system consists of hardware designing?

A) Prototyping
B) Modeling
C) Simulation
D) Deployment
Answer A

Q18. What is the function of “analysis” in the modeling and simulation phase?
A) Database for maintaining project information
B) Sub models for eventual reuse
C) Contains Numerical methods
D) To produce high-level source code
Answer C

Q19. Describing the behavior characteristics through block diagram is done in ____
A) Modeling and simulation
B) Prototyping
C) Deployment
D) Design Optimisation
Answer A

Q20. Prototyping involves ____

A) Conceptual design
B) Replacing non-computer systems with actual hardware
C) Database for maintaining project information
D) Sub models for eventual reuse
Answer B

Q21. What converts physical input into output, among the basic parts of a measuring system?
A) Transducer or sensor
B) Signal conditioning
C) Intelligence
D) Display
Answer A

Q22. The analog to digital conversion in a measurement system takes place inside _____
A) Transducer
 B) Signal Processor
C) Display
D) LED
Answer B

Q23. The light emitting diodes are used as a/an ____

A) Intelligence
B) Display
C) Transducer
D) Sensor
Answer B

Q24. A thermocouple is a transducer.

A) TRUE
B) FALSE
Answer A

Q25. Which type of error is caused due to friction or electrical capacitance?

A) Hysterisis
B) Zero
C) Systematic
D) Random
Answer A

Q26. Accuracy is the difference between a true value and the measured value.
A) TRUE
B) FALSE
Answer A

Q27. Which type of error always has the same and consistent value?
A) Random errors
B) Systematic errors
C) Zero errors
D) Hysteresis errors
Answer B

Q28. The largest value for which the instrument output remains zero is ____
A) hysteresis error
B) resolution
C) sensitivity
D) dead zone
Answer D

Q29.The function of the data transmission element is ____

A) to transfer data from one element to another
 B) to Modify the data
C) to process the data
D) to separate the signal hidden in the noise
Answer A

Q30. Which elements among the following is used to modify the data before display?
A) Data presentation element
B) Data transmission element
C) Data processing element
D) Variable manipulation element
Answer C

Q31. What are Dashpots?

A) It works as a damper which resists motion by viscous friction
B) Toothed parts which transfer power between two shafts
C) Used to transmit power between two parallel shafts
D) Convert the rotatory motion into translatory motion
Answer A

Q32. Force applied by dashpot is proportional to the velocity of an object in ____

A) Same direction
B) Opposite direction
C) All directions
D) Upward and Downward direction
Answer B

Q33. Which type of damper works on the principle of the magnetic field?
A) Linear dashpot
B) Rotary dashpot
C) Eddy current damper
D) Shock absorbers
Answer C

Q34. In any pair of gear, the smaller one is called as the pinion and the larger one is called as ____
A) Gear immaterial
B) Spur Gear
C) Internal gear
D) Helical gear
Answer A

Q35. When the gear is driven, it results in step down driven in which the output speed decreases and
torque increases.
A) TRUE
B) FALSE
Answer B
Q36. Dashpot absorbs energy from an object.
A) TRUE
B) FALSE
Answer A

Q37. In which type of gear teethes are parallel to the axis?

A) Spur Gears
B) Helical Gears
C) Rack and pinion
D) Internal Gears
Answer A

Q38. Which type of gear is used to convert rotary into translatory motion?
A) Spur gear
B) Rack and pinion
C) Helical gear
D) Internal gear
Answer B

Q39. Bevel gears are used for ____

A) Transmitting power between intersecting shafts
B) Converting rotary into translatory motion
C) For high speed and high load applications
D) Used in high capacity reduction driver like cement mills
Answer A

Q40. The planet pinion carrier and shaft are used in which type of gear?
A) Rack and pinion
B) Internal Gears
C) Spur Gears
D) Helical Gears
Answer B

Q41. What is the sequence followed by the automatic washing machine?

A) Washing, soaking, rinsing and drying
B) Soaking, washing, rinsing and drying
C) Washing, soaking, drying and rinsing
D) Drying, soaking, rinsing and washing
Answer B

Q42. The chemical sensor in the washing machine is used ____

A) To count the quantity of detergent
B) To measure the amount of water
C) To measure the pH value of water
 D) For Drying operations
Answer C

Q43. The amount of water, pH value and detergent are input to ____
A) Microprocessor
B) Microcontroller
C) Valve
D) Pump
Answer B

Q44. What is used to calculate the distance of the object and according to that sets the lens of the
camera?
A) Range processor
B) Microprocessor
C) Shutter
D) Switch
Answer A

Q45. What is the precise rate at which the drive motor rotates the CD?
A) 800 to 100 rpm
B) 500 to 200 rpm
C) 1000 to 600 rpm
D) 100 to 200 rpm
Answer B

Q46. A CD is made of plastic and a thick layer of aluminium.

A) TRUE
B) FALSE
Answer A

Q47. The microprocessor is used in drive motor of CD for controlling the speed.
A) TRUE
B) FALSE
Answer A

Q48. What are the applications of PLC in mechatronics?

A) Timing, counting, logic, arithmetic and sequencing
B) Managing, commanding and directing
C) Storing data
D) Processing
Answer A

Q49. What is the main of DAS (data acquisition system)?

A) Storing data
B) It converts analog to digital data
 C) It converts digital to analog data
D) Processes the data
Answer B

Q50. Reading mechanism is available in _______

A) CD
B) Washing Machine
C) Digital Camera
D) Camcorders
Answer A

Q51. In the mechatronics design process, what is the role of modelling?

A) Making understandable and behavioural models of physical phenomena
B) Numerical strategies for solving models
C) Information for maintaining project data
D) To supply efficient high-level source code
Answer A

Q52. Numerical strategies for affected improvement and performance functions supported model
parameters and signals is called as ____
A) Simulation
B) Design
C) Modelling
D) Project Management
Answer B

Q53. Simulation provides numerical strategies for solving models containing differential, discrete,
hybrid, partial and implicit non-linear equations.
A) TRUE
B) FALSE
Answer A

Q54. The function of the code generator is ____

A) project management
B) Simulation
C) numerical strategies for solving models
D) to supply efficient high-level source code
Answer D

Q55. Hardware approach in integrated design approach in mechatronics is ____

A) advanced control functions
B) bringing together sensors, actuators and computers in one system
C) to provide built-in intelligence
D) to provide a coherent framework of component interactions
Answer B
Q56. In the integrated design approach, a coherent framework is provided through control systems.
A) TRUE
B) FALSE
Answer A

Q57. The built-in intelligence provided through ____

A) Advanced control functions
B) Real-time programming
C) Control systems
D) Integrated design approach
Answer B

Q58. In mechatronics system design phase, prototyping phase consists of ____

A) hardware in loop simulation and design optimization
B) deployment of software
C) finding the mathematical model
D) selecting Sensors and Actuators
Answer A

Q59. How is the integration of mechatronics system possible?

A) By use of control systems
B) By combining hardware and software
C) By providing built-in intelligence
D) By providing efficient high-level source code
Answer B

Q60. The function of project management is ____

A) providing information for maintaining data and Sub models
B) deployment of software
C) real-time programming
D) integrated design approach
Answer A
 BHARATI VIDYAPEETH'S COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING FOR WOMEN
Dept. of Electronics and Telecommunication.
Multiple Choice Question Bank.
Course Name: Mechatronics Unit No :2 Pattern :2015
Name of the course teacher: S.V.Shelke

Q1. Function of transducer is to convert

A) Electrical signal into non electrical quantity

B) Non electrical quantity into electrical signal

C) Electrical signal into mechanical quantity

D) All of these

ANSWER B

Q2 The linear variable differential transformer transducer is

A) Inductive transducer

B) Non-inductive transducer

C) Capacitive transducer

D) Resistive transducer

ANSWER A

Q3. The transducer used for the measurements is/are

A) Resistance temperature detectors

B) Thermistors

C) Ultrasonic

D) All of these

ANSWER D

Q4. If at one end, the two wires made of different metals are joined together then a voltage
will get produced between the two wires due to difference of temp between the two ends of wir
A) Thermocouples
B) Thermistors
C) RTD
D) Ultrasonics
ANSWER A

Q5. Active transducer do not require any type of additional power source for an operation.
A) TRUE
B) FALSE
C)
D)
ANSWER A

Q6. What type of energy conversion does a piezoelectric transducer perform?

A) It converts mechanical energy to sound energy
B) It converts sound energy to mechanical energy
It converts mechanical energy to electrical
C) energy
D) It converts electrical energy to mechanical energy
ANSWER C

Q7. The IC LM35 is used as which type of sensor?

A) Pressure sensor
B) Temperature sensor
C) Light sensor
D) Mechanical sensor
ANSWER B

Q8. What is the full form of LVDT with respect to displacement transducer?
A) Linear variable differential temperature
Linear variable differential
B) transformer
C) Liquid visible differential transformer
D) Liquified visible differential transformer
ANSWER B

What is the effect on properties of LDR when light falls on

Q9. it?
A) Its resistance remains same
B) Its resistance changes
C) Its capacitance changes
D) Its inductance changes
ANSWER B

Q10. What is measured by a hall effect transducer?

A) Electricflux
B) ElectricField
C) Magneticfield
D) Temperature
ANSWER C

Q11. Load cells are used for measuring _______________

A) Large weights only
B) Small weights only
C) Weights moving in high speed
D) Slowly moving weights
ANSWER D

Q12. Which of the following arrangements are used in load cells?

A) Tensile strain gauges
B) Compressive strain gauges
C) Both tensile and compressive strain gauges
D) None of the mentioned
ANSWER C

Q13. Which of the following conversion is correct for load cell?

A) Force to strain
B) Force to displacement
C) Force to voltage
D) Both force to strain and force to displacement
ANSWER D

Q14. Which of the following statement is true for diaphragms?

A) Used for measuring small forces
B) Used for measuring large forces
C) Used for measuring dynamic forces
D) None of the mentioned
ANSWER A

Q15. Load cells are primary transducers.

A) TRUE
B) FALSE
C)
D)
ANSWER A

Q16. Piezoelectric effect is when materials produce electric charges when ____________
A) Voltage is applied
B) Mechanical Stress is applied
C) Electric field is applied
D) Magnetic field is applied
ANSWER B

Q17. Piezoelectricity means _________________

A) Electric polarization
B) Electric dielectric
C) Pressure electricity
D) Polar dielectric
ANSWER C

Q18. The piezoelectric materials used for converting energy are called as ___________
A) Transition Devices
B) Converter
C) Dielectric
D) Transducer
ANSWER D

Q19. Piezoelectricity is shown by substances which are ___________

A) Polar
B) Non-polar
C) Symmetric
D) Asymmetric
ANSWER D

Q20. Piezoelectric Transducer consist of quartz crystal which is made of

A) Silicon and oxygen
B) Silicon and Carbondioxde
C) Silicon and Magnesium
D) Silicon And Iron
ANSWER A

. Which is the emf(electromotive force) induced in a coil if it has 8 turns and rate of c
Q21. 0.5?
A) -10
B) -25
C) 5.5
D) -4
ANSWER D

Q22. Which metal will have a larger range of detection by inductive proximity sensor?
A) Iron
B) Aluminium
C) Copper
D) Lead
ANSWER A
Q23. . A proximity sensor requires physical contact.
A) TRUE
B) FALSE
C)
D)
ANSWER B

Q24. Which metal will have a larger range of detection by inductive proximity sensor?
A) Zinc
B) Steel
C) Copper
D) Lead
ANSWER B

Q25. Which is an example of infrared proximity sensor?

A) GP2Y0A41SK0F
B) CMCP793V-500
C) SLB700A/06VA
D) BMP180
ANSWER A

Q26. A capacitive proximity sensor can detect only metallic object.

A) TRUE
B) FALSE
C)
D)
ANSWER A

Q27. . A proximity sensor does not work if the temperature exceeds 100 degree Celsius.
A) TRUE
B) FALSE
C)
D)
ANSWER A

Q28. Which type of proximity sensor can be used as touch sensor?

A) Inductive proximity sensor
B) Capacitive proximity sensor
C) Ultrasonic proximity sensor
D) Photoelectric proximity sensor
ANSWER A

Q29. Which type of proximity sensor can detect a magnetic substance even if a wall of no
A) Magnetic proximity sensor
B) Capacitive proximity sensor
C) Ultrasonic proximity sensor
D) Photoelectric proximity sensor
ANSWER A

Q30. Which axis accelerometer is mostly used in IOT?

A) 2- axis
B) 3- axis
C) 1- axis
D) Combination of all
ANSWER B

Q31. Accelerometer is the measurement of ________

A) Velocity/time
B) Energy/time
C) Height/time
D) Angle/time
ANSWER A

Q32. What is the use of accelerometer in laptops?

A) To rotate the screen
B) To protect hard drives from damage
C) To get the angle on monitor
D) To get the linear acceleration
ANSWER B

Q33. How many and what are the parts that are present in the accelerometer sensor?
A) 1, capacitor sensor
B) 3, piezoelectric effect, Analog display, digital display
C) 2, piezoelectric effect and capacitor sensor
D) 2, Capacitor sensor, digital Display
ANSWER B

Q34. Gyroscope is used for_________

A) Anti-theft
B) Capacitive proximity sensing
C) Gaming
D) Angle detection
ANSWER C

Q35. . Gyroscope is used to measure_________

A) Linear Acceleration
B) Angular velocity
C) Angular velocity and linear acceleration
D) Linear velocity
ANSWER B
Q36. How many sensing structures are there in gyroscope sensor?
A) Two structures
B) Three structures
C) Depending on application
D) Single structure
ANSWER D

Q37. . ________ is included in a system to provide desirable damping effect.

A) Speedometer
B) Seismic
C) Damper
D) Dashpot
ANSWER D

Q38. ________ sensor is used for tracking rotation or twist.

A) Gyroscope
B) Temperature
C) Pressure
D) Proximity
ANSWER A

Q39. Theory behind working of accelerometer can be understood from ________

A) Rotary
B) Liner
C) Newtonian mechanism
D) Reciprocating
ANSWER C

Q40. What is the rate noise density of gyroscope?

A) 0.011 dps/√Hz
B) 0.0011 dps/√Hz
C) 1.11 dps/√Hz
D) 11.1 dps/√Hz
ANSWER A

Q41. Are accelerometer used in cars?

A) TRUE
B) FALSE
C)
D)
ANSWER A

Q42. Inductive sensors are also referred as “NMR” coils. What does NMR stand for?
A) Nuclei Magneto resonance
B) Nuclei Magnetic resonator
C) Nuclear Magnetic resonator
D) Nuclear Magnetic resonance
ANSWER D

Q43. Will an infrared proximity sensor detect a black object when it comes in suitable ran
A) Yes, It will detect the object
B) No, It will not detect the object
C) Yes but it will produce random output
D) The sensor will stop working
ANSWER B

Q44. Which of the following statement is true for diaphragms?

A) Used for measuring small forces
B) Used for measuring large forces
C) Used for measuring dynamic forces
D) None of the mentioned
ANSWER A

Q45. In which state of chemical substances does a chemical sensing device work?
A) Solid
B) Liquid
C) Vapour
D) Plasma
ANSWER C

Q46. What is the range of frequency of the waves produced by the Ultrasonic transducer?
A) 20 Kilohertz to several Gigahertz
B) 1 Kilohertz to several Gigahertz
C) 40 Kilohertz to several Megahertz
D) less than 20 Kilohertz
ANSWER A

Q47. For the measurement of pressure the instruments used can be

A) A. Mechanical
B) B. Electro-mechanical
C) C. Electronic
D) D. All of these
ANSWER D

Q48. Thermistor is a transducer. Its temperature coefficient is

A) Negative
B) Positive
C) Zero
D) None of these
 ANSWER A

Q49. Potentiometer transducers are used for the measurement of

A) A. Pressure
B) B. Displacement
C) C. Humidity
D) D. Both (a) and (b)
ANSWER D

Q50. Which among the following is not a dynamic characteristics?

A) Response speed
B) Accuracy
C) Retardation type measuring lag
D) Time delay lag
ANSWER B

BHARATI VIDYAPEETH'S COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING FOR WOMEN

Dept. of Electronics and Telecommunication.
Multiple Choice Question Bank.
Course Name: Mechatronics Unit No :3 Pattern :2015
Name of the course teacher: S.V.Shelke

Bharati Vidyapeeth's College of Engineering For Women

Course Name: MECHATRONICS
Class: TE1 Entc
Faculty: S.V. Shelke

Unit No.3. HYDRAULIC SYSTEM

1. Which type of system uses ‘oil under pressure’ means for power transmission?

a) Fluid power system

b) Hydraulic system
c) Pneumatic system
d) Stepper motors
Answer -B
2. The force developed in hydraulic systems is high due to ____
a) high pressure
b) more oil
c) less pressure
d) less oil
Answer- a

3. Hydraulic systems are slower in operation.

a) True
b) Fals
Answer- a

4. Which component of a hydraulic system is used to store the sufficient amount of hydraulic
oil?
a) Rotatory pumps
b) Oil reservoir
c) Flow control valve
d) Pressure gauge
Answer-b

5. What pumps hydraulic oil to the hydraulic circuit?

a) Flow control valve
b) Oil reservoir
c) Rotatory pumps
d) Pressure gauge
Answer- a

6. The pressure relief valve is an important component which is required for every displacement
pump.
a) True
b) False
Answer-a

7. What controls the direction of the flow of oil?

a) Pressure relief valve
b) Direction control valve
c) Flow control valve
d) Actuator
Answer- b

8. What is the function of the flow control valve?

a) Controls the direction of flow of oil
b) To pump hydraulic oil to the hydraulic circuit.
c) It converts the mechanical energy to hydraulic energy

Answer- d

9. How many types of actuators are present in hydraulic systems?

a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer- b

10. What is the function of a pressure gauge?

a) It controls the rate of flow of oil
b) It shows the pressure reading
c) Controls the direction of flow of oil
d) It converts the mechanical energy to hydraulic energy
Answer- b
11.Heavy lifting work is often accomplished by shifting fluids in big machines. The power
system of such machines can be described as
a) Reciprocating
b) Pneumatic
c) Hydraulic
d) Hybrid
Answer- c

12.The scientific principle that makes hydraulic systems possible is

a) Pascal’s principle
b) Boyle’s law
c) Bernoulli’s principle
d) The fluid flow principle
Answer- a

13.A single acting cylinder can be pressurized externally from one direction only.
a) True
b) False
Answer-a

14.Series circuits work on both hydraulic and pneumatic actuators.

a) True
b) False
Answer- a

15.The ____________________ converts the compressed air energy into mechanical energy in
the form of linear movement in one direction only.
a) Piston cylinders
b) Double acting cylinders
c) Single acting cylinders
d) Hydraulic pumps
Answer- c

16.When the piston area of the cylinder is connected to the atmosphere, the piston of the single-
acting cylinder is pressed by the spring to the ________________
a) Cylinder center
b) Cylinder down
c) Cylinder bottom
d) Cylinder upper
Answer- a

17.Which type of mechanical device is used to give energy to the liquid?

a) Fluid power system
b) Hydraulic system
c) Pneumatic system
d) Hydraulic Pumps
Answer- d

18.Which among the following pumps have a definite amount of discharge?

a) Positive displacement pumps
b) Non-positive displacement pumps
c) Self-priming pumps
d) Jet pumps
Answer-a

19.Which among the following is not the component of FRL unit?

a) Air filter
b) Air dryer
c) Air regulator
d) Air lubricator
Answer- b
20.What prevents the leakage of oil inside an unbalanced vane pump?
a) Vanes
b) Cylindrical rotor
c) Screw
d) Difference between the pressure of inlet and outle
Answer- a

21.Which among the following are not the main selection criteria for selection of hydraulic
pumps?
a) Discharge
b) Pressure
c) Speed
d) Weight
Answer- d

22.Which of the following is not the application of hydraulic system

a)CNC
b)automobiles
c)material handling system
d)machine tools
Answer- c

23.In hydraulic systems,

a. the mechanical energy is transferred to the oil and then converted into mechanical energy
b. the electrical energy is transferred to the oil and then converted into mechanical energy
c. the mechanical energy is transferred to the oil and converted into electrical energy
d. none of the above
Answer- a

24.Which of the following is used as a component in hydraulic power unit?

a. pressure gauge
b. filler gauge
c. valve
d. reservoir
Answer- c

25. Rotary motion in a hydraulic power unit is achieved by using

a. hydraulic cylinder
b. pneumatic cylinder
c. both hydraulic and pneumatic cylinder
d. none of the above
Answer- d

26.. Accessories used in a hydraulic power unit adjust pressure and are used to generate flow and
direction of the fluid.
a. True
b. False
Answer- b

27. Which of the following statements are true?

1. Bell housing connects motor and pump
2. Centrifugal pump is a non-positive displacement pump
3. Centrifugal pumps allow the back flow of fluid from delivery side to the suction side of the
pump
4. The function of vent plug used in a reservoir is to flush out oil

a. 1, 2 and 4
b. 2, 3 and 4
c. 2 and 3
d. all the above
Answer- b
28. Which of the following is used as an accessory in hydraulic power unit?
a. pumps
b. valves
c. motor
d. reservor
Answer- d

29. Which type of pump is used for lifting water from the ground surface to the top of the
building?
a. centrifugal pump
b. turbine pump
c. submersible pump
d. all the above
Answer - d

30. Pumps used in hydraulic applications are

a. positive displacement pumps
b. variable displacement pumps
c. fixed displacement pumps
d. all the above
Answer- d

31. What is a positive displacement pump?

a. oil from suction side of the pump flows completely to the delivery side
b. volume of fluid discharged cannot return back to the suction side of the pump
c. discharges fixed volume of fluid every cycle
d. all the above
Answer- d

32. While operating a positive displacement pump,

a. the shut-off valve should be closed on delivery side
b. the shut-off valve should be closed on suction side
c. the shut-off valve should be opened on delivery side
d. none of the above
Answer - c

33.Positive displacement pump used in hydraulic systems have

a. high viscosity of fluids
b. low efficiency
c. required volume of fluid cannot be discharged
d. all the above
Answer -a

34.Electric motor has a speed of 1200 rpm and output rate of pump is 6 cc/rev. Calculate flow
rate of pump in l/min
a. 6 l/min
b. 7.2 l/min
c. 5 l/min
d. none of the above
Answer- b

35. Calculate the power absorbed by the pump if, it has a flow rate of 20 cc/rev and develops a
maximum pressure of 70 bar, when electric motor runs at a speed of 1200 rpm.
a. 1.9 kW
b. 2.8 kW
c. 2.3 kW
d. none of the above
Answer- b

36. Volumetric efficiency is the ratio of

a. theoretical flow rate to actual flow rate
b. actual flow rate to theoretical flow rate
c. actual fluid power to pump input power
d. none of the above
Answer-b

37. Which of the following is a hydrodynamic pump?

a. vane pump
b. centrifugal pump
c. gear pump
d. piston pump
Answer-b

38. Variable displacement pumps used in hydraulic applications can

1. have variable flow rate
2. consume less energy
3. be operated with high accuracy for slow and rapid motion
4. generate more heat

a. 1 and 2
b. 3 and 4
c. 1, 2 and 3
d. all the above
Answer- c

39. Which type of displacement is observed in gear pumps?

a. only variable displacement
b. only fixed displacement
c. both fixed and variable displacement
d. none of the above
Answer-b
40. What is the principle of operation used in gear pumps?
a. two gears rotate in same direction
b. two gears rotate in opposite direction
c. both a and b
d. none of the above
Answer-b

41. What causes suction of fluid into the gear pump?

a. when pressure drops during disengagement of teeth at the suction side
b. when pressure increases during disengagement of teeth at the suction side
c. when pressure drops during engagement of teeth at the suction side
d. when pressure increases during engagement of teeth at the suction side
Answer-a

42. How is the smooth and continuous discharge of fluid achieved in a gear pump?
a. increasing number of teeth
b. decreasing number of teeth
c. none of the above
Answer-a

43. What cause discharge of fluid in an external gear pump?

1. the electric motor drives one gear which turns the other gear
2. the electric motor drives both the gears simultaneously
3. fluid passes between the gears to discharge side
4. fluid passes through interior of the casing between teeth and casing and not between the gears
a. 1 and 3
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 4
d. 2 and 4
Answer-c
44. The rotation of gears in internal gear pump takes place in
a. same direction
b. different direction
c. none of the above
Answer- a

45. How does the fluid flow in internal gear pump?

a. fluid enters the suction side between rotor, which is a large exterior gear and idler which is a
small interior gear
b. fluid enters the suction side between rotor, which is a small exterior gear and idler which is a
large interior gear
c. fluid enters the suction side between rotor and idler which rotate in different directions
d. none of the above

Answer-a

46. What causes internal leakage in internal gear pump?

a. less tolerance level between the meshing surfaces
b. more tolerance level between the meshing surfaces
c. no tolerance between the meshing surfaces
d. none of the above
Answer- b

47. What is the relation between pressure and overall efficiency for a gear pump?
a. as pressure increases, overall efficiency decreases
b. as pressure increases, overall efficiency increases
c. overall efficiency is not affected by change in pressure
d. none of the above
Answer- a
48.What is the advantage of internal gear pump?
a. moderate speed
b. medium pressure
c. high viscosity fluids can be used
d. all the above
Answer- c

49. In centrifugal pumps, the rotation of which inner element causes the liquid to pump out?
a. internal gear
b. rotation of the impeller
c. cylinder rotor
d. none of the above
Answer-b

50. Which force causes vanes to come out of the rotor slots?
a. centripetal force
b. centrifugal force
c. friction force
d. none of the above
Answer-b

51. Which of the following statements is true?

a. combination of stator with rotor is known as cartridge unit
b. combination of stator with vanes is known as cartridge unit
c. combination of rotor with vanes is known as cartridge unit
d. none of the above
Answer -c

52.What is the advantage of flexible vane pump?

a. they can handle solids which are of large size
b. they can create good vacuum
c. both a and b
d. none of the above
Answer-b

53. Cartridge kits generate pumping chambers of various sizes, which

a. increase the flow rate
b. decrease the flow rate
c. increase and decrease the flow rate
d. none of the above
Answer- c

54. Which of the following statements is false for vane pumps?

a. wear in contact surfaces occurs due to continuous contact between vane tips and the cam ring
b. different sizes of cartridge kits can be replaced in same vane pump
c. elliptical cam ring is replaced by round cam ring to reduce unbalanced forces
d. none of the above

Answer- c

55. Balanced vane pumps are designed to have

a. fixed displacement
b. variable displacement
c. both fixed and variable displacement
d. none of the above
Answer- a

56. Cam ring of unbalanced vane pump is

a. round
b. elliptical
c. both a and b
d. both of the above
Answer- a

57. In pressure compensated vane pump,

1. having variations in eccentricity between rotor and cam ring gives variable displacement
2. as eccentricity between rotor and cam decreases, flow of fluid decreases
3. as eccentricity between rotor and cam decreases, flow of fluid increases
4. having variations in eccentricity between rotor and cam ring gives fixed displacement

a. 1 and 3
b. 3 and 4
c. 2 and 4
d. 1 and 2
Answer- d

58. What is the relation between speed and flow rate for fixed displacement vane pump?
a. flow rate increases with increase in speed of rotor
b. flow rate decreases with increase in speed of rotor
c. flow rate is constant and does not change with change in speed
d. none of the above
Answer- a

59. In fixed displacement vane pump,

a. flow rate decreases with increase in working pressure
b. flow rate increases with increase in working pressure
c. flow rate is constant and does not change with working pressure
d. none of the above
Answer- a
60. What effect does working pressure have on input power for radial piston pumps?
a. as working pressure increases input power decreases
b. as working pressure increases input power increases
c. pressure remains constant for different input powers
d. none of the above
Answer- b

61. Radial piston pumps can have,

a. cylinder block rotating and cam stationary
b. cylinder block stationary and cam rotating
c. both a and b
d. none of the above
Answer -c

62.Which of the following statements are true?

1. piston pumps are self priming
2. piston pumps require high maintenance
3. piston pumps have low cost of production
4. piston pumps have low volumetric efficiency

a. 1 and 2
b. 3 and 4
c. 1 and 3
d. all the above
Answer-a

63. A bent axis piston pump has

a. pump axis bent
b. cylinder block which is inclined at an angle to the drive shaft
c. both a and b
d. none of the above
Answer-b

64. In which of these pumps, swash plate is replaced by cylinder block?

a. bent axis piston pump
b. radial piston pump
c. axial piston pump
d. none of these
Answer-a

65. What happens when the distance between flange and cylinder block is varied?
a. piston displacement cannot be varied
b. variable flow rate of fluid can be achieved
c. fixed flow rate can be achieved
d. all the above
Answer-b

66. What is the maximum angle between cylinder block and shaft axis?
a. 30o
b. 50o
c. 45o
d. all the above
Answer-a

67. When does holding piston keep the angle between yoke and cylinder block maximum?
a. when set pressure is greater than load pressure
b. when set pressure is less than load pressure
c. when set pressure and load pressure are same
d. all the above
Answer-a
68.Which type of motion is transmitted by hydraulic actuators?
a. linear motion
b. rotary motion
c. both a and b
d. none of the above
Answer- c

69. What is the function of electric actuator?

a. converts electrical energy into mechanical torque
b. converts mechanical torque into electrical energy
c. converts mechanical energy into mechanical torque
d. none of the above
Answer-a

70. Which of the following is a hydraulic cylinder based on construction?

a. single acting cylinder
b. double acting cylinder
c. welded design cylinder
d. all the above
Answer- c

71. Which energy is converted into mechanical energy by the hydraulic cylinders?

a. hydrostatic energy
b. hydrodynamic energy
c. electrical energy
d. none of the above
Answer- a
72. What is the advantage of using a single acting cylinder?
a. high cost and reliable
b. honing inside the inner surface of pump is not required
c. piston seals are not required
d. all the above
Answer- c

73. Why are hydraulic cylinders cushioned?

a. cushioning decelerates the piston of a cylinder
b. stress and vibrations can be reduced
c. both a and b
d. none of the above
Answer- c

74. Which of the following statements is true?

a. Tie-rod cylinders are used in applications having working pressure of 70 bar
b. Welded type cylinders are used in systems having working pressure more than 70 bar
c. Tie-rod cylinders can be used in systems having working pressure more than 70 bar
d. All the above
Answer- d

75. Which of these actions does a hydraulic cylinder perform?

a. pushing
b. lifting
c. both a and b
d. none of the above

Answer- c

76. Leakage in welded type of hydraulic cylinder is prevented by

a. wiper in gland cover
b. rod seal in end cover
c. rod seal in gland cover
d. both b and c
Answer- c

77. In single acting hydraulic cylinders, the piston comes back to its original position due to
a. spring force
b. self-weight
c. momentum of a flywheel
d. all the above
Answer- d

78. Which of the following is a hydraulic cylinder based on application?

a. welded
b. bolted
c. ram
d. all the above
Answer- c

79. What happens when supply of oil to a single acting cylinder is stopped?
a. no pressure is exerted on the system
b. more pressure is exerted on the piston
c. less pressure is exerted on the piston
d. none of the above
Answer- c

80. When does expansion of spring and retraction of cylinder take place in spring type single
acting cylinder?
a. oil pressure exerted is less than spring compression pressure
b. oil pressure exerted is more than spring compression pressure
c. oil pressure exerted and spring compression pressure are same
d. none of the above
Answer-a

81. Double acting cylinder can be used as a single acting cylinder

a. True
b. False
Answer- a

82. In a telescopic cylinder, as the number of stages increase

a. diameter of piston rod also increases

b. diameter of piston rod decreases
c. diameter of the piston rod remains the same
d. none of the above
Answer-b

83. Which of the following statements is true for standard hydraulic cylinder and a telescopic
cylinder?
a. telescopic and standard cylinders give same stroke length
b. telescopic cylinders give lesser stroke length than standard cylinder
c. telescopic cylinders give greater stroke length than standard cylinder
d. none of the above
Answer- c

84. Which of the following statements are true?

1. the length of two stage telescopic cylinder is more than a standard cylinder
2. the length of two stage telescopic cylinder is less than a standard cylinder
3. telescopic cylinder is single acting
4. telescopic cylinder is double acting

a. 1 and 3
b. 2 and 3
c. 2, 3 and 4
d. 1, 3 and 4
Answer- c

85. Telescopic cylinders have

a. only two stage units
b. only three stage units
c. two or three stage units
d. multistage units
Answer- d

86. Which type of hydraulic cylinder has one piston connected to piston rod extended on both the
sides of the cylinder?
a. telescopic cylinder
b. tandem cylinder
c. both a and b
d. none of the above
Answer-b

87. Which factor decides the working pressure of a hydraulic cylinder?

a. diameter of circular flange
b. bore diameter of cylinder
c. stroke length
d. all the above
Answer- b

88.Which of the following is not the pressure control valve?

A. Safety Valve
B.Sequence Valve
C. Shutoff- Valve
D. Reducing Valve
AnswerC

89.What is the function of the pressure switch?

A.Pressure switch is used to start a motor
B.Pressure switch is used to stop a motor
C.Pressure switch is used to de-energize a solenoid
D. All the above
AnswerD

90. A pressure relief valve can be

a. direct operated
b. pilot operated
c. solenoid operated
d. all the above
AnswerD

91.What is the difference between pressure relief valve and pressure reducing valve?
A.pressure reducing valve is connected between pump and tank line while pressure relief valve is
connected between DCV and branch circuit
B.pressure relief valve is always normally opened
c. pressure reducing valve is connected between DCV and branch circuit while pressure relief
valve is connected between pump and tank
D.d. none of the above
AnswerC

92. When is a pressure reducing valve used?

A. it is used when higher pressure than system pressure is required
B.it is used when lower pressure than system pressure is required
C.when absolutely zero pressure is required
D.All the above
AnswerB

93.A relief valve

A. Provides back pressure for a cylinder
B. Unloads a pump
C. Is a directional control valve
D. None of these
Answer: Option C

94.Which valve is used to maintain constant reduced pressure in the system

A.Pressure reducing Valve
B.Relief Valve
C.Unloading Valve
D.None of the above
Answer A

95.What is the function of unloading relief valve and can it be used as an accessory for
accumulators?
A.unloading relief valve is used to charge the accumulator by a pump when accumulator
pressure falls below the set value and it can be used as an accessory.
B.unloading relief valve is used to charge the accumulator by a pump when accumulator pressure
falls below the set value but is not used as an accessory
C.unloading relief valve is used to charge the accumulator by a pump when accumulator pressure
rises above the set value but is not used as an accessory
D.unloading relief valve is used to charge the accumulator by a pump when accumulator
pressure rises above the set value and is used as an accessory
AnswerA

96.Which of the following is an element of time delay valve?

A.Flow control valve
B.direction control valve
C.Both A and B
D.None of the above
AnswerC

97.Check valve is a type of

a. pressure reducing valve
b. pressure relief valve
c. directional control valve
d. none of the above
AnswerA

98.What is the function of sequence valve used in hydraulic circuits?

a. sequence valves are used to perform number of operations one after the other after the set
pressure is reached
b. sequence valves are used to perform number of operations continuously before the set pressure
is reached
c. sequence valves after reaching set pressure oil is flown to the tank
d. all the above
Answer A

99.What does the numbers in 4/2 valve mean?

a. 4 positions and 2 ways
b. 4 ways and 2 positions
c. none of the above
AnswerB

100.Which of the following statements are true for throttle valve?

1. Reverse flow of fluid is not possible
2. Input pressure for a throttle valve is more than output pressure
3. The actuator speed can be reduced by a throttle valve
4. Correct flow control valve for a particular application can be selected on the basis of pressure
drop specified
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1, 3 and 4
c. 2, 3 and 4
d. all the above
AnswerC

101. Which valve is also called as Holding valve

A.counter valvaValve
B.Loading Valve
C.Reducing Valve
D.None of the above
AnswerA

102.What is the formula for the force of a cylinder?

a) F=(p*a)
b) F=(p+a)
c) F=(p/a)
d) F=(p/ap)
Answera

103.The pressure relief valve is an important component which is required for every positive
displacement pump.
a) True
b) False
Answer: True

104.Direct control of a valve means that valve is caused to operate directly by actuating element
without any ———–elements being operated.
A.Higher
B.intermediate
C.shorter
Answerb

105.The two most common basic flow control devices used in a pneumatic system are fixed-
sized orifices and _____ valves.
A.core
B.Sleeve
C.Needle
D.All the above
AnswerC

106.compared with hydraulic systems, —– varieties of pressure control valves are used in
pneumatics
A.few
B.more
C.large
D.none of the above
AnswerA

107.compared with hydraulic systems, —– varieties of pressure control valves are used in
pneumatics
a) 2 ports 2 positions
b) 5 ports 2 positions
c) 5 ports 5 positions
d) 2 ports 5 positions
Answer B

108.What controls the direction of the flow of oil?

a) Pressure relief valve
b) Direction control valve
c) Flow control valve
d) Actuator
AnswerB

109.Which of the following logic valve is known as shuttle valve?

a. OR gate
b. AND gate
c. NOR gate
d. NAND
AnswerA

110.What is a pressure sequence valve?

a. it is a combination of adjustable pressure relief valve and directional control valve
b. it is a combination of nonadjustable pressure relief valve and directional control valve
c. it is a combination of adjustable pressure reducing valve and check valve
d. it is a combination of adjustable pressure reducing valve and flow control valve
AnswerA

111.Which of the following is an element of time delay valve?

a. flow control valve
b. direction control valve
c. both a and b
d. none of the above
Answer C
112.Cavitation in a control valve is caused by:
(A) process noise
(B) vibration in the piping
(C) the Von Karman effect
(D) a laminar flow regime
(E) pressure recovery
AnswerE

113.The hammer blow in pipes occurs when

There is excessive leakage in the pipe
The pipe bursts under high pressure of fluid
The flow of fluid through the pipe is suddenly brought to rest by closing of the valve
None of the above
AnswerC

114.Which of the following is used as a component in hydraulic power unit?

a. pressure gauge
b. filler gauge
c. valve
d. reservoir
AnswerC

115.In conventional valves, which component is used to move the spool?

a. torque motor
b. mechanical servo valve
c. solenoid
d. all the above
AnswerC
116.Which of the following is not the type of filter?
(A)Mechanical
(B)Absorption
(C)Absorbant
(D)Synthetic
AnswerD

117.Filters can block the particles of________.

(A)Less than 1 μm
(B)1 to 25 μm
(C)25 to 150 μm
(D)Greater than 150 μm
AnswerA

118.A _____ restrict air flow

A.Throttle Valve
B.Shuttle Valva
C.Directional Valve
D.single acting cylinder
AnswerA

BHARATI VIDYAPEETH'S COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING FOR WOMEN

Dept. of Electronics and Telecommunication.
Multiple Choice Question Bank.
Course Name: Mechatronics Unit No :4 Pattern :2015
Name of the course teacher: S.V.Shelke

Q1. Which device converts pressure energy of compressed air into the mechanical energy.
A) Hydraulic actuators
B) Pneumatic actuators
C) Both actuators
D) None of these
Answer B
Q2. Pneumatic actuators are the device used for converting pressure energy of
compressed air into______________.
A) Mechanical energy
B) Electrical energy
C) Pressure energy
Answer A

Q3. Which of the following factors is considered while selecting a compressor?

A) type of oil filter required
B) volumetric efficiency
C) viscosity of the liquids used
D) all of the above
Answer B

Q4. A pneumatic symbol is:

A) Different from a hydraulic symbol used for the same f
B) The same as a hydraulic symbol used for the same fu
C) Not to be compared to a hydraulic symbol used for th
D) None of the mentioned
Answer A

Q5. Pneumatic systems usually do not exceed:

A) 1 hp
B) 1 to 2 hp
C) 2 to 3 hp
D) 4 to 5 hp
Answer A

Q6.The lubricator in a pneumatic circuit is the:

A) First element in line
B) Second element in line
C) Last element in line
D) Third element in line
Answer C

Q7.In pneumatic systems the medium used is

A) Air
B) Liquid
C) Hydrogen
D) Oil
Answer A

Q8.Which of the following is an element of time delay valve?

A) flow control valve
B) direction control valve
C) both a and b
D) None of the above
Answer C

Q9. The compressed air is delivered to the pneumatic system through the air compressor.
A) TRUE
B) FALSE
Answer A

Q10.What is the function of the air dryer?

A) Removes dirt
B) Removes moisture
C) Controls the rate of flow
D) Controls the pressure
Answer B

Q11.Which part of the Pneumatic system stores the compressed air?

A) Air dryer
B) Air compressor
C) Air receiver tank
D) Air lubricator
Answer C

Q12.. Which among the following is not the component of FRL unit?
A) Air filter
B) Air dryer
C) Air lubricator
D) Air regulator
Answer B

Q13. What is the function of the flow control valve?

A) Controls the direction of flow of air
B) The moisture is separated and removed
C) It converts the mechanical energy to hydraulic energy
D) It controls the rate of flow of compressed air
Answer D
Q14.The direction control valve controls ____
A) direction of flow
B) rate of flow
C) moisture
D) force and motion
Answer A

Q15.Which among the following is an advantage of the pneumatic system?

A) The requirement of a lubricator
B) Runs continuously
C) Use of silencers
D) Low viscosity
Answer B

Q16.Which among the following is a disadvantage of Pneumatic system?

A) The requirement of a lubricator
B) Runs continuously
C) Used better in mines
D) Produces a dust free surroundings
Answer A

Q17.The Single Acting Cylinders are used for

A) Clamping
B) Lifting
C) Embossing
D) All of the above
Answer D

Q18.Which of the following is not the pressure control valve?

A) Sequence valve
B) Safety valve
C) Shut off valve
D) Reducing valve
Answer C

Q19. Check valve is a type of_____.

A) Pressure reducing valve
B) Pressure relief valve
C) Directional control valve
D) None of the given
Answer C
Q20.What is the advantage of using a single-acting cylinder?
A) High cost and reliable
B) Honing inside the inner surface of the pump is not re
C) Piston seals are not required
D) All of the given
Answer C

Q21.Which type of motion is transmitted by pneumatic actuators?

A) Linear motion
B) Rotary motion
C) Both of the given
D) None of the given
Answer C

Q22.A single-acting cylinder can be pressurized externally from one direction only.
A) TRUE
B) FALSE
Answer A

Q23.A one-way valve that lets air into the reservoir of a compressor, but doesn’t let it out, is a_____.
A) Check valve
B) Receiver valve
C) Control valve
D) Three way valve
Answer A

Q24.The ____converts the compressed air energy into mechanical energy in the form of
linear movement in one direction only.
A) Piston cylinders
B) Double acting cylinders
C) Single acting cylinders
D) Hydraulic pump
Answer C

Q25.In pneumatic control systems, the control valve used as the final control element converts______.
A) Pressure signal to electric signal
B) Pressure signal to position change
C) Electric signal to pressure signal
D) Position change to the pressure signal
Answer B
Q26.What is the function of the flow control valve?
A) Controls the direction of flow of air
B) The moisture is separated and removed
C) It controls the rate of flow of compressed air
D) It converts the mechanical energy to hydraulic energ
Answer C

Q27.The direction control valve controls ____

A) Direction flow
B) Rate flow
C) Moisture
D) Force and motion
Answer A

Q28.Which among the following fluid parameters are not controlled by the control valves?
A) Pressure
B) Rate of flow
C) Speed
D) Direction of flow
Answer C

Q29.In single acting hydraulic cylinders, the piston comes back to its original position due to
A) Spring force
B) Self weight
C) Momentum of flywheel
D) All of the above
Answer D

Q30. What happens when supply of oil to a single acting cylinder is stopped?
A) no pressure is exerted on the system
B) more pressure is exerted on the piston
C) less pressure is exerted on the piston
D) none of the above
Answer C

Q31.Double acting cylinder can be used as single acting cylinder

A) TRUE
B) FALSE
Answer A

Q32.What are the advantage of piston actuator

A) Torque capability is high
B) Fast speed
C) Compact and light weight
D) All of the above
Answer D

Q33.What are the advantage of piston actuator

A) Can work at high temperature
B) Cost is high
C) Both A&B
D) None of the above
Answer A

Q34.Disadvantage of piston actuator

A) Requires high air pressure
B) Cost is high
C) Both A&B
D) None of the above
Answer C

Q35.What is the function of the air compressor?

A) Decreases the pressure of air
B) Increases the pressure of air
C) Removes dust particles
D) Adds lubricating oil
Answer B

Q36.Which among the following are the applications of air compressors?

A) Supercharging of IC engines
B) Agriculture
C) Railways
D) Aerospace
Answer A

Q37.The capacity of the compressor is specified by

free air delivery.
A) TRUE
B) FALSE
Answer A

Q38.Which among the following are not the accurate selection criteria for air compressors?
A) Free air delivery
B) Air receiver capacity
C) Power supply
D) Speed
Answer D
Q39.What is the normal pressure at which the compressed air is stored?
A) 30 bar
B) 40 bar
C) 10 bar
D) 100 bar
Answer C

Q40.The compressed air is very costly.

A) TRUE
B) FALSE
Answer A

Q41. What is the function of the air dryer?

A) Removes dirt
B) Removes moisture
C) Controls the rate of flow
D) Controls the pressure
Answer B

Q42.What is the relation between temperature and specific weight for water glycol?
A) As the temperature increases specific weight decre
B) As the temperature increases specific weight increa
C) Temperature and specific weight vary linearly
D) None of the given
Answer A

Q43.What is the relation between temperature and viscosity for hydraulic oil?
A) Temperature and viscosity vary linearly
As temperature decreases viscosity decreases at
B) atmospheric pressure
As temperature increases viscosity decreases at
C) atmospheric pressure
D) None of the given
Answer C

Q44.Select the incorrect statement from the following option.

A) Lubricant keeps out dirt
B) Lubricant act as a seal
C) Lubricant transmit fluid power
D) Lubricant enhance corrosion
Answer D

Q45.Which of the following factors is considered while selecting a compressor?

A) type of oil filter required
B) volumetric efficiency
C) viscosity of the liquids used
D) All of the above
Answer B

Q46.Which of the following is a component used in air generation system?

A) pressure switch
B) pressure gauge
C) drier
D) intercooler
Answer C

Q47.Which part of the Pneumatic system stores the compressed air?

A) Air dryer
B) Air compressor
C) Air receiver tank
D) Air lubricator
Answer C

Q48.What is the function of a pressure control valve?

A) To control the force generated by actuators
B) To perform two operations in sequence
C) To control the direction of flow
D) To avoid the development of excess of pressu
Answer A

Q49.Pressure reducing valve is used to maintain constant reduced pressure.

A) TRUE
B) FALSE
Answer A

Q50. The function of the pressure relief valve is ____

A) To open when the inlet pressure is more
B) To control the force generated by actuators
C) To control different parameters of the fluid
D) To control the direction of flow
Answer A

Q51.During a refrigeration cycle,heat is rejected by the refrigerant in a.......

A) Compressure
B) Condenser
C) Evaporator
D) Expansion valve
Answer B

Q52. Air refrigerator works on......

A) Carnot Cycle
B) Reversed carnot cycle
C) Bell-Coleman cycle
D) Both B & C
Answer D

Q53.The rotary compressors are used for delivering.......

A) Small quantities of air at high-pressure
B) Large quantities of air at high-pressure
C) Small quantities of air at low pressures
D) Large quantities of air at a low pressures
Answer D

Q54.The compressor performance at higher altitude compare to sea level will be.......
A) Same
B) Higher
C) Lower
D) None of above
Answer C

Q55.The type of rotary compressor used in gas turbine is of .......

A) Centrifugal type
B) Axial flow type
C) Radial flow type
D) None of above
Answer B

Q56. Rotary compressor is best suited for.......

A) Large quantity of air at high pressure
B) Small quantity of air at high pressure
C) Small quantity of air at low pressure
D) Large quantity of air at low pressure
Answer D

Q57.In pneumatic systems the medium used is

A) Air
B) Liquid
C) Hydrogen
D) Oil
Answer A

Q58.What is defence application of Pick & Place robot?

A) Surveillance
B) Pick up harmful Objects
C) Diffuse bombs
D) All of the above
Answer D

Q59.Pick & Place robots accurate.

A) TRUE
B) FALSE
 Answer A

Q60.Pick & Place Robots consists of:

A) Rover
B) Actuators
C) Sensors
D) All of the Above
Answer D

BHARATI VIDYAPEETH'S COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING FOR WOMEN

Dept. of Electronics and Telecommunication.
Multiple Choice Question Bank.
Course Name: Mechatronics Unit No :5 Pattern :2015
Name of the course teacher: S.V.Shelke

Q1. 1. Which type of device is a stepper motor?

A) Electromechanical
B) Electrochemical
C) Embedded system
D) Electromagnetic
Answer A
Q2.Speed of an induction motor is independent of the number of stator poles.
A) TRUE
B) FALSE
Answer B
Q3. A variable reluctance stepper motor is constructed of ______________ material with salient poles.
A) Paramagnetic
B) Ferromagnetic
C) Diamagnetic
 D) Non-magnetic
Answer B
Q4 If a hybrid stepper motor has a rotor pitch of 36º and a step angle of 9º, the number of its phases must be
A) 4
B) 2
C) 3
D) 6
Answer A
Q5 The rotor of a stepper motor has no
A) Windings
B) Commutator
C) Brushes
D) All of the above
Answer D
Q6 Which of the following is not a type of stepper motor?
A) Variable Reluctance
B) Hybrid
C) Magnetic
D) Lead-Screw
Answer D
Q7 A stepper motor is a bad choice whenever control movement is required.
A) TRUE
B) FALSE
Answer B
Q8 Which type of stepper motors have low cost and low-resolution motor?
A) Permanent magnet stepper motor
B) Variable reluctance stepper motor
C) Hybrid stepper motor
D) DC motor
Answer A
Q9 Which of the following is not the main selection criterion of a stepper motor?
A) Resolution required
B) Drive mechanism component required
C) Torque required
D) Speed
Answer D
Q10 Length of rotation is directly related to to ____
A) Torque
 B) Number of input pulses
C) Frequency of input pulses
D) Solenoid
Answer B
Q11 The flag of the trip coil is also called as ______.
A) Indicator
B) Target
C) Sealing coil
D) Both (a) and (b)
Answer D
Q12 The minimum value of the operating quantity at which relay operates is called as _______.
A) Reset
B) Pick up ratio
C) Pick up
D) None of the above
Answer C
Q13 The current in the trip circuit is interrupted by ______.
A) Sealing coil
B) Sealing contacts
C) Auxiliary switch
D) Trip coil
Answer C
Q14 When the circuit breaker opens, the auxiliary switch of trip circuit ______ .
A) Open
B) Close
C) Disconnect
D) Any of the above
Answer A
Q15 The Electro magnetic relay operates when ______.
A) Operating force = Restraining force
B) Operating force > Restraining force
C) Operating force < Restraining force
D) Operating force = 0
Answer B
Q16 The flag of the trip circuit in the circuit breaker is operated _____.
A) Manually
B) Electrically
C) Any of the above
D) None of the above
Answer C
Q17 The auxiliary switch in the trip circuit of the circuit breaker is _______.
A) Single point
B) Two point
C) Multi point
D) Any of the above
Answer C
Q18 The minimum value of the operating quantity at which relay operates is called as _______.
A) Reset
B) Pick up ratio
C) Pick up
D) None of the above
Answer C
Q19. Which material is suitable for the manufacture of armour in a single core cable?
A) Magnetic material.
B) Non magnetic and non conducting material.
C) Non magnetic and conducting material.
D) Magnetic and non conducting material.
Answer C
Q20. The cable best suited for the transmission of voltages from 33 kV to 66 kV is_______________.
A) Belted cables
B) Screened cables
C) Pressure cables
D) None of these.
Answer B
Q21 Why is the single core cables not provided with armouring?
A) Avoids excessive loss in the armour.
B) Make the cable more flexible.
C) Make the cable non hygroscopic.
D) None of the above.
Answer A
Q22 What type of insulated cable is preferred for distribution lines?
A) PVC and XLPE
B) PVC only
C) XLPE only
D) EPR and XLPE
Answer A
Q23 Solenoid Valves are used in:
1. Small size systems where on and off operation is required
2. Fuel gas systems as the latching valve
3. Cooling water systems
4. For continuous flow

A) 1, 2
B) 1, 3
C) 1, 4
D) 2, 4
Answer A
Q24 An impedance relay is used for
A) Earth faults
B) Interphase faults
C) Both (a) and (b)
D) None of these
Answer C
Q25 Relay gets its operating energy from
A) Transformer
B) Alternator
C) Overhead lines
D) C.T., P.T.
Answer D
Q26 Good relay should possess
A) Speed & reliability
B) Aped & sensitivity
C) Adequateness & selectivity
D) All of these
Answer D
Q27 What are the factors to be considered while selecting control valve ?
A) Flow rate of oil
B) Space Requirement
C) Pressure of oil
D) All of the above
Answer D
Q28 What are the factors to be considered while selecting control valve ?
A) Voltage and current rating
B) Mountings
C) Cushioned
 D) Speed of actuation
Answer A
Q29 What are the factors to be considered while selecting cylinders?
A) Dimensional standards like ISO,VDMA
B) Working pressure available
C) Force to be exerted
D) All of the above
Answer D
Q30 What are the factors to be considered while selecting cylinders?
A) Port size
B) Position detection
C) Temperature of oil
D) Environmental Conditions
Answer B
Q31 Which of the following systems generate more energy when used in industrial applications?
A) Hydraulic systems
B) Pneumatic systems
C) Both systems generate same energy
D) Cannot say
Answer A
Q32 In which type of system does power transmission takes place through compressed air?
A) Fluid power system
B) Hydraulic systems
C) Pneumatic systems
D) Stepper motors
Answer C
Q33 What are the examples of Limited Rotation Actuators?
A) Vane Type
B) Piston Type
C) Both A & B
D) None of the above
Answer C
Q34 The angle of swash plate can be varied to change the _____ of the motor .
A) Size
B) Weight
C) Speed
D) All of the above
Answer C
Q35 In Bent axis piston motor , the shoe plate is fixed to _____.
A) Pump body
B) Flange
C) Piston Type
D) Valve plate .
Answer B
Q36 In______ motor , cylinders are arranged coplanar with equal angle between them .
A) Bent Axis Piston
B) Stationary Cylinder Radial Piston
C) Rotating Cylinder Type Radial Piston
D) None of these
Answer B
Q37 Which is an electro-pneumatic device?
A) Seven Segment Display
B) BO Motor
C) Hydraulic Cylinders
D) Lithium Battery
Answer C

BHARATI VIDYAPEETH'S COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING FOR WOMEN

Dept. of Electronics and Telecommunication.
Multiple Choice Question Bank.
Course Name: Mechatronics Unit No :6 Pattern :2015
Name of the course teacher: S.V.Shelke

1)   Which of the following is/are characteristic/s of mechatronic products and systems?

a. Functional interaction between mechanical, electronic and information

technologies
b. Spacial interaction of subsystems in one physical unit
c. Intelligence related to the control functions of the mechatronics
system
d. All of the above
ANSWER: All of the above

2)   The mechatronics is an interdisciplinary field in which the disciplines those act together are _________

a. Mechanical systems and Electronic systems

b. Mechanical systems and Information technology
c. Electronic systems and Information technology
d. Mechanical systems, Electronic systems and Information technology
ANSWER: Mechanical systems, Electronic systems and
Information technology

3)   Group the followings into Mechanical systems, Electronic systems and Information technology.

1. Automation
2. Mechanical elements
3. Software engineering
4. Precision mechanics
5. Microelectronics
6. Artificial intelligence
7. Sensors and actuators

a. Mechanical Systems: 2, 4
Electronic System: 5, 7
Information Technology: 1, 3, 6
b. Mechanical Systems: 2, 7
Electronic System: 4, 5, 6
Information Technology: 1, 3
c. Mechanical Systems: 2, 4
Electronic System: 5, 6, 7
Information Technology: 1, 3
d. Mechanical Systems: 2, 7
Electronic System: 4, 5
Information Technology: 1, 3, 6

ANSWER: Mechanical Systems: 2, 4

Electronic System: 5, 7
Information Technology: 1, 3, 6

4)   What is used to make considerable simplification in the devices such

as watches and cameras etc. as compared to pure mechanical designs?
a. Actuators with electrical auxiliary energy
b. Amplifiers with electrical auxiliary energy
c. Both a. and b.
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Both a. and b.

5)   In which stage the measurement system comes in contact with the measurand or the quantity to be measured?

a. Transducer Stage
b. Signal Processor Stage
c. Output Stage
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Transducer Stage

6)   Which of the following functions can a control system carry out?

a. The system output can be controlled to some desired particular value for particular input

b. If certain conditions are satisfied, it can give a particular sequence

of output, corresponding to given input
c. Either a. or b.
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Either a. or b.

7)  A group of components which can complete certain tasks or achieve

certain desired
 results in a desired manner while working together is called as_____
a. output system
b. sequence system
c. control system
d. all of the above
ANSWER: control system

8)   In which system does the output not affect the process in any way?

a. Open loop system

b. Closed loop system
c. Both a. and b.
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Open loop system
9)   The temperature control system which maintains the temperature of
a room at 30 oC when it is set is an example of_____

a. Open loop system

b. Closed loop system
c. Both a. and b.
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Closed loop system

10)   Which control system does not have a stability problem?

a. Open loop system

b. Closed loop system
c. Both a. and b.
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Open loop system

11)   Data acquisition is the process in which, physical variables from the real world are_____

a. converted into electrical signals

b. modified and converted into a digital format for processing
c. both a. and b.
d. none of the above
ANSWER: both a. and b.

12)   Which of the following cannot be considered as data in Data Acquisition System (DAQ)?

a. Temperature
b. Mechanical displacement
c. Flow rate
d. None of the above
ANSWER: None of the above

13)   What is the input of the data acquisition system (DAQ) to which

a transducer is connected called?

a. control element
b. channel
c. interface
d. function
ANSWER: channel
14)   The capacity of data acquisition system (DAQ) can be specified in
terms of__

a. number of control elements

b. number of channels
c. number of interfaces
d. number of functions
ANSWER: number of channels

15)   Which module of data acquisition system (DAQ) consists of the

CPU that controls the complete data acquisition system?

a. Input module
b. Output module
c. Sampling module
d. Control module
ANSWER: Control module

16)   Which of the following cannot be an input that is given to the

PLC?

a. Manual switches
b. Relays
c. Sensors
d. None of the above
ANSWER: None of the above

17)   Which of the following can be the output of PLC?

1. Relay coils
2. Solenoids
3. Indicators
4. Motors
5. Lamps
6. Alarms

a. Only (1), (2), (3) and (4)

b. Only (3), (4), (5) and (6)
c. Only (1), (2), (3) and (5)
d. All the (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), and (6)
ANSWER: All the (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), and (6)

18)   The PLC is used in _______.

a. machine tools
b. automated assembly equipment
c. moulding and extrusion machines
d. all of the above
ANSWER: all of the above

19)   PLC can be ___________ in plant to change the sequence of

operation.

a. only programmed
b. only reprogrammed
c. programmed and reprogrammed
d. able to give a set point
ANSWER: programmed and reprogrammed

20)   __________ of PLCs can be done in very little time.

a. Programming
b. Installation
c. Commissioning
d. All of the above
ANSWER: All of the above

21)   The phenomenon of storing heat energy in a system is called as

thermal______.

a. conductance
b. resistance
c. capacitance
d. all of the above
ANSWER: capacitance

22)   Heat in thermal system is analogous to __________ in electrical

energy.

a. current
b. potential difference
c. resistance
d. charge
ANSWER: charge

23)   What is the formula for thermal capacitance?

a. (Change in heat stored) / (Change in heat transfer rate)
b. (Change in heat stored) / (Change in thermal resistance)
c. (Change in heat stored) / (Change in temperature)
d. Unpredictable
ANSWER: (Change in heat stored) / (Change in temperature)

24)   What would be the relation between the resistances for

laminar flow and turbulent flow for the same head (H) and flow rate (Q)?

a. Rturbulent = (1/2) x Rlaminar

b. Rturbulent = 2 x Rlaminar
c. Rturbulent = 4 x Rlaminar
d. Rturbulent = 2000 x Rlaminar
ANSWER: Rturbulent = 2 x Rlaminar

25)When the output is bounded for bounded inputs, then the system is
said to be_

a. stable
b. unstable
c. functional
d. nonfunctional
ANSWER: stable

26)   Which of the following is/are the Continuous Control Mode/s used in control systems?

a. On-Off Control
b. Integral Control
c. Proportional Control
d. All of the above
ANSWER: All of the above

27)   On-off Control is also called as ________.

a. one position control

b. two position control
c. four position control
d. half position control
ANSWER: two position control

28)   Consider the below diagram of Two Position Control. What would

be the
value of error,when the controller output takes a fixed value
corresponding to
the 'ON' position of final control element?

a. zero
b. less than zero
c. more than zero
d. unpredictable

a. zero
b. less than zero
c. more than zero
d. unpredictable
ANSWER: more than zero

29)   The controller characteristics for on-off controller follow

_________.

a. only one curve

b. two curves
c. four curves
d. unpredictable
ANSWER: two curves

30)   Consider the following graph of error (e) vs controller output (m).

The curve B corresponding to the value of error e2 is the
curve followed by controller characteristics when value of error
__________.

a. is decreasing
b. is increasing
c. remains constant
d. is unpredictable

a. is decreasing
b. is increasing
c. remains constant
d. is unpredictable
ANSWER: is increasing

31)  Which type of force does the tilting train produce?

a) Centrifugal force
b) Gravitational force
c) Viscous force
d) Frictional force
Answer: Centrifugal force

32) What are the properties of naturally tilted trains?

a) Using controlling technologies such as sensors
b) Use of electric actuators
c) Use of hydraulic actuators
d) Working based on the law of tilt centre located above the
centre of gravity
Answer: Use of electric actuators

33) Modern tilting trains allows operators to achieve higher speed on existing curve routes, without costly track improvements.
a) True
b) False
Answer:  True

34) Which systems are used for tilting actions of trains?

a) Servo-hydraulic actuators system
 b) Accelerometer
c) Controllers
d) Actuators
Answer: Servo-hydraulic actuators system

What is the use of the accelerometer in Control system of

35) tilting trains?
a) Used for tilting actions of trains
b) To measure lateral acceleration and provide negative
feedback
c) Balancing the centrifugal force of the train
d) To make active tilting possible
To measure lateral acceleration and
Answer: provide negative feedback

36)  The car body is rolled outwards during curve negotiation.

a) True
b) False
Answer:  False

 What is the main feedback component of a bolster feedback

37) system?
a) Controllers
b) Body
c) Actuator
d) Bogie accelerometer
Answer:  Bogie accelerometer

38) By how much percentage is the tilt compensation factor multiplied in order to reduce the lateral acceleration of the car body?
a) 100%
b) 50%
c) 70%
d) 60%
Answer: 100%

39)  Which type of forces are experienced by the passengers when the train passes through horizontal curves?
a) Centrifugal force
b) Lateral forces
c) Viscous force
d) Frictional force
Answer: Lateral forces

40) Which system is used to control the boat without constant ‘hands-on’ control by a human operator?
a) Autopilot
 b) GPS system
c) Compass
d) Actuators and steering system
Answer: Autopilot

41) Which parameters are considered by a boat autopilot during critical weather conditions?
a) Directions
b) Weight, speed and wind conditions
c) Position
d) Steering control
Answer: Weight, speed and wind conditions

System processor works as a central intelligence system in a boat

42) autopilot system.
a) True
b) False
Answer: TRUE

43)  What is the function of GPS in boat autopilot?

a) To control direction
b) To control steering
c) To understand the position of the boat
d) To understand all the parameters of the boat and according to that take decisions
Answer: To control direction

To understand the position of the boat autopilot system uses

44) ____
a) GPS
b) Actuators and steering system
c) Compass
d) System processor
Answer: Compass

The steering is controlled using the control head of a boat

45) autopilot system.
a) True
b) False
Answer: FALSE

Signals taken from the compass are sent to the processor

46) according to ____
a) direction of boat
b) position of boat
c) the angle of the boat is decided
d) signals of other boats
 Answer: the angle of the boat is decided

What is the use of actuators and steering control in boat autopilot

47) system?
a) To control the direction of the boat
b) To control the position of the boat
c) Converts digital signal into mechanical energy
d) Provides graphical user interface
Converts digital signal into
Answer: mechanical energy

48) What is the use of a rudder system?

a) To indicate the actual position of our boat and another boat
b) Converts digital signal into mechanical energy
c) The angle of the boat is decided
d) To control steering
To indicate the actual position of our
Answer: boat and another boat

49) Feedback system in autopilot is used ____

a) to understand the position of the actuator
b) to understand the position of the boat
c) to indicate the actual position of our boat and other boats
d) to convert the digital signal into mechanical energy
to understand the position of the
Answer: actuator

50) In machining of a workpiece, the material is removed by_____

a) drilling action
b) melting action
c) shearing acting
d) using brittleness of the material
Answer: shearing acting

 The depth that the tool is plunged into the surface is called as
51) ______
a) feed
b) depth of cut
c) depth of tool
d) working depth
Answer:  depth of cut

52)  Feed is measured in units of _____

a) length/revolution
b) degree/revolution
 c) length
d) velocity
Answer:  length/revolution

53) CNC machining centres do not include operations like ______

a) milling
b) boring
c) welding
d) tapping
Answer: welding

54) In CNC systems multiple microprocessors and programmable logic controllers work ______
a) in parallel
b) in series
c) one after the other
d) for 80% of the total machining time
Answer: in parallel

55) Which of the following is not the advantage of CNC machines?

a) Higher flexibility
b) Improved quality
c) Reduced scrap rate
d) Improved strength of the components
Improved strength of the
Answer: components

In how many ways CNC machine tool systems can be

56) classified?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
Answer: 3

57) Point-to-point systems are used for _____

a) reaming
b) parting
c) grooving
d) facing
Answer: reaming

 In part programming, interpolation is used for obtaining

58) _______ trajectory.
a) helicoidal
 b) pentagonal
c) triangular
d) zig-zag
Answer:  helicoidal

59)  For CNC machining skilled part programmers are needed.

a) True
b) False
Answer:  True

60) An absolute NC system is one in which all position coordinates are referred to one fixed origin called the zero point.
a) True
b) False
Answer:  True

61) What is the function of an Anti-lock braking system?

a) Used for car parking
b) To maintain tractive force
c) Programming the system
d) To drive the car
Answer: To maintain tractive force

62) The skidding of vehicles, while sudden brakes are applied, is avoided through _______
a) antilock braking system
b) engine management system
c) automatic car parking system
d) driving system
Answer:  antilock braking system

63) The Anti-lock brake system supports electronic stability.

a) True
b) False
Answer: TRUE

 What is the function of the Electronic control unit in Anti-lock

64) braking system?
a) Monitoring the speed of the wheel
b) Decreases the stopping distance
c) Provides electronic stability control
d) Maintaining the tractive force
Answer:  Monitoring the speed of the wheel

65) What detects the fault in the anti-lock brake system?

 a) ECU
b) Pump
c) Valves
d) Sensors
Answer: ECU

The Electronic control unit is used to detect the speed of

66) wheels.
a) True
b) False
Answer: TRUE

67)  Which part of the antilock brake system is used to find the acceleration and deceleration of the wheel?
a) Valves
b) ECU
c) Speed sensors
d) Pumps
Answer: Speed sensors

Which device is used to pass the pressure from hydraulic

68) cylinder towards brake?
a) Valves
b) Pumps
c) Sensors
d) ECU
Answer: Valves

69) What is the function of Pump in an automatic brake system?

a) For fault detection
b) To sense the speed of the vehicle
c) To restore pressure
d) To find the acceleration and deceleration
Answer: To restore pressure

The breaking valves are actuated and turned on and off through
70) ___________
a) pumps
b) valves
c) sensors
d) modulator
Answer:  modulator

71) Where and when was the word Mechatronics invented?

a) Japan(1960)
 b) Japan(1980)
c) Europe(1960)
d) Europe(1980)
Answer:  Japan(1960)

72) A servo motor is a typical example of _____

a) Electronics system
b) Mechanical system
c) Computer system
d) Mechatronics system
Answer:  Mechatronics system

73)  What is the function of an input signal conditioning unit?

a) To produce control signals
b) To amplify the signal and convert it into digital form
c) To perform mechanical work
d) To produce electrical signals
To amplify the signal and convert it
Answer: into digital form

 The main mechanical components of a servo motor are stator

74) and rotor.
a) True
b) False
Answer: TRUE

75)  The main function of Actuator is _____

a) To produce motion
b) Detect input
c) Detect output
d) Detect the state of the system
Answer: To produce motion

76) Example of ‘Stand-alonesystem’ is _____

a) Machining centres
b) Washing machine
c) Robots for parts handling
d) Automated inspection stations
Answer:  Washing machine

Which among the following carry out the overall control of a

77) system?
a) Graphical display
b) Sensors
 c) Actuators
d) Digital controls
Answer: Digital controls

78)  A humanoid robot is an example of _____

a) Artificial intelligence
b) Stand-alone systems
c) Large factory systems
d) High level distributed sensor microcontroller actuator
Answer: Artificial intelligence

Where is the feedback generated by sensors in a mechatronics

79) system given?
a) Input sensors
b) Comparators
c) Mechanical actuators
d) Output sensors
Answer: Comparators

80) . A Mechatronics system contains feedback.

a) True
b) False
Answer:  True