HAEMATOLOGY

Instruction: Answer all questions in this section by circling the appropriate letter on the question
paper

1. The pale yellow fluid of an unclotted blood is called

a) Serum
b) Hormones
c) Plasma
d) Proteins
e) Haemoglobin
2. When preparing a working solution of giemsa from the stock, 5ml of giemsa stock
solution was used. What volume of distilled water should be used for the dilution
a) 30ml
b) 45ml
c) 27ml
d) 50ml
e) 10ml
3. After preparing the working solution in question 2, what will be the staining time
a) 15 minutes
b) 1 hour
c) 5 minutes
d) 20 minutes
e) 10 minutes
4. When reporting malaria parasites on a thick film, 1 to 10 parasites per every high power
field indicates
a) No mps
b) +
c) ++
d) +++
e) ++++
5. Which of the following is not a reason for not seeing malaria parasites in a thick film of
patient though all the vital symptoms of malaria are present
a) When patient has taken antimalarial drugs before the test was done
b) Parasites are too few o be detected
c) Patients over eating before the test
d) An unqualified personnel examining the malaria slide
e) Examining very few fields because the technician is either lazy or tired
6. When examining thick blood films for malaria parasites which of the following
microscopy techniques should be employed
a) Use X 100 objective with oil immersion
 b) Close the iris fully
c) Use X 10 objective lens with oil immersion
d) Use only one eyepiece lens
e) Reduce the light intensity to the lowest
7. Which of the following component of blood is involved in blood clotting
a) Erythrocytes
b) Leucocytes
c) Thrombocytes
d) Plasma
8. All the following are not functions of blood except
a) Production of hormones
b) Homeostasis
c) Production of erythropoietin
d) None of the above
e) All of the above
9. Erythropoiesis is reduced by
a) Increased oxygen in circulation
b) Increased hydrogen in circulation
c) Decreased oxygen in circulation
d) Decreased carbon dioxide in the blood
e) None of the above
10. The iron containing oxygen-transport protein in red cells is called
a) Haemoglobin
b) Methaemoglobin
c) Erythropoietin
d) Thrombopoietin
e) Carboxyhaemoglobin
11. Which of the following conditions results in the destruction of a baby’s red cells due to
blood group incompatibility with the mother
a) Diabetes
b) Haemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN)
c) Leukaemia
d) Sickle cell disease
e) None of the above
12. Methaemoglobin is described as the conversion of the iron in haemoglobin from
a) Fe3+ to Fe2+
b) Fe2+ to Fe3+
c) Ferric to ferrous
d) None of the above
e) All of the above
13. Which of the following describes the shape of red cells
a) Plano concave
b) Concave
c) Biconcave
d) Round
e) Orange shape
14. Which of the following features of red cells enable it to move through very tiny blood
capillaries with ease
a) Rigid cell membrane
b) Double cell membrane
c) No cell membrane
d) Flexible cell membrane
e) None of the above
15. When performing haemoglobin estimation test, what of blood and drabkins solution are
pipetted?
a) 4ml of blood and 20ul of drabkins solution
b) 5ml of drabkins solution and 20ul of blood
c) 10ul of drabkins solution and 5ml of blood
d) 15ul of blood and 5ml of drabkins solution
e) None of the above
16. Which of the following precautions should be taken when performing haemoglobin
estimation test?
a) Blood should be adequately mixed
b) Do not use clotted blood for the test
c) Proper pipetting techniques should be observed
d) The patient should fast before the test is done
e) All of the above
17. Which of the following tests is used to screen for anaemia when it is not possible to
measure haemoglobin accurately?
a) Platelet count
b) Packed cell volume
c) Blood film for malaria parasites
d) Sickle cell screening
e) None of the above
18. When plasma turns reddish it indicates
a) Haemolysis of red cells
b) Reduced haemoglobin level
c) Increased platelets level
d) An increased in packed cell volume
e) None of the above
19. When blood contains an increased amount of bilirubin the colour of plasma changes to
a) Bright red
b) Pinkish red
c) Pale yellow
d) Deep yellow
e) Straw
20. Red blood cells are red only because of
a) Its transport of oxygen
b) The haemoglobin it contains
c) Its shape
d) All of the above
e) None of the above
21. What is the full name of EDTA
a) Ethylene amine tetra acetic acid
b) Diamine tetra acetic acid
c) Tetra amine acetic ethylene acid
d) Ethylene diamine tetra acetic acid
e) Ethelene diamine tetra acetic acid
22. When haemoglobin level falls below what is normal for a person’s age, sex or race it is
called
a) Hemolysis
b) Hemorrhage
c) Methaemoglobinaemia
d) Anaemia
e) None of the above
23. Red cell breakdown is termed
a) Hemorrhage
b) Hemolysis
c) Hematopoiesis
d) Leucopoiesis
e) Thrombopoiesis
24. Which of the following is a cause of anaemia
a) Falciparum malaria
b) Protein deficiency
c) Hookworm infection
d) Sickle cell disease
e) All of the above
25. Which of the following is a haemoglobinopathy
a) Tuberculosis
b) HIV
 c) Diabetes
d) Malaria
e) Sickle cell disease
26. All the following can cause haemolytic anaemia except
a) G6PD defect
b) Sickle cell disease
c) Obstetrical complications causing abnormal blood loss
d) Falciparum malaria
e) None of the above
27. Which of the following is not a symptom of malaria
a) General malaise
b) Feeling of weakness
c) Angina
d) Shortness of breath
e) Increased blood sugar level
28. The differentiation and maturation of red cells is called
a) Hematopoiesis
b) Thrombopoiesis
c) Erythropoiesis
d) Leucopoiesis
e) Neutrophilia
29. Which of the following is the most predominant white cell in the blood
a) Neutrophils
b) Lymphocytes
c) Eosinophils
d) Basophils
e) Monocytes
30. A decrease in the number of neutrophils in the blood is termed
a) Neutrophilia
b) Neutropenia
c) Neutrocytosis
d) Neutrophiliasis
e) Neutropena
31. Which of the following white cells would be increased in a Strongyloides stercoralis
infection
a) Neutrophils
b) Lymphocytes
c) Monocytes
d) Eosinophils
e) None of the above
32. Which of the following white cells would be increased in a bacteria infection
a) Neutrophils
b) Lymphocytes
c) Monocytes
d) Eosinophils
e) None of the above
33. Which of the following white cells have abundant large ovoid granules and stain bright
red with eosin
a) Monocytes
b) Basophils
c) Lymphocytes
d) Neutrophils
e) Eosinophils
34. The engulfing nature of some white cells is termed
a) Phagocytosis
b) Microctosis
c) Macrocytosis
d) All of the above
e) None of the above
35. Which of the following cells is involved in antibody production
a) Neutrophils
b) Basophils
c) Eosinophils
d) Lymphocytes
e) Monocytes
36. An increased in the number of total white cell count is called
a) Lymphocytosis
b) Lymphopenia
c) Leucocytosis
d) Neutrophilia
e) Leucopenia
37. Which of the following can be said to be pre analytical error
a) Collecting blood from the wrong patient
b) Inadequate mixing of blood
c) Not using standards and controls
d) Pipetting errors
e) None of the above
38. Which of the following is not a disadvantage of using capillary blood for a test
a) It can only be used for a few test
b) Tests cannot be repeated
 c) Dilution of the sample with tissue fluid
d) Cannot be used for certain tests such as platelet count
e) Sample collection is relatively simple
39. Which of the following may not required when collecting capillary blood
a) 70% alcohol
b) Cotton wool
c) Lancet
d) Syringe
e) All the above
40. What is the reason behind putting EDTA in a sample bottle for haematological
investigation
a) Its helps in clotting of blood
b) It speeds up clotting
c) It prevents clotting of blood
d) It prevents evaporation
e) It preserves the blood
41. Which sample is best for a malaria test on an infant below 2 years
a) Venous blood
b) Arterial blood
c) Capillary blood
d) None of the following
e) All of the following
42. What is the purpose of applying a tourniquet when taking venous sample
a) It prevents blood from clotting
b) It helps prevent bacteria infection
c) It makes the vein visible
d) It prevents bleeding
e) None of the above
43. Which of these can develop when there is bleeding from the vein to the surrounding
tissues
a) Hematopoiesis
b) Hematoma
c) Hemorrhage
d) Hemolysis
e) All of the above
44. The process of taking blood sample is called
a) Phlebotomist
b) Phlebotomy
c) Hemorrhage
d) Hemolysis
 e) Hematopoiesis
45. The following can cause haemolysis when taking blood except
a) Using a needle with too fine bore
b) Not removing the needle from the syringe before dispensing blood into sample
bottle
c) Storing whole blood in the freezer compartment of a fridge
d) Vigorously shaking blood in a sample bottle
e) None of the above
46. Which of the following determines a persons blood group
a) Antibodies in the plasma
b) Antigens on the surface of red cells
c) The amount of haemoglobin
d) None of the above
e) All of the above
47. A person with a blood group B has
a) Both A and B antibodies in the serum
b) A antigens in the serum
c) A antibodies in the serum
d) B antibodies in the serum
e) No antibodies in the serum
48. Which of the following is not required when doing a forward ABO blood grouping
a) A and B antisera
b) White tile
c) The patients red cells
d) The patients serum
e) None of the above
49. An increased buffy coat layer indicates
a) An increased number of red cells
b) An increased number of white cells
c) A reduced number of white cells
d) A reduced number of platelets
e) A reduced number of red blood cells
50. Which of the following is not needed when performing PCV
a) Microhaematocrit centrifuge
b) Microhaematocrit reader
c) Sealant
d) Capillary tubes
e) None of the following
51. Which of the following is not a precaution when performing PCV
a) Avoid delay in reading PCV to prevent evaporation of plasma
 b) Avoid clots in the blood as this can lead to low results
c) Trapped plasma can lead to an increase in PCV results
d) Cleaning and maintaining the haematocrit centrifuge is not important
e) All of the above
52. Which of the following is likely to happen in a patient with severe dehydration
a) Low haemoglobin levels
b) Low packed cell volume
c) Falsely elevated PCV
d) High plasma bilirubin
e) None of the above
53. Which of the following indicates the size of red cells
a) MCHC
b) MCV
c) MCH
d) PCV
e) HCT
54. Red cell with lower than normal size but normal haemoglobin concentration can be
described as
a) Normocytic normochromic
b) Macrocytic hypochromic
c) Microcytic normochromic
d) Microcytic hyperchromic
e) Normocytic normochromic
55. Which of the following is likely to be seen in the thin film during iron deficiency
a) Normocytic normochromic red cells
b) Macrocytic hypochromic red cells
c) Microcytic hypochromic red cells
d) Microcytic hyperchromic red cells
e) Normocytic normochromic red cells
56. Red cell volume is measured in
a) Femtolitres
b) Nanolitres
c) Picolitres
d) Milliliters
e) Grammes
57. W1, W2, W3 and W4 are the four big quadrants in a naueber improved counting chamber.
When calculating WBC count which of the following calculations is correct when all four
quadrants are counted
a) WI+W2+W3+W4 all divided by 4
b) WI+W2+W3+W4 all divided by 40
 c) WI+W2+W3+W4 all divided by 20
d) WI+W2+W3+W4 all divided by 10
e) WI+W2+W3+W4 all divided by 18
58. When sickling slide test is positive, it indicates
a) The patient has Hb SS
b) The patient has Hb AS
c) The patient has Hb SC
d) The patient has Hb S
e) None of the above
59. A negative sickling slide test only indicates
a) The patient has Hb AA
b) The patient has Hb AC
c) The patient has no Hb S
d) The patient has Hb A
e) None of the above
60. Abnormal bleeding may be caused by
a) Damage to vascular endothelium
b) Reduction in platelet number
c) Effective platelet function
d) Disorders of blood coagulation
e) None of the following
61. The following are laboratory investigation for bleeding except
a) Haemoglobin
b) Blood film report
c) Platelet count
d) Total WBC count
e) INR
62. The following can cause difficulties in crossmatching except
a) Autoagglutinins
b) Infected donor cells
c) Cold agglutinins
d) Consistencies in ABO grouping
e) None of the above
63. In standard crossmatching, which of the following are used
a) Patient’s serum against donor’s cells
b) Patient’s cells against donor’s cells
c) Patient’s serum against donor’s serum
d) Patient’s cells against donor’s serum
e) Patient’s whole blood against donor’s plasma
64. When performing haemoglobin estimation test, what volume of blood and drabkins
solution are pipetted?
a) 4ml of blood and 20ul of drabkins solution
b) 5ml of drabkins solution and 20ul of blood
c) 10ul of drabkins solution and 5ml of blood
d) 15ul of blood and 5ml of drabkins solution
e) None of the above

65. In performing haemoglobin calibration graph, at least how many standard samples are
required
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
e) 5
66. Drabkins reagent is kept in an amber container because
a) They are easily available
b) They prevent decolourization of the reagent
c) They enhances decolourization of the reagent
d) None of the above
e) All of the above
67. When platelets are estimated to be low in a blood sample, what should the laboratory
scientist do as a proper post analytical check?
a) Check the presence of clots in the blood sample before reporting
b) Check the presence of fibrin strands before clotting
c) Ask the patient of he or she is bleeding
d) A and B above
e) A, B and C above
68. ESR can be elevated by the following except
a) Fibrinogen
b) Immunoglobulins
c) C- reactive proteins
d) Sickled cells
e) All of the above
69. ESR is discontinued in most tropical countries because
a) It is expensive to perform
b) Results are the same no matter the patient’s condition
c) It adds little to diagnosing disease, assessing its progress and monitoring response
to treatment
d) Results are unaffected by pregnancy
 e) It is difficult to perform
70. In preparing 26ml of working giemsa solution, what volume of the distilled water would
be used?
a) 23.4 ml
b) 2.6 ml
c) 20 ml
d) 2.7 ml
e) 2.34 ml
71. Cells that are capable of differentiation into distinct cells is called
a) Hematopoietic cells
b) Committed stem cells
c) Pluripotential stem cells
d) Myeloid stem cells
e) Lymphoid stem cells
72. Which of the following blood cells are produced by the lymphoid stem cells
a) Erythrocytes
b) Platelets
c) Monocytes
d) Neutrophils
e) Lymphocytes
73. Which of the following is the chief site of hematopoiesis in a developing foetus
a) Liver
b) Bone marrow of long bones
c) Kidneys
d) Spleen
e) Heart
74. Which of the following hormones is involved in platelets formation
a) Erythropoietin
b) Thrombopoietin
c) Prolaction
d) FSH
e) TSH
75. Apoptosis in red cells occur after about
a) 10 days
b) 120 hours
c) 120 days
d) 45 days
e) None of the above
76. Erythropoiesis is reduced by
a) Increased oxygen in circulation
 b) Increased hydrogen in circulation
c) Decreased oxygen in circulation
d) Decreased carbon dioxide in the blood
e) None of the above
77. The iron containing oxygen-transport protein in red cells is called
a) Haemoglobin
b) Methaemoglobin
c) Erythropoietin
d) Thrombopoietin
e) Carboxyhaemoglobin
78. How many oxygen molecules can haemoglobin molecule bind at a time?
a) 6
b) 5
c) 4
d) 3
e) 2
79. Another name for bone marrow is
a) Medulla osae
b) Medulla osium
c) Pluripotent stem cell
d) Committed stem cell
e) None of the above
80. Which of the following describes the shape of red cells
a) Plano concave
b) Concave
c) Biconcave
d) Round
e) Orange shape
81. Which of the following features of red cells enable it to move through very tiny blood
capillaries with ease
a) Rigid cell membrane
b) Double cell membrane
c) No cell membrane
d) Flexible cell membrane
e) None of the above
82. When plasma turns reddish it indicates
a) Haemolysis of red cells
b) Reduced haemoglobin level
c) Increased platelets level
d) An increased in packed cell volume
 e) None of the above
83. Red blood cells are red only because of
a) Its transport of oxygen
b) The haemoglobin it contains
c) Its shape
d) All of the above
e) None of the above
84. Red cell breakdown is termed
a) Hemorrhage
b) Hemolysis
c) Hematopoiesis
d) Leucopoiesis
e) Thrombopoiesis
85. When plasma turns reddish it indicates
a) Haemolysis of red cells
b) Reduced haemoglobin level
c) Increased platelets level
d) An increased in packed cell volume
e) None of the above
86. Red blood cells are red only because of
a) Its transport of oxygen
b) The haemoglobin it contains
c) Its shape
d) All of the above
e) None of the above
87. What is the full name of EDTA
a) Ethylene amine tetra acetic acid
b) Diamine tetra acetic acid
c) Tetra amine acetic ethylene acid
d) Ethylene diamine tetra acetic acid
e) Ethelene diamine tetra acetic acid
88. Red cell breakdown is termed
a) Hemorrhage
b) Hemolysis
c) Hematopoiesis
d) Leucopoiesis
e) Thrombopoiesis
89. Which of the following enzymes is an inactive enzyme that is involved in the mechanism
of blood clotting?
a) Thrombokinase
 b) Prothrombin
c) Thrombin
d) Thrombosis
e) Prothrombin
90. Clotting that occurs in an unbroken vessel is known as
a) Thrombosis
b) Prothrombin
c) Insoluble fibrin
d) Mesh
e) Fibrin thread
91. What is the first step in the process of blood clotting
a) Platelet aggregation
b) Platelet release reaction
c) Vascular spasm
d) Platelet plug formation
e) Platelet adhesion
92. In blood clotting, damaged tissues and platelets release
a) Fibrinogen
b) Insoluble fibrin
c) Thrombokinase
d) Mesh
e) Thrombin
93. A gel which consist of a network of insoluble fibers is called
a) Fibrinogen
b) Clot
c) Fibrin
d) Collagen
e) Fibrin thread
94. All the following are not oxidants that can cause methaemoglobinaemia except
a) Heinz bodies
b) GSH
c) NADPH
d) G6PD
e) Sulphanamides
95. G6PD is involved in the generation of
a) Heinz bodies
b) GSH
c) NADP
d) Haemoglobin
e) Oxidants
 96. Haemoglobin S only sickle in the presence of
a) High haemoglobin concentration
b) Low carbon dioxide concentration
c) Low haemoglobin concentration
d) Low oxygen concentration
e) High oxygen concentration
97. An increment in the plasma volume in the third trimester pregnancy may result in
a) High haemoglobin values
b) Normal haemoglobin values
c) High oxygen concentration
d) Low haemoglobin value
e) Reduced oxygen concentration
98. All the following are special factors to consider when estimating haemoglobin except
a) Hypoxia
b) Postural dizziness
c) Diet
d) Severe dehydration
e) Occupation of patient
99. Couples with both their haemoglobin genotype of AS are likely to have which of the
following
a) 25% AS offspring
b) 50% AS offspring
c) 50% AA offspring
d) 50% SS offspring
e) 20% SS offspring
100. Which of the following haemoglobins can be said to result in be sickle cell
disease
a) AC
b) AS
c) SC
d) AD
e) None of the above

Use the following to answer questions 101 to 103

a) Antisera
b) Sickle cell disease
c) Malaria
d) Large lymphocytes
e) Small lymphocytes
 101. Production of antibodies
102. Reagents for performing blood grouping
103. Can cause haemolysis by parasites infecting red cells

Use the following to answer questions 104 to 106

a) clot
b) fibrin
c) fibrinogen
d) coagulation factors
e) phagocytosis

104. Gel consisting of a network of insoluble protein fibers

105. Protein found in plasma
106. Eating – like nature of certain blood cells

CLINICAL CHEMISTRY

Instruction: Answer all questions in this section by circling the appropriate letter on the question
paper.

1. Eodema occurs as a result of

a) Movement of fluid from the extracellular fluid to the intracellular fluid
b) Movement of fluid from the synovial fluid to plasma
c) Movement of fluid from the intracellular fluid to the interstitial fluid
d) Movement of body fluid from interstial fluid to plasma
e) None of the above
2. Haemolytic diseases are likely to increase the levels of
a) Conjugated bilirubin
b) Unconjugated bilirubin
c) Urea
d) Creatinine
e) None of the above
3. Old men and women are likely to have increased levels of the following analytes except
a) Urea
b) Creatinine
c) Haemoglobin
d) None of the above
e) All of the above
4. Hyperglycaemia may result in except
a) Increased thirst
 b) Increased urinating
c) Poor vision
d) Increased hunger
e) None of the above
5. Which of the following liver function tests can be classified as macromolecule
a) AST
b) ALT
c) Total Protein
d) GGT
e) Bilirubin
6. Which of the following can be described as bad cholesterol
a) Total cholesterol
b) HDL- Cholesterol
c) LDL- Cholesterol
d) VLDL- Cholesterol
e) Triglycerides
7. Which of the following test under lipids makes serum appear cloudy
a) Total Cholesterol
b) Triglycerides
c) HDL- Cholesterol
d) LDL- Cholesterol
e) None of the above
8. Plasma oncotic balance is maintained by
a) Albumin
b) All plasma proteins
c) Glucose
d) Urea
e) None of the above
9. Which of the following terms is used to describe the highest amount of analyte a reagent
can measure accurately?
a) Sensitivity
b) Specificity
c) Linearity
d) Accuracy
e) None of the above
10. All the following tests require fasting before the sample is taken axcept
a) FBS
b) OGTT
c) 2HPP
d) Lipid profile
 e) Urea
11. In CSF chemistry analysis, which analytes are estimated
a) Urea only
b) Protein only
c) Creatinine and urea
d) Glucose only
e) Protein and glucose
12. Which of the following liver function tests are described as tranferases
a) AST and GGT
b) ALT and AST
c) GGT and Alkaline phosphatase
d) GGT and ALT
e) Total bilirubin and total protein
13. When buying reagents for chemical analysis, which of the following should be
considered
a) Low linearity and high sensitivity
b) Complex reagent preparation procedure
c) Short date of expiry
d) High linearity
e) None of the above
14. A glucose reading was given as 58 mg/dl. What will be the results in mmol/l
a) 5.8
b) 3.2
c) 4.9
d) 11.6
e) None of the above
15. The purpose of wearing laboratory coat is to
a) Make the wearer look beautiful
b) Prevent wasting of reagents
c) Make the wearer look like a technician
d) To avoid contamination with pathogens and chemicals
e) Show how professional the wearer is
16. When biohazard symbol is found on a bottle in a lab it indicates
a) The content of the bottle is harmless
b) The content of the bottle is dangerous to your health
c) It means the bottle is empty
d) It means the bottle should not be in the lab
e) None of the above
17. A symbol which depicts a human skull with two crossed bones on a bottle indicates
a) The content of the bottle is flammable
 b) The content of the bottle is corrosive
c) The content of the bottle is explosive
d) The content of the bottle is irritative
e) The content of the bottle is toxic
18. All the following are safety equipments in a clinical chemistry lab except
a) Water extinguishers
b) First aid kit
c) Safety goggles
d) Masks
e) None of the above
19. All the following are factors that can affect the rate of chemical reaction except
a) Physical state of the reactants
b) Temperature
c) Presence of catalyst
d) Concentration of reactants
e) Colour of reactants
20. Which of the following can increase the rate of a chemical reaction
a) Reducing the concentration of reactants
b) Absence of a catalyst
c) Vigorous shaking and stirring
d) Lowering the temperature
e) None of the above
21. Which of the following is not a laboratory safety rule
a) Don’t apply cosmetics in the lab
b) Do not use mouth pipetting too often
c) Put needles in a sharp container
d) Don’t throw any solid material into a sink
e) None of the above
22. Which of the following may not be needed in a chemical pathology lab
a) Beaker
b) Volumetric flask
c) Centrifuge
d) Spectrophotometer
e) None of the above
23. What is used for measuring about 20uL of solutions
a) Measuring cylinder
b) Beaker
c) Volumetric jar
d) Micropipette
e) None of the above
24. The instrument for measuring light that is either absorbed or transmitted through a
solution in a cuvette is called
a) Microscope
b) Monochromator
c) Spectrophotometer
d) Centrifuge
e) None of the above
25. Beer- lambert’s law states that
a) Concentration of a solution is inversely proportional to the amount of light
absorbed
b) Concentration of a solution is directly proportional to the amount of light
deflected
c) Concentration of a solution is directly proportional to the amount of light
absorbed
d) Concentration of a solution is not related to the amount of light absorbed
e) None of the above
26. How close a measured value is to the actual value is called
a) Precision
b) Accuracy
c) Sensitivity
d) Specificity
e) Reproducibility
27. Reproducibility of an analytical method is termed
a) Precision
b) Accuracy
c) Sensitivity
d) Specificity
e) None of the above
28. Which of the following cannot affect the result of a clinical chemistry test
a) Age of patient
b) Sex of patient
c) Diet
d) Stress
e) None of the above
29. A graph that plots quality control values in terms of how many Standard Deviations each
value is from the mean is called
a) Westgard’s chart
b) Jennifer’s chart
c) Levy- jenning’s chart
d) Quality control chart
 e) Calibration chart
30. Which of the following demonstrates how enzymes work
a) Increasing the activation energy of a reaction
b) Reducing activation energy of a reaction
c) Reducing the number of reactants
d) Increasing the number of reactants
e) All of the above
31. Enzyme activity can be reduced by the following except
a) Inhibitors
b) Poisons
c) Optimum temperature
d) Very high or low pH
e) None of the above
32. Which of the following statements is false about enzymes
a) Enzymes are known to catalyse about 4000 biochemical reactions
b) Enzymes are very specific to which reaction they catalyse
c) Enzymes are proteins
d) Enzymes are not consumed by the reaction they catalyze
e) Most enzymes are smaller than the substrates they act on
33. All of the following can affect enzyme activity except
a) Concentration of reactants
b) Temperature
c) Chemical environment
d) The name of reactants
e) Presence of inhibitors
34. The metabolic pathway that converts glucose to pyruvate with the release of ATP is
called
a) Gluconeogenesis
b) Glycogenolysis
c) Glycolysis
d) Anabolism
e) None of the above
35. The inability to digest and metabolize sugar found in milk is called
a) Fructose intolerance
b) Lactose intolerance
c) Glycogen storage disease
d) None of the above
e) All of the above
36. The conversion of excess glucose into glycogen is termed
a) Glycogenolysis
 b) Gluconeogenesis
c) Glycogenesis
d) Glycolysis
e) None of the above
37. Which of the following is not a human disease of carbohydrate metabolism
a) Diabetes mellitus
b) Lactose intolerance
c) Fructose intolerance
d) Glycogen storage disease
e) None of the above
38. Which of the following hormones are involved in glucose regulation in the body
a) Insulin
b) Glucagon
c) A and B above
d) A only
e) B only
39. Another name for type 2 daiabetes is
a) Insulin dependant diabetes mellitus
b) Non insulin dependant diabetes mellitus
c) Gestational diabetes
d) None of the above
e) All of the above
40. The human body’s failure to produce insulin results in
a) Type 1 diabetes
b) Type 2 diabetes
c) Gestational diabetes
d) Adult-onset diabetes
e) NIDDM
41. Which of the following is not a use clinical chemistry test
a) Prognosis
b) Diagnosis
c) Monitoring treatment
d) Medical research
e) None of the above
42. Which of the following is a monosaccharide
a) Galactose
b) Lactose
c) Starch
d) Glycogen
e) Maltose
43. ATP stands for
a) Adenosine diphosphate
b) Triphosphate adenosine
c) Adenosine monophosphate
d) Adenosine triphosphatase
e) None of the above
44. Which of the following function as insulation and reserve of body fuel
a) Proteins
b) Nucleic acids
c) Lipids
d) Salts
e) None of the above
45. An increase level of serum bilirubin always indicates
a) Liver disease
b) Kidney disease
c) Pancreatic disease
d) Increase haemolysis
e) None of the above
46. Gout occurs as a result of increased level of
a) Serum urea
b) Serum creatinine
c) Serum urate
d) Serum AST
e) Serum GGT
47. The big toe is a perfect site for gout attack because it has
a) Reduced oxygen
b) Increased oxygen
c) Better blood circulation
d) Increased glucose level
e) None of the above
48. Reduced level of vitamin K may result in
a) Poor vision
b) Muscle weakness
c) Excessive bleeding
d) Hyperkalemia
e) All of the above
49. Which of the following cannot be classified under transcellular fluid
a) Ocular fluid
b) CSF
c) Plasma
 d) Synovial fluid
e) None of the above
50. Which of the following do not happen in dehydration
a) An increased level of potassium
b) Reduced urination
c) An increased sodium retention
d) Increased thirst
e) None of the above
51. Which of the following do not happen in dehydration
a) An increased level of potassium in ECF
b) Reduced urination
c) An increased sodium retention
d) Increased thirst
e) None of the above
52. The second law of thermodynamics states that
a) Energy can neither be created nor destroyed
b) Energy transfer decreases disorder
c) Energy can be created but not destroyed
d) Energy transfer increases disorder
e) None of the above
53. In the regeneration of ATP, a phosphate group is added to
a) AMP
b) ADP
c) ATP
d) Phosphate
e) None of the above
54. The cardinal signs of diabetes include
a) Frequent urination only
b) Blurred vision only
c) Frequent thirst only
d) A and B only
e) A and C
55. In type 2 diabetes
a) Insulin requirement is a must
b) Symptoms usually appear below age 40
c) No insulin is produced
d) Also called adult on- set diabetes
e) Patients are usually under- weight
56. The following are triggers of diabetes except
a) Viruses
 b) Faulty immune system
c) Obesity
d) Heredity
e) None of the above
57. The breakdown of glycogen to form glucose is termed
a) Glycogenesis
b) Glycolysis
c) Glycogenolysis
d) Gluconeogenesis
e) Lipolysis
58. Insulin stimulates the following except
a) Glycogenesis
b) Glycogenolysis
c) Glucose transport into cells
d) Increase rate of glucose utilization
e) All of the above
59. Glucose is stored as glycogen because
a) It releases pressure from the cells
b) Glucose is unstable
c) Glucose is toxic to body cells
d) Glycogen is not readily available to body cells
e) None of the above
60. Which of the following statements is true
a) Alpha cells of the pancreas produce insulin
b) Glucagon reduces blood glucose levels
c) Lack of insulin can cause hypoglycemia
d) Glucagon increases glycogenolysis
e) None of the above
61. Glycogen is primarily stored in the
a) Kidneys
b) Liver
c) Heart
d) Pancreas
e) Small intestines
62. Which of the following stimulates glucagon secretion
a) Hypoglycemia
b) Normoglycemia
c) Hyperglycemia
d) Diabetes
e) Lack of insulin production
63. Diabetic ketoacidosis occur as a result of
a) Increased use of lipids for energy production
b) Increased levels of glucagon
c) Increased level of insulin
d) Hypoglycemia
e) Glucosuria
64. Severe hypoglycemia can cause the following except
a) Fainting
b) Coma
c) Seizures
d) Reduced urination
e) None of the above
65. The following are fat soluble vitamins except
a) Vitamin A
b) Vitamin B
c) Vitamin E
d) Vitamin D
e) Vitamin K
66. Which of the following statements about fats is not true
a) Fats and oil are esters of fatty acids and glycerol
b) Oil is liquid whiles fats is in solid form at room temperature
c) Essential fatty acids cannot be synthesized by the human body
d) Phospholipids are simple lipids
e) None of the above
67. The following statements are true about plant and animal fats except
a) Animal fats are relatively rich in unsaturated fatty acids
b) Animal fats are solid at room temperature
c) Plant fats have high iodine number
d) Plant fats are mainly stored in the seeds and fruits
e) None of the above
68. In selection of fats for human consumption, it is advisable to selects fats that
a) Are highly saturated
b) Are highly unsaturated
c) Have low iodine number
d) Are solid at room temperature
e) None of the above
69. The major body fluid compartments are
a) Extracellular fluid compartment and Intercellular fluid compartment
b) Interstitial fluid compartment and Intracellular fluid compartment
c) Extracellular fluid compartment and intracellular fluid compartment
 d) Interstitial fluid compartment and Intracellular fluid compartment
e) Intercellular fluid compartment and Interstitial fluid compartment
70. What fraction of the total body fluid is intracellular
a) ½
b) 2/3
c) 1/3
d) ¾
e) None of the above
71. Which hormone play a vital role in water retention?
a) ADH only
b) Insulin only
c) FSH only
d) Glucagon only
e) ADH and Insulin
72. The major cation in the extracellular fluid is
a) Na+
b) K+
c) Mg2+
d) Ca2+
e) None of the above
73. The normal plasma pH is
a) 6.8- 8.0
b) 7.0- 7.45
c) 7.35- 8.0
d) 7.35- 7.45
e) 7.45- 8.0
74. Solutions of the same concentration are
a) Hypotonic to each other
b) Hypertonic to each other
c) Isotonic to each other
d) Isotonic and hypotonic to each other
e) None of the above
75. All the following are preservatives of urine except
a) Methanol
b) Toluene
c) Thymol
d) 37% formalin
e) None of the above
76. Yellowish appearance of urine is suggestive of
a) Azotemia
 b) Puss cell burden
c) Hepatic disorder
d) Anuria
e) Proteinuria
77. Uremia is indicative of
a) Low protein in diet
b) Liver failure
c) GIT hemorrhage
d) Pancreatitis
e) None of the above
78. A renal cause of Azotemia is
a) Liver failure
b) Increase protein catabolism
c) GIT hemorrhage
d) Glycogen storage disease
e) Tubular necrosis
79. ALP stands for
a) Adenosine lactate phosphatase
b) Aspartate phosphatase
c) Alkaline phosphate
d) Alkaline phosphatase
e) None of the above

80. Bilirubin in urine is suggestive of

a) Proteinuria
b) Nephritic syndrome
c) Glomerulonephritis
d) Hepatic disorder
e) None of the above
81. The building block of proteins is called
a) Hemoglobin
b) Enzymes
c) Hormones
d) Amino acids
e) None of the above
82. What is the full name sGOT
a) Serum glucoronic oxaloacetic acid transaminase
b) Serum glutamic oxaloacetate transferase
c) Serum glutamic oxaloacetate transaminase
d) Serum glocuronic oxaloacetic transaminase
 e) None of the above
83. All the following are types of urine specimen except
a) Random urine
b) Fasting urine
c) Early morning urine
d) None of the above
e) All of the above
84. The kidney produces this hormone
a) Thyroxin
b) Prolactin
c) Renin
d) None of the above
e) All of the above
85. The Urease producing bacteria increase urine PH by
a) Increasing urea concentration
b) Oxidation of Bilirubin
c) Reduction of bilirubin
d) Breakdown of urea
e) All of the above

86. The Proteinuria is suggestive of all the following except

a) Glomerulonephritis
b) Nephritis
c) Bacterial infection
d) Bile duct obstruction
e) All of the above
87. All the following are functions of albumin except
a) Binds conjugated bilirubin
b) Regulates oncotic pressure
c) Binds insoluble bilirubin
d) Binds cations and hormones
e) None of the above
88. All the following are causes of Hyperproteinemia except
a) Hyperalbuminemia
b) Hyperbilirubinemia
c) Hypergammaglobinemia
d) All of the above
e) None of the above
89. One of the causes of low levels of albumin in blood is
a) Over hydration
 b) Retinol deficiency
c) Vitamin C deficiency
d) Cardiovascular disorder
e) None of the above
90. Oliguria implies
a) Pain in urination
b) Increase in urine volume output
c) No urine output
d) Decrease in urine volume output
e) None of the above
91. Urine made to stand for too long will have all the following changes except
a) Increase in bacterial count
b) Destruction of cast and cells
c) Increase in Acetone
d) Decomposition of bilirubin
e) None of the above
92. Glycosuria occurs when blood glucose levels is
a) Increased
b) Decreased
c) Exceeds the normal threshold
d) Normal
e) None of the above
93. Laboratory investigation of urine helps in all the following except
a) Toxicology studies
b) Confirmation of pregnancy
c) Liver disorders
d) All of the above
e) None of the above
94. All the following are causes of ketonuria except
a) Diabetes
b) Glycogen storage disease
c) Decrease in fat metabolism
d) All the above
e) None of the above

PARASITOLOGY

Instruction: Answer all questions in this section by circling the appropriate letter on the question
paper
1. Each of the following statements (except one) is true regarding malaria. Which one is
false?
A. Once someone has malaria infection, they will have it for the rest of their life
in spite of treatment
B. All persons who contract P. vivax malaria have Duffy Antigen present on their
red blood cells
C. Persons with sickle cell trait or disease are more resistant to serious malaria
D. Schuffner's dots in red cell cytoplasm are most consistent with P. vivax or ovale
malaria
E. One way to help diagnose P. malariae is to carefully record the pattern of
symptoms since it is the only species to have a 72 hour interval of symptoms
2. Itching around the rectum is commonly caused by the pinworm, Enterobius vermicularis.
Which of the following is false regarding pinworms?
A. It has a simple rectum to mouth life cycle (do not scratch your bum and suck your
thumb)
B. Diagnosis is best made by a stool O&P exam
C. It is highly contagious infecting a number of members of a family at the same
time
D. Spread can be prevented by good hygiene
E. The egg is oval, flat on one side and contains a single larvae folded over like a
safety pin
3. Trichuris trichiura or whipworm is a frequent parasite found in humans. Which of the
following is false for Trichuris trichiura?
A. Heavy infestations may result in diarrhea sometimes associated with blood
B. Light infections may be asymptomatic
C. The eggs have a barrel-like appearance with bipolar plugs
D. After ingestion the eggs hatch into larvae that migrate through the lung
before maturing in the duodenum
E. The eggs passed in stool are unembryonated, so they require a time to mature in
the soil before they become infectious
4. A student returns from a student teaching assignment in Zimbabwe. On the way home
she swam in Lake Malawi. She is found to have schistosomiasis. Four of the following
answers are good advice on how to prevent schistosomiasis. Which one is bad advice?
A. In risk areas, don't swim in fresh water rivers or lakes
B. Swimming in chlorinated pools is safe
C. Swimming in ocean salt water is safe
D. Toweling off vigorously after contact with potentially contaminated water
decreases your risk
E. Wading in water up to your knees is safe for brief periods of time
5. The optimal time for drawing blood to detect lymhatic filariasis is between?
 A. 7am to 3pm
B. 7pm to 9pm
C. 10pm to 4am
D. 10am to 4pm

6. Wuchereria bancrofti causes ?

A. Lymphatic filariasis
B. Lymphatic edema
C. Lymphatic stiffness
D. None of the above
7. The worm that causes blood in urine is
A. Schistosoma mansoni
B. Schistosoma japonicom
C. Schistosoma haematobium
D. Schistosomiasis
8. Infective stage of Ascaris lumbriciodesis?
A. Larve
B. Cercaria
C. Egg
D. Cyst
9. Schistosoma haematobium is diagnosed by
A. The egg in urine
B. The egg in stool
C. The larva in urine
D. The larva in stool
10. A parasite common in vaginal and urethral discharge is ?
A. Schistosoma
B. Ascaris lumbriciodes
C. Trichomonas vaginalis
D. Trichomas bancrofti
11. Diagnostic stage of Ascaris lumbricoide is?
A. Atypical fertilized egg in stool
B. Atypical fertilized egg in urine
C. All of the above
D. None of the above
12. Iodine stain of Entamoeba cyst is use to detect?
A. Chromatoide bars
B. Cell wall
C. Nuclei
D. Cytoplasm
13. Infective Stage of Taenia is?
A. Larva
B. Cercaria
C. Embrocated egg
D. Cyst
14. Best for identification of parasite if cannot be seen in stool RE ?
A. Stool wet mount
B. Concentration Technique
C. Formol ether technique
D. All of the above
15. The cellophane (scotch)tape preparation is for the diagnosis of?
A. Thick worm
B. Whip worm
C. Pin worm
D. All of the above
16. Stool concentration technique are mostly done to ?
A. Kill all the parasite
B. Separate parasite from fecal debris
C. Mix specimen well
D. All of the above
17. In formol ether concentration , the formalin acts as
A. Fixative
B. Stain
C. Dye
D. Diluent
18. Stool RE is examine under?
A. Oil immersion
B. Low power
C. Very high power
D. None of the above
19. Diagnosis of visceral leishmaniasis is by?
A. Buffy coat preparation
B. Cello tape preparation
C. Formol ether concentration
D. All of the above
20. Another importance of the formol ether concentration method is ?
A. For preservation of parasites
B. For demonstrating details of parasite
C. All of the above
D. None of the above
21. In the formol ether concentration, which layer contains the parasites
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
22. Diagnosis of Onchocerciasis is by?
A. Skin scrape
B. Skin snip
C. Skin wash
D. All of the above
23. What reagent is added to skin snip biopsy to allow the worm to imerge?
A. Formalin
B. Ether
C. Normal saline
D. Sodium hydroxide
24. All these are filarial worms except?
A. Loa loa
B. Marsonella perstans
C. Onchocerca volvulus
D. Ascaris lumbricoides
25. Onchocerca volvulus breed exclusively in?
A. Black fly
B. Blue fly
C. Red fly
D. Green fly
26. All the following are observed in urinalysis except?
A. Colour
B. Appearance
C. Consistency
D. A and B
27. Urine sample is examine under a microscope to look for all the following except?
A. Cells
B. Cast
C. Crystals
D. TB Bacilli
28. Urinalysis can be used to diagnose
A. Malaria
B. Urinary tract infection
C. Back pain
D. None of the above
29. Urinalysis can be used to check for?
A. Blood in urine
B. Ketone in urine
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above
30. Urinalysis can help in the disgnosis oa all the following except?
A. Diabetes
B. Kidney disease
C. Alkalosis
D. Malaria
31. An example of a common urine cast is ?
A. Fatty cast
B. Waxy cast
C. Protein cast
D. Both A and B
32. All the following are urine cast except?
A. Granular cast
B. Hyaline cast
C. Epithelial cast
D. None of the above
33. Ketones in urine is suggestive of ?
A. The body relying of lipids for energy.
B. The body relying of protein for energy
C. The body relying on sugar for energy
D. None of the above
34. Glucosuria is?
A. Glucose in blood
B. Glucose in urine
C. Glucose in plasma
D. Glucose in serum
35. Glucosuria in indicative of ?
A. Kidney failure
B. Diabetes
C. Ketoacidosis
D. None of the above
36. Urine pH measures
A. Concentration of urine
B. Acidity of urine
C. Appearance of urine
D. Colour of urine
37. The following following can influence the pH of urine except
A. Drugs
B. Diet rich is citrus fruits
C. Diet rich in meat
D. Water
38. Nitrite in urine is indicative of ?
A. Urinary tract infection
B. Kidney disorder
C. Liver disorder
D. All of the above
39. Specific gravity of urine gives an idea of ?
A. Concentration of urine
B. Colour of urine
C. Odour of urine
D. All the above
40. WBCs in urine is suggestive of?
A. UTI
B. Malaria
C. Fever
D. Cough
41. Urinalysis involves both?
A. Macroscopy and staining
B. Staining and microscopy
C. Macroscopy and microscopy
D. All the above
42. Skin scraping is mainly used to diagnose ?
a. Fungal infection
b. Bacterial infection
c. Protozoa infection
d. All the above
43. What reagent is applied on the scraping when performing skin scraping test?
A. Sodium Hydroxide
B. Hydrogen peroxide
C. Potassium hydroxide
D. Potassium oxide
44. The main function of KOH in skin scraping is?
A. To destroy all cell
B. To destroy all fungal cell
C. To destroy all non- fungal cell
D. All the above
45. Parasitic diseases can be best diagnosed by?
A. Staining
B. Microscopy
C. Macroscopy
D. All the above
46. Examples of intestinal parasite include all the following except?
A. Ascaris
B. Hookworm
C. Strongyloid
D. Loa loa
47. Fecal occult blood test helps in diagnosing?
A. Bleeding in the gastrointestinal system
B. Bleeding in the Liver
C. Bleeding in the kidney
D. Bleeding in the lungs
48. Hookworm lives in the………. Of its host?
A. Liver
B. Large intestine
C. Small intestine
D. Stomach
49. The specimen for the diagnosis of Trichomonas vaginalis infection in female.
A. Prostatic secretions
B. Vaginal discharges
C. Urine
D. B and C
50. What parasite/s may produce Loeffler’s syndrome to man?
A. Ascaris lumbricoides
B. Gnathostoma spinigerum
C. Enterobius vermicularis
D. Trichuris trichiura
51. Stage/s of the parasite that may produce Loeffler’s syndrome to man.
A. Adult
B. Larva
C. Egg
D. A & C
52. What is the usual manner of transmission of Schistosoma to man?
A. Arthropod vector
B. Skin penetration of the cercariae
C. Ingestion of the embryonated egg
D. B & C
53. Obstructive uropathy is associated with
A. Schistosoma haematobium
B. Schistosoma mansoni
C. Schistosoma japonicum
D. Schistosoma mekongi
54. The usual infective stage of Malaria to man is the
A. gametocytes
B. sporozoites
C. schizonts
D. Merozoites
55. . The gametocytes of the organism are described as banana or crescent-shaped.
A. Plasmodium falciparum
B. Plasmodium ovale
C. Plasmodium malariae
D. Plasmodium vivax
56. The malaria parasite can be diagnose using?
A. Urine smear
B. Stool
C. Thick and Thin blood film
D. All the above
57. The following are all malaria parasites except?
A. P. ovale
B. P. malariae
C. P. falciparum
D. None of the above
58. All the following cause malaria in human except:
A. P. ovale
B. P. malariae
C. P. falciparum
D. P. knowlesi
59. Malaria is transmitted via a bite from an infected ?
A. Male Anopheles mosquito
B. Female anopheles mosquito
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above
60. Symptoms of malaria includes all except?
A. Fever
B. Headache
C. Vomiting
D. Blindness
61. Malaria parasites belong to the genus?
A. Protozoa
B. Plasmodium
C. Nematode
D. Trenatode
62. The definitive host of plasmodium is ?
A. Mosquito
B. Anopheles mosquito
C. Male Anopheles mosquito
D. Female Anopheles mosquito
63. In the life cycle of plasmodium, sporozoites first enter the bloodstream, and migrate to
the?
A. Kidney
B. Liver
C. Bladder
D. Lungs
64. Malaria infection develops via two phases
A. exoerythrocytic and erythrocytic phase
B. infectious and non-infectious stage
C. immune and non-immune phase
D. none of the above
65. Trichuris trichiura is a worm that causes trichuriasis when it infects a human?
A. large intestine.
B. Small intestine
C. Stomach
D. Kidney
66. Infection of trichuris trichiura occurs through the ingestion of the?
A. Larva
B. Cyst
C. Egg
D. None of the above
67. Giardia lamblia is a?
A. Nematode
B. Protozoa
C. Tremadoe
D. Fluke
68. Giardia infection can occur through?
A. Animal food
B. Contact
C. faecal-oral route
 D. none of the above
69. reproduction in Giardia is by?
A. Sexual
B. Budding
C. Binary fission
D. All the above
70. Giardia has?
A. Flagella
B. No flagella
C. All the above
D. None of the above
71. Intestinal parasites are diagnosed through microscopic….?
A. Dry mount
B. Wet mount
C. Stain slide
D. B and C
72. The important human Taenia pathogens ?
a. Taenia solium
b. Taenia saginata
c. Taenia asiatica
d. A and B
73. Strongyloides stercoralis is a ?
A. Nematode
B. Trmetode
C. Protozoa
D. All the above
74. Strongyloides stercoralis can be found in ?
A. Human
B. Cat
C. Dog
D. All the above
75. Strongyloides stercoralis are diagnosed by their ?
A. Egg
B. Larvae
C. Cyst
D. All the above
76. Trematodes includes?
A. flatworms
B. Flukes
C. Roundworm
 D. A and B
77. Most trematodes have a complex life cycle with at least …… hosts?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
78. Trematodes are released from the definitive host as?
A. Eggs
B. Larvae
C. Cyst
D. Cast
79. Example of a trematode is ?
A. Ascaris lumbricoides
B. 74. Strongyloides stercoralis
C. Schistosoma haematobium
D. Taenia asiatica
80. Schistosoma haematobium causes?
A. Haematuria
B. Vomiting
C. Diarrhoea
all the above