b) Tests cannot be repeated ©) Dilution of the sample with tissue fluid 4) Cannot be used for certain tests such as platelet count pf Sample collection is relatively simple Which of the following may not required when collecting capillary blood a) 70% alcohol b) Cotton wool c) Lancet Paes &) All the above What is the reason behind putting EDTA ina sample bottle for haematological investigation a) Its helps in clotting of blood b) Itspeeds up clotting oF It prevents clotting of blood 4) It prevents evaporation e) It preserves the blood Which sample is best for a malaria test on an infant below 2 years a) Venous.blood b). Arterial blood et Capillary blood 4) None of the following ©) Allof the following 2. What is the purpose of applying a tourniquet when taking venous sample a). It prevents blood from clotting b) It helps prevent bacteria infection ©} Tmakes the vein visible 4d) It prevents bleeding ©) None of the above 43. Which of these can develop when. there is bleeding from the vein to the surrounding tissues a) Hematopoiesis, 2y Hematoma c) Hemorthage d) Hemolysis ©) Allof the above 4, The process of taking blood sample is called a) Phlebotomist Phlebotomy ©) Hemorrhage 4) Hemolysis ¢) Hematopoiesis 45. The following can cause haemolysis when taking blood except a) Using a needle with too fine bore b)_Not removing the needle from the syringe before dispensing blood into sample. boitle ©) Storing whole blood in the freezer compartment of a fridge 4) Vigorously shaking blood in a sample bottle . &) None of the above 46. Which of the following determines a persons blood group a) Antibodies in the plasma 26 Antigens on the surface of red cells c) The amount of haemoglobin 4) None of the above e) All of the above 47. A person with a blood group B has a) Both A and B antibodies in -the serumb) A antigens in the serum yA antibodies in the serum 4d) B antibodies in the serum ©) No antibodies in the serum 48. Which of the following is not required when doing a forward ABO blood grouping a) A and B antisera b) White tile ©) _ The patients red cells 9). The patients serum ) None of the above 49. An increased buffy coat layer indicates @) An increased number of red cells by An increased number of white cells ©) A reduced number of white cells 4) A reduced number of platelets €) A reduced numbei blood cells 50. Which of the following is not needed when performing PCV a) Microhaematocrit centrifuge of re b) Microhaematocrit reader ©). Sealant 4) Capillary tubes 2 None of the following 51. Which of the following is not a precaution when performing PCV ) Avoid delay in reading PCV to prevent evaporation of plasma b) Avoid clots in the blood as this can lead to low results c) Trapped plasma can lead to an increase in PCV results SF Cleaning and maintaining the haematocrit centrifuge is not important ©) Allof the above 52. Which of the following is likely to happen in a patient with severe dehydration a) Low haemoglobin levels b) Low packed cell volume ey Falsely elevated PCV 4) High plasma bilirubin e) None of the above 53. Which of the following indicates the size of red cells a) MCHC b) MCV “e) MCH d) PCV ©) HCT 54, Red cell with lower than normal size but normal haemoglobin concentration can be described as a) Normoeytie normochromic b) Macrocytie hypochromic ©) Microcytic normochromic 4) Microcytic hyperchromic ©) Normocytic normochromie 55. Which of the following is likely to be seen in the thin film during iron deficiency 2) Normocytic normochromic ted cells b) Macrocytic hypochromic red cells “| Microcytic hypochromic red cells 4) Microoytic hyperchromic red cells ©) Normocytic normochromic red cells.56. Red cel] volume is measured in aS Femtolitres, b) Nanolitres c) Picolitres d) Milliliters e) Grammes S57. W1, W2, W3 and W4 are the four big quadrants in a naueber improved counting chamber. When calculating WBC count which of the following caley lations is correct when all four quadrants are counted ay WI+W2+W3+W4 all divided by4 b) WI+W2+W3+1W4 all divided by 40 ©) WIW2+W3+W4 all divided by 20 d) WIW2+W3+W4 all divided by 10 ©) WHW2+W3+W4 all divided by 18 58. When sickling slide test is positive, it indicates a) ‘The patient has Hb SS b) The patient has Hb AS c) The patient has Hb SC 4) The patient has Hb S e) None of the above 59, A negative sickling slide test only indicates a) The patient has Hb AA b) The patient has Hb AC cy The patient has no Hb S d) The patient has Hb A e) None of the above 60. Abnormal bleeding may be caused by a) Damage to vascular endothelium 2 Reduction in platelet number ©) Effective platelet function d) Disorders of blood coagulation ©) None of the following 61. The following are laboratory investigation for bleeding except a) Haemoglobin b) Blood film report c) Platelet count _#) Total WBC count e) INR 62. The following can cause difficulties in crossmatching except a) Autoagglutinins b) Infected donor cells ©) Cold agglutinins AY Consistencies in ABO grouping ©) None of the above 63. In standard crossmatchi the following are used AS, Paticnt’s serum against donor's cells b) Patient’s cells against donor’s cells which of ©) Patient's serum against donor's serum d) Patient's cells against donor's serum ©) Patient’s whole blood against donor's plasma 64. When performing haemoglobin estimation test, what volume of blood and drabkins solution are pipetted? a) 4m of blood and 20ul of drabkins solution PY Sml of drabkins solution and 20ul of blood©) 10uL of drabkins solution and Sml of blood d) 15ul of blood an solution e) None of the above | of drabkins #55. In performing haemoglobin calibration graph, at least how many standard samples are required a) 1 b) ) 4 e 5 66. Drabkins reagent is kept in an amber. container because a) They are casily available 24 They prevent decolourization of the reagent ©) They enhances decolourization of the reagent d) None of the above ©) Allof the above 67. When platelets are estimated to be low in a blood sample, what should the laboratory scientist do as a proper post analytical check? a) Check the presence of clots in the blood sample before reporting b) Check the presence of fibrin strands before clotting ©). Ask the patient of he or she is bleeding d) Aand B above 25 A,B and C above 68: ESR can be elevated by the following except a) Fibtinogen b) Immunoglobulins « ane 2ere ESL fags hat M4, : Sees ae reo ities - QA BYE 9D. Mla eaten meant a ke ae © Elaveked fievnvpnn terete ene €. ded calle oe 6+ Teen oc ste Er de ©) C-reactive proteins & Sickled cells ©) All ofthe above 69. ESR is discontinued in most tropical countries because a) It is expensive to perform b) Results are the same no matter the patient’s condition 2 Itadds little to diagnosing disease, assessing its progress and monitoring response to treatment 4) Results are unaffected by pregnancy ©) Itis difficult to perform 70. In preparing 26ml of working giemsa solution, what volume of the distilled water would be used? PF 234ml b) 2.6 ml ©) 20m! d) 2.7ml e) 2.34 ml 71. Cells that ate capable of differentiation into distinet cells is catled a) Hematopoietic cells -by Committed stem cells ©) Pluripotential stem cells 4) Myeloid stem cells ©) Lymphoid stem cells 72. Which of the following blood cells are produced by the lymphoid stem cells a) Erythrocytes b) Platelets ©) Monocytes @) Neutrophils py Lymphocytes73. Whieh of the following is the chief site of hematopoiesis in a developing foetus a) Liver b) Bone marrow of long bones ©) Kidneys 5 Spleen ¢) Heart 74, Which of the following hormones is involved in platelets formation a) Erythropoietin 48 Thrombopoietin ©) Prolaction d) FSH e) TSH 75. Apoptosis in red cells occur after about a) 10days 4 120 hours 0 120 days ‘) 45 days ©) None of the above 76. Erythropoiesis is reduced by AJ, Increased oxygen in circulation b) Increased hydrogen in circulation ©) Decreased oxygen in circulation 4) Decreased carbon dioxide in the blood e) None of the above 77. The iron containing oxygen-transport protein in red cells is called ay Haemoglobin b) Methaemoglobin ©) Erythropoietin 4) Thrombopoietin e) Carboxyhaemoglobin 78. 79, 80, 81 How many oxygen molecules haemoglobin molecule bind at a time? a) 6 b) 5 2a4 d) 3 e) 2 Another name for bone marrow is 2 Medulla osae b) Medulta osium ©) Pluripotent stem cell d) Committed stem cell ©) None of the above Which of the following describes the shape of red cells a) Plano concave b) Concave s¥ Biconcave 4) Round e) Orange shape Which of the following features of red cells enable it to move through very tiny blood capillaries with ease a) Rigid cell membrane b) Double cell membrane ©) No cell membrane AF Flexible cell membrane €) None of the above . When plasma turns reddish it indicates ay Haemolysis of red cells b) Reduced haemoglobin level ©) Increased platelets level d) An increased in packed cell volume ©) None of the abo Red blood cells are red only because of a) Its transport of oxygen5 ‘The haemoglobin it contains ©) Its shape d) All of the above ©) None of the above 84. Red cell breakdown is termed a) Hemorrhage 28f Hemolysis ©) Hematopoiesis d) Leucopoiesis ©). Thrombopoiesis 85. When plasma tums reddish it indicates a3’ Haemolysis of red cells b) Reduced haemoglobin level c) Increased platelets level 4) An increased in packed cell volume ©) None of the above 86. Red blood cells are red only because of a) Tis transport of oxygen bY The haemoglobin it contains ©) Its shape d) All of the above ©). None of the above 87. What is the full name of EDTA a) Ethylene amine tetra acetic acid b) Diamine tetra acetic acid ©) Tetra amine acetic ethylene acid AY. Ethylene diamine tetra acetic cid €) Ethelene diamine tetra acetic acid 88. Red cell breakdown is termed a) Hemorrhage 2 Hemolysis ©) Hematopoiesis 4) Leucopoiesis ©) Thrombopoiesis 89. Which of the following enzymes is an inactive enzyme that is involved in the mechanism of blood clotting? a) Thrombokinase b) Prothrombin ¢) Thrombin 4) Thrombosis %) Prothrombin 90. Clotting that oceurs in an unbroken vessel is known as a Thrombosis b) Prothrombin ©) Insoluble fibrin d) Mesh ©) Fibrin thread 91. What is the first step in the process of blood clotting a) Platelet aggregation b) Platelet release reaction 2 Vascular spasm d) Platelet plug formation e) Platelet adhesion 92. In blood clotting, damaged tissues and platelets release a) Fibrinogen 6) Insoluble fibrin £f Thrombokinase d) Mesh ©) Thrombin 98. A gel which consist of a network of insoluble fibers is called a) Fibrinogen DF Clot ©) Fibrin 4) Collagen ©), Fibrin thread 94, All the following are not oxidants that can cause methaemoglobinaemia excepta) Heinz bodies b) GSH ) NADPH @) Gord 9 Sulphanamides 95, GPD is involved in the generation of 2) Heinz bodies % b) GSH ©). NADP d) Haemoglobin e) Oxidant 96, Haemoglobin § only presence of a) High haemoglobin concentration h) Low carbon dioxide concentration c) Low haemoglobin concentration ckle in the 2 Low oxygen concentration ©) High oxygen concentration 7. An increment in the plasma volume in the third trimester pregnancy may result in a) High haemoglobin values b) Normal haemoglobin values ©) High oxygen concentration 83 Low haemoglobin value e) Reduced oxygen concentration 98. All the following are special factors to consider when estimating haemoglobin except a) Hypoxia b) Postural dizziness c) Diet 4) Severe dehydration 2) Occupation of patient 99. Couples with both their haemoglobin genotype of AS are likely to have which of the following a) 25% AS offspring 2% 50% AS offspring c) 30% AA offspring d) 50% SS offspring ©) 20% SS offspring 100. Which of the following haemoglobins can be said to result in be sickle cell disease a) AC b) AS #2) d) AD e) None of the above Use the following to answer questions 101 to 103 a) Antisera b) Sickle cell disease ©) Malaria 4) Large lymphocytes €) Small lymphocytes 101. Prod uction of antibodies @) (flean att) 102 Reag ents for performing blood grouping(@) 103, Can cause haemolysis by parasites infecting red cells(@) Use the following to answer questions 104 to 106 a) clot b) fibrin©) fibrinogen : 4) coagulation factors ©) “phagocytosis 104. Gel consisting of a network of insoluble protein fibers} clot 105. Prote in found in plasma(C) 106. Eatin 2— like nature of certain blood cells(E) CPhagre tea rx) CLINICAL CHEMISTRY Instruction: Answer all questions in this section by circling the appropriate letter on the question paper. 1. Eodema oceurs as a result of a) Movement of fluid from the extracellular fluid to the intracellular fluid b) Movement of fluid from the synovial fluid to plasma 2) Movement of fluid from the intracellular fluid to the interstitial uid 4) Movement of body Muid from interstial fluid to plasma ) None of the above 2. Haemolytic diseases are likely to increase the levels of @) Conjugated bilirubin bY Unconjugated bilirubin ©) Urea 4) Creatinine ©) None of the above ee Re a a ae ea a gah edn tee alkene, ete Ere Old men and women are likely to have increased levels of the following analytes except af Urea b) Creatinine ©) Haemoglobin 4) None of the above @) All of the above Hyperglycaemia may result in except a) Increased thirst CPebsdipsis' b) Increased urinating (folyuvta\, ¢) Poor vision 4) Increased hunger (Pslyphegia) 2 None of the above Which of the following liver function tests can be classified as macromolecule a) AST b) ALT ©) Total Protein ) GGT 2 Bilirubin Which of the following can be described as bad cholesterol a) Total cholesterol b) HDL- Cholesterol ey LDL- Cholesterol 4) VLDL- Cholesterol ©) Triglycerides Which of the following test under lipids makes serum appear cloudy a) Total Cholesterol BY Triglycerides ©) HDL- Cholesterol d) LDL-Cholestero! ©) None of the above Plasma oncotic balance is maintained by &¥ Albumin b) All plasma proteins©) Glucose @) Urea e) None of the above +9. Which of the following terms is used to describe the highest amount of analyte a reagent can measure ely? a). Sensitivity b) Specificity ©) Linearity 4) Accuracy -ey None of the above 10. All the-following tests require fasting before the sample is taken axcept a) FBS b) OGTT 2 2HPP d) Lipid profile ©) Urea 1. In CSF chemistry analysis, which analytes are estimated a) Urea only. b) Protein only ©) Creatinine and urea~ a) Glucose only e) Protein and glucose 19 Which of the following liver function tests are described as tranferases a) AST and GGT By ALT and AST ©) GGF and Alkaline phosphatase @) GGT and ALT ¢) Total bilirubin and total protein 13. When buying-reagents for chemical analysis, which of the following should be considered a) Low linearity and high sensitivity b) Complex reagent preparation procedure ©) Short date of expiry 4) High linearity ©) None of the above 14, A glucose reading was given as 58 mg/dl. What will be the results in mmol/l by @worstle Fook a) 5.8 SO eg I dy 32 ©) 49 d) 116 e) None of the above 15. The purpose of wearing laboratory coat is to a) Make the wearer look beautiful b) Prevent wasting of reagents ©) Make the wearer look like a technician ‘o avoid contamination with pathogens and chemicals ©) Show how professional the wearer is 16. When biohazard symbol is found on a bottle in a lab it indicates a) The content of the bottle is harmless 2 The content of the bottle is dangerous to your health ©) It means the bottle is empty 4) Itmeans the bottle should not be in the lab €) None of the above 17. A symbol which depicts a human skull with two crossed bones on a boitle indicatesa) The content of the bottle is flammable b) The content of the bottle is corrosive ©) The content of the bottle is explosive 4) The content of the bottle is imitative (sf The content of the bottle is toxic 18, All the following are safety equipments in a clinical chemistry lab es ay +r extinguishers ) First aid kit ©) Safety goggles d) Masks e) None of the above 19, All the following are factors that ean affect the rate of chemical reaction except a) Physical state of the reactants b) Temperature c). Presence of catalyst @) Concentration of reactants 2 Colour of reactants 20. Which of the following the rate of a chemical r can increase ction a) Reducing the concentration of reactants b), Absence of a catalyst of Vigorous shaking and stirring 4) Lowering the temperature ©) None of the above Which of the following is nota laboratory'safety rule a) Don’t apply cosmetics in the lab b) Do not use mouth pipetting too ofien 4. ©) Put needles in a sharp —— @) Don’t throw any solid material into a sink A) None of the above Which of the following may not be needed in a chemical pathology lab a) Beaker b) Volumetric flask ©) Centrifuge @) Spectrophotometer &f None of the above What is used for measuring about 20uL of solutions 2) Measuring cylinder b) Beaker ©) Volumetric jar d) Micropipette e) None of the above The instrument for measuring light that is either absorbed or transmitted through a solution in a cuvette is called a) Microscope b) Monochromator pY Spectrophotometer @) Centrifuge e) None of the above Beer- lambert’s law states that a) Concentration of a solution is inversely proportional to the amount of light absorbed b) Concentration of a solution is directly proportional to the amount of light deflected of Concentration of a solution is directly proportional to the amount of light absorbedPrewsecy Vesemer> 4) mer Sere vate ite) ae eee ee Pestana ener oy hee fore meaareerets w each ¥ 4) Coneentration of a solution is not related to the amount of light absorbed ©) None of the above 26. How close a measured value is to the actual value js called a) Precision pigs) c) Sensitivity 4) Specificity e) Reproducibility 27. Reproducibility of an analytical method is termed Y Precision b) Accuracy c) Sensitivity @) Specificity ©) None of the above 28. Which of the following cannot affect the result of a clinical chemistry test a). Age of patient b) Sex of patient ©) Diet d) Stress 2S None of the above 29. A graph that plots quality control values in terms of how many Standard Deviations each value is from the mean is called a) Westgard’s chart b) Jennifer's chart 28 Levy: jenning’s chart 4) Quality control chart ©) Calibration chart 30, Which of the following demonstrates how enzymes work a) Increasing the activation energy of a reaction b) Reducing activation energy ofa reaction ©) Reducing the number of reactants d)_ Increasing the number of reactants e) Allof the above 31. Enzyme activity can be reduced by the following except _A¥ Inhibitors b) Poisons ¢) Optimum temperature d) Very high or low pH ©) None of the above 32, Which of the following statements is false about enzymes a) Enzymes are known (0 catalyse about 4000 biochemical reactions b) Enzymes are very specific to which reaction they catalyse ©) Enzymes are proteins d) Enzymes are not consumed by the reaction they catalyze e) Most enzymes are smaller than the substrates they act on 33. All of the following can affect enzyme activity except a) Concentration of reactants b) Temperature ©) Chemical environment OF The name of reactants e) Presence of inhibitors 34, The metabolic pathway that converts glucose to pyruvate with the release of ATP is called a) Gluconeogenesis b) Glycogenolysis ef Glycolysis d) Anabolism e) None of the aboveThe inability to digest and metabolize sugar found in milk is called a) Fructose intolerance Pf Lactose intolerance ©). Glycogen storage disease &) None of the above ©) Allof the above The conversion of excess glucose into glycogen is termed a) Glycogenoly b) Gluconeogenesis ay Glycogenesis &) Glycolysis e) None of the above Which of the following is not a human disease of carbohydrate metabolism a). Diabetes mellitus b) Lactose intolerance c) Fructose intolerance 4) Glycogen storage disease 25 None of the above 38. Which of the fotlowing hormones are involved in glucose regulation in the body 2@ Insulin b) Glucagon sf Aand B above d) Aonly e) Bonly Another name for type 2 daiabetes is a) Insulin dependant diabetes b) Non insulin dependant diabetes mellitus c) Gestational diabetes d) None of the above e) All of the above as Ute ft opr DO jantinens®) 40. 4, 42. 43. 44, 45. The human body’s failure to produce insulin results in -ay Type | diabetes b) Type 2 diabetes ©) Gestational diabetes @) Adult-onset diabetes ©) NIDDM Which of the following is not a use clinical chemistry test a) Prognosis- b) Diagnosis c) Monitoring treatment @) Medical research 2y None of the above Which of the following is a monosaccharide AY Galactose b) Lactose ©) Starch 4) Glycogen 6) Maltose ATP stands for a) Adenosine diphosphate b) Triphosphate adenosine \denosine monophosphate eee triphosphatase ©) None of the above Which of the following function as insulation and reserve of body fuel a) Proteins b) Nucleic acids &f Lipids d) Salts ¢) None of the above An increase level of serum bilirubin always indicates a) Liver disease b) Kidney disease c) Pancreatic disease score) Fructose Lave Vea ese| @) Increase haemolysise) None of the above 46. Gout occurs as result of increased level of —) 4) Serum urea ea b) Serum creatinine G ©) Serum urate you ¢) Serum AST e) Serum GGT The big toe is a perfeet site for gout attack because it has a) Reduced oxygen b) Increased oxygen c) Better blood circulation d) Increased glucose level ¢) None of the above Reduced level of vitamin K may result in a) Poor vision b) Muscle weakness ey Excessive bleeding 4) Hyperkalemia ©) All ofthe above Which of the following cannot be classified under transcellular fluid a) Ocular fluid 5») CSFv g £J Plasma d) Synovial fluids (=! 4 ©) None of the above °°,50. Which of the following do not appen in dehydration a) An increased level of potassium b) Reduced urination ©) An increased sodium retention d) Increased thirst ©) None of the above Which of the following do not Beppen in dehydration 7 A) An increased level of potassium in ECF b) Reduced urination c) An increased sodium. retention d) Increased thirst €) None of the above 52, The second law of thermodynamics states that a) Energy can neither be created nor destroyed b) Energy transfer decreases disorder c) Energy can be created but not destroyed @& Energy transfer increases disorder €) None of the above 53. In the regeneration of ATP, a phosphate group is added to a) AMP (by ADP c) ATP d) Phosphate ©) None of the above 54, The cardinal signs of diabetes include a) Frequent urination only b) Blurred vision only ©) Frequent thirst only ¢) Aand B only 2 AandC 55. In type 2 diabetes a) Insulin requirement is a must b) Symptoms usually appear below age 40 ©) No insulin is produced _AF Also called adult on- set diabetes)- Patients are usually under- weight 56. The following are triggers of diabetes except a) Viruses b) Faulty immune system ©) Obesity d) Heredity ©) None of the above 57. The breakdown of glycogen to form glucose is termed a) Glycogenesis b), Glycolysis Glycogenolysis d) Gluconeogenesis ©) Lipolysis 58. Insulin stimulates the following except a) Glycogenesis uli Jf Glycogenolysis ¢) Glucose transport into cells 4) Increase rate of glucose utilization ©) All of the above 59. Glucose is stored as glycogen because a) It releases pressure from the cells. b) Glucose is unstable ©) Glucuse is toxie to body cells W Glycogen is not readily available to body cells ©) None of the above 60. Which of the following statement true a) Alpha cells of the pancreas produce insulin, (4-9 b) Glucagon reduces blood glucose levels ©) Lack of insulin can canse hypoglycemia SF Glucagon inereases glycogenolysis ©) None of the above 61. Glycogen is primarily stored in the a) Kidneys by Liver ©) Heart d) Pancreas e) Small intestines 62. Which of the following stimulates glucagon secretion BY Hypoglycemia b) Normoglycemia ©) Hyperglycemia d) Diabetes e) Lack of insulin production 63. Diabetic ketoacidosis occur as a result of, A) Increased use of lipids for energy production b) Increased levels of glucagon ©) Increased level of insulin d) Hypoglycemia ©) Glucosuria 64, Severe hypoglycemia can cause the following except a) Fainting b) Coma c) Seizures -d) Reduced urination ©) None of the above 65, The following are fat soluble vitamins except we" a) Vitamin A gi ) VitaminB. ©) Vitamin E ¢) Vitamin D e). Vitamin K66. Which of the following statements about Fats is not true a) Fats and oil are esters of fatty acids and glycerol b) Oillis liquid whiles fats isin wb solid form at room ote temperature oN (of Essential fatty acids cannot S09 8 “be synthesized by the human rae body 5‘ 4) Phospholipids are simple lipids ae ©) None of the above “ge 67. The following statements are true about plant and animal fats except a) Animal fats are relatively rich in unsaturated fatty acids ~ b) Animal fats are solid at room temperature c) Plant fats have high iodine number d) Plant fats are mainly stored in the seeds and fruits ©) None of the above 68. In selection of fats for human consumption, itis advisable to selects fats that a) Are highly saturated 4 Are highly unsaturated ©) Have low iodine number 4) Are solid at room temperature €) None of the above 69. The major body fluid compartments are a) Extracellular fluid compartment and Intercellular fluid compartment b) Interstitial fluid compartment and Intracellular fluid compartment eh Extracellular fluid compartment and intracellular fluid compartment d) Interstitial fluid compartment and Intracellular fluid ‘compartment ©) Intercellular fluid compartment and Interstitial fluid compartment 70. What fraction of the total body fluid is intracellular Ay a) % ¥ W 23 eo) 18 d)% ©) None of the above 71. Which hormone play a vital role in water retention? ince jaar aA trolertenst a) ADH only Not relents oats b) Insulin only > Wah ted pres ©) FSHonly d) Glucagon only A) ADH and Insulin 72. The major cation in the extracellular fluid is af Nat b) Kr c) Mg** a) Ca ©) None of the above 73. The normal plasma pH is a) 68-80 b) 7.0- 7.45 ©) 735-80 Bf 735-745 ©) 745-8074. Solutions of the same concentration are a) Hypotonic to each other b) Hypertonic to each other 28 Isotonic to each other 4) Isotonic and hypotonic to each other se) None of the above 75. All the following are preservatives of fee eee ubedk Meebe> a) Methanol eed b) Toluene 4. Aceke cod. ¢) Thymol he cee AF 3M%tormalin scan aed €) None of the above 76, Yellowish appearance of urine is suggestive of BF Azotemia b) Puss cell burden c) Hepatic disorder @) Anuria ©). Proteinuria /77. Uremia is indicative of a) Low protein in diet b) Liver failure ©) GIT hemorrhage 4) Pancreatitis ©) None of the above 78. A renal cause of Azotemia is a) Liver failure b) Increase protein catabolism ©) GIT hemorrhage 4) Glycogen storage disease ey Tubular necrosis 79. ALP stands for 2) Adenosine lactate phosphatase b) Aspartate phosphatase ©) Alkaline phosphate AP Alkaline phosphatase Meme = Pirie netivettr Reptile. eae Se Soe - oH = Calcio! ©) None of the above: 80. Bilirubin in urine is suggestive of a) Proteinuria b) Nephritie syndrome ©), Glomerulonephritis dy Hepatic disorder ©) None of the above 81. The building block of proteins is called a) Hemoglobin b) Enzymes ©) Hormones dF Amino acids ©) None of the above 82. What is the full name sGOT C$ 7) a) Serum glucoronic oxaloacetic acid transaminase b) Serum glutamic oxaloacetate transferase AY Serum glutamic oxaloacetate transaminase d) Serum glocuronie oxaloacetic transaminase ©) None of the above 83. All the following are types of urine specimen except a) Random urine A8f Fasting urine ¢) Early morning urine d) None of the above e) All of the above 84, The kidney produces this hormone a) Thyroxin b) Prolactin _oy Renin d) None of the above ©) All of the above 85. The Urease producing bacteria increase urine PH bya). Increasing urea concentration b) Oxidation of Bilirubin ©) Reduction of bilirubin ‘Breakdown of urea ) Allof the above 86. The Proteinuria is suggestive of all the following except a) Glomerulonephritis b). Nepheitis c) Bacterial infection 2 Bile duct obstruction e) All of the above 87. All the following are functions of albumin except 2 Binds conjugated bilirubin bb) Regulates oncotic pressure ©) Binds insoluble bilirubin d) Binds cations and hormones e) None of the above 88. All the followit Hyperproteinemia except a). Hyperalbuminemia bY Hyperbilirubinemia c)-Hypergammaglobinemia d) Allof the above e) None of the above 89. One of the causes of low levels of albumin in bloos 8 Over hydration b) Retinol defici c) Vitamin C defi d) Cardiovascular disorder ©) None of the above 90. Oliguria implies a) Pain in urination are causes of ney ey b) Increase in urine volume output ©) No urine output AY Decrease in urine volume output ©) None of the above 91. Urine made to stand for toa long will have all the following changes except a) Increase in bacterial count b). Destruction of cast and cells ¥ Increase in Acetone 4) Decomposition of bilirubin ‘e) None of the above 92. Glycosuria occurs when blood glucose levels is a) Increased b) Decreased _ey Exceeds the normal threshold d) Normal €) None of the above 93. Laboratory investigation of urine helps in all the following except a) Toxicology studies b) Confirmation of pregnancy ey Liver disorders 4) All of the above ©) None of the above 94, All the following are causes of ketonuria except a) Diabetes 'b) Glycogen storage disease 2¥ Decrease in fat metabolism, 4) All the above ©) None of the above PARASITOLOGY Instruction: Answer all questions in this section by circling the appropriate letter on the question paperEach of the following statements (except one) is tre regarding malaria. Which one is false? A. Once someone has malaria infection, they will have it for the rest of their life in spite of treatment B. All persons who contract P. vivax malaria have Duffy Antigen present on their red fe Suh Styacpngenn Ts blood cells "ecepie's (eet P Viven C. Persons with sickle cell trait or disease are more resistant to serious malaria D. "- Schuffiner’s dots in red cell cytoplasm are most consistent with P. vivax or ovale malaria One way to help diagnose P. malariae is to carefully record the pattern of symptoms since itis the only species to havea 72 hour interval of symptoms Iiching around the rectum is commonly caused by the pinworm, Enterobius vermicularis. Which of the following is false regarding pinworms? A. Ithasa simple rectum to mouth life cycle (do not seratch your bum and suck your thumb) B. Diagnosis is best made by a stool O&P exam C. Itis highly contagious infecting a number of members of a family at the same time D. Spread can be prevented by good hygiene E. The egg is oval, flat on one side-and contains a single larvae folded over like a safety pin Trichuris trichiura or whipworm is a frequent parasite found in humans. Which of the following is false for Trichuris trichiura? A. Heavy infestations may result in diarthea sometimes associated with blood B. Light infections may be asymptomatic C. The eggs have a barrel-like appearance with bipolar plugs D. After ingestion the eggs hatch into larvae that migrate through the lung before maturing in the duodenum The eggs passed in stool are unembryonated, so they require a time to mature in the soil before they become infectious A student returns from a student teaching assignment in Zimbabwe. ‘On the way home she swam in Lake Malawi. She is found to have schistosomiasis, Four of the following answers are good advice on how to prevent schistosomiasis. Which one is bad advice? A. In risk areas, don't swim fresh water rivers or lakes B. Swimming in chlorinated pools is safe C. Swimming in ocean salt water is safe10. D. — Toweling off vigorously after contact with potentially contaminated water decreases your risk E, Wading in water up to your knees is safe for brief periods of time The optimal time for drawing blood to detect lympatic filariasis is between? A. 7am to 3pm B. 7pm to 9pm C. 10pm to dam D. 10am to 4pm Wuchereria bancrofti causes ? A. Lymphatic filariasis B. Lymphatic edema C. Lymphatic stiffness D. None of the above ‘The worm that causes blood in urine is A. Schistosoma mansoni B. Schistosoma japonicom C. Schistosoma haematobium D. Schistosomiasis Infective stage of Ascaris lumbriciodesis? A. Larve B. Cerearia C. Egg D. Cyst Schistosoma haematobium is diagnosed by A. The egg in urine B. The egg in stool C, The larva in urine D. The larva in stool A parasite common in vaginal and urethral discharge is ? A. Schistosoma u 12, 13. 14. 16. B. Ascaris lumbriciodes C. Trichomonas vaginalis D. Trichomas bancrofti Diagnostic stage of Ascaris lumbricoide is? (ee lowe A. Atypical fertilized egg in stool B. Atypical fertilized egg in urine C. All of the above D. None of the above lodine stain of Entamoeba cyst is use to detect? A. Chromatoide bars B. Cell wall C. Nuclei D. Cytoplasm . Infective Stage of Taenia is? A. Larva B. Cerearia C. Embrocated ege D. Cyst Best for identification of parasite if cannot be seen in stool RE ? A. Stool wet mount B. Concentration Technique C. Formol ether technique D. All of the above The cellophane (scotch)tape preparation is for the diagnosis of? A. Thick worm B, Whip worm Cc. Pin worm D. All of the above Stool concentration technique are mostly done to? A. Kill all the parasite B, Separate parasite from fecal debris C. Mix specimen well D. All of the above17. In formol ether concentration , the formalin acts as AcFixative: B. Stain C. Dye D. Diluent #18. Stool RE is examine under? A Oil immersion «: B. Low power -# C. Very high power D. None of the above 19. Diagnosis of visceral leishmaniasis is by? Ac Bully coat preparation B. Cello tape preparation C. Formol ether concentration D. Allof the above 20. Another importance of the formol ether concentration method is ? ‘Ac For preservation of parasites B. For demonstrating details of parasite C. All of the above D. None of the above 21. In the formol ether concentration, which layer contains the parasites ALL "22, Diagnosis of Onchocerciasis is by? A. Skin scrape &. Skin snip C. Skin wash D. All of the above 23. What reagent is added to skin snip biopsy to allow the worm to imerge? A. Formalin B. Ether £. Normal saline D. Sodium hydroxide 24, All these are filarial worms except? A. Loaloa B. Marsonella perstans C. Onchocerea volvulus BD. Ascaris lumbricoides 25. Onchocerea volvulus breed exclusively in? _* Black fly B. Blue fly C. Red fly D. Green fly 26. All the following are observed in urinalysis except? A. Colour B. Appearance _& Consistency D. AandB 27. Urine sample is examine under a microscope to look for all the following except? A. Cells B. Cast C. Crystals 2%, TB Bacilli 28. Urinalysis can be used to A. Malaria BS Urinary tract infection C. Back pain D, None of the above 29. Urinalysis can be used to check for? A. Blood in urine B, Ketone in urine &. Both A and B D. None of the above 30. Urinalysis can help in the disgnosis of.all the following except? A. Diabetes B. Kidney disease C. Alkalosis snoseJX Malaria 31. An example of a common urine cast is? A, Fatty cast AS. Waxy cast C. Protein cast D. Both A and B 32. Alll the following are urine cast except? A. Granular cast B. Hyaline cast C. Epithelial cast ®. None of the above 33. Ketones in urine is suggestive of ? AC The body relying of lipids for energy B. The body relying of protein for energy The body relying on sugar for energy D. None of the above 34, Glucosu A. Glucose in blood AS Glucose in urine C. Glucose in plasma D. Glucose in serum 35. Glucosuria in indicative of ? A. Kidney failure BY Diabetes C. Ketoacidosis D. None of the above 36. Urine pH measures A. Concentration of urine _B® Acidity of urine C. Appearance of urine D. Colour of urine 37. The following following can influence the pH of urine A. Drugs B. Diet rich is citrus fruits except C. Dietrich in meat B. Water 38. Nitrite in urine is indicative of AK, Urinary tract infection B. Kidney disorder C. Liver disorder D. All of the above 39. Specific gravity of urine gives an idea of ? © Concentration of urine B. Colour of urine C. Odour of urine D. All the above 40. WBCs in urine is suggestive of? AC UTL B. Malaria C.. Fever D. Cough 41. Urinalysis involves both? A. Macroscopy and staining B. Staining and microscopy 2 Macroscopy and microscopy D. All the above 42. Skin seraping is mainly used to diagnose ? _ac’ Fungal infection b. Bacterial infection ©. Protozoa infection d. All the above What reagent is applied on the scraping when performing skin scraping test? A. Sodium Hydroxide B. Hydrogen peroxide _E: Potassium hydroxide D. Potassium oxide 44, The main function of KOH in skin scraping is? A, To destroy all cell B. To destroy all fungal cell 926 To destroy all non- fungal cell D. All the above 45, Parasitic diseases can be best diagnosed by? A. Staining B. Microscopy C.. Macroscopy WD. All the above 46. Examples of intestinal parasite include all the following except? A. Ascaris B. Hookworm C.Stroi ®. Loa loa 47. Fecal occult blood test helps in liagnosing? X. Bleeding in the gastrointestinal system n the Liver C. Bleeding in the kidney D. Bleeding in the lungs 48, Hookworm lives in the. Fits Fost? A. Liver BL . Small intestine D. Stomach 49. The specimen for the diagnosis of Trichomonas vaginalis infection in e intestine female, A. Prostatic secretions yB. Vaginal discharges C,, Urine Band C 50. What parasite/s may produce Loeffler’s syndrome to man? JC Ascaris lumbricoides ~ exgemim hae Vong L Sat inegyetion B. Gnathostoma spinigerdm Lrsaten's Symchome Bs & ponere tree FF put eceme sks in espe ingestion pores C. Enterobius vermicularis D. Trichuris trichiura 51. Stage/s of the parasite that may produce Loefiler’s syndrome to man, A. Adult B Larva C. Ege D. A&C 52. What is the usual manner of transmission of Schistosoma to man? A. Arthropod vector B. Skin penetration of the cercariae CC. Ingéstion of the embryonated egg BEC 53. Obstructive uropathy is associated with Be Schistosoma haematobium B, Schistosoma mansoni C. Schistosoma japonicum D. Schistosoma mekongi 54, The usual infective stage of Malaria to man is the A. gametocytes BK sporozoites C,_ schizonts D. Merozoites 55. . The gametocytes of the organism are described as banana or crescent- shaped. &. Plasmodium faleiparumINSTRUCTION: CHOOSE THE MOST APPROPRIATE ANSWER ONLY CHEMICAL PATHOLOGY 1, Serum A. Comprises the liquid component of unclotted blood, B, 1s suitable for measurement of fibrinogen levels Can be used for analysis of most biochemical tests on blood D. Is obtained by taking blood into an anticoagulant and then comprises the liquid phase after centrifugation of the cellular elements Biochemical tests on serum may be affected by all of the follo A, Bxercise B. Time of day C. Diet 4B, Type of analyzer used 1g EXCEPT: 3. Consider these statements . Refrigeration of whole blood has no the effect on K* concentration by reducing the activity of the ATPase pump B. Freezing of the blood samples will results in haemolysis 2 concentration C. Blood for glucose estimation should be put into any tube. D. The concentrations of many substances are the same in erythrocytes and the surrounding plasma id falsely elevate Na* 4. Blood sample for blood gases is collected into A. K2-EDTA tube B. Fluoride oxalate tube . Lithium heparin tube D. Na-EDTA 5. Serum electrolytes are accurately measured by which of the following methods A. Cation selective electrode B. Anion selective electrode C._ Iron selective electrade AF lon selective electrode 6. Th as A. Nemst law B. Faraday’s law ZZ Beet-Lambert law D. Fluorometric law sneral quantitative relationship that governs all absorption processes is known 7. Point of care testing: AT Eliminates the need for training staff who use these B. Cannot be used to measure bilirubin struments apD. Is less costly per unit test than analysis undertaken in the central laboratory 8. The urine of healthy person should contain which of the following analyte? A. Glucose B. Creatinine C. Provin D. Bilirubin 9. Variations in water levels in humans could be due to any of the following EXCEPT A. Age B. Environment C. Gender AK Water intake Csi aliby 2A mens use cf 10. Which of the following statements is TRUE about Osmolality? emotes (25) Ef Gelato: pe A. Js 4 measure of the number of moles of solute per litre of solvent. Wey ef scloert Ge Orel oy, ZF ls unit is usually osmovkg or mmol/kg, wae “.C. The physiological normal osmolality is 245 10 295 mmol /kg. OsmslelG BNE me D, The recommended clinical formula is 2 x [Na*]. Comes.) amber oP quae OSmilet Po UE Oe Soluby 11, Hyponatraemia (i=: Creel) A. Is usually due to excessive sodium losses Sreeatoy yore ES B, Is not commonly seen after surgery or trauma Camdaltey ~~” ag. ©. In the syndrome of inappropriate secretion of ADH is associated with low urine BE May be due 10 hyperemesis 12. Estimated GFR (¢GFR) A__1s valid in all age groups g8- 1s a useful assessment of the progress of acute renal failure C. Can be used to assess renal function in pregnancy PF Is the basis for the classification of chronic kidney disease 13. In order to determine the glomerular filtration rate (GFR), one must estimate the following: A. the plasma volume B. the plasma [BUN] the blood volume over BL the urine {creatinine} ecified period of time 14, Plasina creatinine A. Is a.useful sercening test for the presence of renal tubular diseaseB. Is offen reduced in patients with hepatic failure C.,Is unaffected by changes in diet AB. Assays may be subject to inlerference 15. Electrolytes in the body includes all the following EXCEPT A. Sodium. B® Tine. C. Chloride D. Potassium. 16. Which of the following is a cause of metabolic alkalosis? A. Starvation B. Diabetic ketoacidosis G, Severe diarrhoea ®. Antacid overdose 17. The causes of respiratory acidosis includes all of the following EXCEPT AC Salicylate toxicity B. Respiratory depression C. Chronic airways obstruction D. Overdose of anaesthetics 18. Which of the following substance can be used in the measurement of Glomerular filtration rate? A. Insulin B. Albumin & Creatinine D. Bilirubin 1s Serum urea can change independently to renal diseases in all of the following EXCEPT A. High protein intake Over hydration C. Burs D. Congestive heart failure 20, Which of the following is observed in the Zollinger-Ellison syndrome? A. Gall stones in less than 20% of all cases B. More females are affected than males C. Gastric acid output is decreased Excessive production af acid by the stomach 21. Factors to consider in selecting a plasma enzyme for diagnosis include all of the following EXCEPT 31PageB. Specificity C, Half life of the enzyme 25. Molecular weight of the enzyme 22. The activity of plasma enzymes can be affected through all of the following EXCE] A, Rate of release from the target organs B. Distribution of the enzyme in the extracellular fluid &¢ Size of the plasma enzyme D. Rate of elimination of the plasma enzyme CASE STUDY A.23 year old female had her fasting plasma lipid checked by her family doctor because her father had been admitted at the hospital and diagnosed of myocardial infarction, aged 44years. Her lipid profile results are as follows: [Resu is Reference ranges rT 9.40 mmo i BOURNE ISIS OGL holesterol 1.2 mmol 1.0-1.8 mmol Bi a 0.5-.0.75 mmol | (Triglycerides S The biomedical scientist had the optical density of her triglycerides as 0.09, mean standard absorbance 0.20 and standard concentration of 2.28mmol/| 23, What is the triglycerides concentration from the above case study? A.5.03 mmol/L B. 4.03 mmol/L. 71.03 mmol/L. D.3.03 mmol/L. 24, Calculate the [LDL] of the above patient A.7.93mmol/L. B.8.20 mmol/l C.8.79mmol/L. 2.7.73 mmoll| 25. Very low density lipoprotein (VLDL) concentration of the patient is A.1.67 mmol/L. B. 1.03 mmol/L. €.1.20 mmol/L 0.47 mmol/L. al PareHAEMATOLOGY 26. One of the following can cause spurious meen cell volume result: ‘A. CRYOFIBRINOGEN B. Hyperglycemia A Autoagglutination 0. High WBC count 27. One of these terms is used to describe the suppression of entire full blood coun A. Erythroplasia 8. Thrombocytopenia S-Paneytopenia “D. Leucoeytopenia 28. What is the major metabolically active storage form of Iron in the body A. Hacmosiderin AS Fenitin Transferin D. Globulin 29. Hb A> consists of A. 3alpha and 2. gamma chains B. 2 alpha and 2 beta chains _E© 2alpha and 2 delta chains D. 2 alpha and 3 delta chains 30, The most Hgb found in adult is: DPCHbA 8B. Hb Ap Cc. HbF D. HbC 31. The leucocyte responsible for parasite infection and allergic reaction is: A. Lymphocyte 8. Monocy . Basophil 2 Eosinophilcontains granules that stain light purple isa A. Macrocyte B, Basophi €. Bosinophit 2 Neutrophil 33. The k st cells in the blood that leave the blood stream to become macrophages are the: A. Eosinophils - B. Large lymphocyte C. Neutrophils BD} Monocytes 34. One of these blood cells can be described as being biconcave dise: A. Platelets 8. Neutrophil C. Eosinophil 2 Erythroc 35. The liquid portion of blood is reffered to as: Whole blood Haematocrit Plasma 20 Serum 2 @> 36. Which of the following directly defines the transportation of oxygen? A. Haemoglobin 3 Oxyhaemoglobin C. Reduced haemo, D. Deoxy obin moglobin 37. What is the average life span of the RBC AC 120 days 8. 240 days C. 10 days D. 3 days 38. Which of the following indicates a normal WBC count? A. | miilion/mm 8. 15,000/ mm? or ge 2° 10,000/ mm? . D. 3,000/ mm? TPO en as! é1P39. Pick the odd cell type out of the following cells A. Neutrophil Be Lymphoeyte C. Eosinophil D. Basophit 40. One of these white cells is not phagocytic Neutrophil granulocyte Neutrophil Monocyte .AD. Lymphocyte pep 41. A skin puncture can be done in all the following situations except: A. A child younger than 1 year 8. A patient with difficult vein ‘When a performing a coagulation test D. When small volume of blood is needed Which of the following anticoagulants is preferably used for routine haematology tests? BC EDTA 8. Sodium citrate ©. Sodium fluoride D. Lithium heparin Most often blood sample meant for full count is collected into one of the following stopper colours © Purple 8, Blue ©. Green o Yellow 44, The following are Romanowsky stains except A. Leishman B. Jenners C. Giemsa (BL Mason Fontana 45. _ Brilliant eresyl blue or new methylene blue isa stain used for (9 Reticuloeyte count 8, Platelets eount ©. Malaria parasites D. Howell; bodies 7146. One of the following conditions will not give high ESR result: A. Multiple myeloma 8. Rheumatic fever ©. Tuberloculosis AC Sickle cell disease 47. Which of the following organizes and directs light through the specimen? A. Ocular 8. Objective lens J Condenser D. Optical tube 48. How m A. 21 days B. 28 days 4-35 days D. 42 days iny days ean blood be stored in CPDA?. 49. 4 smear that is prepared from equal parts of methylene blue and whole blood will be used for: A. WBC count B. Platelet count © RBC count De Reticulocyte count 50. The concentration of sodium chloride in isotonic solution is: A. 8.5% Be 0.85% C 85% D. 0.6% HISTOPATHOLOGY 1A xylene reagent used in tissue processing could not clear again because it had lost its strength should be. A. Disposed off in the drainage Bottled for recyeling C. Left in the sun to evaporate D. Mixed with more water and disposed off in the drainage BI52. A fingemail has been fixed in formalin, routinely processed and embedded in paraffin. The tissue is very hard and sections are difficult to obtain. Which of the following procedures 1 sectioning quality is improved, and tissue components are is necessary to ensure tha preserved and best demonstrated? A. Soaking the tissue block in water B. Warming the block slightly _&Goaking in a solution that softens the keratin D. Treating with decalcifying fluid 53, The solution most commonly used to differentiate over-stained aluminium haematoxylin A. Aqueous solution of hydrochloric acid AS Rcoholie solution of hydrochloric acid C Alcoholic solution of sulphuric acid 1D. Alcoholic solution of acetic acid, 54. The following are recommended tools for collection of cellular materials for cervical smear except. A. Plastic spatula _BRylon swab C. Cyto- brush D Speculum 55. A cervical smear from a 24 ~year-old pregnant woman contains sheets of cells with, enlarged hyperchromatic nuclei; scattered mitotic figures; prominent nucleoli. These cytologic changes are consistent with olipaeeTrophoblastic ceils ©. Reparative epithelium D. Reserve I hyperplasia 96-The Papanicoloau stain is composed of the following solutions: A. Haematoxylin; Orange G 6; Eosin Azure 75 B. Haematoxylin; Orange G 6: Eosin Azure 25 © Haematoxylin; Orange G 6; Eosin Azure 50 D. Haen toxylin; Orange G 6; Eosin Azure 45 37, The factors that affect / influence the rate of tissue processing excludes A Agitation B. Heat C. Viscosity of fluid D. Pressure *8. Which ofthe additives can be added to.a dehydrating agent to act as a tissue softener? A? Phenol B. Alcohol C. Glycerol D. Calcium sulphate 59. Which of the following can act as both a dehydrating agent and an indicator of the water content of the last bath of 100% ethanol? ‘A. Hydrated copper sulphate 201°B. Copper {&% Anhydrous copper sulphate D. Phenol 60. Embedding tissue in paraffin wax using Leukhart’s “L” pieces has these disadvantages except A. Blocking of the trimmed block unto a wooden block is very time ~ consuming, B. There is considerable wastage in paraffin wax C. There is the tendency of the waxed thin card identification tag becoming detached from the PX paraffin wax block after filing 61. Which of these alcohols will cause less tissue shrinkage during tissue processing i, Ethanol ii, Methanol iii, Butanol iv, Propan-2-o1 A. i&ii Bit Lilidiv D. iigiv 62. Which of these fixatives blackens a tissue as a pigment? B Mercurie chloride C. Glutaraldehyde D. Acetic acid 63. Which of these fixatives will give a false positive result for PAS reaction? a|PageB. Mercurie chloride SChutaraldehyde D, Osmium tetroxide 64. The following are naturally ripened haematoxylin except A. Weigent B. Heidenhain’s C. Loyer’s _DeCole’s Baarm ahmervabroeeg or 65. Which tool is suitable for vulva sample? Ae Cotton wool bud 8. Cannula C. Syringe aspiration D. Aylesbury spatula 66.Which of this method will lyse red blood cells of heavily bloodstained smears? A. Xylene’s method 3: Camoy’s method C. Formalin’s method D. Chlorofarm’s method 67. A student was performing PAS-Diastase, in which he was to use diastase to digest glycogen. He soon found that there was no enzyme. Which of these can be used instead? Ksaiiva B. Blood 2]C. Urine D. Sweat 68, During specimen reception? preparation of routine Haematoxylin/Eosin slide, what step comes after A. Fixation B. Embedding in paraffin wax Slicing D. Staining 69. What colour does Haematoxylin stain structures A.On pine C. Pink D. Red 70. In the histopathology Lab in Ghana, what is the microscope magnification for oil immersion lens? B.2X c. 10x we 00x: 71. In the Papanicolaou staining technique, the cytoplasm is stained by A, Haematoxylin B, Periodic acid Schiff C. Eosin 33172. Papanicolaou stains excludes A. Haematoxylin BRAS €.Eosin Azure D. Orange G 73. Fixation does not on Prevent autolysis and putrefaction but also A, Must render enzymes inaetive B. Must kill all bacteria and moulds €. Must permit all staining procedures to be carried out D, Must raise the refractive index of the tissue 74. Which of the following statement is false about tissue processing ‘A. Paraffin wax may be used repeatedly B. Addition of rubber to wax aids the production of serial ribbons and greater adhesion C. Water may be remo: ad by heating wax to 1000Cto 1050C _P Heating wax to higher temperatures makes it softer 75. Which of the following is not true about dehydration A, Removes alcohol from tissues B, Makes the tissue brittle C. Uses bipolar nature of alcohols Dis speeded up by agitation MICROBIOLOGY 76, In disk diffusion susceptibility testing, as an antimicrobial agent diffuses away from the disk, the concentration of antibiotic is A, increased 14]sie fccreased C.unel D. inoculum dependent An aspirate of a deep wound was plated an blood agar plates and incubated aerobically and anaerobically. At 24 hours there was growth on both plates. This indicates that the organism is a(n): A. nonfermenter B. obligate anaerobe C. aerobe 2S facultative anaerobe ne. from a healthy individual is: AO CFUImL B.100 CFUImL. €.1,000 CFU/ml D,100,000 CFU/mt 79. A sheep agar plate inoculated with 0.001 mL. of urine grows 70 colonies of Staphylococcus aureus. How many colony forming units per mL of urine should be reported? A 70 CFU/ml B 700. CFU/ml 7000. CFU/m! 870000 CFU/ml 80. When stool examination is negative, the preferred specimen for the diagnosis of paragonimiasis is: A. bile drain B. duodenal aspirate 15| Page84.All species of the genus P D. rectal biopsy 81 Organisms that can be easily identified to the species level include: A. Me \gonimus yo gawai, Heterophyes heterophyes -B Paragonimus westermani, Hymenolepis nana C. Necator americanus, Ancylostoma duodenale D. Taenia solium, Taenia s nata from ova in fecal specimens 82. Anaerobic infections differ from aerobic infections in which of the following? A They usually respond favor B. They usually arise from exogenous sources 2-They are usually polymicrobic D. Gram stains of specimens are less helpful in diagnosis 83 The best procedure to differentiate Listeria monocytogenes from Corynebacterium species A. catalase Pnatility at 25 0 C motility at 35 oc D Gram stain A. naphthylamine B. din hylaminobenzaldehyde © glucopyranoside BF tetramethyl-para-phenylenediamine 85 urethral swab obtained from a man with an urethr: chocolate agar and modified Thayer-Marti showed 361 in agar, and a Gram stain ‘am-negative diplococcig, The cultur th at 48 hours. The most likely failure for ‘ably with aminoglycoside therapy 'seudomonas have the enzyme to oxidize: al exudate was plated directly on n was made. The Gram © plates were incubated at 35°C, but had no organism growth is that the:A. wrong media were used B. Gram stain was misread C. organism only grows at room temperature organism requires CO2 for growth 86.A Biomedical Scientist is reading a Gram stain from a CSF and observes many neutrophils and lancet-shaped gram-positive diplococcis, Which set of chemistry and microbiological CSF results would most likely be seen in someone with this type of infection? CSF results. WBC Glucose Protein A increased increased increased B decreased decreased decreased Gg Increased decreased increased D decresed increased decreased Avresult A B. result B Keesult C D. result D 387, Vibrio cholerae can be isolated best from feces/rectal swabs on ‘eosin methylene blue (EMB) agar Zsvlsten °F faecal caliper (ertersccg> ein : i. : Sh Gphy dace ate \ Hektoen enteric (HE) agar Fer ve cm ‘ fey regonery op Galmenella cind Ggablr. pum ethan f/ C.Salmonella Shigella (SS) agear 4 ..d/. teh aff. Pr thiosulfate citrate bile salts sucrose (TCBS) agar ~ Vibro cekenae. 88. Diagnosis of typhoid fever can best be confirmed by culture of: A. stool B. urine fPtooa a789. Most commercially available blood culture media such as the BACTEC blood culture medium contain sodium polyanetholsulfonate (SPS). SPS is used as anticoagulant for bloud culiures because it; A. inactivates penicitfin and caphalosporins B. prevents clumping of red blood cells inactivates neutrophils and components of serum complement D. facilitates growth of anaerobes 90. The concentration methods for diagnosis of blood parasites include all ofthe following except A-Cellulose Tape Preparation B. Microhaematocrit centrifugation technique (Woo method) ©. Triple centrifugation technique D. Knott’s concentration technique 91. Where a patient’s urine has a chylous appearance, what kind of parasite m suspected? A. Schistosoma haematobium B. Onchocerea volvulus 2. Wuchereria bancrofii D. Leishmania donovani A yeor Ad Mis patient pee: si dieoneden ables a bet cmos Cake mits a Ne tab pean vost neaanue fer pe select 92. What is the likely organism responsible for this condition? A. Giardia lamblia B. Cryptosporidium parvum ©. Chilomastix mesnili 5. Entamocba histolytica 93. In a disk diffusion susceptibility test, which of the following can result if disks are placed on inoculated media and left at room temperature for an hour before incubation? A. the antibiotic would not diffuse into the medium, resulting in no zone 18|89. Most commercially available blood culture media such as the BACTEC blood culture nedium contain sodium polyanetholsulfonate (SPS). SPS is used as anticoagulant for blood cultures because itz A, inactivates penicitfin and caphalosporins B. prevents clumping of red blood cells inactivates neutrophils and components of serum complement D. facilitates growth of anaerobes 90. The concentration methods for diagnosis of blood parasites include all ofthe following except A-Cellulose Tape Preparation B. Microhaematocrit centrifugation technique (Woo method) ctr on technique D. Knott's concentration technique 91. Where a patient’s urine has a chylous appearance, what kind of parasite may be suspected? A. Schistosoma haematobium B. Onchocerea volvulus © Wuchereria banerofii D. Leishmania donovani - nie with Olmaxt talrachable. bisecky As ADS paki i peta C a vines KANE won Weey moderic coma ele 8 ALI TRS i Bamber, 92. What is the likely organism responsible for this condition? A. Giardia lamblia B. Cryptosporidium parvum C. Chilomastix mesnili eleven iyi 93. In a disk diffusion susceptibility test, which of the following can result if disks are placed on inoculated media and left at room temperature for an hour befare incubation? A. the antibiotic would not diffuse into the medium, resulting in no zone 18|4 95 96. B. zones of smaller diameter would result PLoones of larger diameter would result C. there would be no effect on the final zone diameter Most commercially available blood culture media such as the BACTEC blood culture medium contain sodium polyanetholsulfonate (SPS). SPS is used as anticoagulant for blood cultures because it: A. inactivates penicillin and caphalosporins B. prevents clumping of red blood cells inactivates neutrophils and components of serum complement D. facilitates growth of anaerobes Which of the following methods is inadequate for the detection of Staphylococcus aureus strains with reduced susceptibility to vancomycin (i.e. vancomycin-intermediate Staph, aureus)? A. broth macroditution B. agar dilution C. gradient diffusion ®. disk diffusion An antibiotic used to suppress or kill contaminating fungi in media is: A, penicillin _Bveycloheximide C. streptomycin D. amphotericin B Quality control results for disk diffusion susceptibility tests yield the following results: aminoglycoside zones too small and penicillin zones too large. This is most likely due to the: A. inoculum being too heavy 19 [Page98. 99, 100. AC pH of Hinton agar being too low D. calcium and magnesium concentration in the agar being too high Indole production in bacteriological cultures containing B.coli is made possible by the production of all the following@xcept PE rryptophan B. Ammonia C. Indole J Hydrogen sulphide All the following p rameters need to be determined in dese on culture plate except, ing bacteria morphology A Margin of colony B. Pigment production D. Elevation of colonies ctionation of colonies are examples of biochemical media commonly used in medical microbiology laboratory except A. Citrate Agar B. Kligler Iron Agar C. Urea Agar b. Phynetoin enteric agar DlPagCees AREER ATE Wea oN TS LICENCSURE EXAMS QUESTIONS MICROBIOLOGY QUESTIONS 1. In disk diffusion susceptibility testing, as an antimicrobial agent diffuses away from the disk, the concentration of the antibiotic is: A. 8, c D, Increased Decreased ~ the concentration of the agent will be highest next to the disk and will decrease as rom the Unchanged Inoculum dependent 2. An aspirate of a deep wound was plated on blood agar plates and incubated aerobically and anaerobically. At 24 hours there was growth on both plates. This indicates that the organism is a(n) A 8. ic D, Nonfermenter Obligate anaerobe Aerobe Facultative anaerobe van anacrobe that either grows in the presence of air or under conditions of reduced oxygen tension. 3. The expected colony count in a suprapubic urine from a healthy individual is A O.CFU/mL ¥ suprapubic urine is forming units/ml 100 CFU/mt, 1,000 CFU/mL 100,000 CFU/mL, le. Thus no bacterial must be present. NB: CFL/mL is colony 4, Which of the following clean catch urine culture colony counts confirms that the patient has a urinary tract infection? gnpP 10? CFU/mL 40% CFU/mL 10° CFU/mL ¥ No growth 5. A sheep agar plate inoculated with 0.001mL of urine grows 70 colonies of Staphylococcus aureaus. How many colony forming units per mL of urine should be reported? A 8, 70 CFU/ml 700 CFU/ml NB: MOST OF THE ANSWERS HAVE BEEN VERIFIED AND THOSE ONES ARE TICKED IN GREEN. ANSWERS WE ARE NOT SURE OF ARE TICKED IN GREEN WITH STARS OR YELLOW. PLS PLS PLS, IF YOU MAKE A CORRECTION, SHARE WITH US ALL. IF YOU HAVE AN ANSWER TO AN UNSWERED QXN, SHARE, THANKS.. 7,000 cFU/m! D. 70,000 CFU/ml ~ by simple ratio and proportion, If 0.001 produced 70 colonies, then 1ml would produce how many colonies? The answer is 70,000 CFU/ml 6. Organisms that can be easily identified to the species level from ova in fecal specimen include: A, Metagonimus yokogawal, Heterophyes heterophyes 8. Paragonimus westermani, hymenolepis nana v © Necator americanus, Ancylostoma duodenale 0. Taenia solium, Taenia saginata 7-A fibrous skin nodule is removed from the back of a patient. A microfilaria seenupon microscopic exam of the nodule is Wuchereria bancrofti Brugia malay Onchocerca volvulus ¥ toa foo POPP 8, The lab has been using latex agglutination assay to detect Clostridium difficile in stools, which |dentifies *** cell wall antigen. The lab is considering adoption of an ELA method that detects Clostridum difficile toxin A. which of the following would'provide the comparism? Latex agglutination vs culture on cyclohexidine cefoxidine- egg fructose agar Latex agglutination vs ELA vs cell culture cytotoxin assay v ELA vs culture on cyclohexidine cefoxidine- egg fructose agar oo e> ELAvs cell culture cytotoxin assay 9, 10. Anaerobic infections differ from aerobic infection in which of the following? They usually respond favorably with aminoglycoside therapy They usually arise from exogenous sources They are usually polymicrobic poop Gram stains of specimen are less helpful in diagnosis 11. The best procedure to differentiate Listeria monocytogenes from corynebacterium species is: Catalase 8. Motility at 25 °c v degrees colcius C. Motility at 35°C, ©. Gram stain notile at 30 degre icius or below and not motile at about 35 — 37 NB: MOST OF THE ANSWERS HAVE BEEN VERIFIED AND THOSE ONES ARE TICKED IN GREEN, ANSWERS ‘WE ARE NOT-SURE OF ARE TICKED IN GREEN WITH STARS OR YELLOW. PLS PLS PLS, IF YOU MAKE A. CORRECTION, SHARE WITH US ALL. IF YOU HAVE AN ANSWER TO AN UNSWERED QXN, SHARE. THANKS,SSSA iM cere 12. An organism recovered from a sputum has the following characteristics: Culture: growth at 7days on Lowenstein-lensen agar, Incubated under aerobic conditions with CO, at 35°C; Gram stain: delicate branching gram-positive bacilli, Z-N stain: branching, filamentous, “partially” acid-fast bacterium. These results are consistent with which of the following genera? Norcadia ¥ Mycobacterium Actinomyces ooe> Cid Streptomyces 13. An organism previously thought to be nonpathogenic, Moraxella catarrhalis, is now known to'be associated with opportunistic respiratory infection and nosocomial transmission. Characteristic identification criteria include: A. Oxidase negative 8. Carbohydrates negative (asaccharoh lactose ¥ they cannot ferment glucose, sucrose, maltose and Beta lactamase negative Gram negative bacilli 14, A gram-negative diplococcus that grows on modified Thayer-Martin medium can be further confirmed as Neisseria gonorrhoeae if its Oxidase positive, glucose positive, and maltose positive Oxidase positive and glucose positive, maltose negative “” Oxidase positive and maltose positive, glucose negative ones Glucose positive, oxidase negative and maltose negative 15. Which of the following is the most reliable test to differentiate Neisseria Lactamica from Neisseria meningitides? ‘Acid from maltose Growth on modified Thayer-Martin Agar Lactose degradation ti -y are able to produce B-D-galactosidase and ferment lactose oneP Nitrite reduction to nitrogen gas 116. A high vaginal smear is submitted for a Gram stain for Neisseria gonorrhoeae. The biomedical scientist finds the following results on the Gram stain: Many white blood cells; few epithelial cells; many gram-positive bacilli, few gram-negative diplococcic; few gram-positive cocci in chains. The biomedical scientist should: ANB: MOST OF THE ANSWERS HAVE BEEN VERIFIED AND THOSE ONES ARE TICKED IN GREEN. ANSWERS ‘WE ARE NOT SURE OF ARE TICKED IN GREEN WITH STARS OR YELLOW. PLS PLS PLS, IF YOU MAKE A EORRECTION, SHARE WITH US ALL. IF YOU HAVE AN-ANSWER TO AN UNSWERED OXN, SHARE, THANKS.Report out smear positive for gonorrhea v Report out smear negative for gonorrhea C. Request a new specimen due to number of white blood cells D. Not read or report on gonorrhea in gram stain on a vaginal specimen 17. All species of the genus pseudomonas have the enzyme to oxidize Naphthylamine Dimethyleaminobenzaldehyde Glucopyranoside Tetramethyl-para-phenylanediamine vx reaction that depends on the presenee of certain sidases in some bacteria that catalyze the transport of electrons between electron donors in the bacteria ard an oxidation reduction dye, such as tetramethyl-p-phenylenediamine 18. A Gram stain performed on a sputum specimen revealed gram-negative diplococcic within PMNs. Oxidase testing is positive and carbohydrate degradation tests are inert. The organism is: ooeP Neisseria lactamica Moraxella catarrhalis v carbohydrates Neisseria meningitides oo p> Klebsiella pneumonia 19. An antibiotic used to suppress or kill contaminating fungi in media is: Penicillin Cycloheximide [KILLS ALL BACTERIA LEAVING FUNGI INTACT] Streptomycin ‘Amphotericin B v’ [ILLS ALL FUNGI, LEAVING BACTERIA INTACT] oneP 20. In a disk diffusion susceptibility test, which of the following can result if disks are placed on inoculated media and left at room temperature for an hour before incubation? A. The antibiotic would not diffuse in the medium, resulting in no zone B. Zones of small diameter would result C. Zones of larger diameter would result although the bacte’ zone diameter antibiotic would diffuse and kill the bacteria owing optimally 0, There would be no effect on the final A 35 year old AIDS patient presents to the clinic with chronic intractable bloody diarrhea after a trip to the country side. He admits to drinking untreated water from a river. Laboratory examination was negative for malaria and helminthic infections. With this information answer the following questions 21, what is the likely organism responsible for this condition? NB: MOST OF THE ANSWERS HAVE BEEN VERIFIED AND THOSE ONES ARE TICKED IN GREEN. ANSWERS WE ARE NOT SURE OF ARE TICKED IN GREEN WITH STARS OR YELLOW. PLS PLS PLS, IF YOU MAKE A. CORRECTION, SHARE WITH US ALL. IF YOU HAVE AN ANSWER TO AN UNSWERED QXN, SHARE. THANKS.SESSA aL Reto TT A. Giardia lamblia 8. Cryptosporidium parvum C. Chilomastix mesnili D. Entamoeba histolytica ” 22, Asa medical laboratory scientist responsible for screening blood for transfusion, which of the following parasites when found in blood will render the sample unsuitable for transfusion? Naegleria fowleri Balantidium coli Trypanosome rhodesiense ¥ Onchocerca volvulus on p> 23. where a patient’s urine has 3 chylous appearance, what kind of parasite may be suspected? Schistosoma haematobium Onchocerca volvulus ‘Wuchereria bancrofti V eoeP Leshmenia donovani 24. The following serological tests are applied in the diagnosis of parasitic infections except: Complement fixation Enzyme linked immunoassay Indirect fluorescent antibody test Formalin-ethyl-acetate test“ gone 25, The concentration methods for diagnosis of blood parasites include all of the following except: Cellulose Tape preparation v Microhematocrit centrifugation technique (woo method) Triple centrifugation technique Knott's concentration technique poe> CHEMICAL PATHOLOGY QUESTIONS FOR BSc 26. which of the following statements is TRUE about Osmolality? A. Isa measure of the number of moles of solute per litre of solvent [WRONG] per kilogram of solvent, B. Its unit is usually osmol/kg or mmol/kg C._ The physiological normal osmolality is 245 10 295 mmol/kg [WRONG] range is 275-295mmol/ke NB: MOST OF THE ANSWERS HAVE BEEN VERIFIED AND THOSE ONES ARE TICKED IN GREEN. ANSWERS WE ARE NOT SURE OF ARE TICKED IN GREEN WITH STARS OR YELLOW. PLS PLS PLS, IF YOU MAKE A CORRECTION, SHARE WITH US ALL. IF YOU HAVE AN ANSWER TO AN UNSWERED QXN, SHARE. THANKS,D. The recommended clinical formula is 2 x {Nat} WRONG [sec lecture notes of Dr. Chris 6. NOT THE RECOMMENDED FORMULA E._ Itmay be measured direetly vit may be estimated directly with osmometers [see lecture notes of Dr. Chris Obirikorang, ti orang, title “water electrolytes” pay water electrolytes" page 16 27. Hyponatraemia ‘A. Is usually due to excessive sodium losses 8. Is not commonly seen after surgery or trauma C._ In the syndrome of inappropriate secretion of ADH is associated with low urine ‘osmolality 0. May be due to hyperemesis ~ [see lecture notes “wat page 67] E. May be a feature of hyperthyroidism electrolytes” by Dr. Chris Obirikorai 28. Estimated GFR (eGFR) A. 1s valid in all age groups 8. Is auseful assessment of the progress of acute renal failure G_Can be used to assess renal function in pregnancy D. Is the basis for the classification of chronic kidney disease v E._ Inthe normal range rules out chronic kidney disease 29. in order to determine the glomerular filtration rate (GFR), one must estimate the following: A. The plasma volume B. The plasma [ BUN] C. The blood volume over a specified period of time D. The urine [ creatinine ] “ E. Plasma alumi 30. Plasma creatinine ‘A. Is a useful screening test for the presence of renal tubular disease T 8. Is often reduced in patients with hepatic failure T C., Is unaffected by changes in diet F D.. Tends to rise with age F E. Assays may be subject to interference T [PLS HELP Us DECIDE WHICH IS THE MOST APPROPRIATE ANSWER | ‘Which of the following is a cause for metabolic alkalosis? A. Starvation NB: MOST OF THE ANSWERS HAVE BEEN VERIFIED AND THOSE ONES ARE TICKED IN GREEN. ANSWERS WE ARE NOT SURE OF ARE TICKED IN GREEN WITH STARS OR YELLOW. PLS PLS PLS, IF YOU MAKE A CORRECTION, SHARE WITH US ALL, IF YOU HAVE AN ANSWER TO AN UNSWERED QXN, SHARE. THANKS.SETA a ROTO No TT 8. Diabetic ketoacidosis C. Severe diarrhea D. Loss of bicarbonate from the body E. Antacid overdose v 32, which of the following substance can be used in the measurement of Glomerular filtration rate?. Insulin Albumin Creatinine v Bilirubin Potassium monp> 33. Which of the following is observed in the Zollinger-Ellison syndrome? Gall stones in less than 20% of all cases. More females are affected than males Gastric acid output is decreased Hollander test is important Excessive production of acid by the stomach’v mong 34, Factors to consider in selecting a plasma enzyme for diagnosis include all of the following EXCEPT Sensitivity Specificity Half-life of the enzyme Molecular weight of the enzyme v mooge> Rate of release of the enzyme 35. Low levels of alkaline phosphatase are found in A. Hepatocellular diseases Cretinism 7” Hyperparathyroidism Paget's disease Cholestasis 36. which of the following statements about lactate dehydrogenase is TRUE? A. Catalyses the irreversible conversion of lactate to pyruvate [REVRSIBLE} B. There are at least 10 isoenzymes [WRONG] there are § isomers, LDH-1,2,3,4; C._Itis found mainly in smooth muscles NB: MOST OF THE ANSWERS HAVE BEEN VERIFIED AND THOSE ONES ARE TICKED IN GREEN. ANSWERS WE ARE NOT SURE OF ARE TICKED IN GREEN WITH STARS OR YELLOW. PLS PLS PLS, IF YOU MAKE A. CORRECTION, SHARE WITH US ALL. IF YOU HAVE AN ANSWER TO AN UNSWERED OXN, SHARE. THANKS.D. Exists in body tissues as a tetramer consisting of four polypeptide chains VE. Has a molecular weight of 88,000 kDa [WRONG] Molecular weight is 135,000 37. which of the follo 1g can be classified as a Tumour marker? Glucagon A125 ¥ C. C peptide HbAlc cystacin mopp 38. Which of the following tumour marker js correctly matched to its associated tumour? A. CEA: breast cancer [WRONG] marker for colorectal or bronchial carcinomas 8. CA19.9 — pancreatic cancer v C._B2-microglobulin ~ adenocarcinoma [WRONG] lymphocytic leukemia, non-Hodgkin's lymphoma . Carcino-embryonic antigen ~ Non Hodgkin's lymphoma [WRONG] marker for colorectal or bronchial carcinomas £. CA15-3~colon cancer (WRONG] breast cancer 39. Human chorionic gonadotropin A. Amarker of germ cell tumours and trophoblastic disease v B. It's @ glycoprotein with 2 molecular weight of 450KD [WRONG. IT’S 45KD] ._Itis composed of two similar subunits WRONG] COMPOSED OF TWO DISSIMILAR SUBUNITS D. Its synthesized by the gonads [WRONG] BY SYNCTIOTROPHOBLASTS OF THE PLACENTA, E. Shows 10% sensitivity for choriocarcinoma [WRONG] SHOWS 100% SENSITIVITY FOR CHORIOCARCINOMA 40. Unconjugated bilirubin ‘A. Iswiater soluble [WRONG] not water soluble B. Gives direct Jendrassik-Grof reaction {WRONG] gives indirect reaction C. Is not bound to proteins in plasma [WRONG] reversibly bound to albumin for transport D. Isdecreased in hemolytic anaemia [WRONG] increased E, Is increased in post hepatic jaundice [WRONG] reduced [PLS INCASE OF CORRECTION DON’T HESITATE TO DRAW THE CLASS’ ATTENTION TO IT] 41. inthe diagnosis of diabetes [PLS HELP US DECIDE THIS QUESTION) An elevated HBAlc is very diagnostic v B._ Patients with results demonstrating impaired glucose tolerance are at increased cardiovascular risk. C._Asingle elevated plasma glucose result is sufficient in itself F D. Absence of glucose in urine is not diagnostic T NB: MOST OF THE ANSWERS HAVE BEEN VERIFIED AND THOSE ONES ARE TICKED IN GREEN, ANSWERS WE ARE NOT SURE OF ARE TICKED IN GREEN WITH STARS OR YELLOW. PLS PLS PLS, IF YOU MAKE & CORRECTION, SHARE WITH US ALL. IF YOU HAVE AN ANSWER TO AN UNSWERED OXN, SHARE. THANKS.REY in aaa E. An oral glucose tolerance test is always required F 42. Monitoring diabetes control Can be adequately achieved using urine tests for glucose By HBAlc measurement can be unreliable in p: ents with anaemia ¥ Using fructosamine reflects control over the previous 40-50 days Using home blood glucose measurement is essential in all patients By HbAlc measurement can give artefactually elevated results in patiens with haemoglobinopathies. [PLS HELP US DECIDE] mongep CASE STUDY 23 year old female had her fasting plasma lipid checked by her family doctor because her father had been admitted at the hospital and diagnosed of myocardial infarction, aged 44 years. Her lipid profile results are as follows: [Analyte [Results Reference ranges Cholesterol [9.40 mmole 2 3.50-5.0 mmol/L a [22 mmolf a 10-18 mmol/L (0D=0.08, ce 05-075 mmol/L The biomedical scientist had the optical density of her triglycerides as 0.09, mean standard absorbance 0.20 and standard concentration of 2.28 mmol/L. 43, What is the triglycerides concentration from the above case study? 5.03 mmol/L 4.03. mmol/L. 1.03 mmol/L ¥ 3.03 mmol/L 450 mmol/L. mone> 44, Calculate the { LDL | of the above patient A. 7.93 mmol/L B. 8.20 mmol/L C. 8.79 mmol/L D. 7.73 mmol/Lv [LDL = TOTAL CHOLESTEROL ~ HDL- VLDL} E. 7.03 mmol/t NB: MOST OF THE ANSWERS HAVE BEEN VERIFIED AND THOSE ONES ARE TICKED IN GREEN. ANSWERS WE ARE NOT SURE OF ARE TICKED IN GREEN WITH STARS OR YELLOW, PLS PLS PLS, IF YOU MAKE A CORRECTION, SHARE WITH US ALL. IF YOU HAVE AN ANSWER TO AN UNSWERED OXN, SHARE. THANKS.45, Very low density lipoprotein (VLDL) concentration of the patient is A. 167 mmol/L B. 1.03 mmol/L ©. 1.20'mmol/L D. 0.47 mmol/L ¥ VLDL = 76/5 (mg/dL) OR TG/2.2 (mmol/L) when TS<300me/dL. E. 0.84 mmol/L 46, In subclinical hyperthyroidism TSH, FT4 and FT3 are all increased TSH, FT4 and FT3 are all decreased TSH is suppressed but FT4 and FT3 always fall within the reference range V TSH Is suppressed but FT4 or FT3 are always raised ] E, TSH receptor antibodies are always positive coeP 47. The following proteins increase in serum during the acute ~ phase response EXCEPT Albumin v [NEGATIVE PHASE PROTEIN SUCH AS TRANSFERRIN] C reactive protein Cerulopiasmin Anti ~ protease inhibitors Fibrinogen nmeoe Py 48, The most useful laboratory tests for investigating suspected iron deficiency include A Serum [iron] 3. Serum [ ferritin] v Serum [ transferrin] D. Faecal occult blood E. Serum transferrin receptor 49, Uric acid A. Ishighly soluble in urine, especially under acidic conditions F B, Is reabsorbed in the proximal tubule ~~ C. Undergoes neither secretion nor reabsorption in the distal tubule F D. Is the end — product of metabolism of both pyrimidine and purine bases of DNA F Can be converted in vivo in man naturally to allantoin 50. Which of the following statement is TRUE about CSF? A. CSF glucose ranges from 2.1~3.3 mmol/L F 8. The entire volume of CSF is replaced within 4-6 hours vv NB: MOST OF THE ANSWERS HAVE BEEN VERIFIED AND THOSE ONES ARE TICKED IN GREEN. ANSWERS WE ARE NOT SURE OF ARE TICKED IN GREEN WITH STARS OR YELLOW. PLS PLS PLS, IF YOU MAKE A CORRECTION, SHARE WITH US ALL. IF YOU HAVE AN ANSWER TO AN UNSWERED OXN, SHARE. THANKS.Seana aS Alumber puncture for CSF glucose analysis should ‘only obtained after the patient has fasted F CSF glucose ranges from 100 - 200 mmol/L F CSF glucose may be low in patients with acute meningitis “| ATOLOGY QUESTIONS Which of the following cells does not undertake phagocytosis? Neutrophils Dendritic cells Macrophages Tlymphocytes 5 lymphocytes monpp 52. Which of the following organs contain resident macrophages? Lungs [dust cell] liver {kupfier ce Spleen (red pulp macrophage) Lymph nodes (sinus histiocyt All of the above v Ponp> 53. All myeloproliferative disorders arise from precursors of the: iineage in the bone marrow 'yeloid lineage in the bone marrow ¥~ Both lymphoid and myeloid lineages D. Erthroid lineage‘in the bone marrow E, None of the above 54. One symptom shown by all myeloproliferative disorders (with the exception of essential thrombocytosis} is A. An enlarged liver C. Anenlarged spleen D. An enlarged lungs E. An enlarged heart 55. Ficoll ~ Paque is a solution of NS: MOST OF THE ANSWERS HAVE BEEN VERIFIED AND THOSE ONES ARE TICKED IN GREEN, ANSWERS WE ARE NOT SURE OF ARE TICKED IN GREEN WITH STARS OR YELLOW. PLS PLS PLS, IF YOU MAKE A CORRECTION, SHARE WITH US ALL. IF YOU HAVE AN ANSWER TO AN UNSWERED QXN, SHARE. THANKS,BES SHARE IT SECURELY WITH FRIENDS. CREATED WITHA GOOD REASON, ALL THE BEST C._Alumber puncture for CSF glucose analysis should only obtained after the patient has fasted F D. CSF glucose ranges from 100-200 mmol/l F £. CSF glucose may be low in patients with acute meningitis v HEMATOLOGY QUESTIONS 51. Which of the following cells does not undertake phagocytosis? Neutrophils Dendritic cells, Macrophages T lymphocytes v B lymphocytes moO wy 52. Which of the following organs contain resident macrophages? Lungs [dust cel Liver (kupffe Lymph nodes [sinus his: All of the above A. 8, Spleen [re o. E 53. All myeloproliferative disorders arise from precursors of the: Lymphoid lineage in the boné marrow Myeloid lineage in the bone marrow Both lymphoid and myeloid lineages Erthroid lineage-in the bone marrow mone None af the above 4. One symptom shown by all myeloproliferative disorders (with the exception of essential thrombocytosis) is An enlarged liver Leukocytosis v An enlarged spleen An enlarged lungs An enlarged heart "On p> 55. Ficoll ~ Paque is a solution of NB: MOST OF THE ANSWERS HAVE BEEN VERIFIED AND THOSE ONES ARE TICKED IN GREEN, ANSWERS WE ARE NOT SURE OF ARE TICKED IN GREEN WITH STARS OR YELLOW. PLS PLS PLS, IF YOU MAKE A CORRECTION, SHARE WITH US ALL. IF YOU HAVE AN ANSWER TO AN UNSWERED OXN, SHARE. THAMES56 57. 60, Ficoll and diatriazoate with calcium disodium EDTA PM400 and diatrizoate with calcium disodium EDTA Ficoll PM400 and sodium diatrizoate with calcium disodium EDTA “ Ficoll M400 and sodium diatrizoate Calcium disodium EDTA money Which of the following is not used in parental testing? Red cell estimation ¥ ABO blood group typing Analysis of some proteins and enzymes [if NA is a protein, then this is not w Using human leukocyte antigen (HLA) antigens Genetic testing rooss Cytogenetic investigations are carried out for the following conditions: Mental retardation Dysmorphic features Delayed features Prenatal diagnosis for the investigation in high risk pregnancies All of the above v monge> Which of the folio, 1g Specimen types is not used in cytogenetic testing? ‘A. Venous blood/cord blood 8. Bone marrow and tumour tissue Seminal fluid v D. Products of conception and fetal tissue E. Skin biopsies Which of the following component measurements is nat part of FBC test RBC count Hematocrit Platelet function test WBC and differential count mp Ae> Platelet count Anaemia is generally considered when haemoglobin concentrations fall below; ‘A. 11g/dl for pregnant women ¥ B. 12g/dl for pregnant women ©. 15g/dl formen NB: MOST OF THE ANSWERS HAVE BEEN VERIFIED AND THOSE ONES ARE TICKED IN GREEN. ANSWERS WE ARE NOT SURE OF ARE TICKED IN GREEN WITH STARS OR YELLOW. PLS PLS PLS, IF YOU MAKE A. CORRECTION, SHARE WITH US ALL. IF YOU HAVE AN ANSWER TO AN UNSWERED QXN, SHARE. THANKS,SAS aA a a ee aT COTO} D. 14 g/dL formen E, 13 g/dL for non-pregnant women 61. In intravascular haemolysis, the Hb released into the blood is immediately bound by whieh ofthe following proteins for clearance in the liver A. Haemojuvelin B. Haemosiderin C. Haptoglobin D, Myogiobi E. Stercoglobin 62, In autoimmune haemolytic anaemia, the antigen-antibody reactions are dependent on the following EXCEPT: Class of antibody Number and spacing of antigenic sites on cell Unavailability of complement Environmental temperature Functional status of reticuloendothelial system money 63. Which of the following is not used to treat cold agglutinin diseases? A. Folic acid supplementation Cytotoxic drugs 8 8, c iterferon ¥ D. Plasmapheresis E. Rituximab 64. In autoimmune haemolytic anaemia, splenectomy does the following? It act as a second line of treatment thas multiple benefits A 8 C._ Itremoves site of haemolysis D. Itdecreases antibody production E All of the above v 65. Which of the following statements about the H antigen is true? A. The H antigen is NOT such an essential precursor to the ABO blood group antigens 8. The H locus is located on chromosome 9 C. The H antigen is a carbohydrate sequence with carbohydrates linked mainly to proteins v’D. ‘The H antigen contains 6 exons that span more than Skb of genomic DNA NB: MOST OF THE ANSWERS HAVE BEEN VERIFIED AND THOSE ONES ARE TICKED IN GREEN. ANSWERS WE ARE NOT SURE OF ARE TICKED IN GREEN WITH STARS OR YELLOW. PLS PLS PLS, IF YOU MAKE A CORRECTION, SHARE WITH US ALL. IF YOU HAVE AN ANSWER TO AN UNSWERED QXN, SHARE, THANKS.66. 6 87, E. All of the above Which of the following statements about the Lewis antigen system is false? A. Lewis antigens are expressed on the surface of endothelium B. Lewis blood group is a minor blood group that relates to salivary secretor status C. Salivary ABH secretor determination is based on testing for your blood group antigens in your saliva v D. Finding your Lewis blood group will tell your ABH secretor status irrespe group v*4### Most ABH secretors have a Lewis group of Lea-, Leb+ [THIS IS TRUE, PLS CHECK LECTURE NOTES BY LILIAN “OTHER BLOOD GROUP SYSTEMS” SLIDE 9] e of your blood The following are true about reticulocytes: A. They are young anucleated red cells which retain RNA v [THE KEYWORD “REMNANT” WAS ABSENT ®] They are stainable by special stains v ** (NEEDS CLARIFICATION) They stain well by the Romanowsky stains They are young non-nucleated red cells containing remnants of DNA F [RNA NOT DNA} They decrease in number following acute haemorchage F moo p can't see quite well @ A technologist stained two tissue sections with Alcian Blue (pH 2.5) and Alcian Blue (pH 1) separately. Which of these are right? |. Only sulphated mucins will be stained by Alcian Blue (pH 2.5) ii. Only sulphated mucins will be stained by Alcian Blue (pH 1) iil, _ Sulphated and non-sulphated mucins will be stained by Alcian blue (pH 2.5) iv. Sulphated and non-sulphated mucins will be stained by Alcian blue (pH 1) A. and i B. Il and lil v [ONLY SULPHATED MUCINS STAIN AT PH 1, HOWEVER BOTH SULPHATED AND. NON SULPHATED MUCINS WILL STAIN AT PH 2.5} c. landiv D. tandiv E. Allof the above Atissue section on a glass slide was deparaffinized and dehydrated before treated with proteinase K to remove proteins. This procedure is performed in: NB: MOST OF THE ANSWERS HAVE BEEN VERIFIED AND THOSE ONES ARE TICKED IN GREEN. ANSWERS wi /E ARE NOT SURE OF ARE TICKED IN GREEN WITH STARS OR YELLOW. PLS PLS PLS, IF YOU MAKE A CORRECTION, SHARE WITH US ALL IF YOU HAVE AN ANSWER TO AN UNSWERED QXN, SHARE. THANKS,PS MS TAME ‘A. In situ Hybridization B H&E PAS D. Western blotting E. PCR 88, The main rationale for cervical cytology screening in asymptomatic population is to detéck A. Cervical metaplasia B. Cervical infections C. Cervical tumour diathesis D. Cervical cancer precursors ~ E._None of the above ‘89. Which of the following is a Papanicolaou stain? ‘A. Haematoxylin, Orange G and EA 73 B. Haematoxylin, Orange G and EA 23 ‘Haematoxylin, Orange G and EA 50 ¥ i Orange G and EA 43 ‘the above |2f 252 year old woman; which cellular pattern is most likely? imermediate and basat cells more parabasal cells v Sesai cells large superficial and small intermediate cells ©. Small parabasalcells, large intermediate and small basal cells Si Proteolytic digestion antigen retri jeval method uses the following enzymes to cleave the formalin Induced cross-links EXCEPT: Trypsin Dextrase* v Chymotrypsin Protease roo ep Proteinase kK 92. In an immunoperoxidase procedure for the demonstration of e: of breast *** cells, the primary antibody was optimally at a antibody would be required to prepare a total volume of aml? strogen progesterone receptor status ition factor 1:100. How much primary AL 2ul NB: MOST OF THE ANSWERS HAVE BEEN VERIFIED AND THOSE ONES ARE TICKED IN GREEN. ANSWERS WE ARE NOT SURE OF ARE TICKED IN GREEN WITH STARS OR YELLOW. PLS PLS PLS, IF YOU MAKE A CORRECTION, SHARE WITH US ALL. IF YOU HAVE AN ANSWER TO AN UNSWERED QXN, SHARE. THANKS,SNL TET ‘A. In situ Hybridization B H&E CPAs D. Western blotting E. PCR 88, The main rationale for cervical cytology screening in asymptomatic population is to detect: A. Cervical metaplasia B. Cervical infections C. Cervical tumour diathesis D. Cervical cancer precursors v E, None of the above 89. Which of the following is a Papanicolaou stain? Haematoxylin, Orange G and EA 73 Haematoxylin, Orange G and £A 23, Haematoxylin, Orange G and EA 50 Haematoxylin, Orange G and EA 43 E. None of the above 90. In the smear of a 52 year old woman, which cellular pattern is most likely? ceo on Superficial, intermediate and basalcalls Intermediate, more parabasal cells Basal cells, large superficial and small intermediate cells Small parabasal cells, large intermediate and small basal cells pow> 91. Proteolytic digestion antigen retrieval method uses the following enzymes to cleave the formalin induced cross-links EXCEPT: Trypsin Dextrase* v Chymotrypsin Protease mone Proteinase kK. 82. Inan immunoperoxidase procedure for the demonstration of estrogen progesterone receptor status of breast *** cells, the primary antibody was optimally at a dilution factor 1:100, How much primary antibody would be required to prepare a total volume of 3ml? AL 2uL NB: MOST OF THE ANSWERS HAVE SEEN VERIFIED AND THOSE ONES ARE TICKED IN GREEN. ANSWERS WE ARE NOT SURE OF ARE TICKED IN GREEN WITH STARS OR YELLOW. PLS PLS PLS, IF YOU MAKE A. CORRECTION, SHARE WITH US ALL. IF YOU HAVE AN ANSWER TO AN UNSWERED QXN, SHARE. THANKS,B. 10pL c. 20pLv D. 100 pL E. 1000! [@ PLS HELP US CALCULATE. @ ] 94. When polyethylene giycol coating fixative is used in a cervical smear, the coating must be completely removed because The nuclear membrane will be distorted The cell will be enlarged The nuclear staining will be impaired v The cells become “rounded up” Cytoplasm will stain eosinophilic 95. You received a batch of cytology slides for reporting. On screening you find that there is no differential staining of slides and.all the cells appear pink, The problem is due to: A. Use of greater concentration of aleahol fixative than recommended 8. The slides remaining for too long in aleohol rinses during staining re to remove excess haematoxylin fromthe cytoplasm with HCI D.._ Slides being allowed insufficient time in the haematoxylin £. The EA solution being too weak for prolonged usage 96. In regressive staining: ‘A. Lower concentration of haematoxylin is used 8. More concentrated haematoxylin is used v Timing is very important Nucleus is stained to desired intensity factor Periodic examination of slides is important 97. Incytocentrifugation:*** A. Cells are spanned directly into tubes 8, Monolayer of cells is prepared ¥ C. Cells cover most of the slide D. Mucinous samples are appropriate E. Romanowsky stain cannot be used 98." In membrane filtration: A. Positive pressure cannot be used NB: MOST OF THE ANSWERS HAVE BEEN VERIFIED AND THOSE ONES ARE TICKED IN GREEN, ANSWERS WE ARE NOT SURE OF ARE TICKED IN GREEN WITH STARS OR YELLOW. PLS PLS PLS, IF YOU MAKE A CORRECTION, SHARE WITH US ALL. IF YOU HAVE AN ANSWER TO AN UNSWERED QXN, SHARE. THANKS.CME See Suitable semples include very cellular fluids Papanicolaou stain produces poor result Fixed fluid samples can be used Cell loss is quite high v none 98. Herpes simplex cervicitis: |s caused by HSV type 1 F (TYPE 2) Produces peri-nuclear halo in superficial cells. A. 8 C. Causes extensive cytolysis of intermediate cells D. Produce elementary bodies in parabasal cells E May show intranuclear inclusions in Pap smear 100. in the Van Gieson stain A. Collagen stains differentially from reticulin fibres F B. Aldehyde fuschsin stains muscle fibres purple F C. Picric acid molecules penetrate all tissue structures D. Erythrocytes are stained red F E. Harris! haematoxylin is used as the nuclear stain F PLS THE ANSWERS NEED REVIEW. DO WELL TO ALERT FRIENDS ON ANY CORRECTIONS MADE DURING THE CAUSE OF YOUR REVIEW OF THE QUESTIOINS, NB: MOST OF THE ANSWERS HAVE BEEN VERIFIED AND THOSE ONES ARE TICKED IN GREEN. ANSWERS. WE ARE NOT SURE OF ARE TICKED IN GREEN WITH STARS OR YELLOW. PLS PLS PLS, IF YOU MAKE A CORRECTION, SHARE WITH US ALL. IF YOU HAVE AN ANSWER TO AN INSWERED QXN, SHARE. THANKS: