Disclaimer:

Medicine and respiratory therapy are continuously changing

practices. The author and publisher have reviewed all information
in this report with resources believed to be reliable and accurate
and have made every effort to provide information that is up to
date with the best practices at the time of publication. Despite our
best efforts we cannot disregard the possibility of human error
and continual changes in best practices the author, publisher, and
any other party involved in the production of this work can
warrant that the information contained herein is complete or fully
accurate. The author, publisher, and all other parties involved in
this work disclaim all responsibility from any errors contained
within this work and from the results from the use of this
information. Readers are encouraged to check all information in
this book with institutional guidelines, other sources, and up to
date information. Respiratory Therapy Zone is not affiliated with
the NBRC, AARC, or any other group at the time of this
publication.

You can get access to our massive bank of TMC Practice Questions
by Clicking Here. J

Copyright © Respiratory Therapy Zone

Introduction

Why hello there! Thank you for downloading this eBook and
getting access to these practice questions and answers.

By doing so, you’re putting yourself in a great position to pass the

TMC Exam on your next attempt.

Did you know that going through practice questions is one of the
most effective ways to prepare for (and pass) the exam?

It’s a strategy that I recommend to each and every one of my

students. And I can always tell a major difference in students who
use practice questions to prepare and those who do not.

And that’s exactly why we created our TMC Test Bank. It’s our
massive bank of over 1000 practice questions, answers, and
rationale explanations.

It’s similar to the questions in this eBook, however, it DOES also

contain the explanation for each question, which goes into detail
and explains why the answer is the correct answer.

This is absolutely critical when it comes to helping you actually

learn and remember the information that you need to know in
order to pass the exam.

You can view this eBook as a “lite version” of our TMC Test Bank.
That is because it only contains the correct answers, not the
rationales that explain why the answer is correct.

So after you go through the practice questions below, if you like

them and find them to be helpful, I definitely recommend that
you check out the TMC Test Bank which will give you access to
many more practice questions, as well as — of course — the
rationales too.
Like I said, they are extremely important if you’re serious about
passing the TMC Exam on your next attempt! Thanks again for
downloading this eBook and I wish you the best of luck!

Now let’s dive into the practice questions! J

1. An adult male patient on ventilatory support has just been

intubated with a 7.0 mm oral endotracheal tube equipped with
a high residual volume low-pressure cuff. When sealing the cuff
to achieve a minimal occluding volume, you note a cuff pressure
of 45 cm H20 What is the most likely problem?
A. The cuff pilot balloon and line is obstructed
B. The pressure manometer is out of calibration
C. The tube chosen is too small for the patient
D. The tube is in the right mainstem bronchus

2. To achieve the highest O2 concentration, you would select

which of the following devices?
A. Venturi mask
B. Face tent
C. Nonrebreathing mask
D. Simple oxygen mask

3. You are asked to position a patient for orotracheal intubation

You should place the patient’s head
A. In the sniffing position
B. Straight with the torso, with the neck hyperextended
C. Tilted forward toward the chest
D. Turned to the right, with the neck hyperextended

4. What maximum flow would you apply to an 8 year-old child

receiving O2 therapy via a high flow nasal cannula?
A. 5 L/min
B. 10 L/min
 C. 15 L/min
D. 20 L/min

5. A patient is intubated with an appropriate size endotracheal

tube and is being ventilated with a positive pressure ventilator.
During inspiration, air is heard at the mouth. Which of the
following should be done?
A. Check the cuff inflation
B. Suction the patient
C. Order a chest X-ray
D. Replace the tube

6. A galvanic oxygen analyzer is being used to monitor a

mechanically ventilated patient The patient is receiving 100%
oxygen, and the analyzer registers 104%. Which of the following
is the most likely cause for this?
A. The analyzer requires calibration
B. The analyzer probe has water condensation on its surface
C. The ventilator’s blending unit requires adjustment
D. The batteries in the analyzer need to be changed

7. A patient has a pH of 7.58 and a PaCO2 of 25 torr. Based on

these data, what is the primary acid-base disturbance?
A. Respiratory alkalosis
B. Metabolic acidosis
C. Respiratory acidosis
D. Metabolic alkalosis

8. To change the level of negative pressure delivered by a pleural

drainage system, you would
A. Adjust the vacuum level on the suction regulator
B. Adjust the water level in the suction control chamber
C. Adjust the water level in the water seal chamber
D. Adjust the size of the atmospheric vent
9. During a single-breath capnogram, the sharp downstroke and
return to baseline that normally occurs after the end-tidal point
indicate:
A. Exhalation of mainly deadspace gas
B. Inspiration of fresh respiratory gas
C. Exhalation of mixed alveolar/deadspace gas
D. Exhalation of mainly alveolar gas

10. Bedside spirometry performed on a patient reveals the

following: Respiratory rate = 22 Tidal volume = 360 mL Dead
space = 150 mL Inspiratory capacity = 1.0 L Based on these data,
what is the patient’s minute ventilation?
A. 3.3 L/min
B. 4.6 L/min
C. 7.9 L/min
D. 22.0 L/min

11. You are monitoring a recent postoperative craniotomy patient

who is being mechanically ventilated and has an ICP of 22 mm
Ng_ The latest ABG results are as follows: Blood Gases pH 7.35
PaCO2 47 mm Hg HCO3 25 mEq/L BE 0 Pa02 89 mm Hg Sa02
96% Based on this information, which of the following is the
most acceptable action?
A. Maintain the current settings
B. Decrease the tidal volume
C. Increase the minute ventilation
D. Add 10 cm H20 PEEP

12. Oropharyngeal and nasopharyngeal airways helps restore

airway patency by:
A. Providing a secure route into the larynx and trachea
B. Separating the tongue from the posterior pharyngeal wall
C. Isolating/protecting the lower airway from aspiration
D. Displacing the soft palate and uvula posteriorly

13. In patients with chronic respiratory disease, pedal edema is a

sign of:
 A. Impaired pulmonary diffusion
B. Hypercapnia (impaired CO2 removal)
C. Right ventricular hypertrophy
D. Systemic hypertension

14. You observe the following on the bedside capnograph display

of a patient receiving ventilatory support. What is your
interpretation of this display data?
A. The capnograrn indicates hyperventilation
B. The capnogram indicates rebreathing
C. The capnograrn indicates a leak around the E I tube
D. The capnograrri indicates hypoventilation

15. Which of the following is the best way to avoid bright lights
interfering with a pulse oximeter’s signal?
A. Recheck and clean the site
B. Shield or cover the probe
C. Apply the probe more tightly
D. Replace the probe

16. You hear a high-pitched sound coming from the pressure

relief valve on a patient’s bubble-type humidifier. Gas can be
felt coming from the valve. Which of the following could cause
this problem?
1. the O2 delivery tubing is obstructed
2. the O2 flow is too high
3. the water reservoir jar lid is screwed on too tightly
4. the water reservoir jar lid is missing an O-ring
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 and 4 only
C. 1 and 4 only
D. 1 and 2 only

17. A patient rescued from a house fire is being monitored in the

intensive care unit Due to suspected CO poisoning, the patient
is on a nonrebreathing mask at 12 L/min. A pulse oximeter
reveals an Sp02 of 99%. An arterial blood sample is obtained
 and sent to the laboratory for gas analysis and hemoximetry
(CO-oximetry). The lab results are as follows: Blood Gas Analysis
pH 7.26, PaCO2 34 mm Hg, Pa02 350 mm Hg, HCO3 10 mEq/L,
Sa02 100%, BE13 mEq/L, Hemoximetry Hb02% 79% COH1D%
19%, MetH1D% 2%. Which result(s) give the best indication of
the patient’s oxygenation?
A. Sa02
B. Hb02%
C. Sp02
D. Pa02

18. Normally, an individual can maintain about what percent of

their maximum voluntary ventilation (MVV) on maximum
exercise?
A. 60-70%
B. 70-80%
C. 80-90%
D. 90-100%

19. Which one of the following is NOT required on a patient’s drug

prescription?
A. Patient’s name
B. Drug name and dose
C. Frequency of administration
D. Contraindications

20. To minimize the risk of aspiration of glottic secretions or cord

damage during removal of an oral endotracheal tube, you
should:
A. Have the patient cough while you quickly pull the tube
B. Provide 100% oxygen for 1-2 minute before extubation
C. Keep the tube cuff pressure below 25-30 cm H20
D. Fully occlude the ET tube while you quickly it out

21. Which of the following would provide the best bedside

assessment of the need for mechanical ventilation in a patient
with Guillain-Barre syndrome?
 A. FRC
B. VC
C. Airway resistance
D. TLC

22. Which of the following is false regarding switching from an

esophageal-tracheal Combitube® (ETC) to an oral
endotracheal tube?
A. The equipment needed is the same as for endotracheal
intubation
B. The patient’s stomach contents should be aspirate
through the 42 tube
C. The body of the tube normally must be positioned in the
trachea
D. The large 41 pharyngeal cuff must be deflated before
laryngoscopy

23. The radial site is preferred for arterial puncture or cannulation

because:
A. The radial artery is the most superficial artery available
B. Other available arteries are too small to easily puncture
C. The radial artery has the highest systolic pressure available
D. Collateral circulation is provided through the ulnar artery

24. Directed coughing is useful in helping maintain bronchial

hygiene in all of the following patients categories EXCEPT:
A. Bronchiectasis
B. Acute asthma
C. Cystic fibrosis
D. Spinal cord injury

25. While using an ICU ventilator with its optional air compressor
running, you note that the low air pressure alarm suddenly
sounds. Which of the following would the best initial action in
this situation?
1. adjust and analyze FIO2
2. connect to a 50 psig air source
 3. replace the air compressor filters
4. replace the air compressor
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 4 only
D. 3 and 4 only

26. The normal apical impulse (PMI) usually is identified where?

A. 3rd right intercostal space, left sternal border
B. 3rd left intercostal space, anterior axillary line
C. 5th right intercostal space, midclavicular line
D. 5th left intercostal space, midclavicular line

27. Proper technique in the auscultatory method of measuring

blood pressure includes which of the following? 1. inflate the
cuff to 30 mm Hg above brachial pulse stoppage 2. place the
lower cuff edge 3 inches above the antecubital fossa 3. deflate
the cuff at a rate of 2 to 3 mm Hg per second 4. place bell of
stethoscope over the brachial artery
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

28. In reviewing the chart of a 55 year old male patient, you note
the following symptoms: obesity, loud snoring and insomnia.
These findings are most consistent with which of the following
diagnoses?
A. Pulmonary emphysema
B. Acute asthma
C. Gullian-Barre syndrome
D. Obstructive sleep apnea

29. During oral intubation of an adult, the endotracheal tube

should be advanced into the trachea about how far?
A. Until the proximal (mouth) end of the tube is at the teeth
B. Just far enough so that the tube cuff is no longer visible
 C. Until its cuff has passed the cords by two to three inches
D. Until its cuff has passed the cords by two to three
centimeters

30. Which of the following endotracheal tube malfunctions could

require extubation and reintubation with a new tube to allow
effective positive pressure ventilation of the patient?
1. a large leak in the cuff of the tube
2. obstruction of the tube that is unrelieved by suctioning
3. separation of the pilot tube from the endotracheal tube
cuff
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

31. When inspecting the X-ray of an out-patient with nephrotic

syndrome, you note a homogeneous area of increased density
that obscures the left costophrenic angle. Which of the
following is the most likely problem?
A. Pleural effusion
B. Bacterial pneumonia
C. Pulmonary edema
D. Atelectasis

32. Which of the following is the most common problem

associated with the removal of an esophageal obturator
airway?
A. Tracheomalacia
B. Gastric insufflation
C. Aspiration
D. Esophageal bleeding

33. The following figure is a statistical quality control plot for PCO2
measurements made by a blood gas analyzer using a control
value of 40 mmHg. The horizontal (x) axis depicts 8-hour shifts.
The vertical (y) axis is PCO2 level, with 38-42 representing + 2
 standard deviations. What type of error is represented by the
series of points labeled ‘B on the plot?
A. Instrument bias
B. Computation error
C. Instrument imprecision
D. Random error

34. A patient’s response to an interview question is initially vague

or unclear. Which of the following responses on your part
would be most appropriate?
A. “Please go on”
B. “You seem to be anxious”
C. “I see why you are so upset”
D. “Please explain that to me again”

35. Which of the following humidification devices would be

appropriate for a patient receiving nasal oxygen therapy at 6
Limn?
A. Unheated bubble humidifier
B. Heated wick-type humidifier
C. Heat and moisture exchanger (HME)
D. Large volume jet nebulizer

36. A 68 year-old female patient with severe COPD has been

provided with educational materials describing essential self-
management activities to help her control her disease. Which
of the following additional support measures would you
consider recommending?
1. counseling/behavior modification interventions
2. telephonic follow-up and/or home health visits
3. social services to address self-management barriers
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2
C. 2 and 3
D. 1, 2 and 3
37. Which of the following best describe the key rationale for
intubating nasally rather than orally’?
A. Nasal tubes are less likely to cause trauma
B. Nasal tubes offer less resistance to gas flow
C. Nasal tubes are less likely to cause infection
D. Nasal tubes are better tolerated by the patients

38. A patient’s respirations are characterized by a gradual increase

and then a gradual decrease in the depth of breathing,
followed by a period of apnea. This pattern is known as which
of the following?
A. Blot’s breathing Ai
B. Cheyne-Stokes breathing
C. Kussmaul’s breathing
D. Apneustic breathing

39. All of the following would be essential medication history

information to obtain for a patient admitted for an acute
exacerbation of asthma EXCEPT:
A. Frequency of rescue inhaler usage
B. Use of generic vs brand name medications
C. Patient understanding of controllers vs_ relievers
D. Self-administration techniques

40. The use of pursed-lip breathing during exhalation would be

most common among which of the following patient groups?
A. Diffuse interstitial fibrosis
B. Consolidation of lung tissue
C. Chronic airways obstruction
D. Acute upper airway obstruction

41. Which of the following are acceptable changes in patient

status during a traditional T-tube weaning trial?
I. an increase in respiratory rates of 20/min
II. an increase in cardiac rate of 15/min
III. a 5 mm Hg rise in the arterial PCO2
IV. the development of paradoxical breathing
 A. II and IV only
B. I, ll, and Ill only
C. II and III only
D. I, II, Ill and IV

42. If the rate of breathing increases without any change in total

minute ventilation (VE constant):
A. The alveolar ventilation per minute will increase
B. The alveolar ventilation per minute will decrease
C. The deadspace ventilation per minute will decrease
D. The alveolar ventilation per minute will remain constant

43. All of the following cause false HIGH Sp02 readings when
using a pulse oximeter EXCEPT
A. Dark nail polish
B. Intravenous dyes
C. Carboxyhemoglobin
D. Bright ambient light

44. Which of the following is the most common problem

associated with the removal of an esophageal obturator
airway?
A. Tracheomalacia
B. Gastric insufflation
C. Aspiration
D. Esophageal bleeding

45. A COPD patient is receiving sustained-release theophylline

Adverse effects of this therapy that you should be on guard for
include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Cardiac arrhythmias
B. Nausea/vomiting
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Restlessness and tremors
46. Incentive spirometry is ordered for a female patient after
abdominal surgery_ Which of the following statements would
be the most appropriate initial explanation of the therapy?
A. “Your doctor has ordered this therapy to prevent
atelectasis.”
B. “We are trying to improve your lung volume”
C. “This therapy will help you take deep breaths and expand
your lungs”
D. “You may experience pain and lightheadedness from this
therapy”

47. Following a myocardial infarction, a 60-year-old patient with

congestive heart failure is being mechanically ventilated. The
patient’s blood pressure is 95/60 mm Hg. Ventilator settings
are as follows: FIO2 0.45 Rate 12 Tidal volume 600 mL PEEP 12
cm H20 While awaiting blood gas results, you obtain an Sp02
of 78%. Which of the following actions would you take at this
time?
A. Increase the F102 to 1.0
B. Decrease the rate to 6
C. Increase the PEEP to 16 cm H20
D. Initiate inverse ratio ventilation

48. Which of the following statements regarding CENTRAL

cyanosis is FALSE?
A. It is an unreliable indicator of hypoxemia and hypoxia
B. It is best observed in the capillaries of the lips and gums
C. It results from excessive reduced Hb in the venous blood
D. It may occur even in the presence of adequate O2 delivery

49. Which of the following are FALSE regarding oropharyngeal

airways?
A. Incorrect placement can worsen airway obstruction
B. They are contraindicated for use with infants and children
C. They all consist of a flange, body and channel(s)
D. They should only be used by trained personnel
50. Which of the following is the most common problem
associated with the removal of an esophageal obturator
airway?
A. Tracheomalacia
B. Gastric insufflation
C. Aspiration
D. Esophageal bleeding

51. A patient has a minute volume of 7.50 L/min and is breathing

at a rate of 16 breaths/min. What is his average tidal volume?
A. 120 mL
B. 215 mL
C. 350 mL
D. 470 mL

52. To minimize the risk of aspiration of glottic secretions or cord

damage during the removal of an oral endotracheal tube, you
should:
A. Have the patient cough while you quickly pull the tube
B. Provide 100% oxygen for 1-2 minute before extubation
C. Keep the tube cuff pressure below 25-30 cm H20
D. Fully occlude the ET tube while you quickly pull it out

53. Which of the following is false regarding switching from an

esophageal-tracheal Combitube® (ETC) to an oral
endotracheal tube?
A. The equipment needed is the same as for endotracheal
intubation
B. The patient’s stomach contents should be aspirate
through the #2 tube
C. The body of the tube normally must be positioned in the
trachea
D. The large #1 pharyngeal cuff must be deflated before
laryngoscopy

54. All of the following are common causes of fluid overload

(overhydration) in patients EXCEPT:
 A. Congestive heart failure
B. Hemorrhage
C. Renal failure
D. Overinfusion of fluids

55. At rest, the normal tidal movement of the diaphragm is

approximately:
A. 6-10 cm
B. 1-2 cm
C. 30-40 cm
D. 6-10 in

56. A physician has requested your assistance in extubating an

orally intubated patient. Which of the following should be done
BEFORE the tube itself is removed?
1. suction the pharynx
2. preoxygenate the patient
3. confirm cuff inflation
4. suction the ET tube
A. 2 and 4 only
B. 1, 2 and 4 only
C. 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

57. A patient suddenly loses consciousness. Which of the

following is the first procedure you should perform to maintain
an open airway in this patient?
A. Inserting a laryngeal mask airway
B. Applying the “jaw thrust” maneuver
C. Inserting an oropharyngeal airway
D. Applying the “head-tilt/chin-lift” maneuver

58. When open to the atmosphere, a manometer calibrated in cm

H2O units should read:
A. 0 cm H2O
B. 1 atmosphere
C. 760 cm H2O
 D. 1034 cm H2O

59. A patient has a pH of 7.58 and a PaCO2 of 25 torr. Based on

these data, what is the primary acid-base disturbance?
A. Respiratory alkalosis
B. Metabolic acidosis
C. Respiratory acidosis
D. Metabolic alkalosis

60. The methylene blue test is used to confirm:

A. Tracheal granuloma
B. “leakage” type aspiration
C. Infection with pneumococcus
D. Artificial airway obstruction

61. Bronchial breath sounds heard over the periphery indicate:

A. Normal lungs
B. Lung consolidation
C. Small airways obstruction
D. Acute bronchospasm

62. Which of the following endotracheal tube malfunctions could

require extubation and reintubation with a new tube to allow
effective positive pressure ventilation of the patient?
1. a large leak in the cuff of the tube
2. obstruction of the tube that is unrelieved by suctioning
3. separation of the pilot tube from the endotracheal tube
cuff
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

63. While assessing the endotracheal tube cuff pressure in an

intubated patient, you confirm a leak at 18 cm H20 throughout
most of inspiration. You should:
A. Add air to the cuff until a minimal leak is heard
 B. Reassess the cuff pressure during expiration
C. Replace the endotracheal tube with a larger size
D. Inflate cuff until the leak ceases at < 25-30 cm H20

64. A patient has a minute volume of 7.50 L/min and is breathing

at a rate of 16 breaths/min. What is his average tidal volume?
A. 120 mL
B. 215 mL
C. 350 mL
D. 470 mL

65. In most blood gas analyzers, what media is used to calibrate

the pH electrode?
A. Tonometered whole blood samples
B. Commercial calibration control media
C. Precision gas mixtures (02/002)
D. Standardized buffer solutions

66. Which of the following is the approximate total output flow

delivered from a 40% air-entrainment mask operating at 12
L/min?
A. 12 L/min
B. 48 L/min
C. 52 L/min
D. 72 L/min

67. Which of the following parameters is affected when the air-

mix control is changed to 100% oxygen on a pneumatically-
powered IPPB device?
A. Pressure
B. Sensitivity
C. Peak flow
D. Nebulization

68. The proper positioning of an endotracheal tube in an adult is

confirmed by which of the following?
A. 21-23 cm marks at teeth
 B. Adequate airway seal
C. Chest X-ray
D. Neutral head position

69. When inspecting the x-ray of a patient in ICU, you note a large
area of radiolucency between the left lung border and chest
wall and increased density of left lung. Which of the following
is the most likely problem?
A. Pleural effusion
B. Pneumomediastinum
C. Pneumothorax
D. Interstitial infiltration

70. Which of the following would deliver the most particulate

water to a patient’s airway?
A. A bubble humidifier
B. A wick humidifier
C. An ultrasonic nebulizer
D. A jet nebulizer

71. On a pneumatically-powered IPPB device, switching the air-

mix control to 100% oxygen will have which of the following
effects on flow?
A. Make the flow dependent on patient effort
B. Decrease the flow to a lower level
C. Increase the flow to a higher level
D. The change will have no effect on flow

72. Rule-based procedures designed to help detect, respond to

and correct blood gas analyzer or hemoximeter errors over
time best describe:
A. Statistical quality control
B. Machine calibration
C. Preventive maintenance
D. Control media verification
73. To avoid preanalytic errors associated with air contamination
of a blood gas sample, all of the following are appropriate
EXCEPT:
A. Fully expel any bubbles
B. Mix only after bubbles expelled
C. Cap the syringe quickly
D. Place sample in ice slush

Copyright © Respiratory Therapy Zone

Conclusion

That wraps up this eBook! Thanks again for downloading and

making it all the way to the end. If you’re reading this far, then I
know you have what it takes to pass the TMC Exam on your next
attempt.

Like I said, going through practice questions is one of the best

strategies for those who truly want to pass the exam.

The practice questions found in this eBook are helpful, but I’ll be
honest with you. They only scratch the surface of what can be
found inside of our TMC Test Bank.

And thankfully, thousands of students have already used it to pass

the TMC Exam!

So if you’re ready to pass the exam too, I definitely recommend

that you consider checking it out.

Click Here to Learn More About the TMC Test Bank!

One more thing!
How would you like to get new TMC Practice Questions sent to
your inbox every single day?

If this is something that sounds interesting to you, Click Here to

learn more.

As I mentioned before, going through practice questions is one of

the most effective strategies when it comes to passing the TMC
Exam.

Well now, you can get new practice questions delivered straight to
your inbox on a daily basis.

This way, over time, you can master every single topic that you
need to know to increase your chances of passing the exam on
your first (or next) attempt.

Let’s go through an example so that you can see what I’m talking
about.

Here’s an example of a TMC Practice Question:

A 50-year-old man is intubated and receiving mechanical

ventilation with a size 8.0 mm endotracheal tube that is secured
in place. The patient’s cuff pressure is measured at 36 cm H2O.
What would you recommend in this situation?
A. Withdraw the tube 1-2 cm and reassess the patient’s breath
sounds
B. Recommend reintubation with a smaller endotracheal tube
C. Lower the cuff pressure to < 30 cm H2O
D. Recommend ventilation via a tracheostomy instead
Do you know the answer? Not to worry, let’s break it down!

The explanation that you get along with each practice question is
the most important part!

In order to answer this one correctly, you have to know what the
normal values are for cuff pressure. And in this case, you must
know that 36 cm H2O is way too high and could potentially cause
tracheal damage.

So your first action should be to lower the cuff pressure to < 30 cm

H2O and check to make sure that there are not any leaks.

Remember, the cuff pressure should stay between 20–30 cm H2O.

There is no indication to withdraw the tube, and using a smaller

tube would only cause the patient’s peak pressure to increase,
which is something that we do not want.

And also, there is no indication for the insertion of a tracheostomy,

so this tells us that the correct answer has to be C.

The correct answer is: C. Lower the cuff pressure to < 30 cm H2O

Well, what did you think? Do you see how valuable this
information can be??

Are you ready to start receiving these practice questions and

explanations every day?

If so, just click on the link below:

Click Here to Get Daily TMC Practice Questions
References

1. AARC Clinical Practice Guidelines, (2002-2019) Respirator Care.

www.aarc.org.

2. Egan’s Fundamentals of Respiratory Care. (2010) 11th Edition.

Kacmarek, RM, Stoller, JK, Heur, AH. Elsevier.

3. Mosby’s Respiratory Care Equipment. Cairo, JM. (2014) 9th

Edition. Elsevier.

4. Pilbeam’s Mechanical Ventilation. (2012) Cairo, JM. Physiological

and Clinical Applications. 5th Edition. Saunders, Elsevier.

5. Ruppel’s Manual of Pulmonary Function Testing. (2013) Mottram,

C. 10th Edition. Elsevier.

6. Rau’s Respiratory Care Pharmacology. (2012) Gardenhire, DS. 8th

Edition. Elsevier.

7. Perinatal and Pediatric Respiratory Care. (2010) Walsh, BK,

Czervinske, MP, DiBlasi, RM. 3rd Edition. Saunders.

8. Wilkins’ Clinical Assessment in Respiratory Care (2013) Heuer, Al.

7th Edition. Saunders. Elsevier.

9. Clinical Manifestations and Assessment of Respiratory Disease.

(2010) Des Jardins, T, & Burton, GG. 6th edition. Elsevier.

10. Neonatal and Pediatric Respiratory Care. (2014) Walsh, Brian K.

4th edition. RRT. Elsevier.

11. Clinical Application of Mechanical Ventilation (2013) Chang,

David W. 4th edition. Cengage Learning.