1. During IPPB, the patient’s work of breathing may increase due to which of the following factors?

I. The machine sensitivity triggering is set too high

II. The flow rate is low
III. The delivered tidal volume is inadequate
IV. There is no adequate time for passive exhalation
a. I II, IV
b. I, II, III, IV
c. I, II, III
d. II, III, IV

2. A respiratory therapist is making his rounds to his patient in the medical ward. While doing his
monitoring, the oxygen cylinder (H-sized) reading is 1500lbs. When the patient is set to 3L/min
via nasal cannula, calculate the estimated duration of the flow in hours for his next rounds?
a. 29.1
b. 28.1
c. 27.1
d. 26.1

3. Until when must basic life support continue?

a. A resuscitation efforts can be transferred to another responsible person
b. Victim shows signs of regaining consciousness
c. No signs of life remain
d. The rescuer becomes exhausted

4. The following conditions are indications for nitric oxide therapy EXCEPT ______
a. Pulmonary embolism
b. Pulmonary fibrosis
c. Pulmonary hypertension
d. Pulmonary hypotension

5. The respiratory therapist training an emphysemic patient in coughing techniques would AVOID
which of the following?
a. “Take a deep breath and cough”
b. “Take a shallow breath and cough”
c. “Don’t cough- say ha-hahaha in a low tone”
d. “Attempt to huff rather than fully cough”

6. To assure the adequate tracheal blood flow, the cuffs of endotracheal tubes should be
maintained at _____cm H2O or less.
a. 40
b. 30
c. 15
d. 60
7. All of the following are long term therapeutic goals which the respiratory therapist must explain
to the family of a patient with emphysema EXCEPT _______.
a. Improved diaphragmatic breathing
b. Improved sputum clearance
c. Improved ability to do daily activities
d. Lower body weight

8. During a CPR, the anesthesiologist is preparing to administer lidocaine _______. However, the
route of choice is infiltrated. What is the _________ action to be taken at this time?
a. Insert a new IV line and administer lidocaine
b. Instill the lidocaine down the ET tube
c. Administer lidocaine via hand-held nebulizer
d. Administer lidocaine sublingually

9. In which of the following condition is chest percussion needed?

a. Embolism
b. Atelectasis
c. Empyema
d. Bronchiectasis

10. A patient under mechanical ventilation is using pressure support level set at 15cmH2O and PEEP
at 10cmH2O. Which of the following us the patient’s PIP in cmH2O?
a. 19
b. 25
c. 21
d. 23

11. The technique using positive pressure to keep alveoli open and improve gas exchange without
the need for airway intubation is called _______.
a. CPAP
b. NIV
c. IPPB
d. IPV

12. Which statement is BEST differentiates between the head-tilt-chin-lift and the jaw thrust
maneuver;
a. The jaw thrust is used for cervical spine injury while the head-tilt-chin-lift is used as a
primary maneuver.
b. The head tilt opens the airway more than the jaw thrust, allowing for more effective
artificial respirations
c. The head-tilt-chin-lift is for trauma patients and the jaw thrust is for medical patients
d. The jaw thrust requires two EMTs, whereas the head-tilt-chin-lift requires only one.
13. The written objective of the physician for a patient with artificial airway is “to overcome tie
patient’s humidity deficit”. Which of the following devices is appropriate to achieve such
objective?
a. Metered-dose inhaler
b. Small- particle aerosol generator
c. Large-reservoir heated jet nebulizer
d. Small-volumesidestream jet nebulizer

14. To drain the anterior segment of the upper lobes the patient should be placed in a _______
position.
a. Supine
b. Semi-fowler’s
c. Prone
d. Trendelenburg’s

15. Which of the following conditions is most likely to occur when a suction catheter that has an
outer diameter of 6mm was used to aspirate secretions through an endotracheal tube that has
an inner diameter of 9mm?
I. Aspiration of secretions
II. Transient hypoxemia
III. Lobar distention and consolidation
IV. Evacuation of lung air
a. I, II and III
b. I and II
c. I, II, and IV
d. I and III

16. The RT is administering an IPPB treatment to a patient who is in a Fowler’s position. During the
treatment, the patent complains of tingling sensation. What can the respiratory therapist do to
correct this problem?
a. Instruct the patient to breathe slowly
b. Have the patient sit upright in the bed while taking the treatment
c. Encourage the patient to take deeper breaths
d. Increase the pressure being delivered to the patient

17. Which of the following masks has a plastic bag that allows to be filled with pure oxygen and
serves as the reservoir for the next breath of the patient?
a. Non-rebreathing mask
b. Aerosol mask
c. Rebreathing mask
d. Simple mask

18. A dramatic decrease in performance of a patient on SMI therapy would most likely indicate:
I. Lack of motivation
 II. Acute pulmonary disease
III. Need to switch to IPPB
IV. Pneumothorax
a. I, II and III only
b. III and IV only
c. I and II only
d. I, II, III, and IV

19. What is the appropriate endotracheal tube size range in mm for adult men?
a. 8.0 – 9.5
b. 7.5 – 9.0
c. 6.0 – 7.0
d. 7.0 – 7.5

20. What is the formula to calculate the Inspiratory Time?

a. RRE x VT in Liters
b. VT / Flow Rate
c. Flow Rate x RR
d. VT / RR

21. During CPR, where should you check the pulse of an adult patient?
a. Carotid
b. Femoral
c. Brachial
d. Radial

22. Which of the following devices is designed to provide air, supplemental oxygen, and aerosol to
an endotracheal or tracheostomy tube?
a. Simple mask
b. Rebreathing mask
c. T-piece or Brigg’s adapter
d. Non-rebreathing mask

23. What must a respiratory therapist do when an oropharyngeal suction device becomes
obstructed while suctioning?
a. Clear the device of particulate matter
b. Change the collection bottle
c. check the wall outlet vacuum pressure
d. increase the vacuum pressure

24. During the administration of aerosol therapy, the respiratory therapist observes the patient
breathing tidally. What should she do at this time?
a. Have the patient arrive at his own ventilatory pattern
b. Allow tidal breathing because it is appropriate during this therapeutic intervention
 c. Encourage the patient to breathe more quickly to receive more airflow and aerosol into
the lungs over time
d. Instruct the patient to breathe slowly and deeply and breath-hold at end inspiration

25. You are called to start a new aerosolized medication treatment. After reading the physician’s
order, you noticed that the drug dosage is outside the normal department guidelines. Which of
the following actions must you do?
a. Give the treatment as ordered, and add remarks in the chart seeking clarification on the
order
b. Give the treatment as ordered
c. Inform the nurse
d. Contact the physician to confirm his order

26. A two-year old child is admitted to the emergency department with severe asthmatic symptoms.
The attending physician orders a bronchodilator that is available on both solution and MDI
preparations. Which of the following is the appropriate medication delivery system for this
patient?
a. MDI with mask
b. MDI with holding chamber
c. Small volume nebulizer
d. Dry powder inhaler

27. You are asked to adjust the tidal volume of a mechanically ventilated patient on pressure control
ventilation. Which of the following controls would you adjust to achieve this volume?
a. Respiratory rate
b. Flow rate
c. Pressure control level
d. Tidal volume

28. Discomfort due to an ill-fit mask, increase risk of skin breakdown and abdominal distension may
be the problems of patient hooked to _______.
a. Rebreathing mask
b. Nasal mask
c. CPAP mask
d. Venturi mask

29. Identify the oxygen device in ILLUSTRATION 8.

a. Venturi mask
b. Non-rebreathing mask
c. Partial rebreathing mask
d. Rebreathing mask

30. A 6-foot, 195-lb diabetic male is receiving mechanical ventilation. The ventilator setting include:
SIMV mode, VT=900ml, BUR=10, FiO2=40%, PEEP=5cmH2O. Arterial blood gases reveal:
 pH=7.29, pCO2=28mmHg, pO2=81mmHg, HCO3=10mEq/L. Which of the following is the proper
action to consider?
a. Reduce the tidal volume
b. Maintain setting at this time
c. Decrease the rate
d. Increase the PEEP

31. The following are patient’s manifestations and symptoms of exposure to high levels of oxygen
EXCEPT _______.
I. The symptoms become more severe with decrease VC
II. Decrease compliance
III. Crackles and hypoxemia
a. I, II, III
b. II, III
c. II
d. I, II

32. Calculate the lung compliance in ml/cmH2O of a patient under mechanical ventilation having the
following set-up: PEEP=10cmH2O, VT=900ml, Plateau pressure=30cmH2O.
a. 45
b. 40
c. 30
d. 35

33. A 60kg (132lb) patient is being ventilated with a Puritan-Bennett 7200 ventilator with the
following settings: MODE= SIMVV, VT=850ml, Rate=12, FiO2=0.65, PEEP= 3cmH2O. The patient’s
arterial blood gas results are: pH=7.44, PaCO2=35 torr, PaO2=45torr, HCO3=23mEq/l. To improve
the patient’s oxygenation status, the MOST appropriate adjustment would be to?
a. Increase PEEP to 8cmH2O
b. Increase VT to 900ml, FiO2 to 70%
c. Increase FiO2 to 80%
d. Increase VT to 900ml

34. A motorcycle accident patient with multiple trauma has developed ARDS with the following
ventilator settings: VT=900ml, SIMV=10breaths/min, FiO2=60%, PEEP=12cmH2O. ABG results
reveal: pH=7.35, pCO2=44mmHg, pO2=72mmHg and SpO2=93%. The patient is conscious and
pulling on the IV lines and ventilator tubings. You would recommend which of the following at
this time?
a. Sedate the patient
b. Change to Assist/Control mode
c. Restrain the patient
d. Increase the SIMV rate to 12
35. What is the %FiO2 delivered by a non-rebreathing mask?
a. 30 - 40
b. 60 - 80
c. 40 - 60
d. Up to 100

36. What must a rescuer do first when a child shows symptoms of mild foreign body obstruction
(FBO)?
a. Allow the child to clear his/her own airway by coughing
b. Attempt to remove the object by hand
c. Perform the Heimlich maneuver
d. Hold the child upside down and pound on his/her back

37. Which of the following maintenance procedures must a respiratory therapist complete regularly
for an oxygen concentrator used in a patient’s home?
a. Lubricate all oxygen tubing connector
b. Check the electrical system monthly
c. Check pressure in the oxygen reservoir
d. Change filters

38. Which statement(s) represent(s) the proper procedure(s) concerning endotracheal tube cuff
care?
I. Before the cuff is to be deflated, the trachea should suctioned
II. The oropharynx should be thoroughly suctioned before cuff deflation
III. Once the minimal leak has been established, the cuff requires no further attention
IV. A minimal leak established with the ventilator delivering low airway pressure would
inadequately seal the trachea if system pressure suddenly increased.
a. II, IV only
b. III only
c. I, II, III only
d. I, II, IV only

39. When is pre-oxygenation adequate prior to the rapid sequence induction during endotracheal
intubation?
a. Patient does not have clinical signs of hypoxemia
b. Patient’s oxygen saturation is 100%
c. Patient’s oxygen saturation is greater than 90%
d. Patient has been breathing 100% oxygen for at least 5 mins

40. Compute for the FiO2 of 3LPM oxygen.

a. 44
b. 32
c. 40
d. 36
41. Which of the following actions can be considered to reduce the amount of auto-PEEP?
a. Decrease the inspiratory time
b. Decrease the expiratory time
c. Increase the tidal volume
d. Increase the FiO2

42. The concentration of oxygen that is delivered from a manual resuscitator bag to the patient
depends on all of the following EXCEPT _______.
a. Rate and depth of the ventilation breaths
b. Use of a PEEP valve
c. Flow going to the bag
d. Use of reservoir

43. What must a respiratory therapist do to improve the situation of a semi-comatose patient who
frequently has airway obstruction caused by his tongue?
a. Insert a nasopharyngeal airway
b. Insert an oropharyngeal airway
c. Insert a nasal endotracheal tube
d. Insert an oral endotracheal tube

44. What is the primary goal of educational component of pulmonary rehabilitation?

a. To encourage the patient to get family members to exercise
b. To teach a patient about the disease process
c. To warn the patient about the dangers of smoking
d. To provide a framework for self-care

45. Why is the nasal mucosa an important component of the respiratory system?
a. It reduces turbulence of inspired air
b. It prevents infections from penetrating the respiratory tract
c. It warms, humidifies, and filters the inhaled air
d. Is necessary for taste and smell

46. Which of the following statements are true concerning endotracheal tube placement and cuff
inflation pressure?
I. Normal insertion depth of the tube for an adult is 23cm from the teeth
II. The tube should NOT be secured until the placement of the tube is confirmed by
auscultation.
III. Intracuff pressure should be maintained less than 18mmHg
IV. Capnography might be helpful to determine tube placement
a. I, II, IV only
b. I, III only
c. I, II, III, IV
d. II, IV only
47. How many segments are there in the right lung?
a. 8
b. 10
c. 12
d. 9

48. Which of the following statements is true about positive expiratory pressure (PEP) therapy?
a. Does not use diaphragmatic breathing
b. Patient inhales larger than normal tidal volume
c. Forcefully uses huffing maneuver to clear secretions
d. An alternative to chest physiotherapy

49. A patient is lying on his right side with the head of the bed lowered. Which lung segment would
drain in this position?
a. Posterior basal segment of the left lower lobe
b. Apical segment of the left lower lobe
c. Lateral basal segment of the left lower lobe
d. Lingular process of the left lung

50. What is the average distance from the teeth to the carina?
a. 29 cm
b. 27 cm
c. 23 cm
d. 25 cm
51. A respiratory therapist is preparing to suction a patient admitted in the ICU and finds a half-filled
one-liter bottle of saline for irrigation at the bedside table. Which of the following statements is
relevant to this situation?
a. Saline to be used for rinse solution must be labeled “saline for injection”
b. Saline should be no less concentrated than 3%NaCl if it is to be used as rinse solution
c. Saline should be no more concentrated than ¼ normal saline if it is to be used as a rinse
solution
d. Saline may be used if it was opened within the last 8 hours, and date and time are
recorded on the bottle

52. Which of the following conditions indicate postural drainage with percussion?
I. Pure panlobular emphysema
II. Chronic bronchiectasis
III. Empyema
IV. Cystic fibrosis
a. I, II, IV
b. II, III
c. II, IV
d. II, III, IV
53. The use of oropharyngeal airways may be hazardous in which of the following conditions?
I. Epiglottis may be pushed in the laryngeal area
II. Tongue may be pushed back in the throat
III. May cause aspiration
IV. Unconscious patients might not be able to tolerate it
a. III, IV only
b. I, II, III, IV
c. I, II only
d. I, II, III only

54. What is the minimum acceptable I:E ratio during an IPPB treatment?
a. 1:2
b. 1:1
c. 1:3
d. 1:1.5

55. Which of the following statement regarding the function of vocal cords during swallowing is
TRUE?
a. It opens to help protect the lower airway
b. It closes to help protect the upper airways
c. It closes to help protect the lower airways
d. It opens to help protect the upper airways

56. Calculate the duration of flow for this cylinder when it is three-fourths full and operating an
aerosol device at 12L/min.
a. 7.5 hours
b. 7.7 hours
c. 7.9 hours
d. 7.1 hours

57. A post-operative patient is to be treated for the prevention of atelectasis. The patient is still
heavily sedated. Which type of therapy should be recommended?
a. IPPB
b. Flutter valve
c. PEP
d. Incentive Spirometry

58. Which of the following medical gases is the air that prevents alveolar collapse because it does
not cross the alveolar-capillary membranes and remains in the airways and alveoli?
a. Nitrogen
b. Oxygen
c. Helium
d. Carbon dioxide
59. If a patient has just returned from surgery for a left pneumonectomy, the ventilator delivered
tidal volume should be _______.
a. The same volume as delivered before surgery
b. Less than normal based on ideal body weight
c. The same as normal based on ideal body weight
d. Larger than normal based on ideal body weight

60. The highest FiO2 using manual resuscitator may be achieved with which of the following?
I. Delivering high tidal volume
II. Using an O2 reservoir
III. Using a resuscitation bag that is not sponge filled to prevent O2 absorption
IV. Allow for a slow refill time
a. I, II, III, IV
b. I, III
c. I, III, IV
d. II, IV

61. CPAP and BiPAP are therapeutic devices used for _______.
a. NIV
b. T tube
c. Hypoxemia
d. Hypoxia

62. IPPB therapy is indicated for which of the following conditions?

I. Hypoventilation
II. Atelectasis
III. Pulmonary edema
IV. Inadequate cough
a. I, IV
b. I, II, III, IV
c. II, III, IV
d. I, II, III

63. Which of the following actions should be done when the injection of air into the pilot line fails to
inflate the cuff?
a. Check the valve on the pilot line
b. Check the cuff for leaks
c. Inspect the pilot line for patency
d. Replace the ET tube

64. A respiratory therapist is doing his O2 flow meters quality assurance. After plugging in a back-
pressure compensated Thrope flow meter, you set the flow at 10L/min. The flow meter outlet is
partially and then completely obstructed. You would expect the float will _______.
a. Move upward and then downward in the flow meter
 b. Stay at the 10L/min mark
c. Dropped, showing zero flow
d. Move upward in the flowmeter

65. Which of the following is the usual tidal volume target in Ml/kg IBW?
a. 8 – 9
b. 6 – 8
c. 7 – 8
d. 9 – 10

66. During the initial dose of an aerosol therapy, the respiratory therapist instructs a patient to hold
her breath at the end of inspiration. The rationale behind this technique is to promote which of
the following?
a. Ciliary action
b. Venous action
c. Medication delivery
d. Inertial action

67. Chest vibration is administered during which part of the breathing cycle?
a. Expiration
b. Inspiratory hold
c. Inspiration and expiration
d. Inspiration
68. The intensity of exercise prescribed to the patients for pulmonary rehabilitation must depend on
which of the following conditions?
I. O2 sat greater than 90%
II. Submaximal dyspnea rating
III. 60 – 80% of peak work rate
IV. Greater than or equal to 50% of peak O2 consumption
a. I, II, III
b. II, IV
c. I, II, III, IV
d. I, II

69. An RT is ventilating an intubated patient with a resuscitation bag during CPR. The RT notices no
chest excursion on the left side and an increase in the pressure needed to ventilate the patient.
Which of the following actions would be the most appropriate response to this situation?
a. Insert a nasogastric tube
b. Use a demand valve
c. Pull the ET tube a little bit
d. Re-intubate the patient with a larger tube

70. Which of the following methods of emergency ventilation will provide the most effective gas
exchange?
 a. Head tilt with chin lift
b. Jaw thrust without head tilt
c. Head tilt with neck lift
d. Jaw thrust with head tilt

71. A 32-year-old female patient admitted in the surgical unit has an unproductive cough due to pain
in the incision and mucus so thick and difficult to expel. The respiratory therapist might
recommend which of the following?
I. Increase fluid intake
II. Ultrasonic nebulization treatment
III. CPT with pain medications
IV. IPPD therapy
a. I, II, III, and IV
b. I and II
c. I, II, and III
d. III and IV

72. Which of the following masks provides oxygen concentrations of 60 – 75% with flow rates of 6 –
11 L/min?
a. Partial rebreathing mask
b. Simple mask
c. Tracheostomy mask
d. Non - rebreathing mask
73. What type of clam should you use on the 1 rescuer bag-valve-mask?
a. C – clamp technique
b. G clamp technique
c. E – C clamp technique
d. E clamp technique

74. Complete deprivation of oxygen supply is referred to as _______.

a. Hypoxia
b. Anoxia
c. Hypoxemia
d. Hypercapnia

75. What is the rational guidelines for the initiation of sustained maximal inhalation?
I. An FVC greater than 15ml/kg
II. A respiratory rate less than 25 /min
III. Patient is cooperative and motivated
IV. Patient has no acute atelectasis or pneumonia
a. I, II, III, IV
b. I, II, III
c. II, III, IV
d. I, III, IV
76. When attempting defibrillation, how many shocks with a AED should be delivered before
resuming CPR?
a. 1
b. 4
c. 3
d. 2

77. What improvements can be expected after a comprehensive pulmonary rehabilitation program?
I. Do more activities of daily living with fewer symptoms
II. Psychological status will improve
III. Quality of life will improve
IV. Frequency of hospitalization will decrease
a. I, III, IV
b. I, II
c. I, II, III, IV
d. II, IV

78. The following are side effects of oxygen therapy EXCEPT _______.
a. Too much decreases/ stops breathing reflex
b. Carbon dioxide retention (COPD)
c. Flail chest
d. O2 toxicity and atelectasis
79. What is defined as a means of improving the mobilization of pulmonary secretions by manually
striking the chest wall with cupped hand or placing a mechanical percussor on the chest wall?
a. Autogenic drainage
b. Cough technique
c. Vibration
d. Percussion

80. Compliance in ml/cmH2O for a patient who is intubated and ventilated is approximately which of
the following?
a. 40 – 60
b. 30 – 50
c. 30 – 40
d. 40 – 50

81. An order for post-operative postural drainage has been received for a neurosurgical patient.
What is the appropriate action that a respiratory therapist must do?
a. Refuse to initiate the treatment
b. Administer the therapy and note down adverse reactions
c. Administer the therapy avoiding head-down positions
d. Ask the physician to discontinue the therapy
82. A physician has ordered a bronchodilator to be administered via IPPB to a post-thoracotomy,
asthmatic patient who has a vital capacity of 10ml/kg. what recommendation should the RT
make regarding this order?
a. Make no recommendation, and administer the treatment as ordered
b. Administer the bronchodilator via small-volume nebulizer
c. Recommend substituting incentive spirometry for the IPPB
d. Suggest chest physiotherapy to follow the IPPB treatments.

83. Which of the following could cause suctioning to stop suddenly during tracheobronchial
aspiration?
I. Disconnected tubing
II. A full suction reservoir
III. A mucous plug in the catheter
IV. Clearance of secretions
a. I, II, III
b. II, III, IV
c. I, II, III, IV
d. I, III, IV

84. A patient who has a tracheostomy needs oxygen therapy. Which of the following oxygen-delivery
devices would be most appropriate?
a. Aerosol mask
b. Face tent
c. Air entrainment mask
d. Tracheostomy collar

85. What is the mode of ventilation that is considered as the simplest method of providing ventilator
support and is used on apneic patient? The machine is set with a mandatory RR and VT. It is
incapable of allowing patient’s interaction.
a. Assist/control
b. Pressure support
c. Pressure control
d. Control

86. CPAP is indicated for which of the following conditions?

a. Pneumothorax
b. Mechanically ventilated patient
c. Spontaneous respiration without hypoxemia
d. Spontaneous respiration with intrapulmonary shunting

87. The technique of vibration used to move mucus toward a larger airway is most similar to which
of the following techniques?
a. Valsalva maneuver
b. Heimlich maneuver
 c. Rib sprining
d. Percussion

88. A respiratory therapist is having his mechanical ventilator rounds in ICU, he noticed that the
patient is struggling for his breath. Which of the following corrective actions should the therapist
will consider?
a. Increase pressure alarm
b. Check for ventilator tubings disconnection
c. Set the ventilator sensitivity to +2

89. What is the ideal cuff pressure of an endotracheal tube used for 25y/o male patient in order to
achieve positive pressure ventilation without tracheal wall damage?
a. 5 mmHg
b. 20 mmHg
c. 40mmHg
d. 10mmHg

90. When high concentration of oxygen is attached to a bag valve mask, how much concentration of
oxygen is appropriately delivered to the patient?
a. 90%
b. 16%
c. 24%
d. 100%
91. This mask is used to deliver oxygen concentrations of 40% to 60% for a short-term oxygen
therapy or in an emergency case.
a. Non – rebreathing mask
b. Partial rebreathing mask
c. Simple face mask
d. Tracheostomy

92. Identify the oxygen device in ILLUSTRATION 3.

a. Non – rebreathing mask
b. Tracheostomy mask
c. Simple mask
d. Rebreathing mask

93. What can be prevented if a complete exhalation is emphasized by the respiratory therapist
during IPPB therapy of a COPD patient?
a. Tachycardia
b. Dyspnea
c. Hyperventilation
d. Lung hyperinflation
94. A 16-year-old conscious male patient is brought into the emergency department from a
motorcycle accident. He has facial lacerations including a broken nose and jaw. The heavy
bleeding into his mouth has cause him to have a difficulty with his breathing. Which of the
following would you recommend is the safest, most effective airway?
a. Orotracheal tube
b. Nasopharyngeal airway
c. Nasotracheal tube
d. Tracheostomy tube

95. The physician would like the RT to evaluate his patient and determine the possibility of weaning
him from the ventilator. The therapist should consider which of the following parameters?
a. RR = 8-30 BPM, NIF = -30cmH2O, RSBI = >100
b. RR = 12-25 BPM, NIF = -18cmH2O, RSBI = <100
c. RR = 10-30 BPM, NIF = -10cmH2O, RSBI = <100
d. RR = 8-20 BPM, NIF = -20cmH2O, RSBI = <100

96. Which of the following flow meter’s reading is NOT affected by its positioning?
a. Thorpe tube
b. Panel tube
c. Bourdon Gauge
d. Digital turbine

97. What are the necessary requirements for an effective sustained maximal inhalation therapy?
I. Cooperative patient
II. Motivated patient
III. Spontaneous breaths not greater than 25/min
IV. Vital capacity less than 10ml/kg of body weight
a. III, IV
b. I, II, III
c. II, III, IV
d. I, II

98. The physician would like to evaluate his patient and determine the possibility of weaning from
the ventilator. The therapist determines the patient has spontaneous VT of 250ml and a
spontaneous RR of 22/min. the patient has a rapid shallow breathing index of which of the
following?
a. 88
b. 113
c. 11.3
d. 0.8

99. A patient who just had an accident extubation is considered high-risk for reintubation if he has
which of the following conditions?
I. pH >7.45 just before accidental extubation
 II. Peak heart rate >120 in 24 hours prior to accidental extubation
III. Renal dysfunction
IV. Liver dysfunction
a. I, II, III, and IV
b. III and IV
c. I, II, and III
d. I and II

100. A patient with tracheostomy must be instructed to keep the head of the bed elevated for
at least how many minutes after eating?
a. 15
b. 60
c. 30
d. 45

101. What are the two passageways that serve as a reservoir in low flow devices?
I.
Oropharynx
II.
Nasopharynx
III.
Trachea
IV.Bronchial tube
a. II, IV
b. I, II
c. II, III
d. I, IV
102. What are the appropriate instructions to be given to an emphysematous patient for
producing an effective cough?
I. The patient should be instructed to take in the deepest possible breath
II. The patient should be instructed to cough from the mid-inspiratory position
III. The patient should generate a maximum forceful expulsion of expired air
IV. The patient may be instructed to generate a series of rapid and sharp coughs several times
form the end-expiratory position
a. II, IV
b. I, II, IV
c. II, III
d. I, III, and IV

103. When performing nasotracheal suctioning, what signs are used to indicate that the
catheter tip has been advanced into the trachea?
I. Gagging
II. Hoarse vocalization
III. Coughing
IV. Dyspnea
a. III, IV only
b. Ii, III only
 c. I, II, III, IV
d. I, III only

104. The amount of air inspired and expired with each breath is called _______.
a. Carbon dioxide
b. Tidal volume
c. Hypoxemia
d. Carbon monoxide

105. What is the first step of emergency care in patient with inadequate breathing?
a. Looking for and controlling severe bleeding
b. Checking for patient’s pulse
c. Opening and maintaining the patient’s airway
d. Manually stabilizing cervical spine

106. During an IPPB treatment, the patient suddenly complains of chest pain and dyspnea.
What is the most likely cause for this situation?
a. Pneumothorax
b. Hyperventilation
c. Increased intracranial pressure
d. Coronary arrest

107. When using a nasal catheter, setting of more than the prescribed liter glow should be
followed to avoid _______?
a. Dryness and exhaustion
b. Lung exacerbation and dryness
c. Head ache and dryness of the mucosa
d. Hypertension and dryness

108. While checking the emergency cart located I the bronchoscopy room, the respiratory
therapist removes a fully charged laryngoscope handle and attaches a Miller blade. The bulb in
the blade fails to light. What should the respiratory therapist do?
a. Strike the handle against the edge of the table
b. Remove all Miller blades and use only Macintosh blades
c. See if the electrical outlet is working properly
d. Tighten the bulb

109. A concentrated amount of oxygen that is available in a lightweight and easy-to-carry

container similar to a thermos bottle. This kind of oxygen is sometimes used in homecare
setting.
a. Oxygen extractor
b. Oxygen concentrator
c. Liquid oxygen
 d. None of these

110. A respiratory therapist is making his rounds to his patient in ICU 1. While doing his
monitoring and assessment he found that the oxygen cylinder reading is almost zero. When he
looks at the patient, he is demonstrating shortness of breath. What is the BEST action of the
therapist?
a. Leave the patient and replace the tank
b. Call the patient’s bedside nurse for help
c. Call the doctor for assessment
d. Call the respiratory therapist in the unit

111. If the chest X-ray study reveals that the apical segment of the left upper lobe is
consolidated, which position should be used during postural drainage?
a. Semi-fowler’s
b. Supine with head lowered
c. Prone with no elevation
d. Supine with no elevation

112. If the patient determined the duration of inspiration and this varies from breath to
breath, the patient is supported by ventilator through _______.
a. Pressure control
b. IMV
c. Pressure support
d. SIMV

113. Prolonged exposure of the patient to high level of oxygen causes damage to the lung
tissues and will manifest the following conditions EXCEPT _______.
a. Atelectasis
b. Hemorrhage
c. Pulmonary edema
d. Bronchitis

114. What are some actions that family members who smoke can take to assist a COPD
patient to quit smoking?
I. Avoid smoking-related activities
II. Smoke law-nicotine cigarettes when the patient is present
III. Create a calm, low-stress environment at home
IV. Help remind the patient to avoid using nicotine gum in stressful situations
a. I, II, III, IV
b. II, IV only
c. I, III, IV only
d. I, III only
115. You receive a call at the office from one of your homecare patients. She reports that the
high-pressure pop-off valve of on the bubble humidifier to her transtracheal O2 catheter rod
though it. What should you tell her to do?
a. Remove the humidifier and double the O2 flow rate to the catheter
b. Switch her O2 from the transtracheal catheter to a nasal cannula
c. Force the cleaning rod through the catheter until the obstruction is cleared
d. Force the saline through the catheter until the obstruction is cleared

116. You are assisting a patient for a bronchoscopy to obtain a biopsy of a suspicious
laryngeal node. Afterward, he complains of shortness of breath and a tight throat. Which of the
following would you recommend?
a. Give the patient a carbogen mix to breath
b. Give him 20% oxygen and 80% helium mix to breath
c. Put the head of the bed down 30 degrees
d. Do a 7-minute helium dilation test

117. Which of the following factors must be considered before a patient can be exubated?
I. The patient is unable to protect his/her lower airway
II. The patient is able to clear secretions
III. The initial reason for intubation has been corrected
a. II, II only
b. I, II, III
c. I, III only
d. I, II only
118. Your patient has a pO2 level of 53mmHg on 45% oxygen. The clinical goal is a pO2 level
of 90mmHg, which of the following % FiO2 is the CORRECT setting based on the given data?
a. 66
b. 76
c. 46
d. 56

119. Identify the oxygen device in ILLUSTRATION 4.

a. Nasal pillow
b. Nasal catheter
c. Nasal hood
d. Nasal prong

120. After an IPV treatment is given with a bronchodilator, which of the following is
recorded?
I. Date
II. Time
III. Amount, color and consistency of sputum produced
IV. Therapy related complaints
a. I, II, III, IV
 b. III, IV
c. I, II
d. I, II, III

121. Which of the following anatomical structures is not part of the upper respiratory tract?

a. Bronchi
b. Nasal cavity and sinuses
c. Larynx
d. Pharynx

122. The cascade heated humidifier increases the surface area for water and gas contact by
using which of the following methods?
a. It passes the gas over a container of water increasing its humidity
b. It uses a hygroscopic filter that is made of felt, plastic foam, or cellulose sponge
c. It uses a diffuser grid that disperses the water over a wide surface
d. It uses a strand of sponge, or paper that is partially submerged under the surface of the
water

123. After an open-heart surgery, a patient is required to hook on a mechanical ventilator. She
will undergo pacemaker insertion at the cardiac laboratory. It is expected that she will be
transferred back in ICU within an hour or two. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate
ventilator support at this time?
a. Pressure-cycle transport ventilator
b. Microprocessor-type ventilator
c. Manual ventilation with a resuscitation bag
d. Negative – pressure ventilator

124. Which of the following oxygen therapy devices are considered as high-flow oxygen
delivery devices?
I. Venture mask
II. Nasal cannula
III. Briggs adapter with reservoir tubing
IV. Partial rebreathing mask
a. I, IV
b. III, IV
c. I, III
d. II, III

– A 19-year-old boy patient with status asthmaticus is being treated in the emergency room.
The doctor was ordered him to receive a 70% helium mixed with 30% oxygen.

125. Which of the following will you recommend for BEST delivery of the therapeutic gas?
a. Non-rebreathing mask without reservoir bag
 b. Nasal pillow
c. Nasal mask
d. Non-rebreathing mask with reservoir bag

126. The following are symptoms of status asthmatic EXCEPT _______.

a. Hypertension
b. Bradycardia
c. Cyanosis
d. Exhaustion

127. The following are pulmonary index score for asthma exacerbation in asthmaticus EXCEPT
_______.
a. Wheezing
b. RR
c. I:E ratio
d. Heart rate

– A long term patient receiving mechanical ventilation in ICU with VT of 500ml, PBM of 16,
FiO2 of 80% and a flow rate of 50 was advised to transfer in operating room for a procedure.

128. What could be the respiratory therapist BEST action on this?

a. Transfer the ventilator and hook again
b. Ambu bag the patient then hook to transport ventilator
c. Transfer the patient using transport ventilator and hook again
d. Ambu bag the patient going to operating room

129. Which of the following will you use in a long term mechanically ventilated patient?
a. Bacterial filter
b. Microguard filter
c. Heated humidifier
d. Heat and moisture exchange

130. To prevent infection in OR, which of the following is your PRIMARY concerns before you
enter in the area?
a. Gown and gloves
b. Gown and mask
c. Hand washing before and after
d. Gloves and boots

– A Patient with bacterial pneumonia is receiving mechanical ventilation with the following
settings: Mode = Pressure Control, VT = 650ml, BUR = 14, FiO2 = 50%, I:E ratio = 1:2, PEEP = 10cmH2O.
You want to prevent the abrupt changes in his SpO2 valve from 95% to 85% when suctioned.

131. What is your BEST action on this?

a. Increase the PEEP level to 15cmH2O before suctioning
b. Use the largest suction catheter available
 c. Give him 100% oxygen before suctioning
d. Perform suctioning only once an hour

132. Which of the following O2 sat values would you need to maintain to avoid patient’s
desaturation?
a. 95-99%
b. 95-100%
c. 98-100%
d. 94-99%

133. The following are indications of a pressure control mode of ventilation EXCEPT _______.
a. It allows to control of PIP
b. It is used to avoid barotrauma
c. It allows to control the PEEP
d. It controls mean airway pressure

– The respiratory therapist reviews the ventilator flow sheet for a post-operative patient. The
ventilator settings have not been changed during the past 24 hours. The peak and plateau pressures
were recorded as: Peak Pressure (cmH2O) 7am=28; 9am=35; 11am=50. Plateau pressure (cmH2O)
7am=23; 9am=25; and 11am=26.

134. What is your PRIMARY action to correct the observed problem?

a. Reduce the flow
b. Check the ventilator tubings
c. Inflate the cuff
d. Suction the patient
135. Which of the following is the maximum peak pressure in cmH2O for post-operative
patient?
a. Less than 45
b. Less than 30
c. More than 30
d. More than 45

136. The following conditions are the effects of high peak pressure EXCEPT _______?
a. Biting down on ventilator tubing
b. Increased lung compliance
c. Increased secretions
d. Bronchospasm

– A patient is receiving volume-controlled ventilation with VT of 450ml. the patient’s breath

sounds are clear, but the expiratory flow is failed to return on its baseline before the next breath.

137. How could this be interpreted?

a. Normal airway resistance
b. Presence of auto-PEEP
c. VT is too small
 d. Lung compliance is decreasing

138. Which of the following is NOT INCLUDED in the criteria for control mode ventilation?
a. Severe respiratory failure
b. Severe neurological alterations
c. Deep sedation
d. Patient with seizure

139. The following are ventilator settings that will manage the auto-PEEP of the patient
EXCEPT _______
a. Decrease respiratory rate
b. Decrease tidal volume
c. Decrease I:E ratio
d. Decrease inspiratory time

– A patient was brought to the emergency room. He was diagnosed to have COPD, risk factor
of the disease were also identified. He has also shown symptoms that confirms the illness.

140. How many liters per minute oxygen would consider as supplement for COPD?
a. 4
b. 6
c. 2
d. 8

141. Which of the following conditions is NOT the symptoms of COPD?

a. Nail clubbing
b. Chronic cough
c. Shortness of breath
d. Wheezing sounds

142. The following are primary COPD risk factors EXCEPT _______
a. Exposure to lung irritants
b. Genetic predisposition
c. People with asthma who smoke
d. People with hypertensions

– A comatose patient is intubated and receiving 35% oxygen with aerosol treatment via T-
piece. While watching the patient’s breathing, you notice that during each inspiration the mist
disappears form the downstream end of the T-piece.

143. What would be your BEST action on this?

a. Retain the 35%oxygen and increase the flow
b. Add 100ml dead space as reservoir
c. Change the oxygen setting to 40%
d. Add 200ml dead space as reservoir
 144. What would be the BEST position of the patient with ongoing aerosol treatment?
a. Right lateral recumbent
b. Semi- fowler’s
c. Trendelenberg
d. Supine

145. What would be your BEST action when you notice that patient’s displayed difficulty of
breathing with slight seizure?
a. Immediately call for help
b. Call the doctor to adjust FiO2
c. Stop the procedure
d. Increase the FiO2 to 100%

– A 20-year-old male, tall and thin was admitted in the ER due to sharp chest pain and
difficulty of breathing. The symptoms began half an hour previously during his basketball game.
Assessment reveals a hyper resonant percussion over the lung fields.

146. Based the above information, the MOST likely cause of the patient’s distress is _______.
a. Spontaneous tension pneumothorax
b. Pulmonary embolus
c. Congenital lobar emphysema
d. Traumatic pneumothorax

147. When there is a formation of small sacs of air (blebs) in the lung tissue that rupture and
causing air to leak into the pleural space, this condition is _______.
a. Traumatic pneumothorax
b. Congenital lobar emphysema
c. Pulmonary embolus
d. Spontaneous tension pneumothorax

148. The following are causes of blebs EXCEPT _______.

a. Guillain-Barre syndrome
b. Pneumonia
c. Cystic fibrosis
d. Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)
RESPIRATORY CARE

ILLUSTRATION 3

ILLUSTRATION 4
ILLUSTRATION 8