Mock CAT – 05 2018

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VARC

LRDI

QA

Sec 1
Directions for questions (1to 6): The passage below is accompanied by a set of six questions. Choose the
best answer to each question.

On March 1, 1990, Uruguayans and representatives of many foreign governments witnessed the
rea rmation of Uruguay's revived democratic tradition: the transfer of power from one elected president
to another. Having completed a full ve-year term in o ce, Julio Maria Sanguinetti Cairolo (1985—90) of
the liberal Colorado Party (Partido Colorado) transferred the presidential sash to Luis Alberto Lacalle de
Herrera of the rival conservative National Party (Partido Nacional, usually referred to as the Blancos).
Lacalle was elected to serve for the 1990—95 period as the country's ftieth president.

Uruguayan democracy had been reinstated ve years earlier— after the 1973—85 period of military rule—
as a result of Sanguinetti's victory in the November 25, 1984, election and referendum. Sanguinetti was the
rst Uruguayan president to be elected, albeit in a semi democratic election, after the period of repressive
military rule. He had been a lawyer, journalist, representative, minister of education and culture, and
minister of labour and social welfare. During his term of o ce, Sanguinetti consolidated Uruguay's
multiparty democracy, restored the country's prestige and respect abroad, increased its export markets,
and avoided nancial disorder. He symbolized Uruguay's political opening by visiting the Soviet Union and
China in 1989.

In what proved to be its most active electoral year, Uruguay held two national elections in 1989. The rst
was a referendum on the government's amnesty law for abuses committed by the military regime. The
second, the November 26 poll—the rst totally free presidential elections to be held in Uruguay since 1971
—demonstrated the country's return to its democratic tradition of free and honest elections.

Although voting was compulsory in Uruguay, the turnout in the November 26, 1989, elections was
nonetheless impressive: 88 percent of the electorate of 2.3 million people participated. The high turnout
did not necessarily mean that Uruguayan voters were among the most politically sophisticated in the
world, although Uruguayans usually discussed and debated political issues exhaustively at all levels of
society. The high voter turnout in 1989 demonstrated, however—as it had in 1984 when 88.5 percent
participated—that Uruguay was a very politicized country and that it had one of Latin America's longest
democratic traditions.

Despite Sanguinetti's accomplishments, his party's historic and decisive defeat re ected widespread
dissatisfaction with two years of economic stagnation. The elections also challenged Uruguay's traditional
two-party system of the Colorado and National parties. For the rst time, a third party, the Broad Front,
reached important levels by winning the country's second most powerful post (after president of the
republic): the mayorship of Montevideo, which had over 40 percent of the country's population and more
than two-thirds of its economic activity. The new Marxist mayor, Tabare Vázquez, immediately began
pressing Lacalle for greater municipal autonomy. The prospects for the success of a "cohabitation
arrangement," i.e., harmonious cooperation, however, were doubtful because Uruguayans continued to
support a strong presidential system and because Lacalle was assertive of his executive powers. Thus, in
addition to the challenges posed by a resurgent political left, labour unrest, and economic crisis, the
Lacalle government faced the possibility of political clashes with the municipal government.

  Q.1
The passage is primarily concerned with:

1  analysing the achievements of two former presidents of a country.

2 presenting a brief account of a country’s political history for a decade.

3 forming analogies between the challenges faced by two successive presidents of a country.

4 explaining how a country had revived after an abusive military rule.

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 Answer key/Solution
Directions for questions (1to 6): The passage below is accompanied by a set of six questions. Choose the
best answer to each question.

On March 1, 1990, Uruguayans and representatives of many foreign governments witnessed the
rea rmation of Uruguay's revived democratic tradition: the transfer of power from one elected president
to another. Having completed a full ve-year term in o ce, Julio Maria Sanguinetti Cairolo (1985—90) of
the liberal Colorado Party (Partido Colorado) transferred the presidential sash to Luis Alberto Lacalle de
Herrera of the rival conservative National Party (Partido Nacional, usually referred to as the Blancos).
Lacalle was elected to serve for the 1990—95 period as the country's ftieth president.

Uruguayan democracy had been reinstated ve years earlier— after the 1973—85 period of military rule—
as a result of Sanguinetti's victory in the November 25, 1984, election and referendum. Sanguinetti was the
rst Uruguayan president to be elected, albeit in a semi democratic election, after the period of repressive
military rule. He had been a lawyer, journalist, representative, minister of education and culture, and
minister of labour and social welfare. During his term of o ce, Sanguinetti consolidated Uruguay's
multiparty democracy, restored the country's prestige and respect abroad, increased its export markets,
and avoided nancial disorder. He symbolized Uruguay's political opening by visiting the Soviet Union and
China in 1989.

In what proved to be its most active electoral year, Uruguay held two national elections in 1989. The rst
was a referendum on the government's amnesty law for abuses committed by the military regime. The
second, the November 26 poll—the rst totally free presidential elections to be held in Uruguay since 1971
—demonstrated the country's return to its democratic tradition of free and honest elections.

Although voting was compulsory in Uruguay, the turnout in the November 26, 1989, elections was
nonetheless impressive: 88 percent of the electorate of 2.3 million people participated. The high turnout
did not necessarily mean that Uruguayan voters were among the most politically sophisticated in the
world, although Uruguayans usually discussed and debated political issues exhaustively at all levels of
society. The high voter turnout in 1989 demonstrated, however—as it had in 1984 when 88.5 percent
participated—that Uruguay was a very politicized country and that it had one of Latin America's longest
democratic traditions.

Despite Sanguinetti's accomplishments, his party's historic and decisive defeat re ected widespread
dissatisfaction with two years of economic stagnation. The elections also challenged Uruguay's traditional
two-party system of the Colorado and National parties. For the rst time, a third party, the Broad Front,
reached important levels by winning the country's second most powerful post (after president of the
republic): the mayorship of Montevideo, which had over 40 percent of the country's population and more
than two-thirds of its economic activity. The new Marxist mayor, Tabare Vázquez, immediately began
pressing Lacalle for greater municipal autonomy. The prospects for the success of a "cohabitation
arrangement," i.e., harmonious cooperation, however, were doubtful because Uruguayans continued to
support a strong presidential system and because Lacalle was assertive of his executive powers. Thus, in
addition to the challenges posed by a resurgent political left, labour unrest, and economic crisis, the
Lacalle government faced the possibility of political clashes with the municipal government.

  Q.2
The defeat of the Colorado party in the 1989 Uruguay election can be primarily attributed to:

1  the widespread dissatisfaction with the political system.

2 the resurgence of the third party – the Broad Front.

3 the repressive political rule by the party.

4 the lack of growth in the economy.

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 Answer key/Solution
Directions for questions (1to 6): The passage below is accompanied by a set of six questions. Choose the
best answer to each question.

On March 1, 1990, Uruguayans and representatives of many foreign governments witnessed the
rea rmation of Uruguay's revived democratic tradition: the transfer of power from one elected president
to another. Having completed a full ve-year term in o ce, Julio Maria Sanguinetti Cairolo (1985—90) of
the liberal Colorado Party (Partido Colorado) transferred the presidential sash to Luis Alberto Lacalle de
Herrera of the rival conservative National Party (Partido Nacional, usually referred to as the Blancos).
Lacalle was elected to serve for the 1990—95 period as the country's ftieth president.

Uruguayan democracy had been reinstated ve years earlier— after the 1973—85 period of military rule—
as a result of Sanguinetti's victory in the November 25, 1984, election and referendum. Sanguinetti was the
rst Uruguayan president to be elected, albeit in a semi democratic election, after the period of repressive
military rule. He had been a lawyer, journalist, representative, minister of education and culture, and
minister of labour and social welfare. During his term of o ce, Sanguinetti consolidated Uruguay's
multiparty democracy, restored the country's prestige and respect abroad, increased its export markets,
and avoided nancial disorder. He symbolized Uruguay's political opening by visiting the Soviet Union and
China in 1989.

In what proved to be its most active electoral year, Uruguay held two national elections in 1989. The rst
was a referendum on the government's amnesty law for abuses committed by the military regime. The
second, the November 26 poll—the rst totally free presidential elections to be held in Uruguay since 1971
—demonstrated the country's return to its democratic tradition of free and honest elections.

Although voting was compulsory in Uruguay, the turnout in the November 26, 1989, elections was
nonetheless impressive: 88 percent of the electorate of 2.3 million people participated. The high turnout
did not necessarily mean that Uruguayan voters were among the most politically sophisticated in the
world, although Uruguayans usually discussed and debated political issues exhaustively at all levels of
society. The high voter turnout in 1989 demonstrated, however—as it had in 1984 when 88.5 percent
participated—that Uruguay was a very politicized country and that it had one of Latin America's longest
democratic traditions.

Despite Sanguinetti's accomplishments, his party's historic and decisive defeat re ected widespread
dissatisfaction with two years of economic stagnation. The elections also challenged Uruguay's traditional
two-party system of the Colorado and National parties. For the rst time, a third party, the Broad Front,
reached important levels by winning the country's second most powerful post (after president of the
republic): the mayorship of Montevideo, which had over 40 percent of the country's population and more
than two-thirds of its economic activity. The new Marxist mayor, Tabare Vázquez, immediately began
pressing Lacalle for greater municipal autonomy. The prospects for the success of a "cohabitation
arrangement," i.e., harmonious cooperation, however, were doubtful because Uruguayans continued to
support a strong presidential system and because Lacalle was assertive of his executive powers. Thus, in
addition to the challenges posed by a resurgent political left, labour unrest, and economic crisis, the
Lacalle government faced the possibility of political clashes with the municipal government.

  Q.3
The high turnout in the 1989 elections in Uruguay showed that:

1  the law of compulsory voting had immense bene ts.

2 Uruguay had a long tradition of democracy.

3 citizens of Uruguay are politically active, indulging in political debates and discussions.

4 the abuses committed by the military had a huge impact in getting people to the ballot box.

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 Answer key/Solution
Directions for questions (1to 6): The passage below is accompanied by a set of six questions. Choose the
best answer to each question.

On March 1, 1990, Uruguayans and representatives of many foreign governments witnessed the
rea rmation of Uruguay's revived democratic tradition: the transfer of power from one elected president
to another. Having completed a full ve-year term in o ce, Julio Maria Sanguinetti Cairolo (1985—90) of
the liberal Colorado Party (Partido Colorado) transferred the presidential sash to Luis Alberto Lacalle de
Herrera of the rival conservative National Party (Partido Nacional, usually referred to as the Blancos).
Lacalle was elected to serve for the 1990—95 period as the country's ftieth president.

Uruguayan democracy had been reinstated ve years earlier— after the 1973—85 period of military rule—
as a result of Sanguinetti's victory in the November 25, 1984, election and referendum. Sanguinetti was the
rst Uruguayan president to be elected, albeit in a semi democratic election, after the period of repressive
military rule. He had been a lawyer, journalist, representative, minister of education and culture, and
minister of labour and social welfare. During his term of o ce, Sanguinetti consolidated Uruguay's
multiparty democracy, restored the country's prestige and respect abroad, increased its export markets,
and avoided nancial disorder. He symbolized Uruguay's political opening by visiting the Soviet Union and
China in 1989.

In what proved to be its most active electoral year, Uruguay held two national elections in 1989. The rst
was a referendum on the government's amnesty law for abuses committed by the military regime. The
second, the November 26 poll—the rst totally free presidential elections to be held in Uruguay since 1971
—demonstrated the country's return to its democratic tradition of free and honest elections.

Although voting was compulsory in Uruguay, the turnout in the November 26, 1989, elections was
nonetheless impressive: 88 percent of the electorate of 2.3 million people participated. The high turnout
did not necessarily mean that Uruguayan voters were among the most politically sophisticated in the
world, although Uruguayans usually discussed and debated political issues exhaustively at all levels of
society. The high voter turnout in 1989 demonstrated, however—as it had in 1984 when 88.5 percent
participated—that Uruguay was a very politicized country and that it had one of Latin America's longest
democratic traditions.

Despite Sanguinetti's accomplishments, his party's historic and decisive defeat re ected widespread
dissatisfaction with two years of economic stagnation. The elections also challenged Uruguay's traditional
two-party system of the Colorado and National parties. For the rst time, a third party, the Broad Front,
reached important levels by winning the country's second most powerful post (after president of the
republic): the mayorship of Montevideo, which had over 40 percent of the country's population and more
than two-thirds of its economic activity. The new Marxist mayor, Tabare Vázquez, immediately began
pressing Lacalle for greater municipal autonomy. The prospects for the success of a "cohabitation
arrangement," i.e., harmonious cooperation, however, were doubtful because Uruguayans continued to
support a strong presidential system and because Lacalle was assertive of his executive powers. Thus, in
addition to the challenges posed by a resurgent political left, labour unrest, and economic crisis, the
Lacalle government faced the possibility of political clashes with the municipal government.

  Q.4
Which of the following principle, if true, will help explain the apprehension for the success of cohabitation
agreement as mentioned in the last paragraph?

1   The success of cohabitation agreement is dependent on the kind of political system that is prevalent
in the country.
2 The success of cohabitation agreement is less unlikely in a presidential political system when the
citizens of that country continue to support a strong presidential system.

3 For the success of a cohabitation agreement, the support of its citizens for such an agreement is
essential.

4 The executive powers of a President are unlimited.

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 Answer key/Solution
Directions for questions (1to 6): The passage below is accompanied by a set of six questions. Choose the
best answer to each question.

On March 1, 1990, Uruguayans and representatives of many foreign governments witnessed the
rea rmation of Uruguay's revived democratic tradition: the transfer of power from one elected president
to another. Having completed a full ve-year term in o ce, Julio Maria Sanguinetti Cairolo (1985—90) of
the liberal Colorado Party (Partido Colorado) transferred the presidential sash to Luis Alberto Lacalle de
Herrera of the rival conservative National Party (Partido Nacional, usually referred to as the Blancos).
Lacalle was elected to serve for the 1990—95 period as the country's ftieth president.

Uruguayan democracy had been reinstated ve years earlier— after the 1973—85 period of military rule—
as a result of Sanguinetti's victory in the November 25, 1984, election and referendum. Sanguinetti was the
rst Uruguayan president to be elected, albeit in a semi democratic election, after the period of repressive
military rule. He had been a lawyer, journalist, representative, minister of education and culture, and
minister of labour and social welfare. During his term of o ce, Sanguinetti consolidated Uruguay's
multiparty democracy, restored the country's prestige and respect abroad, increased its export markets,
and avoided nancial disorder. He symbolized Uruguay's political opening by visiting the Soviet Union and
China in 1989.

In what proved to be its most active electoral year, Uruguay held two national elections in 1989. The rst
was a referendum on the government's amnesty law for abuses committed by the military regime. The
second, the November 26 poll—the rst totally free presidential elections to be held in Uruguay since 1971
—demonstrated the country's return to its democratic tradition of free and honest elections.

Although voting was compulsory in Uruguay, the turnout in the November 26, 1989, elections was
nonetheless impressive: 88 percent of the electorate of 2.3 million people participated. The high turnout
did not necessarily mean that Uruguayan voters were among the most politically sophisticated in the
world, although Uruguayans usually discussed and debated political issues exhaustively at all levels of
society. The high voter turnout in 1989 demonstrated, however—as it had in 1984 when 88.5 percent
participated—that Uruguay was a very politicized country and that it had one of Latin America's longest
democratic traditions.

Despite Sanguinetti's accomplishments, his party's historic and decisive defeat re ected widespread
dissatisfaction with two years of economic stagnation. The elections also challenged Uruguay's traditional
two-party system of the Colorado and National parties. For the rst time, a third party, the Broad Front,
reached important levels by winning the country's second most powerful post (after president of the
republic): the mayorship of Montevideo, which had over 40 percent of the country's population and more
than two-thirds of its economic activity. The new Marxist mayor, Tabare Vázquez, immediately began
pressing Lacalle for greater municipal autonomy. The prospects for the success of a "cohabitation
arrangement," i.e., harmonious cooperation, however, were doubtful because Uruguayans continued to
support a strong presidential system and because Lacalle was assertive of his executive powers. Thus, in
addition to the challenges posed by a resurgent political left, labour unrest, and economic crisis, the
Lacalle government faced the possibility of political clashes with the municipal government.

  Q.5
Which one of the following best describes Uruguay’s form of Government prior to the 1973—85 military
rule?

1  Authoritarian Government

2 Parliamentary Democracy
3 Presidential Republic

4 Communist Government

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 Answer key/Solution
Directions for questions (1to 6): The passage below is accompanied by a set of six questions. Choose the
best answer to each question.

On March 1, 1990, Uruguayans and representatives of many foreign governments witnessed the
rea rmation of Uruguay's revived democratic tradition: the transfer of power from one elected president
to another. Having completed a full ve-year term in o ce, Julio Maria Sanguinetti Cairolo (1985—90) of
the liberal Colorado Party (Partido Colorado) transferred the presidential sash to Luis Alberto Lacalle de
Herrera of the rival conservative National Party (Partido Nacional, usually referred to as the Blancos).
Lacalle was elected to serve for the 1990—95 period as the country's ftieth president.

Uruguayan democracy had been reinstated ve years earlier— after the 1973—85 period of military rule—
as a result of Sanguinetti's victory in the November 25, 1984, election and referendum. Sanguinetti was the
rst Uruguayan president to be elected, albeit in a semi democratic election, after the period of repressive
military rule. He had been a lawyer, journalist, representative, minister of education and culture, and
minister of labour and social welfare. During his term of o ce, Sanguinetti consolidated Uruguay's
multiparty democracy, restored the country's prestige and respect abroad, increased its export markets,
and avoided nancial disorder. He symbolized Uruguay's political opening by visiting the Soviet Union and
China in 1989.

In what proved to be its most active electoral year, Uruguay held two national elections in 1989. The rst
was a referendum on the government's amnesty law for abuses committed by the military regime. The
second, the November 26 poll—the rst totally free presidential elections to be held in Uruguay since 1971
—demonstrated the country's return to its democratic tradition of free and honest elections.

Although voting was compulsory in Uruguay, the turnout in the November 26, 1989, elections was
nonetheless impressive: 88 percent of the electorate of 2.3 million people participated. The high turnout
did not necessarily mean that Uruguayan voters were among the most politically sophisticated in the
world, although Uruguayans usually discussed and debated political issues exhaustively at all levels of
society. The high voter turnout in 1989 demonstrated, however—as it had in 1984 when 88.5 percent
participated—that Uruguay was a very politicized country and that it had one of Latin America's longest
democratic traditions.

Despite Sanguinetti's accomplishments, his party's historic and decisive defeat re ected widespread
dissatisfaction with two years of economic stagnation. The elections also challenged Uruguay's traditional
two-party system of the Colorado and National parties. For the rst time, a third party, the Broad Front,
reached important levels by winning the country's second most powerful post (after president of the
republic): the mayorship of Montevideo, which had over 40 percent of the country's population and more
than two-thirds of its economic activity. The new Marxist mayor, Tabare Vázquez, immediately began
pressing Lacalle for greater municipal autonomy. The prospects for the success of a "cohabitation
arrangement," i.e., harmonious cooperation, however, were doubtful because Uruguayans continued to
support a strong presidential system and because Lacalle was assertive of his executive powers. Thus, in
addition to the challenges posed by a resurgent political left, labour unrest, and economic crisis, the
Lacalle government faced the possibility of political clashes with the municipal government.

  Q.6
Which of the following CANNOT be inferred from the passage?

1   The Uruguay government sought to enact laws to pardon at least some of the abuses committed by
the military regime.

2 The President’s term in Uruguay was ve years during the mid-80s to mid-90s.
3 In the late 80s and early 90s, the city of Montevideo had the highest economic activity in Uruguay.

4 The President of Uruguay faced political clashes with the municipal government during the late 80s.

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 Answer key/Solution
Directions for questions (7 to12): The passage below is accompanied by a set of six questions. Choose the
best answer to each question.

Shortly after Mark Frissora took over as chief executive of Caesars Entertainment last year, he paced the
oors of his American casinos, with their rows and rows of idle slot machines, and grasped the scale of the
existential threat that faces his industry. Casino customers are ageing, and younger people have little
interest in taking their place. Mr Frissora called on his company to brainstorm a new “casino within a
casino” to draw in millennials who grew up playing video and mobile-phone games.

Next door on the Las Vegas Strip, Jim Murren, CEO of MGM Resorts International, the city’s largest gaming
operator, is making similar moves. Mr Murren has convened a committee of millennial employees to work
out how to keep the business relevant to future generations. Both rms will soon open experimental
spaces for young people, including new types of slot-machine games that test players’ skills as much as
their wallets.

These offer a glimpse of a casino of the future that looks very different indeed. There are gravity-free
rooms where you can literally climb the walls; LED screens that continuously change interior backgrounds;
and combinations of gambling machines and virtual-reality shoot-em-ups that allow you to bet on how
many monsters you (and your friends) can blast away. Instead of individuals standing solo at one-armed
bandits, groups of players might compete against each other over wireless-enabled consoles offering a
menu of wagering games. Instead of magic acts and yesterday’s pop stars, electronic-sports tournaments
and the latest in live music will draw in spectators.

Hip, high-tech casinos sound like a lot of fun. But they may not come into being. Building and maintaining
them would be expensive, and in the end, they still might not appeal to younger people. More to the point,
gambling executives may not have the stamina to see the projects through. Most of them today are
curiously short of two things: free cash ow and, above all, the readiness to gamble big.

“The industry is not lled with creative geniuses,” says Mr Frissora, who came to Caesars from Hertz, a
car-rental company. Casinos used to make a lot of money and didn’t need to innovate. That has changed.
Smartphones and consoles make traditional slots and table games look stodgy. The list of new
competitors for their customers’ attention—daily fantasy sports contests, legal and unregulated internet
gambling, video lottery terminals, online social casino games (played with virtual currency)—goes on and
on. Some people worry that casino rms will become like Blockbuster, a lm-rental business annihilated
by the internet. Alex Bumazhny of Fitch Ratings suggests they might become like photocopier machines,
used less frequently but not entirely obsolete.

The signs of stagnation are clearly visible. Gaming revenues on the Las Vegas Strip peaked at $6.5 billion
in 2007, fell in 2010 to $5.2 billion and then rose modestly. In Atlantic City revenues have halved since
2006. Nationally, state-regulated casino-gaming revenues (including from Las Vegas and Atlantic City)
have grown by just 7% since 2007, to $40 billion last year, despite greatly expanded offerings. The states
of Pennsylvania and Maryland, which had no casinos until a decade ago, now in 2016 account for more
than $4 billion in gaming income (in part, by taking away customers from Atlantic City). Revenue from
operations on Native American territory has risen by only 12% since 2008, to $29.9 billion last year.
  Q.7
Which of the following statements is/are a reason(s) as to why there may not be a creation of high-tech
casinos?

A. The running cost of high-tech casinos would be high.

B. The casino’s appetite to take the required risk is low.
C. It might not appeal to the intended target customers.

1  Only A and B

2 Only A and C

3 Only B and C

4 A, B and C

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 Answer key/Solution
Directions for questions (7 to12): The passage below is accompanied by a set of six questions. Choose the
best answer to each question.

Shortly after Mark Frissora took over as chief executive of Caesars Entertainment last year, he paced the
oors of his American casinos, with their rows and rows of idle slot machines, and grasped the scale of the
existential threat that faces his industry. Casino customers are ageing, and younger people have little
interest in taking their place. Mr Frissora called on his company to brainstorm a new “casino within a
casino” to draw in millennials who grew up playing video and mobile-phone games.

Next door on the Las Vegas Strip, Jim Murren, CEO of MGM Resorts International, the city’s largest gaming
operator, is making similar moves. Mr Murren has convened a committee of millennial employees to work
out how to keep the business relevant to future generations. Both rms will soon open experimental
spaces for young people, including new types of slot-machine games that test players’ skills as much as
their wallets.

These offer a glimpse of a casino of the future that looks very different indeed. There are gravity-free
rooms where you can literally climb the walls; LED screens that continuously change interior backgrounds;
and combinations of gambling machines and virtual-reality shoot-em-ups that allow you to bet on how
many monsters you (and your friends) can blast away. Instead of individuals standing solo at one-armed
bandits, groups of players might compete against each other over wireless-enabled consoles offering a
menu of wagering games. Instead of magic acts and yesterday’s pop stars, electronic-sports tournaments
and the latest in live music will draw in spectators.

Hip, high-tech casinos sound like a lot of fun. But they may not come into being. Building and maintaining
them would be expensive, and in the end, they still might not appeal to younger people. More to the point,
gambling executives may not have the stamina to see the projects through. Most of them today are
curiously short of two things: free cash ow and, above all, the readiness to gamble big.

“The industry is not lled with creative geniuses,” says Mr Frissora, who came to Caesars from Hertz, a
car-rental company. Casinos used to make a lot of money and didn’t need to innovate. That has changed.
Smartphones and consoles make traditional slots and table games look stodgy. The list of new
competitors for their customers’ attention—daily fantasy sports contests, legal and unregulated internet
gambling, video lottery terminals, online social casino games (played with virtual currency)—goes on and
on. Some people worry that casino rms will become like Blockbuster, a lm-rental business annihilated
by the internet. Alex Bumazhny of Fitch Ratings suggests they might become like photocopier machines,
used less frequently but not entirely obsolete.

The signs of stagnation are clearly visible. Gaming revenues on the Las Vegas Strip peaked at $6.5 billion
in 2007, fell in 2010 to $5.2 billion and then rose modestly. In Atlantic City revenues have halved since
2006. Nationally, state-regulated casino-gaming revenues (including from Las Vegas and Atlantic City)
have grown by just 7% since 2007, to $40 billion last year, despite greatly expanded offerings. The states
of Pennsylvania and Maryland, which had no casinos until a decade ago, now in 2016 account for more
than $4 billion in gaming income (in part, by taking away customers from Atlantic City). Revenue from
operations on Native American territory has risen by only 12% since 2008, to $29.9 billion last year.

  Q.8
In the penultimate paragraph the casinos are compared to photocopier machines. Which of the following
aspect of photocopiers, if true, best explains the analogy?

1   There is an increased use of digital document creation, storage and distribution using modes other
than photocopying.
2 Photocopiers are increasingly adopting digital technology.

3 There is a steady decline in the price of photocopier machines.

4 Photocopier machines are largely used by the older generation.

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 Answer key/Solution
Directions for questions (7 to12): The passage below is accompanied by a set of six questions. Choose the
best answer to each question.

Shortly after Mark Frissora took over as chief executive of Caesars Entertainment last year, he paced the
oors of his American casinos, with their rows and rows of idle slot machines, and grasped the scale of the
existential threat that faces his industry. Casino customers are ageing, and younger people have little
interest in taking their place. Mr Frissora called on his company to brainstorm a new “casino within a
casino” to draw in millennials who grew up playing video and mobile-phone games.

Next door on the Las Vegas Strip, Jim Murren, CEO of MGM Resorts International, the city’s largest gaming
operator, is making similar moves. Mr Murren has convened a committee of millennial employees to work
out how to keep the business relevant to future generations. Both rms will soon open experimental
spaces for young people, including new types of slot-machine games that test players’ skills as much as
their wallets.

These offer a glimpse of a casino of the future that looks very different indeed. There are gravity-free
rooms where you can literally climb the walls; LED screens that continuously change interior backgrounds;
and combinations of gambling machines and virtual-reality shoot-em-ups that allow you to bet on how
many monsters you (and your friends) can blast away. Instead of individuals standing solo at one-armed
bandits, groups of players might compete against each other over wireless-enabled consoles offering a
menu of wagering games. Instead of magic acts and yesterday’s pop stars, electronic-sports tournaments
and the latest in live music will draw in spectators.

Hip, high-tech casinos sound like a lot of fun. But they may not come into being. Building and maintaining
them would be expensive, and in the end, they still might not appeal to younger people. More to the point,
gambling executives may not have the stamina to see the projects through. Most of them today are
curiously short of two things: free cash ow and, above all, the readiness to gamble big.

“The industry is not lled with creative geniuses,” says Mr Frissora, who came to Caesars from Hertz, a
car-rental company. Casinos used to make a lot of money and didn’t need to innovate. That has changed.
Smartphones and consoles make traditional slots and table games look stodgy. The list of new
competitors for their customers’ attention—daily fantasy sports contests, legal and unregulated internet
gambling, video lottery terminals, online social casino games (played with virtual currency)—goes on and
on. Some people worry that casino rms will become like Blockbuster, a lm-rental business annihilated
by the internet. Alex Bumazhny of Fitch Ratings suggests they might become like photocopier machines,
used less frequently but not entirely obsolete.

The signs of stagnation are clearly visible. Gaming revenues on the Las Vegas Strip peaked at $6.5 billion
in 2007, fell in 2010 to $5.2 billion and then rose modestly. In Atlantic City revenues have halved since
2006. Nationally, state-regulated casino-gaming revenues (including from Las Vegas and Atlantic City)
have grown by just 7% since 2007, to $40 billion last year, despite greatly expanded offerings. The states
of Pennsylvania and Maryland, which had no casinos until a decade ago, now in 2016 account for more
than $4 billion in gaming income (in part, by taking away customers from Atlantic City). Revenue from
operations on Native American territory has risen by only 12% since 2008, to $29.9 billion last year.

  Q.9
The passage mentions ‘In Atlantic City revenues have halved since 2006.’ Based on the information given
in the passage, which one of the following could be the most likely reason why Atlantic City casinos were
hit badly than others?
1   Most of the casinos in Atlantic City, since inception, did not innovate enough to attract younger
customers.

2 Post 2006, there was an increasing in ux of older people spending their retirement in Atlantic City.

3 Between 2006 and now, the economic crisis of 2008 impacted Atlantic City the highest amongst all
the cities which had casinos.

4 Before 2006, the residents of Pennsylvania and Maryland had to travel to Atlantic City to play in the
casinos.

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 Answer key/Solution
Directions for questions (7 to12): The passage below is accompanied by a set of six questions. Choose the
best answer to each question.

Shortly after Mark Frissora took over as chief executive of Caesars Entertainment last year, he paced the
oors of his American casinos, with their rows and rows of idle slot machines, and grasped the scale of the
existential threat that faces his industry. Casino customers are ageing, and younger people have little
interest in taking their place. Mr Frissora called on his company to brainstorm a new “casino within a
casino” to draw in millennials who grew up playing video and mobile-phone games.

Next door on the Las Vegas Strip, Jim Murren, CEO of MGM Resorts International, the city’s largest gaming
operator, is making similar moves. Mr Murren has convened a committee of millennial employees to work
out how to keep the business relevant to future generations. Both rms will soon open experimental
spaces for young people, including new types of slot-machine games that test players’ skills as much as
their wallets.

These offer a glimpse of a casino of the future that looks very different indeed. There are gravity-free
rooms where you can literally climb the walls; LED screens that continuously change interior backgrounds;
and combinations of gambling machines and virtual-reality shoot-em-ups that allow you to bet on how
many monsters you (and your friends) can blast away. Instead of individuals standing solo at one-armed
bandits, groups of players might compete against each other over wireless-enabled consoles offering a
menu of wagering games. Instead of magic acts and yesterday’s pop stars, electronic-sports tournaments
and the latest in live music will draw in spectators.

Hip, high-tech casinos sound like a lot of fun. But they may not come into being. Building and maintaining
them would be expensive, and in the end, they still might not appeal to younger people. More to the point,
gambling executives may not have the stamina to see the projects through. Most of them today are
curiously short of two things: free cash ow and, above all, the readiness to gamble big.

“The industry is not lled with creative geniuses,” says Mr Frissora, who came to Caesars from Hertz, a
car-rental company. Casinos used to make a lot of money and didn’t need to innovate. That has changed.
Smartphones and consoles make traditional slots and table games look stodgy. The list of new
competitors for their customers’ attention—daily fantasy sports contests, legal and unregulated internet
gambling, video lottery terminals, online social casino games (played with virtual currency)—goes on and
on. Some people worry that casino rms will become like Blockbuster, a lm-rental business annihilated
by the internet. Alex Bumazhny of Fitch Ratings suggests they might become like photocopier machines,
used less frequently but not entirely obsolete.

The signs of stagnation are clearly visible. Gaming revenues on the Las Vegas Strip peaked at $6.5 billion
in 2007, fell in 2010 to $5.2 billion and then rose modestly. In Atlantic City revenues have halved since
2006. Nationally, state-regulated casino-gaming revenues (including from Las Vegas and Atlantic City)
have grown by just 7% since 2007, to $40 billion last year, despite greatly expanded offerings. The states
of Pennsylvania and Maryland, which had no casinos until a decade ago, now in 2016 account for more
than $4 billion in gaming income (in part, by taking away customers from Atlantic City). Revenue from
operations on Native American territory has risen by only 12% since 2008, to $29.9 billion last year.

  Q.10
Based on the information given in the passage, which of the following is NOT mentioned as a course of
action that any of the casinos acted on to attract young customers?

1  Redesign the casino space

2 Leverage technology

3 Tap into social media to woo younger customers

4 Each of the above is an action taken by at least some casinos

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 Answer key/Solution
Directions for questions (7 to12): The passage below is accompanied by a set of six questions. Choose the
best answer to each question.

Shortly after Mark Frissora took over as chief executive of Caesars Entertainment last year, he paced the
oors of his American casinos, with their rows and rows of idle slot machines, and grasped the scale of the
existential threat that faces his industry. Casino customers are ageing, and younger people have little
interest in taking their place. Mr Frissora called on his company to brainstorm a new “casino within a
casino” to draw in millennials who grew up playing video and mobile-phone games.

Next door on the Las Vegas Strip, Jim Murren, CEO of MGM Resorts International, the city’s largest gaming
operator, is making similar moves. Mr Murren has convened a committee of millennial employees to work
out how to keep the business relevant to future generations. Both rms will soon open experimental
spaces for young people, including new types of slot-machine games that test players’ skills as much as
their wallets.

These offer a glimpse of a casino of the future that looks very different indeed. There are gravity-free
rooms where you can literally climb the walls; LED screens that continuously change interior backgrounds;
and combinations of gambling machines and virtual-reality shoot-em-ups that allow you to bet on how
many monsters you (and your friends) can blast away. Instead of individuals standing solo at one-armed
bandits, groups of players might compete against each other over wireless-enabled consoles offering a
menu of wagering games. Instead of magic acts and yesterday’s pop stars, electronic-sports tournaments
and the latest in live music will draw in spectators.

Hip, high-tech casinos sound like a lot of fun. But they may not come into being. Building and maintaining
them would be expensive, and in the end, they still might not appeal to younger people. More to the point,
gambling executives may not have the stamina to see the projects through. Most of them today are
curiously short of two things: free cash ow and, above all, the readiness to gamble big.

“The industry is not lled with creative geniuses,” says Mr Frissora, who came to Caesars from Hertz, a
car-rental company. Casinos used to make a lot of money and didn’t need to innovate. That has changed.
Smartphones and consoles make traditional slots and table games look stodgy. The list of new
competitors for their customers’ attention—daily fantasy sports contests, legal and unregulated internet
gambling, video lottery terminals, online social casino games (played with virtual currency)—goes on and
on. Some people worry that casino rms will become like Blockbuster, a lm-rental business annihilated
by the internet. Alex Bumazhny of Fitch Ratings suggests they might become like photocopier machines,
used less frequently but not entirely obsolete.

The signs of stagnation are clearly visible. Gaming revenues on the Las Vegas Strip peaked at $6.5 billion
in 2007, fell in 2010 to $5.2 billion and then rose modestly. In Atlantic City revenues have halved since
2006. Nationally, state-regulated casino-gaming revenues (including from Las Vegas and Atlantic City)
have grown by just 7% since 2007, to $40 billion last year, despite greatly expanded offerings. The states
of Pennsylvania and Maryland, which had no casinos until a decade ago, now in 2016 account for more
than $4 billion in gaming income (in part, by taking away customers from Atlantic City). Revenue from
operations on Native American territory has risen by only 12% since 2008, to $29.9 billion last year.

  Q.11
Which one of the following if overlooked by Caesars Entertainment and MGM Resorts International will
make their actions to attract younger customers, futile?

1  A growing number of young people are hooked on wagering games.

2 Playing in the casino requires money and young people do not earn enough to spend in the casino.

3 There is signi cant reporting in the media regarding the perils of gambling.

4 50 percent of the income earned by the two casinos is paid in taxes to the government- one of the
highest among casinos in the country.

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 Answer key/Solution
Directions for questions (7 to12): The passage below is accompanied by a set of six questions. Choose the
best answer to each question.

Shortly after Mark Frissora took over as chief executive of Caesars Entertainment last year, he paced the
oors of his American casinos, with their rows and rows of idle slot machines, and grasped the scale of the
existential threat that faces his industry. Casino customers are ageing, and younger people have little
interest in taking their place. Mr Frissora called on his company to brainstorm a new “casino within a
casino” to draw in millennials who grew up playing video and mobile-phone games.

Next door on the Las Vegas Strip, Jim Murren, CEO of MGM Resorts International, the city’s largest gaming
operator, is making similar moves. Mr Murren has convened a committee of millennial employees to work
out how to keep the business relevant to future generations. Both rms will soon open experimental
spaces for young people, including new types of slot-machine games that test players’ skills as much as
their wallets.

These offer a glimpse of a casino of the future that looks very different indeed. There are gravity-free
rooms where you can literally climb the walls; LED screens that continuously change interior backgrounds;
and combinations of gambling machines and virtual-reality shoot-em-ups that allow you to bet on how
many monsters you (and your friends) can blast away. Instead of individuals standing solo at one-armed
bandits, groups of players might compete against each other over wireless-enabled consoles offering a
menu of wagering games. Instead of magic acts and yesterday’s pop stars, electronic-sports tournaments
and the latest in live music will draw in spectators.

Hip, high-tech casinos sound like a lot of fun. But they may not come into being. Building and maintaining
them would be expensive, and in the end, they still might not appeal to younger people. More to the point,
gambling executives may not have the stamina to see the projects through. Most of them today are
curiously short of two things: free cash ow and, above all, the readiness to gamble big.

“The industry is not lled with creative geniuses,” says Mr Frissora, who came to Caesars from Hertz, a
car-rental company. Casinos used to make a lot of money and didn’t need to innovate. That has changed.
Smartphones and consoles make traditional slots and table games look stodgy. The list of new
competitors for their customers’ attention—daily fantasy sports contests, legal and unregulated internet
gambling, video lottery terminals, online social casino games (played with virtual currency)—goes on and
on. Some people worry that casino rms will become like Blockbuster, a lm-rental business annihilated
by the internet. Alex Bumazhny of Fitch Ratings suggests they might become like photocopier machines,
used less frequently but not entirely obsolete.

The signs of stagnation are clearly visible. Gaming revenues on the Las Vegas Strip peaked at $6.5 billion
in 2007, fell in 2010 to $5.2 billion and then rose modestly. In Atlantic City revenues have halved since
2006. Nationally, state-regulated casino-gaming revenues (including from Las Vegas and Atlantic City)
have grown by just 7% since 2007, to $40 billion last year, despite greatly expanded offerings. The states
of Pennsylvania and Maryland, which had no casinos until a decade ago, now in 2016 account for more
than $4 billion in gaming income (in part, by taking away customers from Atlantic City). Revenue from
operations on Native American territory has risen by only 12% since 2008, to $29.9 billion last year.

  Q.12
Which of the following best describes the passage?

1  An article made by an investigative journalist

2 An article in a business periodical

3 A research study in a business journal

4 An analysis made by the executive of a casino

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 Answer key/Solution
Directions for questions (13 to 18): The passage below is accompanied by a set of six questions. Choose
the best answer to each question.

The energy sector is in a state of change and uncertainty. A change is necessary due to the environmental
damage and risks associated with the existing energy system such as climate change, pollution, security
of supply concerns, and unpredictable future energy prices. Numerous studies, debates, and public gures
have highlighted the need for a radical change in the very near future, including the International Energy
Agency who have recently stated that a radical change is necessary by 2019.

Unfortunately, the pace of change is relatively slow today, even with all these concerns and the large body
of research to prove that a change is necessary. This could be attributed to numerous factors such as the
strength of existing institutions in the energy sector and the lack of suitable policy and markets. One of the
key issues obstructing change in the energy sector is uncertainty.

A lot of this uncertainty is created by the variety of alternatives being proposed and debated for the energy
sector. Typically, every country will have a few very powerful institutions in each of the electricity, gas, oil,
and renewable energy sectors. Each of these institutions would like to remain powerful in the future and
so, when debating the design of the future energy system, it is often very di cult to separate the optimum
outcome from the vested interests. This is particularly true when debating renewable energy in the future.
Renewable energy is still at the development stage and it requires a radical change in the way the energy
system is operated. Therefore, its reliability, costs, and potential are often more di cult to illustrate and
communicate.

100% renewable energy system is technical feasible, but the structure will be very different in the future. In
general, combustion will be replaced by electricity in almost all sectors. This is already evident in the
electricity sector where primarily wind turbines are replaced power plants. In the heat sector individual
boilers will be replaced by heat pumps, while in the transport sector oil will be replaced by electric vehicles
and synthetic fuels.

In terms of costs, based on 2020 price assumptions a 100% renewable energy scenario will be
approximately 20% more expensive than a business-as-usual scenario, but under 2050 price assumptions
they will be the same price. However, the key difference from a society perspective is not the total costs,
but the method type of costs in these two energy systems. A business-as-usual scenario will result in a
fuel-based system which is dependent on imports, while a renewable energy scenario will result in an
investment-based system. For instance, this will have a very positive impact on Ireland’s balance of
payment, since Ireland currently imports 90% of its fossil fuels. In total, there is approximately €2
billion/year more spent within Ireland when the investment-based renewable energy system is in place.
This enables the creation of approximately 40,000–50,000 more direct jobs if all the investments are
spread out between 2020 and 2050.

100% renewable energy systems will most likely result in the same socio-economic costs as a business as
usual scenario. However, due to the type of costs in the investment-based renewable energy system, the
local bene ts for countries that currently import fossil fuels mean that a 100% renewable energy system is
more cost effective for society.

  Q.13
With which one of the following statements is the author LEAST likely to agree with?

1   The debate around renewable energy systems must be based on the optimum outcome and not on
any vested interest.
2 In the long-run, a transition to 100% renewable energy may not necessarily result in a signi cantly low
socio-economic cost.

3 It is more likely that a move to 100% renewable energy systems is possible without having made
fundamental changes to the way energy system is operated.

4 A transition to 100% renewable energy can happen without increasing the cost of the energy system.

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 Answer key/Solution
Directions for questions (13 to 18): The passage below is accompanied by a set of six questions. Choose
the best answer to each question.

The energy sector is in a state of change and uncertainty. A change is necessary due to the environmental
damage and risks associated with the existing energy system such as climate change, pollution, security
of supply concerns, and unpredictable future energy prices. Numerous studies, debates, and public gures
have highlighted the need for a radical change in the very near future, including the International Energy
Agency who have recently stated that a radical change is necessary by 2019.

Unfortunately, the pace of change is relatively slow today, even with all these concerns and the large body
of research to prove that a change is necessary. This could be attributed to numerous factors such as the
strength of existing institutions in the energy sector and the lack of suitable policy and markets. One of the
key issues obstructing change in the energy sector is uncertainty.

A lot of this uncertainty is created by the variety of alternatives being proposed and debated for the energy
sector. Typically, every country will have a few very powerful institutions in each of the electricity, gas, oil,
and renewable energy sectors. Each of these institutions would like to remain powerful in the future and
so, when debating the design of the future energy system, it is often very di cult to separate the optimum
outcome from the vested interests. This is particularly true when debating renewable energy in the future.
Renewable energy is still at the development stage and it requires a radical change in the way the energy
system is operated. Therefore, its reliability, costs, and potential are often more di cult to illustrate and
communicate.

100% renewable energy system is technical feasible, but the structure will be very different in the future. In
general, combustion will be replaced by electricity in almost all sectors. This is already evident in the
electricity sector where primarily wind turbines are replaced power plants. In the heat sector individual
boilers will be replaced by heat pumps, while in the transport sector oil will be replaced by electric vehicles
and synthetic fuels.

In terms of costs, based on 2020 price assumptions a 100% renewable energy scenario will be
approximately 20% more expensive than a business-as-usual scenario, but under 2050 price assumptions
they will be the same price. However, the key difference from a society perspective is not the total costs,
but the method type of costs in these two energy systems. A business-as-usual scenario will result in a
fuel-based system which is dependent on imports, while a renewable energy scenario will result in an
investment-based system. For instance, this will have a very positive impact on Ireland’s balance of
payment, since Ireland currently imports 90% of its fossil fuels. In total, there is approximately €2
billion/year more spent within Ireland when the investment-based renewable energy system is in place.
This enables the creation of approximately 40,000–50,000 more direct jobs if all the investments are
spread out between 2020 and 2050.

100% renewable energy systems will most likely result in the same socio-economic costs as a business as
usual scenario. However, due to the type of costs in the investment-based renewable energy system, the
local bene ts for countries that currently import fossil fuels mean that a 100% renewable energy system is
more cost effective for society.

  Q.14
The author mentions that a change in the energy system is necessary. The primary reason for the same is
that:

1  the International Energy Agency stated that a radical change is necessary.

2 a change will be cost effective for the society.

3 every country has powerful institutions that hamper the progress of energy reform.

4 the current energy system risks damages to the environment.

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 Answer key/Solution
Directions for questions (13 to 18): The passage below is accompanied by a set of six questions. Choose
the best answer to each question.

The energy sector is in a state of change and uncertainty. A change is necessary due to the environmental
damage and risks associated with the existing energy system such as climate change, pollution, security
of supply concerns, and unpredictable future energy prices. Numerous studies, debates, and public gures
have highlighted the need for a radical change in the very near future, including the International Energy
Agency who have recently stated that a radical change is necessary by 2019.

Unfortunately, the pace of change is relatively slow today, even with all these concerns and the large body
of research to prove that a change is necessary. This could be attributed to numerous factors such as the
strength of existing institutions in the energy sector and the lack of suitable policy and markets. One of the
key issues obstructing change in the energy sector is uncertainty.

A lot of this uncertainty is created by the variety of alternatives being proposed and debated for the energy
sector. Typically, every country will have a few very powerful institutions in each of the electricity, gas, oil,
and renewable energy sectors. Each of these institutions would like to remain powerful in the future and
so, when debating the design of the future energy system, it is often very di cult to separate the optimum
outcome from the vested interests. This is particularly true when debating renewable energy in the future.
Renewable energy is still at the development stage and it requires a radical change in the way the energy
system is operated. Therefore, its reliability, costs, and potential are often more di cult to illustrate and
communicate.

100% renewable energy system is technical feasible, but the structure will be very different in the future. In
general, combustion will be replaced by electricity in almost all sectors. This is already evident in the
electricity sector where primarily wind turbines are replaced power plants. In the heat sector individual
boilers will be replaced by heat pumps, while in the transport sector oil will be replaced by electric vehicles
and synthetic fuels.

In terms of costs, based on 2020 price assumptions a 100% renewable energy scenario will be
approximately 20% more expensive than a business-as-usual scenario, but under 2050 price assumptions
they will be the same price. However, the key difference from a society perspective is not the total costs,
but the method type of costs in these two energy systems. A business-as-usual scenario will result in a
fuel-based system which is dependent on imports, while a renewable energy scenario will result in an
investment-based system. For instance, this will have a very positive impact on Ireland’s balance of
payment, since Ireland currently imports 90% of its fossil fuels. In total, there is approximately €2
billion/year more spent within Ireland when the investment-based renewable energy system is in place.
This enables the creation of approximately 40,000–50,000 more direct jobs if all the investments are
spread out between 2020 and 2050.

100% renewable energy systems will most likely result in the same socio-economic costs as a business as
usual scenario. However, due to the type of costs in the investment-based renewable energy system, the
local bene ts for countries that currently import fossil fuels mean that a 100% renewable energy system is
more cost effective for society.

  Q.15
Which of the following, if true, calls into question the claims made by the author?

1  Renewable energy needs huge capital investment.

2 Fossil fuel industry has used its in uence on spreading false and misleading information about
climate change.

3 Most of current climate change trend is extremely likely to be the result of human activity since the
20th century.

4 The Energy Return on Investment–ratio between the amount of energy they produce to the amount of
energy invested in them–will substantially remain low for at least 4 decades for renewables than those of
fossil fuels.

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 Answer key/Solution
Directions for questions (13 to 18): The passage below is accompanied by a set of six questions. Choose
the best answer to each question.

The energy sector is in a state of change and uncertainty. A change is necessary due to the environmental
damage and risks associated with the existing energy system such as climate change, pollution, security
of supply concerns, and unpredictable future energy prices. Numerous studies, debates, and public gures
have highlighted the need for a radical change in the very near future, including the International Energy
Agency who have recently stated that a radical change is necessary by 2019.

Unfortunately, the pace of change is relatively slow today, even with all these concerns and the large body
of research to prove that a change is necessary. This could be attributed to numerous factors such as the
strength of existing institutions in the energy sector and the lack of suitable policy and markets. One of the
key issues obstructing change in the energy sector is uncertainty.

A lot of this uncertainty is created by the variety of alternatives being proposed and debated for the energy
sector. Typically, every country will have a few very powerful institutions in each of the electricity, gas, oil,
and renewable energy sectors. Each of these institutions would like to remain powerful in the future and
so, when debating the design of the future energy system, it is often very di cult to separate the optimum
outcome from the vested interests. This is particularly true when debating renewable energy in the future.
Renewable energy is still at the development stage and it requires a radical change in the way the energy
system is operated. Therefore, its reliability, costs, and potential are often more di cult to illustrate and
communicate.

100% renewable energy system is technical feasible, but the structure will be very different in the future. In
general, combustion will be replaced by electricity in almost all sectors. This is already evident in the
electricity sector where primarily wind turbines are replaced power plants. In the heat sector individual
boilers will be replaced by heat pumps, while in the transport sector oil will be replaced by electric vehicles
and synthetic fuels.

In terms of costs, based on 2020 price assumptions a 100% renewable energy scenario will be
approximately 20% more expensive than a business-as-usual scenario, but under 2050 price assumptions
they will be the same price. However, the key difference from a society perspective is not the total costs,
but the method type of costs in these two energy systems. A business-as-usual scenario will result in a
fuel-based system which is dependent on imports, while a renewable energy scenario will result in an
investment-based system. For instance, this will have a very positive impact on Ireland’s balance of
payment, since Ireland currently imports 90% of its fossil fuels. In total, there is approximately €2
billion/year more spent within Ireland when the investment-based renewable energy system is in place.
This enables the creation of approximately 40,000–50,000 more direct jobs if all the investments are
spread out between 2020 and 2050.

100% renewable energy systems will most likely result in the same socio-economic costs as a business as
usual scenario. However, due to the type of costs in the investment-based renewable energy system, the
local bene ts for countries that currently import fossil fuels mean that a 100% renewable energy system is
more cost effective for society.

  Q.16
What structural change will happen in the energy system should there be a transition to 100% renewable
energy system?

1  Electricity will replace most of the existing energy creation process.

2 Newer technologies will be created to replace the existing ones.

3 There will be less dependence on imports of fossil fuels.

4 More direct jobs will be created in the next 30 years.

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 Answer key/Solution
Directions for questions (13 to 18): The passage below is accompanied by a set of six questions. Choose
the best answer to each question.

The energy sector is in a state of change and uncertainty. A change is necessary due to the environmental
damage and risks associated with the existing energy system such as climate change, pollution, security
of supply concerns, and unpredictable future energy prices. Numerous studies, debates, and public gures
have highlighted the need for a radical change in the very near future, including the International Energy
Agency who have recently stated that a radical change is necessary by 2019.

Unfortunately, the pace of change is relatively slow today, even with all these concerns and the large body
of research to prove that a change is necessary. This could be attributed to numerous factors such as the
strength of existing institutions in the energy sector and the lack of suitable policy and markets. One of the
key issues obstructing change in the energy sector is uncertainty.

A lot of this uncertainty is created by the variety of alternatives being proposed and debated for the energy
sector. Typically, every country will have a few very powerful institutions in each of the electricity, gas, oil,
and renewable energy sectors. Each of these institutions would like to remain powerful in the future and
so, when debating the design of the future energy system, it is often very di cult to separate the optimum
outcome from the vested interests. This is particularly true when debating renewable energy in the future.
Renewable energy is still at the development stage and it requires a radical change in the way the energy
system is operated. Therefore, its reliability, costs, and potential are often more di cult to illustrate and
communicate.

100% renewable energy system is technical feasible, but the structure will be very different in the future. In
general, combustion will be replaced by electricity in almost all sectors. This is already evident in the
electricity sector where primarily wind turbines are replaced power plants. In the heat sector individual
boilers will be replaced by heat pumps, while in the transport sector oil will be replaced by electric vehicles
and synthetic fuels.

In terms of costs, based on 2020 price assumptions a 100% renewable energy scenario will be
approximately 20% more expensive than a business-as-usual scenario, but under 2050 price assumptions
they will be the same price. However, the key difference from a society perspective is not the total costs,
but the method type of costs in these two energy systems. A business-as-usual scenario will result in a
fuel-based system which is dependent on imports, while a renewable energy scenario will result in an
investment-based system. For instance, this will have a very positive impact on Ireland’s balance of
payment, since Ireland currently imports 90% of its fossil fuels. In total, there is approximately €2
billion/year more spent within Ireland when the investment-based renewable energy system is in place.
This enables the creation of approximately 40,000–50,000 more direct jobs if all the investments are
spread out between 2020 and 2050.

100% renewable energy systems will most likely result in the same socio-economic costs as a business as
usual scenario. However, due to the type of costs in the investment-based renewable energy system, the
local bene ts for countries that currently import fossil fuels mean that a 100% renewable energy system is
more cost effective for society.

  Q.17
Which of the following, if it were to happen, will best mitigate the problem of slow pace of change in the
energy sector?

1  Educating the public the bene ts of renewables.

2 There is better coordination between various governments.

3 All stakeholders agree on the design of the future renewable energy system.

4 The price of fossil-fuel increases signi cantly.

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 Answer key/Solution
Directions for questions (13 to 18): The passage below is accompanied by a set of six questions. Choose
the best answer to each question.

The energy sector is in a state of change and uncertainty. A change is necessary due to the environmental
damage and risks associated with the existing energy system such as climate change, pollution, security
of supply concerns, and unpredictable future energy prices. Numerous studies, debates, and public gures
have highlighted the need for a radical change in the very near future, including the International Energy
Agency who have recently stated that a radical change is necessary by 2019.

Unfortunately, the pace of change is relatively slow today, even with all these concerns and the large body
of research to prove that a change is necessary. This could be attributed to numerous factors such as the
strength of existing institutions in the energy sector and the lack of suitable policy and markets. One of the
key issues obstructing change in the energy sector is uncertainty.

A lot of this uncertainty is created by the variety of alternatives being proposed and debated for the energy
sector. Typically, every country will have a few very powerful institutions in each of the electricity, gas, oil,
and renewable energy sectors. Each of these institutions would like to remain powerful in the future and
so, when debating the design of the future energy system, it is often very di cult to separate the optimum
outcome from the vested interests. This is particularly true when debating renewable energy in the future.
Renewable energy is still at the development stage and it requires a radical change in the way the energy
system is operated. Therefore, its reliability, costs, and potential are often more di cult to illustrate and
communicate.

100% renewable energy system is technical feasible, but the structure will be very different in the future. In
general, combustion will be replaced by electricity in almost all sectors. This is already evident in the
electricity sector where primarily wind turbines are replaced power plants. In the heat sector individual
boilers will be replaced by heat pumps, while in the transport sector oil will be replaced by electric vehicles
and synthetic fuels.

In terms of costs, based on 2020 price assumptions a 100% renewable energy scenario will be
approximately 20% more expensive than a business-as-usual scenario, but under 2050 price assumptions
they will be the same price. However, the key difference from a society perspective is not the total costs,
but the method type of costs in these two energy systems. A business-as-usual scenario will result in a
fuel-based system which is dependent on imports, while a renewable energy scenario will result in an
investment-based system. For instance, this will have a very positive impact on Ireland’s balance of
payment, since Ireland currently imports 90% of its fossil fuels. In total, there is approximately €2
billion/year more spent within Ireland when the investment-based renewable energy system is in place.
This enables the creation of approximately 40,000–50,000 more direct jobs if all the investments are
spread out between 2020 and 2050.

100% renewable energy systems will most likely result in the same socio-economic costs as a business as
usual scenario. However, due to the type of costs in the investment-based renewable energy system, the
local bene ts for countries that currently import fossil fuels mean that a 100% renewable energy system is
more cost effective for society.

  Q.18
Which of the following best describes the passage?

1  An appeal to get more investments in 100% renewable energy system

2 Introduction to a more detailed discussion on the economic feasibility of 100% renewable energy
system

3 Critically evaluating the present energy systems and presenting 100% renewable energy system as
the best alternative

4 A summary of ndings made in a study on the viability of 100% renewable energy system

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 Answer key/Solution

Directions for questions (19 to 21): The passage below is accompanied by a set of three questions.
Choose the best answer to each question.

Throughout the ages, an enduring mystique has developed around dolphins. Even today some people
continue to impute dolphins with mystical abilities such as extra-sensory perception and, in alternative
medicine circles, special healing powers. An entire industry in ‘dolphin assisted therapy’ has been founded
on the idea that dolphins have the capacity to heal illnesses using their sonar or by touch. There is no
scienti c support for any of these outlandish claims. But our appreciation of dolphins does not need to
depend on their having supernatural powers. What we know about dolphin cognition from scienti c
research is immensely more exciting than any myths could be.

Controlled experimental studies on bottlenose dolphin cognition have been carried out in the domains of
memory, conceptual processes, vocal and motor mimicry, behavioural innovation, ‘language’
understanding, mental representation and self-awareness. Not surprisingly, bottlenose dolphins have
exceptional short term and long-term memory for visual, auditory and multimodal information, as well as
abstract concepts. Bottlenose dolphins exhibit a level of behavioural exibility, innovation and imitative-
ability that is rare, if not unique, among nonhuman animals. This means that dolphins are able to mentally
represent and form analogies between their own body and that of another individual — even improvising
when that other individual doesn’t look much like a dolphin! These propensities of dolphins undoubtedly
contribute much to the human passion for interacting with them.

The bottlenose dolphin is one of a very limited group of nonhuman species – great apes and parrots are
the others – that have demonstrated compelling capacities to understand a rule-based symbolic arti cial
‘language’. They are capable of semantics (comprehending visual and auditory symbols as ‘words’) and
syntax (understanding that changes in word order change the meaning of a sentence). Dolphins even
understand symbolic references to objects that are absent. Out of sight – not out of mind!

  Q.19
Which of the following best captures the essence of the rst paragraph?

1   Throughout ages, there has been a lasting mysteriousness around dolphins, most of which are
outlandish claims.
2 Contrary to the belief of some people, the scienti c support for any mystical abilities of dolphin is
non-existent.

3 Our knowledge of dolphin cognition from scienti c research is signi cantly more exciting than any
myth associated with dolphins.

4 While there are exciting myths around dolphins, there are many things beyond those myths that can
help us appreciate dolphins.

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 Answer key/Solution

Directions for questions (19 to 21): The passage below is accompanied by a set of three questions.
Choose the best answer to each question.

Throughout the ages, an enduring mystique has developed around dolphins. Even today some people
continue to impute dolphins with mystical abilities such as extra-sensory perception and, in alternative
medicine circles, special healing powers. An entire industry in ‘dolphin assisted therapy’ has been founded
on the idea that dolphins have the capacity to heal illnesses using their sonar or by touch. There is no
scienti c support for any of these outlandish claims. But our appreciation of dolphins does not need to
depend on their having supernatural powers. What we know about dolphin cognition from scienti c
research is immensely more exciting than any myths could be.

Controlled experimental studies on bottlenose dolphin cognition have been carried out in the domains of
memory, conceptual processes, vocal and motor mimicry, behavioural innovation, ‘language’
understanding, mental representation and self-awareness. Not surprisingly, bottlenose dolphins have
exceptional short term and long-term memory for visual, auditory and multimodal information, as well as
abstract concepts. Bottlenose dolphins exhibit a level of behavioural exibility, innovation and imitative-
ability that is rare, if not unique, among nonhuman animals. This means that dolphins are able to mentally
represent and form analogies between their own body and that of another individual — even improvising
when that other individual doesn’t look much like a dolphin! These propensities of dolphins undoubtedly
contribute much to the human passion for interacting with them.

The bottlenose dolphin is one of a very limited group of nonhuman species – great apes and parrots are
the others – that have demonstrated compelling capacities to understand a rule-based symbolic arti cial
‘language’. They are capable of semantics (comprehending visual and auditory symbols as ‘words’) and
syntax (understanding that changes in word order change the meaning of a sentence). Dolphins even
understand symbolic references to objects that are absent. Out of sight – not out of mind!

  Q.20
Each of the following questions can be answered with the help of the information given in the passage
EXCEPT:

1  What factors contribute to the desire of humans to interact with bottlenose dolphins?
2 Do bottlenose dolphins have a unique desire to seek out human contact?

3 Are bottlenose dolphins the only non-human species which can comprehend visual and auditory
symbols?

4 Is it possible to conduct experimental studies on vocal mimicry on at least one non-human species?

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 Answer key/Solution

Directions for questions (19 to 21): The passage below is accompanied by a set of three questions.
Choose the best answer to each question.

Throughout the ages, an enduring mystique has developed around dolphins. Even today some people
continue to impute dolphins with mystical abilities such as extra-sensory perception and, in alternative
medicine circles, special healing powers. An entire industry in ‘dolphin assisted therapy’ has been founded
on the idea that dolphins have the capacity to heal illnesses using their sonar or by touch. There is no
scienti c support for any of these outlandish claims. But our appreciation of dolphins does not need to
depend on their having supernatural powers. What we know about dolphin cognition from scienti c
research is immensely more exciting than any myths could be.

Controlled experimental studies on bottlenose dolphin cognition have been carried out in the domains of
memory, conceptual processes, vocal and motor mimicry, behavioural innovation, ‘language’
understanding, mental representation and self-awareness. Not surprisingly, bottlenose dolphins have
exceptional short term and long-term memory for visual, auditory and multimodal information, as well as
abstract concepts. Bottlenose dolphins exhibit a level of behavioural exibility, innovation and imitative-
ability that is rare, if not unique, among nonhuman animals. This means that dolphins are able to mentally
represent and form analogies between their own body and that of another individual — even improvising
when that other individual doesn’t look much like a dolphin! These propensities of dolphins undoubtedly
contribute much to the human passion for interacting with them.

The bottlenose dolphin is one of a very limited group of nonhuman species – great apes and parrots are
the others – that have demonstrated compelling capacities to understand a rule-based symbolic arti cial
‘language’. They are capable of semantics (comprehending visual and auditory symbols as ‘words’) and
syntax (understanding that changes in word order change the meaning of a sentence). Dolphins even
understand symbolic references to objects that are absent. Out of sight – not out of mind!

  Q.21
One of the reasons why the bottlenose dolphins can form similarities between their own body and that of
others is that:

1  their exceptional short-term and long-term memory.

2 their compelling capability of understanding semantics.

3 their conceptual exibility.

4 their ability to match their actions to those observed in others.

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 Answer key/Solution

Directions for questions (22 to24): The passage below is accompanied by a set of three questions. Choose
the best answer to each question.

Margot Kidder, who has died aged 69, will be remembered best for one de ning movie performance. It’s
her sterling and witty turn as Lois Lane in the Christopher Reeve-led Superman movies of the late 70s and
early 80s, in which she was every inch Clark Kent’s equal in wit and moxie, if not in Kryptonite superpowers
– and which set the standard for any other actor playing the role since.

If one neglects to dig more deeply into her fascinating life, then column inches will also be dominated by a
bout of depression in 1996, when she was found wandering confusedly in a Los Angeles backyard after a
four-day disappearance, having lost the caps of her teeth after an apparent rape attempt. She immediately
sought treatment for her bipolar disorder and by her own account, in 2016, she never endured another
episode.

Kidder’s moment in the sun began on Christmas 1971, when De Palma left the scripts for Sisters and The
Phantom of the Paradise gift-wrapped under the Christmas tree for Kidder and Salt to read. The pair were
both cast in Sisters. Kidder played conjoined twins, one of whom is given to murderous rages. Hitherto
Kidder had played small roles in TV shows like Janacek and Harry O, and in forgotten movies like
Quackser Fortune has a Cousin in the Bronx. Thereafter she became one of the more interesting and
accomplished actors of the era, always with an enlivening dose of comic expertise. Her Lois Lane was
straight-up screwball-comedienne gold dust, sweet-sour, quick-witted and sharp-tongued, reliable in a
crunch and, with her arched eyebrows and odd beauty, the idol of every teenage comic book fan who laid
eyes on her.

Her career choices were impulsive and not conducive to a lasting career at the top. She had starring roles
in The Reincarnation of Peter Proud and The Great Waldo Pepper, and worked twice with writer-director
Paul Mazursky. Her most interesting roles seem to be in movies that are vanishingly obscure or almost
forgotten, including 92 in the Shade and the Terrence Malick-scripted The Gravy Train, with Stacy Keach
and Frederick Forrest. But as she grew older she spent less time on the screen and more time living. As
she once said: “Acting’s fun, but life’s more important.”

  Q.22
Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of the passage?

1  To re ect on the life and works of an actor who recently passed away.

2 To highlight the struggle that an actor – who recently passed away – had to go through early in her
career.
3 To censure the roles played by an actor who recently passed away.

4 To present an insight into the career of an actor who recently passed away.

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 Answer key/Solution

Directions for questions (22 to24): The passage below is accompanied by a set of three questions. Choose
the best answer to each question.

Margot Kidder, who has died aged 69, will be remembered best for one de ning movie performance. It’s
her sterling and witty turn as Lois Lane in the Christopher Reeve-led Superman movies of the late 70s and
early 80s, in which she was every inch Clark Kent’s equal in wit and moxie, if not in Kryptonite superpowers
– and which set the standard for any other actor playing the role since.

If one neglects to dig more deeply into her fascinating life, then column inches will also be dominated by a
bout of depression in 1996, when she was found wandering confusedly in a Los Angeles backyard after a
four-day disappearance, having lost the caps of her teeth after an apparent rape attempt. She immediately
sought treatment for her bipolar disorder and by her own account, in 2016, she never endured another
episode.

Kidder’s moment in the sun began on Christmas 1971, when De Palma left the scripts for Sisters and The
Phantom of the Paradise gift-wrapped under the Christmas tree for Kidder and Salt to read. The pair were
both cast in Sisters. Kidder played conjoined twins, one of whom is given to murderous rages. Hitherto
Kidder had played small roles in TV shows like Janacek and Harry O, and in forgotten movies like
Quackser Fortune has a Cousin in the Bronx. Thereafter she became one of the more interesting and
accomplished actors of the era, always with an enlivening dose of comic expertise. Her Lois Lane was
straight-up screwball-comedienne gold dust, sweet-sour, quick-witted and sharp-tongued, reliable in a
crunch and, with her arched eyebrows and odd beauty, the idol of every teenage comic book fan who laid
eyes on her.

Her career choices were impulsive and not conducive to a lasting career at the top. She had starring roles
in The Reincarnation of Peter Proud and The Great Waldo Pepper, and worked twice with writer-director
Paul Mazursky. Her most interesting roles seem to be in movies that are vanishingly obscure or almost
forgotten, including 92 in the Shade and the Terrence Malick-scripted The Gravy Train, with Stacy Keach
and Frederick Forrest. But as she grew older she spent less time on the screen and more time living. As
she once said: “Acting’s fun, but life’s more important.”

  Q.23
Which of the following can be inferred from the passage? A. Kidder did not make right choices of roles in
her career. B. Kidder’s year of birth cannot be earlier than 1947. C. De Palma was the script writer for
Sisters and The Phantom of Paradise.

1  Only B

2 Only A and C
3 Only A and B

4 None of A, B or C.

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 Answer key/Solution

Directions for questions (22 to24): The passage below is accompanied by a set of three questions. Choose
the best answer to each question.

Margot Kidder, who has died aged 69, will be remembered best for one de ning movie performance. It’s
her sterling and witty turn as Lois Lane in the Christopher Reeve-led Superman movies of the late 70s and
early 80s, in which she was every inch Clark Kent’s equal in wit and moxie, if not in Kryptonite superpowers
– and which set the standard for any other actor playing the role since.

If one neglects to dig more deeply into her fascinating life, then column inches will also be dominated by a
bout of depression in 1996, when she was found wandering confusedly in a Los Angeles backyard after a
four-day disappearance, having lost the caps of her teeth after an apparent rape attempt. She immediately
sought treatment for her bipolar disorder and by her own account, in 2016, she never endured another
episode.

Kidder’s moment in the sun began on Christmas 1971, when De Palma left the scripts for Sisters and The
Phantom of the Paradise gift-wrapped under the Christmas tree for Kidder and Salt to read. The pair were
both cast in Sisters. Kidder played conjoined twins, one of whom is given to murderous rages. Hitherto
Kidder had played small roles in TV shows like Janacek and Harry O, and in forgotten movies like
Quackser Fortune has a Cousin in the Bronx. Thereafter she became one of the more interesting and
accomplished actors of the era, always with an enlivening dose of comic expertise. Her Lois Lane was
straight-up screwball-comedienne gold dust, sweet-sour, quick-witted and sharp-tongued, reliable in a
crunch and, with her arched eyebrows and odd beauty, the idol of every teenage comic book fan who laid
eyes on her.

Her career choices were impulsive and not conducive to a lasting career at the top. She had starring roles
in The Reincarnation of Peter Proud and The Great Waldo Pepper, and worked twice with writer-director
Paul Mazursky. Her most interesting roles seem to be in movies that are vanishingly obscure or almost
forgotten, including 92 in the Shade and the Terrence Malick-scripted The Gravy Train, with Stacy Keach
and Frederick Forrest. But as she grew older she spent less time on the screen and more time living. As
she once said: “Acting’s fun, but life’s more important.”

  Q.24
According to the passage, Kidder’s portrayal of the characters she played:

1  were not always conducive to a lasting career at the top.

2 were at least in some cases obscure.

3 often set the standard for other actors playing the role.
4 often had a refreshing dose of wit.

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 Answer key/Solution

  Q.25
Directions for question 25: The passage given below is followed by four summaries. Choose the option
that best captures the author’s position.

Traditional theories from psychoacoustics and cognitive psychology have portrayed our reception of
music as something rather internal and passive. The mind processes sound like a computer processes
information. But this perspective is too limited. There is an alternative ecological theory of music
perception that better matches our active and more external involvement in music worlds. We think of
musical perception more as a speci c case of how we actively orientate ourselves in general to our
environment. Like a digital radio scanning for the clarity of signals, our aural apparatus tunes in to what
can be heard, and latches onto this feature in order to explain it. Any sound to some extent speci es its
source and certain key things about it. We instinctively ‘bend our ears’ towards sound events, asking (non-
consciously) the key questions. What’s going on here? Where exactly? What do I need to know about it?
What can I do with it? Our aural perception tunes us into our world, agging up current dangers and
opportunities. We keep listening because we need to keep making sense of our world and joining in with
what’s happening.

1   We have instinctive capacity to appreciate music because we need to keep making sense of our
world.

2 Our reception of music is more of an active and external process rather than an internal and passive
process.

3 We instinctively listen to sound events and ask key questions non-consciously.

4 The alternative ecological theory of music perception best explains how we process music.

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  Q.26
Directions for question 26: The passage given below is followed by four summaries. Choose the option
that best captures the author’s position.

In the history of art, science, philosophy, and even literature one very often nds that in order to appreciate
or to evaluate a work it is not much of an advantage to be familiar with its author and his life: an
intellectual or artistic product is better judged on its own merits than on the basis of uncertain knowledge
about the idiosyncratic features and muddled purposes of its author. Moreover, in some cases authors
intentionally withdraw from their products in an attempt to become invisible and to let the work speak for
itself, and thus leave us very few personal clues in their works. Rousseau could serve as an example of the
rst kind of case and Kant of the second; Kant goes so far as to use the phrase de nobis ipsis silemus (“of
our own person we will say nothing”) as a motto for his main work.

1   To appreciate the work of someone in the history of art, science, philosophy, and literature, there is
not much bene t to be aware of the personal life of the author.

2 To appreciate the work of someone in the history of art, science, philosophy, and literature, it is
important to understand how Rousseau and Kant detach their personal life from their work.

3 To appreciate the work of someone in the history of art, science, philosophy, and literature, it is
important that one is not familiar with its author and his life.

4 To appreciate the work of someone in the history of art, science, philosophy, and literature, it is
advantageous that we know less of its author and his life.

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 Answer key/Solution

  Q.27
Directions for question 27: The passage given below is followed by four summaries. Choose the option
that best captures the author’s position.

The history of Arabia just before the birth of Islam is a profound mystery, with few written sources.
Historians had long believed that the Bedouin nomads who lived in the area composed exquisite poetry to
record the feats of their tribes but had no system for writing it down. In recent years, though, scholars have
made profound advances in explaining how ancient speakers of early Arabic used the letters of other
alphabets to transcribe their speech. These alphabets included Greek and Aramaic, and also Safaitic;
Macdonald’s rock was one of more than fty thousand such texts found in the deserts of the southern
Levant. Safaitic glyphs look nothing like the cursive, legato ow of Arabic script. But when read aloud they
are recognizable as a form of Arabic—archaic but largely intelligible to the modern speaker.
1   There are not enough written sources which can help us understand the history of Arabia—before the
birth of Islam—due to the lack of written alphabets.

2 The long-held belief of historians that the nomads—who lived in Arabia before the birth of Islam did
not have any system of transcribing their speech has been proven wrong by recent scholars.

3 Though it was believed that ancient speakers of Arabic had no system of writing, in recent years,
scholars have made advances in explaining how they used alphabets from Greek, Aramaic and Safaitic to
transcribe their speech.

4 The Safaitic glyphs that the ancient speakers of Arabic used to transcribe their speech is very
different from the Arabic script, however, when read aloud they are recognizable as a form of Arabic.

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 Answer key/Solution

  Q.28
Directions for question 28: The ve sentences (labelled 1, 2, 3, 4, 5) given in this question, when properly
sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a number. Decide on the proper
order for the sentences and key in this sequence of ve numbers as your answer.

1. The key constructivist contention is that there is no natural, objectively de nable set of human
malfunctions that cause disease.
2. But the bodily processes are not objectively malfunctioning; rather, they are merely judged by us to be
unusual or abnormal because they depart from some shared, usually culturally speci c, conception of
human nature.
3. Rather, constructivists assert that to call a condition a disease is to make a judgment that someone in
that condition is undergoing a speci c kind of harm that we explain in terms of bodily processes.
4. The crucial difference between the positions then is that for naturalists, diseases are objectively
malfunctioning biological processes that cause harms.
5. For constructivists, diseases are harms that we blame on some biological process because it causes the
harm, not because it is objectively dysfunctional.

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  Q.29
Directions for question 29: The ve sentences (labelled 1, 2, 3, 4, 5) given in this question, when properly
sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a number. Decide on the proper
order for the sentences and key in this sequence of ve numbers as your answer.

1. When I’ve strayed, I’ve been able to look to my agent, Jane Dystel, for her faith and tenacity; to my editor,
Henry Ferris, for his gentle but rm correctives; to Ruth Fecych and the staff at Times Books, for their
enthusiasm and attention in shepherding the manuscript through its various stages; to my friends,
especially Robert Fisher, for their generous readings; and to my wonderful wife, Michelle, for her wit,
grace, candor, and unerring ability to encourage my best impulses.
2. If nothing else, I hope that the love and respect I feel for them shines through on every page.
3. Whatever the label that attaches to this book—autobiography, memoir, family history, or something else
—what I’ve tried to do is write an honest account of a particular province of my life.
4. Without their constant love and support, without their willingness to let me sing their song and their
toleration of the occasional wrong note, I could never have hoped to nish.
5. It is to my family, though—my mother, my grandparents, my siblings, stretched across oceans and
continents—that I owe the deepest gratitude and to whom I dedicate this book.

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 Answer key/Solution

  Q.30
Directions for question 30: The ve sentences (labelled 1, 2, 3, 4, 5) given in this question, when properly
sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a number. Decide on the proper
order for the sentences and key in this sequence of ve numbers as your answer.

1. Latin’s six cases cower in comparison with Estonian’s 14, which include inessive, elative, adessive,
abessive, and the system is riddled with irregularities and exceptions.
2. On this score, some European languages are far harder than are, say, Latin or Greek.
3. Estonian’s cousins in the Finno-Ugric language group do much the same.
4. Beyond sound comes the problem of grammar.
5. Slavic languages force speakers, when talking about the past, to say whether an action was completed
or not.

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 Answer key/Solution
  Q.31
Directions for question 31: The ve sentences (labelled 1, 2, 3, 4, 5) given in this question, when properly
sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a number. Decide on the proper
order for the sentences and key in this sequence of ve numbers as your answer.

1. The new work is the rst comprehensive estimate of the weight of every class of living creature and
overturns some long-held assumptions.
2. Bacteria are indeed a major life form – 13% of everything – but plants overshadow everything,
representing 82% of all living matter.
3. Yet since the dawn of civilisation, humanity has caused the loss of 83% of all wild mammals and half of
plants, while livestock kept by humans abounds.
4. The world’s 7.6 billion people represent just 0.01% of all living things, according to the study.
5. Humankind is revealed as simultaneously insigni cant and utterly dominant in the grand scheme of life
on Earth by a ground-breaking new assessment of all life on the planet.

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 Answer key/Solution

  Q.32
Directions for question 32: Five sentences related to a topic are given below. Four of them can be put
together to form a meaningful and coherent short paragraph. Identify the odd one out.

1. Similarly, much remains to be done to ful l the vision of the Food and Agriculture Organization of the
United Nations(FAO).
2. FAO’s vision is of a ‘world free from hunger and malnutrition, where food and agriculture contribute to
improving the living standards of all, especially the poorest, in an economically, socially and
environmentally sustainable manner’.
3. Over the past century, enormous progress has been achieved worldwide in improving human welfare.
4. Societies have changed radically thanks to quantum leaps in technology, rapid urbanization, and
innovations in production systems.
5. Yet conditions in today’s world are a far cry from the world ‘free of fear and want’ envisioned at the
foundation of the United Nations.

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  Q.33
Directions for question 33: Five sentences related to a topic are given below. Four of them can be put
together to form a meaningful and coherent short paragraph. Identify the odd one out.

1. For instance, a Comcast victory could dash any fans' dreams of an on-screen mash-up involving the X-
Men and Marvel's largest superhero group, the Avengers.
2. The Murdochs made their choice obvious in December 2017 when Disney and Fox announced their
merger plans.
3. But Comcast hopes to sway shareholders with its offer, as Disney and Fox prepare for special
stockholder meetings to vote on the merger.
4. Disney CEO Robert Iger has championed the Fox acquisition as integral to the company's goals of
expanding an already-impressive content catalogue and increasing the strength of its planned
subscription movie and TV service.
5. For consumers, the battle could have huge repercussions.

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  Q.34
Directions for question 34: Five sentences related to a topic are given below. Four of them can be put
together to form a meaningful and coherent short paragraph. Identify the odd one out.

1. Ogechi formed the head, the arms, the legs.

2. How to make rm clay—something she was born to do.
3. When the mix was just right, she added a handful of the ashes.
4. This she knew.
5. Ogechi felt a little bit sad, but nothing she wouldn’t shake off in a few days.

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 Answer key/Solution

Sec 2
Directions for questions 35 to 38: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

5 persons–Hannah, Indira, Jacob, Kapil, and Laxman– have been held captive by a criminal organization in
one of 12 warehouses–H1, H2, …,H12–in the city of Ontopia. No two captives are held in the same
warehouse.The police have 6 teams that are ready to be deployed for a raid. No two teams would be
deployed to the same warehouse. If any police team is deployed to a location where the captive is held in,
they will locate the captive.

Police have nabbed three criminals who are part of the criminal organization. The police conduct
narcoanalysis test on the three criminals. Narcoanalysis test uses truth serum which inhibits a subject’s
ability to tell a lie. After administering truth serum, the police can ask each criminal only 5 questions. The
truth serum does not completely inhibit the ability to tell a lie. These criminals have gone through prior
training to beat the narcoanalysis test. However, the police are sure that each criminal will not be lying in
all the 5 questions and each criminal will not be telling the truth in all the 5 questions.

Following table gives the response to the 5 questions asked to the three criminals.

  Q.35
If it is known that Criminal 2 has lied only once, then how many of the warehouses COULD be the
warehouse where Kapil is held in?

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 Answer key/Solution
Directions for questions 35 to 38: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

5 persons–Hannah, Indira, Jacob, Kapil, and Laxman– have been held captive by a criminal organization in
one of 12 warehouses–H1, H2, …,H12–in the city of Ontopia. No two captives are held in the same
warehouse.The police have 6 teams that are ready to be deployed for a raid. No two teams would be
deployed to the same warehouse. If any police team is deployed to a location where the captive is held in,
they will locate the captive.

Police have nabbed three criminals who are part of the criminal organization. The police conduct
narcoanalysis test on the three criminals. Narcoanalysis test uses truth serum which inhibits a subject’s
ability to tell a lie. After administering truth serum, the police can ask each criminal only 5 questions. The
truth serum does not completely inhibit the ability to tell a lie. These criminals have gone through prior
training to beat the narcoanalysis test. However, the police are sure that each criminal will not be lying in
all the 5 questions and each criminal will not be telling the truth in all the 5 questions.

Following table gives the response to the 5 questions asked to the three criminals.

  Q.36
It is known that for each of the questions, at least one of the criminals have told the truth and the 6 police
teams are deployed to H3, H4, H7, H8, H10, and H11. What is the probability of nding all the captives?

1  1/3

2 2/3

3 1

4 None of the above

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 Answer key/Solution
Directions for questions 35 to 38: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

5 persons–Hannah, Indira, Jacob, Kapil, and Laxman– have been held captive by a criminal organization in
one of 12 warehouses–H1, H2, …,H12–in the city of Ontopia. No two captives are held in the same
warehouse.The police have 6 teams that are ready to be deployed for a raid. No two teams would be
deployed to the same warehouse. If any police team is deployed to a location where the captive is held in,
they will locate the captive.

Police have nabbed three criminals who are part of the criminal organization. The police conduct
narcoanalysis test on the three criminals. Narcoanalysis test uses truth serum which inhibits a subject’s
ability to tell a lie. After administering truth serum, the police can ask each criminal only 5 questions. The
truth serum does not completely inhibit the ability to tell a lie. These criminals have gone through prior
training to beat the narcoanalysis test. However, the police are sure that each criminal will not be lying in
all the 5 questions and each criminal will not be telling the truth in all the 5 questions.

Following table gives the response to the 5 questions asked to the three criminals.

  Q.37
Which of the following COULD be true about the captives and the warehouses they are held in?

1  Hannah – H9, Indira – H4, Jacob – H8, Kapil – H12, Laxman – H11

2 Hannah – H7, Indira – H3, Jacob – H9, Kapil – H12, Laxman – H10

3 Hannah – H7, Indira – H3, Jacob – H10, Kapil – H11, Laxman – H9

4 Either (1) or (3)

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 Answer key/Solution
Directions for questions 35 to 38: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

5 persons–Hannah, Indira, Jacob, Kapil, and Laxman– have been held captive by a criminal organization in
one of 12 warehouses–H1, H2, …,H12–in the city of Ontopia. No two captives are held in the same
warehouse.The police have 6 teams that are ready to be deployed for a raid. No two teams would be
deployed to the same warehouse. If any police team is deployed to a location where the captive is held in,
they will locate the captive.

Police have nabbed three criminals who are part of the criminal organization. The police conduct
narcoanalysis test on the three criminals. Narcoanalysis test uses truth serum which inhibits a subject’s
ability to tell a lie. After administering truth serum, the police can ask each criminal only 5 questions. The
truth serum does not completely inhibit the ability to tell a lie. These criminals have gone through prior
training to beat the narcoanalysis test. However, the police are sure that each criminal will not be lying in
all the 5 questions and each criminal will not be telling the truth in all the 5 questions.

Following table gives the response to the 5 questions asked to the three criminals.

  Q.38
If only 5 police teams were deployed, and they were deployed to H3, H4, H7, H11, and H12, and they did
not nd a single captive, then which of the following MUST be true?

A. Each of the criminals lied 4 times

B. Laxman is held captive in H10
C. Hannah is not held captive in H8

1  Only C

2 A and B only

3 B and C only

4 None of the above

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 Answer key/Solution
Directions for questions 39 to 42: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

In a 4×400 relay race, there are four runners in each team who each complete 400 meters or one lap.

During the annual sports day of Indus Global School, one team from each of the four houses –red, green,
yellow, and blue–participated in a 4×400 relay race. The time taken by all the runners individually to
complete one lap was one among 72 seconds, 76 seconds, 80 seconds and 84 seconds. In the red house
team, only three runners had the same average speed and the slowest among the four ran the rst round.
In green house team, only two runners–who ran the rst two laps–had the same average speed and the
slowest amongst the four ran the third round. Additionally, the rst round of the green house team clocked
more than 72 seconds. In the yellow house team, all the runners had different average speed while in the
blue house team, all the runners had the same average speed. It is also noted that no runners in the red
house team had the fastest or the slowest average speed amongst all the runners in the race; and no
runners in the blue house team had the fastest average speed amongst all the runners in the race.

  Q.39
How many unique ordered pair of rst and last nished teams are possible (ignore cases, if any, where
there are more than one team that nishes rst or last at the same time)?

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 Answer key/Solution

Directions for questions 39 to 42: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

In a 4×400 relay race, there are four runners in each team who each complete 400 meters or one lap.

During the annual sports day of Indus Global School, one team from each of the four houses –red, green,
yellow, and blue–participated in a 4×400 relay race. The time taken by all the runners individually to
complete one lap was one among 72 seconds, 76 seconds, 80 seconds and 84 seconds. In the red house
team, only three runners had the same average speed and the slowest among the four ran the rst round.
In green house team, only two runners–who ran the rst two laps–had the same average speed and the
slowest amongst the four ran the third round. Additionally, the rst round of the green house team clocked
more than 72 seconds. In the yellow house team, all the runners had different average speed while in the
blue house team, all the runners had the same average speed. It is also noted that no runners in the red
house team had the fastest or the slowest average speed amongst all the runners in the race; and no
runners in the blue house team had the fastest average speed amongst all the runners in the race.

  Q.40
How many unique order of teams and their nish time (when arranged from rst to last team to nish) are
possible, if there are more than one team which nishes rst?

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 Answer key/Solution
Directions for questions 39 to 42: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

In a 4×400 relay race, there are four runners in each team who each complete 400 meters or one lap.

During the annual sports day of Indus Global School, one team from each of the four houses –red, green,
yellow, and blue–participated in a 4×400 relay race. The time taken by all the runners individually to
complete one lap was one among 72 seconds, 76 seconds, 80 seconds and 84 seconds. In the red house
team, only three runners had the same average speed and the slowest among the four ran the rst round.
In green house team, only two runners–who ran the rst two laps–had the same average speed and the
slowest amongst the four ran the third round. Additionally, the rst round of the green house team clocked
more than 72 seconds. In the yellow house team, all the runners had different average speed while in the
blue house team, all the runners had the same average speed. It is also noted that no runners in the red
house team had the fastest or the slowest average speed amongst all the runners in the race; and no
runners in the blue house team had the fastest average speed amongst all the runners in the race.

  Q.41
If the yellow house team is the second team to complete the race, which of the following MUST be true?

1  Green house team nishes either rst or last.

2 Red house team nishes rst

3 Blue house team nishes rst

4 Blue house team does not nish last

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 Answer key/Solution

Directions for questions 39 to 42: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

In a 4×400 relay race, there are four runners in each team who each complete 400 meters or one lap.

During the annual sports day of Indus Global School, one team from each of the four houses –red, green,
yellow, and blue–participated in a 4×400 relay race. The time taken by all the runners individually to
complete one lap was one among 72 seconds, 76 seconds, 80 seconds and 84 seconds. In the red house
team, only three runners had the same average speed and the slowest among the four ran the rst round.
In green house team, only two runners–who ran the rst two laps–had the same average speed and the
slowest amongst the four ran the third round. Additionally, the rst round of the green house team clocked
more than 72 seconds. In the yellow house team, all the runners had different average speed while in the
blue house team, all the runners had the same average speed. It is also noted that no runners in the red
house team had the fastest or the slowest average speed amongst all the runners in the race; and no
runners in the blue house team had the fastest average speed amongst all the runners in the race.
  Q.42
If in the green house team, the average speed of the fourth runner is less than the average speed of the
second runner, what is the total number of unique possible order of the teams from rst to last?

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 Answer key/Solution

Directions for questions 43 to 46: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
In a closed group discussion, 5 students–Rita, Suresh, Tamanna, Uday, and Varun– of a certain B-School
were asked to grade 4 attributes–Infrastructure, Location, Faculty, and Placements–of the B-school from
1(lowest) to 4(highest). While grading the 4 attributes, no student gave the same grade to two attributes.

  Q.43
How many students gave a higher grade to ‘Faculty’ than ‘Location’?

1  0

2 1

3 2

4 Cannot be determined
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 Answer key/Solution

Directions for questions 43 to 46: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
In a closed group discussion, 5 students–Rita, Suresh, Tamanna, Uday, and Varun– of a certain B-School
were asked to grade 4 attributes–Infrastructure, Location, Faculty, and Placements–of the B-school from
1(lowest) to 4(highest). While grading the 4 attributes, no student gave the same grade to two attributes.

  Q.44
Which of the following COULD BE an accurate list of the grades given by Rita?

1  Infrastructure – 1, Location – 3, Faculty – 2, Placement – 4.

2 Infrastructure – 4, Location – 3, Faculty – 2, Placement – 1.

3 Infrastructure – 4, Location – 2, Faculty – 3, Placement – 1.

4 Both (2) and (3)


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 Answer key/Solution

Directions for questions 43 to 46: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
In a closed group discussion, 5 students–Rita, Suresh, Tamanna, Uday, and Varun– of a certain B-School
were asked to grade 4 attributes–Infrastructure, Location, Faculty, and Placements–of the B-school from
1(lowest) to 4(highest). While grading the 4 attributes, no student gave the same grade to two attributes.

  Q.45
If for ‘faculty’, Rita graded higher than Varun, which of the following COULD BE an accurate list of the
grades given by Suresh?

1  Infrastructure – 4, Location – 3, Faculty – 2, Placement – 1.

2 Infrastructure – 1, Location – 3, Faculty – 2, Placement – 4.

3 Infrastructure – 1, Location – 2, Faculty – 3, Placement – 4.

4 Both (2) and (3)


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 Answer key/Solution

Directions for questions 43 to 46: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
In a closed group discussion, 5 students–Rita, Suresh, Tamanna, Uday, and Varun– of a certain B-School
were asked to grade 4 attributes–Infrastructure, Location, Faculty, and Placements–of the B-school from
1(lowest) to 4(highest). While grading the 4 attributes, no student gave the same grade to two attributes.

  Q.46
If Varun’s grade were not considered, what would be the average grade received by attribute ‘Placements’?

1  2.5

2 2.6

3 3.25

4 Either (2) or (3)


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 Answer key/Solution

Directions for questions 47 to 50: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

Mahesh is celebrating his birthday and he invites four of his friends–Aditya, Binita, Chaitanya, and Dinesh–
to his party. His friends together bring 3 types of gifts totalling 15 gift items–5 video games, 5 sun
glasses, and 5 books.

● Each of the friends brings at most two types of gifts and at least three gift items.
● The total number of gift items of Binita is less than that of Aditya
● Dinesh brings no gift types other than video games.

  Q.47
If it is known that
(1) The total number of gift items brought by Dinesh is more than the total number of gift items brought by
Aditya, and

(2) Aditya and Binita brings only one type of gift,

then what is the total number of possible ordered triplets of number of video games, sun glasses and
books that Chaitanya brings?

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 Answer key/Solution

Directions for questions 47 to 50: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

Mahesh is celebrating his birthday and he invites four of his friends–Aditya, Binita, Chaitanya, and Dinesh–
to his party. His friends together bring 3 types of gifts totalling 15 gift items–5 video games, 5 sun
glasses, and 5 books.

● Each of the friends brings at most two types of gifts and at least three gift items.
● The total number of gift items of Binita is less than that of Aditya
● Dinesh brings no gift types other than video games.

  Q.48
If exactly two of the four friends bring equal number of gift times, then each of the following MUST be true
EXCEPT

1   If Chaitanya brings more number of gift items than Dinesh, then Aditya can bring in at most two video
games.
2 The number of gift items brought by Chaitanya and Dinesh cannot be the same.

3 If Binita and Chaitanya bring equal number of gift items, then the number of gift items brought by
Chaitanya is less than the number of gifts brought by Dinesh

4 If Aditya brings 4 gift items, then the number of gifts items brought by Binita and Dinesh can be equal.

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 Answer key/Solution

Directions for questions 47 to 50: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

Mahesh is celebrating his birthday and he invites four of his friends–Aditya, Binita, Chaitanya, and Dinesh–
to his party. His friends together bring 3 types of gifts totalling 15 gift items–5 video games, 5 sun
glasses, and 5 books.

● Each of the friends brings at most two types of gifts and at least three gift items.
● The total number of gift items of Binita is less than that of Aditya
● Dinesh brings no gift types other than video games.

  Q.49
If the following two conditions are also known:
(1) Exactly three of the friends brings equal number of gift items
(2) Exactly two of the friends brings equal number of video games, and that number is a natural number

What is the number of gift items brought by Aditya (Type in 0, if it cannot be determined uniquely)?

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 Answer key/Solution

Directions for questions 47 to 50: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

Mahesh is celebrating his birthday and he invites four of his friends–Aditya, Binita, Chaitanya, and Dinesh–
to his party. His friends together bring 3 types of gifts totalling 15 gift items–5 video games, 5 sun
glasses, and 5 books.

● Each of the friends brings at most two types of gifts and at least three gift items.
● The total number of gift items of Binita is less than that of Aditya
● Dinesh brings no gift types other than video games.
  Q.50
If it is known that,
(1) Binita brings in the second highest number of gift items among the four friends
(2) Binita brings in only one type of gifts
(3) Two of them bring sun glasses
(4) No three of them brought in the same number of gift items

Which of the following could be true?

1  Dinesh brings 4 video games

2 Aditya brings 1 book

3 Chaitanya brings 1 video game

4 Both (2) and (3)

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 Answer key/Solution
Directions for questions 51 to 54: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

8 ants–A1, A2, A3, A4, A5, A6, A7, A8–are initially at different corners of a cube–P1, P2, P3, P4, P5, P6,
P7, P8–respectively.

Ants A1, A3, A5, A7 belongs to the OddColony and ants A2, A4, A6, A8 belongs to the EvenColony.

(1)An ant either stays in its corner or travels only along the edge of the cube to reach another corner.
(2) If an ant starts travelling, it will start only at the beginning of every 10 minutes and it takes exactly 10
minutes to travel from one corner to another corner.
(3) If and only if an ant from one colony meets with an ant from another colony at any of the corners, they
engage in a ght which lasts for 10 minutes.
(4) In a ght, if the number of ants from one colony equals the number of ants from another colony, then
all the ants survive at the end of 10 minutes.
(5) If in a ght, the number of ants from one colony is more than the number of ants from another colony,
then all the ants from the former survives and all the ants from the latter dies at the end of 10 minutes.

  Q.51
Suppose the ants A2, A3, A6, and A7 do not leave their corner and ants A1, A4, A5, and A8 always moves
to another corner after every 10 minutes unless they are ghting or killed, what is the probability that A4
will survive at the end of 20 minutes?

1  1/9

2 7/9

3 8/9

4 None of the above

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 Answer key/Solution
Directions for questions 51 to 54: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

8 ants–A1, A2, A3, A4, A5, A6, A7, A8–are initially at different corners of a cube–P1, P2, P3, P4, P5, P6,
P7, P8–respectively.

Ants A1, A3, A5, A7 belongs to the OddColony and ants A2, A4, A6, A8 belongs to the EvenColony.

(1)An ant either stays in its corner or travels only along the edge of the cube to reach another corner.
(2) If an ant starts travelling, it will start only at the beginning of every 10 minutes and it takes exactly 10
minutes to travel from one corner to another corner.
(3) If and only if an ant from one colony meets with an ant from another colony at any of the corners, they
engage in a ght which lasts for 10 minutes.
(4) In a ght, if the number of ants from one colony equals the number of ants from another colony, then
all the ants survive at the end of 10 minutes.
(5) If in a ght, the number of ants from one colony is more than the number of ants from another colony,
then all the ants from the former survives and all the ants from the latter dies at the end of 10 minutes.

  Q.52
Suppose only ants A3 and A8 are always moving unless they are ghting or killed, and ants A1, A2, A4, A5,
A6, and A7 never leave their corner, how many combinations of ght exists if A3 is killed before 35
minutes? (Consider a combination of ght as the unique combination of ants which are ghting
irrespective of position where they are ghting at)

1  1

2 2

3 3

4 More than 3

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 Answer key/Solution
Directions for questions 51 to 54: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

8 ants–A1, A2, A3, A4, A5, A6, A7, A8–are initially at different corners of a cube–P1, P2, P3, P4, P5, P6,
P7, P8–respectively.

Ants A1, A3, A5, A7 belongs to the OddColony and ants A2, A4, A6, A8 belongs to the EvenColony.

(1)An ant either stays in its corner or travels only along the edge of the cube to reach another corner.
(2) If an ant starts travelling, it will start only at the beginning of every 10 minutes and it takes exactly 10
minutes to travel from one corner to another corner.
(3) If and only if an ant from one colony meets with an ant from another colony at any of the corners, they
engage in a ght which lasts for 10 minutes.
(4) In a ght, if the number of ants from one colony equals the number of ants from another colony, then
all the ants survive at the end of 10 minutes.
(5) If in a ght, the number of ants from one colony is more than the number of ants from another colony,
then all the ants from the former survives and all the ants from the latter dies at the end of 10 minutes.

  Q.53
Suppose ants A2 and A7 never left their corners for 30 minutes.The other three ants from each of the
colonies meet at two different points after the rst 10 minutes and then each group together travel to
attack the rival stationary ant, what is the probability that at least one ant is killed at the end of 30 minutes,
if it is known that after group formation the groups are equally likely to move along any edge?

1  1/3

2 2/3

3 5/9

4 7/9

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 Answer key/Solution
Directions for questions 51 to 54: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

8 ants–A1, A2, A3, A4, A5, A6, A7, A8–are initially at different corners of a cube–P1, P2, P3, P4, P5, P6,
P7, P8–respectively.

Ants A1, A3, A5, A7 belongs to the OddColony and ants A2, A4, A6, A8 belongs to the EvenColony.

(1)An ant either stays in its corner or travels only along the edge of the cube to reach another corner.
(2) If an ant starts travelling, it will start only at the beginning of every 10 minutes and it takes exactly 10
minutes to travel from one corner to another corner.
(3) If and only if an ant from one colony meets with an ant from another colony at any of the corners, they
engage in a ght which lasts for 10 minutes.
(4) In a ght, if the number of ants from one colony equals the number of ants from another colony, then
all the ants survive at the end of 10 minutes.
(5) If in a ght, the number of ants from one colony is more than the number of ants from another colony,
then all the ants from the former survives and all the ants from the latter dies at the end of 10 minutes.

  Q.54
Suppose A1, A2, A3 and A4 travels south in the rst 10 minutes while the rest of the ants are stationary for
these 10 minutes, and post that none of the ants travels north.If after certain time, all the Even Colony ants
are killed, what is the minimum time (from the start) required for a such an event to occur?

1  30 minutes

2 40 minutes

3 50 minutes

4 It is impossible for such an event to occur

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 Answer key/Solution
Directions for questions 55 to 58: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

The Net Promoter Score is calculated based on the responses to a single question: How likely is it that you
would recommend our company/product/service to a friend or a colleague? The scoring for this answer is
based on a 0 to 10 scale.

Those who respond with a score of 9 to 10 are labelled Promoters and are considered likely to exhibit
value-creating behaviours, such as buying more, remaining customers for longer, and making more
positive referrals to other potential customers. Those who respond with a score of 0 to 6 are labelled
Detractors, and they are believed to be less likely to exhibit the value-creating behaviours. Responses of 7
and 8 are labelled Passives, and their behaviour falls between Promoters and Detractors. The Net
Promoter Score is calculated by subtracting the percentage of customers who are Detractors from the
percentage of customers who are Promoters.

Example: If you received 100 responses to your survey:

10 responses were in the 0–6 range (Detractors)
20 responses were in the 7–8 range (Passives)
70 responses were in the 9–10 range (Promoters)

When you calculate the percentages for each group, you get 10%, 20%, and 70% respectively. To nish up,
subtract 10% (Detractors) from 70% (Promoters), which equals 60%.

Net Promoter Score is always shown as just an integer and not a percentage, as in the above example your
NPS is simply 60.

Net Promoter Score of 6 companies–A, B, C, D, E, F–was calculated after surveying 100 customers who
use all the products of all the 6 companies.

  Q.55
Which of the following is impossible?

1  The number of promoters of A is greater than the number of promoters of E

2 The number of passives of F is greater than the number of passives of B

3 The number of promoters of A is equal to the number of promoters of C

4 All of the above are possible

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 Answer key/Solution

Directions for questions 55 to 58: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

The Net Promoter Score is calculated based on the responses to a single question: How likely is it that you
would recommend our company/product/service to a friend or a colleague? The scoring for this answer is
based on a 0 to 10 scale.

Those who respond with a score of 9 to 10 are labelled Promoters and are considered likely to exhibit
value-creating behaviours, such as buying more, remaining customers for longer, and making more
positive referrals to other potential customers. Those who respond with a score of 0 to 6 are labelled
Detractors, and they are believed to be less likely to exhibit the value-creating behaviours. Responses of 7
and 8 are labelled Passives, and their behaviour falls between Promoters and Detractors. The Net
Promoter Score is calculated by subtracting the percentage of customers who are Detractors from the
percentage of customers who are Promoters.

Example: If you received 100 responses to your survey:

10 responses were in the 0–6 range (Detractors)
20 responses were in the 7–8 range (Passives)
70 responses were in the 9–10 range (Promoters)

When you calculate the percentages for each group, you get 10%, 20%, and 70% respectively. To nish up,
subtract 10% (Detractors) from 70% (Promoters), which equals 60%.

Net Promoter Score is always shown as just an integer and not a percentage, as in the above example your
NPS is simply 60.

Net Promoter Score of 6 companies–A, B, C, D, E, F–was calculated after surveying 100 customers who
use all the products of all the 6 companies.

  Q.56
If the number of passives of A and F are the maximum possible, then the number of customers who are
passives in at least two companies should be at least
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 Answer key/Solution

Directions for questions 55 to 58: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

The Net Promoter Score is calculated based on the responses to a single question: How likely is it that you
would recommend our company/product/service to a friend or a colleague? The scoring for this answer is
based on a 0 to 10 scale.

Those who respond with a score of 9 to 10 are labelled Promoters and are considered likely to exhibit
value-creating behaviours, such as buying more, remaining customers for longer, and making more
positive referrals to other potential customers. Those who respond with a score of 0 to 6 are labelled
Detractors, and they are believed to be less likely to exhibit the value-creating behaviours. Responses of 7
and 8 are labelled Passives, and their behaviour falls between Promoters and Detractors. The Net
Promoter Score is calculated by subtracting the percentage of customers who are Detractors from the
percentage of customers who are Promoters.

Example: If you received 100 responses to your survey:

10 responses were in the 0–6 range (Detractors)
20 responses were in the 7–8 range (Passives)
70 responses were in the 9–10 range (Promoters)

When you calculate the percentages for each group, you get 10%, 20%, and 70% respectively. To nish up,
subtract 10% (Detractors) from 70% (Promoters), which equals 60%.

Net Promoter Score is always shown as just an integer and not a percentage, as in the above example your
NPS is simply 60.

Net Promoter Score of 6 companies–A, B, C, D, E, F–was calculated after surveying 100 customers who
use all the products of all the 6 companies.

  Q.57
If the number of detractors of A and F are maximum possible, then the number of customers who are
passives in none of the 6 companies can be at most
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 Answer key/Solution

Directions for questions 55 to 58: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

The Net Promoter Score is calculated based on the responses to a single question: How likely is it that you
would recommend our company/product/service to a friend or a colleague? The scoring for this answer is
based on a 0 to 10 scale.

Those who respond with a score of 9 to 10 are labelled Promoters and are considered likely to exhibit
value-creating behaviours, such as buying more, remaining customers for longer, and making more
positive referrals to other potential customers. Those who respond with a score of 0 to 6 are labelled
Detractors, and they are believed to be less likely to exhibit the value-creating behaviours. Responses of 7
and 8 are labelled Passives, and their behaviour falls between Promoters and Detractors. The Net
Promoter Score is calculated by subtracting the percentage of customers who are Detractors from the
percentage of customers who are Promoters.

Example: If you received 100 responses to your survey:

10 responses were in the 0–6 range (Detractors)
20 responses were in the 7–8 range (Passives)
70 responses were in the 9–10 range (Promoters)

When you calculate the percentages for each group, you get 10%, 20%, and 70% respectively. To nish up,
subtract 10% (Detractors) from 70% (Promoters), which equals 60%.

Net Promoter Score is always shown as just an integer and not a percentage, as in the above example your
NPS is simply 60.

Net Promoter Score of 6 companies–A, B, C, D, E, F–was calculated after surveying 100 customers who
use all the products of all the 6 companies.

  Q.58
If the number of detractors of A is maximum possible and equals to the number of promoters of F, then the
sum of the number of promoters for all the 6 companies would be

1  228
2 208

3 288

4 None of the above

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Directions for questions 59 to 62: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

You and your friend play a board game. The board has 16 squares (4 × 4), and 16 different pieces that can
be constructed combining the following four characteristics

The aim of the game is to complete a line with four pieces that are similar in at least about one of the four
described characteristics (four big pieces, four small pieces, four red pieces, four blue pieces, for square
pieces, for circle pieces, four pieces with hole, four pieces without hole). The line may be vertical,
horizontal or diagonal. The winner is the player who places the fourth piece on the line.

Players move alternatively, placing one piece on the board in any desired vacant square; once inserted,
pieces cannot be moved. One of the more special characteristics of this game is that the choice of the
piece to be placed on the board is not made by the same player who places it; it is the opponent who after
doing the move, decides which will be the next piece to place.

So, each turn consists of two actions:

1. Place on the board the piece.

2. Give the opponent the piece to be placed in the next move.

In the rst turn of the game, the player who starts has only to choose one piece for the opponent.
The game nishes in a draw when nobody reaches the objective after placing the 16 pieces.

  Q.59
If your friend gave you the piece P15, which position should you place the piece so that you are guaranteed
a win (assume both play intelligently)?

1  B5

2 B9

3 B2

4 You will lose in all the above scenarios

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 Answer key/Solution

Directions for questions 59 to 62: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

You and your friend play a board game. The board has 16 squares (4 × 4), and 16 different pieces that can
be constructed combining the following four characteristics
The aim of the game is to complete a line with four pieces that are similar in at least about one of the four
described characteristics (four big pieces, four small pieces, four red pieces, four blue pieces, for square
pieces, for circle pieces, four pieces with hole, four pieces without hole). The line may be vertical,
horizontal or diagonal. The winner is the player who places the fourth piece on the line.

Players move alternatively, placing one piece on the board in any desired vacant square; once inserted,
pieces cannot be moved. One of the more special characteristics of this game is that the choice of the
piece to be placed on the board is not made by the same player who places it; it is the opponent who after
doing the move, decides which will be the next piece to place.

So, each turn consists of two actions:

1. Place on the board the piece.

2. Give the opponent the piece to be placed in the next move.

In the rst turn of the game, the player who starts has only to choose one piece for the opponent.
The game nishes in a draw when nobody reaches the objective after placing the 16 pieces.

  Q.60
If in your next move you placed P11 in B11, you are guaranteed a win in which of the following scenario:
(assume both play intelligently)

1  Give P1 for your friend to place

2 Give P15 for your friend to place

3 Give P14 for your friend to place

4 You will lose the game in all the above scenarios

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Directions for questions 59 to 62: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

You and your friend play a board game. The board has 16 squares (4 × 4), and 16 different pieces that can
be constructed combining the following four characteristics
The aim of the game is to complete a line with four pieces that are similar in at least about one of the four
described characteristics (four big pieces, four small pieces, four red pieces, four blue pieces, for square
pieces, for circle pieces, four pieces with hole, four pieces without hole). The line may be vertical,
horizontal or diagonal. The winner is the player who places the fourth piece on the line.

Players move alternatively, placing one piece on the board in any desired vacant square; once inserted,
pieces cannot be moved. One of the more special characteristics of this game is that the choice of the
piece to be placed on the board is not made by the same player who places it; it is the opponent who after
doing the move, decides which will be the next piece to place.

So, each turn consists of two actions:

1. Place on the board the piece.

2. Give the opponent the piece to be placed in the next move.

In the rst turn of the game, the player who starts has only to choose one piece for the opponent.
The game nishes in a draw when nobody reaches the objective after placing the 16 pieces.

  Q.61
Initially, there were 10 potential winning lines. At the intermediate stage given in this question set, how
many winning lines are possible?

1  5

2 6

3 7

4 8

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 Answer key/Solution

Directions for questions 59 to 62: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

You and your friend play a board game. The board has 16 squares (4 × 4), and 16 different pieces that can
be constructed combining the following four characteristics
The aim of the game is to complete a line with four pieces that are similar in at least about one of the four
described characteristics (four big pieces, four small pieces, four red pieces, four blue pieces, for square
pieces, for circle pieces, four pieces with hole, four pieces without hole). The line may be vertical,
horizontal or diagonal. The winner is the player who places the fourth piece on the line.

Players move alternatively, placing one piece on the board in any desired vacant square; once inserted,
pieces cannot be moved. One of the more special characteristics of this game is that the choice of the
piece to be placed on the board is not made by the same player who places it; it is the opponent who after
doing the move, decides which will be the next piece to place.

So, each turn consists of two actions:

1. Place on the board the piece.

2. Give the opponent the piece to be placed in the next move.

In the rst turn of the game, the player who starts has only to choose one piece for the opponent.
The game nishes in a draw when nobody reaches the objective after placing the 16 pieces.

  Q.62
If you blundered and gave P14 to your friend to place, and still did not lose the game, which of the
following must have happened?

1  Your friend placed P14 on B4

2 Your friend did not place P14 on B15

3 Your friend place P14 on B6

4 Your friend placed P14 on B15

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Directions for questions 63 to 66: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

Five professors–Mukund, Nalini, Parth, Ravi and Saritha–conduct workshops for 10 batches.
● 5 batches come in the morning and 5 batches come in the afternoon.
● Each professor conduct workshops on two different topics in one day, one each in morning and
afternoon.

Following are the details of the schedule on 17th June 2018

● Workshops to be conducted in morning are–entrepreneurship, nance, and operations.
● Workshops to be conducted in afternoon are–operations, marketing, and HR.
● Three professors including Saritha take workshops on operation.
● Three professors take workshop on marketing.
● Mukund does not take any topics that Nalini takes.
● Parth does not take any topics that Ravi takes.
● Only the ve professors listed above conduct workshops.

All the questions are pertaining to the workshop conducted on the 17th of June 2018.

  Q.63
If Mukund takes a workshop on HR, which of the following must be true?

1  Mukund takes a workshop on operations.

2 Nalini takes a workshop on marketing.

3 Parth takes a workshop on nance.

4 Ravi takes a workshop on entrepreneurship.

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Directions for questions 63 to 66: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

Five professors–Mukund, Nalini, Parth, Ravi and Saritha–conduct workshops for 10 batches.
● 5 batches come in the morning and 5 batches come in the afternoon.
● Each professor conduct workshops on two different topics in one day, one each in morning and
afternoon.

Following are the details of the schedule on 17th June 2018

● Workshops to be conducted in morning are–entrepreneurship, nance, and operations.
● Workshops to be conducted in afternoon are–operations, marketing, and HR.
● Three professors including Saritha take workshops on operation.
● Three professors take workshop on marketing.
● Mukund does not take any topics that Nalini takes.
● Parth does not take any topics that Ravi takes.
● Only the ve professors listed above conduct workshops.

All the questions are pertaining to the workshop conducted on the 17th of June 2018.

  Q.64
If Parth takes a workshop on HR, which of the following must be true?

1  Either Nalini or Ravi takes a workshop on nance.

2 Either Mukund or Ravi takes a workshop on operations.

3 Either Parth or Ravi takes a workshop on nance.

4 Either Mukund or Nalini takes a workshop on entrepreneurship.

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 Answer key/Solution
Directions for questions 63 to 66: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

Five professors–Mukund, Nalini, Parth, Ravi and Saritha–conduct workshops for 10 batches.
● 5 batches come in the morning and 5 batches come in the afternoon.
● Each professor conduct workshops on two different topics in one day, one each in morning and
afternoon.

Following are the details of the schedule on 17th June 2018

● Workshops to be conducted in morning are–entrepreneurship, nance, and operations.
● Workshops to be conducted in afternoon are–operations, marketing, and HR.
● Three professors including Saritha take workshops on operation.
● Three professors take workshop on marketing.
● Mukund does not take any topics that Nalini takes.
● Parth does not take any topics that Ravi takes.
● Only the ve professors listed above conduct workshops.

All the questions are pertaining to the workshop conducted on the 17th of June 2018.

  Q.65
If Nalini is the only professor who takes a workshop on entrepreneurship, which of the following could be
true?

1  Ravi takes a workshop on operations in the morning.

2 Mukund takes a workshop on HR in the afternoon.

3 Parth takes a workshop on operations in the afternoon.

4 Nalini takes a workshop on HR in the afternoon.

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 Answer key/Solution
Directions for questions 63 to 66: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

Five professors–Mukund, Nalini, Parth, Ravi and Saritha–conduct workshops for 10 batches.
● 5 batches come in the morning and 5 batches come in the afternoon.
● Each professor conduct workshops on two different topics in one day, one each in morning and
afternoon.

Following are the details of the schedule on 17th June 2018

● Workshops to be conducted in morning are–entrepreneurship, nance, and operations.
● Workshops to be conducted in afternoon are–operations, marketing, and HR.
● Three professors including Saritha take workshops on operation.
● Three professors take workshop on marketing.
● Mukund does not take any topics that Nalini takes.
● Parth does not take any topics that Ravi takes.
● Only the ve professors listed above conduct workshops.

All the questions are pertaining to the workshop conducted on the 17th of June 2018.

  Q.66
If Nalini and Saritha takes workshops on the same two topics, all of the following must be true EXCEPT:

1  Mukund does not take a workshop on operations.

2 Nalini does not take a workshop on entrepreneurship.

3 Parth does not take a workshop on HR.

4 Ravi does not take a workshop on Marketing

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Sec 3

  Q.67
N = a3 + 3a2 + 2a , where a is odd. Which of the following can be the value of N?

1  1320

2 720

3 210
4 None of the above

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  Q.68
A certain soft-drink is sold in a cylindrical can. The company reduced the diameter of the can by 10% but
continued to ll the can of soft-drink to the same height as before. If the can of soft-drink is sold at the
same price as before, what is the increase in pro t percentage that the company will make per can?

1  19%

2 21%

3 23.47%

4 Cannot be determined

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  Q.69
What is the unit digit of (8877 − 7788 )?

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  Q.70
What is the 200th term of the following sequence:
a, 1, b, b, 2, 2, c, c, c, 3, 3, 3, d, d, d, d, 4, 4, 4, 4, e, e, e, e, e, 5, 5, 5, 5, 5, …

1  13

2 14

3 t

4 20

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  Q.71
A metal is in the form of a right octagonal prism with base area of 10 square units. It is then melted and re-
cast into 10 right triangular prisms with volume of 1 cubic unit each. The height of the prism is ______
unit(s).

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  Q.72
then nd the sum of all values of y where f (3y) = 13.
1  1

2 1/12

3 0

4 None of the above

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  Q.73

1  Less than 1

2 51 × 53 × 55 ×…× 95 × 97 × 99

3 50!

4 1

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  Q.74
Simple interest is applied to a certain sum of money at 10% per annum and 5% per annum for every
alternate years starting with 10%. In which year the amount will be at least thrice of the original sum?
(Type in 0, if it cannot be determined)


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  Q.75
A triangle with sides in the ratio 20 : 21 : 29 is inscribed in a circle with radius 5. The area (in sq. units) of
the triangle is closest to

1  25

2 30

3 35

4 40

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  Q.76
A function f(x) = (2 − x)(x + 3)(x2 −1) is de ned for all positive real values of x. The maximum value of the
function would be found in the range

1  0<x<1

2 1<x<2

3 x>2

4 x>3

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  Q.77
Mohit drew a convex polygon and calculated the sum of its interior angles as 1500°. If he missed counting
one angle, what is the measure of that angle?

1  60°

2 80°

3 100°

4 120°

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  Q.78
a, b, c, and d are one of the digits 1, 3, 5, or 7, with each digit used only once. How many different values of
a × b + c × d can be obtained?

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  Q.79
Is x ≥ 5?
Statement A: x2 = 25
Statement B: x2 – 11x + 30 = 0

1   Question can be answered using one of the statements alone but not by using the other statement
alone.

2 Question can be answered using either of the statements alone.

3 Question can be answered by using both statements together but not by any statement alone.

4 Question can not be answered even using both the statements together.


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  Q.80
where there are thousand 13s as exponents. What is the remainder when N is

divided by 7?

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  Q.81
Architect Mandrake builds a clock in which the minute hand runs anti-clockwise instead of clockwise, and
hour hand runs clockwise. The speed of the hour hand and minute hand is the same as a normal clock. At
12 O’clock, the clock shows the actual time. How many times in the next 12 hours will Mandrake’s clock
show the actual time?

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  Q.82
The length of the three sides of a convex quadrilateral are 4 cm, 8 cm, and 16 cm. How many positive
integer values can the fourth side (in cm) take if no two sides have the same length?

1  23

2 21

3 24

4 In nite
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  Q.83
What is the probability that logn b is a natural number, if b and n can take any of the values from the set A =
{2, 22, 23, 24, 25, 26}?

1  13/36

2 1/3

3 7/18

4 2/3

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  Q.84
50% of the students in a class are girls. One-third of these girls are from Mumbai. Two-thirds of the girls
from Mumbai scored at least 70% in Science. The number of boys in the class should be at least

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  Q.85
A in 10 days completes two-third of the work, B in 10 days completes one-half of the work and C in 10
days completes two- fth of the work. A and B starts the work together and C plans to join them later. On
which day should C must join so that the work gets completed on 7th day?

1  Day 1
2 Day 2

3 Day 3

4 Day 4

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  Q.86
f(1) = 1 and the remaining number of the sequence is generated by the following function:
f(n +1) − f(n) = n − 1 .

What is the value of f(2018) ?

1  2029106

2 2035152

3 2033137

4 2013111

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  Q.87
Two graphs and y = x2 – a do not intersect each other for x > 0. Which of the following is the

possible value of a?

1  4

2 1

3 0
4 None of the above

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  Q.88

1  L(m, n) = H(m, n)

2 H(m, n) = 1

3 L(m, n) > H(m, n)

4 L(m, n) > 4

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  Q.89

1  1/2

2 1/4

3 4

4 8

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  Q.90
The median of 7 integers 3, 3, 4, 5, x, x, –4 is 4. Each of the following can be a value of ‘x’ except

1  3

2 4

3 5

4 6

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  Q.91
Sum of three positive integers – a, b, c – is 20. What is the maximum value of abc2?

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  Q.92
ΔABC is an isosceles right-angled triangle with ∠B = 90° and AB = 1 unit. AB and BC are tangents to a
circle such that points A and C are lying on the circle. What is the area of the region in the triangle ABC
which is outside that circle?

1 

4 None of the above

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  Q.93
In an x-y plane, the region is bounded by the equation x2 + y2 − 2x − 2y − 7 = 0 . What is the area of the
largest quadrilateral that can be drawn in this region?

1  6√2

2 9

3 18

4 36

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  Q.94
The points A(0,0), B(0, a + 5) and C(2a, 2a + 2) form a right-angled triangle where ∠B = 90°. What is the
length of AC?

1  13

2 9√5

3 5√2

4 10

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  Q.95
In a certain exam there are 25 questions, all of which must be solved in 65 minutes. The di culty level of
the question increases as the exam progresses and the ideal time (in minutes) that one must devote to
each question, for completing the test on time, is directly proportional to the question number. What is the
time (in seconds) one must devote to question number 6? (Type in 0, if it cannot be determined)

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  Q.96
There is a series of in nite circles which are tangent to each other and the centres of all the circles are
collinear. The areas of these circles are in Geometric Progression with a common ratio of 1/4. The ratio of
the length of diameter of the rst circle to the diameters of rest of the circles taken together is

1  1:1

2 1:2

3 2:1

4 4:1

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  Q.97
Amit drives from his home to o ce at 35 kilometres per hour for the rst hour but then realizes that he will
be 1 hour late to work if he drives at the same speed. He increases the speed by 15 kilometres per hour
and reaches 30 minutes early. What is the distance (in kilometres) between his house and o ce?

1  175

2 200

3 100

4 210


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  Q.98

1  1

2 0

3 2

4 3

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  Q.99
Radhika and Pallavi decided to meet at the library which is located at a straight road between their houses.
Radhika leaves her house, and after a little while later Pallavi starts from her house. When they meet at the
library, Radhika had walked for twice the length of time as Pallavi, at three-fourth of Pallavi’s speed. If
Pallavi travelled for 4 kilometres, what is the distance (in kilometres) between their houses?

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  Q.100
Twelve men can complete a work in 32 days while 64 women can complete the same work in 12 days.
Sixteen men and sixteen women started working and worked for twelve days. How many additional men
are required after that to complete the remaining work in 2 days?
1  24

2 48

3 12

4 15

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