Mock CAT - 05

Directions of Test

Test Name Mock CAT - 05 Total Questions 100 Total Time 180 Mins

Section Name No. of Questions Time limit Marks per Question Negative Marking
Verbal Ability 34 1:0(h:m) 3 1/3
DI & Reasoning 32 1:0(h:m) 3 1/3
Quantitative Ability 34 1:0(h:m) 3 1/3

Section : Verbal Ability

DIRECTIONS for the question : Read the passage and answer the question based on it. 

Question No. : 1
Design fictions draw on a long tradition of technological storytelling. Every technology starts with a story. We don’t know how
the first hominids who fashioned a hand-axe from a flint shaped their thoughts, but the very action of flint-knapping implies a
plan for the future: the result will be better, in some way, than the flints already to hand. So it is with all technologies. ‘A tool
always implies at least one small story,’ writes the historian of technology David Nye in Technology Matters. It begins in the
imagination, and that imagining extends to what the tools will help us to achieve. These stories can be as dry as a patent, or as
fanciful as a commercial for some new gadget that will magically endow your life with the shining perfection of the product you
are being sold (Google Glass, anyone?).
 
They are also interwoven with more familiar kinds of science fiction. The ties between scientific speculation, technological
imagination and sci-fi are close, and complex, even if genuinely new ideas most often come up in the tech arena first. Arthur C
Clarke is often cited as a techno-visionary for his ideas about geostationary communication satellites, but these were first
outlined in 1945 in a technical essay, not in fiction. And yet the causal chain can run in the other direction: Clarke’s road map to
the planets fundamentally shaped NASA’s space policy in the 1960s and, earlier, the pioneers of rocketry drew heavily on the
fictions of Jules Verne and H G Wells.
 
Often the imaginings of sci-fi and technology work as an echo-chamber, reflecting ideas back and forth, with tech innovators
claiming sci-fi inspiration as a way of communicating what their devices might do. Martin Cooper, the US engineer who led the
team behind the first cell phone – demonstrated in 1973 – happily told reporters it was inspired by the Star Trek communicator;
yet, at the time, he had been working for Motorola on hand-held police radios, and the mobile phone was a simple extension
of that idea. But name-checking Star Trek was a good way to get people’s attention.
 
Sci-fi media can be astonishingly effective at promoting possible technologies. This takes on a new dimension in film, which
trades in realistic depictions of new tech to underpin fictional worlds. Sometimes this cinematic realism is directly exploited by
innovators. The computer interface that Tom Cruise’s character uses to manipulate data with gestures in Minority Report (2002)
was based on designs by John Underkoffler, a former MIT Media Lab researcher in visualisation who was working towards just
such an interface. Although the film’s narrative was dark, the interface caught people’s imagination, and Underkoffler used its
cinematic impact to help secure investment in his research.
 
Such ultra-realist depiction of possible technology, what David Kirby in Lab Coats in Hollywood (2011) calls ‘diegetic
prototypes’, is an unbeatable way to promote a new technological possibility. As Kirby writes in a 2009 paper for the journal
Social Studies of Science: ‘cinematic texts require technologies to work. And, in this case, visual realism was achieved by
enlisting help from people who wanted to develop precisely what was being depicted.’ It is a new kind of self-fulfilling
prophecy, he says, ‘creating “preproduct placements” for technologies that do not yet exist’.

The primary purpose of the passage is:

A) to explain how the world of science-fiction works and how it places itself unobtrusively in the real world
B) to highlight how design fiction works and how self-fulfilling loops are created by the intermingling of technology
development and science fiction
C) to explore how science fiction can come to the rescue of researchers by providing them a realist outlet for displaying and
showcasing their technologies
D) to showcase how the development of ideas first leads to the creation of tools and how this ultimately becomes a part of
 Mock CAT - 05
the stories we read

DIRECTIONS for the question : Read the passage and answer the question based on it. 

Question No. : 2
Design fictions draw on a long tradition of technological storytelling. Every technology starts with a story. We don’t know how
the first hominids who fashioned a hand-axe from a flint shaped their thoughts, but the very action of flint-knapping implies a
plan for the future: the result will be better, in some way, than the flints already to hand. So it is with all technologies. ‘A tool
always implies at least one small story,’ writes the historian of technology David Nye in Technology Matters. It begins in the
imagination, and that imagining extends to what the tools will help us to achieve. These stories can be as dry as a patent, or as
fanciful as a commercial for some new gadget that will magically endow your life with the shining perfection of the product you
are being sold (Google Glass, anyone?).
 
They are also interwoven with more familiar kinds of science fiction. The ties between scientific speculation, technological
imagination and sci-fi are close, and complex, even if genuinely new ideas most often come up in the tech arena first. Arthur C
Clarke is often cited as a techno-visionary for his ideas about geostationary communication satellites, but these were first
outlined in 1945 in a technical essay, not in fiction. And yet the causal chain can run in the other direction: Clarke’s road map to
the planets fundamentally shaped NASA’s space policy in the 1960s and, earlier, the pioneers of rocketry drew heavily on the
fictions of Jules Verne and H G Wells.
 
Often the imaginings of sci-fi and technology work as an echo-chamber, reflecting ideas back and forth, with tech innovators
claiming sci-fi inspiration as a way of communicating what their devices might do. Martin Cooper, the US engineer who led the
team behind the first cell phone – demonstrated in 1973 – happily told reporters it was inspired by the Star Trek communicator;
yet, at the time, he had been working for Motorola on hand-held police radios, and the mobile phone was a simple extension
of that idea. But name-checking Star Trek was a good way to get people’s attention.
 
Sci-fi media can be astonishingly effective at promoting possible technologies. This takes on a new dimension in film, which
trades in realistic depictions of new tech to underpin fictional worlds. Sometimes this cinematic realism is directly exploited by
innovators. The computer interface that Tom Cruise’s character uses to manipulate data with gestures in Minority Report (2002)
was based on designs by John Underkoffler, a former MIT Media Lab researcher in visualisation who was working towards just
such an interface. Although the film’s narrative was dark, the interface caught people’s imagination, and Underkoffler used its
cinematic impact to help secure investment in his research.
 
Such ultra-realist depiction of possible technology, what David Kirby in Lab Coats in Hollywood (2011) calls ‘diegetic
prototypes’, is an unbeatable way to promote a new technological possibility. As Kirby writes in a 2009 paper for the journal
Social Studies of Science: ‘cinematic texts require technologies to work. And, in this case, visual realism was achieved by
enlisting help from people who wanted to develop precisely what was being depicted.’ It is a new kind of self-fulfilling
prophecy, he says, ‘creating “preproduct placements” for technologies that do not yet exist’.

It can be inferred from the passage:

A) products such as Google Glass showcase how stories behind a technology can be misleading
B) products such as Google Glass showcase how stories behind a technology are created in the form of commercials that
entice the public to buy them
C) products such as Google Glass showcase how stories behind a technology can be fascinatingly portrayed
D) products such as Google Glass showcase how stories behind a technology can be driven by commercial interests
 Mock CAT - 05
DIRECTIONS for the question : Read the passage and answer the question based on it. 

Question No. : 3
Design fictions draw on a long tradition of technological storytelling. Every technology starts with a story. We don’t know how
the first hominids who fashioned a hand-axe from a flint shaped their thoughts, but the very action of flint-knapping implies a
plan for the future: the result will be better, in some way, than the flints already to hand. So it is with all technologies. ‘A tool
always implies at least one small story,’ writes the historian of technology David Nye in Technology Matters. It begins in the
imagination, and that imagining extends to what the tools will help us to achieve. These stories can be as dry as a patent, or as
fanciful as a commercial for some new gadget that will magically endow your life with the shining perfection of the product you
are being sold (Google Glass, anyone?).
 
They are also interwoven with more familiar kinds of science fiction. The ties between scientific speculation, technological
imagination and sci-fi are close, and complex, even if genuinely new ideas most often come up in the tech arena first. Arthur C
Clarke is often cited as a techno-visionary for his ideas about geostationary communication satellites, but these were first
outlined in 1945 in a technical essay, not in fiction. And yet the causal chain can run in the other direction: Clarke’s road map to
the planets fundamentally shaped NASA’s space policy in the 1960s and, earlier, the pioneers of rocketry drew heavily on the
fictions of Jules Verne and H G Wells.
 
Often the imaginings of sci-fi and technology work as an echo-chamber, reflecting ideas back and forth, with tech innovators
claiming sci-fi inspiration as a way of communicating what their devices might do. Martin Cooper, the US engineer who led the
team behind the first cell phone – demonstrated in 1973 – happily told reporters it was inspired by the Star Trek communicator;
yet, at the time, he had been working for Motorola on hand-held police radios, and the mobile phone was a simple extension
of that idea. But name-checking Star Trek was a good way to get people’s attention.
 
Sci-fi media can be astonishingly effective at promoting possible technologies. This takes on a new dimension in film, which
trades in realistic depictions of new tech to underpin fictional worlds. Sometimes this cinematic realism is directly exploited by
innovators. The computer interface that Tom Cruise’s character uses to manipulate data with gestures in Minority Report (2002)
was based on designs by John Underkoffler, a former MIT Media Lab researcher in visualisation who was working towards just
such an interface. Although the film’s narrative was dark, the interface caught people’s imagination, and Underkoffler used its
cinematic impact to help secure investment in his research.
 
Such ultra-realist depiction of possible technology, what David Kirby in Lab Coats in Hollywood (2011) calls ‘diegetic
prototypes’, is an unbeatable way to promote a new technological possibility. As Kirby writes in a 2009 paper for the journal
Social Studies of Science: ‘cinematic texts require technologies to work. And, in this case, visual realism was achieved by
enlisting help from people who wanted to develop precisely what was being depicted.’ It is a new kind of self-fulfilling
prophecy, he says, ‘creating “preproduct placements” for technologies that do not yet exist’.

The example of John Underkoffler highlights:

A) how sci-fi media can help germinate possible technologies B) how sci-fi media can help endorse possible technologies
C) how sci-fi media can help stimulate possible technologies D) how sci-fi media can help develop possible technologies
 Mock CAT - 05
DIRECTIONS for the question : Read the passage and answer the question based on it. 

Question No. : 4
Design fictions draw on a long tradition of technological storytelling. Every technology starts with a story. We don’t know how
the first hominids who fashioned a hand-axe from a flint shaped their thoughts, but the very action of flint-knapping implies a
plan for the future: the result will be better, in some way, than the flints already to hand. So it is with all technologies. ‘A tool
always implies at least one small story,’ writes the historian of technology David Nye in Technology Matters. It begins in the
imagination, and that imagining extends to what the tools will help us to achieve. These stories can be as dry as a patent, or as
fanciful as a commercial for some new gadget that will magically endow your life with the shining perfection of the product you
are being sold (Google Glass, anyone?).
 
They are also interwoven with more familiar kinds of science fiction. The ties between scientific speculation, technological
imagination and sci-fi are close, and complex, even if genuinely new ideas most often come up in the tech arena first. Arthur C
Clarke is often cited as a techno-visionary for his ideas about geostationary communication satellites, but these were first
outlined in 1945 in a technical essay, not in fiction. And yet the causal chain can run in the other direction: Clarke’s road map to
the planets fundamentally shaped NASA’s space policy in the 1960s and, earlier, the pioneers of rocketry drew heavily on the
fictions of Jules Verne and H G Wells.
 
Often the imaginings of sci-fi and technology work as an echo-chamber, reflecting ideas back and forth, with tech innovators
claiming sci-fi inspiration as a way of communicating what their devices might do. Martin Cooper, the US engineer who led the
team behind the first cell phone – demonstrated in 1973 – happily told reporters it was inspired by the Star Trek communicator;
yet, at the time, he had been working for Motorola on hand-held police radios, and the mobile phone was a simple extension
of that idea. But name-checking Star Trek was a good way to get people’s attention.
 
Sci-fi media can be astonishingly effective at promoting possible technologies. This takes on a new dimension in film, which
trades in realistic depictions of new tech to underpin fictional worlds. Sometimes this cinematic realism is directly exploited by
innovators. The computer interface that Tom Cruise’s character uses to manipulate data with gestures in Minority Report (2002)
was based on designs by John Underkoffler, a former MIT Media Lab researcher in visualisation who was working towards just
such an interface. Although the film’s narrative was dark, the interface caught people’s imagination, and Underkoffler used its
cinematic impact to help secure investment in his research.
 
Such ultra-realist depiction of possible technology, what David Kirby in Lab Coats in Hollywood (2011) calls ‘diegetic
prototypes’, is an unbeatable way to promote a new technological possibility. As Kirby writes in a 2009 paper for the journal
Social Studies of Science: ‘cinematic texts require technologies to work. And, in this case, visual realism was achieved by
enlisting help from people who wanted to develop precisely what was being depicted.’ It is a new kind of self-fulfilling
prophecy, he says, ‘creating “preproduct placements” for technologies that do not yet exist’.

Which of the following statements is correct?

 
I. Science fiction contributes most the new ideas that come up in the scientific world.
II. Science fiction and technology complement each other by reinforcing ideas of each other.
III. Visual realism in cinematic texts can help promote a technology even before it is created.
 

A) I & II B) II & III C) I & III D) All of the above
 Mock CAT - 05
DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

Question No. : 5
Part of the challenge in addressing global issues from an anthropological perspective relates to the non-methodological
position of the ethnographic field, that is, its concreteness and the aspiration to sustain anthropological attention to micro-level
phenomena and processes. Engagement with the emergent nature of ethnographic localities, ones that both anchor and yet
open up our perspectives on global issues, must be a preoccupation. In the light of new demands to encompass such far-flung
processes, how might anthropology characterise global localities while maintaining its insistence that global factors are and
always have impinged upon and been embedded in all local contexts? Given the current preoccupation with globalisation as
uniquely contemporary, how does history become implicated in global issues of locality and how might this time dimension be
characterised?
 
I will be exploring anthropological perspectives on globalisation by presenting an ethnography that incorporates Norway and
North America in a single place. Several communities in the upper Midwest are participating in a heritage project in western
Norway, a project which seeks to commemorate the emigration of the approximately 850,000 Norwegians to North America
between the years 1825 and 1925. By donating old pioneer buildings and actively helping in their disassembling and re-
inauguration in Norway, individuals and local groups find new and meaningful ways to think about their shared
emigrant/immigrant past. Through their joint work of preserving pioneer buildings in a localised Norwegian setting,
Norwegians and Norwegian-Americans seek to create a commemorative monument to Norwegian emigration. This popular
exercise of constructing and representing patterns of cultural movement and interconnectedness of people across continents
concretely blends American pioneer architecture with a Norwegian west-country landscape. The constructed site is a
manifestation of certain kinds of limited localities cut free from their moorings in place and thus able to contribute to the
immediate experience of the global as spatially unbounded. However, the creation of this rootless place stands in contrast to its
surroundings in a uni-local community, a model of locality so much out of favour in anthropological discussion of the global.
Indeed, the very contrast provides impact and gives meaning to the public exercise in memory work in which lost relationships
of an emigrant past are re-imagined.
 
Perhaps global localities can best be perceived in terms of their contrast with the bounded community in which people actually
do not migrate but stay put. Given the time span we are dealing with here, actual family bonds are genealogically distant and
spatially dispersed, even when studiously recognised and maintained by many Norwegian and Norwegian- American families.
Despite intermittent revivals, the intensity of interaction and exchange between families on either side of the Atlantic is fading.
The physical connections of worldwide span are transferred instead to displaced pioneer buildings built into and intertwined
with the bounded locally oriented community, revealing the latter as breaking its own limitations and opening outward to
difference and belonging.

From the given context of the passage, meaning of 'ethnography' can be inferred as:

A) the systematic study of immigrants B) the systematic study of localities C) the systematic study of people and cultures
D) the systematic study of globalized societies
 Mock CAT - 05
DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

Question No. : 6
Part of the challenge in addressing global issues from an anthropological perspective relates to the non-methodological
position of the ethnographic field, that is, its concreteness and the aspiration to sustain anthropological attention to micro-level
phenomena and processes. Engagement with the emergent nature of ethnographic localities, ones that both anchor and yet
open up our perspectives on global issues, must be a preoccupation. In the light of new demands to encompass such far-flung
processes, how might anthropology characterise global localities while maintaining its insistence that global factors are and
always have impinged upon and been embedded in all local contexts? Given the current preoccupation with globalisation as
uniquely contemporary, how does history become implicated in global issues of locality and how might this time dimension be
characterised?
 
I will be exploring anthropological perspectives on globalisation by presenting an ethnography that incorporates Norway and
North America in a single place. Several communities in the upper Midwest are participating in a heritage project in western
Norway, a project which seeks to commemorate the emigration of the approximately 850,000 Norwegians to North America
between the years 1825 and 1925. By donating old pioneer buildings and actively helping in their disassembling and re-
inauguration in Norway, individuals and local groups find new and meaningful ways to think about their shared
emigrant/immigrant past. Through their joint work of preserving pioneer buildings in a localised Norwegian setting,
Norwegians and Norwegian-Americans seek to create a commemorative monument to Norwegian emigration. This popular
exercise of constructing and representing patterns of cultural movement and interconnectedness of people across continents
concretely blends American pioneer architecture with a Norwegian west-country landscape. The constructed site is a
manifestation of certain kinds of limited localities cut free from their moorings in place and thus able to contribute to the
immediate experience of the global as spatially unbounded. However, the creation of this rootless place stands in contrast to its
surroundings in a uni-local community, a model of locality so much out of favour in anthropological discussion of the global.
Indeed, the very contrast provides impact and gives meaning to the public exercise in memory work in which lost relationships
of an emigrant past are re-imagined.
 
Perhaps global localities can best be perceived in terms of their contrast with the bounded community in which people actually
do not migrate but stay put. Given the time span we are dealing with here, actual family bonds are genealogically distant and
spatially dispersed, even when studiously recognised and maintained by many Norwegian and Norwegian- American families.
Despite intermittent revivals, the intensity of interaction and exchange between families on either side of the Atlantic is fading.
The physical connections of worldwide span are transferred instead to displaced pioneer buildings built into and intertwined
with the bounded locally oriented community, revealing the latter as breaking its own limitations and opening outward to
difference and belonging.

According the  author of the passage:

A) for families spread across the Atlantic, the genealogical ties are far-flung and distributed
B) global communities should always be perceived in contrast with the local bounded communities
C) the commemorative monument, by virtue of the sharp contrast with its surroundings, lends meaning to the ties of the
emigrant past
D) All of the above
 Mock CAT - 05
DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

Question No. : 7
Part of the challenge in addressing global issues from an anthropological perspective relates to the non-methodological
position of the ethnographic field, that is, its concreteness and the aspiration to sustain anthropological attention to micro-level
phenomena and processes. Engagement with the emergent nature of ethnographic localities, ones that both anchor and yet
open up our perspectives on global issues, must be a preoccupation. In the light of new demands to encompass such far-flung
processes, how might anthropology characterise global localities while maintaining its insistence that global factors are and
always have impinged upon and been embedded in all local contexts? Given the current preoccupation with globalisation as
uniquely contemporary, how does history become implicated in global issues of locality and how might this time dimension be
characterised?
 
I will be exploring anthropological perspectives on globalisation by presenting an ethnography that incorporates Norway and
North America in a single place. Several communities in the upper Midwest are participating in a heritage project in western
Norway, a project which seeks to commemorate the emigration of the approximately 850,000 Norwegians to North America
between the years 1825 and 1925. By donating old pioneer buildings and actively helping in their disassembling and re-
inauguration in Norway, individuals and local groups find new and meaningful ways to think about their shared
emigrant/immigrant past. Through their joint work of preserving pioneer buildings in a localised Norwegian setting,
Norwegians and Norwegian-Americans seek to create a commemorative monument to Norwegian emigration. This popular
exercise of constructing and representing patterns of cultural movement and interconnectedness of people across continents
concretely blends American pioneer architecture with a Norwegian west-country landscape. The constructed site is a
manifestation of certain kinds of limited localities cut free from their moorings in place and thus able to contribute to the
immediate experience of the global as spatially unbounded. However, the creation of this rootless place stands in contrast to its
surroundings in a uni-local community, a model of locality so much out of favour in anthropological discussion of the global.
Indeed, the very contrast provides impact and gives meaning to the public exercise in memory work in which lost relationships
of an emigrant past are re-imagined.
 
Perhaps global localities can best be perceived in terms of their contrast with the bounded community in which people actually
do not migrate but stay put. Given the time span we are dealing with here, actual family bonds are genealogically distant and
spatially dispersed, even when studiously recognised and maintained by many Norwegian and Norwegian- American families.
Despite intermittent revivals, the intensity of interaction and exchange between families on either side of the Atlantic is fading.
The physical connections of worldwide span are transferred instead to displaced pioneer buildings built into and intertwined
with the bounded locally oriented community, revealing the latter as breaking its own limitations and opening outward to
difference and belonging.

The author of the passage would disagree with the statement:

A) anthropology and globalization are linked not only across a scale of time but also across geographic barriers
B) the links of anthropology and globalization are too subtle to be successfully delineated
C) the commemorative monument in Norway is a expression of breaking free the limitations of place
D) the commemorative monument in Norway does not necessarily gel in with the surroundings
 Mock CAT - 05
DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

Question No. : 8
Part of the challenge in addressing global issues from an anthropological perspective relates to the non-methodological
position of the ethnographic field, that is, its concreteness and the aspiration to sustain anthropological attention to micro-level
phenomena and processes. Engagement with the emergent nature of ethnographic localities, ones that both anchor and yet
open up our perspectives on global issues, must be a preoccupation. In the light of new demands to encompass such far-flung
processes, how might anthropology characterise global localities while maintaining its insistence that global factors are and
always have impinged upon and been embedded in all local contexts? Given the current preoccupation with globalisation as
uniquely contemporary, how does history become implicated in global issues of locality and how might this time dimension be
characterised?
 
I will be exploring anthropological perspectives on globalisation by presenting an ethnography that incorporates Norway and
North America in a single place. Several communities in the upper Midwest are participating in a heritage project in western
Norway, a project which seeks to commemorate the emigration of the approximately 850,000 Norwegians to North America
between the years 1825 and 1925. By donating old pioneer buildings and actively helping in their disassembling and re-
inauguration in Norway, individuals and local groups find new and meaningful ways to think about their shared
emigrant/immigrant past. Through their joint work of preserving pioneer buildings in a localised Norwegian setting,
Norwegians and Norwegian-Americans seek to create a commemorative monument to Norwegian emigration. This popular
exercise of constructing and representing patterns of cultural movement and interconnectedness of people across continents
concretely blends American pioneer architecture with a Norwegian west-country landscape. The constructed site is a
manifestation of certain kinds of limited localities cut free from their moorings in place and thus able to contribute to the
immediate experience of the global as spatially unbounded. However, the creation of this rootless place stands in contrast to its
surroundings in a uni-local community, a model of locality so much out of favour in anthropological discussion of the global.
Indeed, the very contrast provides impact and gives meaning to the public exercise in memory work in which lost relationships
of an emigrant past are re-imagined.
 
Perhaps global localities can best be perceived in terms of their contrast with the bounded community in which people actually
do not migrate but stay put. Given the time span we are dealing with here, actual family bonds are genealogically distant and
spatially dispersed, even when studiously recognised and maintained by many Norwegian and Norwegian- American families.
Despite intermittent revivals, the intensity of interaction and exchange between families on either side of the Atlantic is fading.
The physical connections of worldwide span are transferred instead to displaced pioneer buildings built into and intertwined
with the bounded locally oriented community, revealing the latter as breaking its own limitations and opening outward to
difference and belonging.

In the given case, the author of the passage is trying to showcase:

A) the development of anthropology from the perspective of globalization

B) the development of globalization from the perspective of anthropology
C) the deep-set connection between globalization and anthropology D) both (A) and (C)
 Mock CAT - 05
DIRECTIONS for the question : Read the passage and answer the question based on it. 

Question No. : 9
The problem, in fact, transcends the specific words that a reformer or a sacred text has used. Even if we agree to purge history
as well as the text of such words, what will we do about the teaching- the central doctrine, the propositions- that the reformers
and the texts urge? Idols are revered by millions. And yet we know the sort of words that the Quran uses about idols and
idolators, the curse it pronounces on them, the duty it enjoins on the faithful- the duty of ensuring ‘a wide slaughter in the land’
of the infidels. Surely this is more than just using harsh words against somebody. It is incitement to murder, and wholesome
murder at that. Is the Hindu to take offence and demand that the Quran be purged of such passages?
 
Or consider the figure of Jesus. The Quran recognizes him as one of the prophets. But it repeatedly asserts that Jesus was not
the son of God. It also says, for instance, that the one who was crucified was not Jesus but a look-alike. Now, these assertions
strike at two notions that are absolutely central to the faith of Christians. Should they take offence and demand that the Quran
be purged of these verses? And if they ask for this, would they, in turn, not be striking at a premise that is just as fundamental
to the faith of a Muslim as the divinity of Jesus is to that of a Christian, the premise, namely, that every word of the Quran-
including, that is, every word asking us to launch Jihads, every word denying the divinity of Jesus- is true, that it is of divine
origin?
 
At one stage, some Hindu researchers began representing Rishabha, the first tirthankara of the Jains, as an avatar of Vishnu.
The Jains took this to be an attempt to swallow Jainism. They retaliated by questioning the divine status of Vishnu himself, and
they did so by drawing special attention to what, by the standards that had become current, could only be regarded as the
‘immoral’ behaviour of the avatars. They went so far as to produce new versions of the Ramayana and the Mahabharata, in
which the Gods revered by the Hindus- Rama, Krishna- were represented as worldly Jain heroes whose deeds were to be
weighed by the norms of Jain ethics. Rama survived the change. He does not kill Ravana- Lakshamana does that- and so is still
reborn in heaven because of his strict adherence to Ahimsa. But Krishna suffers. As a scholar notes, his deeds of treachery and
violence are too numerous to be covered up. After his time on earth, therefore, he is depicted as spending a long, long time in
hell. Should the Jains forever hold against the Hindus the latter’s attempt to ‘misrepresent’ their Tirthankara as an avatar of
Vishnu? Should the Hindus forever hold the Jains guilty of ‘distorting’ their epics and vilifying their God, Krishna?

What can be said of holy scriptures and documents of various religions?

A) One is always in dispute with one or more of the others B) They may not always see the similar events in similar light
C) They are prone to indulge in subjective vilification of one another’s works D) Both (2) and (3)
 Mock CAT - 05
DIRECTIONS for the question : Read the passage and answer the question based on it. 

Question No. : 10
The problem, in fact, transcends the specific words that a reformer or a sacred text has used. Even if we agree to purge history
as well as the text of such words, what will we do about the teaching- the central doctrine, the propositions- that the reformers
and the texts urge? Idols are revered by millions. And yet we know the sort of words that the Quran uses about idols and
idolators, the curse it pronounces on them, the duty it enjoins on the faithful- the duty of ensuring ‘a wide slaughter in the land’
of the infidels. Surely this is more than just using harsh words against somebody. It is incitement to murder, and wholesome
murder at that. Is the Hindu to take offence and demand that the Quran be purged of such passages?
 
Or consider the figure of Jesus. The Quran recognizes him as one of the prophets. But it repeatedly asserts that Jesus was not
the son of God. It also says, for instance, that the one who was crucified was not Jesus but a look-alike. Now, these assertions
strike at two notions that are absolutely central to the faith of Christians. Should they take offence and demand that the Quran
be purged of these verses? And if they ask for this, would they, in turn, not be striking at a premise that is just as fundamental
to the faith of a Muslim as the divinity of Jesus is to that of a Christian, the premise, namely, that every word of the Quran-
including, that is, every word asking us to launch Jihads, every word denying the divinity of Jesus- is true, that it is of divine
origin?
 
At one stage, some Hindu researchers began representing Rishabha, the first tirthankara of the Jains, as an avatar of Vishnu.
The Jains took this to be an attempt to swallow Jainism. They retaliated by questioning the divine status of Vishnu himself, and
they did so by drawing special attention to what, by the standards that had become current, could only be regarded as the
‘immoral’ behaviour of the avatars. They went so far as to produce new versions of the Ramayana and the Mahabharata, in
which the Gods revered by the Hindus- Rama, Krishna- were represented as worldly Jain heroes whose deeds were to be
weighed by the norms of Jain ethics. Rama survived the change. He does not kill Ravana- Lakshamana does that- and so is still
reborn in heaven because of his strict adherence to Ahimsa. But Krishna suffers. As a scholar notes, his deeds of treachery and
violence are too numerous to be covered up. After his time on earth, therefore, he is depicted as spending a long, long time in
hell. Should the Jains forever hold against the Hindus the latter’s attempt to ‘misrepresent’ their Tirthankara as an avatar of
Vishnu? Should the Hindus forever hold the Jains guilty of ‘distorting’ their epics and vilifying their God, Krishna?

It can be inferred from the passage:

A) scriptures of a certain religion can be sacred to another.

B) scriptures of a certain religion can be sanctimonious to another
C) scriptures of a certain religion can be sacrilegious to another D) all of the above
 Mock CAT - 05
DIRECTIONS for the question : Read the passage and answer the question based on it. 

Question No. : 11
The problem, in fact, transcends the specific words that a reformer or a sacred text has used. Even if we agree to purge history
as well as the text of such words, what will we do about the teaching- the central doctrine, the propositions- that the reformers
and the texts urge? Idols are revered by millions. And yet we know the sort of words that the Quran uses about idols and
idolators, the curse it pronounces on them, the duty it enjoins on the faithful- the duty of ensuring ‘a wide slaughter in the land’
of the infidels. Surely this is more than just using harsh words against somebody. It is incitement to murder, and wholesome
murder at that. Is the Hindu to take offence and demand that the Quran be purged of such passages?
 
Or consider the figure of Jesus. The Quran recognizes him as one of the prophets. But it repeatedly asserts that Jesus was not
the son of God. It also says, for instance, that the one who was crucified was not Jesus but a look-alike. Now, these assertions
strike at two notions that are absolutely central to the faith of Christians. Should they take offence and demand that the Quran
be purged of these verses? And if they ask for this, would they, in turn, not be striking at a premise that is just as fundamental
to the faith of a Muslim as the divinity of Jesus is to that of a Christian, the premise, namely, that every word of the Quran-
including, that is, every word asking us to launch Jihads, every word denying the divinity of Jesus- is true, that it is of divine
origin?
 
At one stage, some Hindu researchers began representing Rishabha, the first tirthankara of the Jains, as an avatar of Vishnu.
The Jains took this to be an attempt to swallow Jainism. They retaliated by questioning the divine status of Vishnu himself, and
they did so by drawing special attention to what, by the standards that had become current, could only be regarded as the
‘immoral’ behaviour of the avatars. They went so far as to produce new versions of the Ramayana and the Mahabharata, in
which the Gods revered by the Hindus- Rama, Krishna- were represented as worldly Jain heroes whose deeds were to be
weighed by the norms of Jain ethics. Rama survived the change. He does not kill Ravana- Lakshamana does that- and so is still
reborn in heaven because of his strict adherence to Ahimsa. But Krishna suffers. As a scholar notes, his deeds of treachery and
violence are too numerous to be covered up. After his time on earth, therefore, he is depicted as spending a long, long time in
hell. Should the Jains forever hold against the Hindus the latter’s attempt to ‘misrepresent’ their Tirthankara as an avatar of
Vishnu? Should the Hindus forever hold the Jains guilty of ‘distorting’ their epics and vilifying their God, Krishna?

The purpose of the Jains to take out new versions of the holy scriptures of the Hindus:

A) They wanted to get back at the Hindus B) They wished to appropriate Hinduism
C) They wished to counter the attempts of Hinduism to appropriate Jainism
D) They wished that scriptures show some respect to Jains as well
 Mock CAT - 05
DIRECTIONS for the question : Read the passage and answer the question based on it. 

Question No. : 12
The problem, in fact, transcends the specific words that a reformer or a sacred text has used. Even if we agree to purge history
as well as the text of such words, what will we do about the teaching- the central doctrine, the propositions- that the reformers
and the texts urge? Idols are revered by millions. And yet we know the sort of words that the Quran uses about idols and
idolators, the curse it pronounces on them, the duty it enjoins on the faithful- the duty of ensuring ‘a wide slaughter in the land’
of the infidels. Surely this is more than just using harsh words against somebody. It is incitement to murder, and wholesome
murder at that. Is the Hindu to take offence and demand that the Quran be purged of such passages?
 
Or consider the figure of Jesus. The Quran recognizes him as one of the prophets. But it repeatedly asserts that Jesus was not
the son of God. It also says, for instance, that the one who was crucified was not Jesus but a look-alike. Now, these assertions
strike at two notions that are absolutely central to the faith of Christians. Should they take offence and demand that the Quran
be purged of these verses? And if they ask for this, would they, in turn, not be striking at a premise that is just as fundamental
to the faith of a Muslim as the divinity of Jesus is to that of a Christian, the premise, namely, that every word of the Quran-
including, that is, every word asking us to launch Jihads, every word denying the divinity of Jesus- is true, that it is of divine
origin?
 
At one stage, some Hindu researchers began representing Rishabha, the first tirthankara of the Jains, as an avatar of Vishnu.
The Jains took this to be an attempt to swallow Jainism. They retaliated by questioning the divine status of Vishnu himself, and
they did so by drawing special attention to what, by the standards that had become current, could only be regarded as the
‘immoral’ behaviour of the avatars. They went so far as to produce new versions of the Ramayana and the Mahabharata, in
which the Gods revered by the Hindus- Rama, Krishna- were represented as worldly Jain heroes whose deeds were to be
weighed by the norms of Jain ethics. Rama survived the change. He does not kill Ravana- Lakshamana does that- and so is still
reborn in heaven because of his strict adherence to Ahimsa. But Krishna suffers. As a scholar notes, his deeds of treachery and
violence are too numerous to be covered up. After his time on earth, therefore, he is depicted as spending a long, long time in
hell. Should the Jains forever hold against the Hindus the latter’s attempt to ‘misrepresent’ their Tirthankara as an avatar of
Vishnu? Should the Hindus forever hold the Jains guilty of ‘distorting’ their epics and vilifying their God, Krishna?

The author of the passage highlights:

A) obscenities of religious text B) incongruity of religious text C) linguistic development of religious text
D) linguistic appropriations of religious text
 Mock CAT - 05
DIRECTIONS for the question : Read the passage and answer the question based on it. 

Question No. : 13
The roots of the current global crisis lie in the interplay of several developments that have fundamentally transformed the
finance capitalism that existed in 1929 or even as recently as just 30 years ago. Traditionally banks were careful to lend only to
trusted clients, and carried the debt on their books. Now there is securitisation. Lenders pool the loans and resell them as asset-
backed securities. These securities are then repackaged, leveraged, trenched and resold many times over. A second related
development is the emergence of highly sophisticated derivative products. Especially important among these todays are the
credit default swaps (CDSs). Taken together, asset-backed securities and derivatives widely spread the risk, but they also breed
complacency towards risk. The selling and reselling of risk also lays the foundation for quick contagion.

The third key development is the rise of highly-leveraged investment banks in the US. Commercial bank leveraging is limited by
stringent capital adequacy norms and their exposure to the capital market is regulated under the Glass-Steagal Act. In contrast,
till their recent demise, Wall Street investment banks could raise and invest funds up to 30 times their equity base, thus vastly
increasing the fragility of the system. Finally, there is globalisation of the financial system. One aspect of this is a major
imbalance between economic and political power. China, India and other emerging economies in Asia and the Middle East are
now the creditors of the world, especially the US. Yet they have little say in the design of the global financial architecture.
Another aspect of this is technological. Billions of dollars can now be transmitted instantaneously across the globe. But so can
market information and market sentiments, unleashing huge waves of exuberance or fear among investors.
 
Securitisation, derivatives, leveraging and globalisation have made the global economy much more volatile and risky than the
world of 1929. However, there is another major development that provides comforting insurance against such risks of global
systemic collapse. Out of the great depression was born Keynesian economics. In 1929, governments had relatively little
understanding of macroeconomic management. Today, governments and central banks have many tools to restore confidence
and revive the economy. The pace at which the US subprime loan defaults snowballed into a global financial crisis was
astonishing, but so was the speed with which the G-7 country authorities and emerging market economies responded.

If you were label this passage as a particular type, what would it be?

A) analytical B) factual C) descriptive D) objective

 Mock CAT - 05
DIRECTIONS for the question : Read the passage and answer the question based on it. 

Question No. : 14
The roots of the current global crisis lie in the interplay of several developments that have fundamentally transformed the
finance capitalism that existed in 1929 or even as recently as just 30 years ago. Traditionally banks were careful to lend only to
trusted clients, and carried the debt on their books. Now there is securitisation. Lenders pool the loans and resell them as asset-
backed securities. These securities are then repackaged, leveraged, trenched and resold many times over. A second related
development is the emergence of highly sophisticated derivative products. Especially important among these todays are the
credit default swaps (CDSs). Taken together, asset-backed securities and derivatives widely spread the risk, but they also breed
complacency towards risk. The selling and reselling of risk also lays the foundation for quick contagion.

The third key development is the rise of highly-leveraged investment banks in the US. Commercial bank leveraging is limited by
stringent capital adequacy norms and their exposure to the capital market is regulated under the Glass-Steagal Act. In contrast,
till their recent demise, Wall Street investment banks could raise and invest funds up to 30 times their equity base, thus vastly
increasing the fragility of the system. Finally, there is globalisation of the financial system. One aspect of this is a major
imbalance between economic and political power. China, India and other emerging economies in Asia and the Middle East are
now the creditors of the world, especially the US. Yet they have little say in the design of the global financial architecture.
Another aspect of this is technological. Billions of dollars can now be transmitted instantaneously across the globe. But so can
market information and market sentiments, unleashing huge waves of exuberance or fear among investors.
 
Securitisation, derivatives, leveraging and globalisation have made the global economy much more volatile and risky than the
world of 1929. However, there is another major development that provides comforting insurance against such risks of global
systemic collapse. Out of the great depression was born Keynesian economics. In 1929, governments had relatively little
understanding of macroeconomic management. Today, governments and central banks have many tools to restore confidence
and revive the economy. The pace at which the US subprime loan defaults snowballed into a global financial crisis was
astonishing, but so was the speed with which the G-7 country authorities and emerging market economies responded.

The author of the passage discusses:

A) the current onerous mechanism of the global financial world B) the precise intricacies of the global financial crises
C) the significant contributory factors in the global financial systems D) all of the above
 Mock CAT - 05
DIRECTIONS for the question : Read the passage and answer the question based on it. 

Question No. : 15
The roots of the current global crisis lie in the interplay of several developments that have fundamentally transformed the
finance capitalism that existed in 1929 or even as recently as just 30 years ago. Traditionally banks were careful to lend only to
trusted clients, and carried the debt on their books. Now there is securitisation. Lenders pool the loans and resell them as asset-
backed securities. These securities are then repackaged, leveraged, trenched and resold many times over. A second related
development is the emergence of highly sophisticated derivative products. Especially important among these todays are the
credit default swaps (CDSs). Taken together, asset-backed securities and derivatives widely spread the risk, but they also breed
complacency towards risk. The selling and reselling of risk also lays the foundation for quick contagion.

The third key development is the rise of highly-leveraged investment banks in the US. Commercial bank leveraging is limited by
stringent capital adequacy norms and their exposure to the capital market is regulated under the Glass-Steagal Act. In contrast,
till their recent demise, Wall Street investment banks could raise and invest funds up to 30 times their equity base, thus vastly
increasing the fragility of the system. Finally, there is globalisation of the financial system. One aspect of this is a major
imbalance between economic and political power. China, India and other emerging economies in Asia and the Middle East are
now the creditors of the world, especially the US. Yet they have little say in the design of the global financial architecture.
Another aspect of this is technological. Billions of dollars can now be transmitted instantaneously across the globe. But so can
market information and market sentiments, unleashing huge waves of exuberance or fear among investors.
 
Securitisation, derivatives, leveraging and globalisation have made the global economy much more volatile and risky than the
world of 1929. However, there is another major development that provides comforting insurance against such risks of global
systemic collapse. Out of the great depression was born Keynesian economics. In 1929, governments had relatively little
understanding of macroeconomic management. Today, governments and central banks have many tools to restore confidence
and revive the economy. The pace at which the US subprime loan defaults snowballed into a global financial crisis was
astonishing, but so was the speed with which the G-7 country authorities and emerging market economies responded.

According to the author of the passage, all of the following regarding statements are true expect:

A) global financial risks are increased due to globalizations.

B) global financial risks are enhanced because of the speed with which these spread and the inextricable response time of
governments.
C) global financial risks are increased by dealings in asset backed securities.
D) global financial risks are exacerbated because of risk being sold as a financial commodity.
 Mock CAT - 05
DIRECTIONS for the question : Read the passage and answer the question based on it. 

Question No. : 16
The roots of the current global crisis lie in the interplay of several developments that have fundamentally transformed the
finance capitalism that existed in 1929 or even as recently as just 30 years ago. Traditionally banks were careful to lend only to
trusted clients, and carried the debt on their books. Now there is securitisation. Lenders pool the loans and resell them as asset-
backed securities. These securities are then repackaged, leveraged, trenched and resold many times over. A second related
development is the emergence of highly sophisticated derivative products. Especially important among these todays are the
credit default swaps (CDSs). Taken together, asset-backed securities and derivatives widely spread the risk, but they also breed
complacency towards risk. The selling and reselling of risk also lays the foundation for quick contagion.

The third key development is the rise of highly-leveraged investment banks in the US. Commercial bank leveraging is limited by
stringent capital adequacy norms and their exposure to the capital market is regulated under the Glass-Steagal Act. In contrast,
till their recent demise, Wall Street investment banks could raise and invest funds up to 30 times their equity base, thus vastly
increasing the fragility of the system. Finally, there is globalisation of the financial system. One aspect of this is a major
imbalance between economic and political power. China, India and other emerging economies in Asia and the Middle East are
now the creditors of the world, especially the US. Yet they have little say in the design of the global financial architecture.
Another aspect of this is technological. Billions of dollars can now be transmitted instantaneously across the globe. But so can
market information and market sentiments, unleashing huge waves of exuberance or fear among investors.
 
Securitisation, derivatives, leveraging and globalisation have made the global economy much more volatile and risky than the
world of 1929. However, there is another major development that provides comforting insurance against such risks of global
systemic collapse. Out of the great depression was born Keynesian economics. In 1929, governments had relatively little
understanding of macroeconomic management. Today, governments and central banks have many tools to restore confidence
and revive the economy. The pace at which the US subprime loan defaults snowballed into a global financial crisis was
astonishing, but so was the speed with which the G-7 country authorities and emerging market economies responded.

According to the information given in the passage:

A) Investment banks help skirt the regulatory hurdles faced by commercial banks.
B) Securitisation effectively converts loans into assets, thereby transforming them from liabilities to profit-making
instruments.
C) Both (1) and (2) D) Neither (1) nor (2)
 Mock CAT - 05
DIRECTIONS for the question : Read the passage and answer the question based on it. 

Question No. : 17
A resurgence of interest developed in the 1990s in medical treatments not fully accepted by conventional medicine or
biomedicine, which requires stringent scientific proof of safety and effectiveness before accepting a treatment. Such evidence is
lacking for many approaches used in the medical systems and treatments known as alternative medicine in the United States. In
Europe, these same approaches often are called complementary medicine. Growing public interest in non-traditional
treatments led the NIH to open the National Center for Complementary and Alternative Medicine (formerly the Office of
Alternative Medicine) in 1992, which encourages research on alternative medicine. The number of Americans using an
alternative therapy rose from 33 percent in 1990 to more than 42 percent in 1997.

Alternative medicine emphasizes improving the quality of life for people with chronic illness; disease prevention; and
treatments for conditions that conventional medicine cannot adequately control, such as arthritis, chronic pain, allergies, cancer,
heart disease, and depression. A cornerstone of alternative medicine is the idea that the mind influences the health of the body.

Alternative medical systems include chiropractic, holistic medicine, and homeopathy. Chiropractors treat disease with spinal
manipulation, massage, diet, and many other techniques. Holistic healers emphasize treatment of the whole person, including
body, mind, emotions, spirit, and interactions with the family and environment. Homeopathic healers use substances that cause
the very symptoms being treated. When treating a headache or nausea, for example, homeopathic healers administer herbs
that in large doses cause headache or nausea. But they use very small doses that cause the patient no discomfort. Specific
alternative medical treatments include aromatherapy, inhaling oils from aromatic plants; massage techniques, including Rolfing
and reflexology; biofeedback; iridology, in which the eye is used to diagnose certain diseases; and acupuncture. Some
approaches, including chiropractic manipulation and acupuncture, have gained greater acceptance in conventional medicine.
Some conventional biomedical studies have concluded that chiropractic manipulation is effective for low-back pain. A 1997 NIH
report gave acupuncture limited endorsement for certain medical uses.

The author of passage:

A) describes the impact of alternate medications on humans B) explains the different methods available to treat ailments
C) showcases the impact of alternate medicine D) describes the increased use of various kinds of alternative medicine
 Mock CAT - 05
DIRECTIONS for the question : Read the passage and answer the question based on it. 

Question No. : 18
A resurgence of interest developed in the 1990s in medical treatments not fully accepted by conventional medicine or
biomedicine, which requires stringent scientific proof of safety and effectiveness before accepting a treatment. Such evidence is
lacking for many approaches used in the medical systems and treatments known as alternative medicine in the United States. In
Europe, these same approaches often are called complementary medicine. Growing public interest in non-traditional
treatments led the NIH to open the National Center for Complementary and Alternative Medicine (formerly the Office of
Alternative Medicine) in 1992, which encourages research on alternative medicine. The number of Americans using an
alternative therapy rose from 33 percent in 1990 to more than 42 percent in 1997.

Alternative medicine emphasizes improving the quality of life for people with chronic illness; disease prevention; and
treatments for conditions that conventional medicine cannot adequately control, such as arthritis, chronic pain, allergies, cancer,
heart disease, and depression. A cornerstone of alternative medicine is the idea that the mind influences the health of the body.

Alternative medical systems include chiropractic, holistic medicine, and homeopathy. Chiropractors treat disease with spinal
manipulation, massage, diet, and many other techniques. Holistic healers emphasize treatment of the whole person, including
body, mind, emotions, spirit, and interactions with the family and environment. Homeopathic healers use substances that cause
the very symptoms being treated. When treating a headache or nausea, for example, homeopathic healers administer herbs
that in large doses cause headache or nausea. But they use very small doses that cause the patient no discomfort. Specific
alternative medical treatments include aromatherapy, inhaling oils from aromatic plants; massage techniques, including Rolfing
and reflexology; biofeedback; iridology, in which the eye is used to diagnose certain diseases; and acupuncture. Some
approaches, including chiropractic manipulation and acupuncture, have gained greater acceptance in conventional medicine.
Some conventional biomedical studies have concluded that chiropractic manipulation is effective for low-back pain. A 1997 NIH
report gave acupuncture limited endorsement for certain medical uses.

Identify the correct statement.

A) The terms ‘non-traditional treatments’, ‘complementary medicine’ and ‘alternative medicine’ refer to the same medicinal
practices.
B) The terms ‘non-traditional treatments’, ‘complementary medicine’ and ‘alternative medicine’ refer to the similar medicinal
practices.
C) The terms ‘non-traditional treatments’, ‘complementary medicine’ and ‘alternative medicine’ refer to the dissimilar
medicinal practices.
D) The terms ‘non-traditional treatments’, ‘complementary medicine’ and ‘alternative medicine’ refer to divergent medicinal
practices.
 Mock CAT - 05
DIRECTIONS for the question : Read the passage and answer the question based on it. 

Question No. : 19
A resurgence of interest developed in the 1990s in medical treatments not fully accepted by conventional medicine or
biomedicine, which requires stringent scientific proof of safety and effectiveness before accepting a treatment. Such evidence is
lacking for many approaches used in the medical systems and treatments known as alternative medicine in the United States. In
Europe, these same approaches often are called complementary medicine. Growing public interest in non-traditional
treatments led the NIH to open the National Center for Complementary and Alternative Medicine (formerly the Office of
Alternative Medicine) in 1992, which encourages research on alternative medicine. The number of Americans using an
alternative therapy rose from 33 percent in 1990 to more than 42 percent in 1997.

Alternative medicine emphasizes improving the quality of life for people with chronic illness; disease prevention; and
treatments for conditions that conventional medicine cannot adequately control, such as arthritis, chronic pain, allergies, cancer,
heart disease, and depression. A cornerstone of alternative medicine is the idea that the mind influences the health of the body.

Alternative medical systems include chiropractic, holistic medicine, and homeopathy. Chiropractors treat disease with spinal
manipulation, massage, diet, and many other techniques. Holistic healers emphasize treatment of the whole person, including
body, mind, emotions, spirit, and interactions with the family and environment. Homeopathic healers use substances that cause
the very symptoms being treated. When treating a headache or nausea, for example, homeopathic healers administer herbs
that in large doses cause headache or nausea. But they use very small doses that cause the patient no discomfort. Specific
alternative medical treatments include aromatherapy, inhaling oils from aromatic plants; massage techniques, including Rolfing
and reflexology; biofeedback; iridology, in which the eye is used to diagnose certain diseases; and acupuncture. Some
approaches, including chiropractic manipulation and acupuncture, have gained greater acceptance in conventional medicine.
Some conventional biomedical studies have concluded that chiropractic manipulation is effective for low-back pain. A 1997 NIH
report gave acupuncture limited endorsement for certain medical uses.

Which of the following can be deduced from the passage?

A) Alternative medicine is based on the ability of the body to impact the mind.
B) Alternative medicine is premised in the fact that the mind can impact the body.
C) The simulacrum between the mind and body is what alternative medicine wishes to restore. D) None of the above
 Mock CAT - 05
DIRECTIONS for the question : Read the passage and answer the question based on it. 

Question No. : 20
A resurgence of interest developed in the 1990s in medical treatments not fully accepted by conventional medicine or
biomedicine, which requires stringent scientific proof of safety and effectiveness before accepting a treatment. Such evidence is
lacking for many approaches used in the medical systems and treatments known as alternative medicine in the United States. In
Europe, these same approaches often are called complementary medicine. Growing public interest in non-traditional
treatments led the NIH to open the National Center for Complementary and Alternative Medicine (formerly the Office of
Alternative Medicine) in 1992, which encourages research on alternative medicine. The number of Americans using an
alternative therapy rose from 33 percent in 1990 to more than 42 percent in 1997.

Alternative medicine emphasizes improving the quality of life for people with chronic illness; disease prevention; and
treatments for conditions that conventional medicine cannot adequately control, such as arthritis, chronic pain, allergies, cancer,
heart disease, and depression. A cornerstone of alternative medicine is the idea that the mind influences the health of the body.

Alternative medical systems include chiropractic, holistic medicine, and homeopathy. Chiropractors treat disease with spinal
manipulation, massage, diet, and many other techniques. Holistic healers emphasize treatment of the whole person, including
body, mind, emotions, spirit, and interactions with the family and environment. Homeopathic healers use substances that cause
the very symptoms being treated. When treating a headache or nausea, for example, homeopathic healers administer herbs
that in large doses cause headache or nausea. But they use very small doses that cause the patient no discomfort. Specific
alternative medical treatments include aromatherapy, inhaling oils from aromatic plants; massage techniques, including Rolfing
and reflexology; biofeedback; iridology, in which the eye is used to diagnose certain diseases; and acupuncture. Some
approaches, including chiropractic manipulation and acupuncture, have gained greater acceptance in conventional medicine.
Some conventional biomedical studies have concluded that chiropractic manipulation is effective for low-back pain. A 1997 NIH
report gave acupuncture limited endorsement for certain medical uses.

The methodology adopted by homeopathy to treat patients is highlighted by which of the following options?

A) A felon turns himself in when he realizes this guilt. B) Poison is used to treat an infection caused by another ailment.
C) Antacids used to treat acid reflux. D) All of the above
 Mock CAT - 05
DIRECTIONS for the question : Read the passage and answer the question based on it. 

Question No. : 21
Pollution from various industries, the burning of fossil fuels, methane from farm animals, forest destruction, rotting/dead
vegetation, etc. have led to an increased number of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere. And, as international trade in its
current form continues to expand with little regard for the environment, the transportation alone, of goods is thought to
considerably contribute to global warming via emissions from planes, ships and other transportation vehicles.
 
Even sulphur emitted from ships is thought to contribute a fair bit to climate change. In fact, sulphur based gas, originating
from the industry, discovered in 2000 is thought to be the most potent greenhouse gas measured to date. It is called
trifluoromethyl sulphur pentafluoride (SF5CF3).
 
NewScientist.com reports on a study that suggests soot particles may be worse than carbon dioxide in contributing to global
warming. The soot particles also originate from industry, and during the industrial revolution, was quite common. While on the
positive side there is less soot these days and perhaps easier to control if needed, alone, as one of the scientists of the study
commented, “It does not change the need to slow down the growth rate of carbon dioxide and eventually stabilize the
atmospheric amount.”
 
NewScientist.com and others have also reported that the world’s largest frozen peat bog is melting, and could unleash billions
of tonnes of methane, a potent greenhouse gas, into the atmosphere. An area the size of France and Germany combined has
been melting in the last 4 years. In addition, “Western Siberia has warmed faster than almost anywhere else on the planet, with
an increase in average temperatures of some 3°C in the last 40 years.”
 
A scientist explained a fear that if the bogs dry out as they warm, the methane will oxidise and escape into the air as carbon
dioxide. But if the bogs remain wet, as is the case in western Siberia today, then the methane will be released straight into the
atmosphere. Methane is 20 times as potent a greenhouse gas as carbon dioxide.

The primary purpose of the author of the passage is:

A) to summarize the studies conducted on a certain issue.

B) to carry out a comparative analysis of studies conducted on a certain issue.
C) to use facts and studies pertaining to a certain issue in order to highlight the need of urgent action.
D) to cite examples related to a certain pertinent issue.
 Mock CAT - 05
DIRECTIONS for the question : Read the passage and answer the question based on it. 

Question No. : 22
Pollution from various industries, the burning of fossil fuels, methane from farm animals, forest destruction, rotting/dead
vegetation, etc. have led to an increased number of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere. And, as international trade in its
current form continues to expand with little regard for the environment, the transportation alone, of goods is thought to
considerably contribute to global warming via emissions from planes, ships and other transportation vehicles.
 
Even sulphur emitted from ships is thought to contribute a fair bit to climate change. In fact, sulphur based gas, originating
from the industry, discovered in 2000 is thought to be the most potent greenhouse gas measured to date. It is called
trifluoromethyl sulphur pentafluoride (SF5CF3).
 
NewScientist.com reports on a study that suggests soot particles may be worse than carbon dioxide in contributing to global
warming. The soot particles also originate from industry, and during the industrial revolution, was quite common. While on the
positive side there is less soot these days and perhaps easier to control if needed, alone, as one of the scientists of the study
commented, “It does not change the need to slow down the growth rate of carbon dioxide and eventually stabilize the
atmospheric amount.”
 
NewScientist.com and others have also reported that the world’s largest frozen peat bog is melting, and could unleash billions
of tonnes of methane, a potent greenhouse gas, into the atmosphere. An area the size of France and Germany combined has
been melting in the last 4 years. In addition, “Western Siberia has warmed faster than almost anywhere else on the planet, with
an increase in average temperatures of some 3°C in the last 40 years.”
 
A scientist explained a fear that if the bogs dry out as they warm, the methane will oxidise and escape into the air as carbon
dioxide. But if the bogs remain wet, as is the case in western Siberia today, then the methane will be released straight into the
atmosphere. Methane is 20 times as potent a greenhouse gas as carbon dioxide.

The attitude of the author of the passage towards emissions can be identified as:

A) mildly hawkish B) mostly peevish C) majorly panic-stricken D) grave apprehension

 Mock CAT - 05
DIRECTIONS for the question : Read the passage and answer the question based on it. 

Question No. : 23
Pollution from various industries, the burning of fossil fuels, methane from farm animals, forest destruction, rotting/dead
vegetation, etc. have led to an increased number of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere. And, as international trade in its
current form continues to expand with little regard for the environment, the transportation alone, of goods is thought to
considerably contribute to global warming via emissions from planes, ships and other transportation vehicles.
 
Even sulphur emitted from ships is thought to contribute a fair bit to climate change. In fact, sulphur based gas, originating
from the industry, discovered in 2000 is thought to be the most potent greenhouse gas measured to date. It is called
trifluoromethyl sulphur pentafluoride (SF5CF3).
 
NewScientist.com reports on a study that suggests soot particles may be worse than carbon dioxide in contributing to global
warming. The soot particles also originate from industry, and during the industrial revolution, was quite common. While on the
positive side there is less soot these days and perhaps easier to control if needed, alone, as one of the scientists of the study
commented, “It does not change the need to slow down the growth rate of carbon dioxide and eventually stabilize the
atmospheric amount.”
 
NewScientist.com and others have also reported that the world’s largest frozen peat bog is melting, and could unleash billions
of tonnes of methane, a potent greenhouse gas, into the atmosphere. An area the size of France and Germany combined has
been melting in the last 4 years. In addition, “Western Siberia has warmed faster than almost anywhere else on the planet, with
an increase in average temperatures of some 3°C in the last 40 years.”
 
A scientist explained a fear that if the bogs dry out as they warm, the methane will oxidise and escape into the air as carbon
dioxide. But if the bogs remain wet, as is the case in western Siberia today, then the methane will be released straight into the
atmosphere. Methane is 20 times as potent a greenhouse gas as carbon dioxide.

Which of the following statements is correct?

A) Soot is the major cause of greenhouse gas emissions. B) Methane is as potent a greenhouse gas as Carbon Dioxide.
C) The contributory role of soot in the emission of greenhouse gases is lower than before. D) All of the above
 Mock CAT - 05
DIRECTIONS for the question : Read the passage and answer the question based on it. 

Question No. : 24
Pollution from various industries, the burning of fossil fuels, methane from farm animals, forest destruction, rotting/dead
vegetation, etc. have led to an increased number of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere. And, as international trade in its
current form continues to expand with little regard for the environment, the transportation alone, of goods is thought to
considerably contribute to global warming via emissions from planes, ships and other transportation vehicles.
 
Even sulphur emitted from ships is thought to contribute a fair bit to climate change. In fact, sulphur based gas, originating
from the industry, discovered in 2000 is thought to be the most potent greenhouse gas measured to date. It is called
trifluoromethyl sulphur pentafluoride (SF5CF3).
 
NewScientist.com reports on a study that suggests soot particles may be worse than carbon dioxide in contributing to global
warming. The soot particles also originate from industry, and during the industrial revolution, was quite common. While on the
positive side there is less soot these days and perhaps easier to control if needed, alone, as one of the scientists of the study
commented, “It does not change the need to slow down the growth rate of carbon dioxide and eventually stabilize the
atmospheric amount.”
 
NewScientist.com and others have also reported that the world’s largest frozen peat bog is melting, and could unleash billions
of tonnes of methane, a potent greenhouse gas, into the atmosphere. An area the size of France and Germany combined has
been melting in the last 4 years. In addition, “Western Siberia has warmed faster than almost anywhere else on the planet, with
an increase in average temperatures of some 3°C in the last 40 years.”
 
A scientist explained a fear that if the bogs dry out as they warm, the methane will oxidise and escape into the air as carbon
dioxide. But if the bogs remain wet, as is the case in western Siberia today, then the methane will be released straight into the
atmosphere. Methane is 20 times as potent a greenhouse gas as carbon dioxide.

According to the information given in the passage:

I. Dry bogs are the most dangerous as method oxidises and escapes as carbon dioxide.
II. Methane is the most potent greenhouse gas.
III. Global trade is also a contributory factor to the emission of greenhouse gases.

A) Only II B) Only III C) I & III D) II & III

DIRECTIONS for the question: The five sentences (labelled 1,2,3,4, and 5) given in this question, when properly sequenced, form
a coherent paragraph. Decide on the proper order for the sentence and key in this sequence of five numbers as your answer.

Question No. : 25

1. Insects do much of what people do: they meet, mate, fight, and part with what resembles love or animosity.
2. Beetles care for their young and wasps engage in horrific battles.
3. Yet they do these things in stunningly different ways from humans, accomplishing similar goals without any of the same
means, lacking vertebrates, large brains and a complex system of hormonal signals.
4. That insects don't need a big brain to do big things forces us to think harder about what is required to evolve complex
behavior.
5. Going beyond the simplistic view of insect life in human terms we can't take the easy way out and assume that a dragonfly is
jealous of a rival or that a mother earwig is sad when her offspring leave the nest.
 

A) 12345 B)  C)  D) 

 Mock CAT - 05
DIRECTIONS for the question: The five sentences (labelled 1,2,3,4, and 5) given in this question, when properly sequenced, form
a coherent paragraph. Decide on the proper order for the sentence and key in this sequence of five numbers as your answer.

Question No. : 26

1. The cost of correcting ergonomic design at the initial part of a design project is about 10 percent of the cost that will occur
later.
2. Alexander (1998) has found that “lower design and construction costs can be obtained when equipment and facilities are
designed right the first time”.
3. Additionally, companies must remember that you can provide workers with the most “ergonomically correct” furniture, but if
users are not trained in why and how they should use it, the furniture adjustments will most likely remain unused by a large
percentage of the employees.
4. All in all, companies should make the effort to ensure that ergonomics are taken into consideration from the very first when
designing a work environment.
5. Companies must make an effort to be proactive and develop a total ergonomics program that includes training for the
employees.

A) 42135 B)  C)  D) 

DIRECTIONS for the question: The four sentences (labelled 1,2,3 and 4) given in this question, when properly sequenced, from a
coherent paragraph. Decide on the proper order for the sentence and key in this sequence of four numbers as your answer.

Question No. : 27

1. This was also Darwin’s view in The Descent of Man. In a similar vein, the biologist, Marc Bekoff, has been arguing for years
that animals can act morally (see Wild Justice, co-written with Jessica Pierce, for a useful overview).
2. In Primates and Philosophers, the primatologist, Frans de Waal, has argued that animals are at least capable of proto-moral
behaviour: they possess the rudiments of morality even if they are not moral beings in precisely the way we are.
3. As a result, a small but growing number of professionals are at least flirting with the idea that animals can act morally.
4. There is a large and growing body of evidence indicative of at least apparent moral behaviour in animals.

A) 4321 B)  C)  D) 

DIRECTIONS for the question: The five sentences (labelled 1,2,3,4, and 5) given in this question, when properly sequenced, form
a coherent paragraph. Decide on the proper order for the sentence and key in this sequence of five numbers as your answer.

Question No. : 28

1. Because most human activity takes place in social situations – in the presence of other people – we must fit what we as
individuals do with what other people in the same situation are doing.
2. We go about our lives assuming that most people share our basic definitions of basic social situations.
3. This agreement on definitions and meanings is the key to human relations in general, according to symbolic interactionists.
4. For example, a staff nurse in a mental hospital unlocking a door for an inpatient is doing more than just enabling the patient
to pass from one ward to another.
5. He or she also is communicating a position of social dominance over the patient (within the hospital) and is carrying a
symbol of that dominance – the key.
 

A) 12345 B)  C)  D) 

 Mock CAT - 05
DIRECTIONS for the question: Identify the most appropriate summary for the paragraph and write the key for most appropriate
option.

Question No. : 29
It turns out that children all over the world make the same mistake. 'They suffer from transient difficulties in discriminating
letters or words from their mirror images. It is also not unusual for them to spontaneously write backwards. Mirror writing
occurs in all cultures, including China and Japan. It appears for a short period of time at the age when children first begin to
write, and then promptly vanishes. Unless this phenomenon extends beyond the ages of eight to ten, there is no cause for
alarm. At this late age, mirror errors are indeed more frequent in dyslexic children, though they can disappear later." With my
son, mirror writing only lasted a few months. He learned to read and write at a normal speed, but I remained fascinated by the
existence of this `mirror stage" in reading acquisition. Where does this mysterious competence come from? As adults, we find it
relatively difficult to write our name from right to left. Why do small children who can barely hold pencil exhibit abilities that
exceed those of most educated adults? This, moreover, is an age when children can easily locate anomalies in drawings or
missing letters in their names.

The following statement best summarizes the given passage –

1. The author says that, ‘Small children are better than adults in doing ‘mirror writing’.
2. The writer is of the view that ‘Mirror writing’ can cause dyslexia in children older than eight to ten years.
3. ‘Mirror writing’ is a minor aberration in the lives of most young children when they begin to write. In certain instances
among older kids it could be an indication for dyslexia.
4. ‘Mirror writing’ is not a western world phenomenon, it is found even in China and Japan.

A) 3 B)  C)  D) 

DIRECTIONS for the question: Identify the most appropriate summary for the paragraph and write the key for most appropriate
option.

Question No. : 30

Failure is like the original sin in the biblical narrative: everyone has it. Regardless of class, caste, race, or gender, we are all born
to fail, we practise failure for as long as we live, and pass it on to others. Just like sin, failure can be disgraceful, shameful and
embarrassing to admit. And did I mention ugly? Failure is also ugly ugly as sin, as they say. For all its universality, however,
failure is under-studied, when not simply neglected. It's as if even the idea of looking at failure more closely makes us uneasy;
we don't want to touch it for fear of contagion.
 
1. Failure, though to be avoided at all costs, is something that is essentially ugly and disruptive for ones life.
2. Failure, because of its inherest trappings, is something that we avoid.
3. Failure, hard to digest and even harder to accept, is simply not understood very well.
4. Failure, with all its negative implications and outcomes, is a subject avoided because of the fear it generates.

A) 4 B)  C)  D) 

 Mock CAT - 05
DIRECTIONS for the question: Identify the most appropriate summary for the paragraph and write the key for most appropriate
option.

Question No. : 31

It is often thought that science has shown that there is no such thing as free will. If all things are bound by the same impersonal
cosmic laws, then (the story goes) our paths are no freer than those of rocks tumbling down a hill. But this is wrong. Science is
giving us a very powerful and clear way to understand freedom of the will. We have just been looking for it in the wrong place.
Instead of using an electron microscope or a brain-scanner, we should go to the zoo. There we will find animals using a wide
range of skills that give them options for what to do – skills that we share. These abilities have evolved through natural
selection because they are essential for survival: animals need to weigh different factors, explore available options, pursue new
alternatives when old strategies don’t work. Together these abilities give all animals, including humans, an entirely natural free
will, one that we need precisely because we are not rocks. We are complex organisms actively pursuing our interests in a
changing environment.

1. we are forever tethered to the idea that the free will does not exist but one look at the world of animals helps us understand
what free will is and how does it apply in our world.
2. the idea of free will, though pertinent, does not find conclusive evidence in science and it is only the world of animals that
provides us with clues to understand this mystery.
3. the idea of free will, despite the tools made available by science, has not been explored in the right manner and through the
example of animals, we can understand the topic in a much better way.
4. the world of science has come up short in explaining the concept of free will and it is only through the pragmatic world of
animals that we can understand how free will works in humans.

A) 3 B)  C)  D) 

DIRECTIONS  for question:  Four sentences related to a topic are given below. Three of them can be put together   to form a
meaningful and coherent short paragraph. Identify the odd one out. Choose its number as your answer and key it in.

Question No. : 32

1. “We’re the first! We can do anything!” he told her. She too became a believer.
2. “Disillusionment came later,” the 2015 Nobel laureate for literature writes in Secondhand Time, the final installment of her
five-volume exploration of the Soviet soul.
3. War, displacement, hunger, and forced labor underpin Alexievich’s work like the pulsating ostinato in Shostakovich’s
Leningrad Symphony.
4. Svetlana Alexievich’s father became a communist after Yuri Gagarin flew into space.

A) 3 B)  C)  D) 

DIRECTIONS  for question:  Four sentences related to a topic are given below. Three of them can be put together   to form a
meaningful and coherent short paragraph. Identify the odd one out. Choose its number as your answer and key it in.

Question No. : 33

1. There is no ground for a difference of opinion so far. 

2. What is the normal application of the term?
3. As long as the meaning of the word is in doubt, the very subject of the dispute is in doubt.  When may we, then, properly call
a man free? 
4. When we approach that venerable dispute touching the freedom of the will, which has inspired men to such endless
discussions, and upon which they have written with such warmth and even acrimony, the very first thing to do is to discover
what we have a right to mean when we call a man free.
 

A) 1 B)  C)  D) 

 Mock CAT - 05
DIRECTIONS  for question:  Four sentences related to a topic are given below. Three of them can be put together   to form a
meaningful and coherent short paragraph. Identify the odd one out. Choose its number as your answer and key it in.

Question No. : 34

1. Each of these fragile specimens is a package of innovation waiting to be understood and adapted.
2. This is the idea behind the increasingly influential discipline of biomimicry: that we human beings, who have been trying to
make things for only the blink of an evolutionary eye, have a lot to learn from the long processes of natural selection, whether
it's how to make a wing more aerodynamic or a city more resilient or an electronic display more vibrant.
3. Over some 150 million years, 'products', each essentially a specimen in itself, have been ruthlessly prototyped, market-tested,
upgraded, refined and otherwise made new and improved as the world around them changed.
4. Though biomimicry has inspired human innovations for decades"one of the most often-cited examples is Velcro, which the
Swiss engineer Georges de Mestral patented in 1955 after studying how burs stuck to his clothes"better technology and more
nuanced research have enabled increasingly complex adaptions.

A) 4 B)  C)  D) 

 Mock CAT - 05

Section : DI & Reasoning

DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the information given below and answer the question that follows.

Question No. : 35
Ajay Verma is the Training and Placement Officer of a very prestigious college in Indore, where every student every year
definitely gets a placement call. Also, the students cannot have more than one placement offer. Ajay is a much disciplined
person, and hence, besides the requisite qualifications keeps track of all the recruitments that are always well-documented and
updated. However, during a recent updating process of his important database, his hard disk crashed. He needed to compare
his records from the year 2007 to the year 2008, and answer the questionnaire sent to him by the Board of Governors.
 
Ajay remembered some ratios he had calculated with the same data. So he decided to use the same and interpret the answers.
 
The courses he has to consider are
1. Electrical (X)                       2. PG(Y)                      3. Mechanical(Z)
 
Total students eligible for placement in 2007 = 340
Total students eligible for placement in 2008 = 390
 
The sectors in which these placements were made were:
 
1. Banking(B)                          2. IT(I)                        
3. Consultancy(C)                   4. FMCG(F)                          
5. Telecom(T)
 
He tabulated the data that he could recall. The ratios of the number of students placed of various courses are given below (the
alphabet in the bracket stands for the sector of placement).
 
S. no.   Year 2007 Year 2008
1 X(B):Y(I):Z(C) 3:6:4 6:9:8
2 Y(B):Z(I):X(C) 1:2:2 2:2:3
3 Z(B):X(I):Y(C) 5:8:11 2:5:4
4 X(F):Y(F):Z(F) 10:9:7 3:3:2
5 X(B):Z(I):Y(C) 6:10:11 9:12:14
 
Apart from the above table he also remembers the following information:
 
L1. Mechanical students who got placed in the FMCG sector were 21 in the year 2007 and 26 in the year 2008.
L2. The strength of Electrical students in the Year 2007 was 120 and in the year 2008 was 150.
L3. Number of students in the Mechanical course was 100 in both the years.
L4. Total number of students placed in the banking sector in the Year 2007 was 48.
L5. Total number of students placed in the consultancy sector in the year 2008 was 88.

What is the total number of students who got placed in the IT sector in the two years? (in numerical value)

A) 176 B)  C)  D) 

 Mock CAT - 05
DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the information given below and answer the question that follows.

Question No. : 36
Ajay Verma is the Training and Placement Officer of a very prestigious college in Indore, where every student every year
definitely gets a placement call. Also, the students cannot have more than one placement offer. Ajay is a much disciplined
person, and hence, besides the requisite qualifications keeps track of all the recruitments that are always well-documented and
updated. However, during a recent updating process of his important database, his hard disk crashed. He needed to compare
his records from the year 2007 to the year 2008, and answer the questionnaire sent to him by the Board of Governors.
 
Ajay remembered some ratios he had calculated with the same data. So he decided to use the same and interpret the answers.
 
The courses he has to consider are
1. Electrical (X)                       2. PG(Y)                      3. Mechanical(Z)
 
Total students eligible for placement in 2007 = 340
Total students eligible for placement in 2008 = 390
 
The sectors in which these placements were made were:
 
1. Banking(B)                          2. IT(I)                        
3. Consultancy(C)                   4. FMCG(F)                          
5. Telecom(T)
 
He tabulated the data that he could recall. The ratios of the number of students placed of various courses are given below (the
alphabet in the bracket stands for the sector of placement).
 
S. no.   Year 2007 Year 2008
1 X(B):Y(I):Z(C) 3:6:4 6:9:8
2 Y(B):Z(I):X(C) 1:2:2 2:2:3
3 Z(B):X(I):Y(C) 5:8:11 2:5:4
4 X(F):Y(F):Z(F) 10:9:7 3:3:2
5 X(B):Z(I):Y(C) 6:10:11 9:12:14
 
Apart from the above table he also remembers the following information:
 
L1. Mechanical students who got placed in the FMCG sector were 21 in the year 2007 and 26 in the year 2008.
L2. The strength of Electrical students in the Year 2007 was 120 and in the year 2008 was 150.
L3. Number of students in the Mechanical course was 100 in both the years.
L4. Total number of students placed in the banking sector in the Year 2007 was 48.
L5. Total number of students placed in the consultancy sector in the year 2008 was 88.

In the year 2008, X(C) + Y(B) + Z(I) is: (in numerical value)

A) 84 B)  C)  D) 

 Mock CAT - 05
DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the information given below and answer the question that follows.

Question No. : 37
Ajay Verma is the Training and Placement Officer of a very prestigious college in Indore, where every student every year
definitely gets a placement call. Also, the students cannot have more than one placement offer. Ajay is a much disciplined
person, and hence, besides the requisite qualifications keeps track of all the recruitments that are always well-documented and
updated. However, during a recent updating process of his important database, his hard disk crashed. He needed to compare
his records from the year 2007 to the year 2008, and answer the questionnaire sent to him by the Board of Governors.
 
Ajay remembered some ratios he had calculated with the same data. So he decided to use the same and interpret the answers.
 
The courses he has to consider are
1. Electrical (X)                       2. PG(Y)                      3. Mechanical(Z)
 
Total students eligible for placement in 2007 = 340
Total students eligible for placement in 2008 = 390
 
The sectors in which these placements were made were:
 
1. Banking(B)                          2. IT(I)                        
3. Consultancy(C)                    4. FMCG(F)                          
5. Telecom(T)
 
He tabulated the data that he could recall. The ratios of the number of students placed of various courses are given below (the
alphabet in the bracket stands for the sector of placement).
 
S. no.   Year 2007 Year 2008
1 X(B):Y(I):Z(C) 3:6:4 6:9:8
2 Y(B):Z(I):X(C) 1:2:2 2:2:3
3 Z(B):X(I):Y(C) 5:8:11 2:5:4
4 X(F):Y(F):Z(F) 10:9:7 3:3:2
5 X(B):Z(I):Y(C) 6:10:11 9:12:14
 
Apart from the above table he also remembers the following information:
 
L1. Mechanical students who got placed in the FMCG sector were 21 in the year 2007 and 26 in the year 2008.
L2. The strength of Electrical students in the Year 2007 was 120 and in the year 2008 was 150.
L3. Number of students in the Mechanical course was 100 in both the years.
L4. Total number of students placed in the banking sector in the Year 2007 was 48.
L5. Total number of students placed in the consultancy sector in the year 2008 was 88.

What is the difference between the number of students who got placed in the banking sector and those in the telecom sector
in 2008? (in numerical value)

A)  B)  C)  D) 

 Mock CAT - 05
DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the information given below and answer the question that follows.

Question No. : 38

Prakash has to decide whether or not to test a batch of 1000 widgets before sending them to the buyer. In case he decides to
test, he has two options: (a) Use test I ; (b) Use test II. Test I cost Rs. 2 per widget. However, the test is not perfect. It sends 20%
of the bad ones to the buyer as good. Test II costs Rs. 3 per widget. It brings out all the bad ones. A defective widget identified
before sending can be corrected at a cost of Rs. 25 per widget. All defective widgets are identified at the buyer’s end and
penalty of Rs. 50 per defective widget has to be paid by Prakash.
 
Prakash should not test if the number of bad widgets in the lot is:

A) less than 100 B) more than 200 C) between 120 & 190 D) Cannot be found out.

DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the information given below and answer the question that follows.

Question No. : 39

Prakash has to decide whether or not to test a batch of 1000 widgets before sending them to the buyer. In case he decides to
test, he has two options: (a) Use test I ; (b) Use test II. Test I cost Rs. 2 per widget. However, the test is not perfect. It sends 20%
of the bad ones to the buyer as good. Test II costs Rs. 3 per widget. It brings out all the bad ones. A defective widget identified
before sending can be corrected at a cost of Rs. 25 per widget. All defective widgets are identified at the buyer’s end and
penalty of Rs. 50 per defective widget has to be paid by Prakash.
 
If the number of defective widgets in the lot is between 200 and 400, Prakash:

A) may use Test I or Test II B) should use Test I only. C) should use Test II only D) cannot decide.

DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the information given below and answer the question that follows.

Question No. : 40

Prakash has to decide whether or not to test a batch of 1000 widgets before sending them to the buyer. In case he decides to
test, he has two options: (a) Use test I ; (b) Use test II. Test I cost Rs. 2 per widget. However, the test is not perfect. It sends 20%
of the bad ones to the buyer as good. Test II costs Rs. 3 per widget. It brings out all the bad ones. A defective widget identified
before sending can be corrected at a cost of Rs. 25 per widget. All defective widgets are identified at the buyer’s end and
penalty of Rs. 50 per defective widget has to be paid by Prakash.
 
If Prakash is told that the lot has 160 defective widgets, he should:

A) use Test I only B) use Test II only C) do no testing. D) either use Test I or do not test.

DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the information given below and answer the question that follows.

Question No. : 41

Prakash has to decide whether or not to test a batch of 1000 widgets before sending them to the buyer. In case he decides to
test, he has two options: (a) Use test I ; (b) Use test II. Test I cost Rs. 2 per widget. However, the test is not perfect. It sends 20%
of the bad ones to the buyer as good. Test II costs Rs. 3 per widget. It brings out all the bad ones. A defective widget identified
before sending can be corrected at a cost of Rs. 25 per widget. All defective widgets are identified at the buyer’s end and
penalty of Rs. 50 per defective widget has to be paid by Prakash.
 
If there are 200 defective widgets in the lot, Prakash:

A) may use either Test I or Test II B) should use Test I or not use any test C) should use Test II or not use any test.
D) cannot decide.
 Mock CAT - 05

Question No. : 42
DIRECTIONS for the question: Solve the following question and mark the best possible option.

Mr. Keshri, the CEO of Keshri Foods Inc. is facing a vital business decision. His company has two exciting new inventions of
mango varieties. The company has the option to go in for further development of either of these two varieties - Alphonso
Superior and Langda Inferior. He estimates that the development cost of Alphonso Superior would be $ 750000, while Langda
Inferior would cost $ 250000. The salaries of scientists would constitute 28% of the cost while the research equipment and
development facilities would account for 39%, irrespective of the variety of mango developed. Patenting cost would be $ 30000
each while the rest of the budget would be accounted for by overheads. Mr. Keshri calculates that the country-wise patent
license fees for Alphonso Superior would be $ 7500 per year per territory in a developed country and $ 2500 per year per
territory in an underdeveloped country. The country-wise patent license fees in developed and underdeveloped countries for
Langda Inferior would be $ 1250 per year per territory. The latest UN statistics showed that there were 150000 territories in the
world which could be classified as developed territories and 250000 territories were underdeveloped territories.

Patenting cost would constitute what percentage of the total cost for Alphonso Superior ?

A) 6% B) 4% C) 12% D) 8%

Question No. : 43
DIRECTIONS for the question: Solve the following question and mark the best possible option.

Mr. Keshri, the CEO of Keshri Foods Inc. is facing a vital business decision. His company has two exciting new inventions of
mango varieties. The company has the option to go in for further development of either of these two varieties - Alphonso
Superior and Langda Inferior. He estimates that the development cost of Alphonso Superior would be $ 750000, while Langda
Inferior would cost $ 250000. The salaries of scientists would constitute 28% of the cost while the research equipment and
development facilities would account for 39%, irrespective of the variety of mango developed. Patenting cost would be $ 30000
each while the rest of the budget would be accounted for by overheads. Mr. Keshri calculates that the country-wise patent
license fees for Alphonso Superior would be $ 7500 per year per territory in a developed country and $ 2500 per year per
territory in an underdeveloped country. The country-wise patent license fees in developed and underdeveloped countries for
Langda Inferior would be $ 1250 per year per territory. The latest UN statistics showed that there were 150000 territories in the
world which could be classified as developed territories and 250000 territories were underdeveloped territories.

The license fee of Langda Inferior if it were licensed to all the available territories for a period of one year would amount to (in $
million)

A) 500 B) 550 C) 480 D) None of these

Question No. : 44
DIRECTIONS for the question: Solve the following question and mark the best possible option.

Mr. Keshri, the CEO of Keshri Foods Inc. is facing a vital business decision. His company has two exciting new inventions of
mango varieties. The company has the option to go in for further development of either of these two varieties - Alphonso
Superior and Langda Inferior. He estimates that the development cost of Alphonso Superior would be $ 750000, while Langda
Inferior would cost $ 250000. The salaries of scientists would constitute 28% of the cost while the research equipment and
development facilities would account for 39%, irrespective of the variety of mango developed. Patenting cost would be $ 30000
each while the rest of the budget would be accounted for by overheads. Mr. Keshri calculates that the country-wise patent
license fees for Alphonso Superior would be $ 7500 per year per territory in a developed country and $ 2500 per year per
territory in an underdeveloped country. The country-wise patent license fees in developed and underdeveloped countries for
Langda Inferior would be $ 1250 per year per territory. The latest UN statistics showed that there were 150000 territories in the
world which could be classified as developed territories and 250000 territories were underdeveloped territories.

If the license fee rates for Langda Inferior in the developed and underdeveloped countries were to go up by 20%, then the
revenue earned in one year in all the available territories would be (in $ million)

A) 6000 B) 5000 C) 400 D) 600

 Mock CAT - 05

Question No. : 45
DIRECTIONS for the question: Solve the following question and mark the best possible option.

Mr. Keshri, the CEO of Keshri Foods Inc. is facing a vital business decision. His company has two exciting new inventions of
mango varieties. The company has the option to go in for further development of either of these two varieties - Alphonso
Superior and Langda Inferior. He estimates that the development cost of Alphonso Superior would be $ 750000, while Langda
Inferior would cost $ 250000. The salaries of scientists would constitute 28% of the cost while the research equipment and
development facilities would account for 39%, irrespective of the variety of mango developed. Patenting cost would be $ 30000
each while the rest of the budget would be accounted for by overheads. Mr. Keshri calculates that the country-wise patent
license fees for Alphonso Superior would be $ 7500 per year per territory in a developed country and $ 2500 per year per
territory in an underdeveloped country. The country-wise patent license fees in developed and underdeveloped countries for
Langda Inferior would be $ 1250 per year per territory. The latest UN statistics showed that there were 150000 territories in the
world which could be classified as developed territories and 250000 territories were underdeveloped territories.

If the patenting cost for Langda Inferior decreases by 35%, then what would be the patenting cost as a percentage of the total
cost for developing Langda Inferior ? Assume that there is no change in the other components of the cost.

A) 7.8% B) 8.8% C) 6% D) 8.14%

DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the information given below and answer the question that follows.

Question No. : 46
In a prestigious hospital, six Doctors who are experts in Dermatology, Radiology, Cardiology, Orthopedic, Neurology and
Psychiatric have been short-listed for the post of Director. The six experts, Dr. Rakesh, Dr. Alka, Dr. Sham, Dr. Gautam, Dr Parul
and Dr. Lalit are sitting in the conference room of the Business School, awaiting their turns to be interviewed. They are seated at
a rectangular table, facing each other, three to a side. Each of them has written a book in the area of his or her expertise, and to
kill time, is reading a book written by one of the others. No two experts are reading books by the same author.
Dr. Rakesh is reading a book on Cardiology in his corner, but strongly dislikes Neurology.
Dr. Alka is reading a book authored by the person opposite him.
Dr. Sham is sitting between the experts in Cardiology and Radiology, and is reading about Psychiatric.
Dr. Parul is sitting next to the expert on Orthopedic and is reading a book on Radiology.
Dr. Gautam is sitting opposite the Psychiatrist and is reading a book on Orthopedic.
The Cardiology expert is sitting opposite the expert on Neurology and Dr. Lalit is sitting next to the expert on Dermatology.
 

Who is seated opposite Dr. Rakesh?

A) The expert on Orthopedic B) The expert on Dermatology C) Dr. Lalit D) The expert on Radiology

DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the information given below and answer the question that follows.

Question No. : 47
In a prestigious hospital, six Doctors who are experts in Dermatology, Radiology, Cardiology, Orthopedic, Neurology and
Psychiatric have been short-listed for the post of Director. The six experts, Dr. Rakesh, Dr. Alka, Dr. Sham, Dr. Gautam, Dr Parul
and Dr. Lalit are sitting in the conference room of the Business School, awaiting their turns to be interviewed. They are seated at
a rectangular table, facing each other, three to a side. Each of them has written a book in the area of his or her expertise, and to
kill time, is reading a book written by one of the others. No two experts are reading books by the same author.
Dr. Rakesh is reading a book on Cardiology in his corner, but strongly dislikes Neurology.
Dr. Alka is reading a book authored by the person opposite him.
Dr. Sham is sitting between the experts in Cardiology and Radiology, and is reading about Psychiatric.
Dr. Parul is sitting next to the expert on Orthopedic and is reading a book on Radiology.
Dr. Gautam is sitting opposite the Psychiatrist and is reading a book on Orthopedic.
The Cardiology expert is sitting opposite the expert on Neurology and Dr. Lalit is sitting next to the expert on Dermatology.
 

Who is the expert reading the book written by the expert sitting opposite him or her?

A) Dr. Gautam B) The expert on Psychiatric C) The expert on Cardiology D) Dr. Sham
 Mock CAT - 05
DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the information given below and answer the question that follows.

Question No. : 48
In a prestigious hospital, six Doctors who are experts in Dermatology, Radiology, Cardiology, Orthopedic, Neurology and
Psychiatric have been short-listed for the post of Director. The six experts, Dr. Rakesh, Dr. Alka, Dr. Sham, Dr. Gautam, Dr Parul
and Dr. Lalit are sitting in the conference room of the Business School, awaiting their turns to be interviewed. They are seated at
a rectangular table, facing each other, three to a side. Each of them has written a book in the area of his or her expertise, and to
kill time, is reading a book written by one of the others. No two experts are reading books by the same author.
Dr. Rakesh is reading a book on Cardiology in his corner, but strongly dislikes Neurology.
Dr. Alka is reading a book authored by the person opposite him.
Dr. Sham is sitting between the experts in Cardiology and Radiology, and is reading about Psychiatric.
Dr. Parul is sitting next to the expert on Orthopedic and is reading a book on Radiology.
Dr. Gautam is sitting opposite the Psychiatrist and is reading a book on Orthopedic.
The Cardiology expert is sitting opposite the expert on Neurology and Dr. Lalit is sitting next to the expert on Dermatology.
 

Dr. Lalit is

A) the expert on Neurology B) the Orthopedic expert C) the expert reading the book on Cardiology
D) sitting beside the expert on Dermatology

DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the information given below and answer the question that follows.

Question No. : 49
In a prestigious hospital, six Doctors who are experts in Dermatology, Radiology, Cardiology, Orthopedic, Neurology and
Psychiatric have been short-listed for the post of Director. The six experts, Dr. Rakesh, Dr. Alka, Dr. Sham, Dr. Gautam, Dr Parul
and Dr. Lalit are sitting in the conference room of the Business School, awaiting their turns to be interviewed. They are seated at
a rectangular table, facing each other, three to a side. Each of them has written a book in the area of his or her expertise, and to
kill time, is reading a book written by one of the others. No two experts are reading books by the same author.
Dr. Rakesh is reading a book on Cardiology in his corner, but strongly dislikes Neurology.
Dr. Alka is reading a book authored by the person opposite him.
Dr. Sham is sitting between the experts in Cardiology and Radiology, and is reading about Psychiatric.
Dr. Parul is sitting next to the expert on Orthopedic and is reading a book on Radiology.
Dr. Gautam is sitting opposite the Psychiatrist and is reading a book on Orthopedic.
The Cardiology expert is sitting opposite the expert on Neurology and Dr. Lalit is sitting next to the expert on Dermatology.
 

Who is reading the book on Dermatology?

A) Dr. Sham B) The Orthopedic expert C) The Radiology expert D) The expert on Neurology
 Mock CAT - 05
DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the information given below and answer the question that follows.

Question No. : 50
In a prestigious hospital, six Doctors who are experts in Dermatology, Radiology, Cardiology, Orthopedic, Neurology and
Psychiatric have been short-listed for the post of Director. The six experts, Dr. Rakesh, Dr. Alka, Dr. Sham, Dr. Gautam, Dr Parul
and Dr. Lalit are sitting in the conference room of the Business School, awaiting their turns to be interviewed. They are seated at
a rectangular table, facing each other, three to a side. Each of them has written a book in the area of his or her expertise, and to
kill time, is reading a book written by one of the others. No two experts are reading books by the same author.
Dr. Rakesh is reading a book on Cardiology in his corner, but strongly dislikes Neurology.
Dr. Alka is reading a book authored by the person opposite him.
Dr. Sham is sitting between the experts in Cardiology and Radiology, and is reading about Psychiatric.
Dr. Parul is sitting next to the expert on Orthopedic and is reading a book on Radiology.
Dr. Gautam is sitting opposite the Psychiatrist and is reading a book on Orthopedic.
The Cardiology expert is sitting opposite the expert on Neurology and Dr. Lalit is sitting next to the expert on Dermatology.
 

Who is the expert on Neurology?

A) The expert sitting opposite the expert on Cardiology

B) The expert sitting opposite the expert reading the book on Psychiatric
C) The expert sitting beside the expert on Radiology
D) The expert sitting between the experts on Radiology and Psychiatric

DIRECTIONS for the question: Go through the following graph/information and answer the question that follows.

Question No. : 51
A rectangular area of 60 acres is divided into 5 parts (i.e. 1,2,3,4 and 5) to grow 5 types of crops- P, Q , R, S and T respectively.
The configuration of crops grown in the farm for the two years period is shown below.

 
No. of kgs produced per acre in Price per kg in 1990-
Crop
1990-1991 1991(Rs.)
P 15 8
Q 18 7.5
R 20 6
S 12 11
T 10 14
Between 1990-1991 and 1991-1992 prices of  all crops rise by 10%. Production of P, R and T decrease by 20% while that of Q
and S increase by 10%. Value coefficient of crop is defined as value-wise yield of crops produced per acre.

How many kgs per acre can be produced on an average in 1991-1992?

A) 14.39kg B) 13.52kg C) 17.32kg D) 18.62kg

 Mock CAT - 05
DIRECTIONS for the question: Go through the following graph/information and answer the question that follows.

Question No. : 52
A rectangular area of 60 acres is divided into 5 parts (i.e. 1,2,3,4 and 5) to grow 5 types of crops- P, Q , R, S and T respectively.
The configuration of crops grown in the farm for the two years period is shown below.

 
No. of kgs produced per acre in 1990- Price per kg in 1990-
Crop
1991 1991(Rs.)
P 15 8
Q 18 7.5
R 20 6
S 12 11
T 10 14
Between 1990-1991 and 1991-1992 prices of  all crops rise by 10%. Production of P, R and T decrease by 20% while that of Q
and S increase by 10%. Value coefficient of crop is defined as value-wise yield of crops produced per acre.

What was the total yield (value-wise) during 1990-1991 ?

A) Rs. 7361 B) Rs. 8019 C) Rs. 6531 D) Rs. 9832

 Mock CAT - 05
DIRECTIONS for the question: Go through the following graph/information and answer the question that follows.

Question No. : 53
A rectangular area of 60 acres is divided into 5 parts (i.e. 1,2,3,4 and 5) to grow 5 types of crops- P, Q , R, S and T respectively.
The configuration of crops grown in the farm for the two years period is shown below.

 
No. of kgs produced per acre in 1990- Price per kg in 1990-
Crop
1991 1991(Rs.)
P 15 8
Q 18 7.5
R 20 6
S 12 11
T 10 14
Between 1990-1991 and 1991-1992 prices of  all crops rise by 10%. Production of P, R and T decrease by 20% while that of Q
and S increase by 10%. Value coefficient of crop is defined as value-wise yield of crops produced per acre.

Which crop has the lowest value coefficient during 1990-1991 ?

A) Q B) S C) T D) None of these

 Mock CAT - 05
DIRECTIONS for the question: Go through the following graph/information and answer the question that follows.

Question No. : 54
A rectangular area of 60 acres is divided into 5 parts (i.e. 1,2,3,4 and 5) to grow 5 types of crops- P, Q , R, S and T respectively.
The configuration of crops grown in the farm for the two years period is shown below.

 
No. of kgs produced per acre in 1990- Price per kg in 1990-
Crop
1991 1991(Rs.)
P 15 8
Q 18 7.5
R 20 6
S 12 11
T 10 14
Between 1990-1991 and 1991-1992 prices of  all crops rise by 10%. Production of P, R and T decrease by 20% while that of Q
and S increase by 10%. Value coefficient of crop is defined as value-wise yield of crops produced per acre.

To maximise the value- wise yield during 1991-1992, how many areas of crops should have been swapped among themselves ?

A) 0 B) 2 C) 4 D) Cannot be determined

 Mock CAT - 05
DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the information given below and answer the question that follows.

Question No. : 55
The Fundoo TV people had just been to a boys hostel, where they conducted a poll, and asked questions related to the recently
concluded India " Australia Cricket Test Series, They also enquired about the likes and dislikes of the boys regarding movies and
food.

The questions were as follows:-

 
1. Who deserved to win the second test match between India and Australia, India or Australia?
2. Which movies do you like, Hindi or English?
3. Which food do you like, Vegetarian or Non-vegetarian?
 
After the 200 students were surveyed, they were categorized and the conclusions drawn were as follows:
 
1. Amit and 64 other boys like the same type of movies and same type of food, and of these Amit and 19 others prefer the
same team winning the match.
2. Bhushan and 49 others like the same type of movie as well prefer the same team to win, and of these Bhushan and 14 others
like the same type of food.
3. Chandan and 39 others like the same type of food and prefer the same team to win, and of these Chandan and 34 others like
the same type of movies.
4. Dhiren and 64 others who like the same type of movies and same type of food and of these Dhiren and 29 others prefer the
same team to win.
5. Eshan and 49 others like the same type of movies and prefer the same team to win, and of these Eshan and 44 others like the
same type of food.
6. Faisal and 59 others prefer the same team to win and like the same type of food, and of these Faisal and 39 others like the
same type of movies.
7. Five boys prefer India, love vegetarian food and like English movies. All categories had a different number.

How many boys prefer India and like Hindi movies? (in numerical value)

A) 50 B)  C)  D) 

 Mock CAT - 05
DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the information given below and answer the question that follows.

Question No. : 56
The Fundoo TV people had just been to a boys hostel, where they conducted a poll, and asked questions related to the recently
concluded India " Australia Cricket Test Series, They also enquired about the likes and dislikes of the boys regarding movies and
food. The questions were as follows:-
 
1. Who deserved to win the second test match between India and Australia, India or Australia?
2. Which movies do you like, Hindi or English?
3. Which food do you like, Vegetarian or Non-vegetarian?
 
After the 200 students were surveyed, they were categorized and the conclusions drawn were as follows:
 
1. Amit and 64 other boys like the same type of movies and same type of food, and of these Amit and 19 others prefer the
same team winning the match.
2. Bhushan and 49 others like the same type of movie as well prefer the same team to win, and of these Bhushan and 14 others
like the same type of food.
3. Chandan and 39 others like the same type of food and prefer the same team to win, and of these Chandan and 34 others like
the same type of movies.
4. Dhiren and 64 others who like the same type of movies and same type of food and of these Dhiren and 29 others prefer the
same team to win.
5. Eshan and 49 others like the same type of movies and prefer the same team to win, and of these Eshan and 44 others like the
same type of food.
6. Faisal and 59 others prefer the same team to win and like the same type of food, and of these Faisal and 39 others like the
same type of movies.
7. Five boys prefer India, love vegetarian food and like English movies. All categories had a different number.

Among Amit, Bhushan, Chandan, Dhiren, Eshan and Faisal, how many like vegetarian food? (in numerical value)

A) 2 B)  C)  D) 

 Mock CAT - 05
DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the information given below and answer the question that follows.

Question No. : 57
The Fundoo TV people had just been to a boys hostel, where they conducted a poll, and asked questions related to the recently
concluded India " Australia Cricket Test Series, They also enquired about the likes and dislikes of the boys regarding movies and
food. The questions were as follows:-
 
1. Who deserved to win the second test match between India and Australia, India or Australia?
2. Which movies do you like, Hindi or English?
3. Which food do you like, Vegetarian or Non-vegetarian?
 
After the 200 students were surveyed, they were categorized and the conclusions drawn were as follows:
 
1. Amit and 64 other boys like the same type of movies and same type of food, and of these Amit and 19 others prefer the
same team winning the match.
2. Bhushan and 49 others like the same type of movie as well prefer the same team to win, and of these Bhushan and 14 others
like the same type of food.
3. Chandan and 39 others like the same type of food and prefer the same team to win, and of these Chandan and 34 others like
the same type of movies.
4. Dhiren and 64 others who like the same type of movies and same type of food and of these Dhiren and 29 others prefer the
same team to win.
5. Eshan and 49 others like the same type of movies and prefer the same team to win, and of these Eshan and 44 others like the
same type of food.
6. Faisal and 59 others prefer the same team to win and like the same type of food, and of these Faisal and 39 others like the
same type of movies.
7. Five boys prefer India, love vegetarian food and like English movies. All categories had a different number.

The total number of boys who preferred Australia winning is (in numerical value)

A) 100 B)  C)  D) 

DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the information given below and answer the question that follows.

Question No. : 58

Five MBA aspirants, Akash, Shreya, Subahu, Apoorva and Minoti have enrolled at Bulls Eye for the Math Refresher course. The
Math Refresher course is conducted five days a week and the students have a choice of joining any one of five available
batches " C251210, C251211, C251212, C251213 and C251214. Each of these batches has only one seat available and Neelima,
the counsellor, has asked these students to submit two preferences for the batch they would like to join. Shreya would prefer
either C251210 or C251212, Akash would prefer either C251210 or C251211, Apoorva would prefer either C251211 or C251213,
Minoti would prefer either C251212 or C251214 and Subahu would prefer either C251213 or C251214. If any of these students
cannot be accommodated in a batch of his or her choice, the student is enrolled in the Week-end batch.
 
If Neelima allocates Akash and Minoti to batches C251210 and C251212 respectively, who of the remaining students will be
allocated to the Week-end batch? (write the ans key)

1. Apoorva                         2. Subahu                        3. Shreya                         4. Each of them gets a batch of his or her choice

A) 3 B)  C)  D) 

 Mock CAT - 05
DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the information given below and answer the question that follows.

Question No. : 59

Five MBA aspirants, Akash, Shreya, Subahu, Apoorva and Minoti have enrolled at Bulls Eye for the Math Refresher course. The
Math Refresher course is conducted five days a week and the students have a choice of joining any one of five available
batches " C251210, C251211, C251212, C251213 and C251214. Each of these batches has only one seat available and Neelima,
the counsellor, has asked these students to submit two preferences for the batch they would like to join. Shreya would prefer
either C251210 or C251212, Akash would prefer either C251210 or C251211, Apoorva would prefer either C251211 or C251213,
Minoti would prefer either C251212 or C251214 and Subahu would prefer either C251213 or C251214. If any of these students
cannot be accommodated in a batch of his or her choice, the student is enrolled in the Week-end batch.
 
If Akash decides to move to the Week-end batch and each of the remaining students is allocated to a batch of his or her
choice. Now Neelima has to allocate the remaining 4 students in the week-day batches. Students approach her with a request
that they be allowed to take a decision on their own batch themselves. What is the maximum number of students whose
request she can now honor, ensuring that all the remaining students get into batches which they had originally specified? (in
numerical value)

A) 1 B)  C)  D) 

DIRECTIONS for the question: Go through the graph and the information given below and answer the question that follows.

Question No. : 60
The table below shows the number of days taken by four persons, A, B, C and D, to complete the jobs A, B, C and D individually.
 
Person
 
A B C D
A 10 12 15 8
B 15 20 10 9
Job
C 12 15 9 20
D 9 10 15 12
 
These four persons are assigned to three projects, P1 (made up of Jobs A, B and C), P2 (made up of jobs B, C and D) and P3
(made up of jobs A, C and D).
In P1, job A must be completed before job B is started and job B must be completed before job C is started. Persons A, C and D
are assigned to work on P1. C alone begins work on the first day, followed by D alone on the second day and A alone on the
third day. The three persons continue working on alternate days till P1 is completed.
In P2, job B must be completed before job C is started and job C must be completed before job D is started. Persons A, B and C
are assigned to work on P1. Only A and B together begin work on the first day, followed by only B and C together on the
second day and only A and C together on the third day. The three persons continue working on alternate days in this manner
till P2 is completed.
In P3, job A must be completed before job C is started and job C must be completed before job D is started. Persons A, B and D
are assigned to work on P3. All three begin work on the first day, take a break on the next day and so on till P3 is completed.

In how many days is P1 completed?

A) 302/3days B) 312/15days C) 337/20days D) 3411/20days

 Mock CAT - 05
DIRECTIONS for the question: Go through the graph and the information given below and answer the question that follows.

Question No. : 61
The table below shows the number of days taken by four persons, A, B, C and D, to complete the jobs A, B, C and D individually.
 
Person
 
A B C D
A 10 12 15 8
B 15 20 10 9
Job
C 12 15 9 20
D 9 10 15 12
 
These four persons are assigned to three projects, P1 (made up of Jobs A, B and C), P2 (made up of jobs B, C and D) and P3
(made up of jobs A, C and D).
In P1, job A must be completed before job B is started and job B must be completed before job C is started. Persons A, C and D
are assigned to work on P1. C alone begins work on the first day, followed by D alone on the second day and A alone on the
third day. The three persons continue working on alternate days till P1 is completed.
In P2, job B must be completed before job C is started and job C must be completed before job D is started. Persons A, B and C
are assigned to work on P1. Only A and B together begin work on the first day, followed by only B and C together on the
second day and only A and C together on the third day. The three persons continue working on alternate days in this manner
till P2 is completed.
In P3, job A must be completed before job C is started and job C must be completed before job D is started. Persons A, B and D
are assigned to work on P3. All three begin work on the first day, take a break on the next day and so on till P3 is completed.

In how many days is P2 completed?

A) 1811/120days B) 1815/38days C) 337/20days D) 211/2days

DIRECTIONS for the question: Go through the graph and the information given below and answer the question that follows.

Question No. : 62
The table below shows the number of days taken by four persons, A, B, C and D, to complete the jobs A, B, C and D individually.
 
Person
 
A B C D
A 10 12 15 8
B 15 20 10 9
Job
C 12 15 9 20
D 9 10 15 12
 
These four persons are assigned to three projects, P1 (made up of Jobs A, B and C), P2 (made up of jobs B, C and D) and P3
(made up of jobs A, C and D).
In P1, job A must be completed before job B is started and job B must be completed before job C is started. Persons A, C and D
are assigned to work on P1. C alone begins work on the first day, followed by D alone on the second day and A alone on the
third day. The three persons continue working on alternate days till P1 is completed.
In P2, job B must be completed before job C is started and job C must be completed before job D is started. Persons A, B and C
are assigned to work on P1. Only A and B together begin work on the first day, followed by only B and C together on the
second day and only A and C together on the third day. The three persons continue working on alternate days in this manner
till P2 is completed.
In P3, job A must be completed before job C is started and job C must be completed before job D is started. Persons A, B and D
are assigned to work on P3. All three begin work on the first day, take a break on the next day and so on till P3 is completed.

In how many is P3 completed?

A) 123/40days B) 187/16days C) 193/40days D) 223/23days

 Mock CAT - 05
DIRECTIONS for the question: Go through the graph and the information given below and answer the question that follows.

Question No. : 63
The table below shows the number of days taken by four persons, A, B, C and D, to complete the jobs A, B, C and D individually.
 
Person
 
A B C D
A 10 12 15 8
B 15 20 10 9
Job
C 12 15 9 20
D 9 10 15 12
 
These four persons are assigned to three projects, P1 (made up of Jobs A, B and C), P2 (made up of jobs B, C and D) and P3
(made up of jobs A, C and D).
In P1, job A must be completed before job B is started and job B must be completed before job C is started. Persons A, C and D
are assigned to work on P1. C alone begins work on the first day, followed by D alone on the second day and A alone on the
third day. The three persons continue working on alternate days till P1 is completed.
In P2, job B must be completed before job C is started and job C must be completed before job D is started. Persons A, B and C
are assigned to work on P1. Only A and B together begin work on the first day, followed by only B and C together on the
second day and only A and C together on the third day. The three persons continue working on alternate days in this manner
till P2 is completed.
In P3, job A must be completed before job C is started and job C must be completed before job D is started. Persons A, B and D
are assigned to work on P3. All three begin work on the first day, take a break on the next day and so on till P3 is completed.

What is the total time taken to complete all three projects?

A) 697/16days B) 737/8days C) 742/3days D) 761/7days

DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the information given below and answer the question that follows.

Question No. : 64

Eight members Ajay, Chetan, Divesh, Geeta, Joy, Lokesh, Manu & Nitish of a family stay in a certain House. It is also known that
I. These eight persons belong to exactly three generations
II. Geeta’s son is nephew of each of Manu’s Sons.
III. Lokesh is Divesh’s nephew & only one of Divesh’s parents stays in the house
IV. Ajay, Joy & Divesh are siblings. Also Lokesh & Chetan are siblings.
V. Nitish is the father of Lokesh.
 
How is Nitish related to Manu?

A) Son-in-Law B) Son C) Nephew D) Cannot be determined

DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the information given below and answer the question that follows.

Question No. : 65

Eight members Ajay, Chetan, Divesh, Geeta, Joy, Lokesh, Manu & Nitish of a family stay in a certain House. It is also known that
I. These eight persons belong to exactly three generations
II. Geeta’s son is nephew of each of Manu’s Sons.
III. Lokesh is Divesh’s nephew & only one of Divesh’s parents stays in the house
IV. Ajay, Joy & Divesh are siblings. Also Lokesh & Chetan are siblings.
V. Nitish is the father of Lokesh.
 
Who among the following does not belong to same generation?

A) Geeta & Divesh B) Ajay & Nitish C) Joy & Nitish D) None of these
 Mock CAT - 05
DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the information given below and answer the question that follows.

Question No. : 66

Eight members Ajay, Chetan, Divesh, Geeta, Joy, Lokesh, Manu & Nitish of a family stay in a certain House. It is also known that
I. These eight persons belong to exactly three generations
II. Geeta’s son is nephew of each of Manu’s Sons.
III. Lokesh is Divesh’s nephew & only one of Divesh’s parents stays in the house
IV. Ajay, Joy & Divesh are siblings. Also Lokesh & Chetan are siblings.
V. Nitish is the father of Lokesh.
 
Who are the children of Geeta?

A) Ajay, Joy, Divesh B) Lokesh & Chetan C) Only Nitish D) Cannot be determined

Section : Quantitative Ability

DIRECTIONS for the question: Answer the question independently of any other question.
Question No. : 67

If x and y are integers such that 0 < x ‰¤ 200 and 0 < y ‰¤ 200, what is the number of possible solutions of 4x = 5y +  6?

A) 66 B) 38 C) 40 D) 48

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the correct option

Question No. : 68

N represents a series in which all the terms are consecutive integers and the sum of all the terms of N is 100. If the number of
terms of N is greater than one, find the difference between the maximum and the minimum possible number of terms.

A) 20 B) 30 C) 45 D) 195

DIRECTIONS for the question: Solve the following question and mark the best option.

Question No. : 69

The Sum of the internal angles of a n-sided convex polygon is An + B, where A and B are constants. What is the value of A/B?

A) -2 B) -1/2 C) 2 D) ½

DIRECTIONS for the question: Answer the question independently of any other question.
Question No. : 70

A group of ladies is gathered for a cake making festival. There is a huge pile of dough in front of them. The first lady takes the
required quantity of dough by dividing the initial pile of dough into m or n smaller piles. The next lady, in her turn, divides one
of the existing piles only into m or n smaller piles and so on. For which of the following values of (m, n) is it NOT possible to get
14 piles of dough?

A) (2, 5) B) (3, 6) C) (4, 6) D) (3, 9)

 Mock CAT - 05

DIRECTIONS for the question: Answer the following question as per the best of your judgment.

Question No. : 71

A) 136 hours B) 168 hours C) 90 hours D) Not possible to fill the tank

DIRECTIONS for the question: Solve the following question and mark the best possible option.

Question No. : 72

A dealer buys an article for Rs. 2,000. He wants to sell it at a discount of 12 ½ %. At what price should he fix the marked price
so that he may get a profit of 9 3/8 % by selling the article? (in Rs.)

A) 2500 B)  C)  D) 

DIRECTION for the question: Solve the following question and mark the best possible option.
Question No. : 73

PQRS is a parallelogram with coordinates P (5x, 2), Q(x2, 1), R (3, 3) and S (3, 4). Find the length of the longest diagonal of the
parallelogram.

A)  B)  C)  D) 

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option.

Question No. : 74

A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3

DIRECTIONS for the question: Answer the question independently of any other question.
Question No. : 75

 
10-digit positive integers are formed by using the digits 2 and 3 so that the integer has at least one 2 and one 3 and no two 3s
come together. How many of these integers are divisible by 3?

A) 101 B) 35 C) 45 D) 72

DIRECTIONS for the question: Answer the following question as per the best of your ability.
Question No. : 76

A 9 digit number is divisible by both 73 and 137. Find the sum of the digits of the largest such number.

A) 72 B) 76 C) 84 D) None of these

 Mock CAT - 05

Question No. : 77
DIRECTIONS for question: The table below gives the grades obtained by 15 kids participating in an inter-school singing
competition. There were 5 different rounds in the competition. Each participant got a grade out of A+, A, B+, B, C+ and C in a
round, where each grade was equivalent to 5, 4, 3, 2, 1 and 0 points respectively. Only those kids who got an A+ grade in at
least 3 rounds made it to the grand-finals.
 
Round Total
Participants
First Second Third Fourth Fifth  
Anil   B   C+   17
Bharat B+     A+   14
Chitra C A   B C+ 7
Dilip   A+ B+   B+ 17
Esha C     B+   18
Fiza A+ A       24
Geeta   A+ B   C+ 9
Harsha B   A A   10
Iqbal A+         22
Jimy   A+ A+ B   17
Keith A+ C B+     9
Liza B+ A+       18
Minu C   A+   C 9
Nikhil A A+   A   18
Olive C+     A+ A+ 19
 
Certain points noticed during the competition were:
 
I.          Other than Fiza and Liza, only three more kids made it to the grand-finals.
II.         No kid got the same grade more than 2 times with the exception of A+.
III.       All the grades obtained by Bharat were different.
IV.       In the first to fifth rounds, 3, 1, 3, 1 and 3 kids respectively got B+.
 

Which grade did Minu obtain in the second round?

A) B+ B) C+ C) B D) C

DIRECTIONS for the question: Solve the following question and mark the best possible option.

Question No. : 78

If the numerator of a fraction is decreased by 12.5 % and the denominator is increased by 20 %, then the resulting fraction
shows a decrease of

A) 37.8 % B) 6.25 % C) 27.08 % D) 40.6 %

 Mock CAT - 05

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option.

Question No. : 79

 
Arun buys a certain number of cards, pads, and DVD’s. 2 DVD’s and 2 pads together can be bought for the cost of 3 cards. If
each card had cost Rs. 8 more, then each card would have been worth either 2 DVD’s or 7 pads. The sum of the cost of one pair
of each is

A) Rs. 18 B) Rs. 24 C) Rs. 30 D) Rs. 36

DIRECTIONS for the question: Solve the following question and mark the best possible option.

Question No. : 80

However, this -------- design doesn't come without a price.

A) Flummox B) Rattle C) Stagnant D) Svelte

DIRECTIONS for the question: Solve the following question and mark the best possible option.

Question No. : 81

Aryan got 350 marks and Vidya scored 76 percent marks in the same test. If Vidya scored 296 marks more than Aryan, what
were the maximum marks of the test ?

A) 650 B) 900 C) 850 D) 950 E) None of these

DIRECTIONS for the question: Solve the following question and mark the best possible option.

Question No. : 82

What is the remainder when 1992 is divided by 92? (in numerical value)

A) 49 B)  C)  D) 

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option.

Question No. : 83

 
A pool is fitted with 3 pipes. The first 2 pipes operating simultaneously fill the pool in the same time during which the pool is
filled by the third pipe alone. The second pipe fills the pool 5 hours faster than the first pipe and 4 hours slower than the third
pipe. Find the time required by third pipe to fill the pool.

A) 12 hours B) 10 hours C) 8 hours D) 6 hours

DIRECTIONS for the question: Solve the following question and mark the best possible option.

Question No. : 84

A watch dealer incurs an expense of Rs. 150 for producing every watch. He also incurs an additional expenditure of Rs. 30,000,
which is independent of the number of watches produced. If he is able to sell a watch during the season, he sells it for Rs. 250.
If he fails to do so, he has to sell each watch for Rs. 100.
 
If he is able to sell only 1,200 out of 1,500 watches he has made in the season, then he has made a profit of

A) Rs. 90,000 B) Rs. 75,000 C) Rs. 45,000 D) Rs. 60,000

 Mock CAT - 05

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option:

Question No. : 85

Each side of a square is 3a – 2b. Assume that the side of the square is a non-zero integer and if a and b are integers with values
from 2 to 5, what is the difference between areas of the largest and smallest possible squares?

A) 121 B) 120 C) 105 D) 224

DIRECTIONS for the question: Solve the following question and mark the best possible option.

Question No. : 86

Ghosh Babu deposited a certain sum of money in a bank in 1986. The bank calculated interest on the principal at 10 percent
simple interest, and credited it to the account once a year. After the 1st year, Ghosh Babu withdrew the entire interest and 20%
of the initial amount. After the 2nd year, he withdrew the interest and 50% of the remaining amount. After the 3rd year, he
withdrew the interest and 50% of the remaining amount. Finally after the 4th year, Ghosh Babu closed the account and
collected the entire balance of Rs. 11,000.
 
The year, at the end of which, Ghosh Babu withdrew the smallest amount was:
 

A) First B) Second C) Third D) Fourth

DIRECTIONS for the question: Solve the following question and mark the best possible option.

Question No. : 87

The value of a machine depreciates from Rs 32,768 to Rs 21,952 in three years. What is the rate % of depreciation?

A) 11% B) 12.25%            C) 12.5% D) 33%

DIRECTIONS for the question: Solve the following question and mark the best possible option.

Question No. : 88

Sanjay has 7 chocolates and Ajay has 5 chocolates. Raj requested them to give him some chocolates in return for money. The
three of them shared the chocolates equally and Raj paid the other two a total of Rs 24. Find the difference between the
amounts received by Sanjay and Ajay.

A) Rs 12 B) Rs 18 C) Rs 16 D) Rs 15

DIRECTIONS for the question: Solve the following question and mark the best possible option.

Question No. : 89

A projectile is fired upwards from an initial height of 10 m at time t = 0. Its height after t seconds is defined by the function h(t)
= p – 10(q – t)2, where, p and q are positive constants. If the projectile attains its maximum height of 100 m after 3 seconds,
what is its height after 4 seconds? (in m)

A) 90 B)  C)  D) 

DIRECTIONS for the question: Solve the following question and mark the best possible option.

Question No. : 90

On square ABCD, point E lies on side AD and point F lies on side BC, so that BE = EF = FD = 30. What is the area of square
ABCD? (in numerical value)

A) 810 B)  C)  D) 

 Mock CAT - 05
DIRECTIONS for the question : Solve the following question and mark the best possible option.

Question No. : 91

X, Y, Z are 3 positive integers which are relatively prime & also.

X log200 5 + Y log2002 = Z. Find X + Y + Z ? (in numerical value)

A) 6 B)  C)  D) 

DIRECTIONS for the question: Answer the question independently of any other question.
Question No. : 92

A) 96250 m2 B) 24062.5 m2 C) 37450 m2 D) Data Insufficient

DIRECTIONS for the question: Answer the question independently of any other question.
Question No. : 93

 
What is the remainder when 3040 is divided by 17?

A) 13 B) 1 C) 4 D) 16

DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the information given below and answer the question that follows.
Question No. : 94

Point P has coordinates (3, 2) with reference to a rectangular frame in two dimensional space. This coordinate frame is rotated
in the clockwise direction through an angle of 300 (π/6 radians). The coordinates of P with reference to the rotated frame are:
 

A)  B)  C)  D) 

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option.

Question No. : 95

In a class exam, possible grades are I, II, III and Fail. If grades are assigned at random, in a class of 100, what is the probability
that at least 2 students of the class will fail?

A)  B)  C)  D) 

 Mock CAT - 05

DIRECTION for the question: Solve the following question and mark the best possible option.
Question No. : 96

If ‘P’ be the set of prime numbers less than 100, then what will be the maximum common difference of an A.P. formed by 4
numbers selected from the set P?

A) 20 B) 10 C) 31 D) None of these

DIRECTIONS for the question: Solve the following question and mark the best possible option.

Question No. : 97

A bracelet is to be made by threading four identical red beads and four identical yellow beads onto a hoop. How many
different bracelets can be made?

A) 8 B)  C)  D) 

DIRECTIONS for the question: Answer the following question as per the best of your judgment.

Question No. : 98

A)  B)  C)  D) 

DIRECTIONS for the question: Answer the question independently of any other question.
Question No. : 99

N is a 2-digit integer such that N = 11x + 10, where x takes values 0, 1, 2, ........, 9. How many values can N take?

A) 9 B) 3 C) 0 D) 7

DIRECTIONS for the question: Solve the following question and mark the best possible option
Question No. : 100

A ball rolls inside a rectangular room of base 8m × 5m. It deflects after hitting the base of the wall of the room. The ball starts
rolling from one corner of the room and moves at an angle of 450 towards the opposite side of the room. Every time after
hitting, it gets deflected such that its line of travel is perpendicular to its previous path. Find, after how many deflections, it will
reach a corner.

A) 6 B) 13 C) 11 D) 8

 Mock CAT - 05

QNo:-  1  ,Correct Answer:-  B

Explanation:-  
Option B
The answer to this question is based on the overall understanding of the passage. Refer to the following line: Often the imaginings
of sci-fi and technology work as an echo-chamber, reflecting ideas back and forth, with tech innovators claiming sci-fi inspiration
as a way of communicating what their devices might do.
The line above reflects the general idea of the author where he wishes to explain how technology and science fiction come
together in design fiction. The author gives examples of cases where the technology has followed science fiction ideas. He has also
given examples where an under-development technology becomes part of the film. From these examples, we can derive the fact
that the author wishes to highlight a symbiotic relationship between technology development and science fiction and how these
two help each other. This relationship is best reflected in option 2.
 

QNo:-  2  ,Correct Answer:-  C

Explanation:-  
Option C
Refer to the lines:  So it is with all technologies. ‘A tool always implies at least one small story,’ writes the historian of technology
David Nye in Technology Matters. It begins in the imagination, and that imagining extends to what the tools will help us to
achieve. These stories can be as dry as a patent, or as fanciful as a commercial for some new gadget that will magically endow
your life with the shining perfection of the product you are being sold (Google Glass, anyone?).
Why does the author provide us the example of the Google Glass commercials that explain the story behind this technology
product? In the given case, the author of the passage is making a comparison to showcase how the story for the given product has
been made in the interesting format of a commercial. There is no judgment being passed by the author of the passage; he is
simply making a comparison between two forms of depiction with patents being the boring/dry form and commercials being the
interesting form. Keeping this in mind, we find option 3 to be the apt answer for the given question.
 

QNo:-  3  ,Correct Answer:-  B

Explanation:-  
Option B
The answer to this question is derived from the lines: Sci-fi media can be astonishingly effective at promoting possible
technologies.
Your task is only one: to find a word that is closest to 'promoting' in the given options. Two options that can be ruled out
immediately are: germinate and develop. These two imply a sentiment of working on something and improving it. This is clearly
not correct in the given case as the role of sci-fi media in the given case is promoting the possible technology.
Out of stimulate (make someone or something act in a particular way or do a particular thing) and endorse (declare one's public
approval or support of), we can clearly see that endorse fits the bill better and relates to the sentiment of promotion better than
stimulate.
 

QNo:-  4  ,Correct Answer:-  B

Explanation:-  
Option B
Statement I is incorrect. Refer to the lines: The ties between scientific speculation, technological imagination and sci-fi are close,
and complex, even if genuinely new ideas most often come up in the tech arena first.
Statement II is correct. Refer to the lines: Often the imaginings of sci-fi and technology work as an echo-chamber, reflecting ideas
back and forth, with tech innovators claiming sci-fi inspiration as a way of communicating what their devices might do.
Statement III is correct. Refer to the lines: ‘cinematic texts require technologies to work. And, in this case, visual realism was
achieved by enlisting help from people who wanted to develop precisely what was being depicted.’ It is a new kind of self-fulfilling
prophecy, he says, ‘creating “preproduct placements” for technologies that do not yet exist’
 
 Mock CAT - 05

QNo:-  5  ,Correct Answer:-  C

Explanation:-  
According to the dictionary definition, ethnography is defined as the scientific description of peoples and cultures with their
customs, habits, and mutual differences.
 
For this question, refer to the lines:
1.Part of the challenge in addressing global issues from an anthropological perspective relates to the non-methodological position
of the ethnographic field, that is, its concreteness and the aspiration to sustain anthropological attention to micro-level
phenomena and processes.
2.I will be exploring anthropological perspectives on globalisation by presenting an ethnography that incorporates Norway and
North America in a single place.
3. This popular exercise of constructing and representing patterns of cultural movement and interconnectedness of people
across continents concretely blends American pioneer architecture with a Norwegian west-country landscape.
The portions in bold help you identify the answer.

QNo:-  6  ,Correct Answer:-  C

Explanation:-  
For option 1, refer to the lines: Given the time span we are dealing with here, actual family bonds are genealogically distant and
spatially dispersed. The author refers to family bonds as being distant and spatially dispersed and not genealogical ties.
 
For option 2, refer to the lines: Perhaps global localities can best be perceived in terms of their contrast with the bounded
community in which people actually do not migrate but stay put. Option 2 distorts this statement and is incorrect.
 
For option 3, refer to the lines: Through their joint work of preserving pioneer buildings in a localised Norwegian setting,
Norwegians and Norwegian-Americans seek to create a commemorative monument to Norwegian emigration.......However,
the creation of this rootless place stands in contrast to its surroundings in a uni-local community, a model of locality so much out
of favour in anthropological discussion of the global. Indeed, the very contrast provides impact and gives meaning to the
public exercise in memory work in which lost relationships of an emigrant past are re-imagined.
The portions in bold highlight the derived sentiment.

QNo:-  7  ,Correct Answer:-  B

Explanation:-  
Option 1 represents the main idea of the passage and is correct as per the information given in the passage.
Option 2 is incorrect as per the information given in the passage. You might be misled by the last paragraph but think closely, the
last paragraph is about the breaking down of relationships and not about how the links of anthropology and globalization are too
subtle to be successfully delineated. Delineated means represented accurately or precisely.
For option 3, refer to the lines: The constructed site is a manifestation of certain kinds of limited localities cut free from their
moorings in place and thus able to contribute to the immediate experience of the global as spatially unbounded. Moorings refers
to 'a place where a craft can be made fast'. Figuratively, it implies something being tied up. Keeping this in mind, we can see
option 3 is essentially derived from this line.
Option 4 can be derived from the lines: However, the creation of this rootless place stands in contrast to its surroundings in a uni-
local community, a model of locality so much out of favour in anthropological discussion of the global.

QNo:-  8  ,Correct Answer:-  B

Explanation:-  
The answer to this question can be found from the lines: I will be exploring anthropological perspectives on globalisation by
presenting an ethnography that incorporates Norway and North America in a single place.
These lines clearly indicate option 2 as the correct answer.
 
 Mock CAT - 05

QNo:-  9  ,Correct Answer:-  D

Explanation:-   In the given case, options 2 and 3 are correct. Examples for both of these statements are provided in the passage.
Option 1 is not correct as we cannot say they one religion is always in dispute with other religions.

QNo:-  10  ,Correct Answer:-  C

Explanation:-   Option 1 can be easily ruled out as the given passage does not discuss positive contexts.
The meanings of two words drive the answer:
Sanctimonious: making a show of being morally superior to other people.
Sacrilegious: Grossly irreverent toward what is held to be sacred
We can see that the second word is apt in the given case and this means that option 3 is the correct answer in the given case.

QNo:-  11  ,Correct Answer:-  C

Explanation:-   In simple words, they just wanted to avenge the Hindu act of representing Rishabha as an avatar of Vishnu or in
other words, the act of Hindus trying to appropriate/seize Jain symbols of worship. This makes option C the correct answer.

QNo:-  12  ,Correct Answer:-  D

Explanation:-   You need to know the meanings of the following words to identify the correct answer:
Obscenities: The trait of behaving in an obscene manner/An offensive or indecent word or phrase.
Incongruity: the state of being incongruous; incompatibility; being unsuitable and inappropriate
Linguistic: Consisting of or related to language
Appropriations: A deliberate act of acquisition of something, often without the permission of the owner
We can see that option 4 is the correct answer in the given case.

QNo:-  13  ,Correct Answer:-  A

Explanation:-   In the given case, the passage is of the analytical variety. The author of the passage adopts a very methodical
approach in describing a situation and then talks about the factors contributory factors as well as explains the resulting
consequences. Such an approach is clearly best labelled as an analytical one.

QNo:-  14  ,Correct Answer:-  C

Explanation:-   The author of the passage is concerned with four things and their impact on the global financial world:
securitisation, derivatives, leveraging and globalization. He does not cover everything related to the global financial world; rather,
he focuses on these four factors and how these pose a challenge going forward. Keeping this in mind, option 3 is the best answer
in the given case.

QNo:-  15  ,Correct Answer:-  B

Explanation:-   Options 1 and 3 are direct facts in the passage.

Option 4 can be derived from the lines: The selling and reselling of risk also lays the foundation for quick contagion.
Option 2 is the incorrect answer option. Refer to the lines: Today, governments and central banks have many tools to restore
confidence and revive the economy. The pace at which the US subprime loan defaults snowballed into a global financial crisis was
astonishing, but so was the speed with which the G-7 country authorities and emerging market economies responded.
 Mock CAT - 05

QNo:-  16  ,Correct Answer:-  C

Explanation:-   For option 1, refer to the lines: The third key development is the rise of highly-leveraged investment banks in the
US. Commercial bank leveraging is limited by stringent capital adequacy norms and their exposure to the capital market is
regulated under the Glass-Steagal Act. In contrast, till their recent demise, Wall Street investment banks could raise and invest
funds up to 30 times their equity base, thus vastly increasing the fragility of the system.
For option 2, refer to the lines: Now there is securitisation. Lenders pool the loans and resell them as asset-backed securities. These
securities are then repackaged, leveraged, trenched and resold many times over.

QNo:-  17  ,Correct Answer:-  D

Explanation:-   Refer to the lines:A resurgence of interest developed in the 1990s in medical treatments not fully accepted by
conventional medicine or biomedicine, which requires stringent scientific proof of safety and effectiveness before accepting a
treatment.
 The starting lines of the passage themselves highlight the purpose and intent of the author of the passage. The author of the
passage describes various kind of alternative medicines available.
Options 1 and 3 are incorrect at the subject of the passage is alternative medicines and not alternate medicines. Also, option 2 is
too generic in nature in the given case.

QNo:-  18  ,Correct Answer:-  B

Explanation:-   Refer to the lines: Such evidence is lacking for many approaches used in the medical systems and treatments
known as alternative medicine in the United States. In Europe, these same approaches often are called complementary medicine.
Growing public interest in non-traditional treatments led the NIH to open the National Center for Complementary and Alternative
Medicine (formerly the Office of Alternative Medicine) in 1992, which encourages research on alternative medicine. The number of
Americans using an alternative therapy rose from 33 percent in 1990 to more than 42 percent in 1997.
We can see that these terms refer to similar practices. We cannot say they refer to the same practices as there might be subtle
differences between these practices.

QNo:-  19  ,Correct Answer:-  B

Explanation:-   The answer can be derived from the lines:A cornerstone of alternative medicine is the idea that the mind
influences the health of the body.
This helps us identify option 2 as the correct answer.
Option 3 is incorrect. The meaning of the word ‘simulacrum’ is ‘an insubstantial or vague semblance’. It clearly does not fit the
given context.

QNo:-  20  ,Correct Answer:-  B

Explanation:-   In the give case, refer to these lines: When treating a headache or nausea, for example, homeopathic healers
administer herbs that in large doses cause headache or nausea. But they use very small doses that cause the patient no discomfort.
These lines highlight how the same substance that causes the issue is used for treatment. This helps us identify option 2 as the
correct answer.

QNo:-  21  ,Correct Answer:-  C

Explanation:-   In the given passage, the author of the passage highlights certain very striking aspects about global warming and
points out to the possible repercussions of these. He wishes to highlight that if things continue to carry along the given path, then
things will only get worse. This underlying sentiment is best expressed by option 3.
 Mock CAT - 05

QNo:-  22  ,Correct Answer:-  D

Explanation:-   In the given case, the tone of the author of the passage is clearly one where he is exhibiting major concerns and
doubts. The evidence presented by him highlights how serious the situation is and that urgent action is required in the given case.
Considering this, option 4 is the best answer in the given case.

QNo:-  23  ,Correct Answer:-  C

Explanation:-   Statements 1 and 2 are clearly incorrect in the given case. These statements highlight points are contrary to the
information provided in the passage.
Statement 3 can be derived from the lines: While on the positive side there is less soot these days and perhaps easier to control if
needed, alone, as one of the scientists of the study commented, “It does not change the need to slow down the growth rate of
carbon dioxide and eventually stabilize the atmospheric amount.”

QNo:-  24  ,Correct Answer:-  B

Explanation:-   Statement I is incorrect: In fact, sulphur based gas, originating from the industry, discovered in 2000 is thought to
be the most potent greenhouse gas measured to date. It is called trifluoromethyl sulphur pentafluoride (SF5CF3).
Statement II is incorrect: A scientist explained a fear that if the bogs dry out as they warm, the methane will oxidise and escape
into the air as carbon dioxide. But if the bogs remain wet, as is the case in western Siberia today, then the methane will be released
straight into the atmosphere. Methane is 20 times as potent a greenhouse gas as carbon dioxide.
 
Statement III is correct: And, as international trade in its current form continues to expand with little regard for the environment,
the transportation alone, of goods is thought to considerably contribute to global warming via emissions from planes, ships and
other transportation vehicles.
 

QNo:-  25  ,Correct Answer:-  12345

Explanation:-  
The paragraph talks about the similarities between man and insects but asks us to go beyond the simplistic view about these
similarities.
The sentence which introduces the comparison first is 1.
2 gives an examples of beetles and wasps to show some characteristics similar to people or humans.
3 tells how things are done differently by insects vis a vis humans.
Hence the correct sequence is 12345.

QNo:-  26  ,Correct Answer:-  42135

Explanation:-   The paragraph is talking about using ergonomics right from the beginning, when designing the work environment
begins. So the general introduction of this paragraph is given in the statement 4.
2 states that the savings in monetary terms when the equipment and facilities are designed right the first time, 1 continues with
giving a specific number.

QNo:-  27  ,Correct Answer:-  4321

Explanation:-   This is a simple question where the statements are simply arranged in the reverse order. Statement 4 provides a
generic opening sentence, statement 3 introduces professionals and statements 2 and 1 provides examples for the same.
 Mock CAT - 05

QNo:-  28  ,Correct Answer:-  12345

Explanation:-  
The paragraph talks about human activity and social situations.It is clearly introduced in 1.
Here 3 will follow 2 as sharing definitions is continued with this agreement on definitions.
statements 4 and 5 form mandatory pairs as both talk about hospitals and patients.

QNo:-  29  ,Correct Answer:-  3

Explanation:-   The writer defines the ‘mirror writing’ phenomenon and its progress.
 
1 – ‘Mirror writing’ is an aberration phase that occurs when children start learning to write. Hence to draw a comparison about the
same with adults is not meaningful.
2 – Mirror writing’ in older children may be regarded as an indicator that they are dyslexic. However it is not a cause of dyslexia.
4 – The statement is factually correct but is not the central theme of the passage. The writer does mention that it occurs across
cultures.

QNo:-  30  ,Correct Answer:-  4

Explanation:-   The only option that provides the complete picture and takes care of the two important aspects of the paragraph
is option 4. Yes, failure is ugly but it is also something which is not looked at closely (last line of the paragraph). This sentiment
finds a mention only in option 4.

QNo:-  31  ,Correct Answer:-  3

Explanation:-  
In this given case, you need to understand a few things:
a. the author does not say that science has not been able to explain free will; he says that science does provide us the tools to
understand free will.
b. he advices us to look at animals and how they operate in order to understand the topic of free will.
Keeping these two points in mind, we find that option 3 is the best answer in the given case. The other options commit of mistake
of either belittling science or shifting from the main topic of discussion in the given case.

QNo:-  32  ,Correct Answer:-  3

Explanation:-   This is an easy question. Statements 4-1-2 form the connected set of statements that provide a generic opening in
the given case. Statement 3 is the odd one out as it shifts the focus to Alexievich’s work, which does not find any previous mention.

QNo:-  33  ,Correct Answer:-  1

Explanation:-  
In the given question, the correct order of statements is 432. Statement 1 does not fit in the given context, as the author so far has
only raised doubts about the meaning of the term free and has not said anything to the contrary so far. This means that statement
1 is out of place here.
 Mock CAT - 05

QNo:-  34  ,Correct Answer:-  4

Explanation:-  
In this case, statement 4 is the odd one out. Statement 3 introduces the paragraph by talking about products/specimens in the
generic sense and statement 1 takes this forward.31  represents a pair of connected statements. The sentiment in 31 is then taken
forward in statement 2, which defines the idea presented in 31 and labels it as biomimicry. Statement 4 introduces examples for
biomimicry and these do not fit in the given context. The other three statements are based on thought and human use of
biomimicry till date is not mentioned.
 Mock CAT - 05

QNo:-  35  ,Correct Answer:-  176

Explanation:-  
Carefully notice the question and you will find that the lists of ratios that are given for the two years, are such that essentially one
of the terms is repeated twice in the complete course. For example, see the last ratio X(B):Z(I):Y(C), you will find the term X(B) in the
first, Z(I) in the second and Y(C) in the third. The symmetry makes it possible to get the solution. From the information provided in
the question, we can draw the following tables,
(Note: In the tables below p, q, m, p’, q’ and m’ are integral variables)
 
For the year 2007 (Table A)
  B I C F T
X 3p 8m 2q 30  
Y q 6p 11m 27  
Z 5m 2q 4p 21  
 
For the year  2008 (Table B)
  B I C F T
X 6p’ 5m’ 3q’ 39  
Y 2q’ 9p’ 4m’ 39  
Z 2m’ 2q’ 8p’ 26  
From L2, the sum of the first row in Table A = 120 and the sum of the first row in table B = 150
From L3, the sum of the third row in Table A = 100 and the sum of the third row in table B = 100
Therefore, the sum of the second row in Table A (eligible PG students in the year 2007) is
340 – 120 – 100 = 120
Similarly, from L2 and L3, the sum of the second row in Table B(eligible PG students in the year 2008) is 390 – 150 – 100 = 140
Now by L4 we have, 3p + q + 5m = 48                       ….(1)
Taking integral variable n for 5th ratio, we have X(B) = 6n, Z(I) = 10n and Y(C) = 11n
From table A,
X(B) = 6n = 3p, Z(I) = 10n = 2q and Y(C) = 11n = 11m
i.e., p/n = 2, q/n = 5 and m/n = 1
Dividing equation (1) by n, we get 3(p/n) + (q/n) + 5(m/n) = 48/n
So, 3 × 2 + 5 + 5 × 1 = 48/n
n=3
Therefore, p = 6, q = 15 and m = 3
Similarly, using L5, 3q’ + 4m’ + 8p’ = 88
Using integral variable n’ for 5th ratio, we can solve for p’, q’ and m’
So, p’ = 3, q’ = 12 and m’ = 7
Using these values we can get the number of students who got placed in various sectors in the given years.
 
For the year 2007 (Table A)
  B I C F T
X 18 24 30 30 18
Y 15 36 33 27 9
Z 15 30 24 21 10
 
For the year 2008 (Table B)  
  B I C F T
X 18 35 36 39 22
Y 24 27 28 39 22
Z 14 24 24 26 12
 
Total number of students who got placed in IT sector = (24 + 36 + 30 + 35 + 27 + 24) = 176
 Mock CAT - 05

QNo:-  36  ,Correct Answer:-  84

Explanation:-  
Carefully notice the question and you will find that the lists of ratios that are given for the two years, are such that essentially one
of the terms is repeated twice in the complete course. For example, see the last ratio X(B):Z(I):Y(C), you will find the term X(B) in the
first, Z(I) in the second and Y(C) in the third. The symmetry makes it possible to get the solution. From the information provided in
the question, we can draw the following tables,
(Note: In the tables below p, q, m, p’, q’ and m’ are integral variables)
 
For the year 2007 (Table A)
  B I C F T
X 3p 8m 2q 30  
Y q 6p 11m 27  
Z 5m 2q 4p 21  
 
For the year  2008 (Table B)
  B I C F T
X 6p’ 5m’ 3q’ 39  
Y 2q’ 9p’ 4m’ 39  
Z 2m’ 2q’ 8p’ 26  
From L2, the sum of the first row in Table A = 120 and the sum of the first row in table B = 150
From L3, the sum of the third row in Table A = 100 and the sum of the third row in table B = 100
Therefore, the sum of the second row in Table A (eligible PG students in the year 2007) is
340 – 120 – 100 = 120
Similarly, from L2 and L3, the sum of the second row in Table B(eligible PG students in the year 2008) is 390 – 150 – 100 = 140
Now by L4 we have, 3p + q + 5m = 48                       ….(1)
Taking integral variable n for 5th ratio, we have X(B) = 6n, Z(I) = 10n and Y(C) = 11n
From table A,
X(B) = 6n = 3p, Z(I) = 10n = 2q and Y(C) = 11n = 11m
i.e., p/n = 2, q/n = 5 and m/n = 1
Dividing equation (1) by n, we get 3(p/n) + (q/n) + 5(m/n) = 48/n
So, 3 × 2 + 5 + 5 × 1 = 48/n
n=3
Therefore, p = 6, q = 15 and m = 3
Similarly, using L5, 3q’ + 4m’ + 8p’ = 88
Using integral variable n’ for 5th ratio, we can solve for p’, q’ and m’
So, p’ = 3, q’ = 12 and m’ = 7
Using these values we can get the number of students who got placed in various sectors in the given years.
 
For the year 2007 (Table A)
  B I C F T
X 18 24 30 30 18
Y 15 36 33 27 9
Z 15 30 24 21 10
 
For the year 2008 (Table B)  
  B I C F T
X 18 35 36 39 22
Y 24 27 28 39 22
Z 14 24 24 26 12
 
In the year 2008, X(C) = 36, Y(B) = 24 and Z(I) = 24
Therefore, sum = 36 + 24 + 24 = 84.
 
 Mock CAT - 05

QNo:-  37  ,Correct Answer:-  0

Explanation:-  
Carefully notice the question and you will find that the lists of ratios that are given for the two years, are such that essentially one
of the terms is repeated twice in the complete course. For example, see the last ratio X(B):Z(I):Y(C), you will find the term X(B) in the
first, Z(I) in the second and Y(C) in the third. The symmetry makes it possible to get the solution. From the information provided in
the question, we can draw the following tables,
(Note: In the tables below p, q, m, p’, q’ and m’ are integral variables)
 
For the year 2007 (Table A)
  B I C F T
X 3p 8m 2q 30  
Y q 6p 11m 27  
Z 5m 2q 4p 21  
 
For the year  2008 (Table B)
  B I C F T
X 6p’ 5m’ 3q’ 39  
Y 2q’ 9p’ 4m’ 39  
Z 2m’ 2q’ 8p’ 26  
From L2, the sum of the first row in Table A = 120 and the sum of the first row in table B = 150
From L3, the sum of the third row in Table A = 100 and the sum of the third row in table B = 100
Therefore, the sum of the second row in Table A (eligible PG students in the year 2007) is
340 – 120 – 100 = 120
Similarly, from L2 and L3, the sum of the second row in Table B(eligible PG students in the year 2008) is 390 – 150 – 100 = 140
Now by L4 we have, 3p + q + 5m = 48                       ….(1)
Taking integral variable n for 5th ratio, we have X(B) = 6n, Z(I) = 10n and Y(C) = 11n
From table A,
X(B) = 6n = 3p, Z(I) = 10n = 2q and Y(C) = 11n = 11m
i.e., p/n = 2, q/n = 5 and m/n = 1
Dividing equation (1) by n, we get 3(p/n) + (q/n) + 5(m/n) = 48/n
So, 3 × 2 + 5 + 5 × 1 = 48/n
n=3
Therefore, p = 6, q = 15 and m = 3
Similarly, using L5, 3q’ + 4m’ + 8p’ = 88
Using integral variable n’ for 5th ratio, we can solve for p’, q’ and m’
So, p’ = 3, q’ = 12 and m’ = 7
Using these values we can get the number of students who got placed in various sectors in the given years.
 
For the year 2007 (Table A)
  B I C F T
X 18 24 30 30 18
Y 15 36 33 27 9
Z 15 30 24 21 10
 
For the year 2008 (Table B)  
  B I C F T
X 18 35 36 39 22
Y 24 27 28 39 22
Z 14 24 24 26 12
 
Number of students who got placed in Banking sector in 2008 = 56 and number of students who got placed in Telecom sector in
2008 = 56. Therefore, the difference is 0.
 Mock CAT - 05

QNo:-  38  ,Correct Answer:-  A

Explanation:-  
Let the total number of bad widgets be x and hence the total number of good ones will be (1000 -x).
If he takes test I his total cost will be : Rs.2(1000) + 25 X 0.8x + 50 X 0.2x If he takes test II his total cost will be : Rs. 3(1000) + 25 X
x
Now, it will be worth testing if the cost of testing is less than the cost of penalty levied on the defective pieces. Let us now test of all
the values mentioned in all the questions & answer choices.
 
No. of Penalty if not
Cost of Test I Cost of Test II
defectives tested
100 Rs. 5000 Rs. 5500 Rs.5000
120 Rs. 5600 Rs.6000 Rs.6000
160 Rs. 6800 Rs.7000 Rs.8000
190 Rs. 7700 Rs.7750 Rs.9500
200 Rs. 8000 Rs.8000 Rs.10000
400 Rs. 14000 Rs.13000 Rs.20000
 
 
It is obvious that for number of defectives above 100 cost of any testing is cheaper than the penalty. But for 100 defectives the cost
of penalty is the same as that for testing. Hence below 100 defectives, the penalty will be less than the cost of testing and hence it
is not worth testing.
 

QNo:-  39  ,Correct Answer:-  C

Explanation:-  
It is clear from the table that if the number of defectives is between 200 & 400, he should go for Test II as it is cheaper.

QNo:-  40  ,Correct Answer:-  A

Explanation:-  
In case of 160 defectives he should use test I as it is cheaper.

QNo:-  41  ,Correct Answer:-  A

Explanation:-  
If there are 200 defective widgets in the lot, Prakash may use either Test I or Test II as the cost of both the Tests is same = Rs.8000.

QNo:-  42  ,Correct Answer:-  B

Explanation:-  

QNo:-  43  ,Correct Answer:-  A

Explanation:-  
 Mock CAT - 05

QNo:-  44  ,Correct Answer:-  D

Explanation:-  

QNo:-  45  ,Correct Answer:-  D

Explanation:-  

QNo:-  46  ,Correct Answer:-  D

Explanation:-  

 
Dr. Gautam, the Radiology expert is sitting opposite Dr. Rakesh.
 Mock CAT - 05

QNo:-  47  ,Correct Answer:-  C

Explanation:-  

 
The expert on Cardiology, Dr. Lalit is reading the book on Neurology written by Dr. Parul.
 Mock CAT - 05

QNo:-  48  ,Correct Answer:-  D

Explanation:-  

 
Dr. Lalit is sitting beside Dr. Sham, the Dermatology expert.
 Mock CAT - 05

QNo:-  49  ,Correct Answer:-  B

Explanation:-  

 
Dr. Alka, the Orthopedic expert is reading the book on Dermatology.
 Mock CAT - 05

QNo:-  50  ,Correct Answer:-  A

Explanation:-  

 
Dr. Parul, the expert on Neurology is sitting opposite Dr. Lalit, the expert on Cardiology.

QNo:-  51  ,Correct Answer:-  A

Explanation:-  
Area under cultivation during 1990- Area under cultivation during 1991-1992
Parts
1991 (acres) (acres)

1=P

2=Q 7×3=21 12×2=24

3=R 1×3=3 1×2=2
4=S 4×3=12 5×2=10
5=T 6×3=18 8×2=16
 
  Number of kgs produced per acre
Crop During 1990-1991 During 1991-1992
P 15 12
Q 18 19.8
R 20 16
S 12 13.2
T 10 8
 
Total yield during 1991-1992 = 8 × 12 + 19.8 × 24 + 2 × 16 + 10 × 13.2 + 16 × 8 = 863.2 kg.

∴Yield per acre = =14.39 kg.  

 
 Mock CAT - 05

QNo:-  52  ,Correct Answer:-  B

Explanation:-  
Total yield (value wise) during 1990-1991 = (6×15×8)+(21×18×7.5)+(3×20×6)+(12×12×11)+(18×10×14)= Rs.8019. Hence (2)

QNo:-  53  ,Correct Answer:-  D

Explanation:-  

 =Yield (quantity-wise produced per acre × price per kg. Clearly, part 1 and part 3 have the lowest value coefficient (i.e. 12). Hence
(4)

QNo:-  54  ,Correct Answer:-  B

Explanation:-  
To maximize the valuewise yield, crops with higher value coefficient should be cultivated under larger area. In 1991-1992
Area under
Crop Value co-efficient cultivation
(acres)
P 12×8×1.1=105.6 8
Q 19.8×7.5×1.1=163.35 24
R 16×6×1.1=105.6 2
S 13.2×11×1.1=159.72 10
T 8×14×1.1=123.2 16
∴ Only areas under S and T should have been swapped to maximize the valuewise yield. Hence (2)
 Mock CAT - 05

QNo:-  55  ,Correct Answer:-  50

Explanation:-  
The 3 questions and their answers give rise to eight different options and they are as follows:-
 
Veg /
Ind Hin /
Non Total Student
/Aus Eng
veg
I H V 35 Chandan
I H NV 15 Bhushan
I E V 5  
I E NV 45 Eshan
A H V 30 Dhiren
A H NV 40 Faisal
A E V 10  
A E NV 20 Amit
      200  
 
From 3, Chandan and 39 others like the same type of food and prefer the same team to win, and of these 34 like the same type of
movies.
So, the remaining 5 like a different type of movie, which is the triplet India, veg and English.
So, Chandan and 34 others like India and veg, but like Hindi.
From 5, using the same logic as above, Eshan and 44 others like the same type of movies and teams, as the other 5.
Using 7 and 5, we get that Eshan and 44 others like I, E, NV.
From 4, since 35 people like the same type of movies and food as Chandan, and so, Dhiren and 29 others like the combination A,
H, V.
Similarly, from 2, we can say that Bhushan and 14 others like the combination I, H, NV.
Similarly, using the remaining data, we can fill the table as above.
 
50 boys prefer India and like Hindi movies.
 Mock CAT - 05

QNo:-  56  ,Correct Answer:-  2

Explanation:-  
The 3 questions and their answers give rise to eight different options and they are as follows:-
 
Veg /
Ind Hin /
Non Total Student
/Aus Eng
veg
I H V 35 Chandan
I H NV 15 Bhushan
I E V 5  
I E NV 45 Eshan
A H V 30 Dhiren
A H NV 40 Faisal
A E V 10  
A E NV 20 Amit
      200  
 
From 3, Chandan and 39 others like the same type of food and prefer the same team to win, and of these 34 like the same type of
movies.
So, the remaining 5 like a different type of movie, which is the triplet India, veg and English.
So, Chandan and 34 others like India and veg, but like Hindi.
From 5, using the same logic as above, Eshan and 44 others like the same type of movies and teams, as the other 5.
Using 7 and 5, we get that Eshan and 44 others like I, E, NV.
From 4, since 35 people like the same type of movies and food as Chandan, and so, Dhiren and 29 others like the combination A,
H, V.
Similarly, from 2, we can say that Bhushan and 14 others like the combination I, H, NV.
Similarly, using the remaining data, we can fill the table as above.
 
From table above we can see than 2 people - Amit and Dhiren like Veg food. Option 2.
 
Please note that the total number of Veg lovers is 4, but we are asked preferences of only A, B, C, D, E and F.
 Mock CAT - 05

QNo:-  57  ,Correct Answer:-  100

Explanation:-  
The 3 questions and their answers give rise to eight different options and they are as follows:-
 
Veg /
Ind Hin /
Non Total Student
/Aus Eng
veg
I H V 35 Chandan
I H NV 15 Bhushan
I E V 5  
I E NV 45 Eshan
A H V 30 Dhiren
A H NV 40 Faisal
A E V 10  
A E NV 20 Amit
      200  
 
From 3, Chandan and 39 others like the same type of food and prefer the same team to win, and of these 34 like the same type of
movies.
So, the remaining 5 like a different type of movie, which is the triplet India, veg and English.
So, Chandan and 34 others like India and veg, but like Hindi.
From 5, using the same logic as above, Eshan and 44 others like the same type of movies and teams, as the other 5.
Using 7 and 5, we get that Eshan and 44 others like I, E, NV.
From 4, since 35 people like the same type of movies and food as Chandan, and so, Dhiren and 29 others like the combination A,
H, V.
Similarly, from 2, we can say that Bhushan and 14 others like the combination I, H, NV.
Similarly, using the remaining data, we can fill the table as above.
 
From table above, we can see that total preferring Australia to win is 100.

QNo:-  58  ,Correct Answer:-  3

Explanation:-  
Shreya prefers batches C251210 or C251212. So, if Akash and Minoti are allocated to C251210 and C251212 respectively, Shreya
will be allocated to the Week-end batch.

QNo:-  59  ,Correct Answer:-  1

Explanation:-  
Since each of the remaining 4 students gets a batch of his or her choice, there is 1 batch with 1 seat vacant. This batch can
additionally be allocated to one of the students. Thus, at most 1 student can get both batches of his or her choice.
 Mock CAT - 05

QNo:-  60  ,Correct Answer:-  C

Explanation:-   Since the LCM of the times given in the table is LCM(8, 9, 10, 12, 15, 20) = 360, we can assume each job to be
worth 360 units. The rates at which they work can be tabulated as shown.
 
Persons
  A B C D
Time Rate Time Rate Time Rate Time Rate
A 10 36 12 30 15 24 8 45
B 15 24 20 18 10 36 9 40
Jobs
C 12 30 15 24 9 40 20 18
D 9 40 10 36 15 24 12 30
 
On P1, C, D and A work on alternate days in that order. So, for Job A, in three days, C, D and A would have completed 105 units of
work. In 9 days, they would have completed 315 units of work. On the 10th day, C would complete 24 units of work and on the
11th day, D would complete the remaining 21 units of work so that Job A is completed in 10 7/20 days.
On the 11th day, D will continue working and complete 34 units of work on Job B. On Job B, the cycle will now continue as A, C
and D on alternate days, completing 100 units in 3 days. In another 9 days, i.e., on the 20th day, they would have completed 334
units of work on Job B. On the 21st day, A will complete 24 units of work and on the 22nd day, C will complete 2 units of work so
that Job B is completed.
On the 22nd day, C will continue working and complete 34 units of work on Job C. On Job C, the cycle will now continue as D, A
and C on alternate days, completing 88 units in 3 days. In another 9 days, i.e., on the 31st day, they would have completed 298
units of work on Job C. On the 32nd day, D will complete 18 units of work, on the 33rd day, A will complete 30 units of work and
on the 34th day, C will complete the remaining 14 unnits of work so that Job C is completed. Thus the total time taken is 33 14/40
7/ days to complete P1.
= 33 20

QNo:-  61  ,Correct Answer:-  B

Explanation:-   Since the LCM of the times given in the table is LCM(8, 9, 10, 12, 15, 20) = 360, we can assume each job to be
worth 360 units. The rates at which they work can be tabulated as shown.
Persons
  A B C D
Time Rate Time Rate Time Rate Time Rate
A 10 36 12 30 15 24 8 45
B 15 24 20 18 10 36 9 40
Jobs
C 12 30 15 24 9 40 20 18
D 9 40 10 36 15 24 12 30
 
On P2, AB, BC and AC work on alternate days. On Job B, they complete 42, 54 and 60 units of work respectively each day. In 6
days, they would have completed 312 units of work on Job B. On the 7th day, AB complete 42 units of work and on the 8th day, BC
complete the remaining 6 unints of work so that Job B is completed.
On the 8th day, BC continue working and complete 54 units on Job C. They now continue working as AC, AB and BC on alternate
days, completing 70, 54 and 64 units of work respectively each day. In another 3 days, i.e., on the 11th day, they would have
completed 243 units of work on Job C. On the 12th day, AC complete 70 units of work and on the 13th day, AB complete the
remaining 48 units of work so that Job C is completed.
On the 13th day, AB continue working and complete 6 units of work on Job D. They now continue working as BC, AC and AB on
alternate days, completing 60, 64 and 76 units of work respectively each day. In another 3 days, i.e., on the 16th day, they would
have completed 206 units of work on Job D. On the 17th day, BC will complete 60 units of work, on the 18th day, AC will complete
64 units of work and on the 19th day, Ab will complete the remaining 30 units of work so that Job D is completed. Thus the total
time taken is 18 30/76 = 18 15/38 days to complete P2.
 Mock CAT - 05

QNo:-  62  ,Correct Answer:-  D

Explanation:-   Since the LCM of the times given in the table is LCM(8, 9, 10, 12, 15, 20) = 360, we can assume each job to be
worth 360 units. The rates at which they work can be tabulated as shown.
Persons
  A B C D
Time Rate Time Rate Time Rate Time Rate
A 10 36 12 30 15 24 8 45
B 15 24 20 18 10 36 9 40
Jobs
C 12 30 15 24 9 40 20 18
D 9 40 10 36 15 24 12 30
 
On P3, ABD work together on alternate days. On Job A, ABD complete 100 units of work each day so tht they complete 60 units of
work on the 7th day to complete Job A. They continue working on the 7th day to complete 40 units of work on Job C, take a break
and continue completing 84 units of work on Job C on alternate days. On the 17th day, they will complete 4 units of work to
complete Job C. They continue to work on the 17th day to complete 115 units of work on Job D each day. On the 23rd day, they
will complete 15 units of work so that Job D is completed. Thus the total time taken is 22 15/115 = 22 3/23 days to complete P3.

QNo:-  63  ,Correct Answer:-  B

Explanation:-   Referring to the above solutions, all three projects will be completed in 73 7/8 days.

QNo:-  64  ,Correct Answer:-  D

Explanation:-  

QNo:-  65  ,Correct Answer:-  D

Explanation:-  
 Mock CAT - 05

QNo:-  66  ,Correct Answer:-  B

Explanation:-  

QNo:-  67  ,Correct Answer:-  C

Explanation:-   4x = 5y + 6 = 5(y + 1) + 1. Since 5(y + 1) will alwyas end in a 0 or a 5, after adding 1, the RHS will end in 1 or a
6. Since the LHS is a multiple of 4, the RHS must end in 6. In other words, we need to find x so that 4x ends in 6 and y so theat 5y
ends in 0. So, x = 4, 9, 14, 19, .... 199 and y = 2, 6, 10, 14, ..., 198. Values of x form an AP with a = 4 and d = 5. Since 199 = 4 + 5(n
- 1) n = 40 x can take 40 different values. Similarly,  values of y form an AP with a = 2 and d = 4. Since 198 = 2 + 4(n - 1) n = 50
y can take 50 different values. Thus, (x, y) can take 40 different values from (4, 2) to (199, 198).

QNo:-  68  ,Correct Answer:-  D

Explanation:-  
The minimum number of terms is 5 viz. 18, 19, 20, 21 and 22 that add up to 100.
The maximum number of terms is 200 and the terms are – 99, – 98, –97, 98, 99, and 100.
The sum is – 99 + (– 98) + (– 97) + …+ 98 + 99 + 100 = 100.
Difference = 200 – 5 = 195.
 

QNo:-  69  ,Correct Answer:-  B

Explanation:-  
(2n-4) 90° is the sum of interior angle of an n-sided convex polygon. (2n-4) 90° = An + B
180°n-360° = An + B A/B=180/-360 = -l/2

QNo:-  70  ,Correct Answer:-  D

Explanation:-  
Suppose (m, n) = (2, 5). Each time a pile is divided into 2 or 5, the number of piles increases by 1 or 4 respectively. So it is possible
to get 14 piles by making 13 divisions by 2 each or 3 divisions by 5 and one division by 2. Suppose (m, n) = (3, 6). Each time a pile
is divided into 3 or 6, the number of piles increases by 2 or 5 respectively. So it is possible to get 14 piles by making 4 divisions by 3
and one division by 6. Suppose (m, n) = (4, 6). Each time a pile is divided into 4 or 6, the number of piles increases by 3 or 5
respectively. So it is possible to get 14 piles by making one division by 4 and 2 divisions by 6. Suppose (m, n) = (3, 9). Each time a
pile is divided into 3 or 9, the number of piles increases by 2 or 8 respectively. So the number of piles will only become 3, 5, 9, etc.
Since 14 is an even number, it is not possible to make 14 piles if (m, n) = (3, 9).
 Mock CAT - 05

QNo:-  71  ,Correct Answer:-  A

Explanation:-  
If the levels of the 3 pipes denote the 3 sections of the tank, then the volume of each section is 500 litres.
In the 1st hour, pipe A will fill 5 litres. In the 2nd hour, pipes A and B will fill 5 + 10 = 15 litres. After that, all 3 pipes work together
to fill 5 + 10 + 20 = 35 litres each hour.
After 2 hours, 20 litres of water have been filled. The 3 pipes need to fill in another 480 litres in the first section.
The time taken will be 480/35 = 13.71 hours. Now, pipe A acts as a drain and the 3 pipes will fill 10 + 20 – 5 = 25 litres each hour.
The time taken to fill the next 500 litres is 500/25 = 20 hours.
After this, pipes A and B act as drains and the 3 pipes together will fill 20 – 10 – 5 = 5 litres each hour.
The time taken to fill 500 litres is 500/5 = 100 hours.
Thus the total time is
2 + 13.71 + 20 + 100 = 135.71 hours.

QNo:-  72  ,Correct Answer:-  2500

Explanation:-  

QNo:-  73  ,Correct Answer:-  A

Explanation:-  

QNo:-  74  ,Correct Answer:-  B

Explanation:-  
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QNo:-  75  ,Correct Answer:-  C

Explanation:-  

QNo:-  76  ,Correct Answer:-  A

Explanation:-  
The LCM of 73 and 137 is 10001, and so 1000100000 is a ten digit number which is divisible by 73 as well as 137.
Subtracting 100010 from this number will give us the largest 9-digit number which is divisible by both 73 and 137 and the number
is 999999990.
The sum of the digits is 72.hence the answer is option A

QNo:-  77  ,Correct Answer:-  A

Explanation:-  
Nikhil has to have a B in the third round. Bharat cannot have a B+ in the third round.
As there are three B+ in the third round, Olive has a B+ in the third round.
He has an A+ in the second round. Thus, Minu has a B+ in the second round (As there is one B+ in the second round).
 
hence the answer is option A
 

QNo:-  78  ,Correct Answer:-  C

Explanation:-  
Let the original ratio = 100/100
Now it becomes 87.5 / 120 = 0.7292
So final decrease is 100 – 72.92 = 27.08 %

QNo:-  79  ,Correct Answer:-  C

Explanation:-  

QNo:-  80  ,Correct Answer:-  D

Explanation:-  
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QNo:-  81  ,Correct Answer:-  C

Explanation:-  
Aryan scored =350,
Vidya scored 296 more than Aryan i.e. 350 + 296 = 646.
Also, Vidya scored 76% of maximum marks.
So, 76% of maximum marks = 646 =>  maximum marks = 850

QNo:-  82  ,Correct Answer:-  49

Explanation:-  
Since 92 and 19 are co-prime and 92 = 22 × 23, we know that the remainder will be 1 when the power is
(By using Euler no.)

So, the remainder when 1944 and 1988 are divided by 92 is 1.

The remaining 194 will give remainders 361 × 361 = (–7) (–7) = 49.
 

QNo:-  83  ,Correct Answer:-  D

Explanation:-  

QNo:-  84  ,Correct Answer:-  B

Explanation:-  
Total expense incurred in making 1,500 watches = (1500 × 150) + 30000 = Rs. 2,55,000.
Total revenue obtained by selling 1,200 of them during the season = (1200 × 250) = Rs. 3,00,000.
The remaining 300 of them has to be sold by him during off season.
The total revenue obtained by doing that = (300 × 100) = Rs. 30,000.
Hence, total revenue obtained = (300000 + 30000) = Rs. 3,30,000.
Hence, total profit = (330000 - 255000) = Rs. 75,000.
 

QNo:-  85  ,Correct Answer:-  B

Explanation:-  

When a = 5 and b = 2, we get 15 – 4 = 11 as the longest side of the square. The area of the square is 121. When a = 3 and b = 4,
we get 9 – 8 = 1 as the smallest side of the square. The area of the square is 1. The required difference is 120.
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QNo:-  86  ,Correct Answer:-  D

Explanation:-  
He withdrew the smallest amount after the 4th year viz.Rs.11000.

QNo:-  87  ,Correct Answer:-  C

Explanation:-  
Let R be the rate of depriciation, therefore, 21952 = 32768[1-(R/100)]3 .
On solving this we get R = 12.5%

QNo:-  88  ,Correct Answer:-  A

Explanation:-  
As Sanjay and Ajay had a total of 12 chocolates, so Sanjay and Ajay must have given 3 and 1 chocolates respectively to Raj.
Hence, the ratio of their share must be 3 :1. Now Raj paid Rs 24 for 4 chocolates. So cost of one chocolate is Rs 6.
Hence Sanjay and Ajay got Rs 18 and Rs 6 respectively.
Therefore, Sanjay gets Rs 12 more than Ajay.

QNo:-  89  ,Correct Answer:-  90

Explanation:-  

QNo:-  90  ,Correct Answer:-  810

Explanation:-  

 
Since the area of square ABCD is simply (AB)2, let us denote AB by x. Since we also have AD = x, then ED = 2/3 x by noting the
positions of the segments DF, FE, and EB.
Thus,
AE = AD – ED = x – 2/3 x = 1/ 3 x
Now we can apply the Pythagorean Theorem to ABE:
x2 + {(1/3)x}2 = 302
Or 10/ 9 x2 = 900:
Thus, the area of square ABCD is x2 = 900 × 9/10 = 810
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QNo:-  91  ,Correct Answer:-  6

Explanation:-  
X log200 5 + Y log2002 = Z
⇒ log200 5x + log2002y  = Z
⇒ log200 5x2y = Z
⇒ 5x × 2y = 200z
⇒ 5x × 2y = 23z × 52z
⇒ x = 2z & y = 3z
Since, X,Y,Z are relatively prime.
So, Z = 1, X = 2, Y = 3.
So, X+Y+Z = 6

QNo:-  92  ,Correct Answer:-  B

Explanation:-  

QNo:-  93  ,Correct Answer:-  B

Explanation:-  

QNo:-  94  ,Correct Answer:-  A

Explanation:-  
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QNo:-  95  ,Correct Answer:-  C

Explanation:-  

QNo:-  96  ,Correct Answer:-  D

Explanation:-  
P = {2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, 23, 29, 31, 37, 41, 43, 47, 53, 59, 61, 67, 71, 73, 79, 83, 89, 97} There are 4 numbers which are in A.P.,
so maximum possible common difference between 2 and 97 can be 31. But, the difference between odd prime numbers cannot be
odd, we will check whether there is any A.P. possible or not with the difference of 30. By trial and error, we get,7, 37, 67, 97 are 4
numbers which are in A.P. with a difference of 30. Maximum possible common difference is 30. Hence, option 4.

QNo:-  97  ,Correct Answer:-  8

Explanation:-  
In this solution, the notation p / q / r / s / … represents p beads of one colour, followed by q beads of the other colour, followed by r
beads of the first colour, followed by s beads of the second colour etc.
Since the colours alternate, there must be an even number of these sections of beads.
If there are just two sections, then the necklace is 4 / 4 and there is only one such necklace.
If there are four sections, then each colour is split either 2, 2 or 3, 1.
So the possibilities are 2 / 3 / 2 / 1 ( which can occur in two ways, with the 3 being one colour or the other) or 2 / 2 / 2 / 2 ( which
can occur in one way) or 3 / 3 / 1 / 1 (also one way).
Note that 3 / 2 / 1 / 2 appears to be another possibility, but is the same as 2 / 3 / 2 / 1 rotated.
If there are six sections, then each colour must be split into 2, 1, 1 and the possibilities are 2 / 2 / 1 / 1 / 1 / 1 (one way) or 2 / 1 / 1
/ 2 / 1 / 1 (one way).
Finally, if there are eight, then the only possible necklace is 1 / 1 / 1 / 1 / 1 / 1 / 1 / 1.
In total that gives 8 necklaces.
 
Alternate solution: If we consider alternate red and yellow, then there is only 1 way. Similarly, if we consider all 4 reds and all 4
yellows together, there is only 1 way.
If we split the red and yellow beads into different groups, the only way of splitting them is 2, 2 or 3, 1.
In this case, there are 6 possibilities: (2R 1Y 2R 3Y), (2R 2Y 2R 2Y), (3R 3Y 1R 1Y), (1R 3Y 3R 1Y), (3R 1Y 1R 3Y) and (1R 1Y 3R 3Y).
Thus there are 8 different necklaces.
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QNo:-  98  ,Correct Answer:-  A

Explanation:-  

QNo:-  99  ,Correct Answer:-  A

Explanation:-  
We can write N as 10(x + 1) + x. This means that the tens digit is x +1 and the units digit is x. So, the difference between the two is
1. So N can have 9 values, 10, 21, 32, …, 98

QNo:-  100  ,Correct Answer:-  C

Explanation:-  

Hence the answer is option C