ALL INDIA LAW ENTRANCE TEST (AILET) 2013 Question Paper

Time: 1 hour 30 minutes Total Marks: 150

SECTION 1 – ENGLISH AND READING COMPREHENSION

Directions (Qs. 1-6): The questions in this section is based on the passage. The questions are to be
answered on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. For some of the questions, more than
one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the best answer;
that is, the response that most accurately and completely answers the question.

Although the legal systems of England and the United States are superficially similar, they differ
profoundly in their approaches to and uses of legal reasons: substantive reasons are more common than
formal reasons in the United States, whereas in England the reverse is true. This distinction reflects a
difference in the visions of law that prevails in the two countries, hi England, the law has traditionally
been viewed as a system of rules; the United States favours a vision of law as an outward expression of
community’s sense of right and justice.

Substantive reasons, as applied to law, are based on moral, economic, political and other
considerations. These reasons are found both “in the law” and “outside the law” so to speak.
Substantive reasons inform the content of a large part of the law: constitutions, statutes, contracts,
verdicts, and the like. Consider, for example, a statute providing that “no vehicles shall be taken into
public parks.” Suppose that no specific rationales or purposes were explicitly written into the statute,
but that it was clear (from its legislative history) that the substantive purpose of the statute was to
ensure quiet and safety in the park. Now suppose that a veterans’ group mounts a World War II jeep (in
running order but without a battery) as a war memorial on a concrete slab in the park, and charges are
brought against its members.

Most judges in the United States would find the defendants not guilty because what they did had no
adverse effect on park’s quiet and safety.

Formal reasons are different in that they frequently prevent substantive reasons from coming into play,
even when substantive reasons are explicitly incorporated into the iaw at hand. For example, when a
document fails to comply with stipulated requirements, the court may render the document legally
ineffective. A Will requiring written witness may be declared null and void and, therefore, unenforceable
for the formal reason that the requirement was not observed. Once the legal rule – that a Will is invalid
for lack of proper witnessing – has been clearly established, and the legality of the rule is not in
question, application of that rule precludes from consideration substantive arguments in favour of the
Will’s validity or enforcement.

Legal scholars in England and the United States have long bemused themselves with extreme examples
of formal and substantive reasoning. On the one hand, formal reasoning in England has led to wooden
interpretations of statutes and an unwillingness to develop the common law through judicial activism.
On the other hand, freewheeling substantive reasoning in the United States has resulted in statutory
interpretations so liberal that the texts of some statutes have been ignored,

1. Which one of the following best describes the content of the passage as a whole?

a) An analysis of similarities and differences between the legal systems of England and the United States

b) A re-evaluation of two legal systems with the use of examples

c) A contrast between the types of reasons embodied in the United States and English legal systems

d) An explanation of how two distinct visions of the law shaped the development of legal reasoning.

2. It can be inferred from the passage that English judges would like to find the veterans’ group
discussed in the second paragraph guilty of violating the statute because

a) not to do so would encourage others to act as the group did

b) not to do so would be to violate the substantive reasons underlying the law

c) the veterans failed to comply with the substantive purpose of the statute

d) the veterans failed to comply with the stipulated requirements of the statute.

3. From the discussion of Wills in the third paragraph it can be inferred that substantive arguments as to
the validity of a Will might be considered under which one of the following circumstances?

a) The legal rule that a Will be witnessed in writing does not stipulate the format of the Will

b) The legal rule requiring that a Will be witnessed stipulates that the Will must be witnessed in writing
by two people

c) The legal rule requiring that a Will be witnessed in writing stipulates that the witnessing must be done
in the presence of a judge

d) A judge rules that the law can be interpreted to allow for a verbal witness to a Will in a case involving
a medical emergency.

4. Which one of the following best describes the function of the last paragraph of the passage?

a) It presents the consequences of extreme interpretations of the two types of legal reasons discussed
by the author

b) It shows how legal scholars can incorrectly use extreme examples to support their views

c) It corrects inaccuracies in legal scholars’ view of the nature of two types of legal systems

d) It suggests how characterisations of the two types of legal reasons can become convoluted and
inaccurate .
5. The author of the passage suggests that in English law a substantive interpretation of a legal rule
might be warranted under which one of the following circumstances?

a) Social conditions have changed to the extent that to continue to enforce the rule would be to decide
contrary to present-day social norms

b) The composition of the legislature has changed to the extent that to enforce the rule would be
contrary to the views of the majority in the present legislative assembly

c) The legality of the rule is in question and its enforcement is open to judicial interpretation

d) Individuals who have violated the legal rule argue that application of the rule would lead to unfair
judicial interpretations.

6. The author of the passage makes use of all of the following in presenting the discussion of the English
and the United States legal systems except

a) Comparison and contrast

b) Generalisation

c) Explication of terms

d) A chronology of historical developments.

Directions (Qs. 7-11): In the following questions, a group of sentences about a single topic are given.
One or more of the sentence(s) is/are grammatically incorrect. You have to identify the incorrect
sentence(s).

7.

I. It began with acquisitions in information technology and related services sector.

II. In pharmaceuticals, Wockhardt has bought C.P. Pharma of the United Kingdom for S 10.85 million.

III. Tata Tea has taken over Tetley of the UK, the world’s biggest tea bag maker, for $ 430 million.

IV. With the processes, it has become the world’s second largest tea company.

a) II and IV

b) IV only

c) II and III

d) I, II and IV.
8.

I. There are two main reasons for that predatory mood.

II. Having established a domestic presence, the component-makers are now looking for an international
presence.

III. Second, having improved their productivity, quality and reliability, Indian companies feel more
confident about spreading their wings abroad.

IV. Various other factors are being attributed to this Indian penchant for the takeover game in all
sectors.

a) I only

b) I and II

c) II only

d) III and IV.

9.

I. Moving one by one step away from the expected with the graphics and photography can also create
reader’s interest.

II. Try using a conceptual image or photo to highlight your main message versus very first thing to come
to mind when thinking about your product or services.

III. Another form of contrast is in the actual design.

IV. An unusual fold in a brochure or direct mail piece can add excitement.

a) I and II

b) II and III

c) I and IV

d) No error.

10.

I. The typeface that you choose for your print project is an important piece of the foremost overall
design process.

II. First, narrow down your choice by selecting the tone you want to present.

III. Typefaces can convey personality.

IV. For instance, if you are in the banking industry you might choose a classic serif font, such as
Garamond, to convey dependability,

a) I only

b) II only

c) III only

d) IV only.

11.

I. Readability is crucial.

II. Be sure of the font we choose is legible and logical.

III. With all of the newest and interesting typefaces available today, it is tempting to pick one that you
think looks “cool”.

IV. This can work if you are going for an edgy look that will appeal to a young audience, but your copy
still needs to be easily understood.

a) I and IV

b) II only

c) III only

d) II and III.

Directions (Qs. 12-15): In the following questions, choose the word which is most nearly the same in
meaning to the bold word and mark it in the Answer Sheet.

12. Aberration

a) Deviation

b) Embarrassment

c) Abhorrence

d) Absence.

13. Potpourri

a) Medley

b) Dose
c) Weird

d) Overabundance.

14. Imposture

a) Claim

b) Status

c) Destruction

d) Deception.

15. Parley

a) Discuss

b) Deliver

c) Sweeten

d) Race.

Directions (Qs. 16-19): In the following questions, choose the word which is most nearly the opposite in
meaning to the bold word and mark it in the Answer Sheet.

16. Protean

a) Versatile

b) Amateur

c) Dull

d) Cautious.

17. Predilection

a) Antipathy

b) Ignorance

c) Dissonance

d) Disharmony.

18. Impalpable

a) Visible
b) Audible

c) Tangible

d) Fearless.

19. Parochial

a) Dogmatic

b) Dominant

c) Cosmopolitan

d) Niggardly.

Directions (Qs. 20-32): Fill in the blanks.

20. The event passed……….without any untoward incident

a) of

b) on

c) off

d) away.

21. Please give me………to drink

a) little water

b) a little water

c) any water

d) some water.

22. Her true feelings manifested themselves in her sarcastic asides; only then was her…….revealed.

a) sweetness

b) bitterness

c) anxiety

d) charm.
23. The tapeworm is an example of………..organism, one that lives within or on another creature,
deriving some or all its nutrients from its host.

a) a protozoan

b) a parasite

c) a hospitable

d) an autonomous.

24. While the disease is in a latent state it is almost impossible to determine its existence by

a) observation

b) analysis

c) examination

d) estimate.

25. Language, culture and personality may be considered independently of each other in thought, but
they are………in fact

a) pervasive

b) inseparable

c) autonomous

d) immutable.

26. The country is ushering………a new era.

a) into

b) in

c) of

d) over.

27. He is a traitor……….the country.

a) for

b) to

c) in
d) of.

28. There is no culture in the world…….absolutely pure

a) that which is into

b) that be

c) that is

d) that what is.

29. He led me………..the green lawn to the palatial building.

a) upon

b) across

c) along

d) on.

30. The lease of our premises has……….and we have to vacate it.

a) run out

b) run off

c) run over

d) run down.

31. His boss………an explanation of his conduct with his colleagues

a) called up

b) called upon

c) called for

d) called off.

32. He…………his departure for a week as his mother was not well.

a) put off

b) put up

c) put out
d) put aside.

Directions (Qs. 33-35): In this section, each passage consists of five sentences. The first sentence is given
in the beginning. The four sentences in each passage have been jumbled up. These are labelled P, Q, R
and S. You are required to find out the proper sequence of the four sentences and mark accordingly on
the Answer Sheet.

33. S₁: A suicide bomber killed 18 people near a hospital of Baghdad, keeping violence on the boil after
Iraq’s landmark election and ahead of an important Shia religious ceremony.

P: The bomber drove his vehicle towards local government offices and a hospital in the town, but
detonated it outside blast walls protecting buildings.

Q: Around 25 people were wounded in the attack, the second suicide car bombing in as many days.

R: “Looking at the partial result, it appears the Sistani list will have over 50% and Kurdish parties will
come second,” said a Sunni politician.

S: Meanwhile, the two electoral power houses representing Iraq’s Shia and Kurdish communities are
poised to clinch the country’s two top jobs, with results from the landmark January 30 polls expected
anytime.

The proper sequence should be

a) SRPQ

b) SQPR

c) PQSR

d) Q P S R.

34. S₁: It should be noted that Lenin, being the head of the government, held no official posts in the
Party Central Committee, but presided over sessions of the Central Committee plenary meetings and
also of the Political Bureau.

P: In performing his party duties, he was assisted by a secretary of the Central Committee, or the head
of the Secretariat,

Q Officially, such a post did not exist at the time, but in practice one of the secretaries was expected to
supervise the work of the Secretariat.

R: That being the case, Lenin not only headed the Council of People’s commissars, but was also the de
facto leader of the Party’s Central Committee.

S: When Lenin’s health deteriorated, the question arose of strengthening the secretariat and an
authoritative leader has to be found who could supervise Party’s affairs in Lenin’s absence.
The proper sequence should be

a) P Q R S

b) SRPQ

c) SQPR

d) R P Q S.

35. S₁: There is nothing in the world more fascinating than watching a child grow and develop,

P: At first you think of it as just a matter of growing bigger.

Q Then, as the infant begins to do things, you may think of it as “learning tricks”.

R: In some ways; the development of each child retraces the whole history of the human race, physically
and spiritually, step by step

S: But, it’s really more complicated and full of meaning than that.

The proper sequence should be

a) PQSR

b) RPQS

c) P Q R S

d) RPSQ.

SECTION II- GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

36. The sun reaches its maximum angular distance from the equator at the

a) zenith

b) solstice

c) equinox

d) noon time.

37. The difference in the duration of day and night increases as one move from

a) West to East

b) East and West of the prime meridian

c) Poles to equator

d) Equator to poles.

38. When can one record the lowest temperature of air?

a) Just before sunrise

b) At midnight

c) At 3 a.m.

d) At sunrise.

39. What is the difference between a geyser and a hot spring?

a) Water is ejected explosively in a geyser

b) Water from a geyser may be cold

c) Geysers are formed on volcanic mountains

d) Geysers are more common in cold countries.

40. Sher Shah is well-known for his administrative skill, especially his

a) Market control steps

b) Land revenue system

c) Mansabdari system

d) Law and order.

41. A monument resembling Taj Mahal was created by Aurangzeb in

a) Ahmedabad

b) Aurangabad

c) Hoshangabad

d) Daulatabad.

42. The maximum work in popularising female education in the nineteenth century was done by

a) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar

b) J.E.D. Bethune
c) D.K. Karve

d) Raja Ram Mohan Roy.

43. The most learned ruler of the Delhi Sultanate who was well versed in various branches of learning
including Astronomy, Mathematics and Medicine was

a) Iltutmish

b) Alauddin Khalji

c) Muhammad Bin Tughlaq

d) Sikandar Lodhi.

44. Permanent Settlement was introduced to

a) help the ryots

b) earn a fixed and regular revenue

c) help the landlords

d) improve the prospects of agriculture.

45. Who is, presently, the Director of the National Judicial Academy?

a) Prof. N.R. Madhava Menon

b) Dr. Balram K. Gupta

c) Prof. M.P. Singh

d) Prof. K.N. Chandrasekharan Pillai.

46. Which of the following is/are listed among the Directive Principles in Part IV of the Constitution of
India?

I. Equal pay for equal work

II. Uniform Civil Code

III. Small family norm

IV. Education through mother tongue at primary level

a) I, II and III

b) I and II
c) II and III

d) I, II and IV.

47. Who decides whether a Member of Parliament is subject to any disqualification?

a) President

b) Speaker

c) Election Commissioner

d) None of the above.

48. The 9th Postal Zone of India covers

a) Andhra Pradesh

b) Army Post Office

c) Goa

d) Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

49. Regarding No-Confidence Motion

a) it is expressed against an individual minister or council of ministers

b) no grounds have to be set out for the motion

c) not less than 100 members have to support it for the Speaker to grant leave for its introduction

d) it is always brought against the Prime Minister.

50. Who is responsible for the registration of voters in India?

a) Government

b) Voters

c) Political parties

d) Election Commission.

51. The term fiscal deficit means

a) total receipts minus expenditure

b) total receipts minus interest payments on external debt

c) revenue receipts minus expenditure

d) revenue receipts minus defence expenditure.

52. The functions of the Reserve Bank of India are

I. issuing all notes and coins

II. distributing all notes and coins

III. formulating monetary policy

IV. acting as agent of government in respect of India’s membership of the IMF

a) I, II and III

b) II and III

c) II, III and IV

d) I, II, III and IV.

53. What do you understand by Bear Raid?

a) An attempt to bring down the price of strong short selling

b) Simultaneous buying of shares and debentures in view of getting more values in near future

c) Higher rate of price paid for particular government share or debentures

d) Any of the above.

54. The foreign exchange reserves of India include

a) Gold

b) SDRs

c) Foreign currencies

d) All of these.

55. Among the remedies of inflation, we cannot include

a) better capacity utilisation

b) lowering bank rate

c) inducing budgetary deficit

d) an efficient public distribution system.

56. Which one of the following is the most effective carrier of communications?

a) Cables

b) Radio waves

c) Microwaves

d) Optical fibres.

57. Which one of the following compounds is used as a sedative?

a) Potassium Bromide

b) Calcium Chloride

c) Ethyl Alcohol

d) Phosphorus Trichloride.

58. In a fire siren, a jet of air is directed against a series of evenly spaced holes in a rotating disc. As the
disc speeds up, the tone

a) maintains constant pitch

b) drops in pitch

c) increases in wavelength

d) increases in frequency.

59. After death, the

I. arteries are usually empty of blood

II. blood in arteries clots

III. veins are empty of blood

IV. veins are full of clots

a) I and II

b) I only

c) I and IV

d) III only.
60. A victim of a road accident is unconscious. Put in correct order the steps in First-Aid,

I. Treating for cardiac arrest

II. Treating for asphyxia

III. Treating for shock

IV. Arrest Haemorrhage

V. Cleanse and cover wounds.

a) I, II, III, IV, V

b) II, I, IV, III, V

c) II, III, I, IV, V

d) V, II, I, III, IV.

61. Which one of the following international organisations does India disapprove of?

a) ASEAN

b) NATO

c) FAO

d) OPEC.

62. Which space agency released surprising pictures of the remains of huge river which ran across Mars
at some point of time on January 17, 2013?

a) NASA

b) European Space Agency

c) Australian Space Agency

d) ISRO.

63. Name the Indian woman weight-lifter who in January 2013 won Maiden National Title in National
Weightlifting Championship, 2013.

a) Binitha Devi

b) Amanpreet Kaur

c) Manpreet Kaur
d) Kamam Malleswari.

64. Which of the following Indian company got the top rank among Indian companies in Top 500
companies list of Fortune India?

a) Indian Oil Corporation

b) ONGC

c) RIL

d) SAIL.

65. The Report of Transparency International India released in December, 2012 places India at
…………rank among 176 nations on the basis of Corruption Percentage Index.

a) 93rd

b) 94th

c) 95 th

d) 96th.

66. Who is crowned as Pond’s Femina Ms. India, 2013?

a) Zoya Afroz

b) Sobhita Dhulipala

c) Navneet Kaur Dhillon

d) Anukriti Gusain.

67. Which Hindi film was awarded 60th National Film Award, 2013 for Best Feature Film?

a) Paan Singh Tomar

b) Barfi

c) Gangs of Wasseypur

d) Vicky Donor.

68. Who is elected as the 266th Pope of the Roman Catholic Church at Rome in March, 2013?

a) John Paul I

b) John Paul II
c) Benedict XVI

d) Francis.

69. Which country joined WTO in August 2012?

a) Russia

b) Belgium

c) Turkey

d) Taiwan.

70. Which of the following are included in the definition of Sexual Harassment under the new Sexual
Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redresal) Bill?

a) Physical contact and advances

b) Demand or request for sexual favours

c) Making sexually coloured remarks

d) All of the above.

SECTION III- LEGAL REASONING

Directions (Qs. 71-85): Given below is a statement of legal principle followed by a factual situation.
Apply the principle to the facts given below and select the most appropriate answer.

71. LEGAL PRINCIPLE: If a person brings anything dangerous on his land which may prove harmful if
escapes, then that person must keep it at his peril. If a man fails to do so then he must be made
responsible to all natural consequences of its escape.

FACTUAL SITUATION: A grows poisonous trees on his own land and lets the projection of the branches of
his trees on the B’s land. B’s cattle die because of nibbing the’ poisonous leaves.

DECISION:

a) A is not liable to B because B must have taken due care to control his cattle

b) A is not liable to B because trees are still on A’s land and there is no escape of dangerous thing

c) A is liable to B because projection of branches with poisonous leaves amounts to escape

d) A is not liable to B because he is not acting negligently.

72. LEGAL PRINCIPLE: Master/Principal is vicariously liable for the tort committed by an servant/agent,
in the performance of his duties an servant/agent.

FACTUAL SITUATION: -4 gave come cash and cheques to his friend B, who was an employee of the Stale
Bank of India, to deposit the same in that Bank in the account of A. B misappropriated the amount. If A
sues the Bank for damages, then the Bank is

DECISIONS:

a) Liable to pay because it was the employer of B

b) Liable to pay because the employee did it during business hours and while working as an employee

c) Not liable because he turned out to be the friend of the plaintiff’s husband

d) Not liable because while committing the fraud, he was not acting as the agent or employee of the
Bank.

73. LEGAL PRINCIPLE: Master/Principal is vicariously liable for the tort committed by an servant/agent,
in the performance of his duties as an servant/agent.

FACTUAL SITUATION: The plaintiff a bullion merchant was arrested by the police on a charge of
purchasing stolen goods. Some of the gold and silver ornaments were seized from the plaintiff and were
kept in the police station custody. The duty constable appropriated the gold ornaments and escaped to
a foreign country. The plaintiff after being acquitted brought an action against the State for the
compensation. In this case, compensation is

DECISION:

a) Payable as there is misappropriation by the servants of the State

b) Payable due to the fact that police constable has escaped to a foreign country

c) Payable by the police constable himself and not by the State

d) Not payable as the act was committed in discharge of sovereign function.

74. LEGAL PRINCIPLES:

1. Joint tort-feasers means joint wrong¬doers. People can be joint tort-feasors in case of common
action, in fact or in law.

2. Joint tort-feasers are jointly and severally liable

FACTUAL SITUATION: Two dogs belonging to two different owners acting in concert attacked a flock of
sheep and injured several sheeps. In an action for damages brought against the owners of the dogs, if
one of them puts a defence claiming that he was liable for one half only of the damage, then which one
of the following statements is legally sustainable in the above case?
DECISION:

a) Neither of the owners is liable for damages done by his dog

b) Each owner was responsible for one half of the damage

c) The owners themselves are not joint tort-feasers

d) None of the above.

75. LEGAL PRINCIPLES:

1. Negligence is the omission to do something which a reasonable man, guided upon those
considerations which ordinarily regulate the conduct of human affairs, would do or doing something
which a prudent or reasonable man would not do.

2. Defendant’s duty of care depends on the reasonable foreseeability of injury which may be caused to
the plaintiff on breach of duty.

FACTUAL SITUATION: The defendants employees of the Municipal Corporation opened a manhole in the
street and in the evening left the manhole open and covered it by a canvass shelter, unattended and
surrounded by warning lamps. The plaintiff, an eight years old boy, took one of the lamps into the
shelter and was playing with it there, when he stumbled over it and fell into the manhole. A violent
explosion followed and the plaintiff suffered bum injuries. The defendants are

DECISION:

a) Not liable because the injury to plaintiff is not foreseeable

b) Liable because they should have completed the work before they left

c) Not liable because they acted reasonably

d) Liable because they acted unreasonably.

76. LEGAL PRINCIPLES:

1. Master/Principal is vicariously liable for the tort committed by an servant/ agent, in the performance
of his duties as an servant/agent.

2. Negligence is the omission to do something which a reasonable man, guided upon those
considerations which ordinarily regulate the conduct of human affairs, would do or doing something
which a prudent or reasonable man would not do.

FACTUAL SITUATION: A patient is brought to a hospital maintained by B. The patient is to be operated

upon. As a result of faulty oxygen supply, the patient dies on the operation theatre table, then

DECISION:
a) B would not be liable because the surgeon was negligent

b) B would be liable because there is master and servant relationship between B and the surgeon

c) B would not be liable because there is no master and servant relationship between B and the surgeon

d) B would not be vicariously liable because surgery is a highly skilled work on which B would have no
control.

77. LEGAL PRINCIPLE: Defamation means publication of a false and derogatory statement about another
person without lawful justification.

FACTUAL SITUATION: A writes a defamatory letter to B containing defamatory remarks in reference of B

in Urdu language. A is aware that B does not know Urdu. B goes to C who knows Urdu and the letter is
read over by C to him. B sues A for defamation.

DECISION:

a) A is liable

b) A is not liable because he addresses the letter to B and not to C

c) A is not liable because there is no publication of defamatory statement

d) A is not liable because he is unaware that the letter can be read over by someone else to B

78. LEGAL PRINCIPLES: A private nuisance may consist of:

1. Any interference with a person’s use or enjoyment of land.

2. The act of wrongfully causing or allowing the escape of deletorious things into another person’s land
e.g. water, smoke, smell, etc.

FACTUAL SITUATION: D erected a brick grinding machine adjoining the premises of P, a medical
practitioner. The dust from the machine polluted the atmosphere and caused inconvenience to P and his
patients. Here

DECISION:

a) P cannot stop D because D is carrying on lawful business

b) D has fundamental right to carry on any kind of business

c) P can claim compensation because D’s activity amounts to nuisance for P

d) D can claim compensation from P because P is trying to maliciously prosecute D.

79. LEGAL PRINCIPLE: False imprisonment is the confinement of a person without just cause or excuse.
There must be a total restraint of the person and the onus of proving reasonable cause is on the
defendant.

FACTUAL SITUATION: A entered in B’s park where there was an artificial lake for the boating. A paid Rs.
100 for entering the park and has to pay Rs. 100 at the time of exit. A waited for .30 minutes but no boat
was available. A came out, however, denied to pay Rs. 100 for exit, B did not allow A to leave the park
unless he paid Rs. 100 for exist. A sued B for false imprisonment.

DECISION:

a) B is guilty of false imprisonment

b) B is not guilty of false imprisonment

c) A can lawfully refuse to pay Rs. 100 when no boat was available

d) A can ask for even Rs. 100 given for entering the park as B’s services are deficient in the park and can
sue B for false imprisonment.

80. LEGAL PRINCIPLES: In a suit for malicious prosecution, the plaintiff must prove the following
essentials:

1. That he was prosecuted by the defendant.

2. That the proceeding complained was terminated in favour of the present plaintiff.

3. That the prosecution was instituted against him without any just or reasonable cause.

4. That the prosecution was instituted with a malicious intention, that is, not with the mere intention of
getting the law into effect, but with an intention, which was wrongful in fact.

5. That he suffered damage to his reputation or to the safety of person, or to security of his property.

FACTUAL SITUATION: A recovered a large sum of money from Railway Co. for personal injuries.
Subsequently, Railway Co. came to know that injuries were not real and were created by doctor B.
Railway Co. prosecuted B for playing fraud on the company, but B was acquitted. B sued Railway Co. for
malicious prosecution. In the light of these facts which of the following statements is true?

DECISION:

a) Railway Co. is guilty of malicious prosecution because it acted without reasonable cause

b) Railway Co. is not guilty of malicious prosecution because the Co. took reasonable care in determining
the facts and honestly believed them to be true

c) Railway Co. is liable because it acted negligently

d) None of the above.

81. LEGAL PRINCIPLE: Attempt is an act done with an intent to commit crime, and forming part of the
series of acts which would constitute actual commission of the crime, if not interrupted.

FACTUAL SITUATION: A intending to murder B by poison purchases poison and mixes the same with a
glass of water. He gave to the bearer to serve B. The bearer while approaching B, loses the balance and
the glass drops out of his tray. DECISION:

a) A has not committed any offence

b) A has committed the offence of murder

c) A has committed the offence of attempt to murder

d) A has not committed an offence of attempt to murder because nothing happened to B.

82. LEGAL PRINCIPLES:

1. The concept of joint liability comes under section 34 of IPC which states that “when a criminal act is
done by several persons, in furtherance of the common intention of all, each of such persons is liable for
that act in the same manner as if it were done by him alone.”

2. A person abets an offence, who abets either the commission of an offence, or the commission of an
act which would be an offence, if committed by a person capable by law of committing an offence with
the same intention or knowledge as that of the abettor.

3. A criminal conspiracy takes place when two or more people get together and plan to commit a crime
and then take some action toward carrying out that plan. The action taken does not have to be a crime
itself to further the conspiracy.

FACTUAL SITUATION: X and Y conspire to poison Z. X in pursuance of the conspiracy procures the poison
and delivers it to Y in order that he may administer; it to Z. Y in pursuance of the conspiracy, administer
the poison in the presence of X and thereby causes Z’s death. What offences X and Y have committed?

DECISION:

a) Y’s has committed the offence of murder and X was an abettor

b) Both X and Y have committed the offence of criminal conspiracy

c) X has not committed any offence

d) Both X and Y have committed the offence of murder.

83. LEGAL PRINCIPLES:

1. Whoever, intending to take dishonestly any movable property out of the possession of any person
without that person’s consent, moves that property in order to such taking, is said to commit theft.

2. Whoever dishonestly misappropriates or converts to his own use any movable property, shall be
punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to two years, or with
fine, or with both.

FACTUAL SITUATION: A takes umbrella belonging to Z out of Z’s possession in good faith, believing at the
time when he took it, that the property belongs to himself. His wife points out after some days that the
umbrella does not belong to them but to Z. After coming to know that, A dishonestly keeps the
umbrella.

DECISION:

a) A is guilty of criminal misappropriation

b) A is guilty of criminal breach of trust

c) A is guilty of theft

d) Both A and his wife are guilty of criminal misappropriation.

84. LEGAL PRINCIPLE: When at the desire of the promisor, the promisee had done or abstained from
doing, or does or abstains from doing, or promises to do or abstain something, such an act or abstinence
or promise is called consideration for the promise.

FACTUAL SITUATION: A daughter promises to give maintenance to her uncle in consideration of her
mother making a gift of certain properties to her. The daughter pleas lack of consideration when the
uncle seeks to enforce the contract. She says that the uncle is a stranger to the consideration and so he
cannot enforce the contract. The daughter

DECISION:

a) Will succeed because uncle being a stranger to the consideration cannot enforce it

b) Will not succeed because uncle is a near relative and in such cases consideration is not necessary

c) Cannot succeed because consideration might move from any person

d) None of the above.

85. LEGAL PRINCIPLES:

1. Parties to contract should be capable of entering in to contract, only then they can lay the foundation
of a valid contract.

2. Every person is competent to contract who is of the age of majority,

FACTUAL SITUATION: A minor agreed with B to become a tenant of his house and to pay Rs, 1,000 for
the furniture therein. He paid Rs. 800 in cash and gave a promissory note for the balance. A occupied
the premises and used the furniture for some months and then brought an action for refund of
consideration, in this case

DECISION:

1. A is liable to pay Rs. 1,000

2. Ais liable to pay remaining Rs. 200

3. A is liable to refund of Rs. 800

4. Neither B is liable to refund Rs. 800 nor A is under obligation to pay Rs. 200.

86. “Begar” means

a) Voluntary work without payment

b) Involuntary work without pavment

c) Involuntary work with payment

d) Voluntary work with pavment.

87. In India, the reckoning date for the determination of the age of the juvenile is the

a) date of offence

b) date of trial

c) date of judgment

d) date of arrest.

88. Which of the following rights is not available to the citizens of India under Article 21 of the
Constitution?

a) Right to Privacy

b) Right to Die

c) Right to Health and Medical Assistance

d) Right to Get Pollution-free Water and Air.

89. The “Eco-mark” is given by the Ministry of Environment and Forest to the consumer products which

a) are degradable
b) are environment-friendly

c) conform to the standards of ISI

d) are electricity saver.

90. The EIA is abbreviated form of

a) Environment Impact Assessment

b) Environment Implementation Arrangement

c) Environment Impact Apparatus

d) Environmental Institute of Awareness.

91. ……….was the leader of “Chipko Movement”.

a) Medha Patkar

b) Subhash Gheising

c) Balasaheb Doeras

d) Sunderlal Bahuguna.

92. When two persons descend from a common ancestor but by different wives they are said to be
related to each other by

a) Sapinda relationship

b) Half blood

c) Full blood

d) None of the above.

93. “Pacta sunt Servanda” means that

a) The States are not bound to respect the agreements entered into by them

b) The agreements entered into by the States will be respected and followed by them in good faith

c) The States are under no obligation to follow the agreements in good faith

d) Though the States are bound to recognise an agreement entered into by them but cannot be
compelled to follow it.
94. An offence of breaking a divine idol

a) Blasphemy

b) Salus populi

c) Crime

d) Sacrilege.

95. What is Plea Bargaining?

a) A conference between opposing lawyers and judge to determine the time a case should take place

b) A procedure by which an accused pleads guilty in exchange for a lesser punishment

c) A conference between opposing lawyers to settle the claim

d) A conference between the victim and the accused to settle the claim.

96. The act by members of a trade union, persuading others not to work is called as

a) Non-cooperation

b) Picketing

c) Sit-in-strike

d) Strike.

97. In India, cyber terrorism is an offence punishable under

a) Information Technology Act

b) POTA

c) TADA

d) Indian Penal Code.

98. When a judge makes certain remarks in the course of his judgment, which are said “by the way” and
do not have direct bearing on the facts at hand, such remarks are called

a) Ratio Decidendi

b) Obiter Dictum

c) Observations

d) Comments ordinaralis.
99. In Extradition Treaty, extradition means

a) Order of Indian Court will apply to Indian living elsewhere than India

b) Export without double taxation

c) Two countries will deport criminal on reciprocal basis to each other

d) None of the above.

100. Who is the Chairperson of the 20th Law Commission of India?

a) Justice Altmas Kabir

b) Justice P.V. Reddy

c) Justice A.R. Lakshmanan

d) Justice D.K. Jain.

101. ……..of the Constitution of India lays down that Union of India and the States are juristic person and
can sue and be sued.

a) Article 225

b) Article 268

c) Article 300

d) Article 348.

102. A post-dated cheque bears…….date.

a) past

b) no

c) future

d) present.

103. According to the Doctrine of every……..generation is obliged to preserve its natural and cultural
heritage for the enjoyment of the future generations.

a) Sustainable development

b) Polluter pay principle

c) Precautionary principle
d) Inter-generational equity.

104. Which of the following is not recommended by the Justice Verma Committee?

a) Minimum sentence for a rapist should be enhanced from 7 years to 10 years

b) The age of juvenile should not be lowered from 18 to 16 years

c) Life imprisonment must always mean jail for “the entire natural life of the convict”

d) Death sentence for “rarest of rare cases” of rape.

105. High Courts has been constituted in all these States in January, 2013 except

a) Assam

b) Meghalaya

c) Manipur

d) Tripura.

SECTION IV- LOGICAL REASONING

106. Information that is published is part of the public record. But information that a reporter collects,
and sources that he contacts, must be protected in order for our free press to function free of fear. The
above argument is most severely weakened by which one of the following statements?

a) Public information is usually reliable

b) Undocumented evidence may be used to convict an innocent person

c) Members of the press act ethically in most cases

d) The sources that a reporter contacts are usually willing to divulge their identity.

107. Psychological novels are superior to novels of adventure. Immature readers prefer novels of
adventure to novels with less action and greater psychological depth. The immature reader, who prefers
James Bond’s exploits to the subtleties of Henry James, can be identified easily by his choice of inferior
reading matter.

A criticism of the logic of this argument would be likely to find fault with the author’s

a) Presupposing the conclusions he wishes to prove

b) Failure to define “adventure” clearly

c) Failure to cite possible exceptions to this rule

d) Hasty generalisation on the basis of a limited specific case.

108. Many very effective prescription drugs are available to patients on a “one time only” basis.
Suspicious of drug abuse, physicians will not renew a prescription for a medicine that has worked
effectively for a patient. This practice denies a patient her right to health. Which one of the following is a
basic assumption made by the author?

a) A new type of medicine is likely to be more expensive

b) Physicians are not concerned with a patient’s health

c) Most physicians prescribe inadequate amounts of medicine

d) Patients are liable to suffer the same ailment repeatedly.

109. Vijay claimed that the large dent in the fender of the company-owned vehicle he had borrowed was
caused by the careless act of another motorist, who backed into the car when it was parked in a public
garage. Yet Vijay’s own car has several dents in its fenders, all of which he acknowledges as having
caused by his own careless driving. Therefore, Vijay’s contention that the dent in the formerly undented
company-owned vehicle was caused by the careless act of another person is not true.

The reasoning in this argument is vulnerable because it

a) Fails to recognise that Vijay could be lying about the dents in his own vehicle

b) Fails to recognise that the motorist who backed into him simply did not see him

c) Fails to acknowledge that many such accidents occur in parking garages

d) Presumes, without justification, that because Vijay has caused similar dents to his own car, he caused
the dent in the company car.

110. It takes a good telescope to see the moons of Neptune. I can’t see the moons of Neptune with my
telescope, Therefore, I do not have a good telescope.

Which one of the following most closely parallels the logic of this Statement?

a) It takes two to tango. You are doing the tango. Therefore, you have a partner

b) If you have a surfboard, you can surf. You do not have a surfboard. Therefore, you cannot surf

c) You can write a letter to your friend with a pencil. You do not have a pencil. Therefore, you cannot
write the letter

d) If you know the area of a circle, you can find its circumference. You cannot figure out the
circumference. Therefore, you do not know the area.
Directions (Qs. 111-114): In each question below is given statement followed by two assumptions
numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the
statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the
statement, Mark answer:

a) If only I assumption is implicit

b) If only assumption II is implicit

c) If neither I nor II is implicit; and

d) If both I and II are implicit.

111. Statement: As poor people in India prefer and use jaggery rather than sugar, the government has
decided to decontrol and scrap sugar distribution through Public Distribution System (PDS).

Assumption

I. Jaggery is freely available at reasonable price to all poor people.

II. PDS has lost its utility.

112. Statement : Unless country ‘X’ achieves total literacy, it cannot achieve its mission of development.

Assumption

I. It is possible to achieve total literacy in country ‘X’.

II. No development is possible without a proper mission.

113. Statement : Many species of animals on our earth are still not studied scientifically and if we do not
do this work urgently, many species will face extinction.

Assumption

I. Earth may lose all types of life very shortly.

II. It is desirable and possible to study scientifically many animal species.

114. Statement: Herbs can safely be used for treating diseases of human beings.

Assumption

I. Herbs cannot be used for treating diseases of animals.

II. Herbal treatment is getting popular.

Directions (Qs. 115-120): Each group of questions is based on a set of conditions. Choose the response
that most accurately and completely answers each question.

At the snack cafe at a party, Ali, Bina, Champak and Diva are eating cookies. There are five kinds of
cookies to choose from – chocolate chip cookies, oatmeal cookies, sugar cookies, peanut butter cookies
and raisin cookies. Each of these four people eats at least two kinds of cookies. Their choices are
governed by the following rules:

At most two of them eat oatmeal cookies At least two of them eat sugar cookies Ali does not eat any
sugar cookies Bina and Champak do not eat the same type of cookies

Bina eats chocolate chip cookies

Champak eats sugar cookies

No one eats both raisin cookies and sugar cookies

If someone eats raisin cookies, they also eat peanut butter cookies

115. Which one of the following must be true?

a) Champak eats chocolate chip cookies

b) Ali eats chocolate chip cookies

c) Bina does not eat peanut butter cookies

d) Diya does not eat raisin cookies.

116. If Bina eats exactly three kinds of cookies, which one of the following must be true?

a) Champak eats exactly three kinds of cookies

b) Diya eats only sugar cookies

c) If Ali eats oatmeal cookies, Diya eats oatmeal cookies

d) Champak eats oatmeal cookies.

117. Which one of the following cannot be true?

a) No one eats raisin cookies

b) Ali and Diya both eat oatmeal cookies

c) Ali and Diya both eat chocolate chip cookies

d) Bina and Champak eat the same number of kinds of cookies.

118. Which pair of cookie types could each be eaten by at least three different people?

a) Chocolate chip and oatmeal

b) Oatmeal and peanut butter

c) Chocolate chip and peanut butter

d) Oatmeal and sugar.

119. Which pair of cookie types contains a cookie type eaten by exactly two different people?

a) Chocolate chip and oatmeal

b) Oatmeal and peanut butter

c) Chocolate chip and peanut butter

d) Sugar and raisin.

120. Which cookie type could be eaten by none of the people?

a) Chocolate chip

b) Oatmeal

c) Sugar

d) Raisin.

Directions: Read the following directions and answer the questions 121 to 123.

Sunita, Rahul and Suraj are children of Mrs. and Mr. Ahuja. Rani, Rohan and Shyam are children of Mrs.
and Mr. Malik. Shyam and Sunita are married and Arjun and Sohan are their children. Gunjan and
Romesh are children of Mrs. and Mr. Gandhi. Gunjan is married to Suraj and has three children named
Rupali, Sonu and Ravi.

121. How is Rahul related to Arjun?

a) Brother-in-law

b) Cousin

c) Uncle

d) Maternal uncle.
122. Rani is Sohan’s

a) Niece

b) Sister

c) Aunt

d) Sister-in-law.

123. Shyam and Suraj are related as

a) Brother-in-law

b) Cousin

c) Brother

d) Nephew.

124. Shyam travels 5-km towards East and turns left and moves 6-km further. He then turns right and
moves 9-km. Finally, he turns once again to his right and moves 6-km. How far is he from the starting
point?

a) 26 km

b) 21 km

c) 14 km

d) 9 km.

125. Reaching a place of appointment on Friday, I found that I was two days earlier than the scheduled
day. If I had reached on the following Wednesday, how many days late would I have been?

a) One day

b) Two days

c) Three days

d) Four days.

126. X was bom on March 6, 1993. The same year Independence Day was celebrated on Friday. Find out
the birth day of X.

a) Thursday

b) Saturday
c) Friday

d) Wednesday.

127. Kamala would like to complete all her home work before 10 p.m. in order to watch an important TV
programme. She has 40 minutes’ assignment in each of her five subjects. What is the latest time at
which she can start and still complete work in time for the programme?

a) 6.40 p.m.

b) 6.30 p.m.

c) 7.10 p.m.

d) 7.20 p.m.

Direction: In the following number series (Qs. 128-131) only one number is wrong. Find out that
number:

128. 21, 28, 33, 35, 37, 36

a) 33

b) 35

c) 21

d) 36.

129. 5, 13, 29, 61, 120, 253

a) 61

b) 29

c) 120

d) 253.

130. 0, 7, 28, 63, 124, 215

a) 7

b) 63

c) 28

d) 215.

131. 9, 19, 40, 83, 170, 340

a) 340

b) 170

c) 83

d) 40.

132. In a certain code, TEAMWORK is written as NBFUJQNV and SOME is written as PTDL. How is
PERSON written in that code?

a) QDOOPT

b) QDOMNR

c) SFQMNR

d) SFQOPT.

133. In certain code, BASKET is written as 5$3%#1 and TRIED is written as 14*#2. How is SKIRT written in
that code?

a) 370*41

b) 3*%41

c) 3%#41

d) 3#4%1.

134. Eagle : Swoops :: Duck 😕

a) Swims

b) Flits

c) Waddles

d) Floats.

135. APPLE : 50 :: ORANGE 😕

a) 61

b) 63

c) 60

d) 69.
Directions: In (Qs. 136 to 140), a particular word is given. The word is followed by four words as given in
the alternatives. One of these four words cannot be formed by using the letters given in the question.

136. ENTHUSIASTICALLY

a) SATIATE

b) HELMINTH

c) SHALE

d) TANTALUS.

137. CONCENTRATE

a) CENTRE

b) CONCERN

c) REASON

d) TREAT.

138. INTRANSIGENT

a) STAIN

b) GRATE

c) TRACE

d) RESIGN.

139. PERPETUATION

a) REPUTE

b) RETAIN

c) PIPETTE

d) PENANCE.

140. ESTRANGEMENT

a) ENTANGLE

b) ENTREAT

c) GERMAN
d) TANGENT.

SECTION V- MATHEMATICAL ABILITY

141. The difference between the number of numbers from 2 to 100 which are not divisible by any other
number except 1 and itself and the numbers which are divisible by atleast one more number along with
one and itself.

a) 25

b) 50

c) 49

d) none of these.

142. The average of three prime numbers lying between 47 and 74 is 191/3. The greatest possible sum
between any two out of the 3 prime numbers is

a) 120

b) 138

c) 132

d) 136.

143. Divya purchased 6 mangoes, 10 oranges and 5 apples for a certain amount. With 40% less amount
Anu could purchase 3 mangoes, 5 oranges and 4 apples. What percentage of the total amount did Divya
spend on apples?

a) 25%

b) 33.333%

c) 40%

d) can’t be determined.

144. Military camp is having the provisions for 300 people consuming 600 grams daily for 75 days. They
are joined by 60 more men and daily ration was reduced by 100 grams. How long will the provisions last
approximately?

a) 61 days

b) 67 days

c) 75 days
d) 88 days.

145. A contractor Abhay Singh employed some men to do a piece of work which can be done by 16 men
in 14 days. At the end of 5 days, 7 of the men stopped working and 3 days later half of the remainder
stopped working; the rest finished the work in 5 days. What is the number of men originally employed?

a) 25

b) 27

c) 29

d) 33.

146. Ram is travelling by car at the rate of 40 kmph. After 80 kms he rests for 20 minutes. How long will
he take to cover a distance of 240 kms?

a) 6 hrs 40 min

b) 6 hrs 11 min

c) 5 hrs 11 min

d) 7 hrs 15 min.

147. There is leak in the bottom of a tank. This leak can empty a full tank in 8 hours. When the tank is
full, a tap is opened into the tank which admits 6 litres per hour and the tank is now emptied in 12
hours. What is the capacity of the tank?

a) 28.8 litres

b) 36 litres

c) 144 litres

d) 145 litres.

148. A and B walk from X to Y, a distance of 27-km at 5-km/hr and 7-km/hr, respectively. B reaches V
and immediately turns back meeting A at Z. What is the distance from X to Z?

a) 25 km

b) 22.5 km

c) 24 km

d) 20 km.
149. Three consecutive positive even numbers are such that thrice the first number exceeds double the
third by 2, the third number is

a) 10

b) 14

c) 16

d) 12.

150. Devendra, a computer accessories vendor gave a discount of 20% on a pen-drive and his profit
reduced from Rs. 200 to Rs. 100. What is Devendra’s cost price?

a) Rs. 300

b) Rs. 200

c) Rs. 400

d) None of these