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Annexures The Unique Academy

Annexure -VII : Prelims 2020 Analysis

by Saurabh kumar and Saureesh Sahai, IFS

(A) Ten observations about Prelims 2020

In this section, we are presenting ten observations about 2020 Prelims with some examples for the same from
the 2020 Paper. For more examples and detailed inputs, kindly solve the 2020 Prelims questions in this book and
refer explanations. In order to optimise the space, only keywords are mentioned with the question number. E.g.
Rakhmabai [32] means the question number 32 in Set A of Prelims 2020 which was based on Rakhmabai case. To
refer the question in detail, get the theme number from section C of this annexure.
It is a humble submission that this book has been authored mainly to help to aspirants strategise their preparation.
Questions solvable directly from previous edition may be mere coincidence, but the discrete approaches suggested
in this book should be the key takeaways and one should not depend solely on this book for content and syllabus
coverage.
(1) The number of questions based on ‘generally unheard terms before the exam’ has increased. However,
many of these could be solved with a smart approach in the exam hall.
33 Interest Coverage Ratio [62], sugarcane bud chip [78] Tensiometer use [90] – All of these could be
completely solved by the smart approach in the exam hall.
33 Rakhmabai case [32] Ocean Mean Temperature [93], Pneumococcal Conjugate Vaccines [45] – 2
options could be eliminated by the smart approach in the exam hall.
(2) More than 40% of the paper consisted of threads to Prelims papers of 2011-19.
33 Parivrajaka and Shramana were incorrect options of the 2016 Prelims question and again made pairs
of question no 46 in Prelims 2020. Knowing the correctness/incorrectness of these two was sufficient
to answer the question.
33 In 2019 Prelims [38], the Siachen glacier and Nubra river was a correct pair. In 2020 Prelims,
knowledge of Siachen Glacier location to the north of Nubra valley is checked.
33 In 2018 Prelims, UPSC asked who established Fort Williams College? In 2020 [34], UPSC asked why
Wellesley established Fort Williams College?
(3) UPSC Prelims has been a balance between concepts and smart work in the exam. However, the share
of questions, which could be fully or partially solved by structured thinking/intelligent guessing, is on
the rise.
33 Chemical fertilizers [94], public investment in agriculture [61], international trade of India [49],
sustainable road construction [78], Kisan Credit Card scheme [66] etc.
33 In fact, 7 out of 11 Agriculture questions in Prelims 2020 could be fully solved by smart skills. Even
the previous edition of the book mentioned ‘Common sense/consistency of statements help more in
this section, reference G26.
(4) 3 Step approach to clear cut off is very well applicable.
The book suggests the following 3 steps for Prelims Preparation. This was very well applicable in Prelims
2020.
33 Cover basic books with an understanding of what to prepare and what to leave. This understanding
will be developed by solving thematic PYQs in this book along with syllabus coverage.
33 Fill up gap areas in preparation through PYQs coverage and Further Suggested Readings. Read more

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about correct/incorrect options and around the question terms. [40+ questions in Prelims 2020 had a
thread with PYQs of 2011-19 and many other question topics were mentioned in Further Suggested
Reading of previous edition e.g. National Policy on Biofuels 84 & G32.]
33 Develop structured thinking and intelligent guessing skills through explanations in this book. Also,
develop exam temperament through inputs in section 3.3 of this book as well as your own learnings
every day. Apply these learnings in the exam hall.
(5) Every paper consists of easy questions, which one should not get wrong at any cost.
33 Of course, Prelims 2020 paper was on a tougher side. But, again it was also having at least 20 questions
which form the foundation of your Prelims score in three digits.
33 Some examples - expansionist monetary policy [57], FDI characteristics [51], immunity to economy
[49], Indigo [33], Indian handicrafts Britishers [23] etc.
(6) A good percentage of correct Polity questions is almost a must for getting good Prelims score.
33 Observe the following questions of Polity. In case, someone gets any one of the following incorrect,
it will be a tougher task to compensate it with a tougher question.
33 Protection against untouchability [4], separation of judiciary [5], Welfare State [12, repeat question of
15/89], RS/LS powers [02], Parliamentary Government [11], DPSP enforceability [18] etc.
(7) Individual papers may look out of turn. But, a holistic view of Prelims over the years draws a story
that could be useful in preparation.
33 At first glance, the Prelims 2020 paper might may look a bit undoable. But, if you prepare thematically,
you will find UPSC had been forming a story from 2011-19 and 2020 Prelims paper was just the next
thread in the story.
33 Example 1 -
○○ Text extract from the previous edition - Typical NCERT static questions have been reduced in
the last few years, and questions from emerging technologies have gained importance in the last
two Prelims with Augmented reality, 3D printing, Digital signature, Internet of Things etc. being
asked.
○○ Observe 2020 paper with questions like Pronuclear Transfer [37], Artificial Intelligence [38],
Blockchain technology [40], Carbon nanotubes [41], Use of drones [42], ELISA [43], Genetic
engineering application [44] etc.
33 Example 2 -
○○ Text extract from the previous edition - G 29 - Agri economics. It is one of the rising themes.
Observe four questions in 2019 Prelims.
○○ In 2020 Prelims also, this was the theme from which highest number of questions were asked.
i.e. 5 questions from a single theme viz. Public investment in agriculture [61], Rice price factor
[63], MSP [69], Pulse production [86], Fertilizers [94] etc.
(8) Solving PYQ and studying around correct/incorrect options help.
33 In 2018, UPSC asked for a recommendation of FRBM for debt to GDP ratio and in 2020 [06], UPSC
asked for a recommendation of FRBM for budget document constituents.
33 In 2018, UPSC asked for the additional protocol under IAEA for giving IAEA safeguards for civil
nuclear reactors. In 2020 [55], UPSC asked why only some reactors are under IAEA safeguards.
33 In 2011, UPSC asked ‘who disburses highest credit to agriculture’ and ‘commercial banks’ was the
correct answer. With the same information, statement 1 could be negated in question number 59 of
Prelims 2020.

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(9) Tough questions are tough for all, but the revision of basic books multiple times help in those tougher
questions also.
33 Question number 97 consisted of 4 pairs with famous places (Bhilsa, Dwarasamudra, Girinagar &
Sthanesvara) and present states. NCERT book - ‘‘Themes in the Indian History’’ contains a map
showing Girnar and in the sidebar, it has been asked to ‘Find Girnar on Map 2’. Also, refer page 68
of ‘‘An Introduction to Indian Arts’’ NCERT, Bhilsa is shown in the same.
33 Hundi [25] and Aurang [21] both were mentioned in the sidebar of the new NCERT
history book, which could help in solving these two questions fully and partially, respectively.
(10) It does not matter how tough the paper was, what matters is the smart study and smart application of mind
in the exam hall. After all, it is a relative exam :
It is the summary of all the above observations. Plan well, monitor your preparations well with the help
of this book, learn from your mistakes and you will be through. The theory of relativity works here :
33 In the preparation stage, just keep yourself aligned and keep improving every day, to be where you
want to be. Check if your approach towards study, concepts etc is getting better relative to the previous
day.
33 In the exam hall, just raise your head once and look around, you will find many perplexed faces.
What will take you through is your exam temperament and calm, composed smart approach relative
to others.

(B) Head-wise division of paper

There are a total of 40 heads in Prelims syllabus. UPSC Prelims paper of 2020 touched a total of 35 heads with
details as below. Head-wise number of questions has been indicated in the respective subject chapters. Following
are some prominent heads which occupied 60% of the paper. They have been arranged in decreasing order to show
their relative importance in Prelims 2020.

Number of Number of
Subject Head
themes questions
Geography 5. Agriculture 5 11
History 5. Modern History 16 8
Science 4. Emerging technologies and research areas 4 7
Polity 1. Schedules, Preamble & Part 3,4,4A 6 5
Polity 7. Philosophical, amendments and judgements 5 5
History 2. Medieval History 4 4
Geography 6. Energy 3 4
Economy 6. External sector 2 4
Environment 2. Environmental problems and solutions 8 4
Environment 6. Species 4 4
Current Affairs 1.  National initiatives 16 4
Total 60

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(C) Thematic division of paper

There are a total of 200 heads in Prelims syllabus. UPSC Prelims paper of 2020 touched a total of 73 themes.
Theme-wise questions have been placed in the respective subject chapters. Following are some prominent themes
which occupied 54% of the paper. They have been arranged in decreasing order to show their relative importance
in Prelims 2020.

Theme No of questions
Theme name
number in Prelims 2020
G29 Agri economics 5
H8 Terminologies and Miscellaneous 4
G26 Good practices 4
H9 Buddhism 3
Eco15 Balance of payment 3
S16 Futuristic technologies 3
Env28 Fauna – Categorization 2
Env29 Fauna – Location 2
H4 Gupta and Post Gupta 2
H26 Personalities Other contributions 2
G31 Fossil based sources 2
G32 Non-fossil based sources 2
P5 Mixed 2
P10 General and Officers of Parliament (Article 79-98) 2
P33 Forms of Government 2
P36 Important judgments 2
Eco13 FDI, FII, Bonds, disinvestment 2
Env11 Chemical/Pollutants Remedy/alternate usage 2
Env18 Legislations 2
Env26 Other Current affairs 2
S13 Genetic Engineering 2
S15 Electronics & IT 2
Total 54

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(D) Prelims 2020 answer key and thematic division

Question Theme   Question Theme Question Theme
Ans Ans Ans
number no number no number no
1 C7 B   36 H17 C 71 H9 B
2 P22 B   37 S13 D 72 Env 29 A
3 C16 D   38 S16 D 73 Env 24 C
4 P2 D   39 S7 C   74 Env 28 A
5 P5 B   40 S16 D   75 Env 29 A
6 Eco 4 D   41 S16 D   76 Env 11 D
7 P33 D   42 S15 D   77 Env 29 A
8 P6 D   43 S6 D   78 Env 11 A
9 P18 A   44 S13 D   79 G31 D
10 Env 13 C   45 S10 B   80 G26 D
11 P33 B   46 C8 A   81 Env 18 A
12 P5 A   47 S3 C   82 H4 A
13 P36 B   48 Env 9 D   83 G26 D
14 C30 A   49 Eco 15 A   84 G32 A
15 P34 D   50 Eco 2 D   85 Env 5 A
16 P36 D   51 Eco 13 B   86 G29 A
17 Eco 16 D   52 Eco 15 D   87 G27 A
18 P3 D   53 G31 A   88 G32 D
19 P10 D   54 Eco 14 D   89 G28 C
20 P10 C   55 C24 B   90 G26 D
21 H8 B 56 C20 C 91 G26 C
22 H9 B 57 Eco 8 B 92 G36 D
23 H29 A 58 Eco 1 B 93 G8 B
24 H8 C 59 Eco 12 B 94 G29 B
25 H8 C 60 S15 B 95 Env 26 C
26 H26 A 61 G29 C 96 G19 D
27 H23 B 62 Eco 10 A 97 H8 A
28 H26 A 63 G29 D 98 Env 18 B
29 H4 A 64 Eco 15 B 99 G6 C
30 H3 A 65 C21 A 100 Env 26 C
31 H9 C 66 C2 B
32 H28 B 67 C26 A
33 H33 B 68 G23 C
34 H20 D 69 G29 D
35 H35 D 70 Eco 13 C

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(E) Help by previous edition in Prelims 2020

This book has been authored to help aspirants in indirect ways e.g. what to study, how to approach the question
and the exam etc. For the same, it takes help of UPSC PYQs of 2011 onwards. It takes an approach of reverse
engineering and accordingly advises aspirants. The approach was quite helpful in Prelims 2020, where significant
topics of the questions were available in correct/incorrect options of PYQ or mentioned in Further suggested
reading of the book. [Comes under category of INDIRECT HELP.]
Another main objective of the book is to let us think together. In my preparation, I used to solve PYQs with
friends, who consistently scored well in Prelims. I wanted to be that friend of yours and hence I have tried to
provide what I think in 300+ questions or how I would have approached the concept/question. In 2020 Prelims
also, the same thought process was helpful to solve many questions. [Comes under category of STRUCTURED
THINKING AND INTELLIGENT GUESSING.]
In addition to the above, this book can also help to cover content to some extent as explanations to PYQs are
also loaded with concepts. Several questions of 2020 Prelims could be solved by the same explanations. [Comes
under category of DIRECT HELP.]
Please refer info-graphics at interior of back cover to know the statistics of the help by Previous edition of
Prelims Simplified in Prelims 2020.

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(d) religious rituals

H 3 - Mauryan and Post Mauryan
2. With reference to the period of Gupta dynasty in
PYQs ancient India, the towns Ghantasala, Kadura and
Chaul were well known as [20/82]
1. Who among the following rulers advised his (a) ports handling foreign trade
subjects through this inscription? (b) capitals of powerful kingdoms
"Whosoever praises his religious sect or blames (c) places of exquisite stone art and architecture
other sects out of excessive devotion to his own (d) important Buddhist pilgrimage centres
sect, with the view of glorifying his own sect,
he rather injures his own sect very severely." Answers
 [20/30]
(a) Ashoka (b) Samudragupta 1 2
(c) Harshavardhana (d) Krishnadeva Raya A A

Answers Explanations
1
1. In the Gupta period inscriptions, we find various
A terms related to land measurement including
kulyavapa and dronavapa. Hence, option (a) is
Explanations the answer.

1. Text extract from ‘‘Themes in Indian History’’ Note : this is a factual question and hence, do
NCERT part 1 not fear if you don’t know the answer. Direct
your energy towards other questions. Also, do
Asoka was the first ruler who inscribed his
not start reading volumes and volumes of ancient
messages to his subjects and officials on stone
history books to cover such concepts. Covering
surfaces – natural rocks as well as polished
NCERT ‘Themes in Indian History’ and ‘Our
pillars. He used the inscriptions to proclaim
Pasts’ books with an emphasis on sidebars and
what he understood to be dhamma. This included
respect towards elders, generosity towards timeline at the end of the chapter will help.
Brahmanas and those who renounced worldly
2. Option (a) ports handling foreign trade is the
life, treating slaves and servants kindly, and
answer.
respect for religions and traditions other than
one’s own. Thread –
Also, you must have studied the Dhamma and 33 In 2017 Prelims [17/51], UPSC asked about
Ashok's philosophy of religious tolerance at later Motupalli - Kakatiya kingdom's foreign
stages of his life. Hence, option (a) Ashoka is the trade port.
answer. 33 In 2020 Prelims [20/82], UPSC gave names
of ancient foreign trading ports and asked
H 4 - Gupta and Post Gupta to identify them.
Additional info –
PYQs □□ India with its 5000 years history of maritime
activity and 6000 km coast has played a major
1. With reference to the history of India, the terms role in commerce and cultural interaction
"kulyavapa" and "dronavapa" denote  [20/29] between the East and West. Thousands of
(a) measurement of land ships have crossed the Indian Ocean and
(b) coins of different monetary value many were lost in nautical calamities, piracy
(c) classification of urban land and warfare.

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 History The Unique Academy

□□ In India, evidence of shipbuilding, port and 2. Establishment of Pallava power under

warehouses' installations are dated back to Mahendravarman-I
Harappan times. The important Harappan 3. Establishment of Chola power by
and late Harappan ports are Lothal, Parantaka-I
Lakhabawal, Kindarkhera, Kuntasi, 4. Pala dynasty founded by Gopala
Megham, Prabhasa, Todio, Amra on the What is the correct chronological order of the
west coast of India. The excavations at these above events, starting from the earliest time?
sites have yielded antiquities of Bahrain
(a) 2-1-4-3 (b) 3-1-4-2
island, Persian Gulf, Egypt and Mesopotamia
(c) 2-4-1-3 (d) 3-4-1-2
cities.
□□ The same maritime traditions continued even 3. Which of the following phrases defines the nature
during the times of Buddha, the Mauryas, the of the ‘Hundi’ generally referred to in the sources
Gupta and in later periods. During the historical of the post-Harsha period?  [20/25]
period, India had trade and cultural contacts (a) An advisory issued by the king to his
with Egypt, Rome, Greeks, Arabs, China and subordinates
almost all South-east Asian countries. As a (b) A diary to be maintained for daily accounts
consequence, both the coasts of India have (c) A bill of exchange
been studded with a string of ancient ports. (d) An order from the feudal lord to his
The ports on the west coast were Barygaya, subordinates
Suppara, Calliena, Semylla, Mandagore,
Palaepatme, Malizigara, Aurranobbas, 4. With reference to the history of India, consider
Byzantine, Naura, Tyndis, Muziris and the following pairs:  [20/97]
Nelcynda and the ports on the east coast Famous Place Present State
were Tamralipti, Charitrapur, Paluru, 1. Bhilsa : Madhya Pradesh
Dantapur, Kalingapatnam, Pithunda, 2. Dwarasamudra : Maharashtra
Sopatma, Ghantasala, Poduca, Puhar, 3. Girinagar : Gujarat
Korkai and Camara. 4. Sthanesvara : Uttar Pradesh
Which of the pairs given above are correctly
H 8 - Terminologies and Miscellaneous matched?
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 4 only
PYQs (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 2 and 4 only

1. With reference to the history of India, consider Answers

the following pairs: [20/21]
1. Aurang - In-charge of treasury of the 1 2 3 4
State B C C A
2. Banian - Indian agent of the East
India Company Explanations
3. Mirasidar - Designated revenue payer to
the State 1. Text extract from Class 8 NCERT
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly 1. Aurang – A Persian term for a warehouse
matched? – a place where goods are collected before
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only being sold; also refers to a workshop [Pair 1
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 is incorrectly matched.]
2. Banian is an Anglicised form of the Sanskrit
2. Consider the following events in the history of and Bangla word Banik (merchant). It refers
India: [20/24] to native interpreters, brokers and agents to
1. Rise of Pratiharas under King Bhoja the European merchants in the eighteenth

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 The Unique Academy History

and nineteenth centuries. [Pair 2 is correctly 33 In tougher questions also, revision of BASIC
matched]. books can be of reasonable help (here,
3. Mirasidars – Under the ryotwari settlement reaching 50% probability of correct answer).
system, the company recognized Mirasidars
as the sole proprietors of land, dismissing 3. Text extract from class 7 NCERT - Our pasts
tenants rights completely. [Pair 3 is correctly Hundi – is a note recording a deposit made by
matched]. a person. The amount deposited can be claimed
Hence, option (b) 2 and 3 only is the answer. in another place by presenting the record of the
deposit.
2.  Mahendra Varman- I: Start of 7th century
Hence, option (c) A bill of exchange is the answer.
33 Gopala- Around the mid 8th century.
33 King Bhoja- Pratihar: Mid of 9th century Learnings –
33 Parantaka-1 Chola: 1st half of 10th century Hundi [20/25] and Aurang [20/21] both were
Hence, option (c) 2-4-1-3 is the answer. mentioned in the sidebar of the new NCERT
history book. Terminology based questions
from Ancient and Medieval history have been a
– It may be regarded as a tough question
recurrent theme. Hence, one is strongly advised
as recalling the chronology of with a gap of just
to go through the sidebars placed terms in
50-100 years is a bit difficult. However, one
NCERTs.
should try with a general feeling of chronology
of Ancient and Medieval history along with the 4. 1. Bhilsa - Madhya Pradesh. It was the centre
use of options. Let us try with the text of one of the Sunga dynasty. [Pair 1 is correctly
of our basic book- Class 11 - An Introduction to matched].
Indian Arts. 2. Dwarsamudra/Halebid – the place of the
Mahendravarma I who ruled in the seventh Hoysala dynasty in Karnataka. [Pair 2 is
century was responsible for building temples at incorrectly matched].
Panamalai, Mandagapattu and Kanchipuram. 3. Girinagar- Gujarat [Pair 3 is correctly
The inscription at Mandagapattu mentions matched].
Mahendravarman I with numerous titles such as 4. Sthaneshwara- Harayana – the place of
Vichitrachitta (curious-minded)........ Harshavardhan [Pair 4 is incorrectly matched].
Bengal: The style of the sculptures during the Hence, option (a) 1 and 3 only is the answer.
period between the ninth and eleventh centuries
Learnings –
in Bengal (including Bangladesh) and Bihar is
known as the Pala style, named after the ruling 33 Try relating the name of places in ancient,
dynasty at the time. medieval and present times. Many times,
present names are developed over the
Hence, 2 will come before 4. Options (b) and ancient names. E.g. Patliputra became Patna.
(d) are eliminated. 50% probability of correct It helps to guess in such pair type questions.
answer is achieved. Out of the remaining options, 33 Maps and sidebars in New NCERT books
sequences of the first event (2) and last event (3) are very important.
are clear. Now, compare the remaining options, yy NCERT book - ‘‘Themes in the Indian
Pratihara and Pala dynasty and apply whatever History’’ contains a map showing Girnar
knowledge you have. and in the side bar, it has been asked to
Learnings – ‘Find Girnar on Map 2’.
33 Tough questions are tough for all. What yy Refer page 18 of ‘‘An Introduction to
matters is the relative performance in the Indian Arts’’ NCERT, Girnar is shown in
exam hall. the same.

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 History The Unique Academy

yy Refer page 68 of ‘‘An Introduction to (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Indian Arts’’ NCERT, Bhilsa is shown in
the same. Answers
Many times, the answer lies in our basic books
and we try mugging up books after books, missing 1 2 3
the basic that UPSC needs fewer resources, but B C B
all these resources with multiple revisions.
Explanations
H 9 - Buddhism
1. 1. Text extract from A L Basham's book – The
Wonder that was India. The doctrines which we
PYQs have described are those of the Sthaviravadin
sect of the Lesser Vehicle, which is the only
1. With reference to the religious history of India,
surviving sect of that branch of Buddhism
consider the following statements:  [20/22]
and is today dominant in Ceylon, Burma,
1. Sthaviravadins belong to Mahayana
Siam, Cambodia and Laos. [Statement 1 is
Buddhism.
incorrect].
2. Lokottaravadin sect was an offshoot of
2. Statement 2 and 3 are correct.
Mahasanghika sect of Buddhism.
3. The deification of Buddha by Hence, option (b) 2 and 3 only is the answer.
Mahasanghikas fostered the Mahayana
Thread –
Buddhism.
33 In 2019 Prelims [19/09], UPSC asked if
Which of the statements given above is/are
the deification of Buddha was done by
correct?
Mahayana.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
33 In 2020 Prelims [20/22], UPSC asked if the
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 deification of Buddha by Mahasanghikas
2. With reference to the cultural history of India, fostered Mahayana Buddhism. [Please note
which one of the following is the correct that deification is a word which may not
description of the term ‘paramitas’?  [20/31] be known to some, PYQ could help in that
(a) The earliest Dharmashastra texts written in aspect also].
aphoristic (sutra) style 33 In 2016 Prelims [16/50], UPSC asked if
(b) Philosophical schools that did not accept the Boddhisatva concept belongs to the
the authority of Vedas. Hinayana sect.
(c) Perfections whose attainment led to the 33 In 2017 Prelims [17/53], UPSC checked the
Bodhisattva path knowledge of Sautantrika and Sammitiya
(d) Powerful merchant guilds of early being sects of Jainism.
Medieval South India 33 In 2020 Prelims [20/22], UPSC checked
whether the Sthaviravadins belong to
3. With reference to the cultural history of India, Mahayana Buddhism.
consider the following pairs:  [20/71]
1. Parivrajaka : Renunciant and Wanderer Note : Chapter of Buddhism and Jainism from
2. Shramana : Priest with a high status the A L Basham book – ‘‘The Wonder that was
3. Upasaka : Lay follower of Buddhism India’’ [Pdf available for free on Google search]
is a suggested read due to the good return on
Which of the pairs given above are correctly
investment ratio of this theme.
matched?
33 Start from page 261 – The growth of Buddhism
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
33 End on page 294.
Otherwise, ‘‘Buddhism, Jainism’’ from Nitin

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Singhania's book on Indian culture can be in case of unavailability of the same in basic
covered. books.

2. 1. Text extract from A L Basham's book – ‘‘The H 17 - Literature and Language

Wonder that was India’’ - page 279
Quite early in the history of the Great Vehicle,
PYQs
feminine divinities found their way into the
pantheon. One such was Prajilaparamita, the 1. With reference to the scholars/litterateurs of
Perfection of Insight, the personification of ancient India, consider the following statements:
the qualities of the Bodhisattva.  [20/36]
Hence, option (c) is the answer. 1. Panini is associated with Pushyamitra
Shunga.
Additional info - 2. Amarasimha is associated with
There are two paths in Buddhism Harshavardhana.
1. Four Noble Truths & Noble Eightfold 3. Kalidasa is associated with Chandra Gupta-
Path to achieve Enlightenment and realize II.
Nibbana/Nirvana. Which of the statements given above is/are
2. Perfecting certain qualities leads the correct?
pilgrim to become a Samma Sambuddha, (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
a self Enlightened Universal Buddha. The
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
qualities have different names Paramis
(perfections), Paramitas etc in different Answers
traditions i.e. Southern, Eastern and
Northern traditions. Some paramitas are 1
generosity, renunciation, energy etc. C
3. 1. Parivrajaka – Refer explanation of 16/89
(Theme H4) [Pair 1 is correctly matched]. Explanations
2. Shramana – Refer explanation of 16/89
(Theme H4) [Pair 2 is incorrectly matched]. 1. 1. Text extract from ‘‘Themes in Indian History’’
3. Upasaka – Lay follower of Buddhism [Pair 33 500 BCE - Ashtadhyayi of Panini, a work
3 is correctly matched]. on Sanskrit grammar.
33 The Shungas and Kanvas, the immediate
Hence, option (b) 1 and 3 only is the answer. successors of the Mauryas, were
Thread – Brahmanas.
33 Parivrajaka and Shramana were incorrect 33 185 BCE - End of the Mauryan empire
options of the 2016 Prelims question [16/89] Hence, Panini was not associated with
on Maagadha. The previous edition had given Pushyamitra Shunga. [Statement 1 is
the description of the same in explanation, incorrect.]
which was helpful to several aspirants 2. 606-647 CE - Harshavardhana king of
in solving this question in 2020 Prelims. Kanauj, Chinese pilgrim, Xuan Zang comes
33 However, due to the very nature of being a in search of Buddhist text.
strategy book and balancing between the Amarasimha and Kalidasa both were
bulkiness of the book with content, incorrect Navratnas in the court of Chandra Gupta-II.
options are not explained at all places. In those
Statement 2 is incorrect and statement 3 is
cases, aspirants are STRONGLY advised to
correct.
cover the basic aspect of incorrect options
or at least the first paragraph of Wikipedia Hence, option (c) 3 only is the answer.

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 History The Unique
Note : Academy

Learning – (c) 3 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only

33 Suggested reading for timeline questions in
History is tables of the timeline at the end
Answers
of chapters in the book ‘‘Themes in Indian
1
History’’.
B
Additional info –
Following were Navratnas in the court of Explanations
Chandragupta II i.e. Vikramaditya
□□ Amarsimha - Sanskrit lexicographer, 1. Gandhi-Irwin Pact
Trikanda/Amarkosha- vocabulary of Sanskrit 33 was signed on 5 March 1931 by Gandhiji
roots on behalf of the Congress and by Lord
□□ Dhanvantari - Physician. Irwin on behalf of the Government
□□ Harisena - composed the Prayag Prasasti  or 33 Terms accepted by Gandhiji (Proposed by
Allahabad Pillar Inscription Britishers)
□□ Kalidasa - Shakuntala (Sanskrit drama), ¾¾ to suspend the Civil Disobedience
Malavikagnimitra (play), Vikramorvasiya, Movement.
(play), Raghuvamsa (epic), Kumarasambhav ¾¾ to participate in the next Round Table
(epic), Ritusamhara (lyrics) and Meghaduta Conference. [Statement 1 is correct]
(lyrics) 33 Terms accepted by Britishers (Proposed by
□□ Kahapanaka - astrologer Gandhiji)
□□ Sanku - Architect ¾¾ immediate release of all political prisoners
□□ Varahamihira - Panchasiddhantika, Brihat not convicted of violence; [Statement 4 is
Samhita, and Brihat Jataka correct]
□□ Vararuchi - Grammarian and Sanskrit scholar. ¾¾ remission of all fines not yet collected;
□□ Vetalbhatta - Magician ¾¾ return of all lands not yet sold to third
parties;
¾¾ lenient treatment to those government
Timeline servants who had resigned;
H 23 - 1919-39 ¾¾ right to make salt in coastal villages for
personal consumption (not for sale);
PYQs ¾¾ right to peaceful and non- aggressive
picketing;
1. The Gandhi-Irwin Pact included which of the ¾¾ withdrawal of emergency ordinances
following?  [20/27] [Statement 2 is correct].
1. Invitation to Congress to participate in the 33 Terms rejected by Britishers (were proposed
Round Table Conference by Gandhiji, but not included as part of pact)
2. Withdrawal of ordinances promulgated in ¾¾ public inquiry into police excesses
connection with the Civil Disobedience [Statement 3 is incorrect].
Movement ¾¾ commutation of Bhagat Singh and his
3. Acceptance of Gandhiji's suggestion for comrades' death sentence to life sentence.
enquiry into police excesses. Hence, option (b) 1, 2 and 4 only is the answer.
4. Release of only those prisoners who were
not charged with violence – This question may look tough at first sight
Select the correct answer using the code given as the statements consists of really minute details.
below: But, as advised try to see statements with options
(a) 1 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only as combination of possibilities. Correctness of

Prelims Simplified 13
 The Unique Academy History

statement 1 is a common fact. Now, with this Explanations

information itself one can negate 2 options.
Compare remaining options, either 2 and 4 are 1. Statement 1 and 2 are correct, whereas there is
incorrect or both of them are correct. Please note not much clarity in available sources regarding
correctness/incorrectness of statement 3 is not statement 3. Hence, either option (a) or option
more needed for correctly answering the question. (d) is the answer. After release of UPSC
It is also a known fact that Bhagat Singh was not official answer key, it will be updated on www.
released after the pact and it was criticized by prelimssimplified.com and next edition.
several leaders at that time. Do you get any hint
for statement 4 correctness that prisoners with – Many times, we meet people who judge
violence charges were not released. May be. the nature of Prelims paper or their attempt just
Try thinking for statement 2 also. Correctness based on some questions. For such people, this
of statements 1,2 and 4 seems very reasonable. question may be one of the favourites. How can
Hence, the answer. one is expected to prepare it before the exam
when I am unable to certainly give correct
Personalities answer with internet and book search. Hence, I
H 26 - Other contributions suggest a different approach. One should be able
to identify some questions in the UPSC paper
which can just be ignored, both in the exam hall
PYQs as well as analysis while deciding the book list.
This question is one of them. The energy invested
1. With reference to the book "Desher Kather" in such questions pre & post prelims may better
written by Sakharam Ganesh Deuskar be utilised on other core areas and doing well
during the freedom struggle, consider the in questions, which give a better return on
following statements :  [20/26] investment, after all cut off for Prelims goes in
1. It warned against the Colonial State's the range of net correct 50-60 questions only.
hypnotic conquest of the mind.
2. It inspired the performance of swadeshi 2. Gopal Baba Walangkar/Gopal Krishna
street plays and folk songs. 33 was an activist working to release the
3. The use of 'desh' by Deuskar was in the untouchable people of India from their
specific context of the region of Bengal. historic socio-economic oppression
Which of the statements given above are correct? 33 is generally considered to be the pioneer of
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only that movement
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 33 developed a racial theory to explain the
oppression
2. The Vital-Vidhvansak, the first monthly journal 33 In 1888, Walangkar began publishing
to have the untouchable people as its target the monthly journal titled Vital-
audience was published by  [20/28] Vidhvansak  (Destroyer of Brahmanical or
(a) Gopal Baba Walangkar Ceremonial Pollution), which was the first to
(b) Jyotiba Phule have untouchable people as its target audience
(c) Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi 33 also wrote articles for Marathi language
(d) Bhimrao Ramji Ambedkar newspapers such as Sudharak and
Deenbandhu, as well as composed couplets
Answers in Marathi that were intended to inspire the
people
1 2
A A Hence, option (a) Gopal Baba Walangkar is the
answer.

14 Prelims Simplified
 History The Unique Academy

books. However, let us try attempting with

– Please observe that options other than options. Observe the options, either none of the
the correct one are all very famous personalities given statements will be incorrect or utmost one
in the freedom struggle movement. Confidently statement will be incorrect. Try finding that ONE.
knowing details of various journals, writings Try relating the statements. Are age of consent
etc by all three could have helped in elimination and restitution of conjugal rights somewhat
for this question. Trust yourself and remain related and fit a narrative, giving scenario of a
confident. case where name of the party seems to be a lady
i.e. Rakhmabai. Seems yes.
H 28 - Socio religious Risk of eliminating two options i.e. (a) and (c)
may be taken if one wants to increase attempts.
PYQs Decide based on scenario of paper and your
attempt till this question.
1. In the context of Indian history, the Rakhmabai
Learning –
case of 1884 revolved around  [20/32]
1. women's right to gain education The idea of giving intelligent guessing in this
2. age of consent question was not that all aspirants take an
3. restitution of conjugal rights approach of high risk category. Please do so
Select the correct answer using the code given based on your strength/weakness and situation
below: of the exam. Intelligent guessing has been given
here to show that even in tougher questions of
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
the year, smart work can help without covering
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
the concept.
Answers Also, relatable statements in question can be
used as an asset in elimination.
1
B H 29 - Economic impact
Explanations
PYQs
1. Dr  Rakhmabai  (1864-1955)  fought a case 1. Which of the following statements correctly
between 1884 and 1888 regarding her marriage explains the impact of Industrial Revolution
as a  child bride. She was married at the age of on India during the first half of the nineteenth
11 years and she stayed at her parent’s house. century?  [20/23]
After 12 years of marriage, her husband filed a (a) Indian handicrafts were ruined.
case for restitution of conjugal rights. The case
(b) Machines were introduced in the Indian
continued for 4 years and in 1988, her husband
textile industry in large numbers.
was compensated outside of court. The case
(c) Railway lines were laid in many parts of
gained a lot of attention in Britain too, where
the country
women’s magazines covered it. The case was
instrumental in drafting of the Age of Consent (d) Heavy duties were imposed on the imports
Act in 1891 which made child marriages illegal of British manufactures
across the British Empire. Answers
Hence, option (b) 2 and 3 only is the answer.
1
– This is one of the toughest questions in A
Prelims 2020, as topic is not covered in basic

Prelims Simplified 15
 The Unique Academy History

Explanations London to do so
(b) he wanted to revive interest in oriental
1. a) Refer to the explanation of 18/52. It is the learning in India
correct option. (c) he wanted to provide William Carey and
b) The first  cotton  textile mill of Bombay  was his associates with employment.
established  in 1854 i.e. second half of the (d) he wanted to train British civilians for
nineteenth century. administrative purpose in India.
c) The first railway line in India was started in
1853 i.e. the second half of the nineteenth Answers
century.
1
d) This is incorrect.
D
Hence, option (a) is the answer.
Thread – Explanations
33 In 2018 Prelims [18/52], UPSC asked trend of
import/export of handicrafts during British 1. Refer explanation of 18/89.
rule. Hence, option (d) is the answer.
33 In 2020 Prelims [20/23], UPSC asked if the
Thread –
industrial revolution led to the ruining of
Indian handicrafts. 33 In 2018 Prelims [18/89], UPSC asked who
established Fort Williams college?
– Option (d) can be straight away 33 In 2020 Prelims [20/34], UPSC asked why
eliminated as Britishers generally would not Wellesley established Fort Williams college?
have done something which would discourage Learnings –
the profitability of goods coming from Britain. 33 Explanation of the 2018 Prelims question
High duty imposition on import of British in this book was sufficient to answer this
manufactures would have discouraged British question in 2020. However, it is advised not
merchants, which is unlikely. to solely depend on this book for covering
themes appearing in PYQ. This book is a
– A general overview of events/timelines strategy book and the main idea is of strategic
is needed in UPSC exam preparations instead of help, not content. Hence, a balance has
exact years as UPSC is more inclined to know been kept between content in explanation
concepts/causation of events/story of the change and volume of the book for productivity.
etc. E.g. in this question, purposefully FIRST half Aspirants are advised to read more around
of the nineteenth century has been mentioned question statements, correct/incorrect options,
so that aspirants, who have a general idea of proper nouns in the question etc from their
timeline about textile industry development or books/first paragraph of Wikipedia.
railways lines, can negate the options without
knowing the exact year.
H 33 - Peasant movement
H 30 - Education PYQs
PYQs 1. Indigo cultivation in India declined by the
beginning of the 20th century because of
1. Wellesley established the Fort William College  [20/33]
at Calcutta because  [20/34] (a) peasant resistance to the oppressive
(a) he was asked by the Board of Directors at conduct of planters

16 Prelims Simplified
 History The Unique Academy

(b) its unprofitability in the world market H 35 - Tribal movement

because of new inventions
(c) national leaders' opposition to the
PYQs
cultivation of indigo
(d) Government control over the planters 1. With reference to the history of India, ‘‘Ulgulan’’
or the Great Tumult is the description of which
Answers of the following events?  [20/35]
(a) The Revolt of 1857
1
(b) The Mappila Rebellion of 1921
B
(c) The Indigo Revolt of 1859-60
(d) Birsa Munda's Revolt of 1899-1900
Explanations
Answers
1. German invention of synthetic dye at the end
of the nineteenth century and the start of the 1
twentieth century led to a decline in demand D
for Indigo in the international market and hence
decline in Indigo cultivation in India.
Explanations
Hence, option (b) is the answer.
1. Ulgulan or the Great Tumult is related to Birsa
– Studying Modern History as a story Munda's Revolt of 1899-1900.
forming the connecting links with world Hence, option (d) is the answer.
history (like the German-British angle in this
case) makes the subject interesting as well as Note : Read reasons, revolt and results of
helps in the elimination of options. E.g. Question Munda’s revolt.
number 18/75 in theme H20 regarding Subsidiary
Alliance introduced by Lord Wellesley could be
understood and solved using Indian freedom
struggle's connection with the world order.

Prelims Simplified 17
 The Unique Academy Geography

G 6 - Atmospheric circulation stage itself. Many times, UPSC would give the
feature of one in the name of the other one or
they would generalise the property of one type
PYQs to the whole.
1. Consider the following statements:  [20/99] Here, in statement 2, knowledge of property of
1. Jet streams occur in the Northern type 1 and non-generalisation of the same to
Hemisphere only. both types is being tested. Clear demarcation of
2. Only some cyclones develop an eye. the properties in preparation stage will help in
3. The temperature inside the eye of a cyclone affirming/negating the statement. Cyclones are
is nearly 10°C lesser than that of the of 2 types viz., tropical cyclone and extratropical
surroundings. cyclone. [Refer to Fig 10.9 and 10.10 in class 11
Which of the statements given above is/are NCERT Physical Geography book]. Observe the
correct? figures, the eye is clearly shown in the tropical
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only cyclone's image and not in the extratropical
cyclone's image.
(c) 2 only (d) 1 and 3 only

Answers – A is 100C warmer than B. What are some

possible ways to make an incorrect statement
1 from it?
C 1. A is 100C colder than B.
2. A is 80C warmer than B.
Explanations 3. A is 200C warmer than B.
Many times, UPSC would do the changes of type
1. 1. Text extract from NCERT class 9 Geography
1 or type 3, and not of type 2. Generally, UPSC
book
focuses more on overall concepts, and not on
Jet stream : These are a narrow belt of high precise numbers. That is what we should know
altitude (above 12,000 m) westerly winds in as an administer, to have a holistic approach
the troposphere. Their speed varies from to encompass different interrelated aspects.
about 110 km/h in summer to about 184 km/h In statement 3 of this question, one may start
in winter. A number of separate jet streams overthinking on 100C. However, before starting
have been identified. The most constant to ponder upon the number, the first step should
are the mid-latitude and the subtropical jet be to think warmer or colder i.e. eye has relatively
stream. [Statement 1 is incorrect as Jet streams higher temperature or lower temperature. UPSC
occur both in the Northern and Southern
generally plays more on broader concepts and
hemispheres].
less on minute details such as changing 100C to
2. Statement 2 is correct. 80C.
3. Statement 3 is incorrect as the temperature of
the eye is relatively more than the surrounding
areas.
G 8 - Water (Oceans)

– When we study any concept or read key PYQs

terms, we should try to relate it with the same
1. With reference to Ocean Mean Temperature
key term used in a different place in the
(OMT), which of the following statements is/are
same subject or other subjects. Differentiate
correct? [20/93]
between the two and if they are related/classes
1. OMT is measured up to a depth of 26°C
of a common phenomenon, we should try to
isotherm which is 129 meters in the south-
categorise/bucket the same at the preparation
western Indian Ocean during January–

18 Prelims Simplified
 Geography The Unique Academy

March. G 19 - Hills
2. OMT collected during January–March can
be used in assessing whether the amount
PYQs
of rainfall in monsoon will be less or more
than a certain long-term mean. 1. Siachen Glacier is situated to the  [20/96]
Select the correct options using the code given (a) East of Aksai Chin
below: (b) East of Leh
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) North of Gilgit
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) North of Nubra Valley

Answers Answers

1 1
B D

Explanations Explanations

1. 1. The depth for the 26-degree isotherm is 50- 1. Option (d) North of Nubra Valley is the answer.
100 metres (not 129 metres). [Statement 1 is
Thread –
incorrect.]
2. Statement 2 is correct. In 2019 Prelims [19/38], UPSC asked various
glacier and river pairs. Siachen glacier and
Hence, option (b) 2 only is the answer. Nubra river was a correct pair.

– Think about the negation of statement In 2020 Prelims [20/96], UPSC asked if Siachen
2. Statement 2 will be incorrect if OMT collected Glacier is situated to the north of Nubra
during Jan-Mar CANNOT be used AT ALL in valley.
assessing the rainfall. What is the probability Note : Please refer to Atlas for the areas in news/
of this being true? Also, general factors causing correct & incorrect options of PYQ, especially
monsoon in India would suggest that the the areas where India has land-related issues with
temperature and pressure of the ocean play a neighbours.
role in the rainfall. Hence, statement 2 should be
correct.
G 23 - Seas and their borders
Learning –
We should not just think that I have studied this PYQs
topic and I will get questions from this topic
correct in the exam hall. A quite significant 1. Consider the following pairs:  [20/68]
portion of the UPSC prelims paper would consist River Flows into
of terms that you would not have heard in 1. Mekong : Andaman Sea
preparation. But, in the exam hall, one has to 2. Thames : Irish Sea
break the term down to think about the context/ 3. Volga : Caspian Sea
relevance and relate it with existing knowledge 4. Zambezi : Indian Ocean
to mark the answer with significant confidence
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly
and reasonable probability of correctness.
matched?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 4 only

Prelims Simplified 19
 The Unique Academy Geography

Answers Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?
1
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
C (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanations 2. What is/are the advantage/ advantages of zero
tillage in agriculture?  [20/83]
1. 1. Mekong – South China Sea [Pair 1 is 1. Sowing of wheat is possible without
incorrectly matched]. burning the residue of previous crop.
2. Thames – North sea [Pair 2 is incorrectly 2. Without the need for nursery of rice
matched]. saplings, direct planting of paddy seeds
3. Pairs 3 and 4 are correctly matched. in the wet soil is possible.
3. Carbon sequestration in the soil is possible.
Hence, option (c) 3 and 4 only is the answer.
Select the correct answer using the code given
Thread – below:
33 In 2011 Prelims [11/97] – Mekong was part (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
of the question statement.
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
33 In 2015 Prelims [15/64]- Mekong Ganga
cooperation was asked. 3. In the context of India, which of the following is/
33 In 2020 Prelims [20/68]- Mekong flows into are considered to be practice(s) of eco-friendly
which sea has been asked. agriculture?  [20/90]
1. Crop diversification
– What do you recall with ‘Zambezi’? Did 2. Legume intensification
you read it somewhere or is it related to Zambia 3. Tensiometer use
and Zimbabwe area? Try recalling the location 4. Vertical farming
of these countries. Are these countries on the Select the correct answer using the code given
eastern coast of Africa? If they are on the eastern below:
coast, there is a good possibility of the Zambezi (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 3 only
flowing into the Indian ocean. (c) 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Such guessing techniques along with some 4. What are the advantages of fertigation in
prior knowledge may help in the elimination agriculture? [20/91]
of options. Do practice the same before actual 1. Controlling the alkalinity of irrigation
application in the exam hall. water is possible.
2. Efficient application of Rock Phosphate
G 26 - Good practices and all other phosphatic fertilizers is
possible.
PYQs 3. Increased availability of nutrients to
plants is possible.
1. What is the use of biochar in farming?  [20/80] 4. Reduction in the leaching of chemical
1. Biochar can be used as a part of the growing nutrients is possible.
medium in vertical farming. Select the correct answer using the code given
2. When biochar is a part of the growing below:
medium, it promotes the growth of (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
nitrogen-fixing microorganisms.
(c) 1,3 and 4 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only
3. When biochar is a part of the growing
medium, it enables the growing medium to
retain water for longer time.

20 Prelims Simplified
 Geography The Unique Academy

Answers Is it not making a story of the development of

themes over zero tillage? Is it not expected that
1 2 3 4 an aspirant should read about zero tillage after 2
Prelims questions on the same and mark this one
D D D C
correctly in the exam hall?
Explanations G26 - Good agriculture practice theme
It is one of the themes which we generally miss,
1. Biochar is a stable, carbon-rich form of charcoal. when we cover the subject in traditional way.
Its application can increase the soil fertility, water But, covering through themes and UPSC PYQ
holding capacity and crop productivity. All the helps to cover the gap area. E.g. UPSC asked 10
three given statements are correct in this context. questions from this theme in 2011-19 and again
in 2020 Prelims, 4 questions were asked from
Hence, option (d) 1, 2 and 3 is the answer.
this, which could be a make or break for many.
Hence, cover PYQs & read around the same to
– Many times, it is difficult to affirm/negate
fill the gap areas in the preparation.
individual independent statements, but a hint
may be obtained if two or more statements are 3. 1. Crop diversification  refers to the
on the same topic/theme. Affirmation/negation addition of new  crops  or  cropping  systems
of one statement may hint towards the other. to  agricultural  production on a particular
E.g. First read statement 2 and then read farm taking into account the different returns
statement 1. Take a case when statement 2 is from value-added  crops  with complimentary
correct. It indicates that biochar can be used as marketing opportunities.
part of the growing medium. Now, what is the 2. Legume intensification  is one pathway
possibility that Biochar CANNNOT be used AT through which small landholding farm
ALL in the vertical farming growing medium? production may be sustainably increased and
When it is being used as a growing medium in involves complementing a farmer's current
the normal case, is it plausible that it will not cropping system by incorporating legumes.
be used at all as a growing medium in vertical 3. Tensiometer is a device for measuring
farming? Hence, if statement 2 is correct, there is soil water tension. Tensiometers are used
a good probability that statement 1 is be correct. in irrigation scheduling to help farmers to
Option (b) is eliminated. determine when to water. 
4. Vertical farming is the practice of growing
Such approach helps in elimination.
crops in vertically stacked layers.
2. All the three statements are correct regarding All the above four are considered eco-friendly
zero tillage. agricultural practices.

Hence, option (d) 1, 2 and 3 is the answer. Hence, Option (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 is the answer.

Thread –
– Suppose you have not heard of
33 In 2012 Prelims [12/98, Env 7], UPSC ‘Tensiometer’ before the exam. Crop
asked about carbon sequestration through diversification concept and vertical farming
zero tillage. That question and the answer concepts are commonly known as good
was sufficient to affirm statement 3 in this agriculture practices. There is only one option
question. with both as correct statements and is the answer.
33 In 2017 Prelims [17/71], UPSC asked the
use of zero tillage in water conservation in Learning –
agriculture. Do not see the question as facts written down
33 In 2020 Prelims [20/83], UPSC asked in sentences. See them as a combination of
advantages of zero tillage.

Prelims Simplified 21
 The Unique Academy Geography

statements/possibilities through question G 27 - Crops

statement and option combinations.
Note : Cover the given concepts in question PYQs
statements. This is one way through which a
1. "The crop is subtropical in nature. A hard frost
theme builds up. First, UPSC asks name, then
is injurious to it. It requires at least 210 frost-
one statement and afterwards multi-statements
free days and 50 to 100 centimetres of rainfall
question about the same.
for its growth. A light well-drained soil capable
4. Text from the TNAU website of retaining moisture is ideally suited for the
cultivation of the crop." Which one of the
Fertigation is a method of fertilizer application following is that crop? [20/87]
in which fertilizer is incorporated within the (a) Cotton (b) Jute
irrigation water by the drip system. In this
(c) Sugarcane (d) Tea
system, fertilizer solution is distributed evenly
in irrigation. The availability of nutrients is very Answers
high, therefore, the efficiency is more. In this
method, liquid fertilizer as well as water-soluble 1
fertilizers are used. By this method, fertilizer use A
efficiency is increased from 80 to 90 per cent.
Explanations
Statements 1, 3 and 4 are correct in this context
and statement 2 is incorrect as Rock Phosphate 1. Text extract from NCERT
and some other mineral fertilizers containing
phosphorus are insoluble in water. Cotton : India is believed to be the original home
of the cotton plant. Cotton is one of the main raw
Hence, option (c) is the correct answer. materials for the cotton textile industry. In 2008,
India was the second-largest producer of cotton
– This question consists of symmetrical after China. Cotton grows well in drier parts
options i.e. each option has 3 correct statements of the black cotton soil of the Deccan plateau.
and 1 incorrect statement. Hence, either find It requires high temperature, light rainfall
3 correct statements or 1 sure shot incorrect or irrigation, 210 frost-free days and bright
statement. sunshine for its growth. It is a Kharif crop and
requires 6 to 8 months to mature. Major cotton-
– In case, you have not heard about the term producing states are– Maharashtra, Gujarat,
fertigation before the exam, let us try etymological Madhya Pradesh, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh,
approach. What does the terms fertigation Telangana, Tamil Nadu, Punjab, Haryana and
indicate? Is it not Fertilizer + irrigation? Now, go Uttar Pradesh.
through the options. 3 of the 4 given statements
Hence, option (a) Cotton is the correct answer.
have to be true. Read the statements, if you know
correctness/incorrectness of anyone, strike off
the options accordingly. If not, take statements – This is a new question type where the
and options in the combinations and read them detail of crop is given and identification of crop
one by one. Does it not look like that fertilizer has been asked. Earlier, UPSC had asked for
is being used in irrigation and there is some such identification for states. Refer 3 questions
benefit of apt use of fertilizer quantity? What in theme G21. Be ready to answer this type of
would happen with apt use? Reduced alkalinity, question by covering the basics of the following
yes. Reduction in leaching, yes. Apt use should major crops from Class 10 NCERT Geography.
also ensure, increased availability of nutrients to Also, available at https://ncert.nic.in/ncerts//
plants. Answer arrived. jess104.pdf.
33 Grains - Rice, Wheat, Millets, Maize

22 Prelims Simplified
 Geography The Unique Academy

33 Other food crops – Sugarcane, Oilseeds, Tea, seeds have better survival as compared to
Coffee large setts.
33 Non food crops – Rubber, Fibre crops (Cotton 4. Sugarcane can be cultivated using settlings
and Jute) prepared from tissue culture.
Which of the statements given above is/are
– It is a simpler questions having many correct?
hints in question statement for identifying the (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only
answer. Even if, you are not sure about the (c) 1 and 4 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only
answer, let us try. You may be knowing main
areas of production of crops in the options. Try Answers
to relate what you know about the variables in
question statement for the same areas. E.g. frost- 1
free, rainfall etc. Here you go, knowing rainfall C
of different areas of India and main production
area can help. Explanations
(a) Cotton – Gujarat. Rainfall less than
100mm. Probable answer. 1. To overcome issues (like more seeds per
(b) Jute- West Bengal. Rainfall greater than hectare, water requirements etc) in the
100mm. conventional method of sugarcane planting,
(c) Sugarcane – Uttar Pradesh, Maharastra etc. ICAR has developed an integrated sugarcane
Rainfall not really around 50mm. Still, if cultivation model called Settling Transplanting
you are not sure, let us keep it in probable Technology with the following components:
answer. 1. High yielding and better quality varieties
(d) Tea – Assam. Rainfall definitely greater 2. Raising and transplanting of settlings
than 100mm. derived from single bud setts/ bud chips
[Statement 1 is correct as this leads to
Out of remaining options, Uttar Pradesh and substantial saving in seed material]
Gujarat, which one has well-drained soil capable
3. Sub-surface drip irrigation and fertigation
of retaining moisture and 210 frost free days.
4. Wider row planting
Answer arrived.
5. Intercropping
6. Trash mulching
G 28 - Propagation techniques 7. Multiple ratooning
8. Mechanization
PYQs
Statements 2 and 3 are incorrect whereas
1. With reference to the current trends in the statement 4 is correct.
cultivation of sugarcane in India, consider the
Hence, option (c) 1 and 4 only is the answer.
following statements:  [20/89]
1. A substantial saving in seed material is
made when ‘bud chip settlings' are raised – Observe statement 1. It says that saving
in a nursery and transplanted in the main in seed material can be obtained when settlings
field. are raised in a nursery and transplanted. When
we raise settlings in the nursery, we can apply
2. When direct planting of seeds is done,
scientific techniques to improve survival with
the germination percentage is better with
optimum inputs and care. Does this statement
single-budded setts as compared to setts
not look correct? Seems yes. Keeping this in the
with many buds.
probably correct category.
3. If bad weather conditions prevail when
seeds are directly planted, single- budded 2. In simpler words, a sett with one bud (small leaf

Prelims Simplified 23
 The Unique Academy Geography

growth in germination time) performs better than as public investment in agriculture?  [20/61]
a sett with many buds. Does it look consistent? 1. Fixing Minimum Support Price for
More buds should have better survival. Seems an agricultural produce of all crops.
incorrect statement. Keeping this in the probably 2. Computerization of Primary Agricultural
incorrect category. Credit Societies
3. Similar to statement 2, a sett with more buds 3. Social Capital development
should have better survival normally. Seems an 4. Free electricity supply to farmers
incorrect statement. Keeping this in the probably 5. Waiver of agricultural loans by the banking
incorrect category. system
6. Setting up of cold storage facilities by the
4. Seems correct as negation is difficult. Do you
governments.
think that sugarcane CANNOT be cultivated
Select the correct answer using the code given
using settlings prepared from tissue culture?
below.
With the developing technology and research,
tissue culture application to settlings for (a) 1, 2 and 5 only (b) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
sugarcane seems quite possible. Keeping this in (c) 2, 3 and 6 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
the probably correct category. 2. Which of the following factors/policies were
Now, try matching options with the above affecting the price of rice in India in the recent
guesstimate. Option (c) satisfying all extrapolated past? [20/63]
observations. Also, 1 and 4 correct with incorrect 1. Minimum Support Price
2 and 3 seems fitting a consistent narrative. A risk 2. Government's trading
worth taking, especially when you are targeting 3. Government's stockpiling
IFS Prelims cut off. 4. Consumer subsidies
Learning – Select the correct answer using the code given
below.
We could solve this question with reasonable (a) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
probability of correctness even without (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
hearing the term before. Scoring good in a
subject largely depends on the question type 3. Consider the following statements: [20/69]
asked from the same in the exam. Hence, it is 1. In the case of all cereals, pulses and oil
suggested that you go to the exam hall with a seeds, the procurement at Minimum
free mind, without any preconceived notion that Support Price (MSP) is unlimited in any
I will score best in xyz subject and won’t be able State/UT of India.
to answer abc subject questions. 2. In the case of cereals and pulses, the MSP
is fixed in any State/UT at a level to which
Thread –
the market price will never rise.
33 In 2014 Prelims [14/01], UPSC asked for
Which of the statements given above is/are
details about the sustainable sugarcane
correct? 
initiative.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
33 In 2020 Prelims [20/89], UPSC asked
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
for details about Settling Transplanting
Technology of Sugarcane. 4. With reference to pulse production in India,
consider the following statements:  [20/86]
G 29 - Agri economics 1. Black gram can be cultivated as both kharif
and rabi crop.
PYQs 2. Green-gram alone accounts for nearly half
of pulse production.
1. In India, which of the following can be considered 3. In the last three decades, while the

24 Prelims Simplified
 Geography The Unique Academy

production of kharif pulses has increased, (c) and correct answer.

the production of rabi pulses has decreased.
Learning –
Which of the statements given above is/are
It is not mandatory that you should have studied
correct?
exactly the term and constituents for answering
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
all the questions in Prelims. A brief idea about
(c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 themes with common sense, breaking down the
5. With reference to chemical fertilizers in India, keywords of question statements can help in
consider the following statements: [20/94] answering many Prelims questions, which WILL
1. At present, the retail price of chemical give you an edge over other aspirants.
fertilizers is market-driven and not
2. All the given factors/policies affect either one
administered by the Government.
or more of the variables i.e. demand and supply
2. Ammonia, which is an input of urea, is hence, the price of rice. In the recent past, these
produced from natural gas. all factors have affected the price of rice in India.
3. Sulphur, which is a raw material for
phosphoric acid fertilizer, is a by-product Hence, option (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 is the answer.
of oil refineries.
3. 1. The government announces MSP for 23
Which of the statements given above is/are crops, however effective MSP- linked
correct? procurement occurs mainly for wheat, rice
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only and cotton. Hence, there comes no question
(c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 of procurement of ALL cereals, pulses and
oilseeds. [Statement 1 is incorrect].
Answers
2. Statement 2 is incorrect.

1 2 3 4 5 Hence, option (d) Neither 1 nor 2 is the answer.

C D D A B
– Observe statement 1 and extreme words
Explanations ‘ALL’, ‘UNLIMITED’ and ‘ANY’. These three
extreme words in one statement are putting
1. Option (c) 2, 3 and 6 only is the answer. too much burden of proof on the statement.
Application of common sense would suggest
– When do we use investment in general how can government fix MSP for ALL cereals,
conversations? Is it not when we invest money pulses and oil-seeds etc when India has so many
for the creation of some infrastructure, asset varieties of each of these items.
or anything a bit worthy, which will give back For an instance, let us suppose that MSP is
better things later? fixed at a level much above market price. The
Computerisation of PACS may come with a term MINIMUM SUPPORT price and a basic
return of better efficiency of PACS and hence can understanding of MSP suggest that it is the
increase agricultural efficiency. Similarly, social minimum price for supporting farmers. Why
capital development and cold storage facilities would this have a threshold of maximum market
may help in better output at a later stage. Hence, price? Suppose the market price of wheat in a year
these items can be regarded as an investment. is estimated to remain between Rs 10 per kg to
Rs 25 per kg. Will the government fix minimum
However, MSP, free electricity and waiver of support at 25 per kg? It goes against the basic
loans fit another narrative of something which meaning of the term itself ‘MINIMUM’ &
are more sort of additional support, not exactly ‘SUPPORT’.
the creation of assets. 2,3,6 correct and 1,4,5
incorrect is a choice in the question i.e. option

Prelims Simplified 25
 The Unique Academy Geography

Thread –
5. 1. The Union Government subsidizes the
33 In 2018 Prelims [18/93], UPSC asked, ‘‘For
urea manufacturing units for the cost of
which of the given items MSP is fixed?’’
transportation to facilitate the availability
33 In 2020 Prelims [20/69], UPSC asked if MSP of urea at the same maximum retail price
is fixed for ALL cereals, pulses and oilseeds. all over the country. Also, the Government
Note : For MSP, find the following – is subsidising fertilizers for ensuring
33 MSP is provided for which crops their availability at reasonable prices for
33 factors considered in fixing MSP agricultural purposes. [Statement 1 is
incorrect.]
33 who recommends MSP
2. Statements 2 and 3 are correct.
4. 1. Pulses are grown in both Kharif and Rabi
Hence, option (b) 2 and 3 only is the answer.
seasons. Rabi pulses contribute more than
60 per cent of the overall pulse production.
– In case, you do not know the exact
[Statement 1 is correct].
pricing of fertilizers, try thinking where did
2. Gram (Chickpeas) is the most dominant pulse
you hear the pricing, import, export, smuggling
grown in India, having a share of around 40
or availability of fertilizers. Did you hear the
per cent in the total production. It is followed
case somewhere that the government is trying
by Tur/Arhar at around 20 per cent and Urad/
to make changes in the subsidy plan to reduce
Black Matpe and Moong at around 10 per
the smuggling of subsidized farm nutrients to
cent each. [Statement 2 is incorrect].
Nepal and Bangladesh or unauthorised industrial
3. Production of both Rabi and Kharif pulses use? In 2016 Prelims [16/24], UPSC asked the
have increased in last three decades. use of neem coated urea. That is also a step to
[Statement 3 is incorrect]. reduce the diversion of subsidised urea from
Hence, option (a) 1 only is the answer. agriculture to industry or other countries. Here
you go, if the price is market-driven, demand
Additional info – and supply will decide the price and hence no
□□ Bengal Gram (Desi Chick Pea / Desi Chana), difference between ammonia for industrial use
Pigeon Peas (Arhar / Toor / Red Gram), Green and agri use. Statement 1 is incorrect.
Beans (Moong Beans), Chick Peas (Kabuli
Chana), Black Matpe (Urad / Mah / Black Refer explanation of 11/31, crude oil consists of
Gram), Red Kidney Beans (Rajma), Black sulphur. Then, there is a reasonable probability
Eyed Peas (Lobiya), Lentils (Masoor), that sulphur will be a by-product of oil refineries.
White Peas (Matar) are major pulses grown [Statement 3 is correct].
and consumed in India. The only option meeting both above is the
□□ India is the largest producer (25% of global answer.
production), consumer (27% of world
consumption) and importer (14%) of pulses
G 31 - Fossil based sources
in the world.
□□ Pulses account for around 20 per cent of
the area under food grains and contribute
PYQs
around 7-10 per cent of the total food grains
1. Considered the following statements  [20/79]
production in the country. 
1. Coal ash contains arsenic, lead and
□□ Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Rajasthan, mercury.
Uttar Pradesh and Karnataka and Karnataka
2. Coal-fired power plants release sulphur
are the top five pulses producing states. dioxide and oxides of nitrogen into the
environment.

26 Prelims Simplified
 Geography The Unique Academy

3. High ash content is observed in Indian approach helps to get maximum in Prelims with
coal. the smart study.
Which of the statements given above is/are
Learning –
correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only There are many important concepts, which keep
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 revolving in Prelims papers. Studying more
about PYQ and thematic approach helps to get
2. The term 'West Texas Intermediate', sometimes +2 marks in these questions.
found in news, refers to a grade of  [20/53]
(a) Crude oil 2. A  benchmark crude  or  marker crude  is a crude
(b) Bullion oil that serves as a reference price for buyers
(c) Rare earth elements and sellers of crude oil. There are three primary
(d) Uranium benchmarks, 
33 West Texas Intermediate (WTI),
Answers 33 Brent Blend, and
33 Dubai Crude.
1 2
Hence, option (a) Crude oil is the answer.
D A
Thread –
Explanations 33 In 2011 Prelims [11/31], UPSC asked one of
the crude oil benchmarks i.e. Brent oil.
1. 1. Coal ash contains lead, mercury, cadmium, 33 In 2020 Prelims [20/53], UPSC asked another
chromium, arsenic, and selenium, all at levels benchmark i.e. West Texas Intermediate.
that may threaten human health. [Statement 1
is correct]. Additional info –
2. Refer explanation of 14/24. [Statement 2 is □□ Sweet crude refers to curde oil that is found
correct]. to contain very low amounts of sulphur. It is
3. Refer explanation of 13/61. [Statement 3 is considered as a valuable and efficient source
correct]. of crude oil since sulphur lowers the yield of
various refined petroleum products such as
Hence, option (d) 1, 2 and 3 is the answer. gasoline, diesel fuel, and even plastics. Sweet
Thread – crude can be contrasted with the less desirable
sour crude, which has a high level of sulphur
□□ In 2011 Prelims [11/02], UPSC asked what
content. WTI is known as a light sweet oil
are the emissions of coal combustion?
because it contains 0.24% sulphur and has
□□ In 2015 Prelims [15/18], UPSC asked if
a low density, making it light.
fly ash, by coal use in power plants, do not
contain any toxic material. Explanation of the
same was sufficient to affirm statement 1. G 32 - Non-fossil based sources
□□ In 2020 Prelims [20/79], UPSC asked coal
ash contains which all components? PYQs
33 In 2013 Prelims [13/61], UPSC asked if
1. According to India's National Policy on Biofuels,
Indian coal has high ash content.
which of the following can be used as raw
33 In 2020 Prelims [20/79], UPSC again asked
materials for the production of biofuels? [20/84]
the same concept.
1. Cassava
33 Explanation of 14/24 was sufficient to affirm
2. Damaged wheat grains
statement 2.
3. Groundnut seeds
Studying more about PYQ and thematic 4. Horse grams

Prelims Simplified 27
 The Unique Academy Geography

5. Rotten potatoes 33 For Advanced Biofuels : Biomass, MSW,

6. Sugar beet Industrial waste, Plastic waste etc.
Select the correct answer using the code given Hence, option (a) 1, 2, 5 and 6 only is the answer.
below:
(a) 1, 2, 5 and 6 only Thread –
(b) 1, 3, 4 and 6 only 33 In 2014 Prelims [14/73], UPSC asked for
(c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only raw materials which can be used to produce
biodiesel, starch and alcoholic beverages.
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
33 In 2017 Prelims [17/22], UPSC asked
2. With reference to solar water pumps, consider limitations for algae-based biofuel.
the following statements:  [20/88] 33 In 2018, the Government released a National
1. Solar power can be used for running surface policy on biofuels. It was expected that
pumps and not for submersible pumps. UPSC would ask some question on the same
2. Solar power can be used for running and was included in the ‘‘Further suggested
centrifugal pumps and not the ones with reading’’ of G32 in the previous edition of
piston. this book.
Which of the statements given above is/are 33 In 2020 Prelims [20/84], UPSC asked about
correct? raw material for biofuels as per the policy.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only When you analyse threads in UPSC PYQ
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 and understand the nerve of UPSC papers,
coverage of newspapers and current affairs start
Answers giving you a picture of UPSC requirement on
that theme as well as what to prioritize in the
1 2
preparation.
A D
2. 1. Solar pumps can be used for running surface
Explanations pumps as well as submersible pumps.
[Statement 1 is incorrect].
1. Extract from National Policy on Biofuels 2018 – 2. Solar power can be used for running
Potential domestic raw materials for the centrifugal pumps as well as the ones with
production of biofuels in the country are, piston. [Statement 2 is incorrect].
33 For Ethanol Production : B-Molasses, Hence, option (d) Neither 1 nor 2 is the answer.
Sugarcane juice, biomass in form of grasses,
agriculture residues (Rice straw, cotton stalk,
corn cobs, sawdust, bagasse etc.), sugar- G 36 - Minerals
containing materials like sugar beet, sweet
sorghum, etc. and starch-containing materials PYQs
such as corn, cassava, rotten potatoes
etc., Damaged food grains like wheat, 1. Consider the following minerals  [20/92]
broken rice etc. which are unfit for human 1. Bentonite 2. Chromite
consumption, Foodgrains during the surplus 3. Kyanite 4. Sillimanite
phase. Algal feedstock and cultivation of In India, which of the above is/are officially
seaweeds can also be the potential feedstock designated as major minerals?
for ethanol production [Statements 1,2,5 and (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 4 only
6 are correct]. (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only
33 For Biodiesel Production : Non- edible
Oilseeds, Used Cooking Oil (UCO), Animal
tallow, Acid Oil, Algal feedstock etc.

28 Prelims Simplified
 Geography The Unique Academy

Answers
1
D

Explanations

1. Bentonite is a minor mineral and all other given

statements consist of major minerals.
Hence, option (d) 2, 3 and 4 only is the answer.
Thread –
33 In 2019 Prelims [19/62], UPSC asked whether
sand is a minor mineral.
33 In 2020 Prelims [20/92], UPSC asked to select
major minerals from a list of 4 minerals.

Prelims Simplified 29
 The Unique Academy Polity

Part IV of the Constitution of India, which of the

P 2 - Part III - Fundamental Rights
following statements is/are correct? [20/18]
(Article 12-35) 1. They shall be enforceable by courts.
2. They shall not be enforceable by any court.
PYQs 3. The principles laid down in this part are to
influence the making of laws by the State.
1. Which one of the following categories of Select the correct answer using the code given
Fundamental Rights incorporates protection below:
against untouchability as a form of discrimination? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
 [20/04]
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only
(a) Right against Exploitation
(b) Right to Freedom Answers
(c) Right to Constitutional Remedies
(d) Right to Equality 1
D
Answers
Explanations
1
D 1. Refer to the explanation of 17/17. Statement 1 is
incorrect and statement 2 & 3 are correct. Hence,
Explanations option (d) 2 and 3 only is the answer.

1. Refer explanation of 17/97. Option (d) Right to Thread –

Equality is the answer. 33 In 2017 Prelims [17/17], UPSC asked if DPSP
put limitations on legislative and executive
Thread functions.
33 In 2017 Prelims [17/97], UPSC tested 33 In 2020 Prelims [20/18], UPSC asked the
knowledge of abolition of untouchability same thing in different words.
being a right to equality.
33 In 2020 Prelims [20/04], again UPSC
P 5 - Mixed
tested knowledge of protection against
untouchability being a right to equality.
PYQs
Additional info –
Part III – Fundamental Rights - Right to Equality 1. In India, separation of judiciary from the
(Article 14 to 18) executive is enjoined by  [20/05]
17. Abolition of Untouchability - Untouchability (a) the Preamble of the Constitution
is abolished and its practice in any form is (b) a Directive Principle of State Policy
forbidden. The enforcement of any disability (c) the Seventh Schedule
arising out of ―Untouchability shall be an (d) the conventional practice
offence punishable in accordance with law.
2. Which part of the Constitution of India declares
the ideal of Welfare State?  [20/12]
P 3 - Part IV - Directive Principles of (a) Directive Principles of State Policy
State Policy (DPSP) (Article 36-51) (b) Fundamental Rights
(c) Preamble
PYQs (d) Seventh Schedule

1. With reference to the provisions contained in

30 Prelims Simplified
 Polity The Unique Academy

Answers Answers
1 2 1
B A D

Explanations Explanations

1. Refer Simplified theme 7.3.9 1. Some of the principles or provisions of the

Option (b) a Directive Principle of State Policy Universal Declaration of Human Rights
is the answer. (UDHR)
1. Everyone has the right to education.
Additional info –
[Fundamental duties and Directive
Constitution – Article 50. Separation of judiciary principles of state policies of the
from executive—The State shall take steps to Constitution of India have the same
separate the judiciary from the executive in the provision. Hence, statements 2 and 3 are
public services of the State. correct].
2. Option (a) Directive Principles of State Policy is 2. Dignity of individual. [Preamble of the
the answer. Repeat question of 15/89. Constitution of India has equality of status
and opportunity. Hence, statement 1 is
Thread – correct].
33 In 2015 Prelims, UPSC asked The ideal of
'Welfare State' is enshrined in Hence, option (d) 1, 2 and 3 is the answer.
33 In 2020 Prelims, UPSC asked which part Thread –
declares ideal of a welfare state. 33 In 2011 Prelims [11/46], UPSC gave some
rights and asked whether they are included
P 6 - Rights other than in the UDHR.
Fundamental Rights 33 In 2020 Prelims [20/08], UPSC asked which
of the parts of the constitution reflect
principles and provisions of the UDHR.
PYQs
The answer to the 2011 Prelims question gave
1. Other than the Fundamental Rights, which of information that the right to education is part
the following parts of the Constitution of India of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights.
reflect/reflects the principles and provisions of the Right to education reflects the principles/
Universal Declaration of Human Rights (1948)? provisions of Fundamental Duties (statement 3
 [20/08] in this question) as well as the Directive Principle
1. Preamble of State Policy (statement 2). Hence, the correct
2. Directive Principles of State Policy option would consist of both 2 and 3. The
3. Fundamental Duties only option satisfying the same is the answer.
Solving PYQ in this book and revising gave
Select the correct answer using the code given
+2 marks in this relatively newer concept,
below:
generally unavailable in basic books. This is
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
also one of the tough questions of Prelims 2020,
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 in which previous edition of Prelims Simplified
helped score +2 marks, confirming the suggested
approach for UPSC CSE/IFS Prelims.

– Sometimes, we get confused between

Prelims Simplified 31
 The Unique Academy Polity

rights and fundamental rights. To distinguish Answers

these two with a clearer picture and to include
a checklist of completion of UDHR & legal 1 2
rights, a separate theme ‘P-06 Rights other A C
than Fundamental rights’ was created in the
first edition and this question in 2020 Prelims
Explanations
confirms the correctness of the approach in
this book.
1. 1. Extract from the Constitution - Article 164
Other provisions as to Ministers
Parliament (Article 79-122) (4) A Minister who for any period of six
P 10 - General and Officers of consecutive months is not a member of the
Parliament (Article 79-98) Legislature of the State shall at the expiration
of that period cease to be a Minister.

PYQs Hence, a person who is eligible to vote can be

made a minister. Please note that s/he has to
1. Consider the following statements:  [20/19] fulfil other conditions also, as prescribed in
1. According to the Constitution of India, a the Constitution. But, this question asks if one
person who is eligible to vote can be made can be a minister without being a member of
a minister in a State for six months even if the Legislature of that State. [Statement 1 is
he/she is not a member of the Legislature correct].
of that State.
2. Section 8 (3) in The Representation of the
2. According to the Representation of People People Act, 1951
Act, 1951, a person convicted of a criminal
A person convicted of any offence and
offence and sentenced to imprisonment
sentenced to imprisonment for not less than
for five years is permanently disqualified
two years [other than any offence referred to
from contesting an election even after his
in sub-section (1) or sub-section (2)] shall be
release from prison.
disqualified from the date of such conviction
Which of the statements given above is are and shall continue to be disqualified for a
correct? further period of six years since his release.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only [Statement 2 is incorrect].
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Hence, option (a) 1 only is the answer.
2. Consider the following statements:  [20/20]
1. The President of India can summon a 2. 1. Extract from the Constitution
session of the Parliament at such place as Article 85. Sessions of Parliament,
he/she thinks it. prorogation and dissolution.—(1) The
2. The Constitution of India provides for President shall from time to time summon
three sessions of the Parliament in a year, each House of Parliament to meet at such
but it is not mandatory to conduct all three time and place as he thinks fit, but six months
sessions. shall not intervene between its last sitting in
3. There is no minimum number of days that one session and the date appointed for its
the Parliament is required to meet in a year. first sitting in the next session. [Statement 1 is
Which of the statements given above is/are correct]
correct? 2. As per the above article, there cannot be a
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only gap of more than six months between two
sessions. Hence, it indirectly says that the
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only
Parliament should meet at least twice a year.
However, there is no mention of three times a

32 Prelims Simplified
 Polity The Unique Academy

year. Generally, Parliament has three sessions Explanations

in a year, viz, Budget, Monsoon and Winter
Session. But, this is not mandatory as per the 1. As per the NALSA website -
constitution article. [Statement 2 is incorrect]. The following sections of the society are entitled
3. Statement 3 is correct. to free legal services:
Hence, option (c) 1 and 3 only is the answer. (a) A member of a Scheduled Caste or
Scheduled Tribe;
Thread (b) A victim of trafficking in human beings or
33 In 2017 Prelims [17/76], UPSC asked begar as referred to in Article 23 of the
whether the speaker’s post goes to the party Constitution;
in majority which is true as per convention, (c) A woman or a child;
but not mentioned in the Constitution i.e.
(d) A mentally ill or otherwise disabled person;
UPSC changed the source/reference of the
(e) A person under circumstances of
provision of a generally correct thing.
undeserved want such as being a victim
33 In 2020 Prelims [20/20] statement 2, UPSC
of a mass disaster, ethnic violence, caste
repeated the same change to make an
atrocity, flood, drought, earthquake or
incorrect statement.
industrial disaster; or
Being aware of these changes after analysing
(f) An industrial workman; or
PYQ and their solution in this book helps to
(g) In custody, including custody in a protective
smartly think in the exam hall.
home, or a juvenile home, or a psychiatric
hospital
P 18 - Subordinate Courts (Article 233-237) (h) a person in receipt of annual income less
than a specific amount – this specific
PYQs amount differs from state/UT to state/UT
E.g. Rs 1 Lakh for Karnataka and Rs 3 lakh
1. In India, Legal Services Authorities provide free for Uttarakhand.
legal services to which of the following type of
33 No special provisions for OBC. [Statement 3
citizens?  [20/09]
is incorrect].
1. Person with an annual income of less than
33 Senior citizens’ eligibility for free legal aid
Rs. 1,00,000
depends on the Rules framed by the respective
2. Transgender with an annual income of less
State Governments in this regard. In Delhi for
than Rs. 2,00,000
example, senior citizens are eligible for free
3. Member of Other Backward Classes legal aid subject to the prescribed ceiling of
(OBC) with an annual income of less than annual income. [Statement 4 is incorrect, as
Rs. 3,00,000 not ALL citizens get free legal service].
4. All Senior Citizens
Hence, option (a) 1 and 2 only is the answer.
Select the correct answer using the code given
below: Read more at https://nalsa.gov.in/services/legal-
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 and 4 only aid/eligibility
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 4 only Also, take a note that for Mizoram annual
income criteria is Rs 25,000 which makes
Answers statement 1 incorrect in a stricter sense. Also, a
criterion for a transgender with less than 2 lakhs
1 income is mentioned for Delhi only. However,
A as UPSC states in the instructions, ‘MARK
THE RESPONSE WHICH YOU CONSIDER
THE BEST’. In this case, statements 3 and 4 are

Prelims Simplified 33
 The Unique Academy Polity

strictly incorrect. Thread –

33 In 2012 Prelims [12/30], UPSC gave options
Thread –
and asked which one is a special power of
33 In 2013 Prelims [13/71], NALSA objectives
Rajya Sabha.
and functions were asked by UPSC.
33 In 2016 Prelims [16/95], UPSC asked
33 In 2020 Prelims [20/09], criteria for free
provision for Parliament making a law in the
legal services by NALSA have been asked.
state list, where Rajya Sabha has a special
Many times, this is the trend of theme power.
development in UPSC. First, introduction/basic
33 In 2020 Prelims [20/02], UPSC asked to
is asked, and then the detailed provision is asked
choose a provision, in which Rajya Sabha and
at later years.
Lok Sabha have equal powers.
P 22 - Relations between the Union and Also, Further suggested reading of the previous
edition mentioned ‘Areas where Rajya Sabha
the States (Part 11) (Article 245-263) has lesser/equal/more power than Lok Sabha’.
PYQ analysis and repeated solving of the same
PYQs somehow develops the aptitude, by which one
starts understanding what are the areas to focus
1. Rajya Sabha has equal powers with Lok Sabha in
on in a particular theme. It helps to answer 5W,
 [20/02]
1H (why, when, where, which, who and how)
(a) the matter of creating new All India
of UPSC Prelims and that is what this book has
Services
been written for.
(b) amending the Constitution
(c) the removal of the government
Philosophical type
(d) making cut motions
P 33 - Forms of Government
Answers
1
PYQs
B 1. A constitutional government by definition is a
 [20/07]
Explanations (a) government by legislature
(b) popular government
1. a) Rajya Sabha has greater power than Lok (c) multi-party government
Sabha in creating new All India Services, (d) limited government
as Rajya Sabha can authorise the Parliament
to create new All-India Services common to 2. A Parliamentary System of Government is one
both the Centre and states. in which  [20/11]
b) Both the houses of Parliament have equal (a) all political parties in the Parliament are
power in this. represented in the Government
c) Article 75 (3) - The Council of Ministers shall (b) the Government is responsible to the
be collectively responsible to the House of Parliament and can be removed by it
the People. The Rajya Sabha cannot remove (c) the Government is elected by the people
the council of ministers by passing a no- and can be removed by them
confidence motion, whereas Lok Sabha can. (d) the Government is chosen by the
d) Lok Sabha has greater power than Rajya Parliament but cannot be removed by it
Sabha in making cut motions. before completion of a fixed term

Hence, option (b) amending the Constitution is

the answer.

34 Prelims Simplified
 Polity The Unique Academy

Answers parliamentary democracy

(b) An agency for strengthening the structure
1 2 of federalism
D B (c) An agency for facilitating political stability
and economic growth
Explanations (d) An Agency for the implementation of
public policy
1. Refer explanation of 14/59. As it mentions
‘effective restrictions on the Authority of the
Answers
State’, it is a limited government. Hence, option
1
(d) limited government is the answer.
D
Thread –
33 In 2014 Prelims [14/59], UPSC asked the basic Explanations
definition of a constitutional government.
33 In 2020 Prelims [20/07], UPSC again asked 1. Text extract from NCERT political science
the basic definition of a constitutional Class11: Permanent Executive: Bureaucracy
government in other words. It is always possible that a party is defeated in
PYQ analysis of 2011-19 revealed that forms elections and the new government wants to opt
of government can be a theme and the UPSC for new policies in the place of policies of the
paper of 2020 Prelims confirms this thematic previous government. In such a situation, it is the
approach. responsibility of the administrative machinery to
faithfully and efficiently participate in drafting
2. Refer to previous explanations in this theme. the policy and in its implementation.
Option (b) is the answer. Hence, option (d) is the answer.
Thread –
33 In 2013 Prelims [13/59], principles of – It is not mandatory that one should have
Parliamentary government were asked. read this concept in the books. As an aspirant,
one should know or at least guess in the exam
33 In 2015 Prelims [15/91], basic of
hall what actually civil servants do and what
Parliamentary government was asked.
their main function is, before actually aspiring to
33 In 2017 Prelims [17/46], the advantage of
be a civil servant. The main job of bureaucracy
Parliamentary government was asked.
is the implementation of policies made by the
33 In 2017 Prelims [17/99], principles of Legislature.
Cabinet government, another name of
Parliamentary government, was asked. P 36 - Important judgments
33 In 2020 Prelims [20/11], basic of
Parliamentary government has been asked. PYQs
Philosophical type 1. Consider the following statements:  [20/13]
P 34 - Others 1. The Constitution of India defines its
‘basic structure’ in terms of federalism,
PYQs secularism, fundamental rights and
democracy.
1. In the context of India, which one of the following 2. The Constitution of India provides for
is the characteristic appropriate for bureaucracy? 'Judicial review' to safeguard the citizens
 [20/15] liberties and to preserve the ideals on
(a) An agency for widening the scope of which the Constitution is based.

Prelims Simplified 35
 The Unique Academy Polity

Which of the statements given above is are 2. In the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), the
correct? Supreme Court rejected the earlier opinion (of the
Berubari Union case) and held that Preamble is
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
a part of the Constitution. Also, The Preamble
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
is neither a source of power to legislature nor a
2. The Preamble to the Constitution of India is prohibition upon the powers of the legislature.
 [20/16] It is non-justiciable, i.e., its provisions are not
(a) a part of the Constitution but has no legal enforceable in courts of law.
effect
Hence, option (d) is the answer.
(b) not a part of the Constitution and has no
legal effect either Note : Only 3 questions had been asked from
(c) a part of the Constitution and has the same judgments of the Supreme Court till 2019. Still,
legal effect as any other part the previous edition consisted of important
(d) a part of the Constitution but has no legal judgments as a separate theme, as this is an
effect independently of other parts evolving theme in recent years and the author
wanted to include the same in the checklist of
Answers aspirants. Also, a list of important judgments
had been provided for Further Suggested
1 2 Readings to guide aspirants so that at least
B D these minimum can be covered with an adequate
return on investment. 2 questions asked from
Explanations Keshavananda Bharti case (part of Further
Suggested Reading in the previous edition) in
1. 1. The basic structure of the constitution has 2020 Prelims confirms the thematic approach
been defined by the Supreme Court of India of this book.
in the Kesavananda Bharati case. From
various judgements, features like Free and fair
elections, Independent Judiciary, Secularism,
Parliamentary system, Rule of law, the
principle of Separation of Powers, emerged
as the part of Basic Structure. [Statement 1 is
incorrect].
2. Please refer explanation of 17/92, theme P16.
[Statement 2 is correct]
Hence, option (b) 2 only is the answer.
Thread –
33 In 2017 Prelims [17/92], UPSC asked judicial
review's implication in India.
33 In 2020 Prelims [20/13], UPSC asked if the
Constitution of India provides judicial
review.

36 Prelims Simplified
 Economy The Unique Academy

4. Rural areas have witnessed negative growth

Eco 1 - Human and social development
in employment in spite of high growth in
output. [Statement 4 is correct.]
PYQs
Hence, option (b) 3 and 4 only is the answer.
1. With reference to the Indian economy after
the 1991 economic liberalization, consider the – One may now think that all Niti Aayog
following statements:  [20/58] reports need to be covered. Not needed really.
1. Worker productivity (` per worker at Covering many reports is not needed, but an
2004-05 prices) increased in urban areas open mind to observe things and their application
while it decreased in rural areas. in the exam hall is needed.
2. The percentage share of rural areas in the
An understanding into rural India's development
workforce steadily increased.
history may indicate that migration of rural youth
3. In rural areas, the growth in non-farm
to urban areas has increased. Also, rural people's
economy increased.
proportion employed in agriculture has decreased
4. The growth rate in rural employment and non-farm activities in rural India have
decreased. increased at higher pace than agriculture. Hence,
Which of the statements given above is/are Statement 2 seems incorrect and statement 3 &
correct? 4 seems correct. Only option satisfying this is
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 and 4 only (b). Risk of marking (b) in the exam hall is worth
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 4 only taking.

Answers
Eco 2 - Other basic concepts in economy
1
B PYQs
1. If you withdraw Rs. 1,00,000 in cash from your
Explanations Demand Deposit Account at your bank, the
immediate effect on aggregate money supply in
1. As per NITI Aayog’s paper “Changing Structure
the economy will be [20/50]
of Rural Economy of India : Implications for
(a) to reduce it by Rs. 1,00,000
Employment and Growth 2017” –
(b) to increase it by Rs. 1,00,000
1. Worker productivity (Rs per worker at
(c) to increase it by more than Rs. 1,00,000
2004-05 prices) has increased for both rural
and urban areas. [Statement 1 is incorrect.] (d) to leave it unchanged
(Please note that the statement is partially Answers
correct, but overall it will be taken as
incorrect as part of statement is incorrect.) 1
2. Steady transition to urbanization over the
D
years has led to a decline in the rural share
in the workforce. [Statement 2 is incorrect.]
(Please note the question statement,
Explanations
decrease has been replaced by increased to
1. Text extract from class 11 NCERT Introductory
make incorrect statement.)
Macroeconomics
3. In rural areas, the growth in non-farm
Money supply, like money demand, is a stock
economy has increased and now two-third of
variable. The total stock of money in circulation
rural income is generated in non-agricultural
among the public at a particular point of time
activities. [Statement 3 is correct.]
is called money supply. RBI publishes figures for

Prelims Simplified 37
 The Unique Academy Economy

four alternative measures of money supply, viz and Budget Management Act, 2003
M1, M2, M3 and M4. They are defined as follows
M1 = CU + DD Answers
M2 = M1 + Savings deposits with Post Office
savings banks 1
M3 = M1 + Net time deposits of commercial D
banks
M4 = M3 + Total deposits with Post Office Explanations
savings organisations (excluding
National Savings Certificates) 1. Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management
Act is to ensure inter-generational equity in
where, CU is currency (notes plus coins) held by fiscal management, long run macroeconomic
the public and DD is net demand deposits held stability, better coordination between fiscal
by commercial banks. The word ‘net’ implies that and monetary policy, and transparency
only deposits of the public held by the banks are in fiscal operation of the Government.
to be included in money supply. The interbank It requires for the presentation of the following
deposits, which a commercial bank holds in documents before the Parliament -
other commercial banks, are not to be regarded 1. The Medium Term Expenditure Framework
as part of money supply. Statement
M1 and M2 are known as narrow money. M3 and 2. Medium-Term Fiscal Policy Statement
M4 are known as broad money. These measures 3. Fiscal Policy Strategy Statement and
are in decreasing order of liquidity. M1 is most 4. Macroeconomic Framework Statement
liquid and easiest for transactions whereas M4
is least liquid of all. M3 is the most commonly Hence, option (d) Provisions of the Fiscal
used measure of money supply. It is also known Responsibility and Budget Management Act,
as aggregate monetary resources 2003 is the answer.

When one withdraws Rs. 1,00,000 in cash Thread –

from demand deposit account, CU component 33 In 2018 Prelims [18/09], UPSC asked
increases and DD components decreases by same recommendation of FRBM for debt to GDP
amount, leaving the money supply unchanged. ratio.
Hence, option (d) to leave it unchanged is the 33 In 2020 Prelims [20/06], UPSC asked
answer. recommendation of FRBM for budget
document constituents.
Eco 4 - Budget This is how nature of asking questions by UPSC
has evolved. Also, further suggested reading
of P12 (in previous edition) consisted- Stages
PYQs of budget enactment and constituents of the
budget document. That is the reason this book
1. Along with the Budget, the Finance Minister also
recommends exhaustive coverage of PYQ and
places other documents before the Parliament
further suggested readings to cover the gap areas
which include "The Macro Economic Framework
in preparation.
Statement''. The aforesaid document is presented
because this is mandated by  [20/06]
(a) Long standing parliamentary convention Eco 8 - RBI & Monetary policy
(b) Article 112 and Article 110(1) of the
Constitution of India PYQs
(c) Article 113 of the Constitution of India
(d) Provisions of the Fiscal Responsibility 1. If the RBI decides to adopt an expansionist

38 Prelims Simplified
 Economy The Unique Academy

monetary policy, which of the following would pondering upon the keywords like this to avoid
it not do?  [20/57] losing 2.66 marks.
1. Cut and optimise the Statutory Liquidity
Thread
Ratio
33 Observe the questions 11/88, 13/43 & 19/86.
2. Increase the Marginal Standing Facility
Aren’t they all asking similar questions of
Rate
RBI actions on easy monetary policy? Hence,
3. Cut the Bank Rate and Repo Rate
thematic study should be done to understand
Select the correct answer using the code given story of continuity and evolution of UPSC
below: Prelims questions.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Eco 10 - Banking regulations
Answers
PYQs
1
B 1. What is the importance of the term "Interest
Coverage Ratio" of a firm in India?  [20/62]
1. It helps in understanding the present risk of
Explanations
a firm that a bank is going to give loan to.
1. Expansionist/easy monetary policy is when 2. It helps in evaluating the emerging risk of a
the central bank of a country increases money firm that a bank is going to give loan to.
supply to stimulate the economy. 3. The higher a borrowing firm's level of
1. Statutory liquidity ratio (SLR) is the ratio Interest Coverage Ratio, the worse is its
of liquid assets to the net demand and time ability to service its debt.
liabilities (NDTL). Cutting and optimising Select the correct answer using the code given
the SLR will increase money supply and below.
hence RBI can do this in expansionist (a) 1 and 2 only
monetary policy. (b) 2 only
2. Increasing the Marginal standing facility (c) 1 and 3 only
makes borrowing costly, and reduces (d) 1, 2 and 3
money supply. Hence, RBI would not do
this in expansionist monetary policy. Answers
3. Cutting the bank rate and repo rate makes
borrowing less costly and hence increases 1
money supply. Hence, RBI would do this A
in expansionist monetary policy.
Explanations
Hence, option (b) 2 only is the answer.
1. The interest coverage ratio is a debt ratio and
– Observe the word ‘not’ in the question profitability ratio used to determine how easily
statement and option combinations. 1 and a company can pay interest on its outstanding
3 consist activities which RBI would do in debt. A higher coverage ratio is better, although
expansionist monetary policy and 2 is opposite. the ideal ratio may vary by industry. [Statement
In hurry or absent mindedly if one misses to 3 is incorrect.]
read ‘not’ in the exam, s/he will mark option (c) 1
and 3 only. Such errors happen many a time in the As the ratio shows how well a company can pay
tensed environment of Prelims. Hence, aspirants interest, it will be overall a function of present
are advised to devise their own methods of risk, emerging risk and financial health of the

Prelims Simplified 39
 The Unique Academy Economy

company. [Statement 1 and 2 are correct.] DCCBs is to provide funds to the Primary
Agriculture Credit Societies.
Hence, option (a) 1 and 2 only is the answer.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
– Suppose you have not heard the term
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
before the examination.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
yy In 2016, UPSC asked a question on import
cover and below was the answer. Answers
yy Import cover - It is the number of months of
imports that could be paid for by a country’s 1
international reserves.
B
yy Import cover - Does it not look like how much
import can be covered with present resources? Explanations
yy Interest coverage ratio – Can it be like how
much interest can be paid with present 1. 1. Commercial banks have the highest share
resources/with present health of the company? in the disbursement of credit to agriculture
Is it not signalling, higher the ratio, better the and allied activities. [Statement 1 is incorrect.]
health of the company? 2. DCCBs mobilise deposits from the public
yy Now, observing the statements, statement 3 and provide credit to the public and Primary
talks totally opposite, hence for an instance Agriculture Credit Societies. [Statement 2 is
let us assume it incorrect. Out of remaining correct.]
options, statement 2 is common only. Hence,
correct. Hence, option (b) 2 only is the answer.
yy Now, coming to statement 1, when the ratio Thread –
helps in understanding emerging risk, would 33 In 2011 Prelims [11/83], UPSC asked ‘who
it not cover present risk. Defining a ratio for disburses highest to agriculture’ and
understanding future risk but STRICTLY ‘commercial banks’ was the correct answer,
excluding present risk seems unlikely. whereas cooperative, RRB etc were incorrect
yy So, statement 1 and 2 being correct and 3 choices.
being incorrect fits a probable narrative. I 33 With the same information, statement 1 can
would have taken risk of marking option (a) be negated here. Another direct advantage of
in the exam hall. Do analyse your risk taking solving PYQs.
abilities through this book’s question &
answer before actually applying them in final
exam. Eco 13 - FDI, FII, Bonds, disinvestment

Eco 12 - Financial inclusion PYQs

1. With reference to Foreign Direct Investment in
PYQs India, which one of the following is considered
its major characteristic?  [20/51]
1. Consider the following statements: [20/59] (a) It is the investment through capital
1. In terms of short-term credit delivery to instruments essentially in a listed company.
the agriculture sector, District Central
(b) It is a largely non-debt creating capital
Cooperative Banks (DCCBs) deliver
flow.
more credit in comparison to Scheduled
(c) It is the investment which involves debt-
Commercial Banks and Regional Rural
servicing.
Banks.
(d) It is the investment made by foreign
2. One of the most important functions of

40 Prelims Simplified
 Economy The Unique Academy

institutional investors in the Government know which all specific investments qualify
Securities. for FDI and start reading terms and conditions
of investments. As the paper is of GENERAL
2. With reference to the Indian economy, consider
studies, you need to have general overview
the following statements:  [20/70]
of things. E.g. what is the basis of FDI? Why
1. 'Commercial Paper' is a short-term
governments try attracting more FDI than FII?
unsecured promissory note.
What is it meant when we say it is relatively
2. 'Certificate of Deposit' is a long-term
permanent investment?
instrument issued by the Reserve Bank of
India to a corporation. Even if you had an idea of the general nature of
3. 'Call Money' is a short-term finance used FDI, filling gap areas by UPSC PYQs with some
for interbank transactions. amount of smart work in exam would have easily
4. 'Zero-Coupon Bonds' are the interest let you eliminate a, c and d.
bearing short-term bond issued by Thread
the Scheduled Commercial Banks to 33 In 2011 Prelims [11/28], UPSC asked
corporations. difference between FDI and FII.
Which of the statements given above is/are 33 In 2012 Prelims (12/78), UPSC asked
correct? examples of FDI.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 4 only 33 Knowing the above question correct and
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only incorrect options as well as explanations
given in the book was sufficient to correctly
Answers
solve this question in 2020 Prelims.
1 1 2.  Refer explanation of 19/67 – Theme Eco 13.
B C Statement 1 is correct and Statement 2 is
incorrect.
Explanations 33 Call money rate is the rate at which short term
funds are borrowed and lent in the money
1.  Investment under FDI need not necessarily be market. It is of one day duration. Banks resort
in a listed company or government securities. to these type of loans to fill the asset liability
[Options a and d are incorrect.] mismatch, comply with the statutory CRR
33 Debt service  is the cash that is required to and SLR requirements and to meet the sudden
cover the repayment of interest and principal demand of funds. RBI, banks, primary dealers
on a debt for a particular period. We have seen etc are the participants of the call money
in 12/78 explanation, FDI is type of long market. Demand and supply of liquidity
term or relatively permanent investment affect the call money rate. A tight liquidity
in the economy and includes equity capital, condition leads to a rise in call money rate
reinvested earnings and intra-company loans. and vice versa. [Statement 3 is correct].
Now think, out of remaining options, can 33 Refer explanation of 18/56 –Theme Eco 14.
FDI be an investment which would need Zero coupon bonds are issued at a discount
repayment of interests at later stages or it will and redeemed at face value at maturity.
be LARGELY a non-debt creating capital Statement 4 is incorrect.
flow. Option (b) is correct and option (c) is
Hence, option (c) 1 and 3 only is the answer.
incorrect.
Thread –
Option (b) It is a largely non-debt creating capital
flow is the answer. 33 In 2019 Prelims, UPSC asked a question on
Participatory Notes in which certificate of
deposit, commercial paper & promissory
– It is not mandatory that you strictly

Prelims Simplified 41
 The Unique Academy Economy

notes were incorrect options. This book Hence, option (d) 1, 2 and 3 is the answer.
contained definition of incorrect choices,
by which one could affirm statement 1 and Eco 15 - Balance of payment
negate statement 2. Only option meeting
these is (c), correct answer.
PYQs
33 At many places, the explanations do not go
deep into incorrect options, due to the nature of 1. If another global financial crisis happens in the
this book, being a strategy book not a content near future, which of the following actions/
book. In those cases, aspirants are strongly policies are most likely to give some immunity
advised to read more about incorrect options. to India? [20/49]
If standard books do not have those terms, 1. Not depending on short-term foreign
kindly refer first paragraph of Wikipedia for borrowings
the same. 2. Opening up to more foreign banks
3. Maintaining full capital account
Eco 14 - Tools (Money and convertibility
Capital market) Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
PYQs
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
1. In the context of the Indian economy, non- 2. With reference to the international trade of India
financial debt includes which of the following? at present which of the following statements is/
 [20/54] are correct?  [20/52]
1. Housing loans owed by households 1. India's merchandise exports are less than its
2. Amounts outstanding on credit cards merchandise imports.
3. Treasury bills 2. India's imports of iron and steel,
Select the correct answer using the code given chemicals, fertilisers and machinery have
below: decreased in recent years.
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only 3. India's exports of services are more than
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 its imports of services.
4. India suffers from an overall trade/current
Answers account deficit.
Select the correct answer using the code given
1
below:
D
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 only
Explanations
3. Consider the following statements:  [20/64]
1. Credit instruments can be understood as two 1. The value of Indo-Sri Lanka trade has
types – consistently increased in the last decade.
33 Financial debt – issuers are from financial 2. "Textile and textile articles" constitute an
sector e.g. commercial banks, insurance important item of trade between India and
companies, non- banking financial companies, Bangladesh.
co-operatives, pension funds, mutual funds 3. In the last five years, Nepal has been the
and other smaller financial entities largest trading partner of India in South
33 Non-financial debt – issuers are non- Asia.
financial. All the given statements are Which of the statements given above is/are
examples of the same. correct?

42 Prelims Simplified
 Economy The Unique Academy

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only correct and you reached answer without knowing
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 convertibility concept in this question. This does
not mean that one should read less, convertibility
Answers is a basic concept of economy and MUST be
covered. Reading more about incorrect options
1 2 3 will help cover gap areas in preparations, if any.
A D B
2. 1. Merchandise trade deficit is the largest
component of India’s current account deficit.
Explanations
As we have deficit in this, our export is lesser
than import. [Statement 1 is correct.]
1. Immunity to global financial crisis can be
obtained with lesser exposure to foreign financial 2. Statement 2 is incorrect as India’s import of
market. given items has increased in last decade.
1. Not depending on short-term foreign 3. Statements 3 and 4 are correct.
borrowings will help less exposure and Hence, option (d) 1, 3 and 4 only is the correct
hence immunity. [Statement 1 is correct.] answer.
2. Opening up to more foreign banks will
easily increase exposure to foreign markets – Suppose you start this question after 3-4
and hence lesser immunity. [Statement 2 is unattempted questions in Prelims; you read
incorrect.] statement 1 and you think – not remembering
3. Convertibility refers to free exchange exactly. You read statement 2; what is UPSC
at market determined prices without asking, how should I specifically know iron,
government intervention. If it is done steel, chemical etc import trend. You may start
in currency, it is current account building up negativity and think, I better attempt
convertibility. When it is done in assets, next Prelims remembering all these. At this
it is capital account convertibility. Full moment, one, who keeps the temperament,
capital account convertibility will give will steal the show.
freedom to convert domestic financial 33 Read statement 3, you would have generally
assets / liabilities into foreign assets read that India’s service sector, our remittances
liabilities and vice-versa. It will give from abroad are our strength and they help
more exposure and hence lesser immunity. in managing India’s overall budget deficit.
[Statement 3 is incorrect.] Good chance of having surplus in services.
Hence, option (a) 1 only is the answer. [Statement 3 is correct.]
33 We are expected to know that India suffers
– Suppose you do not know much about from trade/current account deficit. In case,
convertibility, just focus on terms and proper you are confused, try recalling where exactly
nouns in the question. As per question, something did you listen this term. Did you read in
is going wrong outside India and we have to keep current affairs that government is trying to
India immune from that wrong. What would reduce current account deficit or target of
you do when something outside your home current account deficit? Here you go, that
is going wrong? You will try insulating your means India has current account deficit, else
home. Opening up to more foreign banks will of you would have heard that current account
course increase the exposure and hence reduce surplus is this much and all. [Statement 4 is
immunity. [Statement 2 negated and options (b) correct.]
and (d) negated.] Remaining options suggest Only option, matching these two is option (d)
only one of the statements 1 and 3 is correct. which is correct answer. You arrived at the answer
Again, not depending on short term foreign without knowing the trend of steel, chemical and
borrowings will give immunity. Statement 1 is fertilisers. UPSC is not only about content, it is

Prelims Simplified 43
 The Unique Academy Economy

equally about the delivery also. (c) a credit system granted by WTO to its
33 In Prelims, it is content + solving questions members
with smart skills and temperament. (d) a credit system granted by IMF to its
33 In Mains, it is content + answer writing & members
time management.
33 In Interview, it is basic content + calm
Answers
confident mind ready to deliver.
1
3. 1. Indo-Sri Lanka trade has not consistently D
increased in the last decade. [Statement 1 is
incorrect.] Explanations
2. Statement 2 is correct.
3. Bangladesh has been largest trading partner of 1. Refer explanation of 13/83.
India in South Asia. [Statement 3 is incorrect.]
Option (d) a credit system granted by IMF to its
Hence, option (b) 2 only is the answer. members is the answer.
Thread –
Eco 16 - Currency and 33 In 2013 Prelims [13/83], UPSC asked
Foreign exchange groups of items included in India’s foreign-
exchange reserves.
33 In 2020 Prelims [20/17], UPSC asked detail
PYQs of one of the items in India’s foreign-
1. "Gold Tranche" (Reserve Tranche) refers to exchange reserves.
 [20/17] 33 Explanation of 2013 Prelims question [13/83]
(a) a loan system of the World Bank in this book was sufficient to answer this 2020
(b) one of the operations of a Central Bank question.

44 Prelims Simplified
 Environment The Unique Academy

3. Wood burning
Env 5 - Environmental Problems -
4. Using varnished wooden furniture
Global issues like Climate change
5. Using products made of polyurethane
Select the correct answer using the code given
PYQs below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
1. Which one of the following statements best (b) 2 and 4 only
describes the term 'Social Cost of Carbon'? (c) 1, 3 and 4 only
 [20/85]
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
It is a measure, in monetary value, of the
(a) long-term damage done by a tonne of CO2 Answers
emissions in a given year.
(b) requirement of fossil fuels for a country to 1
provide goods and services to its citizens, D
based on the burning of those fuels.
(c) efforts put in by a climate refugee to adapt Explanations
to live in a new place.
(d) contribution of an individual person to the 1. All 5 given factors contribute to Benzene
carbon footprint on the planet Earth. pollution.

Answers Hence, option (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 is the answer.

1 Env 11 - Chemical/pollutants -
A Remedy/alternate usage
Explanations
PYQs
1. The social cost of carbon is effort to put the
1. Steel slag can be the material for which of the
effects of climate change into economic terms
following?  [20/76]
to help policymakers and other decision makers
1. Construction of base road
understand the economic impacts of decisions
2. Improvement of agricultural soil
that would increase or decrease emissions. It
is economic damage that would result from 3. Production of cement
emitting one additional ton of greenhouse Select the correct answer using the code given
gases into the atmosphere. below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
Hence, option (a) long-term damage done by
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
a tonne of CO2 emissions in a given year is the
correct answer. 2. In rural road construction, the use of which
of the following is preferred for ensuring
Env 9 - Chemical/pollutants - Source environmental sustainability or to reduce carbon
footprint?  [20/78]
1. Copper slag
PYQs
2. Cold mix asphalt technology
1. Which of the following are the reasons/factors 3. Geotextiles
for exposure to benzene pollution?  [20/48] 4. Hot mix asphalt technology
1. Automobile exhaust 5. Portland cement
2. Tobacco smoke Select the correct answer using the code given

Prelims Simplified 45
 The Unique Academy Environment

below: which is used to reinforce soil & prevent from

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only damage. Geotextiles are mostly used in road
(c) 4 and 5 only (d) 1 and 5 only construction,  especially to fill gaps between
the roads to improve soil structure. Geotextile
Answers makes poor soil more beneficial for use
and is easy to build in difficult places also.
1 2 [Statement 3 is correct.]
D A 4. Statement 4 is incorrect.
5. Portland cement—the most widely used type
Explanations of cement around the world, and the product
specified in many modern construction
1.  Slag  is the glass-like  by-product left over codes—was patented nearly 200 years ago
after a desired metal has been separated and has become an essential component of
(i.e., smelted) from its raw ore. Slag is usually the built environment. Process releases large
a mixture of metal oxides and silicon dioxide. amounts of carbon dioxide. This industry's
yy Steel slag is used in all the three purposes given huge carbon footprint partly stems from its
in the question statements. In agriculture, it high fuel requirements, which are mostly
corrects the soil acidity and provides silicon satisfied by fossil fuels. [Statement 5 is
to plants. incorrect.]
Hence, option (d) 1, 2 and 3 is the answer. Hence, option (a) 1, 2 and 3 only is the answer.

2. 1. Copper slag is used for rural road construction – Observe quite opposite statements 2
and it will use the waste material with and 4. The moment such options or statements
sustainability, especially in the area where are present, it must catch your attention. Mostly,
industries produce copper slag. [Statement 1 one and only one of these may be true and may
is correct]. be part of the answer. Suppose this approach
2. Asphalt, also known as  bitumen is a sticky, is true, then both statements 2 and 4 cannot
black, highly viscous liquid or semi-solid be correct and at least one of them should be
form of petroleum. It may be found in natural correct. Only options (a) and (c) remain after
deposits or may be a refined product, and is that. Compare these two options, do you not feel
classed as a pitch. that Geo-textiles use should be environmentally
Cold asphalt mix is produced by mixing sustainable? You arrived at the answer. Out of
unheated mineral aggregate with either approaches suggested in this book, this is one
emulsified bitumen or foamed bitumen. approach which comes in relatively high risk
Unlike hot mix asphalt, cold asphalt mix category. Hence, one should apply it with due
does not require any heating of aggregate practice and care.
which makes it economical and relatively
pollution-free (no objectionable fumes or Please refer question number 15/87 (in theme
odours). Eco 7 – Inflation) with explanations.
Production of cold asphalt mix does not
require high investment in equipment, which – Please differentiate between last and this
makes it economical. It is also suitable for question. Last question just asked 'can be used'.
use in remote areas. Cold asphalt mixes can This question asks 'preferred for environmental
be used both for initial construction (100% sustainability or carbon footprint reduction'.
virgin mixes) and for recycling of asphalt Hence, in this question, even if a material is used
pavements. [Statement 2 is correct and and is not environmentally sustainable, it won’t
statement 4 is incorrect.] be part of the answer.
3. Geotextiles are thin & strong membrane fabric

46 Prelims Simplified
 Environment The Unique Academy

the collective global efforts to reduce the

Env 13 - About summit/conferences
emissions of greenhouse gases, in line with
the goals of the Paris Agreement. [Pair 3 is
PYQs correctly matched.]
1. Consider the following pairs  [20/10] 4. The Under2 Coalition is a global community
International agreement/set-up Subject  of state and regional governments committed
1. Alma-Ata Declaration - Healthcare to ambitious climate action in line with
the Paris Agreement. [Pair 4 is incorrectly
of the people
matched.]
2. Hague Convention - Biological
and chemical Hence, option (c) 1 and 3 only is the answer.
weapons
3. Talanoa Dialogue - Global climate – After seeing this question, you might feel,
change how are you supposed to remember so many
4. Under2 Coalition - Child rights international conventions and specially one
signed in 1978, and on miscellaneous topics like
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly
health, adoption etc? Observe the question and
matched?
options.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 4 only
33 Talanoa and Under2 are recent developments
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only
in international environmental scenarios
Answers [Knowing the correctness of pair 3 and
incorrectness of pair 4 is sufficient to answer
1 this question, as only option satisfying this
condition is the answer].
C
33 International summits/conference in
environment are especially important. That
Explanations
is the reason, Env 13 – About summits/
conferences has been added as a separate
1. 1. Alma-Ata Declaration (1978) expressed the
theme in the book and no other subject has
need for urgent action by all governments,
theme on summits/conferences. Aligning
all health and development workers, and the
preparation to these thematic trends of
world community to protect and promote
UPSC (identified in this book through UPSC
the health of all people. It was the first
papers) will help minimise (preferably
international declaration underlining the
eliminate) inclusion and exclusion errors in
importance of primary health care. [Pair 1 is
preparation.
correctly matched.]
2. The Hague Convention on the Civil
Aspects of International Child Abduction is a Env 18 - Legislations
multilateral treaty developed by the Hague
Conference on Private International Law that PYQs
provides an expeditious method to return a
child internationally abducted by a parent 1. If a particular plant species is placed under
from one member country to another. [Pair 2 Schedule VI of The Wildlife Protection Act,
is incorrectly matched.] 1972, what is the implication?  [20/81]
3. The Talanoa Dialogue is a process designed (a) a license is required to cultivate that plant.
to help countries implement and enhance (b) Such a plant cannot be cultivated under
their Nationally Determined Contributions any circumstances.
by 2020. The Dialogue was mandated by (c) It is a Genetically Modified crop plant.
the Parties to the UNFCCC to take stock of

Prelims Simplified 47
 The Unique Academy Environment

(d) Such a plant is invasive and harmful to Thread –

the ecosystem. 33 In 2017 Prelims [17/91], UPSC asked what
does inclusion in schedule 1 imply.
2. Consider the following statements:  [20/98]
1. 36% of India's districts are classified as 33 In 2020 Prelims [20/81], now what does
"overexploited" or "critical" by the Central inclusion in schedule VI imply?
Ground Water Authority (CGWA). After going through 17/91 question, one should
2. CGWA was formed under the Environment ask himself/herself how many schedules are
(Protection) Act. present in WPA and what inclusion in each
schedule means.
3. India has the largest area under groundwater
irrigation in the world. Reading on the lines of PYQ can easily help to
cover the gap areas in preparation and score +2
Which of the statements given above is/are
marks in these questions.
correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only 2. CGWA has divided areas with declining water
(c) 2 only (d) 1 and 3 only tables in three categories:
1.  Overexploited – Areas in which
Answers groundwater extraction rate is more than
the groundwater recharge rate.
1 2
2.  Critical – Areas where groundwater
A B extraction rate is 90-100% of the recharge.
3.  Semi-critical – Areas with an extraction
Explanations rate of 70-100% of groundwater recharge.
These categories are together called the OCS
1. Extract from WPA, 1972.
areas (total around 2000 out of around 6600
Chapter IIIA Protection of Specified Plants groundwater units in India). Percentage of
17C. Cultivation of specified plants without overexploited and critical is 19 % (not 36%)
licence prohibited.—(1) No person shall of total groundwater units. [Statement 1 is
cultivate a specified plant except under and incorrect.]
in accordance with a licence granted by the Statements 2 and 3 are correct.
Chief Wild Life Warden or any other officer
authorised by the State Government in this Hence, option (b) 2 and 3 only is the answer.
behalf:
Thread –
“specified plant” means any plant specified in 33 In 2014 Prelims [14/95], Eco sensitive zones
Schedule VI declaration under EPA 1986 was asked.
33 In 2014 Prelims [14/96], knowledge of
Hence, Option (a) a license is required to
Animal Welfare Board whether established
cultivate that plant is the answer.
under EPA 1986 was tested.
Additional info – 33 In 2015 Prelims [15/63], GEAC establishment
Schedule VI plant names – under EPA 1986 was asked.
1. Beddomes’ cycad (Cycas beddomei) 14/96 explanation suggested making list
2. Blue Vanda (Vanda soerulec) of statutory bodies under important acts of
3. Kuth (Saussurea lappa) environment theme. Statement 2 of this question
4. Ladies slipper orchids (Paphiopedilum is clearly a next thread in the story of this type
spp.) of question whose affirmation could have easily
5. Pitcher plant (Nepenthes khasiana) eliminated 2 options in this question.
6. Red Vanda (Rananthera imschootiana)

48 Prelims Simplified
 Environment The Unique Academy

and protected areas of incorrect choices of

Env 24 - Protected Areas and
PYQs.
Conservation Sites - Location
Env 26 - Other Current affairs
PYQs
PYQs
1. Which of the following Protected Areas are
located in Cauvery basin?  [20/73] 1. With reference to India's Desert National Park,
1. Nagarhole National park which of the following statements are correct?
2. Papikonda National Park [20/95]
3. Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve 1. It is spread over two districts.
4. Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary 2. There is no human habitation inside the
Select the correct answer using the code given Park.
below: 3. It is one of the natural habitats of Great
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 and 4 only Indian Bustard.
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
Answers (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
1
C 2. Among the following Tiger Reserves, which
one has the largest area under "Critical Tiger
Explanations Habitat"?  [20/100]
(a) Corbett
1.  Extract from NCERT class 11 Indian (b) Ranthambore
Geography (c) Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam
About 3 per cent of the Kaveri basin falls in (d) Sunderbans
Kerala, 41 per cent in Karnataka and 56 per cent
in Tamil Nadu.
Answers
Papikonda National Park is in Andhra Pradesh.
1 2
[refer 9.3.1.d] [Statement 2 is incorrect.]
C C
33 Refer Nagarhole's location in the same
simplified theme 9.3.1.d and Cauvery river's
location in 6.3.3. Clearly, Nagarhole lies in Explanations
Cauvery basin. [Statement 1 is correct.]
1. 1. Statement 1 is correct.
33 Only option satisfying above is (c). Hence,
option (c) 1, 3 and 4 only is the answer. 2. National parks generally do not have human
habitations allowed inside the core area.
Thread – However, many times, due to settlement issues
33 Papikonda, Sathyamangalam and Wayanad while declaring the park, human habitations
appeared in option of 19/27 and Nagarhole are present. Desert National Park is also one
was incorrect option of 17/04. Hence, reading of the same. Forest department is still in
more about incorrect options of PYQ would process of settlement of human habitations
have easily helped to know location of these outside the national parks. [Statement 2 is
protected areas and hence gain +2 marks in incorrect.]
2020 Prelims. 3. Statement 3 is correct.
Note – Aspirants are advised to cover species Hence, option (c) 1 and 3 only is the answer.

Prelims Simplified 49
 The Unique Academy Environment

Additional info –
2. With reference to Indian elephants, consider
The WPA, 1972, as well as FRA, 2006, require the following statements:  [20/72]
that rights of people (Scheduled Tribes and other 1. The leader of an elephant group is a female.
traditional forest dwellers) recognized in forest 2. The maximum gestation period can be 22
areas within core/critical tiger/wildlife habitats months.
of tiger reserves/protected areas may be modified 3. An elephant can normally go on calving
and resettled for providing inviolate spaces to till the age of 40 years only.
tiger/wild animals. 4. Among the States in India, the highest
WPA, 1972 provides for acquisition of rights elephant population is in Kerala.
in or over the land declared by the State Which of the statements given above is/are
Government for constituting a Sanctuary or correct?
a National Park. It authorizes the Collector to (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 4 only
acquire such land or rights. Therefore, payment (c) 3 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 only
of compensation for the immovable property of
people forms part of modifying / settling their Answers
rights which is a statutory requirement.
1 2
The proposed package has two options:
A A
Option I – Payment of the entire package
amount (Rs. 10 lakhs per family) to the family Explanations
in case the family opts so, without involving any
rehabilitation / relocation process by the Forest 1. 1. Sri Lankan frogmouth or Ceylon frogmouth
Department. is a small frogmouth (The frogmouths are a
group of nocturnal birds) found in the Western
Option II – Carrying out relocation / rehabilitation
Ghats and Sri Lanka.
of village from protected area / tiger reserve by
2. The coppersmith barbet, also called crimson-
the Forest Department.
breasted barbet and coppersmith, is an Asian
Thread – barbet with crimson forehead and throat,
33 Great Indian Bustard was part of incorrect known for its metronomic call that sounds
choice in 12/92 and hence reading more about similar to a coppersmith striking metal with
habitat, location and threat of the same was a hammer. It is a resident bird in the Indian
advised. This information helped in affirming subcontinent and parts of Southeast Asia.
statement 3 in this question. 3. The grey-chinned minivet is a species of bird
found from the Himalayas to China, Taiwan
2. Option (c) Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam is the correct and Southeast Asia.
answer.
4. The white-throated redstart is a species of
bird and is found in Nepal, Bhutan, central
Env 28 - Fauna Categorisation China and far northern areas of Myanmar
and Northeast India. Its natural habitat is
PYQs temperate forests.

1. With reference to India's biodiversity, Ceylon Hence option (a) Birds is the answer.
frogmouth, Coppersmith barbet, Gray-chinned 2. 1. The Indian elephant is one of three extant
minivet and White-throated redstart are [20/74] recognised subspecies of the Asian elephant
(a) Birds (b) Primates and native to mainland Asia. The oldest
(c) Reptiles (d) Amphibians female in an elephant herd is always the
leader. [Statement 1 is correct.]

50 Prelims Simplified
 Environment The Unique Academy

2. Statement 2 is correct. Answers

3. Female elephants live for 60 to 70 years, but
only have about four offspring throughout 1 2
their lifetime. Fertility decreases after age 50 A A
in elephants, and some may reproduce even
till 65 years. [Statement 3 is not correct.] Explanations
4. Karnataka leads in elephant number
with 6,049 elephants followed by Kerala. 1. Barasingha/swamp deer
[Statement 3 is incorrect.] 33 is one of the largest species of deer found in
Hence, option (a) 1 and 2 only is the answer. India
33 is known for its distinctive character of twelve
– This question represents a new type of tined stags
question evolving in UPSC Prelims with focus 33 Kanha National park is the reintroduction site
on a particular fauna and asking detailed of barasingha and first tiger reserve in India
statements about the same. Aspirants are advised to introduce Barasingha as officially mascot.
to read about nature, habitat, highest number in
Hence, option (a) Kanha National Park is the
which state, particular anomalies of tiger, lion,
answer.
dolphin, crocodile etc.
Thread –
Env 29 - Fauna Location 33 Aspirants might get a doubt that how many
species and their habitat need to be covered.
The list may look bulky, but if read with some
PYQs common interesting features it may help in
1. Which one of the following protected areas is retention or at least in elimination in the exam
well-known for the conservation of a sub-species hall. Also, this question falls in the category
of the Indian swamp deer (Barasingha) that of gap area coverage through PYQ as Swamp
thrives well on hard ground and is exclusively deer was part of question in 2013 Prelims
graminivorous?  [20/75] [13/87] and hence, it is expected that aspirants
(a) Kanha National Park read around the topic.
(b) Manas National Park 2. Musk deer
(c) Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary 33 is a solitary shy animal.
(d) Tal Chhapar Wildlife Sanctuary 33 lives in mountainous regions from Siberia to
2. Which of the following are the most likely places the Himalayas.
to find the musk deer in its natural habitat? 33 is found in Askot Musk Deer Sanctuary (in
 [20/77] Uttarakhand), a natural habitat of Musk deer.
1. Askot Wildlife Sanctuary 33 is also found in Gangotri National Park in
2. Gangotri National Park Uttarakhand.
3. Kishanpur Wildlife Sanctuary Hence, option (a) 1 and 2 only is the answer.
4. Manas National Park
Select the correct answer using the code given – This question represents symmetrical
below: type of options i.e. each option consisting same
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only number of statements.
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only
This can be solved by finding 2 most convincing
correct statements or 2 most convincing incorrect
statements or by way of using mixed approach

Prelims Simplified 51
The Unique Academy Environment

of both. This approach helps many times in 33 In 2020 Prelims [20/77], Musk deer's natural
elimination. habitat has been asked.
Thread –
33 In 2012 Prelims [12/92], Musk deer being
endangered species was asked.

52 Prelims Simplified
 Science The Unique Academy

(c) LISA Pathfinder (d) Evolved LISA

S 3 - Biology
Answers
1. Which of the following statements are correct
regarding the general difference between plant 1
and animal cells?  [20/47]
D
1. Plant cells have cellulose cell walls whilst
animal cells do not.
Explanations
2. Plant cells do not have plasma membrane
unlike animal cells which do.
1. Refer explanation of 17/87.
3. Mature plant cell has one large vacuole
whilst animal cell has many small vacuoles. Option (d) Evolved LISA is the answer.
Select the correct answer using the code given Thread –
below: 33 In 2017 Prelims [17/87], UPSC asked
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only purpose of ELISA.
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 33 In 2020 Prelims [20/43], UPSC gave some
features of ELISA and asked to identify the
Answers
experiment.
1 Read more about PYQ and correct/incorrect
options/statements/proper nouns.
C

1.  Plant cells have both cell wall and cell Communication

membrane (Plasma membrane). Basically, S 7 - Concepts
Plant cells  have a  cell  wall composed of
cellulose as well as a cell membrane.
PYQs
33 Animal cells have only cell membrane, not
cell wall. [Statement 1 is correct and statement 1. With reference to Visible Light Communication
2 is not correct.] (VLC) technology, which of the following
33 Vacuoles are basically storage bubbles found statements are correct?  [20/39]
in cells. It is present both in plant and animal 1. VLC uses electromagnetic spectrum
cells, however the same is larger in plant wavelengths 375 to 780 nm.
cells. These vacuoles are referred to store 2. VLC is known as long-range optical
food, nutrients etc. [Statement 3 is correct.] wireless communication.
Hence, option (c) 1 and 3 only is the answer. 3. VLC can transmit large amounts of data
faster than Bluetooth.
4. VLC has no electromagnetic interference.
Space
Select the correct answer using the code given
S 6 - International initiatives below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
PYQs (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only

1. ''The experiment will employ a trio of spacecraft Answers

flying in formation in the shape of an equilateral
triangle that has sides one million kilometers 1
long, with lasers shining between the craft." The C
experiment in question refers to  [20/43]
(a) Voyager-2 (b) New Horizons

Prelims Simplified 53
 The Unique Academy Science

Explanations Select the correct answer using the code given

below:
1.  Statements 1, 3 and 4 are correct regarding (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
VLC technology. (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
33 As light cannot cross opaque obstacles like
a wall, it gets difficult to use VLC for long Answers
range. [Statement 2 is incorrect.]
1
Hence, option (c) 1, 3 and 4 only is the answer. B

– This question represents a type with Explanations

symmetrical option combinations i.e. all the
options have 3 statements as correct and 1 1. Statements 1 and 2 are correct, whereas statement
incorrect. There can be 2 ways of solving this, 3 is incorrect.
either find 3 correct statements or find 1 sure shot
incorrect statement. Based on the question, one Hence, option (b) 1 and 2 only is the answer.
should apply mind to use either or both ways. Pneumococcal Conjugate Vaccines
In this question, common sense application along 33 Term Pneumococcal indicate that it is for
with some basic idea about visible light spectrum Pneumococcal diseases, that are infections
could have helped to negate statement 2 and caused by bacteria named pneumococcus
hence arrive at the answer. 33 Term conjugate indicate that it combines a
weak antigen with a strong antigen as a carrier
Thread –
so that the immune system has a stronger
33 In 2016 Prelims [16/05], UPSC asked basics
response to the weak antigen.
about LiFi technology using light as a
33 Since 2006, WHO has recommended that all
medium for data transmission.
countries should incorporate pneumococcal
33 In 2020 Prelims [20/39], UPSC asked features
conjugate vaccines in routine immunization
of VLC technology which also uses light as
schedules for children aged less than 2 years
a medium.
and has prioritized their introduction in
Note – Please find the similarities and difference countries with high child mortality rates and/
between LiFi and VLC technology. or high rates of HIV infection.

S 10 - Diseases – Think about affirmation/negation of

statement 3.
PYQs Vaccine has no side effect and allergic reaction
at all. Statement 3 will be incorrect even if some
1. What is the importance of using Pneumococcal cases of side effects and allergic reactions are
Conjugate Vaccines in India?  [20/45] there.
1. These vaccines are effective against
pneumonia as well as meningitis and Now, think about framing this statement as an
sepsis. incorrect statement by paper setter. Suppose
2. Dependence on antibiotics that are not it is true that this vaccine has some side effects
effective against drug resistant bacteria and allergic reaction (general possibility to be
can be reduced. true) and paper setter thought to change it this
way to make an incorrect statement. Seems quite
3. These vaccines have no side effects and
probable.
cause no allergic reactions.

54 Prelims Simplified
 Science The Unique Academy

Evaluate and improve your risk taking abilities 33 Pronuclear Transfer is used in mitochondrial
with questions in this book as well as test papers transfer techniques and is used for prevention
before trying this technique in the exam hall. of mitochondrial diseases in offspring.
Hence, option (d) prevention of mitochondrial
S 13 - Genetic Engineering diseases in offspring is the answer.
Thread –
PYQs
33 In 2017 Prelims [17/78], UPSC asked
1. In the context of recent advances in human application of Somatic cell nuclear transfer
reproductive technology, "Pronuclear Transfer" technology.
is used for  [20/37] 33 In 2020 Prelims [20/37], UPSC asked
(a) fertilization of egg in vitro by the donor application of Pronuclear transfer.
sperm That’s why this book recommends reading
(b) genetic modification of sperm producing around PYQ to cover gap areas in preparation.
cells
(c) development of stem cells into functional Also, Further suggested reading (in previous
embryos edition) of S13 and note of 17/78 recommended
covering basics (first paragraph of Wikipedia will
(d) prevention of mitochondrial diseases in
suffice, no need of in depth research) of general
offspring
terminologies in genetic engineering.
2. Consider the following statements:  [20/44]
1. Genetic changes can be introduced in the 2. 1. Germline gene therapy targets the
cells that produce eggs or sperms of a reproductive cells,  meaning any changes
prospective parent. made to the DNA will be passed on to the next
2. A person's genome can be edited before generation. [Statement 1 is correct.] Germline
birth at the early embryonic stage. gene therapy is prohibited in India.
3. Human induced pluripotent stem cells can 2. Statement 2 is correct.
be injected into the embryo of a pig. 3. Domesticated animals such as dogs, pigs and
Which of the statements given above is/are cows are considered excellent models for long-
correct? term experiments in regenerative medicines,
and biomedical research in general, because of
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
their similarities in physiology with humans
(c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
compared to the laboratory mouse or rat.
Answers So, the techniques used to generate induced
pluripotent stem cells from mouse and human
1 2 were also suitable in pigs. [Statement 3 is
correct.]
D D
Hence, option (d) 1, 2 and 3 is the answer.
Explanations Additional info –
A  germ line  is the sex  cells  (eggs and sperm)
1.  A pronucleus is the nucleus of a sperm or an
that are used by sexually reproducing organisms
egg cell during the process of fertilization.
to pass on genes from generation to generation.
33 In pronuclear transfer, the mother’s egg is first
Egg and sperm  cells  are called germ  cells, in
fertilized with the father’s sperm, producing a
contrast to the other  cells  of the body that are
zygote. The pronuclei of the egg and sperm
called somatic cells.
are then removed from the zygote and inserted
into a donor egg that has been fertilized and
has had its own nucleus removed.

Prelims Simplified 55
 The Unique Academy Science

Thread – 2. Cost of a new computer if some miscreant

33 In 2011 Prelims [11/05], DNA sequence was wilfully damages it, if proved so
asked. 3. Cost of hiring a specialized consultant
33 In 2012 Prelims [12/16], Stem cell functions to minimize the loss in case of cyber
were asked. extortion
33 In 2013 Prelims [13/05], transfer possibilities 4. Cost of defence in the Court of Law if any
in genetic engineering were asked. third party files a suit
33 In 2017 Prelims [17/78], application of one Select the correct answer using the code given
type of genetic engineering was asked. below:
33 In 2018 Prelims [18/64], name of tool of (a) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
genetic engineering related to context was (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
asked.
33 In 2019 Prelims [19/99], use of same tool Answers
above was asked.
1 2
33 In 2020 Prelims [20/44], various types of
genetic engineering and their application D B
possibilities has been asked.
Is it not connecting a thread where terminology Explanations
based question along with basic details, functions,
possibilities, types of genetic engineering 1. All the three activities are being performed by
is being asked? In fact, coverage of PYQs, drones.
explanations and Further suggested readings Hence, option (d) 1, 2 and 3 is the answer.
can help largely to cover the consistent themes
like Genetic engineering. Note – Drones were used for spraying pesticides
in Telangana and it was in news. In India, it is
not allowed as of now. Please read more about
S 15 - Electronics & IT Remotely Piloted Aircraft System (RPAS) and its
categories, digital sky platform and related basic
PYQs terms, which an aware citizen should know.

1. Consider the following activities:  [20/42] 2. Coverages from a typical cyber insurance
1. Spraying pesticides on a crop field policy in India
2. Inspecting the craters of active volcanoes 33 Identity theft
3. Collecting breath samples from spouting 33 Unauthorized transaction
whales for DNA analysis. 33 Reputational injury
At the present level of technology, which of the 33 Cyberbullying
above activities can be successfully carried out 33 Cyber Extortion (includes IT security
by using drones? consultant) [Statement 3 is correct.]
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only 33 Malware Intrusion
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 33 Legal Expenses [Statement 4 is correct.]
2. In India, under cyber insurance for individuals, 33 Data Restoration Costs [Statement 1 is
which of the following benefits are generally correct.]
covered, in addition to payment for the funds 33 Forensic Costs
and other benefits?  [20/60] 33 Consequential Loss
1. Cost of restoration of the computer system
Hence, option (b) 1, 3 and 4 only is the answer.
in case of malware disrupting access to
one's computer

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 Science The Unique Academy

S 16- Futuristic technologies Answers

1 2 3
PYQs
D D D
1. With the present state of development, Artificial
Intelligence can effectively do which of the Explanations
following?  [20/38]
1. Bring down electricity consumption in 1. All the five given activities can be effectively
industrial units performed with the present state of development of
2. Create meaningful short stories and songs Artificial Intelligence.
3. Disease diagnosis Hence, option (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 is the answer.
4. Text-to-Speech Conversion
Additional info –
5. Wireless transmission of electrical energy
Artificial intelligence refers to the simulation
Select the correct answer using the code given
of human intelligence in machines that are
below:
programmed to think like humans and mimic
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
their actions. The term may also be applied to
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
any machine that exhibits traits associated with
(c) 2, 4 and 5 only a human mind such as learning and problem-
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 solving.
2. With reference to "Blockchain Technology", Note – Find out difference between Artificial
consider the following statements:  [20/40] intelligence and Machine learning.
1. It is a public ledger that everyone can
inspect, but which no single user controls. 2.  A blockchain is a type of database, also
2. The structure and design of blockchain is called as Distributed Ledger Technology.
such that all the data in it are about crypto 33 Blockchain can be used for a variety
currency only. of purposes including Cryptocurrency.
3. Applications that depend on basic features [Statement 2 is incorrect.]
of blockchain can be developed without 33 The words “block” stands for digital
anybody's permission. information and “chain” stands for public
Which of the statements given above is/are database. Blockchains store data in blocks
correct? and these blocks are chained together.
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only 33 Blockchains can be permissionless -
(c) 2 only (d) 1 and 3 only associated with Bitcoin (the application
depends on the basic features), where access
3. With reference to carbon nanotubes, consider and validation are open to participants,
the following statements:  [20/41] achieving high degree of decentralization.
1. They can be used as carriers of drugs and [Statement 3 is correct.] It is a public ledger
antigens in the human body. that everyone can inspect, but which no
2. They can be made into artificial blood single user controls. [Statement 1 is correct.]
capillaries for an injured part of human They are authenticated by mass collaboration
body. powered by collective self-interests. 
3. They can be used in biochemical sensors.
Hence, option (d) 1 and 3 only is the answer.
4. Carbon nanotubes are biodegradable.
Which of the statements given above are correct? 3. All the four statements regarding carbon
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only nanotubes are correct.
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Hence, option (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 is the answer.

Prelims Simplified 57
The Unique Academy Science

Additional info – But, when you consider the thematic approach,

Carbon nanotubes are cylindrical molecules that it did not fall from sky.
consist of rolled-up sheets of single-layer carbon 33 37. When somatic cell nuclear transfer has
atoms (graphene). They can be single-walled been asked in 2017 Prelims, one is expected
with a diameter of less than 1 nanometer (nm) or to know about the term pronuclear transfer
multi-walled, consisting of several concentrically for 2020 Prelims.
interlinked nanotubes, with diameters reaching 33 39. UPSC asked LiFi technology in 2016 and
more than 100 nm. Their length can reach several now VLC in 2020.
micrometers or even millimeters. 33 43. ELISA could be simply answered by
Thread – explanation of 17/87.
In UPSC 2020 Prelims paper, set A question 33 44. Genetic engg has been one of the
numbers consistent themes and UPSC has kept up the
33 20/37- Pronuclear transfer trend by asking this question.
33 20/38- Artificial intelligence 33 38, 40, 41, 42 were already suggested in
Furthur suggested reading of previous
33 20/39- VLC technology
edition S16- Futuristic technologies.
33 20/40- Blockchain technology
Analysing UPSC PYQ gives a sense of UPSC
33 20/41- Carbon nanotubes trend/story and where the overall prelims
33 20/42- Use of drones paper over the years is heading to. Covering
33 20/43- ELISA UPSC PYQs in detail, reading around
33 20/44- Genetic engineering application correct/incorrect options/statements/proper
8 questions in a continuation in UPSC Prelims nouns in questions along with reading first
from Science subject and all questions asking paragraph of Wikipedia for further suggested
concept a bit deep, sufficient to break the rhythm reading could have helped in getting at least
of any aspirant in the exam hall. No wonder after 4-5 correct out of these 8 questions, giving
2020 Prelims, some aspirants said that the paper an edge over other aspirants. After all, it is a
fell from sky. game of relativity only.

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 Current Affairs The Unique Academy

agriculture and allied activities like pump

C 2 - Agriculture
sets, sprayers, dairy animals etc.
Hence, option (b) 1, 3 and 4 only is the answer.
PYQs
1. Under the Kisan Credit Card scheme, short-term – How to approach this question if you
credit support is given to farmers for which of know just the name of scheme and have only a
the following purposes?  [20/66] general idea about it, without knowing the exact
1. Working capital for maintenance of purposes of the scheme?
farm assets First of all, go through the question statements.
2. Purchase of combine harvesters, tractors If you know that any statement is 100% correct
and mini trucks or incorrect, strike off the options accordingly.
3. Consumption requirements of farm
Next step would be to see combination of
households
statements in the remaining options. Are the
4. Post-harvest expense
statements in a particular option fitting to a
5. Construction of family house and setting narrative and other statements are excluded
up of village cold storage facility from that narrative? This particular option may
Select the correct answer using the code given be the answer.
below:
(a) 1, 2 and 5 only E.g. taking option (a)
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only If option (a) is correct, KCC is given for
(c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only maintenance of farm assets, purchase of
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 tractors, construction of house, cold storage
etc but NOT FOR consumption requirements
Answers of farm households and post harvest expenses.
Is it consistent? Relate it with whatever fading
1 memory you have about KCC. Did you read
B KCC being given for house construction, cold
storage, tractors etc. Try to relate with quantum
Explanations of money needed if it is given to all farmers for
household, cold storage etc.
1. Kisan Credit Card (KCC) Scheme aims at
Now, moving to option (b)
providing adequate and timely credit support
from the banking system under a single window If option (b) is correct, KCC is given for
to the farmers for their cultivation & other maintenance of farm assets, consumption
needs as indicated below: requirement and post harvest losses but not
(a) To meet the short term credit requirements for tractors, house construction, cold storage
for cultivation of crops etc. Now, is it consistent? Seems yes, regular
(b) Post harvest expenses [Statement 4 is expenditures are being given but not high capital
correct] ones. Go back to question statement, ‘SHORT’-
(c) Produce Marketing loan term credit support mentioned in the question.
(d) Consumption requirements of farmer's Are the options consistent with the word short?
household [Statement 3 is correct.] Seems yes, risk worth taking.
(e) Working capital for maintenance of farm
Do negate other option combinations before
assets and activities allied to agriculture,
marking in the exam hall.
like dairy animals, inland fishery etc.
[Statement 1 is correct.] Please read about following (potential questions
(f) Investment credit requirement for for coming years) –

Prelims Simplified 59
 The Unique Academy Current Affairs

33 Which banks can issue KCC? data from consumers for their services.
33 Beneficiary requirements for KCC? [Statement 2 is correct.]
33 Interest rates for KCC? 3. As per IRDAI issued clarification, Aadhaar is
not required to buy an insurance policy. It can
C 7 - DBT and UID be a document for KYC, but not mandatory
requirement. [Statement 3 is incorrect.]
4. As per Section 7 of Aadhaar Act ( Proof of
PYQs
Aadhaar number necessary for receipt of
1. Consider the following statements: [20/01] certain subsidies, benefits and services, etc) -
1. Aadhaar metadata cannot be stored for Aadhaar is mandatory for getting benefits
more than three months. funded out of the Consolidated Fund of
2. State cannot enter into any contract India. [Statement 4 is correct.]
with private corporations for sharing of Hence, option (b) 2 and 4 only is the answer.
Aadhaar data.
Thread –
3. Aadhaar is mandatory for obtaining
insurance products. 33 In 2018 Prelims [18/12], UPSC asked Aadhar
proof of domicile, deactivation and API.
4. Aadhaar is mandatory for getting benefits
funded out of the Consolidated Fund of 33 In 2020 Prelims [20/01], UPSC asked
India. Aadhar metadata storage, data sharing,
consolidated fund benefits.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? This is a progressive development of theme DBT
and UID.
(a) 1 and 4 only (b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only
– Observe statements 3 and 4. They both
Answers talk about Aadhar requirement as a precondition
to some procedure/benefit to customer/public.
1 Now, think who is going to ask for this Aadhar
B verification/data.
For statement 3, it is the insurance company. Can
Explanations insurance company be private ? Yes, of course.
E.g. HDFC life insurance. Will they ask for
1. 1. Supreme court mentioned in a judgement MANDATORY Aadhar? Less likely.
- Retaining authentication data of citizens
For statement 4, benefits from Consolidated
who have enrolled for Aadhaar beyond six
Fund of India will be given by the government. It
months was "impermissible". [Statement 1 is
is more probable that Aadhar may be mandatory
incorrect]. Observe that 6 has been changed
for the same. This goes in tune with various
to 3 to make an incorrect statement. Try
features/objectives of Aadhar.
observing the numbers in question statements
and relate them with previous knowledge, Compare remaining options, either of 1 and 2 are
context and common sense to affirm or negate correct. Use common sense/previous knowledge
the statement. to affirm/negate.
2. Section 57 of the Aadhaar Act (allowed
sharing of data with private entities) C 8 - Digital India
has been struck down by the Supreme
Court. The judgement meant that private
PYQs
bodies like telecom companies, e- commerce
firms cannot ask for biometric and other 1. In India, the term "Public Key Infrastructure’’ is

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used in the context of [20/46] Answers

(a) Digital security infrastructure
(b) Food security infrastructure 1
(c) Health care and education infrastructure D
(d) Telecommunication and transportation
infrastructure Explanations
Answers 1. Statements 1, 2 and 4 are correct for MPLADS
while the funds are not lapsable [Statement 3 is
1
incorrect].
A
Hence, option (d) 1, 2 and 4 only is the answer.
Explanations
– Many funds are sanctioned on yearly basis
1. Public Key Infrastructure is a technology and the unused funds cannot be carried forward
for authenticating users and devices in the to the next year, but not MPLADS. Paper setter
digital world. The basic idea is to have one or has tried to confuse aspirants through this
more trusted parties digitally sign documents difference. Hence, bucket the information,
certifying that a particular cryptographic especially comparable one, changing features
key belongs to a particular user or device. across similar variables etc. in the preparation
stage itself to avoid confusion in the exam hall.
Hence, option (a) Digital security infrastructure
is the correct answer. Additional info –
MPLADS
C 16 - Sectors other than above 33 MPLAD Division is entrusted with the
responsibility of implementation.
PYQs 33 Each MP has the choice to suggest to the
District Collector for works to the tune of
1. With reference to the funds under Members of Rs.5 crores per annum to be taken up in his/
Parliament Local Area Development Scheme her constituency.
(MPLADS), which of the following statements 33 Rajya Sabha Members can recommend
are correct? [20/03] works in one or more districts in the State
1. MPLADS funds must be used to create from where he/she has been elected.
durable assets like physical infrastructure 33 Nominated Members of the Lok Sabha and
for health, education, etc Rajya Sabha may select any one or more
2. A specified portion of each MP's fund must Districts from any one State in the country for
benefit SC/ST populations implementation of their choice of work under
3. MPLADS funds are sanctioned on yearly the scheme.
basis and the unused funds cannot be
carried forward to the next year.
C 20 - WTO and other trade groupings
4. The district authority must inspect at least
10% of all work under implementation
every year.
PYQs
Select the correct answer using the code given 1. With reference to Trade-Related Investment
below: Measures (TRIMS), which of the following
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 and 4 only statements is/are correct?  [20/56]
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 4 only 1. Quantitative restrictions on imports by
foreign investors are prohibited.

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 The Unique Academy Current Affairs

2. They apply to investment measures Zealand

related to trade in both goods and services. (c) Brazil, Iran, Saudi Arabia and Vietnam
3. They are not concerned with the (d) Indonesia, Japan, Singapore and South
regulation of foreign investment. Korea
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
Answers
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
1
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
A
Answers
Explanations
1
C 1. The G20 (or Group of Twenty) is an international
forum for the governments and central bank
governors from 19 countries and the European
Explanations Union (EU). It was founded in 1999 with the aim
to discuss policy pertaining to the promotion
1.  Agreement on Trade-Related Investment of international financial stability.
Measures (TRIMs), negotiated during the The members of the G20 are: Argentina,
Uruguay Round, applies only to measures Australia, Brazil, Canada, China, France,
that affect trade in goods. [Statement 2 is Germany, India, Indonesia, Italy, Japan, Republic
incorrect.] of Korea, Mexico, Russia, Saudi Arabia, South
yy Recognizing that certain investment measures Africa, Turkey, United Kingdom, United States,
can have trade-restrictive and distorting and the European Union.
effects, it states that no Member shall apply Hence, option (a) Argentina, Mexico, South
a measure that is prohibited by the provisions Africa and Turkey is the answer.
of GATT Article  III (national treatment)
or Article  XI (quantitative restrictions). – Whenever you study any important
[Statement 1 is correct.] international organisation with 10-20 members,
yy The TRIMs Agreement and Regulation of 33 no need to straight away mug up its members
Foreign Investment   33 see if India is a member or not, if yes
As an agreement that is based on existing founding member or joined later.
GATT disciplines on trade in goods, the 33 try comparing it with any similar list in any
Agreement is not concerned with the other international organisation which you
regulation of foreign investment.  [Statement remember e.g. permanent members of UNSC
3 is correct.] or BRICS or may be world war II winners or
Hence, option (c) 1 and 3 only is the answer. losers (whatever is well remembered by you
and you can build up next memory over the
same).
C 21 - India and others
33 try visualising its members on world map.
Try visualising whether India’s neighbours
PYQs like China, Pakistan, MLTCV (explained in
1. In which one of the following groups are all the 15/64) are members.
four countries members of G20?  [20/65] 33 try comparing the membership with world
(a) Argentina, Mexico, South Africa and order, international relations etc because in
Turkey exam, it is very difficult to recall the list and
(b) Australia, Canada, Malaysia and New eliminate. In exam, these reasoning, maps

62 Prelims Simplified
 Current Affairs The Unique Academy

etc only help to eliminate options in such question statements, proper nouns and incorrect
questions and mark answer with reasonable options could have helped gain +2 marks in
probability of correctness. Prelims 2020.

C 24 - Nuclear and weapon-related C 26 - Indian Indices and reports

PYQs PYQs
1. In India, why are some nuclear reactors kept 1. Consider the following statements:  [20/67]
under "IAEA Safeguards" while others are not? 1. The weightage of food in Consumer Price
 [20/55] Index (CPI) is higher than that in Wholesale
(a) Some use uranium and others use thorium Price Index (WPI).
(b) Some use imported uranium and others 2. The WPI does not capture changes in the
use domestic supplies prices of services, which CPI does.
(c) Some are operated by foreign enterprises 3. Reserve Bank of India has now adopted
and others are operated by domestic WPI as its key measure of inflation and
enterprises to decide on changing the key policy rates.
(d) Some are State-owned and others are Which of the statements given above is/are
privately- owned correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
Answers (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

1 Answers
B
1
Explanations A

1. The nuclear reactors in India are placed under Explanations

IAEA safeguards only if they are fuelled by
imported uranium. By placing the reactors 1. Statements 1 and 2 are correct while statement 3
under the IAEA safeguards, India gives the is incorrect.
international nuclear energy watchdog access
Hence, option (a) 1 and 2 only is the answer.
to them. This step was taken by the country in
2014 to demonstrate that its nuclear energy Additional Info -
programme was for peaceful purposes. It was WPI and CPI basket distribution:
a necessary step under the Indo-US nuclear deal.
WPI CPI
Hence option (b) Some use imported uranium Fuel and
Miscellaneo
us
power 28%
and others use domestic supplies is the correct 15%
Pan, tobacco Food and
and
answer.
beverages
intoxicants 46%
3%
Primary
ar cles Clothing
Thread – 20% and
footwear
Manufactured 6%
Fuel and
33 In 2018 Prelims [18/33], UPSC asked products
65%
Light
7%
Housing
10%

additional protocol under IAEA for giving

IAEA safeguards for civil nuclear reactors. 33 WPI is released by Office of Economic
33 In 2020 Prelims [20/55], UPSC asked Advisor (Ministry of commerce & industry)
why only some reactors are under IAEA whereas CPI is released by NSO (MoSPI).
safeguards. 33 WPI includes goods only whereas CPI
That is how, thematic study, reading more about includes goods and services.

Prelims Simplified 63
 The Unique Academy Current Affairs

Thread –
33 CPI - IW (basic question) was asked in 2015
and now detailed provisions about CPI &
WPI have been asked.

C 30 - Others

PYQs
1. One common agreement between Gandhism and
Marxism is  [20/14]
(a) the final goal of a stateless society
(b) class struggle
(c) abolition of private property
(d) economic determinism

Answers
1
A

Explanations

1. Option (a) the final goal of a stateless society is

the answer.
Thread –
33 In 2011 Prelims [11/26], UPSC asked Karl
Marx's theory of class struggle
33 In 2020 Prelims [20/14], question was asked
on final goal of stateless society by Karl
Marx in agreement with Gandhiji.

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References of Direct/Indirect help by

Prelims Simplified in Prelims 2020
In this section, question-wise reference is being provided for ‘Help by Prelims Simplified section in Annexure
VII’. The question number indicated is the question number as per set A of Prelims 2020. Theme number is
the same, as referred to in the Prelims Simplified book. For thematic division and understanding the complete
story behind the particular question/theme, kindly refer to the first edition/second edition of the book Prelims
Simplified, as available to you.

Contents
Structured thinking/intelligent guessing ...........................................................................................................66
Full solution (+2marks) ................................................................................................................................66
Partial help ....................................................................................................................................................66
Direct help by Prelims Simplified........................................................................................................................67
Full Solution (+2marks) ................................................................................................................................67
Partial help ....................................................................................................................................................75
Indirect help by Prelims Simplified.....................................................................................................................79
Partial help part 1 ...........................................................................................................................................79
Partial help part 2 ...........................................................................................................................................85

Prelims Simplified 65
 The Unique Academy References Snapshots

Structured thinking/intelligent guessing

Full solution (+2marks)

2nd edition Additions
Q No Theme no Question title Help Category
page no pdf page no
27 H23 Gandhi-Irwin Pact Option combinations 116 13
39 S7 VLC technology Common observation 464 53
49 Eco 15 Economy immunity Common sense 350 42
52 Eco 15 BoP Common observation 350 42
58 Eco 1 LPG rural economy Option combinations 312 37
61 G29 Public invstmt - agri Option combinations 197 24
62 Eco 10 Intrst Covrg Ratio PYQ parallelism 337 39
66 C2 KCC purposes Option combinations 505 59
69 G29 MSP Extreme statement 197 24
78 Env 11 Sustainable roads Opposite statements 385 45
87 G27 Cotton properties Related variables 192 22
89 G28 Sugarcane bud chip Questions keywords 194 23
90 G26 Eco friendly agri Option combinations 188 20
91 G26 Fertigation Option combinations 188 20
94 G29 Fertilizers Thought process 198 25

Partial help
Theme 2nd edition Additions pdf
Q No Question title Help Category
no page number page number
1 C7 Aadhar Thought process 513 60
20 P10 Parliament sessions Change type 252 32
32 H28 Rakhmabai case Option combinations 128 15
45 S10 Conjugate Vaccines Extreme statement 470 54
68 G23 River - sea Etymology 180 19
80 G26 Biochar Related statements 187 20
93 G8 OMT Common observation 159 18
99 G6 Jet streams Statement formation 156 18

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 References Snapshots The Unique Academy

Direct help by Prelims Simplified

There are 2 snapshots indicated in the each question. Left side snapshot is from 2020 Prelims paper. Right side
snapshot is from Prelims Simplified book. It is just for a correlation of question with content in the book.

Full Solution (+2marks)

Q. PS 1st edition help page
Theme no Question title Help Category
No number
4 P2 Untouchability protection PYQ explanation 221

Q PS 1st edition help page

Theme no Question title Help Category
No number
5 P5 Judiciary separation Simplified theme 278

Q PS 1st edition help page

Theme no Question title Help Category
No number
7 P33 Constitutional govt PYQ explanation 264

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Q PS 1st edition help page

Theme no Question title Help Category
No number
8 P6 UDHR PYQ explanation 226

Right to education is part of UDHR, clearly DPSP and

Fundamental duties will be having reflection of UDHR
principles/provisions as article 45 and article 51A talks
about education. Only option meeting these is the answer.

68 Prelims Simplified
References Snapshots The Unique Academy

Q PS 1st edition help page

Theme no Question title Help Category
No number
11 P33 Parliamentary Govt PYQ explanation 264

Prelims Simplified 69
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Q PS 1st edition help page

Theme no Question title Help Category
No number
12 P5 Welfare State Repeat question 224

Q PS 1st edition help page

Theme no Question title Help Category
No number
17 Eco 16 Reserve Tranche PYQ explanation 325

70 Prelims Simplified
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Q PS 1st edition help page

Theme no Question title Help Category
No number
18 P3 DPSP enforceability PYQ explanation 222

Q PS 1st edition help page

Theme no Question title Help Category
No number
34 H20 Fort William trng PYQ explanation 124

Prelims Simplified 71
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Q PS 1st edition help page

Theme no Question title Help Category
No number
43 S6 Evolved LISA PYQ explanation 427

Q PS 1st edition help page

Theme no Question title Help Category
No number
70 Eco 13 Credit instruments PYQ explanation 317

Only option meeting statement 1 correct and statement 2 as

correct is the answer.

72 Prelims Simplified
References Snapshots The Unique Academy

Q PS 1st edition help page

Theme no Question title Help Category
No number
71 H9 Saint terms PYQ explanation 78

Only option meeting pair 1 as correct and pair 2 as

incorrect is the answer.

Q PS 1st edition help page

Theme no Question title Help Category
No number
79 G31 Coal PYQ explanation 188 & 354

Prelims Simplified 73
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Q PS 1st edition help page

Theme no Question title Help Category
No number
96 G19 Siachen glacier PYQ explanation 160

74 Prelims Simplified
 References Snapshots The Unique Academy

Partial help
Q PS 1st edition help page
Theme no Question title Help Category
No number
Judicial review basic
13 P36 PYQ explanation 242
structure

Partial help – Statement 2 is correct.

Q PS 1st edition help page

Theme no Question title Help Category
No number
23 H29 Handicrafts britishers Topic in PYQ 122

Requisite information was indirectly available.

Prelims Simplified 75
The Unique Academy References Snapshots

Q PS 1st edition help page

Theme no Question title Help Category
No number
51 Eco 13 FDI characteristics PYQ explanation 318

Other options could be eliminated and option (b) could be

affirmed by this information.

76 Prelims Simplified
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Q PS 1st edition help page

Theme no Question title Help Category
No number
Expansionist monetary
57 Eco 8 PYQ explanation 304-306
policy

Q PS 1st edition help page

Theme no Question title Help Category
No number
59 Eco 12 Agri sector credit PYQ explanation 314

Prelims Simplified 77
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Q PS 1st edition help page

Theme no Question title Help Category
No number
83 G26 Zero tillage PYQ explanation 176 & 347

78 Prelims Simplified
 References Snapshots The Unique Academy

Indirect help by Prelims Simplified

There are 2 snapshots indicated in the each question. Left side snapshot is from 2020 Prelims paper. Right side
snapshot is from Prelims Simplified book. It is just for a correlation of question with content in the book.

Partial help part 1

Q PS 1st edition help page
Theme no Question title Help Category
No number
Further suggested
2 P22 RS LS powers 250-252
reading & Thread

Q PS 1st edition help page

Theme no Question title Help Category
No number
6 Eco 4 FRBM Topic in PYQ 473

Prelims Simplified 79
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Q PS 1st edition help page

Theme no Question title Help Category
No number
9 P18 NALSA beneficiary Topic in PYQ 246

Q PS 1st edition help page

Theme no Question title Help Category
No number
14 C30 Gandhism Marxism Thread 507

80 Prelims Simplified
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Q PS 1st edition help page

Theme no Question title Help Category
No number
22 H9 Buddhism sects Advised 86

Q PS 1st edition help page

Theme no Question title Help Category
No number
37 S13 Pronuclear Transfer Thematic coverage 441

Prelims Simplified 81
The Unique Academy References Snapshots

Q PS 1st edition help page

Theme no Question title Help Category
No number
Further suggested
38 S16 AI applications 447
reading

82 Prelims Simplified
References Snapshots The Unique Academy

Q PS 1st edition help page

Theme no Question title Help Category
No number
Further suggested
40 S16 Blockchain basics 447
reading

Q PS 1st edition help page

Theme no Question title Help Category
No number
44 S13 Genetic engg Thematic coverage 439

Prelims Simplified 83
The Unique Academy References Snapshots

Q PS 1st edition help page

Theme no Question title Help Category
No number
53 G31 Benchmark crude Topic in PYQ 189

84 Prelims Simplified
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Partial help part 2

Q PS 1st edition help page
Theme no Question title Help Category
No number
55 C24 IAEA Safeguards Topic in PYQ 497

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67 C26 CPI WPI Topic in PYQ 501

Prelims Simplified 85
The Unique Academy References Snapshots

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72 Env 28 Elephant features 393
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86 Prelims Simplified
References Snapshots The Unique Academy

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73 Env 24 Cauvery basin PAs PYQ Options 382

Prelims Simplified 87
The Unique Academy References Snapshots

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75 Env 29 Indian swamp deer habitat PYQ Options 389

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77 Env 29 Musk deer habitat PYQ Options 389

88 Prelims Simplified
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81 Env 18 Sch VI WPA 1972 Thread 372

Prelims Simplified 89
The Unique Academy References Snapshots

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84 G32 Biofuel policy 194
reading

90 Prelims Simplified