ORAL SURGERY, ORAL DIAGNOSIS AND ROENTGENOLOGY

1. An asthmatic patient is characterized by having all of the following, except:

A. a history of allergy
B. inspiratory wheezes
C. hyperactive bronchi
D. bronchi that rapidly and spontaneously change caliber in response to various irritants.

2. A patient is wide-eyed, very nervous with an increased systolic pressure (with widening of the
pulse pressure), increased pulse rate, fine skin and hair, and loss of body weight. He is probably
suffering from:
A. Diabetes C. hyperpituitarism
B. Hypothyroidism D. hyperparathyroidism E. Hyperthyroidism

3. The ideal bone graft should do each of the following, except:

A. Induce osteogenesis C. Withstand mechanical forces
B. Produce an immunologic response D. Become replaced by host bone

4. Which of the following describes the use of hydroxylapatite for alveolar ridge augmentation?
A. Hydroxylapatite is considered to be osteoinductive (bone forming)
B. Granule migration and excessive augmentation are common problems with
hydroxylapatite materials
C. Compaction or compression of hydroxylapatite after augmentation generally does not
occur
D. Patients with hydoxylapatite augmentation to the anterior maxilla should be without
their maxillary prosthesis for a minimum of one month.

5. When removing an impacted third molar, a dentist divides (sections) the tooth for each of the
following reasons, except:
A. To shorten the surgical procedure
B. To minimize the amount of bone to be removed
C. To allow the tooth to be delivered to the occlusal aspect
D. To minimize exertion of force necessary to remove the tooth

6. Which of the following is a principle of alveoloplasty?

A. Undercuts that interferes with the seating of the dentures should be removed.
B. The remaining ridge should be as broad as possible, even if some undercuts exist.
C. Sharp bony projections need not be smooth as they will round off in a few days during
the healing process.
D. Both A & B
E. Both B & C

7. Rumpel-Leede, or the tourniquet test, is a measure of:

A. blood pressure B. factor IX deficiency C. capillary fragility D. clotting time

8. When the uvula curtain does not rise symmetrically when the patient says “ah”, it suggests which
one of the ffg cranial nerves may be damaged?
A. glossopharyngeal nerve C superior alveolar branch of the trigeminal nerve
B. hypoglossal nerve D. vagus nerve E. none

9. Excisional biopsy is most appropriate for which of the following conditions?

A. A 1 –cm exophytic mass on the buccal mucosa
B. A 2 –cm painless ulcer of ten weeks’ duration
C. A 3 –cm submucosal indurated lump
D. A leukoplakic area covering most of the buccal mucosa

10. A freeze-dried decalcified bone graft taken from a human donor and placed in a periodontal
defect in another patient is termed an:
A. Allograft B. Isograft C. Autograft D. Alloplastic graft

11. A paroxysmal and intermittent intense pain usually confined to specific nerve branches and is
most commonly present in the maxillofacial region:
A. neuritis B. neuralgia C. hyperesthesia D. paralysis E. none of these.

12. It is also known as decompression, partsch operation:

A. enucleation C. enucleation after marsupialization
1
 B. marsupialization D. enucleation with curettage E. none of these.

13. In the treatment of localized alveolar osteitis, the primary purpose of the dressing is to:
A. provide a vehicle for obtudent medication
B. promote the growth of the adjacent epithelium
C. prevent saliva from contaminating the alveolus
D. stimulate the formation of a blood clot.

14. Which of the following is necessary to allow for apically positioning a flap margin on the palatal
surface of molar teeth?
A. Use only a sulcular incision for the initial incision.
B. Trim the flap margin to the proper length during the procedure
C. Avoid making the initial incision deep enough to reach bone
D. Extend vertical releasing incision beyond the mucogingival junction

15. Because of its root structure, which of the following teeth is the least responsive to rotation forces
during extraction?
A. mandibular canine D. mandibular first premolar
B. maxillary central incisor E. mandibular second premolar
C. maxillary first premolar

16. During surgical correction of mandibular prognathism, the position of the mandibular condyle
should be
A. Unaltered B. advanced C. Retruded D. intruded

17. Occlusal radiograph are useful in locating

A. the hyoid bone C. sialoliths in Stensen’s duct
B. the mental foramen D. sialoliths in Wharton’s duct E. maxillary sinus mucoceles

18. Salient radiographic findings showing perpendicular bone trabeculation radiating outwardly
describe as “hair-on-end” effect and generalized osteoporosis:
A. aplastic anemia C. polycythemia
B. sickle-cell anemia D. pernicious anemia

19. In obtaining an incisional biopsy of soft tissue, the dentist should do each of the following, except:
A. infiltrate local anesthetic solution around the intended site
B. place a suture through the intended specimen before removing it
C. obtain some adjacent normal tissue if possible
D. place the specimen in saline, if 10% formalin is unavailable.

20. Replacement resorption is characterized by:

A. Pain C. rapid progression
B. Ankylosis D. acute inflammation E. apical pathosis

21. Which of the following is the most commonly used surgical procedure to correct maxillary
retrognathia?
A. C-osteotomy C. Inverted L osteotomy
B. LeFort 1 osteotomy D. Anterior maxillary osteotomy

22. The component of developer that gives detail to the radiographic image is
A. hydroquinone C. potassium bromide
B. sodium carbonate D. none of these E. sodium sulfite

23. If a dried radiograph were processed a second time, its appearance would show
A. Increased contrast and density D. Decreased contrast and density
B. Increased contrast only E. Increased density only
C. No change in contrast or density

24. Which of the following radiographic feature is commonly associated with a traumatic bone cyst?
A. Divergence of the roots of teeth
B. Unilocular radiolucency with focal radiopacity
C. Dome-shaped radiopacity of the maxillar sinus
D. Scalloped radiolucency extending between the roots of teeth

25. Bone marrow for grafting defects in the jaws is generally obtained from
A. a rib D. maxillary tuberosity
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 B. the tissue bank E. the mandibular parasymphysis
C. the iliac crest

26. Surgical blade which is used mainly for incision and drainage:
A. #11 B. #12 C. #15 D. #10 E. none of these.

27. The Z-plasty procedure may be used to correct: 1. ankyloglossia 2. interfering labial frena 3.
oroantral fistula 4. sharp mylohyoid ridges:
A. 1,2 B. 2,3,4 C. 1,2,3 D. all of the choices.

28. A type of implant that are surgically inserted into the jaw bone penetrating the entire jaw emerging
opposite the entry site usually at the bottom of the chin.
A. transosseous C. endosseous
B. subperiosteal D. osteointegration E. none of these.

29. Neuralgia that affects the 7th cranial nerve resulting to pain of the external auditory canal, auricles
and soft palate.
A. tic doloureux C. Ramsay Hunt’s syndrome
B. atypical facial neuralgia D. Post Herpetic Neuralgia E. Vasoglossopharyngeal neuralgia.

30. The application of microsurgical technique procedure in the treatment of maxillofacial nerve
injuries are:
A. brain and peripheral nerve C. nerve decompression
B. nerve grafting and anastomoses D. Both A & C E. both B & C.

31. In a fracture involving the angle of an edentulous mandible, the proximal segment is usually
displaced in which direction?
A. anterior and superior C. inferior only
B. anterior and inferior D. posterior

32. Of the following bone grafts, the greatest osteogenic potential occurs with:
A. a xenograft C. an autogenous cortical graft
B. a freeze-dried bone D. an autogenous cancellous graft

33. A compound fracture is characterized by

A. many small fragments D. a “star” shaped appearance
B. an incomplete break in the bone E. bleeding into the masticator space
C. communication with the oral cavity

34. Which of the following cells is least radiosensitive?

A. Red blood cell C. endothelial cell
B. Epithelial cell D. white blood cell E. connective tissue cell

35. Which of the following is a major radiographic finding in ectodermal dysplasia?

A. Osteoporosis D. a ground-glass appearance of bone
B. Hutchinson’s teeth E. calcification of the falx cerebri
C. Congenitally missing teeth

36. Which of the following tissue is most sensitive to radiation-induced cancer?

A. Skin C. thyroid
B. Nerve D. adult bone E. female breast
37. The surgical procedure most frequently performed to correct a skeletal mandibular retrognathia is
bilateral
A. body ostectomy D. oblique subcondylar osteotomy
B. “C” type osteotomy of the ramus E. horizontal osteotomy of the ramus
C. sagittal split osteotomy of the ramus

38. The routine examination of a healthy 20-year old man discloses a round, brown lesion, 3 mm in
diameter, on his lower lip. The lesion is solitary, asymptomatic, and flat. Its duration is unknown.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Blue nevus C.. Malignant melanoma
B. Focal melanosis D. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome E. Compound nevus

3
39. A patient presents with continuous, spontaneous pain associated with the maxillary right central
incisor. The tooth has a large Class V composite restoration. Cold testing produces lingering pain.
There is no sensitivity to percussion or palpation. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. necrotic pulp, chronic apical periodontitis
B. reversible pulpitis, normal periapex
C. irreversible pulpitis, normal periapex
D. irreversible pulpitis, acute apical periodontitis

40. A 33-year old female patient states that her mandibular first molar has been hurting since the
recent placement of an amalgam restoration. She describes the pain as mild-to-moderate, which
is not spontaneous, but is provoked by cold, heat and sweets. These symptoms most likely
correspond with:
A. pulp necrosis B. internal resorption C. reversible pulpitis D. irreversible pulpitis

41. High-flow 100% O2 is indicated for treating each of the following types of syncope, except:
A. Vasovagal C. Orthostatic
B. Neurogenic D. Hyperventilation syndrome

42. An adult healthy patient has marked indurated swelling. He has a temperature of 100ºF and has
been in considerable pain for 24 hours. Percussion of the maxillary right central incisor causes
discomfort as does palpation at its apex. Pulp vitality tests are negative for this tooth, while
adjacent control teeth test within normal limits. A radiograph reveals that the maxillary right
central incisor has a deep unbased restoration and a widened apical periodontal ligament space.
Which of the following is the best emergency treatment for this patient?
A. extracting the maxillary right central incisor
B. administering an antibiotic and analgesic and initiating root canal therapy when
symptoms subside
C. debriding the root canal of the maxillary right central incisor and prescribing
antibiotics and analgesics
D. incising and draining the swelling and prescribing antibiotics and analgesics.

43. A change in continuity of the occlusal plane is often observed after ankylosis of a tooth. This
change is caused by:
A. differential eruption sequences.
B. The ankylosed teeth sinking into the alveolar bone.
C. Localized growth inhibition of the alveolar process.
D. Continued eruption of non-ankylozed teeth and growth of the alveolar process

44. If multiple myeloma is suspected because of a patient’s medical history and intraoral
radiographs, which radiographic projection is best confirm the suspected diagnosis?
A. lateral skull C. posterior-anterior
B. lateral oblique D. tempormandibular survery E. anterior-posterior

45. Radiographic signs of trauma from occlusion include each of the following, except:
A. Hypercementosis D. Root resorption
B. Alteration of the lamina dura E. Alteration of the periodontal space
C. Vascular infiltration of the periodontal ligament

46. In performing normal dental diagnostic procedures, the operator receives the greatest hazard
from which type of radiation?
A. direct primary beam C. secondary
B. scatter D. gamma E. secondary and scatter

47. For five days, a 25-year old man has had painful oral ulcerations. Several reddish macular
lesions are present on his face and hands, most of which have a ring-like or bull’s eye
appearance. He had “cold sores” two weeks earlier. Tentative diagnosis is:
A. lichen planus C. verruca vulgaris
B. aphthous ulcers D. erythema multiforme E. pityriasis rosea

48. Physical examination of a 28-year-old man reveals an extensive, smooth enlargement of the body
of the mandible in the molar region. The patient states that the enlargement has been present for
two years and has slowly and steadily increased in size. The most probable clinical diagnosis is:
A. Osteosarcoma B. osteomyelitis C. Ameloblastoma D. osteitis deformans

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49. A patient gives a history of bruising easily nocturia, excessive thirst and a low resistance to
infections. This patient is likely to be suffering from:
A. diabetes insipidus C. lupus erythematosus
B. diabetes mellitus D. thrombocytopenic purpura E. glomerulonephritis

50. A patient who has spider telangiectatic spots on the skin should have an examination to
determine the condition of his:
A. lungs B. kidneys C. liver D. pancreas E. gallbladder

51. A patient who has a white blood cell count of more than 100,000/cc most likely is suffering from
A. Leukemia D. polycythemia C. Leucopenia D. pernicious anemia

52. A swelling on the anterior floor of the mouth is soft and painless. It has been present for several
months. The overlying mucosa has a bluish tinge. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. A retention cyst D. A mixed salivary gland tumor
B. An infected periodontal abscess E. A carcinoma of the floor of the mouth
C. An obstructed sublingual gland duct

53. Differential white blood cell counts in the laboratory are useful in the diagnosis of:
A. anemia C. vitamin deficiency
B. eosinophilia D. thrombocytopenic purpura E. spherocytosis

54. Bell’s palsy is a condition associated with:

A. An impacted teeth D. the glossopharyngeal nerve
B. A submaxillary gland E. a temporomandibular joint
C. The seventh cranial nerve

55. A tender swelling in the soft tissues of yhe submandibular triangle is most likely caused by
A. lipoma D. an infected thyroglossal duct cyst
B. lymphadenopathy E. any of the choices.
C. an obstruction of Stensen’s duct

56. The success of a free gingival graft procedure depends upon which of the following?
A. The graft being immobilized at the recipient site.
B. The donor tissue being as thick as possible and containing periosteum.
C. A thick blood clot remaining between the recipient and donor tissue.
D. A periosteal fenestration being present.

57. Which of the following will most likely cause an autogenous tooth transplant to fall during the third
year?
A. Development of root caries C. An inflammatory resorption of supporting bone
B. Ankylosis of the tooth D. An idiopathic chronic progressive root resorption

58. A complete blood count does not include:

A. hemoglobin C. differential white blood cell
B. lymphocytes D. erythrocyte sedimentation rate E. white blood cell count\

59. An increased erythrocytes sedimentation rate (ESR):

A. is specific for rheumatic fever
B. is the result of high blood pressure
C. is due to an increase in the size and weight of the RBC
D. suggests the presence of an infection somewhere in the body
E. none of these.

60. Brown to black pigmentation caused by adrenal insufficiency is commonly associated with:
A. angular chelitis C. candidiasis
B. perleche D. Addison’s disease E. Syphylytic lesion.

61. The earliest sign of hemorrhagic shock is:

A. dyspnea B. tachycardia C. hypotension D. vasoconstriction

62. Which of the following bone donor grafts has the greatest osteogenic potential?
A. Freeze-dried bone C. Heretogenous marrow
B. Hemopoietic marrow D. Corticocancellous block

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63. A dentist surgically removes a maxillary first molar, fracturing a large portion of the palatal root.
The root is forced into the antrum and cannot be visualized. Adjacent teeth and bone are normal.
The appropriate approach to recover is root is through the:
A. hard palate in the canine area.
B. Maxillary incisive fossa medial to the canine
C. Maxillary canine fossa above the level of the premolar roots.
D. Nasoantral wall above the middle concha or turbinate
E. First molar alveolus by enlarging the antral opening

64. The x-ray beam is filtered to

A. Soften the beam C. remove long wavelength x-rays
B. Restrict the beam size D. remove short wavelength x-rays

65. The speed with which electrons travel from the filament of the cathode to the target of the anode
depends upon the
A. Potential difference between the two electrodes
B. Number of milliamperes in the tube circuit D. Voltage in the filament circuit
C. Angle between the filament and the target E. Size of the electron cloud

66. Collimation of a beam refers to be:

A. selective removal of soft radiation from the beam
B. selective removal of hard radiation from the beam
C. reduction of the beam diameter
D. none of these.

67. The techniques that show the upper and lower crowns on the same radiograph is called the:
A. bisecting angle technique C. paralleling technique
B. bite wing technique D. occlusal technique

68. Which of the following describes osseointegrated implants?

A. They have a direct structural and functional connection with bone only at the
radiographic level of detection.
B. They are anchored directly to living bone as determined by radiographic and
light microscopic analyses.
C. They form a junctional epithelium with the surrounding tissue.
D. They form a pseudo-periodontal ligament.

69. A patient who is on dicumarol therapy requires a tooth extraction. Which laboratory test is the
most valuable in evaluating this patient’s surgical risk?
A. Clotting time C. Sedimentation rate
B. Bleeding time . D. Complete blood cell count E. Prothrombin time

70. A symmetrically widened periodontal ligament space around one or two adjacent teeth is reported
to be earliest radiographic sign of:
A. osteosarcoma D. sclerosing cemental masses
B. osteitis deformans E. craniofacial fibrous dysplasia
C. florid osseous dysplasia

71. The density of a radiograph is reduced by increasing

A. kilovoltage C. source-film distance
B. milliamperage D. diameter of the aperture E. exposure time

72. Cone cutting on a radiograph is caused by:

A. underexposure
B. improper exposure techniques
C. a damaged cone
D. improper coverage of the film with the beam of radiation.

73. Which of the ffg diseases does not cause changes in the lamina dura:
A. Gaucher’s disease C. thyroid disease
B. sickle cell anemia D. Paget’s disease E. none of these.

74. Image sharpness on a radiograph is increased by

A. increasing film speed D. increasing object-film distance
B. using a small focal spot size E. decreasing object-film distance
C. using a large focal spot size
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75. When taking extraoral radiographs, double intensifying screen films are used to reduce
A. density C. secondary radiation
B. contrast D. target-skin distance E. exposure time

76. Radiographs of an asymptomatic 19-year old patient disclose a well demarcated, biloculated, 3x2
cm radiolucency in the area of left mandibular molars. Each of the following should be included in
the differential diagnosis, except
A. Ameloblastoma C. odontogenic keratocyst
B. Cementoblastoma D. central giant cell granuloma E. Traumatic bone cyst

77. The first clinically observable reaction to radiation overexposure is

A. loss of hair C. agenesis of blood cells
B. erythema of the skin D. loss of alimentary epithelium

78. The radiographic view that best demonstrates a mediolaterally-displaced subcondylar fracture is
the
A. panoramic projection D. lateral oblique of the mandible
B. maxillary occlusal view E. lateral skull projection
C. posteroanterior projection

79. If the intensity of a beam of radiation is 12 at a point 12 inches from the target, the intensity of the
beam at 24 inches is
A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 6 E. 9.

80. A long cone is used in the paralleling or right-angle radiographic technique to

A. reduce secondary radiation
B. avoid magnification of the image
C. avoid distortion of image shape
D. avoid superimposition of anatomic structures
E. facilitate correct vertical angulation of the cone

81. Which electron has the greatest binding energy to the nucleus?
A. J-shell electron C. L-shell electron
B. K-shell electron D. Q-shell electron E. both B & C

82. In object localization,, if the tube is shifted mesially, and the object in question appears to move
distally, then the object is said to be on the :
A. buccal B. lingual C. mesial D. distal E. none of these.

83. Which of the following components of an x-ray unit determines quality of the x-ray beam?
A. Autotransformer D. cathode filament temperature
B. X-ray timer switch E. milliamperage control switch
C. Step-down transformer

84. The primary purpose of splinting procedure:

A. stabilized repositioned tooth
B. minimize traumatic stress on the organizing clot
C. minimize traumatic effect into injury
D. both A & B
E. both B & C.

85. During removal of a torus palatinus, the midportion of the palatine process of the maxilla is
inadvertently removed. One should expect to see:
A. an opening into the nasal cavity C. a vertical fracture of the maxilla
B. an opening into the maxillary antrum D. a horizontal fracture of the maxilla

86. In a normal dental diagnostic procedures, the principal hazard to the operator is produced by
what type of radiation?
A. Gamma C. secondary
B. primary D. both A & B E. both B & C
87. Which of the following units of radiation measurements is 100ergs/gm of tissue?
A. Rad C. Roentgen ®
B. Gray (G) D. Rem (roentgen equivalent man) E. Rbe (radiobiologic equivalent)

7
88. A radiograph of a 25-year man reveals a luscent and opaque mass attached to and destroying a
still vital mandibular first molar. The mandible in this region is expanded. The most likely
diagnosis is
A. fibrous dysplasia C. benign cementoblastoma
B. sclerosing ostietis D. Paget’s disease of bone E. aneurysmal bone cyst

89. Which of the following appears as a radiolucency associated with the apex of a single vital tooth?
A. Residual cyst C. traumatic bone cyst
B. Periapical cyst D. periapical granuloma E. none of these

90. High quality radiographs involve positioning films nearly parallel with the long axes of teeth. This
generally places the films some distance from the teeth and causes distortion. To compensate,
one should
A. decrease kVp to below 60 D. decrease target-film distance
B. increase kVp to above 60 E. increase target-film distance
C. process films at 85 degrees

91. In radiology, mA primarily controls

A. exposure time C. number of electrons produced
B. electron speed D. penetrating power of radiation

92. A diagnostic test failed to identify five cases of true disease. This type of failure is known as a:
A. false negative C. false positive
B. positive predictive value D. negative predictive value

93. On the basis of diagnostic test results, a dentist correctly classifies a group of patients as being
free from disease. These results possess high:
A. Sensitivity B. generalizability C. Specificity D. repeatability

94. Oral cytology smears are most appropriately used for the diagnosis of which of the following?
A. Pseudomembraneous candidiasis C. Lichen planus
B. Squamous cell carcinoma D. Benign mucous membrane pemphigoid

95. Which of the following is an indicator of the quality of an x-ray beam?

A. Milliamperage C. Machine output
B. Exposure time D. Half-value layer E. H and D curve

96. How should proper subject contrast be maintained when taking a radiograph of a patient with
thick, heavy bones?
A. Increase mA C. increase exposure time
B. Increase kVp D. increase development time E. Use a high-contrast film

97. Which of the following are examples of nonparticulate radiation energy?

1. x-rays 2. electron 3. gamma rays 4. beta rays
A. 1 & 2 B. 1 & 3 C. 1 & 4 D. 2 & 3 E. 2 & 4

98. A 56-year old man has had a lesion on the floor of his mouth for six weeks without significant
clinical change. Examination shows a 2-cm lesion in the area of the submandibular duct. Which of
the following should be performed to confirm the clinical diagnosis?
A. punch biopsy C. excisional biopsy
B. incisional biopsy D. exfoliative cytology

99. A patient on propylthiouracil therapy requires oral surgery. A routine preoperative laboratory
report indicates a hematocrit value of 45%, severe neutropenia, reduced myeloblasts in the bone
marrow and a coagulation time of 8 minutes. The primary hazard to this patient is:
A. hypoxia C. hemorrhage
B. infection D. thyroid crisis E. uremic poisoning

100. Ameloblastoma of the mandible is similar radiographically to which of the following

conditions?
A. Osteosarcoma C. Pindborg tumor
B. Ameloblastic fibro-odontoma D. Central giant cell granuloma

8
101. An asthmatic patient is characterized by having all of the following, except:
A. a history of allergy
B. inspiratory wheezes
C. hyperactive bronchi
D. bronchi that rapidly and spontaneously change caliber in response to various irritants.

102. A patient is wide-eyed, very nervous with an increased systolic pressure (with widening of
the pulse pressure), increased pulse rate, fine skin and hair, and loss of body weight. He is
probably suffering from:
A. Diabetes C. hyperpituitarism
B. Hypothyroidism D. hyperparathyroidism E. Hyperthyroidism

103. The ideal bone graft should do each of the following, except:
A. Induce osteogenesis C. Withstand mechanical forces
B. Produce an immunologic response D. Become replaced by host bone

104. Which of the following describes the use of hydroxylapatite for alveolar ridge
augmentation?
A. Hydroxylapatite is considered to be osteoinductive (bone forming)
B. Granule migration and excessive augmentation are common problems with
hydroxylapatite materials
C. Compaction or compression of hydroxylapatite after augmentation generally does not
occur
D. Patients with hydoxylapatite augmentation to the anterior maxilla should be without
their maxillary prosthesis for a minimum of one month.

105. When removing an impacted third molar, a dentist divides (sections) the tooth for each of
the following reasons, except:
A. To shorten the surgical procedure
B. To minimize the amount of bone to be removed
C. To allow the tooth to be delivered to the occlusal aspect
D. To minimize exertion of force necessary to remove the tooth

106. Which of the following is a principle of alveoloplasty?

A. Undercuts that interferes with the seating of the dentures should be removed.
B. The remaining ridge should be as broad as possible, even if some undercuts exist.
C. Sharp bony projections need not be smooth as they will round off in a few days during
the healing process.
D. Both A & B
E. Both B & C

107. Rumpel-Leede, or the tourniquet test, is a measure of:

A. blood pressure B. factor IX deficiency C. capillary fragility D. clotting time

108. When the uvula curtain does not rise symmetrically when the patient says “ah”, it suggests
which one of the ffg cranial nerves may be damaged?
A. glossopharyngeal nerve C superior alveolar branch of the trigeminal nerve
B. hypoglossal nerve D. vagus nerve E. none

109. Excisional biopsy is most appropriate for which of the following conditions?
A. A 1 –cm exophytic mass on the buccal mucosa
B. A 2 –cm painless ulcer of ten weeks’ duration
C. A 3 –cm submucosal indurated lump
D. A leukoplakic area covering most of the buccal mucosa

110. A freeze-dried decalcified bone graft taken from a human donor and placed in a
periodontal defect in another patient is termed an:
A. Allograft B. Isograft C. Autograft D. Alloplastic graft

111. A paroxysmal and intermittent intense pain usually confined to specific nerve branches
and is most commonly present in the maxillofacial region:
A. neuritis B. neuralgia C. hyperesthesia D. paralysis E. none of these.

112. It is also known as decompression, partsch operation:

A. enucleation C. enucleation after marsupialization
9
 B. marsupialization D. enucleation with curettage E. none of these.

113. In the treatment of localized alveolar osteitis, the primary purpose of the dressing is to:
A. provide a vehicle for obtudent medication
B. promote the growth of the adjacent epithelium
C. prevent saliva from contaminating the alveolus
D. stimulate the formation of a blood clot.

114. Which of the following is necessary to allow for apically positioning a flap margin on the
palatal surface of molar teeth?
A. Use only a sulcular incision for the initial incision.
B. Trim the flap margin to the proper length during the procedure
C. Avoid making the initial incision deep enough to reach bone
D. Extend vertical releasing incision beyond the mucogingival junction

115. Because of its root structure, which of the following teeth is the least responsive to rotation
forces during extraction?
A. mandibular canine D. mandibular first premolar
B. maxillary central incisor E. mandibular second premolar
C. maxillary first premolar

116. During surgical correction of mandibular prognathism, the position of the mandibular
condyle should be
A. Unaltered B. advanced C. Retruded D. intruded

117. Occlusal radiograph are useful in locating

A. the hyoid bone C. sialoliths in Stensen’s duct
B. the mental foramen D. sialoliths in Wharton’s duct E. maxillary sinus mucoceles

118. Salient radiographic findings showing perpendicular bone trabeculation radiating

outwardly describe as “hair-on-end” effect and generalized osteoporosis:
A. aplastic anemia C. polycythemia
B. sickle-cell anemia D. pernicious anemia

119. In obtaining an incisional biopsy of soft tissue, the dentist should do each of the following,
except:
A. infiltrate local anesthetic solution around the intended site
B. place a suture through the intended specimen before removing it
C. obtain some adjacent normal tissue if possible
D. place the specimen in saline, if 10% formalin is unavailable.

120. Replacement resorption is characterized by:

A. Pain C. rapid progression
B. Ankylosis D. acute inflammation E. apical pathosis

121. Which of the following is the most commonly used surgical procedure to correct maxillary
retrognathia?
A. C-osteotomy C. Inverted L osteotomy
B. LeFort 1 osteotomy D. Anterior maxillary osteotomy

122. The component of developer that gives detail to the radiographic image is
A. hydroquinone C. potassium bromide
B. sodium carbonate D. none of these E. sodium sulfite

123. If a dried radiograph were processed a second time, its appearance would show
A. Increased contrast and density D. Decreased contrast and density
B. Increased contrast only E. Increased density only
C. No change in contrast or density

124. Which of the following radiographic feature is commonly associated with a traumatic bone
cyst?
A. Divergence of the roots of teeth
B. Unilocular radiolucency with focal radiopacity
C. Dome-shaped radiopacity of the maxillar sinus
D. Scalloped radiolucency extending between the roots of teeth

10
125. Bone marrow for grafting defects in the jaws is generally obtained from
A. a rib D. maxillary tuberosity
B. the tissue bank E. the mandibular parasymphysis
C. the iliac crest

126. Surgical blade which is used mainly for incision and drainage:
A. #11 B. #12 C. #15 D. #10 E. none of these.

127. The Z-plasty procedure may be used to correct: 1. ankyloglossia 2. interfering labial
frena 3. oroantral fistula 4. sharp mylohyoid ridges:
A. 1,2 B. 2,3,4 C. 1,2,3 D. all of the choices.

128. A type of implant that are surgically inserted into the jaw bone penetrating the entire jaw
emerging opposite the entry site usually at the bottom of the chin.
A. transosseous C. endosseous
B. subperiosteal D. osteointegration E. none of these.

129. Neuralgia that affects the 7th cranial nerve resulting to pain of the external auditory canal,
auricles and soft palate.
A. tic doloureux C. Ramsay Hunt’s syndrome
B. atypical facial neuralgia D. Post Herpetic Neuralgia E. Vasoglossopharyngeal neuralgia.

130. The application of microsurgical technique procedure in the treatment of maxillofacial

nerve injuries are:
A. brain and peripheral nerve C. nerve decompression
B. nerve grafting and anastomoses D. Both A & C E. both B & C.

131. In a fracture involving the angle of an edentulous mandible, the proximal segment is
usually displaced in which direction?
A. anterior and superior C. inferior only
B. anterior and inferior D. posterior

132. Of the following bone grafts, the greatest osteogenic potential occurs with:
A. a xenograft C. an autogenous cortical graft
B. a freeze-dried bone D. an autogenous cancellous graft

133. A compound fracture is characterized by

A. many small fragments D. a “star” shaped appearance
B. an incomplete break in the bone E. bleeding into the masticator space
C. communication with the oral cavity

134. Which of the following cells is least radiosensitive?

A. Red blood cell C. endothelial cell
B. Epithelial cell D. white blood cell E. connective tissue cell

135. Which of the following is a major radiographic finding in ectodermal dysplasia?

A. Osteoporosis D. a ground-glass appearance of bone
B. Hutchinson’s teeth E. calcification of the falx cerebri
C. Congenitally missing teeth

136. Which of the following tissue is most sensitive to radiation-induced cancer?

A. Skin C. thyroid
B. Nerve D. adult bone E. female breast
137. The surgical procedure most frequently performed to correct a skeletal mandibular
retrognathia is bilateral
A. body ostectomy D. oblique subcondylar osteotomy
B. “C” type osteotomy of the ramus E. horizontal osteotomy of the ramus
C. sagittal split osteotomy of the ramus

138. The routine examination of a healthy 20-year old man discloses a round, brown lesion, 3
mm in diameter, on his lower lip. The lesion is solitary, asymptomatic, and flat. Its duration is
unknown. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Blue nevus C.. Malignant melanoma
B. Focal melanosis D. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome E. Compound nevus

11
139. A patient presents with continuous, spontaneous pain associated with the maxillary right
central incisor. The tooth has a large Class V composite restoration. Cold testing produces
lingering pain. There is no sensitivity to percussion or palpation. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. necrotic pulp, chronic apical periodontitis
B. reversible pulpitis, normal periapex
C. irreversible pulpitis, normal periapex
D. irreversible pulpitis, acute apical periodontitis

140. A 33-year old female patient states that her mandibular first molar has been hurting since
the recent placement of an amalgam restoration. She describes the pain as mild-to-moderate,
which is not spontaneous, but is provoked by cold, heat and sweets. These symptoms most likely
correspond with:
A. pulp necrosis B. internal resorption C. reversible pulpitis D. irreversible pulpitis

141. High-flow 100% O2 is indicated for treating each of the following types of syncope, except:
A. Vasovagal C. Orthostatic
B. Neurogenic D. Hyperventilation syndrome

142. An adult healthy patient has marked indurated swelling. He has a temperature of 100ºF
and has been in considerable pain for 24 hours. Percussion of the maxillary right central incisor
causes discomfort as does palpation at its apex. Pulp vitality tests are negative for this tooth,
while adjacent control teeth test within normal limits. A radiograph reveals that the maxillary right
central incisor has a deep unbased restoration and a widened apical periodontal ligament space.
Which of the following is the best emergency treatment for this patient?
A. extracting the maxillary right central incisor
B. administering an antibiotic and analgesic and initiating root canal therapy when
symptoms subside
C. debriding the root canal of the maxillary right central incisor and prescribing
antibiotics and analgesics
D. incising and draining the swelling and prescribing antibiotics and analgesics.

143. A change in continuity of the occlusal plane is often observed after ankylosis of a tooth.
This change is caused by:
A. differential eruption sequences.
B. The ankylosed teeth sinking into the alveolar bone.
C. Localized growth inhibition of the alveolar process.
D. Continued eruption of non-ankylozed teeth and growth of the alveolar process

144. If multiple myeloma is suspected because of a patient’s medical history and intraoral
radiographs, which radiographic projection is best confirm the suspected diagnosis?
A. lateral skull C. posterior-anterior
B. lateral oblique D. tempormandibular survery E. anterior-posterior

145. Radiographic signs of trauma from occlusion include each of the following, except:
A. Hypercementosis D. Root resorption
B. Alteration of the lamina dura E. Alteration of the periodontal space
C. Vascular infiltration of the periodontal ligament

146. In performing normal dental diagnostic procedures, the operator receives the greatest
hazard from which type of radiation?
A. direct primary beam C. secondary
B. scatter D. gamma E. secondary and scatter

147. For five days, a 25-year old man has had painful oral ulcerations. Several reddish
macular lesions are present on his face and hands, most of which have a ring-like or bull’s eye
appearance. He had “cold sores” two weeks earlier. Tentative diagnosis is:
A. lichen planus C. verruca vulgaris
B. aphthous ulcers D. erythema multiforme E. pityriasis rosea

148. Physical examination of a 28-year-old man reveals an extensive, smooth enlargement of

the body of the mandible in the molar region. The patient states that the enlargement has been
present for two years and has slowly and steadily increased in size. The most probable clinical
diagnosis is:
A. Osteosarcoma B. osteomyelitis C. Ameloblastoma D. osteitis deformans

12
149. A patient gives a history of bruising easily nocturia, excessive thirst and a low resistance
to infections. This patient is likely to be suffering from:
A. diabetes insipidus C. lupus erythematosus
B. diabetes mellitus D. thrombocytopenic purpura E. glomerulonephritis

150. A patient who has spider telangiectatic spots on the skin should have an examination to
determine the condition of his:
A. lungs B. kidneys C. liver D. pancreas E. gallbladder

151. A patient who has a white blood cell count of more than 100,000/cc most likely is suffering
from
A. Leukemia D. polycythemia C. Leucopenia D. pernicious anemia

152. A swelling on the anterior floor of the mouth is soft and painless. It has been present for
several months. The overlying mucosa has a bluish tinge. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. A retention cyst D. A mixed salivary gland tumor
B. An infected periodontal abscess E. A carcinoma of the floor of the mouth
C. An obstructed sublingual gland duct

153. Differential white blood cell counts in the laboratory are useful in the diagnosis of:
A. anemia C. vitamin deficiency
B. eosinophilia D. thrombocytopenic purpura E. spherocytosis

154. Bell’s palsy is a condition associated with:

A. An impacted teeth D. the glossopharyngeal nerve
B. A submaxillary gland E. a temporomandibular joint
C. The seventh cranial nerve

155. A tender swelling in the soft tissues of yhe submandibular triangle is most likely caused
by
A. lipoma D. an infected thyroglossal duct cyst
B. lymphadenopathy E. any of the choices.
C. an obstruction of Stensen’s duct

156. The success of a free gingival graft procedure depends upon which of the following?
A. The graft being immobilized at the recipient site.
B. The donor tissue being as thick as possible and containing periosteum.
C. A thick blood clot remaining between the recipient and donor tissue.
D. A periosteal fenestration being present.

157. Which of the following will most likely cause an autogenous tooth transplant to fall during
the third year?
A. Development of root caries C. An inflammatory resorption of supporting bone
B. Ankylosis of the tooth D. An idiopathic chronic progressive root resorption

158. A complete blood count does not include:

A. hemoglobin C. differential white blood cell
B. lymphocytes D. erythrocyte sedimentation rate E. white blood cell count\

159. An increased erythrocytes sedimentation rate (ESR):

A. is specific for rheumatic fever
B. is the result of high blood pressure
C. is due to an increase in the size and weight of the RBC
D. suggests the presence of an infection somewhere in the body
E. none of these.

160. Brown to black pigmentation caused by adrenal insufficiency is commonly associated

with:
A. angular chelitis C. candidiasis
B. perleche D. Addison’s disease E. Syphylytic lesion.

161. The earliest sign of hemorrhagic shock is:

A. dyspnea B. tachycardia C. hypotension D. vasoconstriction

162. Which of the following bone donor grafts has the greatest osteogenic potential?
A. Freeze-dried bone C. Heretogenous marrow
13
 B. Hemopoietic marrow D. Corticocancellous block

163. A dentist surgically removes a maxillary first molar, fracturing a large portion of the palatal
root. The root is forced into the antrum and cannot be visualized. Adjacent teeth and bone are
normal. The appropriate approach to recover is root is through the:
A. hard palate in the canine area.
B. Maxillary incisive fossa medial to the canine
C. Maxillary canine fossa above the level of the premolar roots.
D. Nasoantral wall above the middle concha or turbinate
E. First molar alveolus by enlarging the antral opening

164. The x-ray beam is filtered to

A. Soften the beam C. remove long wavelength x-rays
B. Restrict the beam size D. remove short wavelength x-rays

165. The speed with which electrons travel from the filament of the cathode to the target of the
anode depends upon the
A. Potential difference between the two electrodes
B. Number of milliamperes in the tube circuit D. Voltage in the filament circuit
C. Angle between the filament and the target E. Size of the electron cloud

166. Collimation of a beam refers to be:

A. selective removal of soft radiation from the beam
B. selective removal of hard radiation from the beam
C. reduction of the beam diameter
D. none of these.

167. The techniques that show the upper and lower crowns on the same radiograph is called
the:
A. bisecting angle technique C. paralleling technique
B. bite wing technique D. occlusal technique

168. Which of the following describes osseointegrated implants?

A. They have a direct structural and functional connection with bone only at the
radiographic level of detection.
B. They are anchored directly to living bone as determined by radiographic and
light microscopic analyses.
C. They form a junctional epithelium with the surrounding tissue.
D. They form a pseudo-periodontal ligament.

169. A patient who is on dicumarol therapy requires a tooth extraction. Which laboratory test is
the most valuable in evaluating this patient’s surgical risk?
A. Clotting time C. Sedimentation rate
B. Bleeding time . D. Complete blood cell count E. Prothrombin time

170. A symmetrically widened periodontal ligament space around one or two adjacent teeth is
reported to be earliest radiographic sign of:
A. osteosarcoma D. sclerosing cemental masses
B. osteitis deformans E. craniofacial fibrous dysplasia
C. florid osseous dysplasia

171. The density of a radiograph is reduced by increasing

A. kilovoltage C. source-film distance
B. milliamperage D. diameter of the aperture E. exposure time

172. Cone cutting on a radiograph is caused by:

A. underexposure
B. improper exposure techniques
C. a damaged cone
D. improper coverage of the film with the beam of radiation.

173. Which of the ffg diseases does not cause changes in the lamina dura:
A. Gaucher’s disease C. thyroid disease
B. sickle cell anemia D. Paget’s disease E. none of these.

174. Image sharpness on a radiograph is increased by

14
 A. increasing film speed D. increasing object-film distance
B. using a small focal spot size E. decreasing object-film distance
C. using a large focal spot size

175. When taking extraoral radiographs, double intensifying screen films are used to reduce
A. density C. secondary radiation
B. contrast D. target-skin distance E. exposure time

176. Radiographs of an asymptomatic 19-year old patient disclose a well demarcated,

biloculated, 3x2 cm radiolucency in the area of left mandibular molars. Each of the following
should be included in the differential diagnosis, except
A. Ameloblastoma C. odontogenic keratocyst
B. Cementoblastoma D. central giant cell granuloma E. Traumatic bone cyst

177. The first clinically observable reaction to radiation overexposure is

A. loss of hair C. agenesis of blood cells
B. erythema of the skin D. loss of alimentary epithelium

178. The radiographic view that best demonstrates a mediolaterally-displaced subcondylar

fracture is the
A. panoramic projection D. lateral oblique of the mandible
B. maxillary occlusal view E. lateral skull projection
C. posteroanterior projection

179. If the intensity of a beam of radiation is 12 at a point 12 inches from the target, the
intensity of the beam at 24 inches is
A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 6 E. 9.

180. A long cone is used in the paralleling or right-angle radiographic technique to

A. reduce secondary radiation
B. avoid magnification of the image
C. avoid distortion of image shape
D. avoid superimposition of anatomic structures
E. facilitate correct vertical angulation of the cone

181. Which electron has the greatest binding energy to the nucleus?
A. J-shell electron C. L-shell electron
B. K-shell electron D. Q-shell electron E. both B & C

182. In object localization,, if the tube is shifted mesially, and the object in question appears to
move distally, then the object is said to be on the :
A. buccal B. lingual C. mesial D. distal E. none of these.

183. Which of the following components of an x-ray unit determines quality of the x-ray beam?
A. Autotransformer D. cathode filament temperature
B. X-ray timer switch E. milliamperage control switch
C. Step-down transformer

184. The primary purpose of splinting procedure:

A. stabilized repositioned tooth
B. minimize traumatic stress on the organizing clot
C. minimize traumatic effect into injury
D. both A & B
E. both B & C.

185. During removal of a torus palatinus, the midportion of the palatine process of the maxilla
is inadvertently removed. One should expect to see:
A. an opening into the nasal cavity C. a vertical fracture of the maxilla
B. an opening into the maxillary antrum D. a horizontal fracture of the maxilla

186. In a normal dental diagnostic procedures, the principal hazard to the operator is
produced by what type of radiation?
A. Gamma C. secondary
B. primary D. both A & B E. both B & C
187. Which of the following units of radiation measurements is 100ergs/gm of tissue?
15
 A. Rad C. Roentgen ®
B. Gray (G) D. Rem (roentgen equivalent man) E. Rbe (radiobiologic equivalent)

188. A radiograph of a 25-year man reveals a luscent and opaque mass attached to and
destroying a still vital mandibular first molar. The mandible in this region is expanded. The most
likely diagnosis is
A. fibrous dysplasia C. benign cementoblastoma
B. sclerosing ostietis D. Paget’s disease of bone E. aneurysmal bone cyst

189. Which of the following appears as a radiolucency associated with the apex of a single
vital tooth?
A. Residual cyst C. traumatic bone cyst
B. Periapical cyst D. periapical granuloma E. none of these

190. High quality radiographs involve positioning films nearly parallel with the long axes of
teeth. This generally places the films some distance from the teeth and causes distortion. To
compensate, one should
A. decrease kVp to below 60 D. decrease target-film distance
B. increase kVp to above 60 E. increase target-film distance
C. process films at 85 degrees

191. In radiology, mA primarily controls

A. exposure time C. number of electrons produced
B. electron speed D. penetrating power of radiation

192. A diagnostic test failed to identify five cases of true disease. This type of failure is known
as a:
A. false negative C. false positive
B. positive predictive value D. negative predictive value

193. On the basis of diagnostic test results, a dentist correctly classifies a group of patients as
being free from disease. These results possess high:
A. Sensitivity B. generalizability C. Specificity D. repeatability

194. Oral cytology smears are most appropriately used for the diagnosis of which of the
following?
A. Pseudomembraneous candidiasis C. Lichen planus
B. Squamous cell carcinoma D. Benign mucous membrane pemphigoid

195. Which of the following is an indicator of the quality of an x-ray beam?

A. Milliamperage C. Machine output
B. Exposure time D. Half-value layer E. H and D curve

196. How should proper subject contrast be maintained when taking a radiograph of a patient
with thick, heavy bones?
A. Increase mA C. increase exposure time
B. Increase kVp D. increase development time E. Use a high-contrast film

197. Which of the following are examples of nonparticulate radiation energy?

1. x-rays 2. electron 3. gamma rays 4. beta rays
A. 1 & 2 B. 1 & 3 C. 1 & 4 D. 2 & 3 E. 2 & 4

198. A 56-year old man has had a lesion on the floor of his mouth for six weeks without
significant clinical change. Examination shows a 2-cm lesion in the area of the submandibular
duct. Which of the following should be performed to confirm the clinical diagnosis?
A. punch biopsy C. excisional biopsy
B. incisional biopsy D. exfoliative cytology

199. A patient on propylthiouracil therapy requires oral surgery. A routine preoperative

laboratory report indicates a hematocrit value of 45%, severe neutropenia, reduced myeloblasts
in the bone marrow and a coagulation time of 8 minutes. The primary hazard to this patient is:
A. hypoxia C. hemorrhage
B. infection D. thyroid crisis E. uremic poisoning

16
 200. Ameloblastoma of the mandible is similar radiographically to which of the following
conditions?
C. Osteosarcoma C. Pindborg tumor
D. Ameloblastic fibro-odontoma D. Central giant cell granuloma

1. The bone on dental film has the appearance of being finely-trabeculated almost ground-glass in effect,
with diffuse areas of osteoporosis and osteosclerosis giving a cotton wool appearance. The patient
probably has:
A. Hand-schuller-christian disease C. Gaucher’s disease
B. Paget’s disease D. Hyperparathyroidism E. None of the above

2. The x-ray film of the lower incisors of a healthy child shows dark line at the center running vertically.
This is:
A. Mandibular canal C. Genial tubercle
B. Physiologic thinning of the bone D. Mandibular symphysis E. None of the above

3. The water projection is a useful x-ray technique for examination of:

A.Torus lingualis C. Torus palatinus
B. Genial tubercle D. Maxillary sinus E. None of the above

4. The x-ray film of the lower incisors of a healthy young adult shows darks canals running vertically and
interdentally. These are:
A. Mandibular canal C. Anterior incisive foramina
B. Physiologic thinning of bone D. Nutrient canals E. None of the above

5. The ideal periodontal space seen in the radiograph is:

A. 1.8 to 25mm B. 18 to 25mm C. .18 to 2.5 D. .018 to .025

6. A radiograph of the TMJ will not show:

A. Lipping of the condyle C. The articular eminence
B.The meniscus D. Fractureof the neck of the condyle E. None of the above

7. One of the following is a radiographic finding in ectodermal dysplasia:

A., Osteoporosis C. Congenitally missing teeth
B. Hutchinson’s teeth D. Ground-glass appearance of bone E. None of the above

8. The radiographic picture of alveolar bone in cases of periodontosis characteristically shows:

A. Vertical resorption B. Horizontal resorption C. None of the above

9. In the radiograph, periradicular lesions of pulpal origin will reveal a/an:

A. Thickening of the periodontal space midway between the crown and the root
B. Break in the lamina dura
C. Normal bone trabeculation
D. Accessory canals in the root area
E. None of the above

10. The median palatine suture appears in the radiograph as:

A. Radiopaque line between the maxillary central and lateral incisor
B. Radioluscent line between the maxillary central incisors
C. Radioluscent line between the maxillary and lateral incisor
D. Radioluscent line between mandibular central incisor

11. The beak of an extraction forceps is designed so that most of the extraction pressure is
transmitted to the
A. Root of the tooth C. Crown of the tooth
B., Cemento-enamel junction D. Dentino-enamel junction E. Alveolar bone

12. Infection with fluctuation in a tooth of an afebrile patient is treated by

A. Administration of antibiotics
B. Incision and drainage
C. Administration of antibiotics for 3 days, then incision and drainage
D. Application of warm compress to the area
E. Application of cold compress to the area

13. The most serious complication of an abscessed maxillary canine is

17
A. Severe pain C. Swelling
B. Cavernous sinus thrombosis D. Cellulitis E. Periapical cyst

14. The wiring of adjacent teeth in groups of two that provide an attachment for inter-maxillary
fixation is
A. multiple-loop wiring C. Ivy loop wiring
B. Risdon wiring D. All of the above E. None of the above

15. Which of the following is sometimes referred to as Guerin’s fracture?

A. Le Fort I B. Le Fort II C. Le Fort III D. All of these E. None

16. The superior boundary of the maxillary sinus is the

A. Lateral nasal wall C. Floor of the orbit
B. Orbital plate of the maxilla D. Alveolar process of the maxilla E. None

17. The fracture bone is left in multiple segments in

A. Greenstick fracture C. Simple fracture
B. Compound fracture D. All of theSE E. None of the choices

18. The stabilization period for the treatment of a replanted mature tooth is about
A. 1-2 weeks B. 3-4 weeks C. 5-7 weeks D. 8-10 weeks E. None

19. Cheilorrhaphy is the surgical correction of

A. Cleft palate deformity C. Cleft lip deformity
B. Uvula deformity D. Cheiloid E. Oro-antral fistula

20. Which of the following is an isolated facial paralysis of sudden onset caused by neuritis of the 7 th
nerve within the facial canal?
A. 7th nerve neuritis C. Crepitus
B. Bell’s palsy D. Synaptic palsy E. Trigeminal neuralgia

21. The grating or crackling noise generated by some diseased joints is called
A. Subluxation B. Myalgia C. Ankylosis
D. Crepitus E. Discitis

22. Routine dental extractions on a patient who had a myocardial infarct two months previously is best
performed
A. using epinephrine-free local anesthesia D. after seven days of massive antibiotics
B. until at least six months have elapsed E. after three days of massive antibiotics
C. under oral valium sedation

23. Which of the following is the most common cause of bleeding disorders?
A. Myelofibrosis D. Polycythemia vera
B. Chronic myelocytic leukemia E. Acute myelogenous leukemia
C. Thrombocytopenia

24. A paroxysmal and intermittent intense pain usually confined to specific nerve branches and is most
commonly present in the maxillofacial region:
A. neuritis C. neuralgia
B. hyperesthesia D. paralysis E. none of these.

25. It is also known as decompression, partsch operation:

A. enucleation C. enucleation after marsupialization
B. marsupialization D. enucleation with curettage E. none of these.

26. Radiographs of an asymptomatic 19-year old patient disclose a well demarcated, biloculated, 3x2 cm
radiolucency in the area of left mandibular molars. Each of the following should be included in the
differential diagnosis, except:
A. Ameloblastoma C. Traumatic bone cyst
B. Cementoblastoma D. odontogenic keratocyst E. central giant cell granuloma

27. Radiographic film emulsion is:

A. cellulose acetate C. hydroquinone
B. sodium thiosulfate D. gelatin and silver bromide E. calcium tungsten

28. Yellow brown radiographs may result from:

18
A. too cool developing time C. insufficient fixation time
B. too long developing time D. insufficient exposure E. none of these

29. Film holder used in bisecting angle technique:

A. RINN XCP instrument     B. RINN BAI instrument     C. precision film holder

30. The radiographic appearance of the normal alveolar crest of the posterior teeth
A. pointed and sharp radiopaque areas between the teeth
B. flat and smooth radiopaque areas between the teeth
C. both A and B
D. Neither A nor B

31. The radiographic appearance of the calcular deposit

A. radiopaque structures at the root areas C. radiolucent structures on the root areas
B. radiographic structures on the apex of the tooth D. radiolucent areas at the apex

32. In paralleling technique, stabilization of the film is achieved through:

A. finger holding method C. finger holding and film holders
B. use of film holder only D. neither A nor B

33. The film used to detect interproximal carries and crestal bone level
A. . occlusal         B. panoramic        C. bitewing        D. periapical

34. Dens invaginatus is characterized by

A. radiolucent areas on the midcrown area C. radiopaque structure on the midcrown area
B. radiolucent areas on the root area D. radiopaque structure in the root area

35. Normal distance from CEJ to alveolar crest is:

A. 0.2 TO 0.5mm B. 0.05 to 0.10mm        C. 2.25 to 3.0mm      D. 1.0 to 1.5mm

36. A long cone is used in the paralleling or right-angle radiographic technique to

A. reduce secondary radiation                    D.    avoid superimposition of anatomic structures
B. avoid magnification of the image E. facilitate correct vertical angulation of the cone
C. avoid distortion of image shape   

37. When taking a bite wing film, the direction and angulation of the central ray is:
A. 5° above the horizontal plane D. 10° to the left of vertical plane
B. 10° above the horizontal plane E. 10° below the horizontal plane
C. 10° to the right of vertical plane

38. A radiopaque curved line extends down to the alveolar border of an edentulous maxilla. The line
enclosed a large radiolucent area which is the:
A. radicular cyst of maxilla D. alveolar extension of the maxillary sinus
B. ameloblastoma of maxilla E. none of these
C. thin septum of the maxillary sinus

39. A small or ovoid round radiolucent area between the roots of the maxillary central incisors
A. superior foramina of incisive canal C. incisive foramen
B. nasal septum D. nasal cavity

40. An artifact characterized by a large cone shaped radiopacity on panoramic radiograph which may
obscure the mandible is caused by:
A. eyeglasses of the patient C. thyroid collar of the lead apron
B. earrings of the patient D. chewing gum

41. The radiograph with high contrast has this feature:

A. too black images only. C. black, white and gray images  
B. too white images only D. too black and too white

42. Which of the following sites for squamous cell carcinoma has the most unfavorable prognosis?
A. Gingiva C. Lower lip
B. Dorsum of the tongue D. Buccal mucosa E. Upper lip

43. Infections involving the lateral parapharyngeal spaces can result in trismus of structures affected.
What muscle is involved?
A. Lateral pterygoid muscle C. Masseter muscle E. Buccinator muscle
19
B. Medial pterygoid muscle D. Mylohyoid muscle

44. Bleeding during surgical procedure is controlled effectively by:

A. Suturing the flaps D. Clamping and tying out vessels
B. Applying pressure over the wound E. None of these
C. Applying vasoconstrictors

45. When the maxillary sinus is accidentally opened during surgery, never insert any gauze, drain, or
surgical foam because it will
A. Cause more pain C. Induce bleeding
B. Disturb clot formation D. Cause infection E. None of these

46. A biopsy should nor be performed on a tissue when the tissue:

A. Suddenly enlarges C. Is pigmented
B. Is associated with paresthesia D. Responds to local treatment E. all of these

47. Antrostomy is generally utilized:

A. To open a tooth root for apicoectomy C. To establish drainage of antral fistula
B. Ensuing an oro-antral fistula closure D. For removal of a broken molar root at the antrum

48. Surgical incision and drainage is indicated in the following conditions, except
A. Chronic abscess with induration C. Acute fluctuant cellulitis
B. To reduce pressure that has built up D. Treatment of deep tissue infection

49. Supernumerary impacted teeth occur most frequently in the

A. Mandibular canine region C. Mandibular posterior region
B. Mandibular anterior region D. Maxillary anterior region E. Maxillary posterior region

50. In a left subcondylar fracture, clinical findings will show:

A. Premature contact on the right side D. Bilateral crepitus
B. Light bleeding intraorally E. Inability to move the mandible to the right side
C. Profuse bleeding extraorally

51. Dental procedure in patients suffering from hyperparathyroidism may be complicated by:
A. Arrhythmia B. Hypotension C. Hypertension D. Tetany E. Bone fracture

52. Immobilization of fracture of the jaw is vital in order to:

A. Prevent disruption of occlusion C. Avoid dislocation of the jaw
B. Rest the injured tissues D. Lessen load on the splint E. None of the above

53. Patients under long term therapy with steroid suffering from adrenal diseases are at great surgical
risk because
A. Of increased adrenocortical response D. Irreversible shock may be triggered
B. Hypertension may set in E. all of them
C. Post-operative severe pain may be induced

54. Horizontal fracture is:

A. Le Fort I B. Le Fort II C. Le Fort III D. All of the above E. none

55. What is used in the study of the TMJ and in speech and swallowing evaluations?
A. Cineradiology C. Xeoradiology
B. Tempororadiology D. Laminoradiography E. none of these

56. The removal of all foreign and dead materials from a wound is referred to as:
A. Debridement C. Oral prophylaxis
B. Scaling D. Peeling E. Scraping

57. What is the most common pathognomonic sign of fracture of the body of the mandible?
A. Jaw deviation upon opening C. Malocclusion
B. Paresthesia of the mental nerve D. Trismus E. All of them

58.Local control of hemorrhage is best done by

A. Tranexamic acid C. Gelfoam
B. Vitamin K D. Direct pressure E. None of these.

20
59. Which of the following is the primary direction of luxation for extraction of maxillary deciduous
molars?
A. Buccal B. Palatal C. Mesial D. Distal E. does not matter

60. All of the following are weak points in the mandible where fractures are most common except the:
A. angle B. condylar neck C. coronoid process D. symphysis E. none

61. It is a sequential, comprehensive method of eliciting patient symptoms on an organ system:

A. Medical history C. Family history
B. Review of systems D. Case history E. History of present illness

62. This procedure maybe necessary when inflammation and infection persists in the area around the
root tip after root canal therapy:
A. Root amputation C. Apical surgery
B. Root-end surgery . D. Apicoectomy E. All of them

63. Alveoloplasty consists of the following, EXCEPT:

A. Compression of the lateral walls of the extraction site
B. Removal of intraseptal bone and repositioning of the cortical bone
C. Recontouring bony irregularities using rongeur and bone files
D. Gross removal of bone to increase interarch space
E. None of the above

64. A transfer of tooth from one alveolar socket to another:

A. Transplantation C. Hemisection
B. Intentional replantation D. Implantation E. Apicoectomy

65. A surgical procedure where cuts are made in the alveolar bone and increase the rate of tooth
movement.
A. Decortification C. alveoplasty
B. Corticotomy D. Ostectomy E. Osteotomy

66. The procedure of choice for correction of soft tissue attachment on or near the crest of the alveolar
ridge.
A. Alveoplasty C. osteotomy
B. Ostectomy D. alveolectomy E. vestibuloplasty

67. Procedure involving the correction of a prominent chin but the occlusal relationship is normal.
A. Ostectomy C. Alveolectomy
B. Genioplasty D. Corticotomy E. none of these

68. Implant that has a stabilizing bone plate with multiple short retaining posts and 2 long posts
imbedded in the mandible from the inferior border to alveolar crest.
A. Endosteal B. Transosteal C. Subperiosteal implant

69. Process of creating a fistula in the labial or buccal plate of bone to locate the root apex.
A. Marsupialization C. trephination
B. Hemisection D. replantation E. transplantation

70. A procedure that horizontally splits the mandible, the cranial fragment is repositioned superiorly and
an interpositional bone graft is placed.
A. sandwich ostectomy C. maxillary osteoplasty
B. visor osteotomy D. genioplasty

71. Ideal solution for storing avulsed tooth or tooth used for transplantation.
A. Milk C. Hank’s solution
B. saline solution D. saliva E. water

72. It is a method of flushing out or lavage of the TMJ that gives three-dimensional images of the joint,
bony relation and bony quality of the TMJ’s
A. orthopantomograms C. CT Scan
B. arthrography D. MRI

73. This procedure is used for recurrent jaw dislocation, exposing the joint eminence, is then excised by
bur and fine osteome in order to prevent the obstruction of joint head from returning into the fossa.
A. Eminectomy C. condylectomy
21
B. Condyllotomy D. arthrocentesis E. meniscal plication

74. A convenient method of performing incisional biopsy that employs disposable instrument that makes
a circular incision with a diameter
A. Punch biopsy C. incisional biopsy
B. Brush biopsy D. excisional biopsy E. oral cytology

75. Type of fixation used for fractured mandibular arch:

A. plates and screws C. head bandage
B. Risdon D. Ivy loop E. circumferential wiring

76. A type of fracture wherein the bone is shattered, split into several pieces.
A. Comminuted C. simple
B. Complicated D. Greenstick E. Compound

77. Flap design of choice for apicoectomy:

A. semilunar C. “L” or inverted “L” shaped flap
B. envelope D. elliptical E. none of these

78. Fusion of the condyle, disk and fossa complex that results to fibrous tissue and bone fusion or both
characterized by reduced mandibular opening that ranges from partial reduction in function to complete
immobility of the jaw.
A. Rheumatiod arthritis D. Intracapsular ankylosis
B. Degenerative joint disease E. Extracapsular ankylosis
C. Myofacial pain and dysfunction

79. The simplest form of temporary fixation if definitive fixation is not feasible in a trauma patient:
A. plates and screws C. head bandage
B. Risdon D. Ivy loop E. circumferential wiring

80. An intraoral approach of TMJ management exposing the lateral aspects of the ramus, a cut is made
below the condyle with an oscillating jaw that reduces pressure on the meniscus and anterior movement
of the condylar head.
A. Eminectomy C. Condylectomy
B. Condylotomy D. Arthrocentesis E. Meniscal Plication

81. A patient with a history of ankle edema, shortness of breath and orthopnea is probably suffering
from:
asthma C. cardiac decompensation
emphysema D. constrictive pericarditis E. rhinophyma

82. A 35-year old man has an odontogenic infection. He states that he had frequent infections and has
lost weight. His appetite is good, but he has polydipsia. The most probable diagnosis is:
A. malignancy C. diabetes insipidus
B. diabetes mellitus D. Hodgkin disease E. acute glomerulonephritis

83. On physical examination, painless induration of soft tissue is suggestive of:

A. an abscess C. invasive malignant lesions
B. a dermoid cyst D. noninvasive malignant lesions E. none of these

84. A patient has a temperature of 101°F and a large fluctuant mass in the submandibular space as a
result of extension of odontogenic infection. Initial treatment should include:
A. salicylate therapy to reduce temperature
B. alternate application of heat and cold to the area to improve circulation
C. incision and drainage and a culture for antibiotic sensitivity
D. immediate antibiotic therapy to reduce the swelling and inefection

85. Local anesthetics are most effective in tissues that are:

A. acid C. alkaline
B. neutral D. inflamed E. none, tissue pH has no effect

86. A patient who is allergic para-aminobenzoic acid will also be allergic to:
A. lidocaine C. prilocaine
B. tetracaine D. carbocaine E. metabutethamine

22
87. A radiograph shows an unerupted mandibular third molar with a 3cm pericoronal redioluscency. The
most likely diagnosis is:
A. primordial cyst C. latent bone cyst
B. dentigerous cyst D. simple bone cyst E. ameloblastoma

88. A 5-year old boy has symmetric, bilateral enlargement of posterior jaws. Radiographic examination
reveals multilocular radiolucencies of the jaws. His father reports that he had a similar condition. The
most likely diagnosis is:
A. cherubism D. hyperparathyroidism
B. Albright’s syndrome E. cleidocranial dysostosis
C. juvenile Paget disease of bone

89. A basketball player using a protective mouth guard has crepitation in the left TMJ, a trigger zone of
tenderness in the left temporalis musculature and stiffness of the jaw on wakening. The most likely
diagnosis is:
A. tic douloureux C. atypical facial neuralgia
B. myofacial pain syndrome D. arthritis of the TMJ

90. A patient exhibits marked attrition of primary and permanent teeth; radiographs reveal a marked
tendency toward obliteration of many pulp canals. The patient’s mother and brother also have histories of
this condition. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. mottled enamel C. enamel hypomaturation
B. enamel hypoplasia D. dentinogenesis imperfecta.

91. A young man complaints of malaise, urtications and large, painful and bloody, ulcerobullous lesions
on his lips and oral mucosa. The lip lesions are black and encrusted. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. pemphigus vegetans D. erythema multiforme
B. pemphigus vulgaris E. bullous lichen planus
C. benign mucous membrane pemphigoid

92. A patient presents with continuous, spontaneous pain associated with the maxillary right central
incisor. The tooth has a large Class V composite restoration. Cold testing produces lingering pain. There
is no sensitivity to percussion or palpation. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. necrotic pulp, chronic apical periodontitis
B. reversible pulpitis, normal periapex
C. irreversible pulpitis, normal periapex
D. irreversible pulpitis, acute apical periodontitis

93. The routine examination of a healthy 20-year old man discloses a round, brown lesion, 3 mm in
diameter, on his lower lip. The lesion is solitary, asymptomatic, and flat. Its duration is unknown. Which of
the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Blue nevus C. Compound nevus
B. Focal melanosis D. Malignant melanoma E. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome

94. A 33-year old female patient states that her mandibular first molar has been hurting since the recent
placement of an amalgam restoration. She describes the pain as mild-to-moderate, which is not
spontaneous, but is provoked by cold, heat and sweets. These symptoms most likely correspond with:
A. pulp necrosis C. internal resorption
B. reversible pulpitis D. irreversible pulpitis

95. On the basis of diagnostic test results, a dentist correctly classifies a group of patients as being free
from disease. These results possess high:
A. Sensitivity C. generalizability
B. Specificity D. repeatability

96. A diagnostic test failed to identify five cases of true disease. This type of failure is known as
A. false negative C. positive predictive value
B. false positive D. negative predictive value

97. The best examination technique for lymph nodes:

A. inspection only C. inspection & bimanual palpation
B. inspection and bidigital palpation D. inspection & bilateral palpation

98. The following are subjective symptoms, except:

A. pain C. change of temperature
B. sensitivity D. abnormal taste
23
99. Also known as Vincent’s Infection:
A. ANUG C. gingivo fibromatosis
B. Hyperplastic gingivitis D. dilantin hyperplasia E. pubertal gingivitis

100. Symmetric widening of the periodontal ligament space about one or more teeth is the earliest
characteristic radiographic manifestation of:
A. osteosarcoma D. Paget’s disease of bone
B. multiple myeloma E. metastatic carcinoma of the breast.
C. fibrous dysplasia

Shade AE if the answer is not in the choices given.

1. Cranial nerves that controls the muscles of facial expression:
A. CN VII B. CN V C. CN IV D. CN IX E. none of these

2. It is a method of flushing out or lavage of the TMJ that gives three-dimensional; images of the
joint, bony relation & bone quality of the TMJs:
A. orthopantomograms C. CT scan
B. arthrography D. MRI E. none of these

3. Any fracture distal to 2nd molar, from the retromolar pad area to the inferior border of the body
and posterior border of the ramus?
A. Condylar fracture C. Angle fracture
B. Ramus fracture D. Body fracture E. symphysis fracture

4. Surgical procedure that involves removing only one root of a multirooted tooth due to periodontal
disease:
A. Crown sectioning C. trephination
B. Hemisection D. replantation E. transplantation

5. When draining pus from an abscess of the pterygomandibular space from an intraoral approach,
the muscle most likely to be incised is the:
A. masseter B. buccinator C. temporal D. medial pterygoid E. lateral pterygoid

6. Type of fixation used for a fractured symphysis of the mandible:

A. plates and screws C. head bandage
B. Risdon D. Ivy loop E. circumferential wiring

7. An accepted surgical procedure most frequently indicated for odontogenic cysts is:
A. enucleation C. marsupialization
B. fulguration D. incision and drainage E. injection of a sclerosing
solution

8. If it is necessary to perform a coniotomy, entry should be made at the:

A. thyroid notch C. cricoid cartilage
B. thyroid membrane D. cricothyroid ligament E. thyroepiglottic
ligament

9. An antrostomy is commonly used:

A. to remove high maxillary third molars
B. following closure of an oroantral fistula
C. to expose a tooth root for apicoectomy
D. to establish drainage of an alveolar abscess

10. Bibeveled chisels are used primarily to:

A. remove bone C. establish purchase points
B. split teeth D. sharpen line angles E. none of these.

11. Major radiographic findings in ectodermal dysplasia:

A. ground glass appearance C. supernumerary teeth
B. congenitally missing tooth D. Hutchinson’s teeth E. canal obliteration
24
12. Radiograhpic diagnosis of dense radiopaque cotton wool area in the body of mandible and is
associated with hypercementosis:
A. Enostosis C. osteomyelitis
B. exostosis D. Paget’s disease E. odontoma

13. Earliest radiographic sign of periapical disease of pulpal in origin:

A. loss of lamina dura C. widen periodontal space
B. loss of periodontal space D. break in lamina dura

14. A radiopaque projection distal to the tuberosity of the maxilla maybe:

I. coronoid process III. Mental ridge
II. malar process IV. Mylohyoid ridge V. hamular process
A. II & IV B. I & V C. I & III D. II & III E. II & V

15. The purpose of collimating an x-ray beam is to:

A. reduce the size of the beam to facilitate easier visualization of the central ray
B. avoid delivering unnecessary radiation to the patients
C. remove the less penetrating x-ray photons.
D. reduce exposure time
E. all of the above.

16. Which of the following does not control magnification of the radiograph?
A. focal spot-film distance C. object-film distance
B. alignment of film, objects radiation cone D. cathode size E. none of these

17. An increase in which of the following factors causes an increase in contrast?

A. time of exposure C. kilovoltage
B. miliamperage D. both A & B E. both B & C

18. The advantage of the paralleling technique over the bisecting-angle technique is:
A. the increased anatomic accuracy of the radiographic image
B. the increase object-film distance
C. the greater the magnification of the image
D. that the central ray is perpendicular to an imaginary line drawn through half the angle
between the long axis of the teeth and the film

19. The paralleling technique is recommended over the bisecting-angle technique because:
A. positioning the film is easier D. it cuts developing time
B. it uses slow film E. A, B & C
C. it gives a less distorted picture of the length of the tooth

20. Cone-cutting (partial image) on a radiograph is caused by:

A. underexposure C. a damaged cone
B. improper exposure technique D. improper coverage of the film with the beam of radiation

21. A herringbone pattern appears on a film if it is :

A. not processed properly C. not exposed to a sufficient amount of radiation
B. given too much radiation D. placed in the oral cavity backwards

22. If a film is stripped from its pocket and exposed to light, after processing it will:
A. be unaffected B. turn white C. turn black D. be translucent

23. Radiographic film emulsion is:

A. cellulose acetate C. hydroquinone
B. sodium thiosulfate D. gelatin and silver bromide E. calcium tungsten

24. Normal distance from CEJ to alveolar crest is:

25
 A. 0.2 to 0.5mm B. 0.05 to 0.10mm C. 2.25 to 3.0mm D. 1.0 to
1.5mm

25. The component of developer that gives detail to the radiographic image is:
A. hydroquinone C. sodium carbonate
B. sodium sulfite D. potassium bromide E. none of these.

26. Salient radiographic findings showing perpendicular bone trabeculation radiating outwardly
describe as “hair-on-end” end effect and generalized osteoporosis:
A. aplastic anemia C. polycythemia
B. sickle-cell anemia D. pernicious anemia E. none of these

27. The primary purpose of a lead diaphragm within the cone of an x-ray tubehead is to:
A. reduce or eliminate tubehead leakage
B. eliminate long wavelength x-ray photons
C. increase penetrating qualities of the beam
D. restrict size and shape of the beam of radiation

28. To avoid exposure to secondary radiation when taking radiographs, the dentist should stand:
A. at the back of the patient C. at least 3 feet from the patient
B. next to the patient D. at least 6 feet from the source of secondary radiation

29. An adult male patient has a well-defined, movable 8mm nodule immediately beneath the dorsal
surface of the tongue. Which of the following should not be included in the differential diagnosis?
A. Adenoma C. Carcinoma
B. Leiomyoma D. Neurilemoma E. Neurofibroma

30. A surgical procedure where cuts are made in the alveolar bone and increase the rate of tooth
movement.
A. Decortification C. alveoloplasty
B. corticotomy D. Ostectomy E. Osteotomy

31. Correction of maxillary and midface deformities:

I. LeFort I osteotomy
II. LeFort II osteotomy
III. Anterior segment maxillary alveolar osteotomy
IV. Total maxillary alveolar osteotomy
A. I, II & III B. I, III & IV C. I, II & IV D. II, III & IV E. I, II, III & IV

32. A procedure to increase the vertical height of the mandible by vertically splitting the anterior
portion of the mandible and repositioning the lingual segment superiorly:
A. sandwich osteotomy C. maxillary osteoplasty
B. visor osteotomy D. augmentation genioplasty E. sagittal split osteotomy

33. A procedure that horizontally splits the mandible, the cranial fragment is repositioned superiorly
and an interpositional bone graft is placed.
A. sandwich osteotomy C. maxillary osteoplasty
B. visor osteotomy D. genioplasty E. none of the choices

34. Grafts used for TMJ reconstruction:

I. Na Hyaluronate III. alloplasts
II. 2nd metatarsal bone IV. Chrome cobalt V. costochondral graft
A. I, II, III & IV B. I, II, III & V C. I, III, IV & V D. I, II, IV & V E. II, III,
IV & V

35. Image sharpness on a radiograph is increased by:

26
 A. increasing film speed D. using a large focal spot size
B. increasing object thickness E. increasing object-film distance
C. using a small focal spot size

36. Which of the following is an indicator of the quality of an x-ray beam?

A. Milliamperage C. H and D curve
B. Exposure time D. Machine output E. Half-value layer

37. Which of the following are examples of nonparticulate radiation energy?

I. X-rays II. Electrons III. Gamma rays IV. Beta rays
A. I & II B. I & III C. I & IV D. II & III E. II & IV

38. Which of the following structures appear radioluscent on an oral radiograph?

I. Hamular process III. Mandibular canal
II. Genial tubercles IV. Anterior nasal spine V. Medial palatine suture
A. I & II B. II & III C. II & IV D. III & IV E. III & V

39. Radiographic sign of ankylosed teeth:

A. loss of periodontal space C. thick lamina dura
B. wide periodontal space D. break in lamina dura

40. Before performing preprosthetic surgery to a new patient, the dentist should:
I. Obtain a complete medical history
II. Record temperature, BP, pulse and respiration rate
III. Obtain a complete blood count, plus bleeding and coagulation time
IV. Order an electrocardiogram and chest x-ray
V. Consult patient’s physician if any significant medical problem exist
A. I, II, III B. I, III, IV C. II, III, IV D. I, II, V E. I, II, III, V

41. Coumarin is a:
A. antiarrhythmic C. analgesic
B. anticoagulant D. adrenocorticosteroid E. antifungal

42. Propanolol is a:
A. antiarrhythmic C. analgesic
B. anticoagulant D. adrenocorticosteroid E. antifungal

43. The characteristic oral clinical feature of Peutz-Jeghers syndrome is:

A. macrognathia
B. melanin pigmentation of the lips
C. yellowish spots on the oral mucosa
D. small, papillary lesions on the palate
E. a rhomboidal-shaped red patch on the dorsum of the tongue

44. A 14-year old boy has a bilateral, pearly-white thickening of the buccal mucosa. The boy has had
the lesions since birth. His younger brother also has similar lesions. History and clinical findings
are consistent with a diagnosis of:
A. leukoedema C. mucous patches
B. lichen planus D. white sponge nevus

45. Oral examination of a 3-year old child reveals only primary canines and first molars present.
General observation of the child reveals a very light complexion, fine and light hair, and the
overall facial appearance of an older person. Which of the following conditions is suggested?
A. Down’s syndrome C. Crouzon’s disease
B. Hypopituitarism D. Cleiodocranial dysplasia E. Hereditary ectodermal dysplasia

46. A painful, crater-like 1.5cm ulcer developed within one week in the mucous of the left hard palate
of a 40-year old woman. The most likely diagnosis is:
27
 A. actinomycosis C. squamous cell carcinoma
B. pleomorphic adenoma D. adenoid cystic carcinoma E. necrotizing sialometaplasia

47. The most reliable, histologic criterion for a diagnosis of oral squamous cell carcinoma is:
A. invasion C. pleomorphism
B. degeneration D. encapsulation E. hyperchromatism

48. Normal bleeding time is:

A. 1-2 mins. B. 2-3 mins. C. 5-7 mins. D. 4-8 mins E. 10
mins’

49. The following are subjective symptoms, except:

A. pain B. sensitivity C. change of temperature D. abnormal taste

50. Also known as Vincent’s Infection:

A. ANUG C. gingivo fibromatosis
B. Hyperplastic gingivitis D. dilantin hyperplasia E. pubertal gingivitis

51. The most appropriate blade number for the creation of a mucoperiosteal flap for a maxillary
tuberosity reduction:
A. #11 B. #12 C. #10 D. #15 E. none of the choices

52. Rongeur is designed specifically for:

A. crushing bone and trimming soft tissues C. removing small bone fragments
B. smoothening hard rough areas D. cutting bone

53. Sealing the end of an amputated root canal:

A. trephination C. retrograde filling
B. condensation D. enucleation E. restoration

54. An invasive investigation using a radiopaque dye injected into upper and lower compartments of
TMJ that provides information about the internal structures of the joint?
A. orthopantomograms C. CT scan
B. Arthrography D. MRI E. none of these.

55. A preauricular approach of TMJ management that exposes the condyle, wherein a cut is made at
the neck of the joint and the condyle is removed.
A. Eminectomy C. Condylectomy
B. Condylotomy D. Arthrocentesis E. Meniscal Plication

56. The single most effective means of reducing patient radiation dose to intraoral tissues is to use:
A. a lead apron C. increased filtration
B. high-speed film D. intensifying screen E. increased target-film
distance

57. The aluminum filter in the x-ray tubehead functions to:

I. reduce exposure to patients’ skin
II. absorb long-wavelength photons preferentially
III. absorb short-wavelength photons preferentially
IV. increase penetrability of the beam
V. decrease penetrability of the beam
A. I, II & III B. I, II & IV C. I, II & V D. I, III & V E. II & IV only

58. Untoward effects of therapeutic irradiation to the head and neck include:
I. agenesis of the roots of teeth III. hemangioma
28
 II. squamous cell carcinoma of the skin IV. Sialolithiasis V. micrognathia
A. I, II & V B. I, IV & V C. II, III & IV D. II, III & V E. II, IV & V

59. A long cone is used in the paralleling or right-angle radiographic technique to:
A. reduce secondary radiation
B. avoid magnification of the image
C. avoid distortion of image shape
D. avoid superimposition of anatomic structures
E. facilitate correct vertical angulation of the cone

60. The radiographic picture of alveolar bone in cases of periodontitis characteristically shows:
A. vertical resorption C. shrinkage or reduction in size of cancellous spaces
B. horizontal resorption D. accentuation of lamina dura

61. A radiograph of the TMJ will not show:

A. lipping of the condyle C. the meniscus
B. the articular eminence D. a fracture of the neck of the condyle

62. The differential diagnosis of radioluscent areas around and close to the apex of the teeth does not
included a consideration of the:
A. maxillary sinus C. mental foramen
B. incisive foramen D. mandibular foramen E. none of these

63. Which of the following are important and serious effects of repeated exposure to low doses of x-
radiation?
I. Purpura III. Genetic mutation
II. Carcinogenesis IV. Diarrhea and dehydration V. Alteration of the oral
microflora
A. I & II B. I & V C. II & III D. II & IV E. III & IV

64. Which of the following can be demonstrated on conventional TMJ radiographs?

I. A perforation in the articular disk
II. Positions of condyle in the glenoid fossa
III. The range of anteroposterior movement of condyles
IV. Areas of bone destruction on condylar heads
V. Relationships between hard and soft tissue structures in the joint
A. I, II & V B. I, III & IV C. II, III & IV D. II, III & V E. III, IV & V

65. Cross-sectional occlusal radiographs are useful in locating:

A. the hyoid bone C. maxillary sinus mucoceles
B. the mental foramen D. sialoliths in Stensen’s duct E. Sialoliths in Wharton’s
duct

66. Removal of the entire lesion with a margin of clinically uninvolved tissue. This procedure is meant
to be both diagnostic and therapeutic?
A. punch biopsy C. incisional biopsy
B. brush biopsy D. excisional biopsy E. oral cytology

67. Open fracture of the bone resulting to open communication with the oral cavity:
A. Comminuted C. Simple
B. Complicated D. Greenstick E. Compound

68. Anxious, nervous patient is appointed for a surgical procedure. The patient states that she has had
recent weight loss and is easily fatigued. Physical findings include tremors, tachycardia and warm,
sweaty palms. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. diabetes C. renal disease
B. gastritis D. hyperthyroidism E. Cushing’s disease.

29
69. A gunshot wound would most commonly result to:
A. Comminuted C. Simple
B. Complicated D. Greenstick E. Compound

70. Corrective procedure for lengthening tissues:

A. Y-plasty C. Y-V plasty
B. Z-plasty D. V-Y plasty E. double Y incision

71. Radiographic examination for torus palatinus in order to prevent pneumatization of the nasal
cavity:
A. antero-posterior view C. Towne’s view
B. lateral skull view D. Water’s view E. none of these

72. The drug of choice in management of patient with an acute allergic reaction involviong
bronchospasm and hypotension is;
A. epinephrine B. aminophylline C. dexamethasone D. diphenhydramine

73. Masticatory space infections have as their hallmarks:

A. dyspnea B. trismus C. erythema D. hematemesis

74. A patient has a pulse rate of 72, a respiratory rate of 15, a BP of 120/80, warm pink extremities
and pupils that constrict during near accommodation. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Myopia C. Normal patient
B. Diabetes D. Acute anxiety syndrome E. coronary artery
disease

75. A patient has a history of two block dyspnea, two pillow orthopnea, ankle edema and palpitation.
The most likely diagnosis is:
A. congestive heart failure C. hepatic failure
B. respiratory failure D. uremia E. none of these

76. A patient receives a tentative diagnosis of central giant cell granuloma. For definitive diagnosis,
serum calcium level should be determined to distinguish between granuloma and:
A. osteopetrosis C. hyperparathyroidism
B. fibrous dysplasia D. osteogenesis imperfecta E. Paget disease of bone

77. A 22-year old woman has acute gingival hypertrophy and spontaneous bleeding from the gingival.
She complains of weakness and anorexia. Results of her hemoglobin show
Hb- 12 grams Lymphocytes- 9%
WBC- 100,000 Monocytes-1%
Neutrophils- 90% Eosinophils-0%
The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Myelogenous leukemia C. thrombocytopenic purpura
B. infectious mononucleosis D. gingivitis of local etiologic origin

78. The earliest common symptom of acute pulpitis secondary to a carious lesion is:
A. continuous pain C. tooth discoloration
B. aerodontalgia D. thermal sensitivity E. pain on percussion

79. The most sensitive technique for palpation of a submandibular gland is:
A. bimanual, simultaneous intraoral and extraoral palpation
B. bimanual, extraoral palpation with the patient’s head tipped forward
C. intraoral palpation with the patient’s head tipped forward
D. intraoral palpation with the patient’s head unsupported
E. monomanual, extraoral palpation with the patient’s head tipped forward and toward the
same side

80. The following are requirements of an adequate flap design:

I. base wider than free margin
II. mucous membrane carefully separated from periosteum
30
 III. base containing blood supply
IV. flap wider than the body defect that will be present at the conclusion of the
operation
A. I, II & III B. I, II & IV C. II, III & IV D. I, III & IV E. I, II, III &
IV

81. Differential white blood cell counts in the laboratory are useful in the diagnosis of:
A. anemia C. spherocytosis
B. eosinophilia D. vitamin deficiency E. thrombocytopenic purpura

82. A 35-year old man has an odontogenic infection. He has frequent infections and has lost weight.
His appetite is good but he has polydipsia. The most probable diagnosis is:
A. malignancy C. disbetes insipidus
B. diabetes mellitus D. Hodgkin’s disease E. acute glomerulonephritis

83. The most common emergency seen after the use of local anesthesics is:
A. syncope C. a toxic reaction
B. trismus D. an allergic reaction E. an anaphylactoid
reaction

84. The body temperature of a patient is most accurate if measured:

A. orally C. axillary
B. rectally D. in centigrade degrees E. with a disposable
thermometer

85. Which of the following is a possible important sign of subacute bacterial endocarditis?
A. enlarged tongue C. discharge from the ear
B. splinter hemorrhage D. intestinal obstruction

86. The examination technique used for the buccal and labial mucosa is/are:
A. bilateral B. bidigital C. Bimanual D. A,B & C

87. Lip enlargement with mucopurent exudates is:

A. Cheiloschisis C. Chelitis Glandularis
B. Cretinism D. Peutz Jegher’s E. none of these.

88. Hairy tongue is characterized by hypertrophy of which of the following papillae?

A. Foliate B. filiform C. fungiform D. circumvallate

89. The best examination technique for lymph nodes:

A. inspection only C. inspection & bimanual palpation
B. inspection and bidigital palpation D. inspection & bilateral palpation

90. A geriatric male patient has an ulcerated, 3 cm lesion on the lateral border of the tongue. The
recommended procedure for making a diagnosis is:
A. excise the entire lesion C. take a cytologic smear of the ulcerated area
B. perform an incisional biopsy D. None of these.

91. A well-circumscribed, white patch in the mandibular facial sulcus appears secondary to placing
aspirin in the area. The most probable diagnosis is:
A. hyperkeratosis of the oral mucosa C. hypertrophy of the oral mucosa
B. hyperplasia of the oral mucosa D. necrosis of the oral mucosa

92. Examination of a 79-year old man reveals a 3cm flat, mottled, brown-black splotchy lesion on the
left side of his face. The margins of the lesion are not palpable. The patient states that the lesion
has been increasing in size for 10 years. The most likely diagnosis is:
31
 A. “age spot” C. nodular melanoma
B. lentigo maligna D. junctional nevus E. superficial spreading
melanoma

93. A patient has a 3 x 2 cm painless, fluctuant, blue lesion in the floor of the mouth of three days’
duration. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. ranula C. hemangioma
B. lipoma D. dermoid cyst E. lymphoepithelial cyst

94. A 1-year old child has bilateral facial swelling =, a fever, leukocytosis and hyperostosis of his
facial bones. Blood cultures are negatives. He most probable diagnosis is:
A. cherubism C. Caffey’s disease
B. osteomyelitis D. osteogenic sarcoma E. infectious parotitis

95. Curd like plaques found on the oropharynx due to antibiotics or steroid therapy is:
A. infected tonsils C. Thrush
B. enlarged tonsils D. herpangina E. none of these.

96. White patch which can be rubbed off and is found on the labial or buccal mucosa is:
A. pachyderma oris C. lichen planus
B. leukoplakia D. ptyalism E. none of these.

97. Which of the following odontogenic cysts does not require clinical or radiographic presence of a
tooth for diagnosis?
A. Apical C. Eruption
B. Residual D. Dentigerous E. Lateral periodontal

98. Brown to black pigmentation caused by adrenal insufficiency is commonly associated with:
A. angular cheilitis C. candidiasis
B. perleche D. addison’s disease E. syphilitic lesion

99. Severe form of cellulites involving all spaces of the floor of the mandible is:
A. Ranula B. dermoid cysts C. Ludwig’s angina D. sialolithiasis

100. Decotisyl is a:
A. antiarrhythmic C. analgesic
B. anticoagulant D. adrenocorticosteroid E. antifungal

J. If it is necessary to perform a coniotomy, entry should be made at the:

A, thyroid notch C. cricoid cartilage
B, thyroid membrane D. cricothyroid ligament E. thyroepiglottic ligament

K. An antrostomy is commonly used:

A, to remove high maxillary third molars C.following closure of an oroantral fistula
B, to expose a tooth root for apicoectomy D. to establish drainage of an alveolar abscess

L. Bibeveled chisels are used primarily to:

A, remove bone B. establish purchase points C. split teeth D. sharpen line angles
M. Corrective procedure for lengthening tissues:
A, Y-plasty B. Z-plasty C. Y-V plasty D. V-Y plasty E. double Y incision

N. Surgical flap is most often done to:

A. retain tissue layer C. gain access
B. obtain adequate visualization D. both B & C E. all of these.

O. In the treatment of cellulites, penrose drain usually remain in place for:

A. 2-5 days B. 1-2 days C. 2 weeks D. 1 week.

P. Drug of choice used as prophylactic regimen for patients with infectious endocarditis :
A. antibiotics B. anti-inflammatory C. analgesics D. antihistamine.

32
 Q. The longest duration period of stabilizing dentoalveolar injuries takes place in:
A. mobile tooth B. tooth displacement C. root fracture D. replanted tooth.

R. Caused by injury to the tooth-supporting structure:

A. concussion B. extrusion C. mobility D. lateral displacement E. avulsion.

S. The primary and secondary intent of dressing is :

A. to immobolize tissue C. slow down rapid healing of oral mucosa
B. keep surgical field free from traumatic process D. all of the above E. none of the above.

T. Involves the outer layer of epidermis with tenderness and pain :

A. 3rd degree burn C. 2rd degree burn E. 1st degree burn
B. secondary intention D. all of the above.

U. The most dramatic emergency situation that occurs within seconds after parenteral
administration of antigenic medication characterized by malaise, skin signs, stridor,
cyanosis and total airway obstruction:
A. seizure C. hyperventilation E. vasovagal syncope
B. anaphylaxis D. foreign body aspiration.

V. A disorder caused by injury-induced brain damage or damaged from ethanol. Having

symptoms like patient seemed frightened with contortion of extreminties and/or blank
stare.
A. seizure C. hyperventilation C. vasovagal syncope
B. anaphylaxis D. foreign body aspiration.

W. Condition of patient characterized by talkativeness, confusion, slurring of speech and

anxiety, dizziness, blurred vision and headache.
A. seizure B. syncope C. hyperventilation D. anesthetic toxicity

X. The most common cause of a transient loss of consciousness triggered by stressful

dental treatment characterized by sweating, a decrease in peripheral vascular
resistance, tachycardia and decreased blood pressure:
A. seizure C. hyperventilation E. vasovagal syncope
B. anaphylaxis D. foreign body aspiration.

Y. Removal of the entire lesion with a margin of clinically uninvolved tissue. This
procedure is meant to be both diagnostic and therapeutic?
A, punch biopsy C. incisional biopsy
B, brush biopsy D. excisional biopsy E. oral cytology

Z. Open fracture of the bone resulting to open communication with the oral cavity:
A, Comminuted B. Simple C. Complicated D. Greenstick E. Compound

AA. A gunshot wound would most commonly result to:

A, Comminuted B. Simple C. Complicated D. Greenstick E. Compound

BB. Type of fixation used for a fractured symphysis of the mandible:

A, plates and screws C. head bandage E. Risdon
B. Ivy loop D. circumferential wiring

CC. An accepted surgical procedure most frequently indicated for odontogenic cysts
is:
A, enucleation C. marsupialization
B, fulguration D. incision and drainage E. injection of a sclerosing solution

DD. A process characterized by the fusion of the surface of a dental implant to the
surrounding bone to be used readily as an anchor for tooth:
A. transosseous B. subperiosteal C. endosseous D. osteointegration

EE.A type of implant that are surgically inserted into the jaw bone:
A. transosseous B. subperiosteal C. endosseous D. osteointegration .

FF. A type of implant that are surgically inserted into the jaw bone penetrating the entire
jaw emerging opposite the entry site usually at the bottom of the chin.
A. transosseous B. subperiosteal C. endosseous D. osteointegration .
33
 GG. Brown to black pigmentation caused by adrenal insufficiency is commonly
associated with:
A. angular chelitis C. candidiasis
B. perleche D. Addison’s disease E. Syphylytic lesion.

HH. The normal color and condition of the hard palate is:
A. smooth pink with fissuring
B. bright pink, few dilated veins and nodules prominences
C. keratinized pale pink with bluish gray hue
D. dark pink with yellowish hue.

II. Timing of surgical repair of clefts for babies follows “rule of 10” which means the
following, except:
A. 10 months old B. 10 gm of hemoglobin C. 10 lbs in body weight D. 10 weeks old

JJ. A paroxysmal and intermittent intense pain usually confined to specific nerve branches
and is most commonly present in the maxillofacial region:
A. neuritis B. hyperesthesia C. neuralgia D. paralysis

KK.A wound resulting from tear.

A. contusion C. abrasion E. laceration
B. penetrating wound D. gun shot, missile and war wounds.

LL. Injured epithelium has a genetically programmed regenerative ability that allows it to
reestablish its integrity through proliferation, migration, and a process known as:
A. contact inhibition B. inhibition C. contact imbibition D. imbibition

MM. It is a method of flushing out or lavage of the TMJ that gives three-dimensional;
images of the joint, bony relation & bone quality of the TMJs:
A, orthopantomograms B. CT scan C. arthrography D. MRI

NN. Any fracture distal to 2nd molar, from the retromolar pad area to the inferior border
of the body and posterior border of the ramus?
Condylar fracture C. Angle fracture
B. Ramus fracture D. Body fracture E. symphysis fracture

OO. Surgical procedure that involves removing only one root of a multirooted tooth due
to periodontal disease:
Crown sectioning C. trephination
Hemisection D. replantation E. transplantation

PP. When draining pus from an abscess of the pterygomandibular space from an intraoral
approach, the muscle most likely to be incised is the:
masseter B. buccinator C. temporal D. medial pterygoid E. lateral pterygoid

QQ. Before performing preprosthetic surgery to a new patient, the dentist should:
i. Obtain a complete medical history
ii. Record temperature, BP, pulse and respiration rate
iii. Obtain a complete blood count, plus bleeding and coagulation time
iv. Order an electrocardiogram and chest x-ray
Consult patient’s physician if any significant medical problem exist
A. I, II, III B. I, III, IV C. II, III, IV D. I, II, V E. I, II, III, V

RR. The aluminum filter in the x-ray tubehead functions to:

SS.reduce exposure to patients’ skin
II. absorb long-wavelength photons preferentially
III. absorb short-wavelength photons preferentially
IV. increase penetrability of the beam
V. decrease penetrability of the beam
A. I, II & III B. I, II & IV C. I, II & V D. I, III & V E. II & IV only

TT. Untoward effects of therapeutic irradiation to the head and neck include:
34
 J. agenesis of the roots of teeth III. hemangioma
II. squamous cell carcinoma of the skin IV. Sialolithiasis V. micrognathia
A. I, II & V B. I, IV & V C. II, III & IV D. II, III & V E. II, IV & V

UU. Cross-sectional occlusal radiographs are useful in locating:

A, the hyoid bone C. maxillary sinus mucoceles
B, the mental foramen D. sialoliths in Stensen’s duct E. Sialoliths in Wharton’s duct

VV.A long cone is used in the paralleling or right-angle radiographic technique to:
A, reduce secondary radiation D. avoid magnification of the image
B, avoid distortion of image shape E. avoid superimposition of anatomic structures
C, facilitate correct vertical angulation of the cone

WW. A radiograph of the TMJ will not show:

A. lipping of the condyle C. the meniscus
B. the articular eminence D. fracture of the neck of the condyle

XX.It is a localized growth of compact bone that extend from the inner surface of cortical
bone into the cancellous bone:
A. exostoses B. tuberosity C. torus palatinus D . torus mandibularis .

YY.Which electron has the greatest binding energy to the nucleus?

A. J-shell electron B. K-shell electron C. L-shell electron D. Q-shell electron

ZZ. If the mental foramen is superimposed over the apex of a root, it maybe mistaken as:
A. odontoma B. rarefaction due to infection C. cementoma D. supernumerary teeth.

AAA. Radiograph shows treatment needed for large residual cyst to prevent jaw fracture:
A. enucleation B. Caldwell luc C. marsupialization D. incision and drainage

BBB. Soap bubble radioluscency of the mandible:

A. ameloblastoma B. fibrous dysplasia C. compound odontoma D. dentiogerous cyst

CCC. Ground glass radiopacity of the maxilla:

A. amaloblastoma B. fibrous dysplasia . compound odontoma D. dentigerous cyst

DDD. Cotton wool appearance on the radiograph:

A. pagets disease B. fibrous dysplasia C. ossifying fibroma D. osteomyelitis.

EEE. Methods of object localization:

A. 2 films at right angle C. tube shift technique
C. Clark’s technique D. buccal object rule E. all of these

FFF. Methods to reduce magnification: 1. Use a small focal spot 2. Increase focal spot
to film distance 3. Increase FSFD 4. Decrease object to film distance 5. Increase
object to film distance.
A. 1 & 2 B. 2 & 3 C. 3 & 4 D. 4 & 5

GGG. SLOB means :

A. Side of Lingual is Opposite the Buccal C. Same Left Opposite the Buccal
B. same Lingual Over Buccal D. Same Lingual Opposite Buccal

HHH. The central ray and film in paralleling technique are:

A. Perpendicular B. Parallel C. Side by Side D. Along the long axis

III. Made up of molybdenum:

A. filament B. focusing cup C. target D. anode E. cathode.

JJJ. Process of removing low energy photons from the x-ray beam:
A. collimation B. ionization C. filtration D. excitation .

KKK. ALARA means:

A. As little as reasonably achievable C. As low as reasonably applicable
B. As little as reasonably applicable D. As low as reasonably achievable

35
 LLL. Image is limited to the coronal one third of the teeth and related structures:
A. Periapical film B. Bitewing film C. Occlusal film D. Screen film

MMM. Panoramic, skull and cephalometric radiography:

A. Periapical film B. Bitewing film C. Occlusal film D. Screen film

NNN. Localized foreign bodies in the jaws and stones in the salivary ducts.:
A. Periapical film B. Bitewing film C. Occlusal film D. Screen film

OOO. It determines the relationship of impacted tooth/teeth to the surrounding

structures.:
A. Periapical film B. Bitewing film C. Occlusal film D. Screen film

PPP. It is sensitive to this blue light and exposed rapidly by it.

A. Periapical film B. Bitewing film C. Occlusal film D. Screen film

QQQ. Which of the following is an indicator of the quality of an x-ray beam?

Milliamperage C. H and D curve
B. Exposure time D. Machine output D. Half-value layer

RRR. Which of the following are examples of nonparticulate radiation energy?

I, X-rays II. Electrons III. Gamma rays IV. Beta rays
A. I & II B. I & III C. I & IV D. II & III E. II & IV

SSS. Which of the following structures appear radioluscent on an oral radiograph?

III. Hamular process III. Mandibular canal
IV. Genial tubercles IV. Anterior nasal spine V. Medial palatine suture
A. I & II B. II & III C. II & IV D. III & IV E. III & V

TTT. The advantage of the paralleling technique over the bisecting-angle technique is:
the increased anatomic accuracy of the radiographic image
the increase object-film distance
the greater the magnification of the image
that the central ray is perpendicular to an imaginary line drawn through half the angle between the long
axis of the teeth and the film

UUU. The paralleling technique is recommended over the bisecting-angle technique

because:
positioning the film is easier D. it cuts developing time
it uses slow film E. A, B & C
it gives a less distorted picture of the length of the tooth

VVV. Cone-cutting (partial image) on a radiograph is caused by:

underexposure C. a damaged cone
B. improper exposure technique D. improper coverage of the film with the beam of radiation

WWW. Eruption of several vesicles with erythematous borders caused by Coxsakie virus
is:
A. infected tonsils B. enlarged tonsils C. thrush D. herpangina

XXX. Brown to black pigmentation caused by adrenal insufficiency is commonly

associated with:
A. angular chelitis B. perleche C. candidiasis D. Addison’s disease E. Syphylytic lesion.

YYY. The normal color and condition of the hard palate is:
A. smooth pink with fissuring C. bright pink, few dilated veins and nodules prominences
B. keratinized pale pink with bluis gray hue D. dark pink with yellowish hue.

ZZZ. White patch which can be rubbed off and is found on the labial or buccal mucosa
is:
A. pachyderma oris B. leukoplakia C. lichen planus D. ptyalism
36
 AAAA. A patient receives a tentative diagnosis of central giant cell granuloma. For
definitive diagnosis, serum calcium level should be determined to distinguish between
granuloma and:
osteopetrosis C. hyperparathyroidism
B. fibrous dysplasia D. osteogenesis imperfecta E. Paget disease of bone

BBBB. The earliest common symptom of acute pulpitis secondary to a carious lesion is:
continuous pain C. tooth discoloration
B. aerodontalgia D. thermal sensitivity E. pain on percussion

CCCC. A geriatric male patient has an ulcerated, 3 cm lesion on the lateral border of the
tongue. The recommended procedure for making a diagnosis is:
excise the entire lesion C. take a cytologic smear of the ulcerated area
B. perform an incisional biopsy

DDDD. The following are requirements of an adequate flap design:

base wider than free margin
a. mucous membrane carefully separated from periosteum
b. base containing blood supply
c. flap wider than the body defect that will be present at the conclusion of the operation
A. I, II & III B. I, II & IV C. II, III & IV D. I, III & IV E. I, II, III & IV

EEEE. A surgical procedure where cuts are made in the alveolar bone and increase the
rate of tooth movement.
Decortification C. alveoloplasty
B. corticotomy D. Ostectomy E. Osteotomy

FFFF. Translucent bluish lesion found at eh ducts of the submandibular and sublingual
glands and is often caused by trauma is:
A. ranula B. dermoid cysts C. Ludwig’s angina D. sialolithiasis

GGGG. Mass or dough-like produced by the sebaceous glands found on the floor
of the mouth is:
A. ranula B. dermoid cysts C. Ludwig’s angina D. sialothiasis.

HHHH. Grayish yellow pseudomembrane with punched out interdental papilla.

A. ANUG C. hyperplastic gingivitis E. gingivofibromatosis
B. dilantin hyperplasia D. pubertal gingivitis.

IIII. Epileptic patient having tough gingiva.

A. ANUG C. hyperplastic gingivitis E. gingivofibromatosis
B. dilantin hyperplasia D. pubertal gingivitis.

JJJJ. Bluish red gingival which tends to bleed easily and is due to hormonal imbalance:
A. ANUG C. hyperplastic gingivitis E. gingivofibromatosis
B. dilantin hyperplasia D. pubertal gingivitis.

KKKK. The systemic visual purpose of oral diagnosis is:

A, suggest and provide a basis for the most suitable plan of treatment
B. excise a malignant neoplasm of the oral tissue
C. identify the abnormality
D. recognize the disease by its physical appearance
E. none of these.

LLLL. A comparison of the different diseases and contrasted by the use of the clinical,
pathologic and laboratory examination is ___diagnosis:
A. differential B. final C. tentative D. prognosis E. referral.

MMMM. Prospect as to the recovery from a disease as indicated by the nature and
symptoms is ___ diagnosis.
A. differential B. final C. tentative D. prognosis E. referral.

NNNN. The only potential complication associated with hepatitis is:

37
A. impaired healing C. presence of erythematous candidiosis
B. abnormal bleeding D. burning mouth

OOOO. A subjective symptoms maybe defined as:

A. an individualized reaction experienced by the patient and elicited from the patient
through inquiry
B. a clinical manifestation that is detected by the examiner during examination of the
patient
C. a clinical reaction detected by the examiner by inspection, palpitation and auscultation
D. an observable clinical manifestation of a systemic disease.

PPPP. Auscultation is a valuable clinical examination technique and can have application
in detecting:
A. TMJ dysfunction
B. speech impediments due to poor dentition
C. inflammation of the periapical tissues
D. abnormal breathing sound
E. Both A & D.

QQQQ. The drug of choice in management of patient with an acute allergic reaction
involviong bronchospasm and hypotension is;
A. epinephrine B. aminophylline C. dexamethasone D.
diphenhydramine

RRRR. Masticatory space infections have as their hallmarks:

A. dyspnea B. trismus C. erythema D. hematemesis

SSSS. A patient has a pulse rate of 72, a respiratory rate of 15, a BP of 120/80, warm
pink extremities and pupils that constrict during near accommodation. What is the
most likely diagnosis?
Myopia C. Normal patient
B. Diabetes D. Acute anxiety syndrome E. coronary artery disease

TTTT. The most sensitive technique for palpation of a submandibular gland is:
bimanual, simultaneous intraoral and extraoral palpation
bimanual, extraoral palpation with the patient’s head tipped forward
intraoral palpation with the patient’s head tipped forward
intraoral palpation with the patient’s head unsupported
monomanual, extraoral palpation with the patient’s head tipped forward and toward the same side

UUUU. A patient has a history of two block dyspnea, two pillow orthopnea, ankle edema
and palpitation. The most likely diagnosis is:
congestive heart failure C. hepatic failure
B. respiratory failure D. uremia E. none of these

VVVV. The most reliable test for lues is:

A. biopsy B. darkfield examination C. oral exfoloative cytology D. serology

WWWW. The lymph from the middle part of the lower lip will drain into the:
A. infrahyoid lymph node C. submental lymph node
B. submandibular lymph node D. superficial cervical lymph node.

XXXX. Anxious, nervous patient is appointed for a surgical procedure. The patient states
that she has had recent weight loss and is easily fatigued. Physical findings include
tremors, tachycardia and warm, sweaty palms. The most likely diagnosis is:
diabetes C. renal disease
B. gastritis D. hyperthyroidism E. Cushing’s disease.

YYYY. A 22-year old woman has acute gingival hypertrophy and spontaneous bleeding
from the gingival. She complains of weakness and anorexia. Results of her
hemoglobin show
Hb- 12 grams Lymphocytes- 9%
WBC- 100,000 Monocytes-1%
38
Neutrophils- 90% Eosinophils-0%
The most likely diagnosis is:
Myelogenous leukemia C. thrombocytopenic purpura
infectious mononucleosis D. gingivitis of local etiologic origin

ZZZZ. Differential white blood cell counts in the laboratory are useful in the diagnosis of:
anemia C. spherocytosis
eosinophilia D. vitamin deficiency E. thrombocytopenic purpura

AAAAA. A 35-year old man has an odontogenic infection. He has frequent

infections and has lost weight. His appetite is good but he has polydipsia. The most
probable diagnosis is:
malignancy C. disbetes insipidus
diabetes mellitus D. Hodgkin’s disease E. acute glomerulonephritis

BBBBB. Examination of a 79-year old man reveals a 3cm flat, mottled, brown-black
splotchy lesion on the left side of his face. The margins of the lesion are not palpable.
The patient states that the lesion has been increasing in size for 10 years. The most
likely diagnosis is:
“age spot” C. nodular melanoma
B. lentigo maligna D. junctional nevus E. superficial spreading melanoma

CCCCC. The characteristic oral clinical feature of Peutz-Jeghers syndrome is:

macrognathia
melanin pigmentation of the lips
yellowish spots on the oral mucosa
small, papillary lesions on the palate
a rhomboidal-shaped red patch on the dorsum of the tongue

DDDDD. A 14-year old boy has a bilateral, pearly-white thickening of the buccal
mucosa. The boy has had the lesions since birth. His younger brother also has similar
lesions. History and clinical findings are consistent with a diagnosis of:
leukoedema C. mucous patches
lichen planus D. white sponge nevus

EEEEE. Oral examination of a 3-year old child reveals only primary canines and
first molars present. General observation of the child reveals a very light complexion,
fine and light hair, and the overall facial appearance of an older person. Which of the
following conditions is suggested?
Down’s syndrome C. Crouzon’s disease
Hypopituitarism D. Cleiodocranial dysplasia
E. Hereditary ectodermal dysplasia

FFFFF. A painful, crater-like 1.5cm ulcer developed within one week in the mucous
of the left hard palate of a 40-year old woman. The most likely diagnosis is:
actinomycosis C. squamous cell carcinoma
pleomorphic adenoma D. adenoid cystic carcinoma
E. necrotizing sialometaplasia

1. The following are true for creating a flap design except,

A. Axial blood supply should be included in the base of the flap.
B. Base should be wider than the apex.
C. Length of the flap should not be more than twice the width of the base.
D. Base should be excessively twisted.
2. A 25-year old patient presents pain, trismus, and swelling associated with a partially erupted lower
third molar and fever. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Pericoronitis
B. Abscess
C. Squamous Cell Carcinoma
D. None of the above
3. The appropriate fulcrum when using the elevators when luxating a tooth is the,
A. Adjacent teeth
B. Gingiva
C. Interseptal bone
D. None of the above
4. This is a process of creating a fistula in the labial or buccal plate of the bone to locate the root apex.
39
A. Hemisection
B. Transplantation
C. Marsupialization
D. Trephination
5. Marsupialization involves the surgical excision of the deepest part of the cyst lining to convert the
cavity into a pouch. It is based on the principle that cysts will shrink to smaller more manageable size
when compressed.
A. First statement is true, the second statement is false
B. First statement is false, the second statement is true
C. Both first and second statements are true
D. Both first and second statements are false
6. Motion of forceps applied to luxate teeth and expand the bony socket:
A. Apical pressure
B. Mesial pressure
C. Distal pressure
D. All of the above
7. Rate of absorption of sutures is influenced by, except:
A. Type of tissue
B. Type of surgical gut
C. Location and length of incision
D. Condition of tissue
8. All of these are instruments for grasping tissue, except:
A. College pliers
B. Stillies pickup
C. Rongeur forceps
D. Russian tissue forceps
9. The most pathognomonic clinical symptom of fracture
A. Anesthesia
B. Crepitus
C. Pain
D. Trismus
10. Fracture that is pyramidal in shape
A. Le Fort I
B. Le Fort II
C. Le Fort III
D. Le Fort IV
11. Disadvantages of a trapezoidal flap
A. Limited surgical access
B. Wound healing by scar
C. Pocketing or clefting of soft tissues
D. Compromise in blood vessels
12. . This disease of the heart occurs when the myocardium is unable to act as an efficient pump.
A. MYOCARDIAL INFARCTION
B. CONGESTIVE HEART FAILURE
C. DIABETES
D. ARTHRITIS
13. What blade is used to make an incision in the form of a Y in order to expose the bone of the torus?
A. #21 blade
B. #15 blade
C. #11 blade
D. #36 blade
14. In oroantral communication, widely divergent roots decrease the chance of sinus perforation. Sinus
floor could not be removed along roots.
A. First statement is correct, second is incorrect.
B. First statement is incorrect, second statement is correct.
C. Both first and second statements are incorrect.
D. First and second statements does not relate to each other
15. The following situations are candidates for extraction except:
A. A patient complaining of swelling, radiograph shows diffused radiolucency indicating an abscess
B. Patient felt sharp pain that lasts for 2-3 seconds due to cold and hot drinks
C. A patient who wants to have a complete denture but with epulis fissuratum
D. Patient undergoing orthodontic treatment but with crowding and small arch, premolars and molars are
still present.
16. In the process of bone healing, what characteristic of bone makes it privileged?
A. Regenerative
B. Reparative
40
C. Restorative
D. Realignment
17. The breakdown of living tissue by the action of microorganism accompanied by inflammation.
A. Sepsis
B. Asepsis
C. Disinfection
D. Sanitation
18. Surgical procedure to remove diseased tissue from the alveolar bone in the apical or lateral region
surrounding a pulp-less tooth.
A. Apicoectomy
B. Periradicular Curettage
C. Excision
D. Incision
19. This type of injury implies damage to structures adjacent to the bone such as major vessels, nerves,
or joint structures
A. Greenstick Fracture
B. Comminuted Fracture
C. Complex Fracture
D. Symphisis Fracture
20. The following are absorbable sutures except:
A. Polyglycolic Acid (Dexon)
B. Polyglactin (Vicryl)
C. Polyamide (Nylon)
D. Polyglyconate (Maxon)
21. Which is true during surgery on the submandibular gland?
A. An incision on the lower border of the mandible is safe
B. The submandibular gland is seen to wrap around the posterior border of mylohyoid
C. The facial artery and vein are divided as they course through the deep part of the gland
D. Damage to the lingual nerve will cause loss of sensation to the posterior third of the tongue
22. The following signs: nausea, pallor, cold perspiration, widely dilated pupils, eye rolled up, and brief
convulsion are indicative of a patient having a __________ reaction.
A. Somatogenic
B. Psychogenic 
C. Either of the above
D. none of the above
23. Postoperative hypotension is usually due to the effect of:
A. Transfusion reactions
B. A fat embolism
C. The anesthetic or analgesics on the myocardium 
D. Liver failure
24. When a biopsy is being performed it is important to:
A. Incise perpendicular to the long axis of any muscle fibers beneath the lesion
B. Incise parallel to the long axis of any muscle fibers beneath the leasion 
C. Incise as deep as possible into muscle fibers beneath the lesion
D. Incise at a 45 degree angle to the log axis of any muscle fibers beneath the lesion
25. How long should one wait before obtaining a biopsy of any oral surgery?
A. 4 days
B. 7 days
C. 14 days
D. 30 days
26. An incisional biopsy is indicated for which of the following lesions?
A. A 0.5  cm papillary fibroma of the gingiva
B.A 2.0 cm area of Fordyce's diesease of the cheek
C.A 3.0 cm hemangioma of the tongue
D. A 3.0 cm area of leukoplakia of the soft palate
27. All are true basic principles of incision except:
A. Sharp blade of proper size should be used
B. Avoid cutting vital structures
C. Vertical incision should not extend into the mucobuccal fold
D. Blade should be held parallel to the epithelial surface
28. It is a bluish-black discoloration of the mucosal layer into the subcutaneous layer of the tissue
A. Crepitus
B. Laceration
C. Ecchymosis
D. Urticaria
29. It helps the clinician to establish priorities during history taking and treatment planning.
41
A. Chief Complaint and its History
B. Medical History
C. Physical Examination
D. Laboratory or Radiographic Examination
30. An intraoral surgical procedure in which segments of alveolar bone containing teeth are sectioned
between and apically to the teeth for the repositioning of the alveolus and teeth.
A. Alveoloplasty
B. Alveolar Osteotomy
C. Alveolectomy
D. Alveolar Bone Graft

31. Description of pain should include onset, intensity, duration, location, radiation, aggrevating, and
relieving factors.
A. History Taking
B. Review of Systems
C. Chief Complaint and its History
D. Physical Examination
32. EpulisFissuratum is caused by poorly fitting dentures whose flanges are too short and cuts into
unmovable mucosa. It lies in the sulcus due to irritation.
A. First statement is correct, second statement is wrong
B. First statement is wrong, first statement is correct
C. Both statement are correct
D. Both statement are wrong
33. The type of mandibular fracture that occurs in the region between the mental foramen and the distal
portion of the second molar and extends from the alveolar process through the inferior border
A. Dentoalveolar fracture
B. Symphysis fracture
C. Parasymphysis fracture
D. None of the above
34. What is the usual flap created in extracting ankylosed teeth?
A. Triangular flap
B. Envelope flap
C. Trapezoidal flap
D. None of the above
35. A radiographic technique that will detect and monitor salivary gland disease is?
A. Sialography
B. Anthography
C. Ultrasonography
D. None of the above
36. The ideal time to remove impacted third molar is:
A. When the root is fully formed
B. When the root is approximately two-thirds formed
C. Makes no difference how much ofthe root is formed
D. When the root is approximately one-third formed
37. All of the following are cardinal signs of a localized osteitis (dry socket) EXCEPT
A. Throbbing pain (often radiating)
B. Bilateral lymphadenopathy
C. Fetid odor
D. Bad taste
38. Which of the following types of fractures is most likely to produce respiratory obstruction?
A. A fracture through the angle and opposite condyle of the mandible
B. Unilateral fracture of the maxilla
C. A bilateral fracture of the mandible in the second premolar area
D. A bilateral fracture of the condylar necks of the mandible
E. Fracture of the left mid-body of the mandible
39. A Caldwell-luc procedure is used in operating on the
A. Naso-palatine canal
B. Maxillary sinus
C. Mandibular cyst
D. Mucous retention cyst of the floor of the mouth
40. In a 19 year old patient with a swelling over the left angle of the mandible, temperature of 38deg.
Celsius and negative history of trauma, one should suspect
A. Spontaneous fracture of the mandible
B. Pericoronal infection
C. Mumps
D. Submaxillary gland tumor
42
41. The most frequent etiology of trismus is
A. Infection
B. Tetanus
C. Use of a general anesthesia
D. Fracture
42. Which main complication should be guarded against when performing dental surgery on a patient
with severe liver disease?
A. Syncope
B. Postoperative infection
C. Convulsion
D. Inability to detoxify the anesthetic agent
E. Prolonged bleeding
43. Ankylosis of the temporomandibular joint is best treated via
A. X-ray therapy
B. Arthroplasty
C. Cortisone injections
D. Exercises
E. Antibiotic therapy
44. The most common facial neuralgias involve which of the following nerves?
A. Trigeminal and glossopharyngeal
B. Trigeminal and hypoglossal
C. Trigeminal and facial
D. Glossopharyngeal and facial
E. Glossopharyngeal and hypoglossal
45. The following are the effect of hematoma except:
A. increases the vascularity
B. increases the wound tension
C. acts as a culture media
D. makes it susceptible for the development of post-operative wound infection
46. Pell and Gregory classification discusses which of the following relation of impacted third molar
A. position of the impacted third molar to the long axis of the second molar
B. relationship of impacted lower third molar to the ramus of the mandible and the second molar
C. relationship to the occlusal surface of the adjoining second molar.
D. None of the above
47. This is the simplest and most frequently used type of suturing technique, and may be used in all
surgical procedures of the mouth.
A. Continuous Suture
B. Mattress Suture
C. Interrupted Suture
d. Continuous Locking Suture
48. A patient presents an asymptomatic bony protruberance covered by normal mucosa on the center of
his hard palate. This is most likely the clinical appearance of:
A. Fibroma
B. Torus Palatinus
C. Erythroplakia
D. Multiple Exostoses
49. A patient comes into your clinic complaining of severe difficulty in swallowing, speaking and
breathing, drooling of saliva, and an elevated temperature. Upon examination, a bilateral involvement of
the submandibular spaces and submental spaces has been very evident. This is most likely the clinical
presentation of:
A. Ludwig’s Angina
B. Chronic Dentoalveolar Abscess
C. Retropharyngeal Abscess
D. Lateral Pharyngeal Abscess
50. These are bone grafts that are composed of tissues from the actual patient. This is called as a:
A. Autograft
B. Allograft
C. Heterograft
D. Alloplastic graft
51. A 51 year old man with chronic periodontal disease complains of polyuria, thirst and lethargy at his
treatment review. Which of the following medical conditions is most likely to be associated with his
presenting condition?
A. Angina
B. Cushing’s syndrome
C. Diabetes mellitus
D. Tuberculosis
43
52. Which of the following structures should be visible on a dental panoramic radiograph?
A. The mandibular canal
B. The mandibular canal and maxillary sinus
C.The mandibular canal, maxillary sinus and hard palate
D.The mandibular canal, maxillary sinus, hard palate and zygomatic arch
53. The preventive measures that are recommended for patients with Cushing’s syndrome who are to
have dental surgery are the following except:
A. The surgical procedure should be performed in a hospital with the cooperation of the patient’s
physician
B. Sedative medication must be administered
C. Usual manipulations may be done in case of tooth extraction
D. All of the above
54. Ginasuddenly had a seizure while she is walking at the mall. The following may be a cause of her
sudden seizure attack, except:
A. Gina has epilepsy
B. Gina is having a local anesthesia toxicity
C. Gina have brain tumor
D. Gina is hyperventilating
55. Alloplastic grafts are:
A. Those where the bone to be grafted to the jaw is taken, or harvested from one's own body
B. Taken from human donors
C. Inert man-made synthetic materials
D. Harvested from animals
56. A pregnant woman in late second trimester falls into a syncope during extraction of upper molar, she
should be kept in:
A. Trendelenburg position
B. Head down towards the feet
C. Right lateral position
D. Left lateral position
57. The following signs: nausea, cold perspiration, widely dilated pupils, eyes rolled up and brief
convulsions are indicative of patient having a ___________________ reaction.
A. Somatogenic
B. Psychogenic
C. Either of the above
D. None of the above
58. While extracting a mandibular molar, you notice that the distal root tip is missing. Where is it most
likely to be found?
A. In the infratemporalfosa
B. In the mandibular canal
C. In the pterygopalatine fossa
D. In the submandibular space
59. What is a Toddler's heart beat rate?
A. 60-100 beats
B. 100-120 beats
C. 80-100 beats
D. 130-150 beats
60. A 35 years old man went to the dental clinic for a checkup. Upon the clinical examination the dentist
notices that there was a large swelling on his upper maxilla. There was no sign of severe carious lesion;
and upon questioning, the patient said that there was no pain felt on the area and shows radioluscency
upon radiograph. What would the first diagnosis be to this swelling?
A. Cyst
B. Abscess
C. Fibrous lesion
D. None of the above  
61. The basis for modern therapy is diagnosis. This means that diagnosis:
A. can be used to treat diseases
B. must be quickly done to produce snap judgment
C. presupposes that disease be identified first then eliminate
D. learned may represent special innate ability of the clinician to pull a diagnosis out of the thin air
62. Thorough examination includes the following:
1. Case history 2. Clinical examination 3. Diagnosis 4 Treatment Planning 5. Treatment
A. 1,2,3,4 B. 1,3,4,5 C. 1,2,4,5 D. all of those mentioned E. none of those mentioned
63. Screening type of examination includes the following except:
A. Chief complaint
B. Health questionnaire
C. Radiographs
44
 D. Appraisal of DMF, periodontium, soft tissues
D. Laboratory results
64. . A comparison of the different diseases and contrasted by the use of the clinical, pathological and
lab. Exam is________ diagnosis
A. differential
B. final
C. tentative
D. prognosis
E. referral
65. Tomography is:
A.Laminography B. panoramic
C. radiographic study of specific layer of tissue within the body
D. all of these
66. Blood disease related to administration of those drug aminopyrine, acitophenatidin or
chloramphenicol:
A. aplastic anemia B. pernicious anemia
C. anemia D. polycythemia
67. Sialadenitis:
A. inflammation of the tonsils B. inflammation of the salivary glands
C. inflammation of salivary ducts D. inflammation of the ducts
68. Treatment for pernicious anemia
A. Vitamin B12 B. folic acid
C. liver extract D.all of these
69. .The Steven- Johnson syndrome is closely related to;
A. schleroderma B. pemphigus
C. erythema multiforme D.lupus vulgaris
70 .Wickman’sstriaemay be found on mucus membrane of the patient with:
A. keratosisfollicularis B. lichenplanus
C.. erythema multiforme D. white spongy nevous
71. The primary laboratory findings associated with agranulocytosis:
A. decrease in platelets B. increase in white cell count
C. decrease in red blood count D. decrease in white cell count
72. Which of the following dental findings is frequently observed in cases of Pagets disease of bone:
A. Internal resorption B. widening of periodontal ligament space
C. hypercementosis D. apical root resorption
73 . The organisms that most commonly causes infective endocarditis is:
A. staphylococcus B. streptococcus viridans
C. staphylococcus pyogenes D. streptococcus mitis
74. Walter- Hammer pulse is a finding in:
A. rheumatic heart disease B. anemia
C. paroxyemal nocturnal dysplasia D. tetralogy of Fallot
75. The most common cause of asthemia and syncope are the ff. EXCEPT:
A. gout B. hypoglycemia
C. emotional disturbances D. postural hypotension
76. The component of developer that gives detail to the radiographic image is
A. hydroquinone C. potassium bromide
B. sodium carbonate D. none of these E. sodium sulfite
77. If a dried radiograph were processed a second time, its appearance would show
A. Increased contrast and density D. Decreased contrast and density
B. Increased contrast only E. Increased density only
C. No change in contrast or density
78. Which of the following radiographic feature is commonly associated with a traumatic bone cyst?
A. Divergence of the roots of teeth
B. Unilocular radiolucency with focal radiopacity
C. Dome-shaped radiopacity of the maxillar sinus
D. Scalloped radiolucency extending between the roots of teeth
79. Bone marrow for grafting defects in the jaws is generally obtained from
A. a rib D. maxillary tuberosity
B. the tissue bank E. the mandibular parasymphysis
C. the iliac crest
80. A change in continuity of the occlusal plane is often observed after ankylosis of a tooth. This change
is caused by:
A. differential eruption sequences.
B. The ankylosed teeth sinking into the alveolar bone.
C. Localized growth inhibition of the alveolar process.
D. Continued eruption of non-ankylozed teeth and growth of the alveolar process
45
81. If multiple myeloma is suspected because of a patient’s medical history and intraoral radiographs,
which radiographic projection is best confirm the suspected diagnosis?
A. lateral skull C. posterior-anterior
B. lateral oblique D. tempormandibular survery E. anterior-posterior
82. Radiographic signs of trauma from occlusion include each of the following, except:
A. Hypercementosis D. Root resorption
B. Alteration of the lamina dura E. Alteration of the periodontal space
C. Vascular infiltration of the periodontal ligament
83. In performing normal dental diagnostic procedures, the operator receives the greatest hazard from
which type of radiation?
A. direct primary beam C. secondary
B. scatter D. gamma E. secondary and scatter84. 84.
84.The x-ray beam is filtered to
A. Soften the beam C. remove long wavelength x-rays
B. Restrict the beam size D. remove short wavelength x-rays
85. The speed with which electrons travel from the filament of the cathode to the target of the anode
depends upon the
A. Potential difference between the two electrodes
B. Number of milliamperes in the tube circuit D. Voltage in the filament circuit
C. Angle between the filament and the target E. Size of the electron cloud
86. Collimation of a beam refers to be:
A. selective removal of soft radiation from the beam
B. selective removal of hard radiation from the beam
C. reduction of the beam diameter
D. none of these.
87. The techniques that show the upper and lower crowns on the same radiograph is called the:
A. bisecting angle technique C. paralleling technique
B. bite wing technique D. occlusal technique
88. Which of the following describes osseointegrated implants?
A. They have a direct structural and functional connection with bone only at the radiographic level of
detection.
B. They are anchored directly to living bone as determined by radiographic and light microscopic
analyses.
C. They form a junctional epithelium with the surrounding tissue.
D. They form a pseudo-periodontal ligament.
89. The density of a radiograph is reduced by increasing
A. kilovoltage C. source-film distance
B. milliamperage D. diameter of the aperture E. exposure time
90. Cone cutting on a radiograph is caused by:
A. underexposure
B. improper exposure techniques
C. a damaged cone
D. improper coverage of the film with the beam of radiation.
91. Which of the ffg diseases does not cause changes in the lamina dura:
A. Gaucher’s disease C. thyroid disease
B. sickle cell anemia D. Paget’s disease E. none of these.
92. Image sharpness on a radiograph is increased by
A. increasing film speed D. increasing object-film distance
B. using a small focal spot size E. decreasing object-film distance
C. using a large focal spot size
93. The first clinically observable reaction to radiation overexposure is
A. loss of hair C. agenesis of blood cells
B. erythema of the skin D. loss of alimentary epithelium
94. The radiographic view that best demonstrates a mediolaterally-displaced subcondylar fracture is the
A. panoramic projection D. lateral oblique of the mandible
B. maxillary occlusal view E. lateral skull projection
C. posteroanterior projection

95. If the intensity of a beam of radiation is 12 at a point 12 inches from the target, the intensity of the
beam at 24 inches is
A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 6 E. 9.
96. A long cone is used in the paralleling or right-angle radiographic technique to reduce secondary
radiation
A. avoid magnification of the image
B. avoid distortion of image shape
C. avoid superimposition of anatomic structure
46
D. facilitate correct vertical angulation of the cone
97. Which electron has the greatest binding energy to the nucleus?
A. J-shell electron C. L-shell electron
B. K-shell electron D. Q-shell electron E. both B & C
98. In object localization,, if the tube is shifted mesially, and the object in question appears to move
distally, then the object is said to be on the :
A. buccal B. lingual C. mesial D. distal E. none of these.
99. Which of the following components of an x-ray unit determines quality of the x-ray beam?
A. Autotransformer D. cathode filament temperature
B. X-ray timer switch E. milliamperage control switch
C. Step-down transformer
100. The primary purpose of splinting procedure:
A. stabilized repositioned tooth
B. minimize traumatic stress on the organizing clot
C. minimize traumatic effect into injury
D. both A & B
E. both B & C.

1. Earliest radiographic sign of periapical disease of pulpal in origin:

A. loss of lamina dura C. widen periodontal space
B. loss of periodontal space D. break in lamina dura

2. A radiopaque projection distal to the tuberosity of the maxilla maybe:

III. coronoid process III. Mental ridge
IV. malar process IV. Mylohyoid ridge V. hamular process
A. II & IV B. I & V C. I & III D. II & III E. II & V

3. The advantage of the paralleling technique over the bisecting-angle technique is:
A. the increased anatomic accuracy of the radiographic image
B. the increase object-film distance
C. the greater the magnification of the image
D. that the central ray is perpendicular to an imaginary line drawn through half the angle between the
long axis of the teeth and the film

4. The paralleling technique is recommended over the bisecting-angle technique because:

A. positioning the film is easier D. it cuts developing time
B. it uses slow film E. A, B & C
C. it gives a less distorted picture of the length of the tooth

5. If a film is stripped from its pocket and exposed to light, after processing it will:
A. be unaffected B. turn white C. turn black D. be translucent

6. Radiographic film emulsion is:

A. cellulose acetate C. hydroquinone
B. sodium thiosulfate D. gelatin and silver bromide E. calcium tungsten

7. Normal distance from CEJ to alveolar crest is:

A. 0.2 to 0.5mm B. 0.05 to 0.10mm C. 2.25 to 3.0mm D. 1.0 to 1.5mm

8. The differential diagnosis of radioluscent areas around and close to the apex of the teeth does not
included a consideration of the:
A. maxillary sinus C. mental foramen
B. incisive foramen D. mandibular foramen E. none of these

9.The component of developer that gives detail to the radiographic image is:
A. hydroquinone C. sodium carbonate
B. sodium sulfite D. potassium bromide E. none of these.

10. To avoid exposure to secondary radiation when taking radiographs, the dentist should stand:
A. at the back of the patient C. at least 3 feet from the patient
B. next to the patient D. at least 6 feet from the source of secondary
radiation

11.Which electron has the greatest binding energy to the nucleus?

A. J-shell electron C. L-shell electron
B. K-shell electron D. Q-shell electron E. none.
47
12. A unilocular radioluscent lesion in the area of a missing tooth where a tooth should have developed is
termed:
A. cementoma B. fissural cyst C. immature central fibroma D. primodial cyst.

13. Which of the ffg is a hardening agent in film processing?

A. acetic acid C. potassium alum
B. potassium bromide m D. potassium hydroxide E. none.

14. Collimation of a beam refers to be:

A. selective removal of soft radiation from the beam
B. selective removal of hard radiation from the beam
C. reduction of the beam diameter
D. none of these.

15.The techniques that show the upper and lower crowns on the same radiograph is called the:
A. bisecting angle technique C. paralleling technique
B. bite wing technique D. occlusal technique E. none.

16.Soap bubble radioluscency of the mandible:

A. ameloblastoma B. fibrous dysplasia C. compound odontoma D. dentiogerous cyst

17.Cotton wool appearance on the radiograph:

A. pagets disease B. fibrous dysplasia C. ossifying fibroma D. osteomyelitis.

18.The purpose of filtering an x-ray beam is to:

A. reduce beam diameter D. reduce scatter radiation
B. remove low energy radiation E. remove hard penetrating power of x-ray
C. none of these.

19.Teeth with high degree of amberlike translucency and a variety of colors from yellow to blue gray and
crowns readily wear:
A. amelogenesis imperfecta C. dentin dysplasia
B. dentinogenesis imperfecta D. odontodysplasia E. none of these

20. It is a localized growth of compact bone that extend from the inner surface of cortical bone into the
cancellous bone:
A. exostoses C. torus palatinus
B. tuberosity D. torus mandibularis none.

21.In object localization,, if the tube is shifted mesially, and the object in question appears to move
distally, then the object is said to be on the :
A. buccal B. lingual C. mesial D. distal E. none of these

22.Methods to reduce magnification: 1. Use a small focal spot 2. Increase focal spot to film distance
3. Increase FSFD 4. Decrease object to film distance 5. Increase object to film distance.
A. 1 & 2 B. 2 & 3 C. 3 & 4 D. 4 & 5 E. none.

23. SLOB means :

A. Side of Lingual is Opposite the Buccal D. Same Left Opposite the Buccal
B. same Lingual Over Buccal E. none of these.
C. Same Lingual Opposite Buccal

24. The central ray and film in paralleling technique are:

A. Perpendicular C. Side by Side
B. Parallel D. Along the long axis E. none of these

25. In Bisecting Angle Technique, the Bisector and central ray are:
A. Parallel C. Side by Side
B. Perpendicular D. Along the long axis

26. As the kilovoltage is decreased, energy of the x-ray beam :

A. decrease C. increase
B. is lost D. is the same E. none of these.

48
27.Made up of molybdenum:
A. filament B. focusing cup C. target D. anode E. cathode.

28. Process of removing low energy photons from the x-ray beam:
A. collimation B. ionization C. filtration D. excitation D. none of these.

29.Radiation coming directly from the target of the tube:

A. Primary radiation C. Scatter Radiation
B. Secondary Radiation D. Leakage Radiation E. Stray Radiation.

30. Radiation that emanates from parts of the tube other than the focal spot. :
A. Primary radiation C. Secondary Radiation
B. Scatter Radiation D. Leakage Radiation E. Stray Radiation.

31. Radiation that changed its direction during the Interaction of x-ray with matter.
A. Primary radiation C. Secondary Radiation
B. Scatter Radiation D. Leakage Radiation E. Stray Radiation.

32.Image is limited to the coronal one third of the teeth and related structures:
A. Periapical film B. Bitewing film C. Occlusal film D. Screen film E. none.

33. Panoramic, skull and cephalometric radiography:

A. Periapical film B. Bitewing film C. Occlusal film D. Screen film E. none.

34.It determines the relationship of impacted tooth/teeth to the surrounding structures.:

A. Periapical film B. Bitewing film C. Occlusal film D. Screen film

35. Which of the following is the most effective aid to detecting incipient proximal caries on the mesial
surface of a maxillary lateral incisor?
A. a dental explorer C. panoramic radiograph
B. direct visualization D. bite-wing radiograph E. periapical radiograph

36. For five days, a 25-year old man has had painful oral ulcerations. Several reddish macular lesions
are present on his face and hands, most of which have a ring-like or bull’s eye appearance. He had “cold
sores” two weeks earlier. Tentative diagnosis is:
A. lichen planus C. putyriasis rosea
B. aphthous ulcers D. verruca vulgaris E. erythema multiforme

37. A 65-year old man has an ulcerated, 3cm lesion on the lateral border of the tongue. The
recommended procedure for making a diagnosis is to:
A. excise the entire lesion C. perform an incisional biopsy
B. take a cytologic smear of the ulcerated area D. none of the above.

38. A well-circumscribed, white patch in the mandibular facial sulcus appears secondary to placing
aspirin in the area. The most probable diagnosis is:
A. hyperkeratosis of the oral mucosa C. hypertrophy of the oral mucosa
B. hyperplasia of the oral mucosa D. necrosis of the oral mucosa

39. A patient receives a tentative diagnosis of central giant cell granuloma. For definitive diagnosis,
serum calcium level should be determined to distinguish between granuloma and:
A. osteopetrosis D. hyperparathyroidsim
B. fibrous dysplasia E. osteogenesis imperfecta
C. Paget disease of bone

40. Examination of a 3 –year old boy reveals a fracture of his right leg, blue sclera, deafness and a
peculiarly shaped head. Opalescent dentin is found in many of his primary teeth. The most probable
clinical diagnosis is:
A. Osteopetrosis D. cleidocranial dysostosis
B. Marfan syndrome E. infantile cortical hyperostosis
C. Osteogenesis imperfecta

41. A patient presents with continuous, spontaneous pain associated with the maxillary right central
incisor. The tooth has a large Class V composite restoration. Cold testing produces lingering pain. There
is no sensitivity to percussion or palpation. The most likely diagnosis is:
49
 A. necrotic pulp, chronic apical periodontitis
B. reversible pulpitis, normal periapex
C. irreversible pulpitis, normal periapex
D. irreversible pulpitis, acute apical periodontitis

42. A diagnostic test failed to identify five cases of true disease. This type of failure is known as a:
A. false negative C. false positive
B. positive predictive value D. negative predictive value

43. A 33-year old female patient states that her mandibular first molar has been hurting since the recent
placement of an amalgam restoration. She describes the pain as mild-to-moderate, which is not
spontaneous, but is provoked by cold, heat and sweets. These symptoms most likely correspond with:
A. pulp necrosis C. internal resorption
B. reversible pulpitis D. irreversible pulpitis

44. Ludwig angina is characterized by all of the following, except:

A. subcutaneous emphysema
B. rapid onset of firm, painful swelling
C. origin in a mandibular molar
D. dysplasia, dyspnea and fever
E. involvement of submaxillary, sublingual and submental spaces

45. Odontomas usually exhibit all of the following features, except:

A. severe pain C. delayed eruption of teeth
B. slow expansive growth D. many small, well-formed teeth

46. Each of the following may cause xerostomia, except:

A. mumps C. diabetes mellitus
B. a sialolith D. glandular aplasia E. morphine addiction

47. Globular dentin, very early pulpal obliteration, defective root formation, development of periapical
granulomas and cysts, and premature exfoliation of teeth are characteristic of which of the following
disorders?
A. shell teeth D. dentinal dysplasia
B. hutchinson’s teeth E. regional odontodysplasia
C. dentinogenesis imperfecta

48. Which of the following is necessary to differentiate among a dentigerous cyst, an odontogenic
keratocyst and an ameloblastoma?
A. Aspiration C. radiographic examination
B. exfoliative cytology D. microscopic examination E. none

49. Squamous carcinoma of which of the following sites offers the best chance for survival?
A. Lip C. gingiva
B. Palate D. buccal mucosa E. tongue/floor of the mouth

50. In which of the following locations is malignant melanoma of the oral mucosa most likely to develop?
A. Palate C. buccal mucosa
B. lower lip D. floor of the mouth E. lateral border of the tongue

51. A patient who has a white blood cell count of more than 100,000/cc most likely is suffering from
A. Leukemia B. polycythemia C. Leucopenia D. pernicious anemia
52. A swelling on the anterior floor of the mouth is soft and painless. It has been present for several
months. The overlying mucosa has a bluish tinge. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. A retention cyst D. A mixed salivary gland tumor
B. An infected periodontal abscess E. A carcinoma of the floor of the mouth
C. An obstructed sublingual gland duct

53. ifferential white blood cell counts in the laboratory are useful in the diagnosis of:
A. anemia C. vitamin deficiency
B. eosinophilia D. thrombocytopenic purpura E. spherocytosis

54. A 35-year old man has an odontogenic infection. He has frequent infections and has lost weight. His
appetite is good but he has polydipsia. The most probable diagnosis is:
malignancy C. disbetes insipidus
50
diabetes mellitus D. Hodgkin’s disease E. acute glomerulonephritis

55. The most common emergency seen after the use of local anesthesics is:
A. syncope C. a toxic reaction
B. trismus D. an allergic reaction E. an anaphylactoid reaction

56. The examination technique used for the buccal and labial mucosa is/are:
A. bilateral B. bidigital C. Bimanual D. A,B & C

57. Lip enlargement with mucopurent exudates is:

A. Cheiloschisis C. Chelitis Glandularis
B. Cretinism D. Peutz Jegher’s E. none of these.

58. The best examination technique for lymph nodes:

A. inspection only C. inspection & bimanual palpation
B. inspection and bidigital palpation D. inspection & bilateral palpation

59. A well-circumscribed, white patch in the mandibular facial sulcus appears secondary to placing
aspirin in the area. The most probable diagnosis is:
A. hyperkeratosis of the oral mucosa C. hypertrophy of the oral mucosa
B. hyperplasia of the oral mucosa D. necrosis of the oral mucosa

60. Examination of a 79-year old man reveals a 3cm flat, mottled, brown-black splotchy lesion on the left
side of his face. The margins of the lesion are not palpable. The patient states that the lesion has been
increasing in size for 10 years. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. “age spot” C. nodular melanoma
B. lentigo maligna D. junctional nevus E. superficial spreading melanoma

61. The characteristic oral clinical feature of Peutz-Jeghers syndrome is:

A. macrognathia
B. melanin pigmentation of the lips
C. yellowish spots on the oral mucosa
D. small, papillary lesions on the palate
E. a rhomboidal-shaped red patch on the dorsum of the tongue

62. The most reliable, histologic criterion for a diagnosis of oral squamous cell carcinoma is:
A. invasion C. pleomorphism
B. degeneration D. encapsulation E. hyperchromatism

63. A patient has a 3 x 2 cm painless, fluctuant, blue lesion in the floor of the mouth of three days’
duration. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. ranula C. hemangioma
B. lipoma D. dermoid cyst E. lymphoepithelial cyst

64. Hairy tongue is characterized by hypertrophy of which of the following papillae?

A. Foliate B. filiform C. fungiform D. circumvallate

65. 1-year old child has bilateral facial swelling =, a fever, leukocytosis and hyperostosis of his facial
bones. Blood cultures are negatives. He most probable diagnosis is:
A. cherubism C. Caffey’s disease
B. osteomyelitis D. osteogenic sarcoma E. infectious parotitis

66. Alveoloplasty consist of the following:

I. Compression of the lateral walls of the extraction site
II. Removal of intraseptal bone and repositioning of the cortical bone
III. Recontouring bony irregularities using ronguer and bone files
IV. Gross removal of bone to increase interarch space.
A. I, II & III B. I, III & IV C. II, III & IV D. IV only

67. A patient complains of significant discomfort in all the left maxillary posterior teeth, all teeth are
sensitive to percussion but react normally to vitality testing. Palpation in the mucobuccal fold produces
discomfort. The most probable diagnosis is:
A. acute periapical abscess with referred pain
B. generalized periodontal disease
51
 C. acute maxillary sinusitis’
D. tic douloreaux

68. In doing a palatal rotational flap which of the branches of the maxillary nerve should be
anesthesized?
I. anterior palatine
II. anterior superior alveolar
III. middle superior alveolar
IV. posterior superior alveolar
V. posterior palatine
A. I, II & III B. I, IV & V C. II, III & IV D. III & IV E. II,IV & V

69. Following removal of a lower molar tooth, the patient complains of numbness of the lower lip on the
same side even after 10 days have passed. The dentist explains that:
A. all lower molar extractions result in temporary numbness and that it will get better when the
wound is completely healed.
B. There must have been an infection at the root ends and it will get better
C. Numbness is a sign of a tumor & the patient should see a specialist.
D. The nerve was traumatized during the extraction & will heal in a month or so.
E. The patient did not follow the postoperative instructions & an infection developed following the
extraction

70. A 19 year old female patient presents with pain, trismus, swelling associated with a partially erupted
lower third molar and fever. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. ameloblastoma
B. fracture at the angle of the mandible through the alveolus of the third molar
C. pericoronitis
D. peritonsillar abscess
E. none of the above are correct.

71. A surgical procedure where cuts are made in the alveolar bone and increase the rate of tooth
movement.
A. Decortification C. alveoplasty
B. Corticotomy D. Ostectomy E. Osteotomy

72. The procedure of choice for correction of soft tissue attachment on or near the crest of the alveolar
ridge.
A. Alveoplasty C. osteotomy
B. Ostectomy D. alveolectomy E. vestibuloplasty

73. Alveoloplasty consists of the following, except:

A. compression of the lateral walls of the extraction site
B. removal of intraseptal bone and repositioning of the cortical bone
C. recontouring bony irregularities using ronguer and bone files
D. gross removal of bone to increase interarch space
E. all of the above.

74. Procedure involving the correction of a prominent chin but the occlusal relationship is normal.
A. Ostectomy C. Alveolectomy
B. Genioplasty D. Corticotomy E. none of these

75. A Class III, 3rd molar impaction:

A. the highest point of impacted tooth is below the level odf the occlusal plane of
the adjacent 2nd molar but above the cervical line
B. the highest point is at or above the level of the occlusal plane of the adjacent
nd
2 molar
C. has insufficient space between the anterior border of the ramus and the
distal surface of the 2nd molar
D. has sufficient space between the anterior border of the ramus and the distal
surface of the 2nd molar
E. none of the above

76. Process of creating a fistula in the labial or buccal plate of bone to locate the root apex.
A. Marsupialization C. trephination
B. Hemisection D. replantation E. transplantation

52
77. A procedure that horizontally splits the mandible, the cranial fragment is repositioned superiorly and
an interpositional bone graft is placed.
A. sandwich ostectomy C. maxillary osteoplasty
B. visor osteotomy D. genioplasty

78. Ideal solution for storing avulsed tooth or tooth used for transplantation.
A. Milk C. Hank’s solution
B. saline solution D. saliva E. water

79. Healing process that takes place following extraction of a tooth may be described as:
A. healing by first intention D. both A & C
B. healing by secondary intention E. none of these
C. healing by granulomatous tissue formation

80. Dressings like gelfoam, bone chips or other substitutes are used to:
A. obliterate the surgical cavity D. promote healing
B. prevent hematoma formation E. both A & C
C. control bleeding

81. The Z-plasty procedure may be used to correct:

1. ankyloglossia 2. interfering labial frenum
3. oroantral fistula 4. sharp mylohyoid ridge
A. 1,2 B. 2,3,4 C. 1,2,3 D. 1,2,3,4

82. Surgical blade most commonly used for intraoral flap incisions:
A. #11 B. #12 C. #15 D. #10 E. none of these

83. Which of the following surgical techniques can be used for ridge extension in the mandible?
A. secondary epithelialization D. all of these
B. mucosal graft vestibuloplasty E. none of these
C. skin graft vestibuloplasty

84. Which is most important in preventing post-extraction bleeding problems?

A. Local pressure C. suturing of flaps
B. ice on the face D. transfusion of fresh whole blood

85. It is a method of flushing out or lavage of the TMJ that gives three-dimensional images of the joint,
bony relation and bony quality of the TMJ’s
A. orthopantomograms C. CT Scan
B. arthrography D. MRI

86. A typical surgical flap for odontectomy:

A. should not extend more than half of a tooth on both side
B. should be the “split” thickness flap
C. should elevate the mucoperiosteum as one tissue
D. should be replaced by interrupted stures.
E. both A & D

87. The following sealants maybe used for retrograde filling, except:
A. zinc free amalgam C. ethoxy benzoic acid
B. mineral trioxide aggregate D. glass ionomer E. ZOE

88. Flap design of choice for apicoectomy:

A. semilunar C. “L” or inverted “L” shaped flap
B. envelope D. elliptical E. none of these

89. Fusion of the condyle, disk and fossa complex that results to fibrous tissue and bone fusion or both
characterized by reduced mandibular opening that ranges from partial reduction in function to complete
immobility of the jaw.
A. Rheumatiod arthritis D. Intracapsular ankylosis
B. Degenerative joint disease E. Extracapsular ankylosis
C. Myofacial pain and dysfunction

90. An intraoral approach of TMJ management exposing the lateral aspects of the ramus, a cut is made
below the condyle with an oscillating jaw that reduces pressure on the
meniscus and anterior movement of the condylar head.
53
A. Eminectomy C. Condylectomy
B. Condylotomy D. Arthrocentesis E. Meniscal Plication

91. Procedure done after tooth extraction to reduce the width of the socket & undercuts:
A. simple alveoloplasty C. alveolar compression
B. alveolectomy D. molding E. all of these

92. The principal deterrent to normal wound healing:

A. poor nutrition C. infection
B. torn wound edges D. excessive bleedingE. inadequate suturing

93. Which of the following are the requirements for a proper flap design.
1. Always maintain blood supply
2. Adequate visualization of the site of surgery
3. Sound bone for support
4. Suture with tension
A. 1,2 B. 1,2,3 C. 2,3,4 D. 1,3,4 E, 1,2,3,4

94. In designing the flap to remove a large maxillary tuberosity, which of the following is true:
A. wedge-shaped or elliptical incision should be done first
B. oblique vertical incision may be placed buccally
C. incision must be placed buccal to the ridge
D. all of the above
E. both B & C

95. Graft material used for ridge augmentation or bone replacement include the following, except:
A. autogenous grafts C, alloplastic grafts
B. allogenic grafts D. hydroxyapatite crystal E. none of these

96. What muscle is most likely to be involved when deepening the lingual vestibule for preprosthetic
surgical preparation?
A. genioglossus m. C. platysma m.
B. diagastric m. D. mylohyoid m. E. hyoglossus m.

97. During removal of a torus palatinus, the midportion of the palatine process of the maxilla is
inadvertently removed. One would expect to see:
A. an opening into the nasal cavity C. a vertical fracture of the maxilla
B. an opening into the maxillary antrum D. a horizontal fracture of the maxilla.

98. A severe dull ache in the jaw three or four days after a dental extraction usually indicates:
A. loss of the alveolar blood clot
B. a need for prescription of a narcotic
C. exposure of cementum of an adjacent tooth
D. a need for prescription of an antibiotic
E. the beginning of acute pulpitis of an adjacent tooth.

99. The most common complication of an open fracture is:

A. nonunion C. infection
B. malunion D. crepitation E. poor alignment of the fracture

100. The most commonly encountered postoperative conditions that may require attention after surgical
removal of impacted teeth are:
A. pain and edema C. paresthesia and nausea
B. diarrhea and vomiting D. infection and elevated temperature

201. The ideal bone graft should do each of the following, except:
A. Induce osteogenesis
B. Withstand mechanical forces
C. Produce an immunologic response
D. Become replaced by host bone

202. Which of the following describes the use of hydroxylapatite for alveolar ridge
augmentation?
54
 A. Hydroxylapatite is considered to be osteoinductive (bone forming)
B. Granule migration and excessive augmentation are common problems
with hydroxylapatite materials
C. Compaction or compression of hydroxylapatite after augmentation generally
does not occur
D. Patients with hydoxylapatite augmentation to the anterior maxilla should be
without their maxillary prosthesis for a minimum of one month.
203. The success of a free gingival graft procedure depends upon which of the
following?
A. The graft being immobilized at the recipient site.
B. The donor tissue being as thick as possible and containing periosteum.
C. A thick blood clot remaining between the recipient and donor tissue.
D. A periosteal fenestration being present.

204. Which of the following will most likely cause an autogenous tooth transplant to fall
during the third year?
A. Development of root caries
B. Ankylosis of the tooth
C. An inflammatory resorption of supporting bone.
D. An idiopathic chronic progressive root resorption

205. When removing an impacted third molar, a dentist divides (sections) the tooth for
each of the following reasons, except:
A. To shorten the surgical procedure
B. To minimize the amount of bone to be removed
C. To allow the tooth to be delivered to the occlusal aspect
D. To minimize exertion of force necessary to remove the tooth

206. Which of the following is a principle of alveoloplasty?

A. Undercuts that interferes with the seating of the dentures should be
removed.
B. The remaining ridge should be as broad as possible, even if some undercuts
exist.
C. Sharp bony projections need not be smooth as they will round off in a few days
during the healing process.
D. Both A & B
E. Both B & C

207. Excisional biopsy is most appropriate for which of the following conditions?
A. A 1 –cm exophytic mass on the buccal mucosa
B. A 2 –cm painless ulcer of ten weeks’ duration
C. A 3 –cm submucosal indurated lump
D. A leukoplakic area covering most of the buccal mucosa

208. A freeze-dried decalcified bone graft taken from a human donor and placed in a
periodontal defect in another patient is termed an:
A. Allograft C. Isograft
B. Autograft D. Alloplastic graft

209. Which of the following bone donor grafts has the greatest osteogenic potential?
A. Freeze-dried bone C. Heretogenous marrow
B. Hemopoietic marrow D. Corticocancellous block

210. A dentist surgically removes a maxillary first molar, fracturing a large portion of the
palatal root. The root is forced into the antrum and cannot be visualized. Adjacent teeth
and bone are normal. The appropriate approach to recover is root is through the:
A. hard palate in the canine area.
B. Maxillary incisive fossa medial to the canine
C. Maxillary canine fossa above the level of the premolar roots.
D. Nasoantral wall above the middle concha or turbinate
55
 E. First molar alveolus by enlarging the antral opening

211. In the treatment of localized alveolar osteitis, the primary purpose of the dressing
is to:
A. provide a vehicle for obtudent medication
B. promote the growth of the adjacent epithelium
C. prevent saliva from contaminating the alveolus
D. stimulate the formation of a blood clot.

212. A paroxysmal and intermittent intense pain usually confined to specific nerve
branches and is most commonly present in the maxillofacial region:
A. neuritis C. neuralgia
B. hyperesthesia D. paralysis E. none of these.

213. It is also known as decompression, partsch operation:

A. enucleation C. enucleation after marsupialization
B. marsupialization D. enucleation with curettage E. none of these.

214. Which of the following is necessary to allow for apically positioning a flap margin
on the palatal surface of molar teeth?
A. Use only a sulcular incision for the initial incision.
B. Trim the flap margin to the proper length during the procedure
C. Avoid making the initial incision deep enough to reach bone
D. Extend vertical releasing incision beyond the mucogingival junction

215. Because of its root structure, which of the following teeth is the least responsive to
rotation forces during extraction?
A. mandibular canine D. mandibular first premolar
B. maxillary central incisor E. mandibular second premolar
C. maxillary first premolar

216. During surgical correction of mandibular prognathism, the position of the

mandibular condyle should be
A. Unaltered C. advanced
B. Retruded D. intruded

217. In obtaining an incisional biopsy of soft tissue, the dentist should do each of the
following, except:
A. infiltrate local anesthetic solution around the intended site
B. place a suture through the intended specimen before removing it
C. obtain some adjacent normal tissue if possible
D. place the specimen in saline, if 10% formalin is unavailable.

218. Replacement resorption is characterized by:

A. Pain D. rapid progression
B. Ankylosis E. acute inflammation
C. apical pathosis

219. Which of the following is the most commonly used surgical procedure to correct
maxillary retrognathia?
A. C-osteotomy C. Inverted L osteotomy
B. LeFort 1 osteotomy D. Anterior maxillary osteotomy

220. Which of the following describes osseointegrated implants?

A. They have a direct structural and functional connection with bone only at the
radiographic level of detection.
B. They are anchored directly to living bone as determined by radiographic
and light microscopic analyses.
56
 C. They form a junctional epithelium with the surrounding tissue.
D. They form a pseudo-periodontal ligament.

221. A patient who is on dicumarol therapy requires a tooth extraction. Which laboratory
test is the most valuable in evaluating this patient’s surgical risk?
A. Clotting time D. Sedimentation rate
B. Bleeding time E. Complete blood cell count
C. Prothrombin time

222. Bone marrow for grafting defects in the jaws is generally obtained from
A. a rib D. maxillary tuberosity
B. the tissue bank E. the mandibular parasymphysis
C. the iliac crest

223. Surgical blade which is used mainly for incision and drainage:
A. #11 B. #12 C. #15 D. #10 E. none of these.

224. The Z-plasty procedure may be used to correct: 1. ankyloglossia 2. interfering

labial frena 3. oroantral fistula 4. sharp mylohyoid ridges:
A. 1,2 B. 2,3,4 C. 1,2,3 D. all of the choices.

225. A type of implant that are surgically inserted into the jaw bone penetrating the
entire jaw emerging opposite the entry site usually at the bottom of the chin.
A. transosseous C. endosseous
B. subperiosteal D. osteointegration E. none of these.

226. The primary purpose of splinting procedure:

A. stabilized repositioned tooth
B. minimize traumatic stress on the organizing clot
C. minimize traumatic effect into injury
D. both A & B
E. both B & C.

227. During removal of a torus palatinus, the midportion of the palatine process of the
maxilla is inadvertently removed. One should expect to see:
A. an opening into the nasal cavity
B. a vertical fracture of the maxilla
C. an opening into the maxillary antrum
D. a horizontal fracture of the maxilla

228. Neuralgia that affects the 7th cranial nerve resulting to pain of the external auditory
canal, auricles and soft palate.
A. tic doloureux C. Ramsay Hunt’s syndrome
B. atypical facial neuralgia D. Post Herpetic Neuralgia
E. Vasoglossopharyngeal neuralgia.

229. The application of microsurgical technique procedure in the treatment of

maxillofacial nerve injuries are:
A. brain and peripheral nerve C. nerve decompression
B. nerve grafting and anastomoses D. Both A & C E. both B & C.

230. In a fracture involving the angle of an edentulous mandible, the proximal segment
is usually displaced in which direction?
A. anterior and superior C. inferior only
B. anterior and inferior D. posterior

231. Of the following bone grafts, the greatest osteogenic potential occurs with:
A. a xenograft C. an autogenous cortical graft
B. a freeze-dried bone D. an autogenous cancellous graft
57
232. A compound fracture is characterized by
A. many small fragments
B. a “star” shaped appearance
C. an incomplete break in the bone
D. bleeding into the masticator space
E. communication with the oral cavity

233. The surgical procedure most frequently performed to correct a skeletal

mandibular retrognathia is bilateral
A. body ostectomy
B. oblique subcondylar osteotomy
C. “C” type osteotomy of the ramus
D. horizontal osteotomy of the ramus
E. sagittal split osteotomy of the ramus

234. A patient presents with continuous, spontaneous pain associated with the
maxillary right central incisor. The tooth has a large Class V composite restoration. Cold
testing produces lingering pain. There is no sensitivity to percussion or palpation. The
most likely diagnosis is:
A. necrotic pulp, chronic apical periodontitis
B. reversible pulpitis, normal periapex
C. irreversible pulpitis, normal periapex
D. irreversible pulpitis, acute apical periodontitis

235. A diagnostic test failed to identify five cases of true disease. This type of failure is
known as a:
A. false negative
B. false positive
C. positive predictive value
D. negative predictive value

236. On the basis of diagnostic test results, a dentist correctly classifies a group of
patients as being free from disease. These results possess high:
A. Sensitivity C. generalizability
B. Specificity D. repeatability

237. Oral cytology smears are most appropriately used for the diagnosis of which of the
following?
A. Pseudomembraneous candidiasis
B. Lichen planus
C. Squamous cell carcinoma
D. Benign mucous membrane pemphigoid

238. The routine examination of a healthy 20-year old man discloses a round, brown
lesion, 3 mm in diameter, on his lower lip. The lesion is solitary, asymptomatic, and flat.
Its duration is unknown. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Blue nevus D. Malignant melanoma
B. Focal melanosis E. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome
C. Compound nevus

239. A 33-year old female patient states that her mandibular first molar has been
hurting since the recent placement of an amalgam restoration. She describes the pain as
mild-to-moderate, which is not spontaneous, but is provoked by cold, heat and sweets.
These symptoms most likely correspond with:
A. pulp necrosis C. internal resorption
B. reversible pulpitis D. irreversible pulpitis

240. High-flow 100% O2 is indicated for treating each of the following types of syncope,
except:
58
 A. Vasovagal C. Orthostatic
B. Neurogenic D. Hyperventilation syndrome

241. An adult healthy patient has marked indurated swelling. He has a temperature of
100ºF and has been in considerable pain for 24 hours. Percussion of the maxillary right
central incisor causes discomfort as does palpation at its apex. Pulp vitality tests are
negative for this tooth, while adjacent control teeth test within normal limits. A radiograph
reveals that the maxillary right central incisor has a deep unbased restoration and a
widened apical periodontal ligament space. Which of the following is the best emergency
treatment for this patient?
A. extracting the maxillary right central incisor
B. administering an antibiotic and analgesic and initiating root canal therapy when
symptoms subside
C. debriding the root canal of the maxillary right central incisor and
prescribing antibiotics and analgesics
D. incising and draining the swelling and prescribing antibiotics and analgesics.

242. A change in continuity of the occlusal plane is often observed after ankylosis of a
tooth. This change is caused by:
A. differential eruption sequences.
B. The ankylosed teeth sinking into the alveolar bone.
C. Localized growth inhibition of the alveolar process.
D. Continued eruption of non-ankylozed teeth and growth of the alveolar
process

243. If multiple myeloma is suspected because of a patient’s medical history and

intraoral radiographs, which radiographic projection is best confirm the suspected
diagnosis?
A. lateral skull D. posterior-anterior
B. lateral oblique E. tempormandibular survery
C. anterior-posterior

244. For five days, a 25-year old man has had painful oral ulcerations. Several reddish
macular lesions are present on his face and hands, most of which have a ring-like or
bull’s eye appearance. He had “cold sores” two weeks earlier. Tentative diagnosis is:
A. lichen planus D. verruca vulgaris
B. aphthous ulcers E. erythema multiforme
C. pityriasis rosea

245. Physical examination of a 28-year-old man reveals an extensive, smooth

enlargement of the body of the mandible in the molar region. The patient states that the
enlargement has been present for two years and has slowly and steadily increased in
size. The most probable clinical diagnosis is:
A. Osteosarcoma C. osteomyelitis
B. Ameloblastoma D. osteitis deformans

246. A 56-year old man has had a lesion on the floor of his mouth for six weeks without
significant clinical change. Examination shows a 2-cm lesion in the area of the
submandibular duct. Which of the following should be performed to confirm the clinical
diagnosis?
A. punch biopsy C. excisional biopsy
B. incisional biopsy D. exfoliative cytology

247. A patient on propylthiouracil therapy requires oral surgery. A routine preoperative

laboratory report indicates a hematocrit value of 45%, severe neutropenia, reduced
myeloblasts in the bone marrow and a coagulation time of 8 minutes. The primary hazard
to this patient is:
A. hypoxia C. hemorrhage
B. infection D. thyroid crisis E. uremic poisoning

59
248. A patient gives a history of bruising easily nocturia, excessive thirst and a low
resistance to infections. This patient is likely to be suffering from:
A. diabetes insipidus D. lupus erythematosus
B. diabetes mellitus E. thrombocytopenic purpura
C. glomerulonephritis

249. A patient who has spider telangiectatic spots on the skin should have an
examination to determine the condition of his:
A. lungs C. kidneys
B. liver D. pancreas E. gallbladder

250. A patient who has a white blood cell count of more than 100,000/cc most likely is
suffering from
A. Leukemia C. polycythemia
B. Leucopenia D. pernicious anemia

251. An asthmatic patient is characterized by having all of the following, except:

A. a history of allergy
B. inspiratory wheezes
C. hyperactive bronchi
D. bronchi that rapidly and spontaneously change caliber in response to various
irritants.

252. A patient is wide-eyed, very nervous with an increased systolic pressure (with
widening of the pulse pressure), increased pulse rate, fine skin and hair, and loss of body
weight. He is probably suffering from:
A. Diabetes D. hyperpituitarism
B. Hypothyroidism E. hyperparathyroidism
C. Hyperthyroidism

253. A swelling on the anterior floor of the mouth is soft and painless. It has been
present for several months. The overlying mucosa has a bluish tinge. The most likely
diagnosis is:
A. A retention cyst
B. A mixed salivary gland tumor
C. An infected periodontal abscess
D. A carcinoma of the floor of the mouth
E. An obstructed sublingual gland duct

254. Differential white blood cell counts in the laboratory are useful in the diagnosis of:
A. anemia D. vitamin deficiency
B. eosinophilia E. thrombocytopenic purpura
C. spherocytosis

255. Bell’s palsy is a condition associated with:

A. An impacted teeth D. the glossopharyngeal nerve
B. A submaxillary gland E. a temporomandibular joint
C. The seventh cranial nerve

256. A tender swelling in the soft tissues of yhe submandibular triangle is most likely
caused by
A. lipoma D. an infected thyroglossal duct cyst
B. lymphadenopathy E. any of the choices.
C. an obstruction of Stensen’s duct

257. A complete blood count does not include:

A. hemoglobin D. differential white blood cell
B. lymphocytes E. erythrocyte sedimentation rate
C. white blood cell count\

60
258. An increased erythrocytes sedimentation rate (ESR):
A. is specific for rheumatic fever
B. is the result of high blood pressure
C. is due to an increase in the size and weight of the RBC
D. suggests the presence of an infection somewhere in the body
E. none of these.

259. Rumpel-Leede, or the tourniquet test, is a measure of:

A. blood pressure C. factor IX deficiency
B. capillary fragility D. clotting time

260. When the uvula curtain does not rise symmetrically when the patient says “ah”, it
suggests which one of the ffg cranial nerves may be damaged?
A. glossopharyngeal nerve
B. superior alveolar branch of the trigeminal nerve
C. hypoglossal nerve
D. vagus nerve
E. none

261. Brown to black pigmentation caused by adrenal insufficiency is commonly

associated with:
A. angular chelitis C. candidiasis
B. perleche D. Addison’s disease E. Syphylytic lesion.

262. The earliest sign of hemorrhagic shock is:

A. dyspnea C. tachycardia
B. hypotension D. vasoconstriction

263. The x-ray beam is filtered to

A. Soften the beam C. remove long wavelength x-rays
B. Restrict the beam size D. remove short wavelength x-rays

264. The speed with which electrons travel from the filament of the cathode to the
target of the anode depends upon the
A. Potential difference between the two electrodes
B. Number of milliamperes in the tube circuit
C. Angle between the filament and the target
D. Voltage in the filament circuit
E. Size of the electron cloud

265. Occlusal radiograph are useful in locating

A. the hyoid bone D. sialoliths in Stensen’s duct
B. the mental foramen E. sialoliths in Wharton’s duct
C. maxillary sinus mucoceles

266. Salient radiographic findings showing perpendicular bone trabeculation radiating

outwardly describe as “hair-on-end” effect and generalized osteoporosis:
A. aplastic anemia C. polycythemia
B. sickle-cell anemia D. pernicious anemia

267. Collimation of a beam refers to be:

A. selective removal of soft radiation from the beam
B. selective removal of hard radiation from the beam
C. reduction of the beam diameter
D. none of these.

268. The techniques that show the upper and lower crowns on the same radiograph is
called the:
A. bisecting angle technique C. paralleling technique
B. bite wing technique D. occlusal technique
61
269. A symmetrically widened periodontal ligament space around one or two adjacent
teeth is reported to be earliest radiographic sign of:
A. osteosarcoma D. sclerosing cemental masses
B. osteitis deformans E. craniofacial fibrous dysplasia
C. florid osseous dysplasia

270. The density of a radiograph is reduced by increasing

A. kilovoltage D. source-film distance
B. milliamperage E. diameter of the aperture
C. exposure time

271. The component of developer that gives detail to the radiographic image is
A. hydroquinone D. potassium bromide
B. sodium carbonate E. none of these
C. sodium sulfite

272. If a dried radiograph were processed a second time, its appearance would show
A. Increased contrast and density
B. Decreased contrast and density
C. Increased contrast only
D. Increased density only
E. No change in contrast or density

273. Which of the following radiographic feature is commonly associated with a

traumatic bone cyst?
A. Divergence of the roots of teeth
B. Unilocular radiolucency with focal radiopacity
C. Dome-shaped radiopacity of the maxillar sinus
D. Scalloped radiolucency extending between the roots of teeth

274. Cone cutting on a radiograph is caused by:

A. underexposure
B. improper exposure techniques
C. a damaged cone
D. improper coverage of the film with the beam of radiation.

275. Which of the ffg diseases does not cause changes in the lamina dura:
A. Gaucher’s disease C. thyroid disease
B. sickle cell anemia D. Paget’s disease E. none of these.

276. Radiographs of an asymptomatic 19-year old patient disclose a well demarcated,

biloculated, 3x2 cm radiolucency in the area of left mandibular molars. Each of the
following should be included in the differential diagnosis, except
A. Ameloblastoma D. odontogenic keratocyst
B. Cementoblastoma E. central giant cell granuloma
C. Traumatic bone cyst

277. Image sharpness on a radiograph is increased by

A. increasing film speed D. increasing object-film distance
B. using a small focal spot size E. decreasing object-film distance
C. using a large focal spot size

278. When taking extraoral radiographs, double intensifying screen films are used to
reduce
A. density D. secondary radiation
B. contrast E. target-skin distance
C. exposure time

279. The first clinically observable reaction to radiation overexposure is

62
 A. loss of hair C. agenesis of blood cells
B. erythema of the skin D. loss of alimentary epithelium

280. The radiographic view that best demonstrates a mediolaterally-displaced

subcondylar fracture is the
A. panoramic projection D. lateral oblique of the mandible
B. maxillary occlusal view E. lateral skull projection
C. posteroanterior projection

281. If the intensity of a beam of radiation is 12 at a point 12 inches from the target, the
intensity of the beam at 24 inches is
A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 6 E. 9.

282. A long cone is used in the paralleling or right-angle radiographic technique to

A. reduce secondary radiation
B. avoid magnification of the image
C. avoid distortion of image shape
D. avoid superimposition of anatomic structures
E. facilitate correct vertical angulation of the cone

283. Which electron has the greatest binding energy to the nucleus?
A. J-shell electron C. L-shell electron
B. K-shell electron D. Q-shell electron E. both B & C

284. In object localization,, if the tube is shifted mesially, and the object in question
appears to move distally, then the object is said to be on the :
A. buccal B. lingual C. mesial D. distal E. none of these.

285. Which of the following components of an x-ray unit determines quality of the x-ray
beam?
A. Autotransformer D. cathode filament temperature
B. X-ray timer switch E. milliamperage control switch
C. Step-down transformer

286. In a normal dental diagnostic procedures, the principal hazard to the operator is
produced by what type of radiation?
A. Gamma C. secondary
B. primary D. both A & B E. both B & C
287. Which of the following units of radiation measurements is 100ergs/gm of tissue?
A. Rad C. Roentgen ®
B. Gray (G) D. Rem (roentgen equivalent man)
E. Rbe (radiobiologic equivalent)

288. Which of the following cells is least radiosensitive?

A. Red blood cell C. endothelial cell
B. Epithelial cell D. white blood cell E. connective tissue cell

289. Which of the following is a major radiographic finding in ectodermal dysplasia?

A. Osteoporosis D. a ground-glass appearance of bone
B. Hutchinson’s teeth E. calcification of the falx cerebri
C. Congenitally missing teeth

290. Which of the following tissue is most sensitive to radiation-induced cancer?

A. Skin C. thyroid
B. Nerve D. adult bone E. female breast

291. A radiograph of a 25-year man reveals a luscent and opaque mass attached to
and destroying a still vital mandibular first molar. The mandible in this region is expanded.
The most likely diagnosis is
63
 A. fibrous dysplasia D. benign cementoblastoma
B. sclerosing ostietis E. Paget’s disease of bone
C. aneurysmal bone cyst

292. Which of the following appears as a radiolucency associated with the apex of a
single vital tooth?
A. Residual cyst C. traumatic bone cyst
B. Periapical cyst D. periapical granuloma E. none of these

293. High quality radiographs involve positioning films nearly parallel with the long
axes of teeth. This generally places the films some distance from the teeth and causes
distortion. To compensate, one should
A. decrease kVp to below 60 D. decrease target-film distance
B. increase kVp to above 60 E. increase target-film distance
C. process films at 85 degrees

294. In radiology, mA primarily controls

A. exposure time C. number of electrons produced
B. electron speed D. penetrating power of radiation

295. Which of the following is an indicator of the quality of an x-ray beam?

A. Milliamperage D. Machine output
B. Exposure time E. Half-value layer
C. H and D curve

296. How should proper subject contrast be maintained when taking a radiograph of a
patient with thick, heavy bones?
A. Increase mA D. increase exposure time
B. Increase kVp E. increase development time
C. Use a high-contrast film

297. Which of the following are examples of nonparticulate radiation energy?

1. x-rays 2. electron 3. gamma rays 4. beta rays
A. 1 & 2 B. 1 & 3 C. 1 & 4 D. 2 & 3 E. 2 & 4

298. Radiographic signs of trauma from occlusion include each of the following,
except:
A. Hypercementosis
B. Root resorption
C. Alteration of the lamina dura
D. Alteration of the periodontal space
E. Vascular infiltration of the periodontal ligament

299. In performing normal dental diagnostic procedures, the operator receives the
greatest hazard from which type of radiation?
A. direct primary beam
B. secondary
C. scatter
D. gamma
E. secondary and scatter

300. Ameloblastoma of the mandible is similar radiographically to which of the following

conditions?
E. Osteosarcoma
F. Pindborg tumor
G. Ameloblastic fibro-odontoma
H. Central giant cell granuloma

1. Type of fracture that is rare and occurs in children.

64
 A. Comminuted C. simple
B. Displaced D. NOTA

2. What is the other name for Alveolar osteitis?

A. Dry socket C.. Infected Socket

B. Alveolitis Sicca Dolorosa D. All of the above

3. Dead space is eliminated by, except:

A. By suture tissue planes together to minimize postoperative void

B. To place a packing into the void until bleeding has stopped and then remove the packing

C. To place a packing into the void until bleeding has stopped then still keep the packing

D.None of the above

4. Suction drains allow any bleeding to drain to the surface than to form a hematoma. Nonsuction
drains continually remove any blood that accumulates in a wound until the bleeding stops and the
tissues bind together and eliminate dead space.

A. First statement is true, the second statement is false

B. First statement is false, the second statement is true

C. Both first and second statements are true

D. Both first and second statements are false

5. Indications for removal of teeth, except:

A. Pulpal necrosis C. Teeth involved in jaw fractures

B. Esthetics D.None of the above

6. Flap must have a base that is broader than the free gingival margin. If flap is too narrow at the
base, blood supply may be inadequate leading to flap necrosis.

A. First statement is true, the second statement is false

B. First statement is false, the second statement is true

C. Both first and second statements are true

D. Both first and second statements are false

7. Drug groups that can potentiate the patient’s bleeding

A. Broad- spectrum antibiotics

B. Anticancer or cancer chemotherapeutic drugs

C. Both a. and b.

D. None of the above

8. No. 12 blade is used when:

A. Incising the marginal gingiva C. Blind cutting of deep tissue is necessary

B. Incising skin in extraoral procedures D. None of the above

65
9. It is the physical expansion of the artery

A. Pulse rate C.Blood pressure

B. Temperature D. Respiratory rate

10. It is an infection of the soft tissue that usually occurs around the crown of a partially impacted
tooth.

A. Trismus C. Conjuntivitis

B. Pericoronitis D. Alveolar Osteitis

11. Which of the following chemical mediators are released into the wound to recruit neutrophils and
monocytes to the site of injury?

A. Leukotrienes C. Cytokines

B. Kinins D. Prostaglandin

12. In healing process, this process is called ________ and is associated with avulsive injury, local
infection and inadequate closure of wound.

A. Healing by Third Intention

B. Healing by Secondary Intention

C. Healing by Reactive Intensions as Response to Trauma

D. Healing by Initial Intention

13. Corresponding clinical manifestations of the inflammatory phase in extraction site are except:

A. Swelling C. Redness

B. Bleeding D. Heat

14. In wound healing response, the wound healing continuum is as follows, arrange from first process
to last process:

(1)inflammation
(2)reepithelialization
(3)coagulation
(4)granulation tissue
(5)tissue remodeling
(6)matrix formation

A. 1-4-2—5-3-6 C. 1-3-4-2-6-5

B. 3-1-2-4-6-5 D. 2-3-1-6-5-4

15. This techinique of mandibular anesthesia is useful for patients suffering from trismus, fractured
mandible and mentally-handicapped children.

A. Gow-Gates Technique C. Vazirani-Akinosi Technique

B. IAN Block D. Mandibular Nerve Block

66
16. What biopsy technique is most often used for total removal of small lesions and partial removal
of superfacial abnormalities?

A. Aspiration biopsy C. punch biopsy

B. excisional biopsy D. incisional biopsy

17. What technique is used for the removal of contents of a lesion for analysis?

A. Aspiration biopsy C. punch biopsy

B. excisional biopsy D. incisional biopsy

18. What disorder produces a heavy pressure or squeezing sensation in the patient’s substernal
region that can radiate up to the left shoulder, arm and submandibular region?

A. Angina pectoris C. congestive heart failure

B. myocardial infarction D. rheumatic heart disease

19. It is the surgical resection of the root tip of a tooth and its removal together with the pathological
periapical tissues.

A. Incision and drainage C. Apicoectomy

B. Tooth extraction D. Excisional biopsy

20. Bleeding that consists of pinpoint dots of blood is called ___. Larger flat areas where blood has
collected under the tissue, up to a centimeter in diameter, are called _____. A very large area is
called _____.

A. Purpura, petechiae, ecchymosis

B. Petechiae, ecchymosis, purpura

C. Ecchymosis, purpura, petechiae

D. Petechiae, purpura, ecchymosis

21. Incision and drainage in an area of acute infection should only be performed after:

A. a culture for antibiotic sensitivity has been performed

B. a sinus tract is formed

C. the patient’s fever has cleared up

D. localization of infection

22. In extraction of mandibular third molars, the main reason why the posterior incision should be
placed more bucally is:

A. To prevent damage to lingual nerve

B. Incision should be on sound bone

C. To prevent damage to retromolar artery

D. All of the above

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23. Systemic causes of impaction of tooth are:

A. Rickets C. Tuberculosis

B. Hypothyroidism D.All of the above

24. Impacted supernumerary teeth is feature of:

A. Gardener’s syndrome C. Plummer Vinson syndrome

B. Marfan’s syndrome D. Klinefelter syndrome

25. In cleidocranial dysplasia, most commonly impacted teeth are:

A. Maxillary premolars and incisors

B. Mandibular incisors and premolars

C. Maxillary molars

D. Mandibular molars

26. Which is not a sign of severe infection?

A. Drooling D. Difficult or painful swallowing

B. Trismus E. Swelling and induration with tongue elevation

C. Temperature of 37.3C

27. Which is not a relative contraindication for routine, elective oral surgery?

A. Head and neck radiation C. Chronic sinusitis

B. Unstable cardiac angina D. Hemophilia

28. Which type of impacted tooth removal involves both bone removal and sectioning?

A. Horizontal impaction C. Vertical impaction

B. Mesioangular impaction D. A and B only

E. A, B, and C

29. Which is correct about complications of dental extractions?

A. Infections are common.

B. Dry socket occurs in 10% of third molar extractions

C. Patients with numbness lasting more than 4 weeks should be referred for micro
neurosurgical evaluation.

D. Teeth lost into the oropharynx do not require intervention.

30. Which of the following is the possible important sign of sub-acute bacterial endocarditis.

A. splinter hemorrhage C. enlargement of the tongue

B. discharge from the ear D. intestinal obstruction

68
31. Blood disease related to administration of those drug aminopyrine,
acitophenatidin or chloramphenicol:
A. aplastic anemia C. pernicious anemia

B. anemia D. Polycythemia

32. Sialadenitis:
A. inflammation of the tonsils

B. inflammation of the salivary glands

C. inflammation of salivary ducts

D. inflammation of the ducts

33. The Steven- Johnson syndrome is closely related to;

A. schleroderma C. pemphigus

B. erythema multiforme D. lupus vulgaris

34.Wickman’sstriaemay be found on mucus membrane of the patient with:

A. keratosis follicularis C. lichen planus

B. erythema multiforme D.white spongy nevous

35. The primary laboratory findings associated with agranulocytosis:

A. decrease in platelets C. increase in white cell count

B. decrease in red blood count D.decrease in white cell count

36. Which of the following dental findings is frequently observed in cases of Pagets disease of bone:
A. Internal resorption C.widening of periodontal ligament space

B. Hypercementosis D. apical root resorption

37. The organisms that most commonly causes infective endocarditis is:
A. staphylococcus C. Streptococcus viridans

B. staphylococcus pyogenes D. streptococcus mitis

38. Walter- Hammer pulse is a finding in:

A. rheumatic heart disease C. anemia

B. paroxyemal nocturnal dysplasia D.tetralogy of Fallot

39.The most common cause of asthemia and syncope are the ff. EXCEPT:
A. gout C. hypoglycemia

B. emotional disturbances D. postural hypotension

40. Excisional biopsy is the most apt procedure to which of the following conditions?
A. A 1-cm exophytic mass on the buccal mucosa

B. A 2-cm painless ulcer of 14 days duration

C. A 3-cm submucosal indurated mass

69
 D. A leukoplakic area covering most of the buccal mucosa

E. All of the above

41. Which of the following accounts for the main cause of failure of replanted tooth?
A. Ankylosis C. Pulpal necrosis

B. Irreversible pulpitis D.Internal resorption

E. External resorption

42. A primary consideration for a febrile patient is

A. Bleeding tendencies D. Neuropathies

B. Hyperthermia E. Hypertension

C. Hyperglycemia

43. Bone marrow for grafting defects in the jaws is generally taken from the
A. Tissue bank D. Tibia

B. Ribs E. Iliac crest

C. Manubrium

44. All are clinical features of cysts, except

A. Fluctuance D. Crepitation

B. Pain E. Rapid expansion

C. None of the above

45. On oral surgery, cold compresses are applied

A. Immediately before surgery

B. Immediately after surgery

C. To prevent spread of infection

D. To avoid swelling in the area

E. To promote better circulation on the affected area

46. Oral surgery to patients currently on steroid therapy will most likely develop
A. Bleeding D. Swelling

B. Infection E. Severe pain

C. All of the above

47. Antrostomy is generally utilized

A. To open a tooth root for apicoectomy

B. Ensuing an oro-antral fistula closure

C. To establish drainage of antral fistula

D. For removal of a broken molar root at the antrum

70
 E. None of the above

48. Surgical incision and drainage is indicated in the following conditions, except
A. Chronic abscess with induration

B. To reduce pressure that has built up

C. Acute fluctuant cellulitis

D. Treatment of deep tissue infection

E. None of the above

49. Temporary arrest in respiration:

A. Apnea C. Dyspnea

B. Hyperpnea D.Asphyxia

50. Preservative in the fixing solution

A. aluminum potassium sulfate C. sodium sulfite

B. acetic acid D. all of these

51. Distorted roentgenogram is caused by:

A. overdevelopment C. excessive bending of film
B. movement of tube D. overexposure

52. Any fracture distal to 2nd molar, from the retromolar pad area to the inferior border of the body
and posterior border of the ramus?
A. Condylar fracture C. Angle fracture
B. Ramus fracture D. Body fracture E. symphysis fracture

53. Surgical procedure that involves removing only one root of a multirooted tooth due to
periodontal disease:
C. Crown sectioning C. trephination

D. Hemisection D. replantation E. transplantation

54. When draining pus from an abscess of the pterygomandibular space from an intraoral
approach, the muscle most likely to be incised is the:

A. masseter C. buccinator E. temporal

B. medial pterygoid D. lateral pterygoid

55. Type of fixation used for a fractured symphysis of the mandible:

A. plates and screws C. head bandage

E. Risdon D. Ivy loop E. circumferential wiring

56. An accepted surgical procedure most frequently indicated for odontogenic cysts is:

A. enucleation C. marsupialization

F. fulguration D. incision and drainage E. injection of a sclerosing

solution

57. If it is necessary to perform a coniotomy, entry should be made at the:

A. thyroid notch C. cricoid cartilage

71
 B. thyroid membrane D. cricothyroid ligament E. thyroepiglottic
ligament

58. An antrostomy is commonly used:

A. to remove high maxillary third molars

B. following closure of an oroantral fistula

C. to expose a tooth root for apicoectomy

D. to establish drainage of an alveolar abscess

59. Bibeveled chisels are used primarily to:

A. remove bone C. establish purchase points

B. split teeth D. sharpen line angles E. none of these.

60. Major radiographic findings in ectodermal dysplasia:

A. ground glass appearance C. supernumerary teeth

B. congenitally missing tooth D. Hutchinson’s teeth E. canal obliteration

61. Radiograhpic diagnosis of dense radiopaque cotton wool area in the body of mandible and is
associated with hypercementosis:

A. Enostosis C. osteomyelitis

B. exostosis D. Paget’s disease E. odontoma

62. Earliest radiographic sign of periapical disease of pulpal in origin:

A. loss of lamina dura C. widen periodontal space

B. loss of periodontal space D. break in lamina dura

63. A radiopaque projection distal to the tuberosity of the maxilla maybe:

V. coronoid process III. Mental ridge

VI. malar process IV. Mylohyoid ridge V. hamular process

A. II & IV B. I & V C. I & III D. II & III E. II & V

64. The purpose of collimating an x-ray beam is to:

A. reduce the size of the beam to facilitate easier visualization of the central ray

B. avoid delivering unnecessary radiation to the patients

C. remove the less penetrating x-ray photons.

D. reduce exposure time

E. all of the above.

65. Which of the following does not control magnification of the radiograph?

A. focal spot-film distance C. object-film distance

B. alignment of film, objects radiation cone D. cathode size E. none of these

72
66. An increase in which of the following factors causes an increase in contrast?

A. time of exposure C. kilovoltage

B. miliamperage D. both A & B E. both B & C

67. The advantage of the paralleling technique over the bisecting-angle technique is:

A. the increased anatomic accuracy of the radiographic image

B. the increase object-film distance

C. the greater the magnification of the image

D. that the central ray is perpendicular to an imaginary line drawn through half the angle
between the long axis of the teeth and the film

68. The paralleling technique is recommended over the bisecting-angle technique because:

A. positioning the film is easier D. it cuts developing time

B. it uses slow film E. A, B & C

C. it gives a less distorted picture of the length of the tooth

69. Cone-cutting (partial image) on a radiograph is caused by:

A. underexposure D. a damaged cone

B. improper exposure technique

C. improper coverage of the film with the beam of radiation

70. A herringbone pattern appears on a film if it is :

A. not processed properly C. not exposed to a sufficient amount of radiation

B. given too much radiation D. placed in the oral cavity backwards

71. If a film is stripped from its pocket and exposed to light, after processing it will:

A. be unaffected B. turn white C. turn black D. be translucent

72. Radiographic film emulsion is:

A. cellulose acetate C. hydroquinone

B. sodium thiosulfate D. gelatin and silver bromide E. calcium tungsten

73. Normal distance from CEJ to alveolar crest is:

A. 0.2 to 0.5mm B. 0.05 to 0.10mm C. 2.25 to 3.0mm D. 1.0 to 1.5mm

74. The component of developer that gives detail to the radiographic image is:

A. hydroquinone C. sodium carbonate

B. sodium sulfite D. potassium bromide E. none of these.

75. Salient radiographic findings showing perpendicular bone trabeculation radiating outwardly
describe as “hair-on-end” end effect and generalized osteoporosis:

73
 A. aplastic anemia C. polycythemia

B. sickle-cell anemia D. pernicious anemia E. none of these

76. The primary purpose of a lead diaphragm within the cone of an x-ray tubehead is to:

A. reduce or eliminate tubehead leakage

B. eliminate long wavelength x-ray photons

C. increase penetrating qualities of the beam

D. restrict size and shape of the beam of radiation

77. To avoid exposure to secondary radiation when taking radiographs, the dentist should stand:

A. at the back of the patient C. at least 3 feet from the patient

B. next to the patient D. at least 6 feet from the source of secondary radiation

78. An adult male patient has a well-defined, movable 8mm nodule immediately beneath the dorsal
surface of the tongue. Which of the following should not be included in the differential diagnosis?

A. Adenoma C. Carcinoma

B. Leiomyoma D. Neurilemoma E. Neurofibroma

79. A surgical procedure where cuts are made in the alveolar bone and increase the rate of tooth
movement.

A. Decortification C. alveoloplasty

B. corticotomy D. Ostectomy E. Osteotomy

80. Image sharpness on a radiograph is increased by:

A. increasing film speed D. using a large focal spot size

B. increasing object thickness E. increasing object-film distance

C. using a small focal spot size

81. Which of the following is an indicator of the quality of an x-ray beam?

A. Milliamperage C. H and D curve

B. Exposure time D. Machine output E. Half-value layer

82. Which of the following are examples of nonparticulate radiation energy?

I. X-rays II. Electrons III. Gamma rays IV. Beta rays

A. I & II B. I & III C. I & IV D. II & III E. II & IV

83. Which of the following structures appear radioluscent on an oral radiograph?

V. Hamular process III. Mandibular canal

VI. Genial tubercles IV. Anterior nasal spine V. Medial palatine suture

A. I & II B. II & III C. II & IV D. III & IV E. III & V

84. Radiographic sign of ankylosed teeth:

74
 A. loss of periodontal space C. thick lamina dura

B. wide periodontal space D. break in lamina dura

85. Rongeur is designed specifically for:

A. crushing bone and trimming soft tissues C. removing small bone fragments

B. smoothening hard rough areas D. cutting bone

86. Sealing the end of an amputated root canal:

A. trephination C. retrograde filling

B. condensation D. enucleation E. restoration

87. An invasive investigation using a radiopaque dye injected into upper and lower compartments of
TMJ that provides information about the internal structures of the joint?

A. orthopantomograms C. CT scan

B. Arthrography D. MRI E. none of these.

88. A preauricular approach of TMJ management that exposes the condyle, wherein a cut is made at
the neck of the joint and the condyle is removed.

A. Eminectomy C. Condylectomy

B. Condylotomy D. Arthrocentesis E. Meniscal Plication

89. The single most effective means of reducing patient radiation dose to intraoral tissues is to use:

A. a lead apron C. increased filtration

B. high-speed film D. intensifying screen E. increased target-film

distance

90. The aluminum filter in the x-ray tubehead functions to:

GGGGG. reduce exposure to patients’ skin

II. absorb long-wavelength photons preferentially

III. absorb short-wavelength photons preferentially
IV. increase penetrability of the beam
V. decrease penetrability of the beam
A. I, II & III B. I, II & IV C. I, II & V D. I, III & V E. II & IV only

91. Untoward effects of therapeutic irradiation to the head and neck include:

K. agenesis of the roots of teeth III. hemangioma

II. squamous cell carcinoma of the skin IV. Sialolithiasis V. micrognathia

A. I, II & V B. I, IV & V C. II, III & IV D. II, III & V E. II, IV & V

92. A long cone is used in the paralleling or right-angle radiographic technique to:

A. reduce secondary radiation

B. avoid magnification of the image

C. avoid distortion of image shape

D. avoid superimposition of anatomic structures

75
 E. facilitate correct vertical angulation of the cone

93. The radiographic picture of alveolar bone in cases of periodontitis characteristically shows:

A. vertical resorption C. shrinkage or reduction in size of cancellous spaces

B. horizontal resorption D. accentuation of lamina dura

94. A radiograph of the TMJ will not show:

A. lipping of the condyle C. the meniscus

B. the articular eminence D. a fracture of the neck of the condyle

95. The differential diagnosis of radioluscent areas around and close to the apex of the teeth does
not included a consideration of the:

A. maxillary sinus C. mental foramen

B. incisive foramen D. mandibular foramen E. none of these

96. Which of the following are important and serious effects of repeated exposure to low doses of x-
radiation?

I. Purpura III. Genetic mutation

II. Carcinogenesis IV. Diarrhea and dehydration V. Alteration of the oral

microflora

A. I & II B. I & V C. II & III D. II & IV E. III & IV

97. Which of the following can be demonstrated on conventional TMJ radiographs?

I. A perforation in the articular disk

II. Positions of condyle in the glenoid fossa

III. The range of anteroposterior movement of condyles

IV. Areas of bone destruction on condylar heads

V. Relationships between hard and soft tissue structures in the joint

A. I, II & V B. I, III & IV C. II, III & IV D. II, III & V E. III, IV & V

98. Cross-sectional occlusal radiographs are useful in locating:

A. the hyoid bone C. maxillary sinus mucoceles

B. the mental foramen D. sialoliths in Stensen’s duct E. Sialoliths in Wharton’s

duct

99. Open fracture of the bone resulting to open communication with the oral cavity:

A. Comminuted C. Simple

B. Complicated D. Greenstick E. Compound

100. Anxious, nervous patient is appointed for a surgical procedure. The patient states that she
has had recent weight loss and is easily fatigued. Physical findings include tremors, tachycardia
and warm, sweaty palms. The most likely diagnosis is:

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 A. diabetes C. renal disease

B. gastritis D. hyperthyroidism E. Cushing’s disease.

1. Which type of mandibular fracture is the most difficult to diagnose? A. Compound B. Compound
comminuted C. Greenstick D. Simple comminuted E. None of the above

2. Excisional biopsy is the most apt procedure to which of the following conditions? A 1-cm exophytic
mass on the buccal mucosa B 2-cm painless ulcer of 14 days duration C. 3-cm submucosal
indurated mass D. leukoplakic area covering most of the buccal mucosa E. All of the above

3. Which of the following accounts for the main cause of failure of replanted tooth?
A. Ankylosis B. Pulpal necrosis C. Irreversible pulpitis D. Internal resorption
E. External resorption

4. A primary consideration for a febrile patient is: A. Bleeding tendencies B. Neuropathies

C. Hyperthermia D. Hypertension E. Hyperglycemia

5. What is the most common complication of a compound fracture? A. Infection B. Marked

malocclusion C. Malunion D. Induced salivation E. None of the above

6. Bone marrow for grafting defects in the jaws is generally taken from the: A. Tissue bank
B. Tibia C. Ribs D. Iliac crest E. Manubrium

7. All are clinical features of cysts, except: A. Fluctuance B. Crepitation C. Pain D. Rapid
expansion E. None of the above

8. On oral surgery, cold compresses are applied : A. Immediately before surgery

B. Immediately after surgery C. To prevent spread of infection D. To avoid swelling in
the area E. To promote better circulation on the affected area

9. Oral surgery to patients currently on steroid therapy will most likely develop:
A. Bleeding B. Swelling C. Infection D. Severe pain E. All of the above

10. Antrostomy is generally utilized: A. To open a tooth root for apicoectomy B. Ensuing an
oro-antral fistula closure C. To establish drainage of antral fistula D. For removal of a broken
molar root at the antrum E. None of the above

11. Surgical incision and drainage is indicated in the following conditions, except: A. Chronic abscess
with induration B. To reduce pressure that has built up C. Acute fluctuant cellulitis D.
Treatment of deep tissue infection E. None of the above

12. Supernumerary impacted teeth occur most frequently in the: A. Mandibular canine region
B. Mandibular anterior region C. Mandibular posterior region D. Maxillary anterior
region E. Maxillary posterior region

13. In a left subcondylar fracture, clinical findings will show:A. Premature contact on the right side B.
Light bleeding intraorally C. Profuse bleeding extraorally D. Bilateral crepitus
E. Inability to move the mandible to the right side

14. Allogenic bone grafts are derived from: A. Animal dried freezed bone B. Own individual’s bone
C. None substitutes D. Another individual’s bone E. None of the above

15. Immobilization of fracture of the jaw is vital in order to: A. Prevent disruption of occlusion B. Rest
the injured tissues C. Avoid dislocation of the jaw D. Lessen load on the splint E. None of the
above

16. Patients under long term therapy with steroid suffering from adrenal diseases are at great surgical
risk because: A. Of increased adrenocortical response B. Hypertension may set in
C. Post-operative severe pain may be induced. D, Irreversible shock may be triggered E. All of the
above

17. The most common cause of delayed wound healing is: A. Long surgical procedure B. Tight suture
C. Suture not placed directly on the incision line D. Infection E. None of the above
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18. Horizontal fracture is: A. Le Fort I B. Le Fort II C. Le Fort III D. All of the above E.
None of the above

19. What is used in the study of the TMJ and in speech and swallowing evaluations? A.
Cineradiography B. Tempororadiography C. Xeroradiography D. Laminoradiography
E. None of the above

20. The prime factor in the regeneration of bone is the: A. Bone B. Blood C. Periosteum D. Lymph
E. None of the above

21. Excessive bone in the hard palate is referred to as A. Osteoma B. Osteosarcoma C. Tumor D.
Torus palatinus E. Teratoma

22. When the edges of an aseptic wound are in apposition, it heals by: A. Primary intention B.
Secondary intention C. Tertiary intention D. Indirect intention E. None of the above

23. The primary treatment modality for ameloblastoma is: A. Marginal or partial resection B.
Enucleation and/or curettage C. Composite resection `D. All of the above E. None of the above

24. Which of the following sites for squamous cell carcinoma has the most unfavorable prognosis? A.
Gingiva B. Lower lip C. Dorsum of the tongue D. Buccal mucosa E. Upper lip

25. Infections involving the lateral parapharyngeal spaces can result in trismus of structures affected.
What muscle is involved? A. Lateral pterygoid muscle B. Medial pterygoid muscle C. Masseter
muscle D. Mylohyoid muscle E. Buccinator muscle

26. Bleeding during surgical procedure is controlled effectively by: A. Suturing the flaps
B, Applying pressure over the wound C. Applying vasoconstrictors D. Clamping and tying
out vessels E. None of the above

27. When the maxillary sinus is accidentally opened during surgery, never insert any gauze, drain, or
surgical foam because it will: A. Cause more pain B. Disturb clot formation
C, Induce bleeding D. Cause infection E. None of the above

28. The approximate day of suture removal post-operatively is: A. 3-4 days B. 5-7 days
C. 8-10 days D. After 24 hours E. After 36 hours

29. A biopsy should nor be performed on a tissue when the tissue: A. Suddenly enlarges B. Is
associated with paresthesia C. Is pigmented D. Responds to local treatment
E. All of the above

30. In cases of muscle trismus, treatment in sufficiently severe cases is: A. Sedative B. Analgesic C.
Muscle relaxant D. Hemostatic E. Anti-thrombotic

31. The duration of exposure at 170˚C for dry heat sterilization is: A. 1 hour B. 3 hours
C. 5 hours D. 7 hours E. 9 hours

32. The best diagnostic aid to evaluate a maxillary sinus condition is: A. Palpation B.
Radiography C. Respirometer D. Transillumination E. Biopsy

33. The beak of extraction forceps is designed so that most of the extraction pressure is transmitted
to :A. Root of the tooth B. Crown of the tooth C. Cemento-enamel junction D. Dentino-
enamel junction E. Alveolar bone

34. The electrons that revolve in shells around the nucleus: A. have a positive charge B. have
no charge, either positive or negative C. have a negative charge D. have either a positive or negative
charge.

35. The target in an anode of the x-ray tube is set in a stem of: A. glass B. copper C. cobalt D. brass.

36.Most of the energy during x-ray generation is transferred from kinetic energy to energy in form of: A.
x-ray photon B. heat C. gamma radiation D. radioactive decay.

37.Made up of molybdenum metal: A. filament B. target C. focusing cup D. anode.

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38.Which electron has the greatest binding energy to the nucleus: A. J-shell electron B. K-shell C. L-
shell D. M-shell.

39.It is produced by the sudden stopping or braking of high-speed electrons at the target of the anode:
A. characteristic radiation B. bremsstrahlung radiation C. particulate radiation. D. all of the above
E. none of the above

40.Which of the following statements are false? Tungsten is used as a target material because: 1. of its
ability to decelerate electrons coming from the cathode 2. of its low vapor pressure at high
temperature 3. it has a high atomic number 4. it has high degree of thermal conductivity 5. it
has a light nucleus with few orbiting electrons to interfere with the flow of electrons
A. 1&2 B. 1&3 C. 3&5 D. 4&5 E. 2&4

41.The smaller the focal spot, the sharper is the image, and the focal spot of the x-ray tube is bigger:
A. the first statement is false and the second is true B. the first statement is true and the second is
false C. both statements are true D. both statements are false

42.An atom is said to be neutral when: A. it is ionized B. there are more electrons than protons C. the
net number of negative charges of the nucleus equals the number of negative charges of the
orbital electron D. it has positive charge. E. none of these

43.Major radiographic findings in ectodermal dysplasia A. ground glass appearance B. congenitally

missing tooth C. supernumerary teeth D. hutchinson’s teeth E. canal obliteration

44. Patient with swelling in floor of nostril and beneath the upper lip. There is no pain and teeth are vital,
radiograph shows no bone change: A. alveolar abscess B. incisive canal cyst C. nasolabial cyst D.
dermoid cyst E. sinusitis

45. Usual location of primordial cyst is in the : A. lower 3rd molar area B. symphysis of mandible C.
lower premolar area D. maxillary canine area

46. Cyst that is likely to undergo transformation into a multilocular ameloblastoma: A. residual cyst B.
perapical cyst C. dentigerous cyst D. primordial cyst.

47. Radiographic diagnosis of dense radiopaque cotton wool area in the body of mandible and is
associated with hypercementosis: A. enostosis B. exostosis C. osteomyelitis D. paget’s disease E.
odontoma

48. Radiograph for viewing the maxillary sinus: A. postero-anterior film B. cephalometric C. water’s
view D. oclussal view E. PA view

49. Radiographic sign of ankylosed teeth: A. loss periodontal space B. wide periodontal space C.
thick lamina dura D. break in lamina dura.

50. The following are signs of osteomyelitis except: A. periostitis B. sequestra formation C.
hypercementosis D. sinus tracts E. tooth mobility

51. Lesions that presents a soap bubble appearance in radiographs: A. ameloblastoma B. aneurismal
bone cyst C. giant cell lesions D. hemangioma

52. Earliest radiographic sign of periapical disease of pulpal in origin: A. loss lamina dura B. loss
periodontal space C. widen periodontal space D. break in lamina dura

53. A radiolucency that surrounds the crown of unerupted molar: A. crown abscess B. follicle space
C. periodontal space D. calcification follicle.

54. Which of the following does not control magnification of the radiograph? A. focal spot-film distance
B. alignment of film, objects radiation cone C. object-film distance D. cathode size.

55. Which property of x-radiation must be utilized to control magnification of the radiograph image? A.
x-rays travel in divergent paths from their source B. x-rays penetrate opaque object C. x-rays
cannot be focus D. x-rays cause secondary radiation when they strike patient’s face.

56. An increase in which of the following factors causes an increase in contrast? A. time of exposure B.
milliamperage C. kilovoltage D. none of the above.

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57. The advantage of the paralleling technique over the bisecting –angle technique is: A. the increased
anatomic accuracy of the radiographic image B. the increase object-film distance C. the greater the
magnification of the image D. that the central ray is perpendicular to an imaginary line drawn through
half the angle between the long axis of the teeth and the film.

58. The paralleling technique is recommended over the bisecting-angle technique because: A.
positioning the film is easier B. it uses slow film C. it gives a less distorted picture of the length of
the tooth D. it cuts developing time E. A, B and C.

59. With the paralleling technique, it is important to use: A. a short target-film distance to avoid loss of
detail B. a short cone to decrease magnification C. a long target-film distance to increase
magnification D. a long target-film distance to decrease the penumbra.

60. The technique that show the upper and lower crowns on the same radiograph is called the: A.
bisecting-angle technique B. bite-wing technique C. paralleling technique D. occlusal technique.

61. Which of the following is the correct description of intensifying screens: A. thinner phosphor layers
will result to faster screens B. thinner phosphor layers result in more unsharpness C. thicker
phosphor layers result in faster screens D. thicker phosphor layers result in less unsharpness.

62. Cone-cutting (partial image) on a radiograph is caused by: A underexposure B. improper exposure
technique C. a damaged cone D. improper coverage of the film with the beam of radiation.

63. A herringbone pattern appears on a film if it is: A. not processed properly B. given too much
radiation C. not exposed to a sufficient amount of radiation D. placed in the oral cavity backwards.

64. The primary reason for using fast films is to: A. save time in the dental office B. give a better image
quality C. reduce the radiation dose to the patient D. reduce the processing time.

65. Intensifying screens are used with extraoral films to: A. increase the exposure time B. improve image
quality C. decrease radiation to the patient D. increase the Kvp.

66. If the film is stripped from its packet and exposed to light, after processing it will: A. be unaffected
B. turn white C. turn black D. be translucent.

67. Which of the following will produce film fog? A. light leaks in the darkroom B. films stored for many
years or in an unsafe place C. films left unprotected in the operatory where patients are x-rayed D. all
of the above.

68. Radiographic film emulsion is: A. cellulose acetate B. sodium thiosulfate C. hydroquinone D.
gelatin and silver bromide E. calcium tungstate.

69. The primary obligation we have to any patient are the following except: A. listen to their concerns
B. integrate health histories, C. include the subjective, and objective findings into a comprehensive
diagnosis of the patients health status D. none of those mentioned

70.. The basis for modern therapy is diagnosis. This means that diagnosis:
A. can be used to treat diseases
B. must be quickly done to produce snap judgment
C. presupposes that disease be identified first then eliminated
D. learned may represent special innate ability of the clinician to pull a diagnosis out of the thin air

71. To be able to describe the wide variations in disease that exist and to apply facts and ideas to new
situations, a practitioner must be able to :
A. develop the skill of quick judgment in the identification of the disease
B. grasp broad principles and use a method thought that will enable him to meet such
variety of situations.
C. rely on gut feeling that will assist him in the formulation of variety of options for new situations
D. all of those mentioned

72. Thorough examination includes the following: 1. Case history 2. Clinical examination 3.
Diagnosis
4. Treatment Planning 5. Treatment :
A. 1,2,3,4 B. 1,3,4,5 C. 1,2,4,5 D. all of those mentioned E. none of those mentioned

73. Case history includes the following except:

80
A. Chief complaint B. HPI C. Past History D. Systems Review E. Diagnosis

74. Type of examination which utilizes all the skills of interviewing, physical exam and supplementary
diagnostic aids is:
A. Complete B. Screening C. Emergency D. Periodic Health maintenance examinations

75. Type of examination which is a precursor to a more thorough examination is:

A. Complete B. Screening C. Emergency D. Periodic Health maintenance examinations

76. In the emergency type of examination, history taking includes the following except:
A. physical examination B. time of occurrence C. manner of the accident
D. presence of associated signs and symptoms

77. The _____ type of examination is done repeatedly on the same individual after varying intervals of
time where changes are noted for evaluation
A. Complete B. Screening C. Emergency D. Periodic Health maintenance examinations

78.. CVA means: 1. Cardiovascular accident 3. Celebrovascular accident

2. Cerebrovascular accident 4. Stroke
A. 1,2,3 B. 1,4 C. 2,4 D. 3,4 E. all of those mentioned

79. CHD means: A. congestive heart disease B. congenital heart disease C. congestive heart failure
D. none of those mentioned

80. Screening type of examination includes the following except: A. Chief complaint B. Health
questionnaire C. Radiographs D. Appraisal of DMF, periodontium, soft tissues E. Laboratory results

81. Which of the following is true of a thorough dental history?

A. will prevent viral infections B. should be standardized so that nothing is overlooked
C. unnecessary in edentulous patients D. will decrease the rate of caries formation

82. Acomparison of the different diseases and contrasted by the use of the clinical, pathological and lab.
Exam is________ diagnosis: A. differential B. final C. tentative D. prognosis E. referral

83. Problems experienced by the patient, which may be used to identify the underlying pathology is/are:
A. sign B. symptom C. prognosis D. diagnosis

84. Physical indications of the disease, which may be visible to anyone specially the clinician is/are:
A. sign B. symptom C. prognosis D. diagnosis

85. Abscess is : A. cardinal sign of inflammation B. cardinal manifestation of systemic disease

86. Lymphadenpathy is: A. cardinal sign of inflammation B. cardinal manifestation of systemic

disease

87. Case history includes the following except:

A. Chief complaint B. HPI C. Past History D. Systems Review E. Diagnosis

88. Before treating any patient a/an:: A. complete bacterial count should be performed B. accurate
medical history must be taken C. complete blood count must be obtained D. urinalysis should be
performed

Choose the examination technique that is best for the examination of the following structures:
A. inspection B. bidigital C.bilateral D. bimanual palpation

There could be more than 1 answer.

89. Gingiva (AD)
90. Labial and buccal mucosa (AD)
91. Floor of the mouth (AD)
92. Hard Palate (AB)
93 Alveolar Mucosa (AD)

In all medically compromised patients…

94. Before treatment, a:
A. Complete bacterial count should be done. C. Accurate medical history must be taken
B. Complete blood cell count must be obtained D. Urinalysis should be performed.
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95. Knowledge of the patient’s medical and dental history can affect:
A. treatment plan B. drugs prescribed C. frequency of appointments D. all of those mentioned

96. Which of the following is true of a thorough dental examination?

A. will prevent viral infections C. should be standardized so that nothing is overlooked
B. is unnecessary in edentulous D. will decrease the rate of caries formation.

97.. The key to successful dental management of medical compromised patient is:
A. thorough evaluation
B. thorough assessment of patient’s risk
C. to determine whether a patient can safely tolerate a planned procedure
D. all of those mentioned.

98. The following are the components of risk assessment evaluation except:
A. nature, severity and stability of the patient’s medical condition
B. financial capacity of the patient
C. emotional status
D. type and magnitude of the planned procedure
E, none of those mentioned

99. The primary obligation we have to any patient are the following except:
A. listen to their concerns
B. integrate health histories,
C. include the subjective, and objective findings into a comprehensive diagnosis of the patients
health status
D. none of those mentioned

100.. The basis for modern therapy is diagnosis. This means that diagnosis:
A. can be used to treat diseases
B. must be quickly done to produce snap judgment
C, presupposes that disease be identified first then eliminated
D, learned may represent special innate ability of the clinician to pull a diagnosis out of the thin air

82