Centro Escolar University
School College of Dentistry
PRE-BOARD THEORETICAL EXAMINATION
ENDODONTICS AND PERIODONTOLOGY
1. Which of the following sensory responses can be elicited from a tooth after root canal therapy?
A. tactile sensation B. sensitivity to EPT C. thermal sensation D. sensitivity to sweets
2. The success of a pulpotomy for a primary molar depends primarily upon:
A. a vital root pulp C. the amount of root resoprtion
B. the patients age D. the absence of internal root resoprtion
3. The result of RCT in establishing patency is:
A. It prevents procedural errors, such as canal blockage and transportation.
B. It causes irritation of the periodontal attachment apparatus & increased post operative
pain.
C. It enlarges the apical terminus and increases the potential for extrusion of obturating
material.
D. It requires insertion of a file 1.0 to 2.0 mm beyond the canal terminus.
4. Which of the following root surfaces is the most likely to be strip-perforated during canal
instrumentation of the mesial root of a mandibular first molar?
A. facial B. lingual C. mesial D. distal
5. Which of the following perforation \s has the poorest prognosis?
A. perforation of a furcation area of a molar.
B. Perforation of a midroot area with a small file
C. Perforation slightly apical to the epithelial attachment
D. Perforation slightly coronal to the epithelial attachment
E. Perforation at the apex, 1mm. from its radiographic termination.
6. In treating a root canal before obturation, the most important consideration is:
A. general health of the patient
cleaning and shaping of the canal
C. efficacy of the irrigating solution
D. amount and concentration of medication used.
E. Sterilization of the canal as evidenced by negative cultures
7. A negative response to the electric pulp tester immediately after a severe luxation of a tooth
indicates that the:
A. pulp is inflamed
B. electric pulp tester is giving a false reading
C. pulp is necrotic and should be removed
D. blood supply is interrupted, and the negative response may be temporary
E. neural transmission is interrupted ,and the negative response may be temporary.
8. What instrument will you use in debridement of an edematous gingival:
A. subgingival curet B. hoe C. scaler D. ultrasonic scaler
9. Pathologic pockets are deepened sulci characterized by:
A. Bone loss and migration of junctional epithelium C. Bone loss only.
B. Ulceration of lamina propia. D. Loss of circular epithelium
10. Each of the following can occur as a result of a successful root canal treatment, except:
A. Apical seal of cementum C. Regeneration of alveolar bone
B. Regeneration of the periodontal ligament D. Formation of reparative dentin
11. Changes that occurs in edematous gingiva are:
A. Hyperemia in lamina propia. C. Congestion in the connective tissue bed.
B. Venous stasis in the connective tissue bed. D. Ulceration of the outer epithelium.
12. Endodontic therapy is contraindicated for a single rooted tooth that has:
A. Discoloration
B. a chronic abscess and a draining sinus tract
C. a horizontal fracture of the apical third of the root.
A vertical fracture of the root and an associated deep periodontal defect
13. Internal resoprtion should be treated by :
A. pulpotomy B. extraction C. pulpectomy D. pukp capping E. periodic recall
14. In which of the following conditions are pulps of the involved teeth likely to be vital?
1. Globulomaxillary cysts
2. radicular cysts
3. periapical osteofibrosis (cementoma)
4. traumatic bone cyst
5. fibrous dysplasia
A. 1,3,4 ,5 B. 1,3,5 C. 1 & 4 D. 2,3,5 E. 1,2,3,4,5
15. Which type of periodontitis causes continued attachment loss inspite of apparently appropriate
therapy?
A. Juvenile periodontitis C. Adult periodontits
B. Refractory periodontitis D. Rapidly progressive periodontitis
16. Which of these is a radiopaque area in the apices of young permanent teeth with chronic pulpitis?
A. apical abscess C. condensing osteitis
B. radicular cyst D. apical granuloma
17. Which of the following is used to bleach a discolored, endodontically treated tooth?
A. Ether C. Sodium bicarbonate
B. Chloroform D.. Sodium hypochlorite E. Hydrogen peroxide
18. Gutta-percha may be softened or dissolved within the root canal by using:
1. alcohol 4. eugenol
2. ethyl chloride 5. xylene
3. chloroform
A. 1 & 5 B. 2 only C. 3 only D. 3 & 4 E. 3 & 5
19. A dentist restored an endodontically treated tooth with a cast post-and-core and a metal ceramic
crown. Tree months later, the patient calls and complains of pain, especially on biting. Tooth
mobility is normal, as are the radiographs. The most probable cause of pain is:
A. a loose crown C. a vertical root fracture
B. psychosomatic D. a premature eccentric contact
20. The literature suggests that the majority of vertical root fractures of endodontically treated teeth
result from:
A. traumatic occlusion D. locking temporaries into prepared teeth
B. cementing the cast post and core E. permanent cementing crowns.
condensation forces during gutta-percha fill
21. One objective of root canal obturation is to develop a fluid tight seal. Another objective is to create
a favorable biologic environment for the process of tissue healing.
A. Both statements are TRUE.
B. Both statements are FALSE
C. The first statement is TRUE, the second is FALSE
D. The first statement is FALSE, the second is TRUE.
22. The common microorganisms in deep pockets are:
A. Gram (-) anaerobic microorganisms C. Streptococcus
B. Staphylococcus D. B & C
23. Which of these virulence factors of A.Actinomycetemcomitans is responsible to the killing of
PMNs resulting in the destruction of the periodontal disease?
A. Leukotoxins C. Endotoxins
B. Enzymes D. Polyclonal B lymphocytes activation
24. Metallic salts are included in root canal sealers to make the sealers:
A. set hard C. antibacterial
B. radiopaque D. set more rapidly E. better tolerated by periapical tissues
25. Aging of the pulp is evidenced by an increase in:
A. Vascularity B. fibrous elements C.cellular elements D. pulp
stones
26. Which of the following teeth is most likely to exhibit C-shaped morphology?
A. Maxillary first premolar C. Mandibular first premolar
B. Maxillary first molar D. Mandibular first molar.
27. When root canal therapy is indicated for a vital tooth, which of the following is the most
biologically acceptable?
A. Filing to the radiographic apex and filling to the radiographic apex
Filing 0.5-1.0mm short of the radiographic apex and filling to the same length
C. Filing to the radiographic apex and filling 0.5-1.0mm short of the radiographic apex
D. Filing 0.5-1.0mm beyond the radiographic apex and filling to the radiographic apex.
28. Extending a no. 10 file with a 0.02 taper 1.0mm beyond the apical foramen will result in which of
the following?
A. It opens the apical foramen to a minimum diameter of 0.12mm.
B. It increases postoperative discomfort to occlusal forces.
C. It reduces the percentage of change from a no. 10 file to a no. 15 file by 50%.
D. It eliminates the natural constriction of the foramen and increases the chance for an
overfill.
29. Restoring contours of teeth are necessary in restorative dentistry because:
A. contours prevents plaque formation
B. contours reduces trauma from occlusion
C. contours deflect food from impacting into the gingiva
D. contours increase masticatory surfaces
30. Alveolar bone loss may be a feature of the following conditions, except:
A. Hyperparathyroidism C. eosinophilic granuloma
B. Hypophosphatasia D. erosive lichen planus
31. Retreatment has the most favorable prognosis during which of the following?
A. When the cause of failure is identified and is correctable.
B. When the patient is asymptomatic.
C. When gutta-percha was used instead of paste.
D. When a surgical microscope is used.
32. The major reason for failure, requiring retreatment is:
A. persistent pain C. restorative indications
B. draining sinus tract D. microleakage
33. The least important factor influencing the pathogenicity of endodontic flora is:
A. Microbial interaction. C. Endotoxins released after bacterial death.
B. Exotoxins released by living bacteria D. Enzymes produced by bacteria.
34. In which of the following is one-visit root canal treatment not recommended?
A. The pulp is necrotic and not symptomatic
B. The pulp is necrotic and symptomatic.
C. The pulp is necrotic and there is a draining sinus tract.
D. The pulp is vital and symptomatic.
E. None of the above.
35. The action of calcium hydroxide in promoting formation of an apical calcified barrier in a tooth
with an open apex and a necrotic pulp is probably best explained by:
A. creation of a zone of liquefaction necrosis at the apex
B. creation of a zone of coagulation necrosis at the apex
C. creation of an environment that promotes hard tissue deposition
D. calcium ions from the canal dressing precipitating apically to form an apical bridge.
36. Which of the following is the best indicator of success of a pulpotomy in an immature permanent
tooth?
A. patient comfort
B. stable vitality readings
C. continuation of root formation
D. formation of a dentinal bridge covering the pulp stumps in the root canal.
37. A healthy 8-year old child has fractured permanent central incisor. The pulp is widely exposed
and vital. From radiographs, root ends appear incompletely calcified. The recommended
procedure is to:
A. cap the pulp C. perform a pulpotomy
B. extract the tooth D. remove the entire pulp.
38. A radiograph of a maxillary lateral incisor reveals a radiolucent area circumscribing the apex. The
tooth does not respond to vitality tests, and a sinus tract is present. In conjunction with
endodontic treatment, the sinus tract should be treated by:
A. enucleation C. irrigation with sodium hypochlorite
B. cauterization D. none of these. It does not require treatment.
39. Perforation on the mesial in the cervical third of the root of a maxillary first premolar is a common
error in performing an endodontic procedure because:
A. the crown tipped distally. D. The root tends to curve distally
B. The entire tooth tends to tip distally E. The bur tends to be directed mesially
C. A concavity on the mesial root frequently exists.
40. A periapical lesion was discovered 1 ½ years after RCT on a maxillary central incisor. Apical
curettage and biopsyshowed the lesion to be an apical cyst. Two years later, the lesion is larger
than it was before surgery. Which of the following is the most likely cause of continued failure?
A. Actinomycotic infection D. Failure to resect the apex.
B. An unobturated accessory canal E. Incomplete removal of the apical cyst.
C. Leakage from a poorly debrided and obturated canal.
41. Barriers are used in the management of infrabony defects, except:
A. prevent proliferation of gingival connective tissue and epithelium to the root
surface
B. allow long junctional epithelium attachment
C. permit regeneration of periodontal tissues to form a fibrillar attachment from bone to
cementum
D. regenerate periodontal collagen fibers
42. The periodontal ligament is vital to the tooth, except:
A. contains nerves and vascular elements
B. provides the cellular elements of bone and cementum
C. furnishes an elastic sling for holding the tooth
D. allows for physiologic movement of the teeth
43. The primary function of a root canal sealer is to:
A. prevent discoloration D. seal dentinal tubules
B. stimulate healing in the apical region E. medicate the canal to eliminate remaining
bacteria
C. fill the space between the solid cone material and the pulp canal wall.
44. Which of the following periapical conditions is often associated with a vital pulp?
A. apical cyst C. condensing osteitis
B. apical scar D. chronic apical periodontitis E. suppurative apical periodontitis
45. The most effective means to reduce root canal microbes is:
A. systemic medication
B. complete debridement of the root canal
C. intracanal medication with a non-specific drug
D. intracanal medication with multiple antibiotic preparations.
46. A fragment of a barbed broach is broken off and wedged in the middle third of a canal in a
maxillary incisor. A radiolucency is present at the apex. The fragment cannot be bypassed or
removed. Treatment of choice includes:
1. extracting the tooth
2. preparing and obturating to the point of blockage
3. performing an apicoectomy and retrofilling
4. placing formocresol to permeate and fix necrotic tissue.
A. 1, 2 & 3 B. 1 & 2 C. 2 & 3 D. 2, 3 & 4 E. 3 only
47. Erratic and inconsistent results from electric pulp testing may be caused by:
1. saliva on the tooth
2. secondary dentin obliterating the pulp chamber
3. multiple canals presenting various stages of pulp pathosis
A. 1 & 2 B. 1 & 3 C. 2 & 3 D. 1 only E. 1,2 & 3
48. Lymphokines are produce by which cells:
A. B lymphocytes C. Polymorphonuclear leucocytes
B. Plasma cells D. T lymphocytes
49. Expanded Tetrafluoro ethylene membrane is used in periodontal therapy to:
A. regenerate bone
B. cover and protect surgical wound
C. barrier against collagen regeneration
D. barrier for epithelial and gingival connective tissue proliferation
50. Which of the following are considerations in coronal pretreatment of an endodontic case?
1. removing caries
2. removing occlusal contacts
3. preventing leakage during therapy
4. providing for secure position of the rubber-dam clamp
A. 1, 2 & 3 B. 1, 2 & 4 C. 1, 3 & 4 D. 2 & 3 only E. 2, 3 & 4
51. Once the root canal is obturated, what usually happens to the organisms that had previously
entered periapical tissues from the canal?
A. They persist and stimulate formulation of a granuloma.
B. They are eliminated by the natural defenses of the body.
C. They re-enter and reinfect the sterile canal unless periapical surgery is performed.
D. They will have been eliminated by various medicaments that were used in the root canal.
52. Pulpal inflammation is most commonly caused by:
A. Bacteria C. traumatic occlusion
B. accidental trauma D. irritants in dental materials E. .cavity preparation
53. Which of the following would you consider in the treatment plan of a patient with NUG
(Necrotizing Ulceration Gingivitis)?
A. Radiograph
B. Case history and clinical experiences.
C. Oral prophylaxis & sublingual curettage and root planing
D. All of the above.
54. Where there are deepened pathologic pockets range from 6-8 mm, gingivectomy is indicated. Will
you do the procedure in:
A. one quadrant at a time C. three quadrant at a time
B. two quadrant at a time D. all at the same time.
55. In gingivectomy, the incision must follow the bleeding points because they refer to the bottom of
the pockets.
A. The statement and reason is related.
B. The statement and reason is correct but is not related.
C. The statement is correct but the reason is incorrect.
D. The statement is incorrect but the reason is correct.
56. During a stepback enlargement of the canal space, one reason for recapitulation after each
increase in instrument size is to:
A. maintain coronal curvature of the canal
B. maintain the apical stop for filling with gutta-percha
C. create a coronal funnel to facilitate filling with gutta-percha
D. clean the apical segment of dentin fillings that are not removed by irrigation
57. A patient complains of intermittent and spontaneous pain on a tooth that was previously pulp
capped. Radiographs disclose no periapical pathology. The tooth is not sensitive to percussion.
Both cold and heat stimulate a severe and lasting pain. The most probable diagnosis is:
A. reversible pulpitis. C. Irreversible pulpitis
B. Cracked tooth syndrome D. Acute apical periodontitis E. Chronic apical periodontitis
58. Subgingival curettage is indicated for:
A. edematous gingival C. periodontitis simplex
B. hyperplastic gingival D. hypertrophied gingival
59. If you were to do a periodontal surgery, when will you do a beveled incision?
A. When the attached gingiva were fibrotic. C. When the marginal gingiva is narrow.
B. In performing gingivectomy D. In performing gingivoplasty.
60. What is the most important to prevent recurrence of periodontal disease?
A. plaque control B. oral hygiene C. oral physiotherapy D. all of them.
61. Changes that occurs in edematous gingiva are:
A. Hyperemia in lamina propia.
B. Congestion in the connective tissue bed.
C. Venous stasis in the connective tissue bed.
D. Ulceration of the outer epithelium.
62. A 45 year old male presents mobile teeth of molars 1020 mobility, clinical examination reveal
swollen gums of posterior teeth upper right and left; radiograph presents bone level to the middle
third of roots; medical history- he is diabetic. The diagnosis is:
A. marginal gingivitis C. trauma from occlusion
B. juvenile periodontitis D. advance periodontitis
63. The most important principle governing the location and outline of the lingual or occlusal opening
into the pulp chamber is:
A. preservation of tooth structure.
B. Direct access along straight lines.
C. Complete removal of the roof of the pulp chamber
D .Removal of all caries and defective restorative material.
64. Juvenile Periodontitis is manifested by:
A. Migration or wandering teeth from the upper 1st molars C. Bone resoprtion
B. 30 mobility D. retractable gingival
65. An infrabony pocket is a periodontal pocket with the epithelial attachment located:
A. coronal to the crest of alveolar bone C. within the alveolar bone
B. apical to mucogingival junction D. apical to the crest of the alveolar bone
66. Which of the following perforations has the poorest prognosis?
A. Perforation near the apex D. Perforation into the furca
B. Perforation through the crown E. Perforation at the DEJ
C. perforation at the CEJ
67. The action used for placing K-type file into a canal should resemble:
A. an up-and-down motion
B. a straight apical pressure
C. complete rotation of the instrument with pressure directed apically.
D. a clockwise-counterclockwise motion with pressure directed apically.
68. Pockets of biologically active enzymes in the cytoplasm of polymorphonuclear leucocytes which
play an important role in inflammatory periodontal disease are:
A. Cristae B. lysosomes C. Endoplasmicreticulum D. lysozymes
69. Histologically, the normal dental pulp most closely resembles:
A. nervous tissue C. loose connective tissue
B. endothelial tissue D. dense connective tissue E. granulomatous tissue
70. Which of the following are indications for surgical endodontic intervention?
1. a non-negotiable canal with periapical pathosis
2. a sinus tract that persists after repeated treatment
3. periapical pathosis in a tooth with a post and core retained crown.
A. 1 & 2 B. 1 & 3 C. 2 & 3 D. 1,2 & 3 E. 3 only
71. Furcal periodontal involvement with loss of attachment thru and thru from buccal to lingual in the
mandibular molars is this type:
A. Class I B. Class II C. Class III D. Class IV
72. PMN leucocytes migrate through the blood vessel wall in the early stage of inflammation by
means of:
A. Diapedesis B. chemotaxis C. Rhexis D. phagocytosis
73. Which of these is not a diagnostic feature if occlusal trauma?
A. Widening of periodontal surface C. Loss of alveolar bone
B. Periodontal pocket formation D. Increased in tooth mobility
74. Which of these gingival connective tissue component acts as a molecular filter and regulates cell
migration:
A. Glucoronic acid B. Glycoproteins C. Proteoglycans D. Heparatan
75. Individuals with cyclic neutropenia or agranulocytosis frequently develop severe periodontal
disease because the function of which cell is depressed:
A. Eosinophils C. polymorphonuclear leucocytes
B. Lymphocytes D. plasma cells
76. The index used for assessment of average severity of periodontal disease in large population
groups is:
A. Loe and Silness index C. Greene and Vermillon index
B. Russel index D. Ramfjord index
77. Which of the following statements is accurate regarding gutta-percha points?
A. They contain 40% to 50% pure gutta-percha. C. They can be heat sterilized
B. They adhere to dentin when compacted D. They are not compressible.
78. Elective endodontic treatment is contraindicated in which of the following?
A. Patient is a borderline diabetic.
B. Patient has had a heart attack within the last 6 months.
C. Patients has had numerous opportunistic infections secondary to HIV infection
D. Patient has an implanted pacemaker.
79. Which of the following medical conditions may not influence the defense mechanism of the
gingival to bacterial infection?
A. Rheumatic heart disease C. Diabetes
B. Agranulocytosis D. Cyclic neutropenia
80. Which of these inhibit collagenase formation in the management of periodontal disease:
A. Amoxycillin B. Metronidazole C. Erythromycin D. Minocycline
81. Gingivectomy is indicated in the following, except:
A. Leukemic gingival enlargement C. Idiopathic fibromatosis of the gingiva
B. Dilantin gingival enlargement D. Nifedipine gingival enlargement
82. If a dentist finds only a thin ring of calculus in the bottom third of a deep pocket, it may be
assumed that:
A. calculus calcified before the pocket reached this depth
B. calculus previously extended to the enamel, but the top part was removed.
C. Bacterial plaque formed only in the deeper region of the pocket.
D. Calculus migrated apically as the pocket grew deeper, and new calculus formed on the
apical side while that on the occlusal side dissolved.
83. The Plaque Index of Silness and Loe measures:
A. area of plaque covering the clinical crown
B. thickness of plaque at the gingival margin
C. colony forming units of gram-negative bacteria
D. weight of plaque obtained from facial surfaces.
E. Weight of plaque obtained from the clinical crown.
84. The primary reason for placing a surgical dressing after a gingivectomy is to:
A. prevent hemorrhage C. accelerate healing D. retard plaque accumulation
B. stabilize the teeth D. none of the above.
85. Gingival bleeding in chronic gingivitis is due to:
A. Detachment of epithelial attachment from tooth
B. Periodontal ligament is detached
C. Increased capillary fragility due to lack of vitamin C
D. Micro ulceration of crevicular epithelium
86. Unilateral mastication will tend to result in:
A. Greater accumulation of plaque in the unused side
B. Heavier and denser bone support in the unused side
C. Greater accumulation of plaque in the used side
D. Greater degree of periodontal disease in the used side
87. In the pulp myelinated nerves function to transmit impulses interpreted as:
1. pain 2. cold 3. proprioception
A. 1 & 2 B. 1 & 3 C. 1 only D. 2 & 3 E. all of them.
88. Sodium hypochlorite may be used effectively as:
1. an antimicrobial agent 3. a chelating agent a chelating agent
2. a tissue solvent 4. an anodyne dressing
A. 1, 2 & 3 B. 1 & 2 C. 2, 3 & 4 D. 2 & 3 E. 1 & 3
89. Clinical criteria for diagnosing periodontal and gingival diseases include alteration in the:
1. depth of the gingival sulcus and the level of the epithelial attachment
2. free gingival groove
3. color of gingival tissue
4. contour of gingival tissue.
A. 1, 2 & 3 B. 1, 2 & 4 C. 1, 3, & 4 D. 2, 3 & 4 E. 1,2, 3& 4
90. Treatment of primary herpetic gingivostomatitis should include: 1. palliative treatment
2. control of secondary infection 3. application of dilute hydrogen peroxide
A. 1 & 2 B. 1 & 3 C. 1 & 4 D. 2 & 3 E. 2 & 4
91. The main objective of occlusal equilibration in natural dentition is:
A. Increase shearing action in mastication
B. Prevent myofacial pain syndrome
C. Prevent TMJ pain syndrome
D. Achieve a more favorable distribution of forces to the periodontal ligament
92. Which of the following periodontal diseases show a strong genetic etiologic relationship?
A. Adult periodontitis C. Juvenile periodontitis
B. Acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis D. Gingivitis
93. Tetracycline are used as an anti infective agent in the treatment of periodontal disease because
of its added property of:
A. inhibition of collagenose synthesis C. inhibition of arachidonic synthesis
B. inhibition of interleukin alpha D. enhances PMNs chemotaxis
94. Bone-fill procedures (new attachment) are most successful in treating:
A. trifurcation involvements C. deep, two-wall craters
B. narrow, three-wall defects D. osseous defects with one remaining wall
95. During calculus removal, the surface of the root feels smoothest following scaling with:
A. a hoe C. an unltrasonic instrument
B. periodontal files D. a rotary driven metal scaler E. a periodontal curet
96. The open flap curettage in periodontal surgical procedures is the:
A. Neumann flap B. Original Widman flap C. Modified Widman flap E. Nabers flap
97. When indicated, occlusal correction should be performed:
A. after healing after surgery
B. before surgery for gross corrections and after surgery for line corrections
C. immediately after inflammation occurs
D. before the start of scaling and root planning
98. Sulcular brushing is best accomplished by suing a:
A. natural-bristle brush
B. soft 2- or 3- row brush with rounded bristle tips.
C. Brush with angular-cut bristle tips and a soft texture
D. Brush with square-cut bristle tips and a medium texture
99. Craters in interseptal bone are best eliminated by:
A. gingivectomy C. subgingival curettage
B. osseous recontouring D. interseptal massage with stimulators
100. The primary difference between gingivitis and periodontitis is:
A. bone infection D.. depth of pockets
B. Lack of stippling of the gingival E. changes in color of the gingival
C. apical migration of junctional epithelium beyond the CEJ.
