1. What is guided tissue regeneration?

a) The reproduction of lost or injured tissues

b) Healing without restoration of the tooth-attachment apparatus

c) The formation of a long junctional epithelium

d) The reunion of surrounding soft tissue and a root surface with preserved periodontal ligament tissue

e) The formation of new cementum with inserting collagen fibers on a root surface deprived of its
periodontal ligament tissue

Answer: b) Healing without restoration of the tooth-attachment apparatus and is often associated with
the formation of a long junctional epithelium.

Explanation: Guided tissue regeneration is a periodontal therapy that involves the use of a barrier
membrane to promote the growth of new bone and connective tissue. It is used to treat periodontal
defects and is characterized by healing without restoration of the tooth-attachment apparatus and is
often associated with the formation of a long junctional epithelium.

2. What is regeneration?

a) The reproduction of lost or injured tissues

b) Healing without restoration of the tooth-attachment apparatus

c) The formation of a long junctional epithelium

d) The reunion of surrounding soft tissue and a root surface with preserved periodontal ligament tissue

e) The formation of new cementum with inserting collagen fibers on a root surface deprived of its
periodontal ligament tissue

Answer: a) The reproduction or reconstitution of a lost or injured part of the body in such a way that the
architecture and function of the lost or injured tissues are completely restored.

Explanation: Regeneration is the process of reproducing or reconstituting a lost or injured part of the
body in such a way that the architecture and function of the lost or injured tissues are completely
restored. In the context of periodontics, regeneration refers to the restoration of the tooth-attachment
apparatus, including the formation of new cementum, periodontal ligament, and alveolar bone.

3. What is reattachment?

a) The reproduction of lost or injured tissues

b) Healing without restoration of the tooth-attachment apparatus

c) The formation of a long junctional epithelium

d) The reunion of surrounding soft tissue and a root surface with preserved periodontal ligament tissue
e) The formation of new cementum with inserting collagen fibers on a root surface deprived of its
periodontal ligament tissue

Answer: d) The reunion of surrounding soft tissue and a root surface with preserved periodontal
ligament tissue.

Explanation: Reattachment is the reunion of surrounding soft tissue and a root surface with preserved
periodontal ligament tissue. It is a type of healing that occurs after periodontal therapy and is
characterized by the restoration of the tooth-attachment apparatus.

4. What is new attachment?

a) The reproduction of lost or injured tissues

b) Healing without restoration of the tooth-attachment apparatus

c) The formation of a long junctional epithelium

d) The reunion of surrounding soft tissue and a root surface with preserved periodontal ligament tissue

e) The formation of new cementum with inserting collagen fibers on a root surface deprived of its
periodontal ligament tissue

Answer: e) The formation of new cementum with inserting collagen fibers on a root surface deprived of
its periodontal ligament tissue, whether or not this has occurred because of periodontal disease or by
mechanical means.

Explanation: New attachment is the formation of new cementum with inserting collagen fibers on a root
surface deprived of its periodontal ligament tissue, whether or not this has occurred because of
periodontal disease or by mechanical means. It is a type of healing that occurs after periodontal therapy
and is characterized by the restoration of the tooth-attachment apparatus.

5. Which type of cell repopulates the root surface after periodontal surgery and determines the nature
of the attachment that will form?

a) Epithelial cells

b) Gingival connective tissue cells

c) Bone cells

d) Periodontal cells

e) None of the above

Answer: a) Epithelial cells.

Explanation: The type of cell which repopulates the root surface after periodontal surgery determines
the nature of the attachment that will form. Epithelial cells are one of the types of cells that can
repopulate the root surface and play a critical role in periodontal wound healing.
Which of the following cells are involved in periodontal wound healing?

A) Epithelial cells

B) Gingival connective tissue cells

C) Bone cells

D) Periodontal cells

E) All of the above

Answer: E) All of the above

Explanation: Epithelial cells, gingival connective tissue cells, bone cells, and periodontal cells all play a
role in periodontal wound healing. The apical migration of epithelium can prevent periodontal ligament
cells from repopulating the root surface, which can reduce the gain in attachment. However, promoting
the proliferation of periodontal cells along the surface can lead to new connective tissue attachment.
Guided tissue regeneration involves the placement of a physical barrier to prevent apical migration of
gingival epithelial and connective tissue cells onto the root surface and facilitate the repopulation of
PDL cells, which contain progenitor cells required for the formation of bone, cementum, and PDL.

1. What is the purpose of placing a barrier in periodontal surgery?

a) To prevent bone loss

b) To promote gingival growth

c) To guide cell proliferation and tissue expansion

d) To remove granulation tissue

e) To prevent infection

Answer: c) To guide cell proliferation and tissue expansion.

Explanation: Barriers are used to selectively guide cell proliferation and tissue expansion within tissue
compartments during periodontal surgery.

2. What is the indication for using a barrier in periodontal surgery?

a) To remove granulation tissue

b) To prevent bone loss

c) To regenerate lost periodontium

d) To promote gingival growth

e) To prevent infection
Answer: c) To regenerate lost periodontium.

Explanation: The regeneration of lost periodontium, specifically vertical defects, is one of the indications
for using a barrier in periodontal surgery.

3. What is the contraindication for using a barrier in periodontal surgery?

a) Minimal remaining periodontium

b) To prevent bone loss

c) To promote gingival growth

d) To remove granulation tissue

e) To prevent infection

Answer: a) Minimal remaining periodontium.

Explanation: Using a barrier in cases of very severe defects with minimal remaining periodontium is a
contraindication for periodontal surgery.

4. What is the classification of barriers based on resorbability?

a) First generation (Nonresorbable), Second generation (Resorbable), Third generation (Resorbable

with growth factor)

b) Physical barrier, Selectively guide cell proliferation and tissue expansion within tissue compartments

c) Biocompatibility, Cell exclusion, Space maintenance, Tissue integration, Ease of use, Biological
activity

d) Regeneration of lost periodontium, Furcation involved teeth, Esthetic considerations, Endodontic

considerations, Pre-prosthetic considerations

e) Full thickness flap, scaling and removed granulation tissue, 11mm deep periodontal lesion,
Membrane placed, 3 months healing

Answer: a) First generation (Nonresorbable), Second generation (Resorbable), Third generation

(Resorbable with growth factor).

Explanation: Barriers are classified based on their resorbability into first, second, and third generations.

5. What is the characteristic of a barrier related to tissue integration?

a) Biocompatibility

b) Cell exclusion

c) Space maintenance

d) Tissue integration
e) Ease of use

Answer: d) Tissue integration.

Explanation: Tissue integration is one of the characteristics of a barrier, along with biocompatibility, cell
exclusion, space maintenance, ease of use, and biological activity.

1. What are the three generations of classification for barriers?

a) First, second, and third

b) Nonresorbable, resorbable, and resorbable with growth factor

c) Solid, expanded, and titanium reinforced

d) Collagen, dura mater, and oxidized cellulose

e) Poly(glycolic acid), poly(lactic acid), and poly(glycolide-lactide)

Answer: b) Nonresorbable, resorbable, and resorbable with growth factor.

Explanation: The content mentions the three generations of classification for barriers as nonresorbable,
resorbable, and resorbable with growth factor.

2. What are the advantages of using nonresorbable barriers?

a) No additional surgery required

b) Lower risk of exposure

c) Complete control over time of application

d) Lower cost and possible morbidity

e) Limited control over length of application

Answer: c) Complete control over time of application.

Explanation: The content mentions that nonresorbable barriers provide complete control over the time
of application.

3. What is an example of a nonresorbable barrier?

a) Collagen

b) Dura mater

c) Poly(glycolic acid)

d) Polytetrafluoroethylene (PTFE)
e) Calcium Sulphate

Answer: d) Polytetrafluoroethylene (PTFE).

Explanation: The content mentions PTFE as an example of a nonresorbable barrier.

4. What is the advantage of using resorbable barriers?

a) No additional surgery required

b) Lower risk of exposure

c) Complete control over time of application

d) Lower cost and possible morbidity

e) Limited control over length of application

Answer: a) No additional surgery required.

Explanation: The content mentions that resorbable barriers do not require an additional surgery.

5. What is an example of a resorbable barrier?

a) Collagen

b) Dura mater

c) Poly(glycolic acid)

d) Polytetrafluoroethylene (PTFE)

e) Calcium Sulphate

Answer: c) Poly(glycolic acid).

Explanation: The content mentions poly(glycolic acid) as an example of a resorbable barrier.

ve

–new bone is formed on the surface of the grafted material

3. Osteoinductive

–new bone is formed by the stimulation of cells in the host tissue

1. Which material is composed of a bilayer collagen membrane with a smooth and rough layer?

A. PTFE

B. Geistlich Bio-Gide®
C. Bio-Gide

D. Bone Grafts

E. Grafting Materials

Answer: B. Geistlich Bio-Gide®

Explanation: Geistlich Bio-Gide® is a bilayer collagen membrane composed of a smooth and a rough
layer. The smooth upper layer is for the attachment of fibroblasts leading to a favorable healing of the
gingival tissue, while the dense porous layer is a guide for osteoblasts, thereby supporting optimal bone
healing.

2. Which material exhibits minimal inflammatory tissue reaction and has a porous microstructure of
solid nodes and fibrils?

A. PTFE

B. Geistlich Bio-Gide®

C. Bio-Gide

D. Bone Grafts

E. Grafting Materials

Answer: A. PTFE

Explanation: PTFE is a material that exhibits minimal inflammatory tissue reaction and has a porous
microstructure of solid nodes and fibrils. It is also mechanically identical to PTFE and can be subjected
to tensile stress.

3. Which material is highly adhesive, hydrophilic, and has high tensile and tear resistance?

A. PTFE

B. Geistlich Bio-Gide®

C. Bio-Gide

D. Bone Grafts

E. Grafting Materials

Answer: C. Bio-Gide

Explanation: Bio-Gide is a natural (porcine) material that is highly adhesive, hydrophilic, and has high
tensile and tear resistance. It also has excellent wound healing properties resulting from its good
vascularization and tissue integration.

4. Which type of bone grafting material stimulates the re-growth of alveolar bone and the formation of
new attachment through osteoconduction?
A. Osteoproliferative (osteogenetic)

B. Osteoconductive

C. Osteoinductive

Answer: B. Osteoconductive

Explanation: Osteoconductive bone grafting materials stimulate the re-growth of alveolar bone and the
formation of new attachment through osteoconduction, which is the formation of new bone on the
surface of the grafted material.

5. Which technique can be used to improve the stability of the augmented site when using a collagen
membrane?

A. Double layer technique

B. Single layer technique

C. Triple layer technique

D. Quadruple layer technique

E. No technique is needed

Answer: A. Double layer technique

Explanation: When using a collagen membrane, a double layer technique can be used to improve the
stability of the augmented site. Applying a second membrane layer improves the stability of the site and
helps to avoid collapse of the membrane when combined with a bone substitute.

1. Which type of grafting material contributes to new bone formation by containing bone-forming cells?

a) Osteoproliferative (osteogenetic)

b) Osteoconductive

c) Osteoinductive

d) Allogeneic graft

e) Xenogeneic graft

Answer: a) Osteoproliferative (osteogenetic)

Explanation: Osteoproliferative grafting materials contain bone-forming cells that contribute to the
formation of new bone.

2. Which type of grafting material serves as a scaffold for bone formation originating from adjacent host
bone?
a) Osteoproliferative (osteogenetic)

b) Osteoconductive

c) Osteoinductive

d) Autogenous graft

e) Alloplastic materials

Answer: b) Osteoconductive

Explanation: Osteoconductive grafting materials do not contribute to new bone formation per se but
serve as a scaffold for bone formation originating from adjacent host bone.

3. Which type of grafting material induces bone formation in the surrounding soft tissue immediately
adjacent to the grafted material?

a) Osteoproliferative (osteogenetic)

b) Osteoconductive

c) Osteoinductive

d) Xenogeneic graft

e) Alloplastic materials

Answer: c) Osteoinductive

Explanation: Osteoinductive grafting materials induce bone formation in the surrounding soft tissue
immediately adjacent to the grafted material.

4. Which type of grafting material is taken from the patient's own body?

a) Osteoproliferative (osteogenetic)

b) Osteoconductive

c) Osteoinductive

d) Allogeneic graft

e) Autogenous graft

Answer: e) Autogenous graft

Explanation: Autogenous grafting materials are taken from the patient's own body, such as edentulous
areas of the jaw, healing extraction sites, maxillary tuberosities, or the mandibular retromolar area.

5. Which type of grafting material is made from non-organic bovine bone matrix in an unchanged
inorganic form?
a) Xenogeneic graft

b) Allogeneic graft

c) Autogenous graft

d) Osteoconductive

e) Alloplastic materials

Answer: a) Xenogeneic graft

Explanation: Xenogeneic grafting materials are made from non-organic bovine bone matrix in an
unchanged inorganic form, such as Kielbone, Bio-Oss, Endobone, OsteoGraf, and Cerabone.

) and with three walls present.

3. Intra bony vertical defect > 6 mm measurable defect (2

walls) and with two walls present.

4. Intra bony vertical defect > 8 mm measurable defect (2

walls) and with one wall present.

5. Grade III furcation defects.

Which of the following materials is NOT an alloplastic material used for bone replacement grafts?

A) Tricalcium phosphate

B) Hydroxyapatite

C) Biogran

D) PerioGlas

E) Alloplastic materials are not used for bone replacement grafts.

Answer: E) Alloplastic materials are not used for bone replacement grafts.

Explanation: The passage discusses the use of alloplastic materials for bone replacement grafts,
including polymers such as HTR Synthetic Bone and bioceramics such as tricalcium phosphate and
hydroxyapatite, as well as bioactive glasses such as PerioGlas and Biogran. Therefore, option E is
incorrect as it contradicts the information provided in the passage.

CEMENT OF SUITABLE MEMBRANE

1. e-PTFE membrane for intra bony defects.

2. Collagen membrane for furcation defects.

3. Combination of e-PTFE and collagen membrane for complex defects.

4. Resorbable membrane for shallow defects.

5. No membrane for defects with high predictability.

A) Which type of defect has the highest predictability for successful surgical procedure?

Answer: A - Grade II furcation on teeth with high interproximal bone.

Explanation: This type of defect has the highest predictability for successful surgical procedure
according to the content.

B) What type of defect has moderate predictability for successful surgical procedure?

Answer: B - Intra bony vertical defect > 4-5 mm measurable defect (2 and 3 wall defects).

Explanation: This type of defect has moderate predictability for successful surgical procedure according
to the content.

C) What type of defect has low predictability for successful surgical procedure?

Answer: C - Class III furcation with high interproximal bone.

Explanation: This type of defect has low predictability for successful surgical procedure according to the
content.

D) What type of defect has the least predictability for successful surgical procedure?

Answer: D - Class III furcation with horizontal bone loss.

Explanation: This type of defect has the least predictability for successful surgical procedure according
to the content.

E) Which type of membrane is suitable for intra bony defects?

Answer: E - e-PTFE membrane.

Explanation: e-PTFE membrane is suitable for intra bony defects according to the content.

1. Which of the following techniques can stimulate cell and vascular proliferation in the periodontal
ligament?

a) Root modification with citric acid

b) Increased vascularity
c) Scratching of the PDL

d) Selection and placement of ePTFE periodontal material

e) Suture material

Answer: c) Scratching of the PDL. Scratching the PDL can stimulate cell and vascular proliferation,
leading to improved healing and regeneration.

2. Which of the following is NOT a recommended step for selecting and placing ePTFE periodontal
material?

a) Maintain sterility of material

b) Choose a size that offers the most ideal design for defect coverage

c) Shape the material with scissors, avoid leaving sharp edges

d) Leave minimal overextension of defect margins

e) The material should fit smoothly, avoiding folds, overlaps, and protrusions

Answer: d) Leave minimal overextension of defect margins. Enough material should be left to permit
lateral and interproximal suturing while leaving at least 3mm apical and lateral overextension of defect
margins.

3. Which of the following suture materials is NOT recommended for use in periodontal surgery?

a) Monofilament suture

b) Gortex suture

c) PDS II suture

d) Prolene suture

e) Silk suture

Answer: e) Silk suture. Silk sutures are not recommended for use in periodontal surgery due to their
braided nature, which can harbor bacteria and increase the risk of infection.

4. Which suturing technique is used to approximate material over the defect without engaging the flap
or tissue?

a) Sling suture

b) Interrupted suture

c) Continuous suture

d) Horizontal mattress suture

e) Vertical mattress suture

Answer: a) Sling suture. Sling sutures are used to approximate material over the defect without
engaging the flap or tissue, allowing for improved healing and regeneration.

1. What is the purpose of sling sutures in suturing techniques?

a) To engage the flap or tissue

b) To approximate material over the defect without engaging the flap or tissue

c) To prevent epithelial proliferation

d) To stabilize the wound

e) To avoid premature flap opening

Answer: b) To approximate material over the defect without engaging the flap or tissue. Sling sutures
are used to hold the material in place over the defect without engaging the flap or tissue.

2. Why is tight flap apposition desired in suturing techniques?

a) To prevent epithelial proliferation

b) To avoid premature flap opening

c) To stabilize the wound

d) To expose the material

e) To engage the flap or tissue

Answer: b) To avoid premature flap opening. Tight flap apposition is desired to avoid premature flap
opening and material exposure.

3. What is the ideal position of the flap margin in relation to the material in suturing techniques?

a) 1 to 2 mm coronal to the material

b) 2 to 3 mm coronal to the material

c) 3 to 4 mm coronal to the material

d) 4 to 5 mm coronal to the material

e) 5 to 6 mm coronal to the material

Answer: b) 2 to 3 mm coronal to the material. The flap margin should ideally be 2 to 3 mm coronal to
the material.

4. What is the recommended post-operative oral rinse for exposed material in suturing techniques?
a) 0.12% chlorhexidine gluconate for 5 days

b) 0.12% chlorhexidine gluconate for 10 days

c) 0.2% chlorhexidine gluconate for 5 days

d) 0.2% chlorhexidine gluconate for 10 days

e) 0.5% chlorhexidine gluconate for 10 days

Answer: b) 0.12% chlorhexidine gluconate for 10 days. Oral rinse containing 0.12% chlorhexidine
gluconate should be used for 10 days if the material becomes exposed, and should be used until
removal.

5. What is the recommended period for avoiding flossing and brushing at the treatment site in suturing
techniques?

a) 1 week

b) 2 weeks

c) 3 weeks

d) 4 weeks

e) 5 weeks

Answer: b) 2 weeks. Flossing and brushing at the treatment site should be avoided for at least two
weeks.

Note: The content provided in the question is incomplete and ends abruptly. Therefore, the last
question is not provided.

1. What is the recommended action if any complication develops during a regenerative procedure?

a) Continue with the procedure

b) Wait and observe

c) Remove the material immediately

d) Increase the dosage of growth factors

e) None of the above

Answer: c) Remove the material immediately

Explanation: If any complication develops during a regenerative procedure, it is recommended to

remove the material immediately to prevent further damage.

2. Which of the following is not a growth factor used in regenerative procedures?

a) Recombinant human Platelet-derived growth factors (rhPDGF-BB)

b) Recombinant human FGF-2 (rhFGF-2)

c) Bone morphogenetic proteins (BMPs)

d) Emdogain

e) All of the above are growth factors used in regenerative procedures

Answer: d) Emdogain

Explanation: Emdogain is not a growth factor, but a regenerative material used in periodontal
regeneration.

3. What is the main disadvantage of topical delivery of growth factors to periodontal wounds?

a) It is too expensive

b) It is not effective

c) It is difficult to apply

d) It causes allergic reactions

e) It suffers from instability and quick dilution

Answer: e) It suffers from instability and quick dilution

Explanation: Topical delivery of growth factors to periodontal wounds has shown promise, but it tends
to suffer from instability and quick dilution due to proteolytic breakdown, receptor-mediated
endocytosis, and solubility of the delivery vehicle.

4. What is the biologic effect of Platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF) on cells?

a) Inhibition of cell proliferation

b) Inhibition of cell migration

c) Inhibition of ECM synthesis

d) Promotion of cell proliferation, migration, ECM synthesis, and antiapoptosis

e) None of the above

Answer: d) Promotion of cell proliferation, migration, ECM synthesis, and antiapoptosis

Explanation: Platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF) exerts its biologic effects on cell proliferation,
migration, ECM synthesis, and antiapoptosis.

5. What is the ability of Bone Morphogenetic Protein (BMP)?

a) Ability to induce bone formation

b) Ability to induce cartilage formation

c) Ability to induce muscle formation

d) Ability to induce nerve formation

e) None of the above

Answer: a) Ability to induce bone formation

Explanation: Bone Morphogenetic Protein (BMP) is a protein belonging to the TGF-β1 superfamily with
the ability to induce bone formation.

1. Which of the following is true about Bone Morphogenetic Protein (BMP)?

a) It belongs to the insulin superfamily

b) It has the ability to induce cartilage formation

c) It has the ability to stimulate intramembranous bone formation without an endochondral intermediate

d) It has the ability to effect pluripotential cells to commit to a chondroblastic pathway

e) It is not associated with bone formation

Answer: c) It has the ability to stimulate intramembranous bone formation without an endochondral
intermediate.

Explanation: BMP is a protein belonging to the TGF-β1 superfamily and has the ability to induce bone
formation. It also has the ability to effect pluripotential cells to commit to an osteoblastic pathway.
However, it does not have the ability to induce cartilage formation.

2. Which of the following is not an Enamel Matrix Protein (EMP)?

a) Amelogenins

b) Ameloblastin (aka amelin or sheathlin)

c) Amelotin

d) Tuftelin

e) Collagen

Answer: e) Collagen

Explanation: Enamel Matrix Proteins (EMP) are associated with amelogenesis and are synthesized and
secreted by ameloblasts. The EMP include amelogenins, ameloblastin (aka amelin or sheathlin),
amelotin, tuftelin, and enamelin. Collagen is not an EMP.
3. What is Emdogain?

a) A type of bone morphogenetic protein

b) A carrier for enamel matrix proteins

c) A type of collagen

d) A type of cementum

e) A type of dentin

Answer: b) A carrier for enamel matrix proteins

Explanation: Emdogain is a carrier for enamel matrix proteins and contains a 6% w/w propylene glycol
alginate, purified acid extract of porcine origin, and a mixture of EMP, mainly amelogenin. It is clinically
used for periodontal regeneration, root coverage, and root replantation. It has also been experimentally
used for dentin repair and tooth movement.

4. What is the biological concept behind the use of Emdogain for periodontal regeneration?

a) EMP mimics events that took place during the development of the periodontal tissues

b) Emdogain contains BMP which induces bone formation

c) Emdogain contains collagen which promotes cementum formation

d) Emdogain contains dentin which promotes dentin repair

e) Emdogain contains enamel which promotes enamel repair

Answer: a) EMP mimics events that took place during the development of the periodontal tissues

Explanation: The biological concept behind the use of Emdogain for periodontal regeneration is that
EMP mimics events that took place during the development of the periodontal tissues. This is based on
the finding that the cells of the Hertwigs epithelial root sheath deposit enamel matrix proteins on the
root surface prior to cementum formation and that these proteins are the initiating factor for the
formation of cementum. Emdogain can regenerate acellular extrinsic fiber cementum.

1. What is Tum Emdogain used for?

a) Tooth whitening

b) Root canal treatment

c) Periodontal regeneration, root coverage and root replantation

d) Orthodontic treatment

e) None of the above

Answer: c) Periodontal regeneration, root coverage and root replantation

Explanation: Tum Emdogain is a clinically used product for periodontal regeneration, root coverage and
root replantation.

2. What is the use of human oral mucosa equivalent membrane (EVPOME) placed on a cadaveric
dermal carrier (Alloderm®)?

a) Tooth whitening

b) Root canal treatment

c) Periodontal regeneration

d) Orthodontic treatment

e) None of the above

Answer: c) Periodontal regeneration

Explanation: For large soft tissue defects, a human oral mucosa equivalent membrane, made of
autogenous keratinocytes (EVPOME) placed on a cadaveric dermal carrier (Alloderm®) is used for
periodontal regeneration.

3. What is the concentration of multipotential stromal cells (MSCs) in a commercially available cellular
bone allograft?

a) It does not contain any cells

b) It contains cells with cell surface markers called cluster differentiation (CD) markers that are found
with immunotyping of osteoprogenitor cells and osteoblasts

c) It contains only osteoblasts

d) It contains only osteoprogenitor cells

e) None of the above

Answer: b) It contains cells with cell surface markers called cluster differentiation (CD) markers that are
found with immunotyping of osteoprogenitor cells and osteoblasts

Explanation: The commercially available cellular bone allograft contains cells with cell surface markers
called cluster differentiation (CD) markers that are found with immunotyping of osteoprogenitor cells
and osteoblasts.

4. What is the use of gene therapy in periodontal wounds?

a) To provide greater regenerative potential

b) To prevent tooth decay

c) To treat gum diseases

d) To improve tooth sensitivity

e) None of the above

Answer: a) To provide greater regenerative potential

Explanation: Gene therapy may achieve greater bioavailability of growth factors within periodontal
wounds and thus provide greater regenerative potential.

5. What are the limitations of protein delivery to soft tissue wounds?

a) It is expensive

b) It is not effective

c) It is difficult to administer

d) It has limited bioavailability

e) None of the above

Answer: d) It has limited bioavailability

Explanation: Gene transfer methods may circumvent many of the limitations with protein delivery to soft
tissue wounds, as protein delivery has limited bioavailability within periodontal wounds.

1. Which of the following is not a type of question?

a) Open-ended

b) Multiple choice

c) True or false

d) Essay

e) All of the above are types of questions

Answer: d) Essay

Explanation: While open-ended, multiple choice, and true or false questions are all common types of
questions, essay questions require a more detailed and subjective response.

2. What is the purpose of multiple choice questions?

a) To test a student's knowledge and understanding of a topic

b) To provide an opportunity for guessing

c) To make exams easier to grade

d) To confuse students

e) None of the above

Answer: a) To test a student's knowledge and understanding of a topic

Explanation: Multiple choice questions are designed to assess a student's comprehension of a topic by
presenting them with several possible answers to choose from.

3. Which of the following is a common strategy for answering multiple choice questions?

a) Guessing randomly

b) Eliminating obviously incorrect answers

c) Choosing the longest answer

d) Choosing the first answer that comes to mind

e) None of the above

Answer: b) Eliminating obviously incorrect answers

Explanation: When faced with a multiple choice question, it is often helpful to eliminate answers that are
clearly incorrect, which can increase the chances of selecting the correct answer.

4. What is the best way to create effective multiple choice questions?

a) Use complex language and phrasing

b) Include as many answer choices as possible

c) Make sure each question has only one correct answer

d) Use vague or ambiguous wording

e) None of the above

Answer: c) Make sure each question has only one correct answer

Explanation: Effective multiple choice questions should have a clear and unambiguous correct answer,
which can help ensure that students are being tested on their knowledge and understanding of the
topic.

5. Which of the following is a potential disadvantage of using multiple choice questions?

a) They can be time-consuming to create

b) They may not accurately assess a student's understanding of a topic

c) They can be too easy to guess on

d) They may not be suitable for all types of content

e) All of the above

Answer: e) All of the above

Explanation: While multiple choice questions can be a useful tool for testing knowledge and
understanding, they also have potential drawbacks, such as being time-consuming to create, not
accurately assessing understanding, being too easy to guess on, and not being suitable for all types of
content.