a

A320 Oral
Oral Questionnaire
Questionaire
Verified by PDFFiller
05/09/2020
Capt. Deveron C Cork 15/5/2020

1. Limitations
Know all the items listed in the limitations section of the FCOM.

2. Memory Items
How many memory items? 10
Make sure you can recite all the items off by heart.

Systems Questions

1. What does a steady fault light mean on an IR?

The IR has failed and is lost. DSC.34.10.20.P1

2. What does a flashing fault light mean on an IR?

The navigation part of the IR has failed but the IR is recoverable by
selecting the rotary switch to ATT. (Red ATT flag on PFD and HDG flag
on ND) This will restore the attitude and heading information. The aircraft
needs to be level and at a constant speed for 30 secs. Enter the heading via
the MCDU. QRH.34.05

3. Where is the procedure for this?

It is found in section 34 of the QRH. QRH.34.05

4. What is the name of the procedure? (exact wording)

IR Alignment In ATT Mode QRH.34.05

5. What are the five control laws?

Normal Law
Alternate Law (With and Without Protections)
Direct Law
Abnormal Law
Mechanical Back Up DSC 27.10-20

6. Describe the protections in normal law.

High Speed Protection
High Angle Of Attack (Low Speed) Alpha Prot Active
Load Factor Limitation (+2.5g -1.0g)
Pitch Attitude (30 degrees Up, 15 degrees Down)
Bank Angle Protection (Max 67 Degrees) DSC.27.20

Ld 1
 7. Describe the protections in alternate law.
With Protections:
Load Factor
High Speed Stability
Low Speed Stability
Without Protections:
Load Factor DSC.27.20.20

8. When “Evac” push button is pressed in the cockpit, what are the
indications in the cabin?
The EVAC light flashes at the forward attendant panel (FAP) and the aft
attendant panel. (AAP) The evacuation tone sounds. DSC.23.20.60

9. How many red fault lights are there on the overhead panel?
One, Emergency Fault Light DSC.24.20

10. When do we get this fault light and what does it mean?
The light comes on when the RAT is deploying (8 seconds) and when the
AC ESS BUS is not powered. This is the case when AC BUS 1 and AC
BUS 2 are not powered. DSC.24.20

11. Describe the function of the RAT in Emergency Configuration.

Auto:
If AC BUS 1 and AC BUS 2 are unpowered, the aircraft’s speed is
greater than 100kts and the gear is up, the RAT will deploy
automatically and power the AC ESS BUS and AC SHED ESS. This in
turn will power the DC ESS BUS and DC SHED ESS through the ESS
TR.
Man:
The RAT will deploy any time the RAT MAN ON pb is pressed if the
aircraft is airborne. DSC.24.20

12. What does the GEN 1 LINE push button do? When is the Smoke light
illuminated?
When the pb is pressed, the GEN 1 LINE contactor opens and the white
“Off” light illuminates. AC BUS 1 is connected to GEN 2 through the bus
tie contactors. GEN 1 supplies only No1 fuel pumps in each inner fuel
tank. The smoke light illuminates in amber along with an ECAM warning
when smoke is detected in the avionics ventilation duct. DSC.24.20

Ld 2
 13. When the “Terr” fault light is illuminated, what does it mean?
This light is illuminated in amber along with an ECAM caution when
predictive mode fails. (TCF and TAD) There will be no terrain shown on
the ND. The basic GPWS modes 1 to 5 will still work normally.
DSC.34.70

14. Name the five GPWS modes.

Mode 1: Excessive rate of descent.
(Don’t Sink)
Mode 2: Excessive terrain closure rate.
(Terrain, Terrain)
Mode 3: Altitude loss after take off or go-around.
(Don’t Sink)
Mode 4: Unsafe terrain clearance when not in landing configuration.
(Too Low Gear or Too Low Flap)
Mode 5: Too far below the glide slope.
(Glide slope) DSC.34.70.10

15. What is the difference between the “Flap Mode” and “Ldg Flap 3”?
The Flap Mode pb is pressed when landing with less than flap 3, Mode 4 is
inhibited. This might be the case when you have jammed flaps or slats.
The Ldg Flap 3 pb is pressed when landing in Config 3. The ECAM
landing memo will display Flap 3 instead of CONF..FUL DSC.34.70.40

16. How do you test the CVR?

The aircraft must be on the ground, the parking brake set and the GND
CTL pb selected on. Press CVR TEST pb and a low audible tone will be
heard. DSC.31.30.20

17. Describe when the CVR is activated.

When electrical power is supplied to the aircraft, the CVR will operate for
5 minutes. It will operate again at first engine start and continue to run in
flight. It will run for 5 minutes after the last engine shutdown. If the GND
CTL pb has been selected ON prior to start, it will revert back to the auto
mode when the first engine is started. DSC.31.30.10

18. If the cabin presses the “Emer” push button, what are the indications
in the cockpit?
The ON light flashes in white, the CALL light flashes in amber, the ATT
lights will flash in amber on the ACP’s and three long tones will heard.
DSC23.20.40

Ld 3
 19. If the cockpit presses the “Emer” push button, what are the
indications in the cabin?
Two pink lights will flash on all area call panels, EMERGENCY CALL
message will appear on all AIP’s and there will be three Hi/Lo chimes on
all loudspeakers. DSC.23.20.40

20. If the APU “Fire Button” is pressed, what does it do?

Shuts down the APU
Silences the aural fire warning
Arms the squib on the APU extinguisher
Closes the low pressure fuel valve
Shuts off the APU fuel pump
Closes the APU bleed and cross bleed valve
Deactivates the APU generator DSC.26.20.20

21. If the engine “Fire Button” is pressed, what does it do?

Silences the aural fire warning
Arms the fire extinguisher squibs
Closes the low pressure fuel valve
Closes the hydraulic fire shutoff valve
Closes the engine bleed valve
Closes the pack flow control valve
Cuts off the power supply to the FADEC
Deactivates the IDG DSC.26.20.20

22. How many pumps in the yellow hydraulic systems? 4.

Engine driven pump
Electric pump
Power transfer unit (PTU)
Hand pump (Cargo door operation) DSC 29.10.20

23. When is the blue hydraulic electric pump inhibited?

The pump is inhibited on the ground when the engines are shutdown.
DSC.29.20
24. When is the PTU inhibited?
When the PTU pb is selected off.
During the first engine start. (It tests on the second engine start)
One engine running with the parking brake set or nose wheel steering pin
installed. During cargo door activation. DSC.29.20

25. What does the PTU fault light mean?

Green or yellow reservoir overheats.
Green or yellow reservoir has low air pressure.
Green or yellow reservoir has low fluid quantity.
(Light will stays on until the overheat condition ceases) DSC.29.20

Ld 4
 26. What does a fuel pump fault light mean?
The light illuminates when the system detects low fuel pressure.
(The light will extinguish if the switch is selected off) DSC.28.20

27. Describe what the fuel “mode selector” fault light means?
The light is illuminated along with an ECAM caution when the centre tank
has more than 250kg of fuel and either left or right inner wing fuel tank
has less than 5000kg. DSC.28.20

28. Explain how the IDG is cooled?

An amount of fuel is taken from the high-pressure fuel pump through the
IDG cooler, (Heat exchanger) some fuel then returns back to the fuel line
and the remainder is fed to the outer wing tank. DSC28.10.60

29. What causes the IDG cooling system to overfill the inner fuel tank?
Explain the center tank fuel pump logic.
If the outer tanks are full, the fuel overflows to the inner tank through a
spill pipe. On the ground, this operation is not inhibited, as there is an
overflow into the surge tanks. However, in flight, if the center tank pumps
are feeding, they tend to overfill the inner tanks. Should this happen, the
system automatically selects the center tank fuel pumps off if the inner
tanks are full. The inner tanks will then feed the engines until they have
used approximately 500kg of fuel. When this has happened the center tank
pumps will restart again. DSC.28.10.60

30. How many motors operate the fuel cross feed valve?
Two. DSC.28.10.30

31. What is the minimum battery voltage?

25.5 Volts (Battery voltage displayed on the ECAM ELEC page is normally
green. Becomes amber if voltage below 25 Volts) DSC.24.20

32. Explain the function of the “Commercial” and “Galley/Cabin” push

button. Commercial:
Cabin and cargo lights
Water and toilet systems
Drain mast ice protection Galley
Passenger’s entertainment Semi-automatic cargo loading
Galley/Cabin:
Main galley
Secondary galley In-flight seat power
IFE systems (Pre-recorded announcement, telephone
system, video and Music) DSC.24.20

Ld 5
 33. When do you get “Galley Shed” on the ECAM display?
Galley shed is displayed when the generator load is more than 100% of
rated output, the amber fault light is illuminated on the GALY/CAB pb.
DSC.24.20
34. What does the IDG fault light mean?
The fault light illuminates in amber when the IDG has low oil pressure
(inhibited at low engine speed, N2 <14%) or high oil temperature. (185
degrees or above). DSC.24.20

35. What does the “APU Gen” fault light mean?

The light comes on in amber when the generator control unit (GCU) trips
and opens the contactor. The light is inhibited at low APU speed (e.g.
starting) and when the external power is supplying the AC busses.
DSC.24.20

36. When “Gen 1 Line” push button is pressed, what happens?

When the pb is pressed, the GEN 1 LINE contactor opens and the white
“Off” light illuminates. AC BUS 1 is connected to GEN 2 through the bus
tie contactors. GEN 1 supplies only No1 fuel pumps in each inner fuel
tank. The smoke light illuminates in amber along with an ECAM warning
when smoke is detected in the avionics ventilation duct. DSC.24.20

37. When the Ram Air push button is pressed, what are the conditions for its
operation?
When the pb is pressed the RAM AIR inlet opens if the cabin differential
pressure is less than 1psi. The outflow valve opens to about 50% if in
automatic control and the ditching pb is not pressed. Air is directly
supplied to the mixer DSC.21.10.50
unit.
38. When the “Pack” fault light is illuminated, what does it mean?
The light comes on in amber when:
Valve/switch position disagree
Compressor outlet overheat Pack
outlet overheat
The light is normally seen when no air supplies the packs in initial cockpit
set up.

39. What causes the wing anti ice fault light to illuminate?
Valve/switch position disagree
Low pressure is detected DSC.30.20.20

Ld 6
 40. If electrical power is lost, what happens to the engine and wing anti ice
valves?
If electrical power is lost, the wing anti ice valves will close and the engine
anti ice valves will open.
DSC.30.20.10
41. When does the wing anti ice valve automatically close?
The wing anti ice valves will close when a leak is detected, loss of
electrical power and on landing. DSC.30.20.10

42. What does the ditching push button do?

It closes all ports and valves below the flotation line. DSC.21.20.10

43. Name the ports/valves the close.

It closes:
Outflow valve
Ram air inlet
Avionics ventilation inlet and extract valves
Pack flow control valves DSC.21.20.40

44. If the landing elevation knob is selected in manual mode, what

happens to the pressurisation?
The pressurisation still operates in automatic mode but the landing
elevation cannot be entered or controlled by the FMGS. Instead the
landing elevation must be selected on the rotary knob.
DSC.21.20.40
45. If you divert to an airport not in the database, how do you control the
pressurisation?
If diverting to an airfield not in the FMGS database, then it won’t be
possible to give the pressurisation system the correct landing elevation
information. In this case you must select manual mode and enter the
landing elevation on the rotary knob. DSC.21.20.40

46. How many cabin pressure controllers are there?

Two. DSC.21.20.10

47. What happens if one CPC fails?

If one cabin pressure controller system fails, the other system takes over.
DSC.21.20.30
48. When do they automatically change over?
They automatically change over 70 seconds after each landing.
DSC.21.20.30

Ld 7
 49. How do you change them over manually?
They can be manually changed over by selecting MODE SEL to MAN for
10 seconds and then back to AUTO. DSC.21.20.40

50. In the auto position, when do the strobes operate?

The strobes will come on automatically at lift off when the main gear strut
is not compressed. They will turn off again on landing. DSC.33.20.20

51. Why do we keep the No Smoking switch in auto?

With the switch in the auto position, it provides power from the DC SHED
ESS BUS to charge the internal batteries in the exit markers. These
batteries will power the marker lights for 12 mins if normal power is lost.
DSC.33.30.10
52. In the armed position, when do the emergency exit signs illuminate?
Exit signs will illuminate when normal electrical power is lost or the DC
SHED ESS BUS is lost. DSC.33.30.20

53. In auto, when do the No Smoking signs illuminate?

Slats at 17 degrees (Config 1, 2, 3 & FULL)
Landing gear down
Cabin altitude above 11300ft (+/- 350ft) The SEAT BELT and
NO SMOKING signs will illuminate regardless of switch positions.
DSC.33.40.10
54. What is the FADEC’s function in a manual start?
FADEC will:
Open the START VALVE when the ENG MODE selector is set to
IGN/START and the MAN START pb is pressed.
Control the opening of the HP fuel valve and both igniters when the
engine master switch is selected on.
Closing of the start valve when the N2 is 50%.
On the ground if the EGT limit is exceeded before 50% N2, the
FADEC will abort the start. DSC.70.80.40

55. What do the fault lights mean when the blower and extract push
buttons are illuminated?
Blower:
SMOKE warning is activated
Computer power supply failure
Low blower pressure
Duct overheat
Extract:
SMOKE warning is activated
Computer power supply failure
Low extract pressure DSC.21.30.60

Ld 8
56. Explain the open, closed and intermediate modes in the avionics
cooling system.
Open circuit configuration:
The open circuit configuration operates on the ground when the skin
temperature is above the on ground threshold. 12 degrees increasing,
9degrees decreasing.
Closed Circuit configuration:
Closed circuit configuration operates in flight when the skin
temperature is beneath the in flight threshold. 35 degrees increasing,
32 degrees decreasing.
On the ground when the skin temperature is beneath the on ground
threshold. 12 degrees increasing, 9degrees decreasing.
Intermediate configuration:
The intermediate configuration operates in flight when the skin
temperature is above the in flight threshold. 35 degrees increasing, 32
degrees decreasing. DSC.21.30.20

57. What are the positions of the doors/flap in avionic smoke

configuration?
Open configuration:
Blower Open Extract Closed
Closed Configuration:
Blower ClosedExtract Closed
Intermediate Configuration:
Blower ClosedExtract Partially Open DSC.21.30.20

58. If the cargo smoke light is illuminated, how long does it take to
discharge the fire extinguisher bottle?
60 seconds DSC.26.50.30

59. How many smoke detectors are there in the cargo holds and where are
they located?
There are two smoke detectors in each cavity. The forward cargo hold has
one cavity, the rear cargo hold has two cavities. DSC.26.50.10

60. Name the functions of the ELAC’s

Normal pitch, alternate pitch and direct pitch
Normal roll and direct roll
Abnormal attitude
Aileron droop
Acquisition of autopilot orders DSC.27.10.20

Ld 9
61. Name the functions of the FACS
Flight envelope function (maximum and minimum speed, alpha floor,
manoeuvring speed computation)
Low energy warning
Yaw function (Yaw damping, turn co-ordination, rudder trim and limiter)
Windshear detection

62. Describe the SRS engagement functions.

Takeoff:
The aircraft has been on the ground for at least 30 secs
The slats are extended
At least one flight director is selected on.
A V2 speed has been entered in the MCDU PERF TAKEOFF page
Thrust levers are set to TOGA or FLEX

63. When does SRS become active?

SRS becomes active once the thrust levers have been set to TOGA or
FLEX.

64 Explain the function of SRS in the go-around.

. SRS will engage in go-around when at least one thrust lever is selected to
TOGA.
The aircraft has been on the ground for less than 30 seconds or is in flight.
At least config 1 is selected.
SRS law will maintain the current speed at the point of the go-around
engagement or a minimum of VAPP whichever is the higher. The speed is
limited to a minimum of VLS (VAPP) to VLS+25 with two engines and
VLS+15 with one engine. It will disengage at acceleration altitude with two
engines but in single engine mode the pilot will push V/S at the appropriate
altitude. DSC.22.30.80

65. When is the auto thrust armed and active?

Auto thrust is armed with the selection of TOGA or FLEX on the runway
and becomes active when the thrust levers are selected into the CL detent.
(MCT is single engine) DSC.22.30.90

66. Explain the conditions for the auto land light to illuminate.
The aircraft must be on a precision approach with both autopilots engaged.
(CAT II or III)
LAND mode must be active (green) at 400ft.
At 200ft or below the red autoland light will flash if:
The aircraft becomes too far off the LOC or G/S
The localiser transmitter or receiver fail above 15ft RA.
The glideslope transmitter or receiver fail above 100ft RA.
The difference between both radio altimeters is greater than 15ft.
Both autopilots fail. DSC.22.30.30

Ld 10
67. What do the column’s on the FMA indicate?

1. Autothrust Operation
2. AP/FD Vertical Mode
3. AP/FD Lateral Mode
4. Approach Capabilities, Minimum Baro or Radio(MDA or DA)
5. AP, FD, A/THR Engagement Status DSC.22.30.100

68. What are the functions of the LGCIU’s

They provide correct sequencing for the landing gear and their associated
door functions.
They display the position of the gear on ECAM from the proximity
sensors. i.e. fully extended or retracted.
They provide various aircraft systems with “on the ground” or “in flight”
information. DSC.32.10.20

69. If LGCIU 1 fails, will you get the green gear down lights?
The landing gear down lock lights on the LDG GEAR panel are controlled
from LGCIU1. These signals are received from the proximity sensors on
the under carriage legs. If LGCIU1 fails, the lights will still indicate as
long as LGCIU1 is electrically powered.

70. What does the red down arrow on the gear lever mean?
The red arrow is illuminated when the landing gear is not down locked when
the aircraft is in the landing configuration. A red warning appears on ECAM.
DSC.32.10.40

71. If the anti skid/nose wheel steering switch is selected off, what
happens?
The nose wheel steering is lost.
Anti skid is deactivated refer to the triple indicator.
(Max 1000psi)
Manual braking is available through the yellow hydraulic system.
DSC.32.30.20

72. If a DMC fails, what are the indications?

If DMC 1 or 2 fails, “INVALID DATA” is displayed on the display units
(DU’s) The crew selects DMC 3 to CAPT 3 or F/O 3 to restore the lost
display information. DSC.31.05.50

73. When would you need to manually select the landing elevation?
Loss of both FMGS computers.
Loss of both cabin pressure controllers (CPC’s)
Landing at an airfield not in the FMGS database. DSC.21.20.10

Ld 11
 74. Explain in detail the auto start sequence for engine 2
Parking brake set, alternate brake pressure is normal. (triple gauge)
Thrust levers set to idle and MASTER switches off.
ENGINE MODE selector set to IGN/START.
All amber engine indications on the E/WD will indicate green. This is an
indication that the FADEC’s are powered normally.
Start pressure is indicated in green at the START VALVE. (min 30psi)
ENGINE MASTER 2 switch ON.
PACK VALVE will close, LP fuel valve opens and the fuel used indication
will reset to zero.
N2 indicates increasing.
16% N2, ignition A or B indicated
22% N2 fuel flow is indicated.
Engine light up should occur within 15 seconds.
N1 increasing.
Oil pressure increasing.
50% N2, START VALVE closes, the ignition is switched off and the PACK
VALVE will open after 30 seconds.
Grey N2 background disappears. This is an indication that the engine has
stabilised, main and secondary engine parameters are normal.
ENGINE MODE selector to normal. (If starting engine 1, then the switch
is left in IGN/START position)
Check all engine parameters are normal.
You should see:
N1 19%
N2 58.6%
EGT 390 degrees
Fuel flow 275 kg/h DSC.70.80.40
You may also be asked to describe the same procedure but for a manual
engine start, so know both types of start. 70 PRO-SUP.

75. When are the speed brakes inhibited?

The speed brakes are spoilers 2, 3 & 4.
They are inhibited when:
SEC1 and SEC3 failure
Angle of attack protection is active (alpha prot)
Alpha floor activation
Flaps 3 or full
Elevator left or right fault (spoilers 3&4 inhibited)
Thrust lever above MTC, i.e. TOGA
Remember SAAFE-Ty DSC.27.10.20

Ld 12
 76. In an RTO, what are the conditions for Max auto brake to operate? The
aircraft must at 72kts or more, thrust levers at idle and ground spoilers
extended. The system becomes active above 40kts for MAX mode.
DSC.32.30.10

77. Describe the auto brake function on landing.

Low Auto brake
Low mode sends progressive pressure to the brakes 4 seconds after the
ground spoilers deploy decelerating the aircraft at 1.7 m/s
Medium Auto Brake
Medium mode sends progressive pressure to the brakes 2 seconds after
the ground spoilers deploy decelerating the aircraft at 3.0 m/s
DSC.32.30.20
78. Describe manual gear extension procedure.
This procedure is described in the QRH 32.03
GRAVITY GEAR EXTN hand crank…..PULL & TURN
Rotate the handle clockwise 3 turns until reaching the mechanical stop,
even if resistance if felt.
L/G lever………………………………………DOWN
GEAR DOWN indications………………........ CHECK
QRH 32.03

79. If taxiing at 2kts and the normal braking system fails, what are your
actions?
Apply “Loss Of Braking” memory items. Once the aircraft is stationary
with the parking brake set, then evaluate further actions. E.g. towing
aircraft to stand etc.

Ld 13