1.
Acromion process is located on:
A. ilium
B. scapula
C. humerus
D. ulna
2. Which of the following is NOT a part of mandible?
A. Alveolar process
B. Mental foramen
C. Glabella
D. Mental protuberance
3. ________________ suture separates the large unpaired frontal bone from the two parietal
bones
A. Coronal
B. Sagittal
C. Lambdoid
D. Frontal
4. Which of the following is NOT a shoulder muscle?
A. Deltoid
B. Supraspinatus
C. Teres minor
D. Pectineus muscle.
E. Subscapularis
5.The bones that participate in the formation of the anterior cranial fossa are all the following,
EXCEPT:
A. sphenoid bone
B. ethmoid bone
C. temporal bone
D. orbital part of the frontal bone
6. Vertebra prominens, the most prominent spinous process in the cervical region is on:
A. C1
B. C3
C. C6
D. C7
7. Which of the following statement about cervical vertibrae {when comparing with thoracic
vertebrae) is FALSE?
A. Cervical vertebrae have smaller bodies.
B. Cervical vertebrae have smaller vertebral foramina.
C. Cervical vertebrae have shorter spinous processes
D. Cervical vertebrae have shorter transverse processes
8. External occipital protuberance is also called:
A. Nasion
B. Acromion
C. Inion
D. Dens
9. Which of the following is NOT a superficial muscle of the back?
A. trapezius
B. latissimus dorsi
C. rhomboid major
D. vastus lateralis
10. Coracoid process is on:
A. humerus
B. scapula
C. femur
D. pelvic girdle
11. Bone is a
A. Epithelial tissue
B. Connective tissue
C. Muscular tissue
D. Nervous tissue
12. The degenerative non-inflammatory disease of joints is known as
A. Arthritis
B. Osteoarthritis
C. Gout
D. Paget's disease
13. Which bone is a sesamoid bone
A. Femur
B. Humerus
C. Sternum
D. Patella
14. Diaphysis in a long bone is
A. Upper end
B. Lower end
C. Middle part
D. None of these
15. A person is suffering from gouty arthritis, as a nurse what kind of diet you will advise to
that person
A. High purine, high calorie diet
B. High purine diet
C. Low purine diet
D. High protein diet
16. The composition of a bone is
A. Ca salt & clastic tissues
B. Ca salt & collagen tissue
C. Mg salt & collagen tissue
D. Mg salt & fibrous tissues
17. Haversian system is present in
A. Neurone
B. Nephron
C. Bone
D. Lung
18. Stretching of a tendon or muscle is known as
A. Strain
B. Sprain
C. Twisting
D. fracture
19. Presence of tophi is specific feature of
A. Gouty arthritis
B. Osteoarthritis
C. Osteomalacia
D. Osteoarthritis
20. The plaster of Paris is
A. Ca-phosphate
B. Ca-sulfate
C. Mg -phosphate
D. Mg-sulfate
21. The bone forming cells are
A. Osteoblast
B. Chondroblast
C. Osteoclast
D. Bone marrow
22. All the vitamins are essential for osteogenesis except
A. Vit A
B. Vit D
C. Vit E
D. Vit C
23. A human skeletal have the total number of bones
A. 80
B. 126
C. 206
D. 248
24. The heberden's nodes at the joints of phalanges is characteristic features of
A. Osteoarthritis
B. Gouty arthritis
C. Osteoporosis
D. Osteitis deformans
25. Skull of human being is made up of
A. 8 bones
B. 13 bones
C. 21 bones
D. 30 bones
26. Foramen magnum is a opening structure which is present in
A. Vertebrae
B. Occipital bone
C. Parietal bone
D. Temporal bone
27. The bone which is horseshoe shaped is
A. Sphenoid
B. Ethmoid
C. Hyaloids
D. Scapula
28. The disruption in normal integrity of a bone is
A. Sprain
B. Strain
C. Fracture
D. All of above
29. The vertebral column has total number of vertebrae
A. 24
B. 26
C. 30
D. 31
30.A junior nurse ask to supervisor about the sprain, the best reply given by supervisor is
A. It's injury of muscles
B. It's stretching of tendons
C. It's stretching of ligaments
D. It's bruising of subcutaneous tissues
31. Atlas is a
A. 1st cervical vertebrae
B. 2nd cervical vertebrae
C. 7th cervical vertebrae
D. None of these
32. The joint between atlas & axis is
A. Fibrous joint
B. Cartilaginous joint
C. Hinge joint
D. Pivot joint
33. Which bone is known as breast bone
A. Clavicle
B. Tibia
C. Sternum
D. None of these
34. Manubrium is a structure of
A. Sternum
B. Clavicle
C. Vertebrae
D. Femur
35. A fracture of bone in which fracture lines are radiating from one central point is known as
A. Burst fracture
B. Oblique fracture
C. Spiral fracture
D. Stellate fracture
36. The condition of bone in which bone tissue decreases in their density is known as
A. Osteoarthritis
B. Osteoporosis
C. Paget's disease
D. Gout
37. The total number of ribs in a human being is
A. 20
B. 12 pairs
C. 7 pairs
D. 14
38. The true ribs are
A. First 7 pairs
B. 8-10 pairs
C. 11-12 pairs
D. All of these
39. The first action to manage a fracture is
A. Fixation
B. Traction
C. Casting
D. Reduction
40. The total number of carpal in a wrist is
A. 4
B. 8
C. 12
D. 16
41. Number of tarsal bone in human being is
A. 7
B. 8
C. 14
D. 16
42. The imbalance of osteoblast & osteoclast activity may cause
A. Arthritis
B. Gout
C. Paget's disease
D. None of these
43. A nurse was eliciting Barlow's test, the finding of test was positive, what would be
diagnosis
A. Club foot
B. Neural tube defect
C. Lordosis
D. Congenital dysplasia of hip
44. The Brittle Bone Syndrome is
A. Osteogenesis imperfecta
B. Osteitis deformans
C. Osteomalacia
D. Osteoporosis
45. Symphysis pubis is which kind of joint
A. Fibrous
B. Cartilaginous
C. Synovial
D. None of these
46. A 45 year obese woman felt down in bathroom, the radiological examination reveals that
one side of bone is broken while opposite side is flexed, what kind of fracture is present
A. Avulsion
B. Impacted
C. Greenstick
D. Linear
47. The hot spot in a cast indicates
A. Early recover
B. Tight casting
C. Infection
D. Allergy to cast
48. Which bone is longest & heaviest bone of body
A. Breast bone
B. Shin bone
C. Thigh bone
D. Radius
49. The fibrous joint is present between
A. Skull bone
B. Vertebrae
C. Symphysis pubis
D. Pelvis & femur
50. The trendelenburg's sign is positive in a child; a nurse should plan the nursing care of that
child for
A. Meningitis
B. Club foot
C. Dysplasia of hip
D. Encephalitis
