Pretest-2018 000
Pretest-2018 000
S.Y. 2018-2019
DIRECTION. Read each question carefully, then write the letter of the correct answer
In your paper.
1. Who should first know about the accident that happened in your shop?
a. principal b. nurse c. teacher d. doctor
2. Accidents can be prevented ____________________.
a. through proper care and maintenance of tools and equipment
b. right attitude toward work
c. if you have a good knowledge about safety practices
d. None of the above
3. These signs are used only where immediate hazards exist. They are printed in red as the
predominating color.
a. Caution signs b. exit signs c. safety instruction signs d. danger signs
4. Personal Protective Equipment plays a vital role in farm operations for safety. Which one is used for
face protection?.
a. goggle b. glove c. boot d. ear plug
5. These are used as temporary means of warning to existinghazards, such as defection, tools and
equipment.
a. Caution signs b. exit signs c. danger signsd. accidental prevention tags
6. When an injury occurs, how soon should it be treated?
a. After class hours b. Immediately c. Both a and b d. Later
7. Which of the following are the 5Ss?
A. Seiri, Seiton, Sweep, Seiketsu Shitzu B. Seiri, Seiton, Seiso, Sanitize, Shitzu
C. Sort, Seiton, Sweep, Seiketsu, Shitzu D. Seiri, Systematize, Seiso, Seiketsu, Shitsu
8. What is the equivalent of 4 meters into cm?
a. 400 b. 200` c. 1,000 d. 10,000
9. 4 meters = ____________ ft.
a. 13.12 b. 1.312 c. 131.2 d. 48
10. Show the outline and shape of an object. (SHOWS SHAPE)
a. Visible Lines b. Hidden Lines
c. Center Lines d. Dimension Lines
11. Shows the outline of a feature that cannot be seen in a particular view.
a. Visible Lines b. Center Lines
c. Hidden Lines d. Dimension Lines
12. Thin line consisting of long and short dashes.
a. Hidden Lines b. Center Lines
c. Visible Lines d. Dimension Lines
13. Used to show the starting and stopping points of a dimension. (SHOWS LOCATION).
a. Extension Lines b. Visible Lines
c. Hidden Lines d. Center Lines
14. The different lines and line symbols used on drawings form a kind of graphic alphabet commonly
known as the
a. Isometric b. Orthographic
c. Section Lines d. Alphabet of Lines
15. These are thin “cross hatching” lines used in sectional views to symbolize different parts of an object or
different materials from which an object is manufactured.
a. Hidden lines b. Visible Lines
c. Section Lines d. Center Lines
16.These lines are used to shorten a view, or to eliminate repetitive details when an entire view is not
necessary.
a. Viewing plane lines b. Break Lines
c. Dimension Lines d. Section Lines
17. These are thin lines used to indicate alternate positions of moving parts, lines of motion, adjacent parts
and repetitive details.
a. Phantom Lines b. section Lines
c. Dimension Lines d. Break Lines
18. These are very thick lines that indicate where an imaginary cutting plane passes through an object, for
viewing or sectioning purposes.
a. Cutting plane lines b. Break Lines
c. Section Lines d. Dimension Lines
19. These are thin lines used for dimensioning purposes
a. Leader lines b. section Lines
c. broken lines d. Visible lines
20. It is simply the application of workable principles that increases the awareness and
ability of the workers to be more productive and efficient without sacrificing their
safety and the product quality.
a. Occupational Health & Safety b. Work Procedure
c. Risk Management d. Work Simplification
21. Which is a risk?
a. Out-of-control cutting machine b. power cords
c. Vibration d. beard, loose hair, loose clothing
22. A simple implement as a hammer, saw, spade, chisel etc. used in work.
a. hardware b. item c. material d. tool
23. An act of requiring something to be furnished; a written request for something authorized but not made
available automatically.
a. demand b. appeal c. requisition d. request
24. A piece of work of a definite extent or character for a set of fee.
a. work b. job c. demand d. necessity
BYRON C. DIZON
Subject-Teacher
NOTED:
DIRECTION. Read each question carefully, then write the letter of the correct answer in your paper
MUSIC
1.The ________ is a Cambodian musical ensemble or an orchestra that usually accompanies ceremonial
music of the royal courts and temples.
a. Javanese gamelan b. Pinpeat c. Balinese gamelan d. Piphat
2. The ________ ensemble of Thailand and usually consists of nine or ten instruments.
a. Javanese gamelan b. Pinpeat c. Balinese gamelan d. Piphat
3. Membranophone is a classification of instrument which produces sound primarily by way of vibrating
stretched membrane. Which one belongs to this classification of instrument?
a. Chhing b. Oneat c. Samphor d. Kongvong
4. The word “Gamelan’ is a Javanese word meaning “orchestra”, referring to the instruments that make
up the ensemble. Which is not true to Javanese gamelan?
a. Used for court music b. Used for sacred music
c. Percussion dominated d. Style of playing gives solemn character
5. The __________ is Myanmar’s traditional folk music ensemble. It is made up mainly of different
gongs and drums as well as other instruments depending on the nature of the performance.
a. Mahagita b. Agung c. Hsaing waing d. Piphat
6. Loi Loi Krathong is an example of folk song from Thailand. How this song is sung in terms of Time
signature?
a.3/4 b. 4/4 c. 2/2 d 2/8
7. The effect of the different components of a piece of music such as melody, harmony, rhythm, or the
use of different instruments.
a. Timbre b. Tempo c. Form d. Texture
8. Vietnamese music ______________ refers to the ethnic music that originated from the “Kinh” people
of Vietnam. This term is also used to address the music of any of the numerous ethnic minorities
including the Montagnard, Degar, Tay, Cham and other.
a. Thien mu b. Nhac Viet Nam c. Sep Nyai d. Sep noi
9. This is a gong based musical ensemble commonly used in funerals and weddings in East Malaysia.
This type of ensemble is similar to the kulintang of the Philippines, Brunei and Indonesia.
a. Kertok b. Dikir Barat c. Agung and Kulintang d. Silat Melayu
10. A song that literally means “loving feeling”. This Malay folk song is popular in Indonesia, Malaysia
and Singapore.
a. Rasa Sayangb. Chan Malichan c. Loi Loi Krathing d. Ru Con
ARTS
1. Thai silk is mainly produced in _____ which is the center of the silk industry in Thailand.
a. Takeo b. Khorat c. Kampot d. Ha Dong
2. This is the center of weaving and sericulture of the many Vietnamese fabrics.
a. Takeo b. Khorat c. Kampot d. Ha Dong
3. Today the richest and most elaborate and vivid wooden Sculpture in Indonesia can be found in
a. Bali and Batak
b. Bali and Jepara
c. Borobudur in Central Java
d. Bali and Borobudur
4. The most common fabric in Malaysia and Singapore.
a. Batik b. Krama c. Sihn d. Ebony satin
5. Brunei’s traditional textile is also called batik, but it is uniquely different because it designs have
their ___
a. National hero b. geometric motifs c. national tree d. national
flower
6. These are made up of rice paper with a bamboo frame which contains a fuel cell or small candle.
a. Flying carpet b. Flying lantern c. Wayang kulit d. Wau kite
7. A type of puppet shadow play performed around the Indo – Malayan Archipelago.
a. Flying carpet b. flying lantern c. Wayang kulit d. Wau kite
8. This is a type of cap from Brunei which is made from velvet.
a. Sihn b. dastar c. tangkolok d. songkok
b.
9. A Malaysian kite wherein its wings are similar to Arabic letter.
a. Songkok b. Flying lantern c. Wayang kulit d. Wau kite
10. A men’s head gear for Muslims which is a piece of cloth tied around the head.
a. Sihn b. Dastar c. Tangkolok d. Songkok
P.E.
1. It is a condition in which an individual has enough energy to avoid fatigue and enjoy life.
a. Health b. Fitness c. sports d. Exercise
2. Health related fitness is the ability to become and stay physically healthy. Which one refers to the
ability of the heart and circulatory system to supply oxygen to muscles for an extended period of time?
a. Muscular strength b. Flexibilty c. Body composition d. Cardiovascular fitness
3. Jomar loves physical exercises. Every weekend, he undergoes running, swimming and cycling. What
health related component is trying to develop by Jomar?
a. Muscular strength b. Flexibilty c. Body composition d. Cardiovascular fitness
4. Which of the following physical fitness tests develops speed?
a. 40 meter sprint b. stick-drop test c. push-up d. Juggling
5. Skill related fitness enhances one’s performance in athletic or sports events. Which one refers to the
ability of the body to change direction or position with lightness and quickness?
a. Speed b. Coordination c. Reaction time d. Power
6. It is the ratio of the body fat to lean body mass including water, bones, muscles and connective
tissues.
a. Body Mass Index b. Flexibility c. Body composition d. Power
7. Which Heath- Related Components of physical fitness improves posture and decreases risk of injury?
a. Body composition b. Flexibility c. Strength d. Endurance
8. The quality or state of being healthy in body and mind especially as the result of deliberate effort.
a. Development b. Growth c. Fitness d. Wellness
9. Muscular strength refers to the maximum amount of force a muscle can exert against an opposing
force. Which fitness testing can improve muscular strength?
a. Leg press b. Running c. push-up d. Jogging
10. Muscular endurance refers to the ability of the muscle to work over an extended period of time
without fatigue. Which fitness testing is used for muscular endurance development?
a. Push-up b. Leg press c. Jogging d. Running
HEALTH
1. What term defines a man or a woman based on biological characteristic?
a. Sex b. Gender c. Sexuality d. Androgyny
2. Gender is a social concept on how men and women should think, feel, and act. Which of the
following illustrates this concept?
a. Miguel loves to cook b. Marco does not cry in public
c. Hazel has a positive body image d. Ahmed is attracted to felicity
3. What do you call the sets of activities that society considers as appropriate form men and women?
a. Gender role b. Gender identity c. Gender equality d. Gender sensitivity
4. Why is it important to understand human sexuality?
a. We will all be mature adults
b. We have similar sexuality issues
c. There is a specific age for developing one’s sexuality
d. It will help us build a better relationship with ourselves and others
5. A decision is a choice you make or act upon. Which characterizes a good decision?
a. Make your friends happy b. One that your teacher told you make
c. Easy to make d. Made after a thoughtful consideration of consequence
6. Sexuality refers to your total self. Which dimension entails the way you interact with others?
a. Physical self b. Emotional self c. Mental self d. Social self
7. Using life skills is so important for sexual health improvement. Which one helps you avoid
misunderstanding by expressing your feelings in a healthy way?
a. Communicating effectively b. Practicing wellness
c. Making good decision d. Refusal skill
8. Sexually transmitted infection is a communicable disease that is spread from person to person
through sexual intercourse. Which way of preventing STI does not belong to the group?
a. Remain sexually abstinent until marriage b. Obtain accurate information
b. Enhance life skills d. Ignore accurate information
9. Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome (AIDS) is a fatal communicable disease with no effective
treatment or known cure. It is the final stage of infection caused by _________.
a. Human Immune Virus b. Human Immunodeficiency Virus
c. Human Immunodeficiency Viral d. Human Immune System
10. True or False: A person can acquire AIDS from using intravenous syringe used by an infected
person.
a. True b. False
PRETEST/POST-ETS IN MAPEH-10
S.Y. 2018-2019
Name: __________________________ Date: ___________ Score: _______
DIRECTION: Read carefully each question, then write the letter of the correct answer in your paper.
MUSIC
1. The practice of writing music for an orchestra.
a. Orchestration b. Choreography c. symphony d. Concerto
2. Expressionism is a philosophy of art which affected the music of the 20 century. Which of the
th
ARTS
1. It is a piece that appeals to people’s emotion and senses.
a. Art b. Craft c. Master Piece d. statue
2. Which is true to personal function of arts?
a. Transmits culture and shows a way of life b. Performs service
c. Communicates beliefs and ideas d. for self-expression
3. The elements of music that uses area in two-dimensional space that can be defined by edges is called
_________.
a. Form b. Shape c. Value d. Line
4. The style of art that uses unblended slash of pure color place together to create a mode of scene.
a. Expressionism b. Cubism c. Impressionism d. Abstract
5. The most important focal point of impressionistic painting is ____________.
a. Lighting b. Line c. Color d. Shape
6. In a professional stage production, this is the person who takes the play from a mere concept to an
actual finished presentation.
a. director b. producer c. playwright d. set designer
7. He/she is the overall artistic coordinator of the entire production. He/she has a vision of the desired
total effect and impact of the performance.
a. director b. producer c. playwright d. set designer
8. He/she is considered the writer of the script.
a. director b. producer c. playwright d. set designer
9. He/she builds the set that will stimulate the world that the play’s characters are supposed to live in.
a. director b. producer c. playwright d. set designer
10. He/she studies the general setting that the play is meant to take place in, as well as each character in
the script.
a. director b. producer c. playwright d. lighting designer
P.E.
1. Which of the following can lead to obesity?
a. Sedentary lifestyle b. Healthy Lifestyle
c. Physical test d. Physical Fitness test
2. Recreational activities are highly recommended for health promotion. Which of the following
activities requires small movements?
a. Running b. Throwing c. Jumping d. Playing board game
3. Which of the following is an example of individual sports?
a. Badminton b. Volleyball c. Basketball d. Softball
4. Which one is an instance of team sports?
a. Chess b. Badminton c. Tennis d. Basketball
5. What is the BMI of a person with these data: Weigh t=59 Kg, Height= 1.6 m?
a. 19.23 b. 20.04 c. 51.27 d. 23.04
6. Is the performance of a routine, usually dominated by gymnastic skills such as jumps, tumbling skills,
lifts and tosses combined with shouting of cheers and yells to lead the crowd to cheer for a certain team
during a game or sport.
a. hip hopping b. cheerdancing c. folk dancing d. modern dancing
7. Nutrients include carbohydrates, proteins, fats, vitamins, minerals, and water. Which of these
nutrients are found in larger quantities in the body and thus referred to as macronutrients?
a. vitamins, minerals, fat b. water, minerals, fats
c. carbohydrates, proteins, fats d. vitamins, minerals, proteins
8. The third part of carbohydrates- __________ includes part of food that the body cannot break down
and absorb like vegetables, fruits and whole grains.
a. roughage b. fiber c. grass d. cereal
9. Which of the following nutrients are considered micronutrients?
a. protein, fat b. carbohydrate, vitamin c. vitamin, mineral d. mineral, vitamin
10.Which of the following hip hop basics is considered the bounce groove power moves?
a. pump b. tuck c. dig d. lunge
HEALTH
1.A medical condition in which excess body fat has accumulated to the extend that it may have negative
effect on health.
a. Overweight b. Obesity c. Normal d. Below-normal
2. This basic right of consumer guarantees survival, adequate food, clothing, shelter, healthcare,
education and sanitation.
a. Right to choose b. Right to redress c. Right to information d. Right to basic needs
3. A form of health fraud, any advertisement, promotion, or sale of products and services that have not
been scientifically proven safe and effective.
a. Deviance b. Quackery c. Quack d. Medicine
4. Using health information technology may be used for __________________.
a. Reduce paper work b. Reduce medical error
c. Reduce health care d. All of the above
5. Which is a good source of health information?
a. Information based from ignorance b. Accurate and up to date record
c. Information devised by quacks d. Commercialized health information
6. Mental health career specializes in dealing with interpersonal and intrapersonal relationships and life
skills which includes cognitive and psychosocial development, promotion of healthy self-esteem
through feelings and anger management. Which of the following careers is related to Mental Health
Career?
a. community health worker b. social science analysis
c. guidance counseling d. midwifery
7. Community health care specialist focuses in the maintenance, protection, and improvement of the
health of all community members. Which of the following sample careers is connected to
COMMUNITY HEALTH CARE?
a. psychiatry b. community health educator
c. drug enforcement d. rural sanitary inspection
8. These are healthcare practitioners with formal education and clinical training credentials through
certification, registration, and or licensure.
a. health care providers b. healthcare practitioners
c. allied health professionals d. health specialists
9. A person who helps identify, prevent, or treat an illness or disability is called ___________.
a. health care providers b. healthcare practitioners
c. allied health professionals d. health specialists
10. A trained professional that provides care for people who are sick or injured; monitors patients’
health and records symptoms, assists physicians during examinations, and treatment and administers
medications.
a. midwife b. audiologist c. dentist d. nurse
PRETEST/POST-TEST IN TLE-10
5. In eastern US vegetable growing areas, the soils often require liming because they are naturally
a) acidic b) high in potassium c) prone to leaching d) high in clay content.
6. Seed is a mature ovule. What process happens when the seed gives rise to a new plant?
a. Conception b. Germination c. Fertilization d. Pollination
7. No matter how favorable environmental condition, seeds not germinate if ___________
a. They have not settled b. Neighboring seeds do not germinate
c. If seeds do not undergo dormancy period d. Seeds are not soaked in water
8. Dormant seeds are usually _______________.
a. Succulent b. Dry c. Wet d. Soft
9. The first step in seed germination is __________________.
a. Cracking of the testa b. Growing of radicle
c. Imbibition d. Taking of oxygen
10. Topography is used to describe the _________________.
a. Depth of the soil b. Predominant vegetation type on the soil
c. Permeability of the soil to water d. Slope characteristics of the soil
11. The type of soil produced from wind-transported parent material is __________.
a. Residual b. Alluvial c. Lacustrine d. Silt
12. The number of normal seedlings that will emerge in the field relates to ________.
a. Viability and purity of the seeds b. Grain yield harvested the previous season
c. Number of seeds planted per unit area d. All of the above
13. This type of soil dries out quickly after a rainstorm.
a. Clay b. Loam c. Sand d. Silt
14. This type of soil can become as hard as stone when it dries out.
a. Clay b. Loam c. Sand d. Silt
15. This type of soil is the best kind for growing crops.
a. Clay b. Loam c. Sand d. Silt
16. This soil medium is made up of decayed plants and animals.
a. Humus b. Loam c. Clay d. Sand
17. From which layer of soil do plants get nutrients?
a. Top soil b. Sub-soil c. Parent material d. Rock
18. What are the three layers in a soil profile?
a. Mineral, Humus, Air b. Topsoil, Sub-soil, Parent Material
c. Loam, Sand, Clay d. Silt, Alluvium, Lacustrine
19. This is a material used in growing crops that provides anchorage and nutrients for the plants>
a. Growing medium b. Earth c. Soil d. Rock
20. This is a desirable property for growing medium that measures the acidity and alkalinity of the soil.
a. Soil pH b. Density d. Organic matter d. Particles
21. We can grow some plants by taking cuttings. Cuttings are short stems with leaves on them. We want
the cuttings to grow roots. Where do we put the cuttings?
a. into soil in a pot b. into water in a vase
c. leave them on the table d. leave them in a dark cupboard
22. Sometimes plants grow too big for their pots. What do we need to do?
a. put the plant in a smaller plant b. put the plant in the same size of pot
c. put the plant in a bigger pot d. put the plant in the bin
23. What is the best time of day to water your garden plants?
a. during the day b. early morning c. at night d. anytime of the day
24. What does mulch do for my plants?
a. control the growth of weeds b. conserve moisture
c. reglates soil temperature d. all of the above
25. What should I limit in my garden during drought season?
a. mulch b. compost c. fertilizer d. insecticide
26. Which of the following are important while applying fertilizers?
a. Placement b. correct amount c. Formulation d. All of the above
27. Proper calibration and maintenance of fertilizer application equipment is essential to avoid_____ ?
a. Misapplication b. Proper application c. None of the above d. All of the above
28. Commercial fertilisers are available mostly in the form of ______________.
a. grannules b. powder c .lumps d. flakes
29. Which of the following does not come under the category of ‘secondary nutrient’ for plant growth?
a. Oxygen b. Calcium c. Magnesium d. Sulphur
30. Urea is a __________ fertiliser.
a. phosphatic b. nitrogenous c. none of these d. potassic
31. Broadcast application of fertilizer _____.
a. provides an appropriate distribution of nutrients for close growing vegetation
b. may use a system called point injection
c. is typically applied to the leaf surface
d. the best wat to avoid fertilizing competing weeds
32. Timing of fertilizer application should be based on ____________.
a. stage of plant growth b. amount of fertilizer c. kind of fertilizer d. land area
33. True or False: Spring is the most important time of the year for lawn care.
a. true b. false
34. The practice of ____________ plants is done to allow them plenty of growing room so that they can
rreceives all the proper growth requirements (moisture, nutrients, light, etc.) without having to compete with other seedlings.
a. hardening b. thnining c. transplanting d. pruning
35. A protective covering, as of bark chips, straw, or plastic sheeting, placed on the ground around plants to
suppress weed growth, retain soil moisture, or prevent freezing of roots.
a. compost b. mulch c. soil d. debri
36. When is the best time to tranplant a seedling?
a. Early morning b. Late afternoon c. mid-day d. before night fall
37. Refers to the process of gradually exposing seedlings grown indoors to the climatic condition outdoors.
a. thinning b. transplating c. sowing d. hardening
38. It is important that seedlings have a “hardening off” period before putting them into the
garden in order that:
a. they are fertilized adequately
b. Pinching off the growing point will make the plant branch out.
c. they are adequately prepared for dormancy
d. they are gradually exposed to outdoor light, wind and temperature conditions.
39 .Given: Miles per hour (mph) = (Distance in feet X 60) / (Time in Seconds x 88)
It takes an individual 22 seconds to travel 200 feet. What is the individual's speed in mph?
a. 3.24 mph b. 6.19 mph c. 9.09 mph d. 13.33 mph