MCQS

Q19: Which one of the statements is the most accurate comparison of human , bacterial and
Fungal cells.
a. Human cells undergo mitosis, where as neither bacteria nor fungi do
b. Human and fungal cells have a similar cell wall in contrast to bacteria whose cell wall
contain peptidoglycan
c. Human and bacterial cells have plasmids whereas fungal cell do not
d. Human and fungal have similar ribosomes

Q20: Each of the following statement concerning bacterial spores is correct Except :
a. ​Their survival ability is based on their enhanced metabolic activity
b. They are formed by gram positive rods
c. They can be killed by being heated to 121°C for 15 minutes
d. They are formed primarily when nutrients are limited.

Q21: The identification of bacteria by serologic tests is based on the presence of specific
antigens. Which one of the following bacterial components is least likely to contain useful
antigens?
a. Capsule
b. Flagella
c. Exotoxins
d. Ribosome

Q22:The main host defense against bacterial exotoxin is

A. Activated macrophages screating proteases
B. IgG and lgM antibiotics
C. Helper T cells
D. Modulation of host cell receptors in response to the toxin.
Which one of the following process involves a sex pilus?
A. Transduction of a chromosomal gene
B. Transposition of a mobile genetic element
C. Integration of temperate bacteriophage
D. Conjugation resulting in transfer of an R (resistance) factor.

Each of the following statements concerning the resistance of bacteria to antimicrobial drugs is
correct Except?
A. Resistance to chloramphenicol is known to be due to to an enzyme that
acetylates the drug
B. Resistance to penicillin is known to be due to reduced affinity of transpeptidases
C. Resistance to penicillin is known to be due to cleavage by B-Lactamase
D. Resistance to tetracycline is known to be due to an enzyme that hydrolyzes the
ester linkage.

Q21: The selective toxicity of antifungal drugs such as amphotericin B and itraconazole is based
on the presence in fungi of which one of the following?
A. 30S ribosomal subunit
B. Dihydrofolate reductase
C. DNA gyrase
D. Ergosterol

Q22: Opsonization is the process by which:

A. Bacteria are made more easily phagocytized.
B. Chemokines attract neutrophils to the sits of infection.
C. Neutrophil migrate from the blood through the endothelium to reach the site of
infection.
D. The acute phase response is reduced .

2
Q23: A 1 year old child with repeated infection was diagnosed with chronic granulomatous
disease. A defect in which one of the following is the cause of CGD?
A. Gamma interferon receptor
B. LFA integrins
C. Mannose binding protein
D. NADPH oxidase
E. Nitric oxide

Q24: The main purpose of performing a throat culture is to detect the presence of which of the
following bacteria?
A. Neisseria meningitidis
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Staphylococcus epidermidis
D. Streptococcus pneumoniae
E. Streptococcus pyogenes.
Q25: The initial step in the process of many bacterial infections is adherence of the organism to
mucus membranes.The bacterial component that mediates adherence is:
A. Lipid A
B. Nucleoid
C. Peptidoglycan
D. Pilus
E. Plasmid.

Q26: Which statement is most accurate regarding transposons?

A. They encode enzymes that degrade the ends of the bacterial chromosome.
B. They are short sequences of DNA that often encode enzymes that mediate
antibiotics resistance.
C. They are short sequences of RNA that silence specific regulatory genes.
D. They are a family of transfer RNAs that enhance mutation at “not spot" in the
bacterial genome.

3
MCQs Virology Paper 1

Q22: The proteins on the external surface serve several important functions, regarding this
protein which of the following statements is most accurate?
a. They are the antigens against which neutralizing antibodies are formed.
b. They are the polymerases that synthesize viral messenger RNA
c. They are the proteases that degrade cellular proteins leading to cell death
d. They are the proteins that regulate viral transcription
e. Change in conformation of these proteins can result in prion-mediated diseases such as
Creutzfeldt- Jakob disease
Q23: Many viruses are highly specific regarding the type of cells they infect. Of the following,
which one is the most important determinant of this specificity?
a. The matrix protein
b. The polymerase in the virion
c. The protease protein
d. The surface glycoprotein
e. The viral messenger RNA
Q24: Confirmatory test for HIV is
a. ELISA
b. Western blot
c. HIV serology
d. PCR
Q25: Which of the following carcinoma is caused by EBV?
a. Angiofibroma
b. Plasmacytoma
c. Burkitt’s lymphoma
d. Embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma
e. Adenocarcinoma
Q26: Condyloma acuminata is caused by

4
a. EBV
b. HIV
c. CMV
d. HPV
e. HBV
Q27: Which of the following hepatitis virus is associated with vasculitis?
a. HAV
b. HBV
c. HCV
d. HDV
e. HEV
Q28: A patient presented with sore throat and fever. Blood picture shows atypical lymphocytes.
Diagnosis is
a. AIDS
b. Infectious mononucleosis
c. Leukemia
d. Measles
Q29: Which of the following infections is not caused by DNA virus?
a. Chickenpox
b. Herpes simplex
c. Herpes zoster
d. Mumps
e. Smallpox

MCQS VIROLOGY PAPER 2

1. Regarding viral replication which of the following is most accurate?
a. The cytopathic effect typically occurs during the eclipse period
b. The early proteins are typically enzymes whereas late proteins are typically
capsid proteins

5
 c. The assembly of a non enveloped virus typically occurs as the virion buds
from the cell membrane
d. Influenza viruses synthesize their messenger RNA using host cell encoded
RNA dependant RNA polymerase
Key: b
Reference: Levinson
2. The term vertical transmission refers to:
a. Transmission by insect vector from reservoir to patient
b. Transmission from surfaces to humans
c. Transmission from mother to child
d. Transmission from one child to another at school
e. Transmission from person to person within a family
Key: C
Reference: Levinson
3. Which of the following cells are mainly targeted by HIV?
a. CD4
b. CD8
c. B cells
d. NK cells
e. Monocytes
Key: a
Reference: Levinson
4. A patient developed HAV infection. He completely recovered. His biopsy will
show:
a. Normal hepatic architecture
b. Mallory bodies
c. Fibrosis
d. Nodular cirrhosis
e. Councilman bodies
Key: a

6
 Reference: Levinson
5. Regarding HIV which of the following is not true?
a. It contains reverse transcriptase
b. May infect host CD4 cells other than T lymphocytes
c. Causes a reduction in host CD4 cells at late stage of disease
d. It is a DNA retrovirus
Key: d
Reference: Levinson
6. Which of the following is not caused by EBV?
a. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
b. Kaposi’s sarcoma
c. Burkitt lymphoma
d. Infectious mononucleosis
Key: b
Reference: Levinson
7. Which of the following viruses that causes human disease has an animal
reservoir?
a. Cytomegalovirus
b. Hepatitis C virus
c. Smallpox virus
d. Varicella zoster virus
e. Yellow fever virus
Key: E
Reference: Levinson
8. Regarding the mode of action of interferon which of the following is most
accurate >
a. It acts by inhibiting the virion protease
b. It acts by inhibiting the virion polymerase
c. It acts by inducing a ribonuclease that degrades viral messenger RNA

7
 d. It acts by binding to the extracellular virion thereby preventing entry into the
cell
e. It acts against viruses with a DNA genome but not against viruses that have
RNA as their genome
Key: c
Reference :Levinson

MCQS GENETICS PAPER 1

Q16: Which of the following is an autosomal dominant disorder?

a. Phenylketonuria
b. Hereditary spherocytosis
c. Hemophilia A
d. Cystic fibrosis
Key: b
Reference: Robbins
Q17: In autosomal recessive diseases
a. All siblings are affected
b. Both parents are affected
c. Only father is affected
d. All siblings have a chance of one in four of contracting the disease.
Key: d
Reference: Robbins
Q18: A nineteen year old college boy is referred by his ophthalmologist because of the finding
of ectopia lentis. The patient is very tall with long limbs and long slander spider like fingers. His
chest has caved in appearance and he also had modest degree of scoliosis a midsystolic click is
heard and echo reveals mitral valve prolapse. The most likely diagnosis is
a. Ehler-Danlos syndrome
b. Fabry disease
c. Hurler syndrome
d. Marfan syndrome

8
 e. Pompe disease
Key: D
Reference: Robbins
MCQs Genetic Disorders Paper 2

Q16: Which of the following is an autosomal recessive disorder?

a. Achondroplasia
b. Marfan syndrome
c. Alpha 1 anti-trypsin deficiency
d. Neurofibromatosis
Q17: Which of the following statement is true about Fragile X syndrome?
a. It is a trinucleotide repeat disorder
b. There is a defect in X chromosome
c. There is a defect in Y chromosome
d. It is an X linked recessive disorder
Q18: Which of the following is correct about autosomal dominant disorders?
a. Both parents must be affected if the child is affected
b. All off-springs will be affected if one of the parents is normal
c. Child can be affected even if only one of the parent is affected
d. Only female child is affected
e. It is always inherited from maternal side

Q7: Histologic sections of lung tissue from a 68-year-old female with congestive heart failure
and progressive breathing problems reveal numerous hemosiderin-laden cells within the
alveoli. Theses “heart failure cells” originate from alveolar
a. Endothelial cells
b. Eosinophils
c. Lymphocytes
d. Macrophages
e. Pneumocytes

9
Q8: What type of leukocyte actively participates in acute inflammatory processes and contains
myeloperoxidase within its primary (azurophilic) granules and alkaline phosphatase in its
secondary (specific) granules?
a. Neutrophils
b. Eosinophils
c. Monocytes
d. Lymphocytes
e. Plasma cells
Q9: During acute inflammation, histamine-induced increased vascular permeability causes the
formation of exudates (inflammatory edema). Which one of the listed cell types is the most
likely source of the histamine that causes the increased vascular permeability?
a. Endothelial cells
b. Fibroblasts
c. Lymphocytes
d. Mast cells
e. Neutrophils
Q10: Which one of the listed substances is produced by the action of lipoxygenase on
arachidonic acid, is a potent chemotactic factor for neutrophils, and causes aggregation and
adhesion of leukocytes?
a. C5a
b. Prostacyclin
c. IL-8
d. Thromboxane A2
e​. Leukotriene B4
Q11: A 19-year-old female is being evaluated for recurrent facial edema, especially around her
lips. She also has recurrent bouts of intense abdominal pain and cramps, sometimes associated
with vomiting. Laboratory examination finds decreased C4, while levels of C3,
decay-accelerating factor, and IgE are within normal limits. These findings are most likely to be
associated with a deficiency of
a. β2-integrins

10
b​. C1 esterase inhibitor
c. Decay-accelerating factor
d. Complement components C3 and C5
e. NADPH oxidase

Q6: Which of the following laboratory findings is most suggestive of activation of the alternate
complement system rather than the classic complement system?
Serum C2 Serum C3 Serum C4
a. Decreased Normal Normal
b. Normal Decreased Normal
c. Normal Normal Decreased
d. ​Decreased Normal Decreased
e. Decreased Decreased Decreased

Q7: Which one of the listed statements best describes the process called chemotaxis?
a. Abnormal fusion of phagosomes to primary lysosomes
b. Attachment of chemicals to extracellular material to increase phagocytosis
c. Dilation of blood vessels by chemotherapeutic drugs
d​. Movement of cells toward a certain site or source
e. Transmigration of cells from blood vessels into tissue

Q8: During the early stages of the inflammatory response, histamine induced increased vascular
permeability is most likely to occur in
a. Arteries
b. Precapillary arterioles
c. Capillaries
d. Postcapillary venules

11
e. Veins

Q9: The cardinal sign of inflammation called rubor is mainly the result of
a. Decreased interstitial hydrostatic pressure
b. Decreased vascular permeability of capillaries
c. Increased vascular permeability of venules
d. Vasoconstriction of muscular arteries
e​. Vasodilation of arterioles

Q10: Which one of the listed statements is the best histologic definition of an abscess?
a​. A circumscribed collection of neutrophils with necrotic cellular debris
b. A localized defect that results from the sloughing of necrotic inflammatory tissue from the
surface of an organ
c. A localized proliferation of fibroblasts and small blood vessels
d. An aggregate of two or more activated macrophages
e. The excessive secretion of mucus from a mucosal surface
Q17: A 24-year-old female presents with severe pain during menses (dysmenorrhea). To treat
her symptoms, you advise her to take indomethacin in the hopes that it will reduce her pain by
interfering with the production of

a. Bradykinin

b. Histamine

c. Leukotrienes

d. Phospholipase A2

e. Prostaglandin F2

Q18: By definition, granulomas are composed of

a. Cholesterol clefts

b. Collagen

12
c. Endothelial cells and fibroblasts

d. Epithelioid cells

e. Hemosiderin-laden macrophages

Q19: Which one of the listed changes correctly describes the pathophysiology involved in the
production of pulmonary edema in patients with congestive heart failure?

a. Decreased plasma oncotic pressure

b. Endothelial damage

c. Increased hydrostatic pressure

d. Increased vascular permeability

e. Lymphatic obstruction

Q30: Plasmodium falciparum which causes malaria is an example of;

a. An ameboid protozoan
b. A sporozoan
c. A flagellate
d. A ciliate
e. A schizont
Q31: The seriousness of Plasmodium falciparum infection compared with the other three forms
of malaria is due to which one of the following?
a. Destruction of white blood cells compromises the immune reaction against malaria.
b. Stem cells in the marrow are largely destroyed.
c. Extensive damage to the liver can occur during the pre erythrocytic phase of the parasite
cycle.
d. Bloodstream parasites reinvade the liver and induce a more severe disease state.

13
e. Misshapen infected red cells adhere to the interior lining of blood vessels and block blood
flow through these vessels.
Q32: The protozoan trophozoite phase is characterized by
a. Metabolic dormancy.
b. Toxin production.
c. Active feeding and reproduction.
d. Flagellar locomotion.
e. residence in the intermediate host
Q33: The definitive host of a parasite is the host
a. In which asexual reproduction occurs.
b. In which sexual reproduction occurs.
c. That is obligatory for the parasite.
d. That is capable of destroying the parasite.
e. That is the vector organism that transports a parasite from an uninfected to an infected host.
Q34: A patient is diagnosed as having a trematode infection. Lacking a more specific
identification of the causative organism, which of the following drugs would most likely be
effective?
a.Niclosamide
b. Thiabendazole
c.Praziquantel
d. Diethylcarbamazine
e.Tetracycline
Q35: Which of the following helminthic diseases is transmitted by the bite of a mosquito?
a. Filariasis
b. Onchocerciasis
c.Taeniasis
d. Schistosomiasis
e.Visceral larva migrans
Q36: Which of the following helminthic diseases is transmitted by direct skin penetration by
helminth larva?

14
a.Filariasis
b. Onchocerciasis
c.Dracunculiasis
d. Schistosomiasis
e.Visceral larva migrans
Q37: A United States businessman who has recently returned home from Haiti suddenly
develops a periodic high fever followed by orthostatic hypotension.
What is the likely preliminary diagnosis?
a.Chagas disease
b. Giardiasis
c.Syphilis
d. Malaria
e.Toxoplasmosis
Q38: A 37-year-old sheep farmer from Australia presents with upper right quadrant pain and
appears slightly jaundiced. A stool exam was negative for ova and parasites but a CT scan of the
liver reveals a large 14-cm cyst that appears to contain fluid.
Which of the following parasites should be considered?
a. Taenia solium
b. Taenia saginata
c. Clonorchis sinensis
d. Schistosoma mansoni
e. Echinococcus granulosus

Q1: Hypoxia decreases cellular levels of ATP and inhibits the normal function of the plasma
membrane ouabain-sensitive Na-K-ATPase pump. Which one of the listed changes will result
from decreased function of this membrane ion pump?

Sodium Ion Changes Potassium Ion Changes

a. Decreased sodium ions inside Decreased potassium ions outside

the cell the cell

15
b. Decreased sodium ions inside Increased potassium ions outside

the cell the cell

c​. Increased sodium ions inside Increased potassium ions outside

the cell the cell

d. Increased sodium ions outside Increased potassium ions inside

the cell the cell

e. Increased sodium ions outside Decreased potassium ions inside

the cell the cell

Q2: A 38-year-old female presents with intermittent pelvic pain. Physical examination reveals a
3-cm mass in the area of her right ovary. Histologic sections from this ovarian mass reveal a
papillary tumor with multiple, scattered small, round, laminated calcifications. These structures
are most likely the result of

a. Apoptosis

b. Dystrophic calcification

c. Enzymatic necrosis

d. Hyperparathyroidism

e. Metastatic calcification

Q3: After binding to Fas ligand (CD95L), Fas (CD95) self-associates and activates Fas-associated
death domain protein (FADD), which in turn induces apoptosis by stimulating

a. bcl-2

16
b. Caspase 8

c. Cytochrome a3

d. Cytochrome p450

e. Elastase 6

Q4: A 49-year-old man develops an acute myocardial infarction because of the sudden
occlusion of the left anterior descending coronary artery. The areas of myocardial necrosis
within the ventricle can best be described as

a. Coagulative necrosis

b. Liquefactive necrosis

c. Fat necrosis

d. Caseous necrosis

e. Fibrinoid necrosis

Q5: The degradation of intracellular organelles through the process in which autosomes
combine with primary lysosomes to form auto phagolysosomes is called

a​. Autophagy

b. Heterophagy

c. Heteroplasmy

d. Omophagy

e. Endocytosis

Q6: The degradation of intracellular organelles through the process in

which autosomes combine with primary lysosomes to form auto phagolysosomes

17
is called
a. Autophagy
b. Heterophagy
c. Heteroplasmy
d. Omophagy
e. Endocytosis

DISORDERS OF IMMUNE SYSTEM

Q11: Within minutes of bee sting, a 23 years old woman develops generalized pruritus and
hyperemia of skin, followed shortly by swelling of face, eyelids and laryngeal oedema. The
reaction is mediated by:-
a. Antigen – antibody complexes
b. Cytotoxic T-cells
c. IgA antibodies
d. IgE antibodies
e. IgG antibodies

Q12: A HIV-Positive IV drug user is suspected of having active tuberculosis and a tuberculin
intradermal skin test is performed. After 48 hours, 10 cm of induration is observed, which of
the following are involved in this form of hypersensitivity reaction?
a. B cells and antibodies
b. Basophils and IgE
c. Immune complexes and complement
d. Plasma cells and IgM
e. T cells and macrophages

Q13: Antibodies that can cross placenta is:-

a. IgA
b. IgE

18
 c. IgD
d. IgG
e. IgM

Q14: A 20 years old woman presents with malar rash, arthralgias, low-grade fever and high-titer
antibodies to double-stranded. DNA and to sm antigen. She was diagnosed to have SLE, which
of the following forms of hypersensitivity is the primary mechanism of abnormalities found in
this order?
a. Type I hypersensitivity
b. Type II hypersensitivity
c. Type III hypersensitivity
d.​ ​Type IV hypersensitivity

Q15: Type of antibody first made in response to an infection by body is:-

a. IgA
b. IgE
c. IgD
d. IgM
e. IgG

Q11: An IgG molecule is composed of which of the following?

a. One Alpha, one gamma and two kappa chains
b. One gamma and two kappa chains
c. Two gamma chains and two kappa chains
d. Two​ ​gamma and two lambda chains
e. Two Alpha, and two lambda chains

Q12: When a B cell undergoes immunoglobulin class switching:-

a. the variable region of the light chain changes, but the constant region remains same.

19
 b. the variable region of the light chain remains the same, but the constant region changes.
c. variable region of heavy chain changes, but constant region remains same.
d. variable region of heavy chain remains same, but constant region changes.
e. Both constant and heavy regions change.

Q13: In patient with typ1 hypersensitivity response to dust mite, cross linking of which of
following dust –mite specific molecules will trigger inflammatory mediator release?
a. IgG
b. IgA
c. IgE
d. Histamine
e. IgM

Q14: A 32 years old technician working in an Immunology lab had a history of acute eczematous
dermatitis on her hand and wrist in the distribution of latex gloves she wore. The skin of her
hands was dry and crusted thickened. After 72 hours back on job , the eczematous dermatitis
returned and continued to grow worse which characterizes the technician’s reaction to latex
gloves:-
a. Irritant dermatitis
b. Type I reaction
c. Type II reaction
d. Type IV reaction
e. Type III reaction

Q15: Which of the following is non-organic specific (system) autoimmune disease?

a. Myasthenia gravis
b. SLE
c. Hashimoto's thyroiditis
d. Pernicious anemia

20
 e. Insulin dependent DM

ENVIRONMENTAL DISEASES

Q39: Factory worker presented in OPD with progressive peripheral motor dysfunction and
anemia. It is likely due to:-
a. Folate deficiency
b. B1 deficiency
c. Lead Poisoning
d. Cosmic rays
e. X-rays

Q40: Farmer working in field on hot sunny day faints. Most likely cause is:-
a. Excessive sweating
b. Dehydration B1 deficiency
c. Heat stroke
d. Fatigue and Thirst

Q41: Which is most common cause bronchogenic carcinoma:-

a. Asbestosis
b. Silicosis
c. Brucellosis
d. Tobacco smoking

Q42: Radiation effect causes injury to:-

a. Cell membrane
b. Nucleus
c. Cytoplasm
d. Mitochondria

21
e. DNA
MYCOLOGY

Which of the following fungi is most likely to be found within reticuloendothelial cells:-
a. Candida albicans
b. Cryptococcus neoformans
c. Histoplasma capsulatum
d. Tinea versicolor
e. Mucor species

Infection by dermatophyte is most commonly associated with:-

a. Inhalation of organism from contaminated bird feces
b. IV drug abuse
c. Adherence of organism to perspiration moist skin
d. Feco-oral transmission
e. Deep penetrating wound

A Fifty years old, immunocompromised female is clinically diagnosed to have meningitis-latex

agglutination test for capsular polysaccharide antigen on CSF is positive. Which organ is the
most likely cause?
a. Aspergillus fumigatus
b. Candida albicans
c. Histoplasma capsulatum
d. Cryptococcus neoformans
e. Mucor species

Fungal cells that reproduce by budding are seen in the infected tissues of patients with:-

22
 a. Mycetoma, candidiasis and mucormycosis
b. Candidiasis, cryptococcosis and sporotrichosis
c. Tinea corporis, tinea unguim and tinea versicolor
d. Sporotrichosis, mycetoma and aspergillosis

Septate hyphae are seen in lung biopsy tissue stained with Hand E stain.Most likely fungal
organism is which of the following:-
a. Rhizopus
b. Aspergillus
c. Mucor
d. Histoplasma
e. Blastomyces

In fungi, conidia may be described by which of the following:-

a. Asexual spores
b. Sexual spores
c. Bits of hyphae
d. Yeast like stage of dimorphic fungi
e. Aerial mycelium

23