ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY PREVIOUS QUESTIONS

1. The following are disorders that are included in the anxiety disorders spectrum :
a). Panic disorder
b). Body dysmorphic disorder
c). PTSD
d). Fugue
Codes: 1). (a) and (b) only
2). (a) and (c) only
3). (a), (b) and (d)
4). (b), (c) and (d)

ANS:2
Explanation: Anxiety Disorders in anxiety spectrum include Separation anxiety disorder, selective
mutism, specific phobia, social phobia, panic disorder, agoraphobia, and generalized anxiety disorder.

2. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer by choosing from the codes given below :

List I (Diagnoses) List II (Axis used in Multiaxial system)

a. General Medical conditions i) V

b. GAF (Global Assessment Functioning) ii) I

c. V codes iii) II

d. Personality disorders iv) III

Codes 1. A B C D
1). (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
2). (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
3). (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
4). (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

ANS: 3
Explanation:
General Medical conditions comes under Axis III
GAF (Global Assessment Functioning) The Global Assessment of Functioning, or GAF, scale is used to
rate how serious a mental illness may be. It measures how much a person's symptoms affect their day-to-
day life on a scale of 0 to 100 falls under Axis V
V codes called Other Conditions That May Be a Focus of Clinical Attention falls under Axis I
Personality disorders is included in Axis II

3. The following disorders are coded on Axis I of a five axis diagnosis :

a). V codes
b). personality disorders
c). clinical conditions
d). intellectual disability
Codes: 1). (a) and (c) only
2). (b) and (d) only
3). (a) and (d) only
4). (b) and (c) only

ANS: 1
Explanation: V codes called Other Conditions That May Be a Focus of Clinical Attention falls under
Axis I

4. Read each of the following two statements - Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and indicate your answer
choosing from the codes given below :
1. Assertion (A): Obsessive compulsive disorder is a disorder of thought and is thus classified in the
schizophrenia spectrum in DSM-5.
2. Reason (R) : Evidence base shows that a combination of pharmacotherapy and psychotherapy yields
good results in OCD therapy.
Codes: 1). Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2). Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3). (A) is true but (R) is false
4). (A) is false but (R) is true

ANS:4
Explanation: Obsessive compulsive disorder is not categorized under schizophrenia spectrum in DSM-5
but evidence base do supports that a combination of pharmacotherapy and psychotherapy yields good
results in OCD therapy

5. Lesions of the ventromedial nuclei in the hypothalamus produce

1). Anorexia
2). Obesity
3). Low level of Leptin
4). Hypoinsulinemia

ANS:2
Explanation: The Ventromedial Hypothalamus is responsible for the feeling of Satiety, Hence if lesion
happens in the ventromedial hypothalamus the organism would not feel satisfied and would keep on
eating thereby causing Obesity.

6. Given below are two statements Assertion (A) and Reason (R)
Assertion (A): High sensation seekers are inclined to get involved in a variety of thrill seeking activities.
Reasons (R): engagement in thrill seeking behaviour triggers the release of epinephrine.
In the light of above two statements
Choose the correct option:
1). Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2). Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3). (A) is true, but (R) is false
4). (A) is false, but (R) is true

ANS:3
Explanation: As per Marvin Zuckerman, High sensation seekers are inclined to get involved in a variety
of thrill seeking activities. But Epinephrine, more commonly known as adrenaline, is a hormone secreted
by the medulla of the adrenal glands.  Strong emotions such as fear or anger cause epinephrine to be
released into the bloodstream, which causes an increase in heart rate, muscle strength, blood pressure, and
sugar metabolism. This reaction, known as the “Flight or Fight Response” anad hence engaging in thrill
seeking behaviors does not trigger the release  of epinephrine.

7. Agoraphobia is
1). Usually onset during early adulthood
2). Are dominantly found amongst women
3). Can onset at any age but mostly during early childhood
4). Are dominantly prevalent amongst men
5). Share more kinship with panic disorders than phobic disorders
Choose the correct answer from the code given below:
Options:-
1). (iii), (iv) and (v)
2). (i), (iv) and (v)
3). (i), (iii) and (v)
4). (i), (ii) and (v)

ANS:4
Explanation: Agoraphobia is an anxiety disorder characterized by a fear of certain environments and
situations. Best known as a fear of open spaces.
Agoraphobia may develop at any age, however, it typically presents between the ages of 20 and 30. Both
women and men can be affected, although statistics show that the condition is more prevalent among
women, Hence option 4 is the best choice.

8. Which of the following are characteristics of post-trauma growth?

a). Relationships are strengthened or enhanced
b). Self-views become mat positive
c). Life philosophies become ambiguous
d). Greater acceptance of personal limitations
1. Select the comet option :
1). (a), (b) and (c) only
2). (a). (b) (d)only
3). (b), (c) and (d)
4). (a), (c) and (d) only

ANS:2
Explanation: Posttraumatic growth (PTG) is a concept describing positive psychological change
experienced as a result of struggling with highly challenging, highly stressful life circumstances. These
circumstances represent significant challenges to the adaptive resources of the individual, and pose
significant challenges to the individual's way of understanding the world and their place in it.
Hence Life philosophies become more clear and not ambiguous.

9. A 12-year-old boy showed a gradual onset of the lake. uncontrolled movements in limbs with
clumsiness, frequent falling. slurred speech and drooling caused by HTT mutation. What disorder is he
suffering from ?
1). Ataxia
2). Huntington s
3). Dystonia
4). Essential tremors

ANS: 2
Explanation: Huntington's disease (HD), also known as Huntington's chorea, is a neurodegenerative
disease that is mostly inherited.
As the disease advances, uncoordinated, involuntary body movements become more apparent. Physical
abilities gradually worsen until coordinated movement becomes difficult and the person is unable to
talk.Also people feel difficulty speaking, memory loss and tremor.
Ataxia- Ataxia is typically defined as the presence of abnormal, uncoordinated movements. This usage
describes signs & symptoms without reference to specific diseases.
Dystonia- Dystonia is a movement disorder in which your muscles contract involuntarily, causing
repetitive or twisting movements.
Essential tremors- Essential tremor disorder is a neurological condition that causes your hands to shake
rhythmically. The head, trunk and voice might also be involved, but hand shaking is most prominent.

10. Marked impairments in establishing social interactions and living in their own worlds, repetitive
behaviour patterns and non-existent poor language skills are three major characteristics of which disorder
a). Autism
b). Obsessive-compulsive disorder
c). Catatonic schizophrenia
d). Apraxia

Select the correct option

1). Only (a)
2). Only (b) and (c)
3). Only (d)
4). Only (a) and (d)

ANS:1
Explanation: The major symptoms of Autism include: Having difficulty in making social interactions,
having repetitive behaviour patterns and having poor language skills.

11. Match List-I with List-II

List I Concept List Description

a.impairment i)Any loss or abnormality of

psychological ,physiological or anatomical
structure or function

b.disability ii) Any restriction or lack of ability to perform an

activity in age appropriate manner

c.handicap iii)Perception and assessment of one’s abilities to

be lower relative to other

d.disadvantage iv) Inability to perform with expected norms

1). a-i; b-ii;c-iii;d-iv

2). a-ii; b-iv;c-i;d-iii
3). a-iii; b-i;c-iv;d-ii
4). a-iv; b-iii;c-ii;d-i

ANS:1
Explanation:
Impairment- Any loss or abnormality of psychological ,physiological or anatomical structure or function
Disability- Any restriction or lack of ability to perform an activity in age appropriate manner
Handicap- Perception and assessment of one’s abilities to be lower relative to other
Disadvantage- Inability to perform with expected norms

12. Match list I with List II and select the correct answer choosing from the code given below:

LIST I (TERM) LIST II (DESCRIPTION)

(a) Fetishism (i) Sexual urges and arousing fantasies involving

cross-dressing

(b) necrophilia object (ii) Sexual arousal or fantasies about or actual use
of non-living
(c) Frotteurism person (iii) Sexual urges involving touching or rubbing a
non-consenting

(d) Temperance transvestic fetishism (iv) Sexual obsession with corpses

Options:-
1). (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
2). (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
3). (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
4). (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)

ANS:4
Explanation:
Fetishism- Sexual arousal or fantasies about or actual use of non-living
Necrophilia object- Sexual obsession with corpses
Frotteurism person- Sexual urges involving touching or rubbing a non-consenting
Temperance transvestic fetishism- Sexual urges and arousing fantasies involving cross-dressing

13. Given below are two statements one labelled as Assertion (A) and other labelled as Reason (R) Read
the statements
1. Assertion (A) The likelihood that fetal alcohol syndrome will occur depends on the social environment
2. Reason (R) Social influences also act upon developing the brain and mind
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
1). Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2). Both (A) and (R) art true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3). (A) is true but (R) is false
4). (A) is false but (R) is false

ANS:4
Explanation- Fetal alcohol spectrum disorders (FASDs) are a group of conditions that can occur in a
person whose mother drank alcohol during pregnancy and does not depend on social environment. These
effects can include physical problems and problems with behavior and learning. Often, a person with an
FASD has a mix of these problems.
Development of the brain does not depends upon Social influences

14. Which of the following significant changes have been incorporated in DSM-5 ?
a). The title of the manual is not DSM-V but DSM-5, a deliberate shift from traditional Roman numerals
used in previous editions toward Arabic numerals.
b). Multiaxial Assessment System - a central feature of DSM since its introduction in DSM - III in 1980,
has been dropped altogether from DSM-5.
c). DSM-5 authors have overhauled the manual to emphasise neuropsychological or biological roots of
mental disorders.
d). DSM-5 authors have removed 5 of 10 personality disorders previously included in that section.
Dropped disorders are paranoid, schizoid, histrionic, dependent and narcissistic personality disorders.
Code :
1). (a), (b), (c) are correct; (d) is incorrect.
2). (b), (c) and (d) are correct; (a) is incorrect.
3). (a) and (b) are correct; (c) and (d) are incorrect.
4). (c) and (d) are correct; (a) and (b) are incorrect.

ANS:3
Explanation:
Significant changes that have been incorporated in DSM-5 include, changing the numbering from Roman
system to Arabic numerals.
Multiaxial Assessment System that remained in the DSM through the previous editions was dropped.
When multiaxial assessment was in place, the psychiatric problems were described on each of 5 distinct
axes.

15. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer by choosing from code given below :
LIST I (CONCEPTS) LIST II (EXPLANATION)

a.Concordance i) Percentage of cases in which, if specific gene is

present, a particular trait, characteristic or disease
will actually manifest itself in the fully developed
organism.

b.Penetrance ii) Relationship between twins or other family

members with respect to a given trait.

c.Prevalence iii) Number of new cases of specific condition or

disease that arise during a particular period of
time.

d.Incidence iv) Frequency of occurrence of a given condition

among a certain population at a particular point of
time.

Code :
(a) (b) (c) ( d )
1). (i) (ii) (iii) ( iv )
2). (iii) (iv) (i) ( ii )
3). (ii) (i) (iv) ( iii )
4). (iv) (iii) (ii) ( i )

ANS:3
Explanation:
Concordance- Relationship between twins or other family members with respect to a given trait.
Penetrance- Percentage of cases in which, if specific gene is present, a particular trait, characteristic or
disease will actually manifest itself in the fully developed organism.
Prevalence- Frequency of occurrence of a given condition among a certain population at a particular point
of time.
Incidence- Number of new cases of specific condition or disease that arise during a particular period of
time.

15. Person, who reports that he oftenly feels above his physical body. It is an example of :
1). Derealization
2). Depersonalization
3). Delusion
4). Identity Disorientation

ANS:2
Explanation:
Depersonalization-The persistent feeling of observing oneself from outside one’s body or having a sense
that one’s surroundings aren't real
Derealization- Derealization is a mental state where you feel detached from your surroundings. People
and objects around you may seem unreal.
Delusion-A belief or altered reality that is persistently held despite evidence or agreement to the contrary.
Identity Disorientation- Disorientation is an altered mental state. A person who’s disoriented may not
know their location and identity, or the time and date.

16. DSM – III is considered qualitatively different and superior to its predecessors, because :
1). It is multiaxial
2). It deleted misnomer words
3). It introduced coding system
4). It used experimental data
Code : 1). (a), (b) and (c) only
2). (a), (c) and (d) only
3). (b), (c) and (d) only
4). (a), (b), (c) and (d)

ANS:1
Explanation: The DSM-III approach is superior to previous classification systems in terms of
observability (emphasis on explicit behavioral symptoms), reliability (in terms of agreement among
clinicians), validity (in terms of agreement with other criteria), feasibility (ease of administration),
coverage (covering all disorders of clinical significance in the mental health system), and age sensitivity
(from infancy to old age)
17. A patient in Mental Hospital somehow procured a needle and thread and while sleeping, she tried to
stitch her lips together, so that someone does not pour poison in her mouth when asleep. Most probably
she suffers from :
1). Bipolar Disorder
2). Hebephrenic Schizophrenia
3). Delusional Disorder
4). Borderline Personality Disorder

ANS:3
Explanation: Delusional disorder is a mental illness in which a person has delusions, but with no
accompanying prominent hallucinations, thought disorder, mood disorder, or significant flattening of
affect. Here the patient is suffering from Persecutory Delusional Disorder.

18. Read each of the following statements - Assertion (A) and Reason (R); and indicate your answer
using code given below :
Assertion (A) : For extraversion, monozygotic twins correlated more than the dizygotic twins. Reason (R)
: Extraversion has genetic basis.
Code :
1). Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2). Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct Explanation of (A).
3). (A) is true, but (R) is false.
4). (A) is false, but (R) is true.

ANS:1
Explanation: The strongest correlation for any trait between monozygotic twins was found for
neuroticism, yet with substantial associations also for extraversion and conscientiousness., monozygotic
twins correlated more than the dizygotic twins. Because extraversion has a genetic basis

19. During autobiographical recall, we often reveal a __________, as a consequence, our memory of the
past may be __________.
1). inconsistency bias; distorted
2). consistency bias; distorted
3). inconsistency bias; enhanced
4). consistency bias; enhanced

ANS: 2
Explanation: During autobiographical recall, we often reveal a consistency bias, as a consequence, our
memory of the past may be distorted .

20. Which of the following are predictors of good prognosis in Schizophrenia.

a). Positive symptoms
b). Late onset
c). Acute onset
d). No precipitating factors
Code:
1). (a), (b) and (c) are correct; (d) is incorrect
2). (b), (c) and (d) are correct; (a) is incorrect
3). (c), (d) and (b) are correct; (a) is incorrect
4). (a), (c) and (d) are correct; (b) is incorrect

ANS: 4
Explanation: Predictors of good prognosis in Schizophrenia include: Being female, rapid (vs. insidious)
onset of symptoms, older age of first episode, predominantly positive (rather than negative) symptoms,
presence of mood symptoms, and good pre-illness functioning. The strengths and internal resources of the
individual concerned, such as determination or psychological resilience, have also been associated with
better prognosis.

21. Which of the following is the sleep disorder in which the person is physically active during REM
sleep ?
1). Narcolepsy
2). Cataplexy
3). Somnambulism
4). REM Sleep Behaviour Disorder

ANS: 4
Explanation: Rapid eye movement (REM) sleep behavior disorder is a sleep disorder in which you
physically act out vivid, often unpleasant dreams with vocal sounds and sudden, often violent arm and leg
movements during REM sleep — sometimes called dream-enacting behavior.
Narcolepsy- Narcolepsy is a chronic sleep disorder characterized by overwhelming daytime drowsiness
and sudden attacks of sleep.
Cataplexy- Cataplexy is a sudden muscle weakness that occurs while a person is awake.
Somnambulism-The act of getting up and walking around while asleep.

22. Which of the following new disorders have been introduced in DSM-5 ?
a). Premenstrual Dysphoric Disorder
b). Mild Neurocognitive Disorder
c). Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder
d). Road Rage Behaviour Disorder
Code :
1). ( a), (b) and (c) are correct ; (d) is incorrect.
2). ( a), (b) and (d) are correct ; (c) is incorrect.
3). ( a), (c) and (d) are correct ; (b) is incorrect.
4). All (a), (b), (c) and (d) are correct.
ANS: 1
Explanation: All disorders mentioned above except for Road Rage Behaviour Disorder have been
introduced in DSM-5.

23. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer by choosing from the code given below :

List I (Terms) List II (Explanation)

a.Anorexia nervosa i) Sudden death occurs as terrified person’s

parasympathetic nervous system overreacts due to
which heart slows down to stop.

b.Bulimia nervosa ii) A resting period after orgasm, during which a

person can not achieve another orgasm

c.Refractory period iii) An eating disorder in which a person

significantly becomes underweight.

d.Voodo Curse iv) An eating disorder marked by overeating.

Code : (a) (b) (c) ( d )
1). (i) (ii) (iii) ( iv )
2). (ii) (iii) (iv) ( i )
3). (iii) (iv) (i) ( ii )
4). (iii) (iv) (ii) ( i )

ANS: 4
Explanation:
Anorexia nervosa- An eating disorder in which a person significantly becomes underweight.
Bulimia nervosa- An eating disorder marked by overeating
Refractory period- A resting period after orgasm, during which a person can not achieve another orgasm.
Voodo Curse- Sudden death occurs as terrified person’s parasympathetic nervous system overreacts due
to which heart slows down to stop.

24. Match List – I with List – II

List I (Disorder) List II (Typical Symptoms)

a. PTSD i) Pill rolling movement

b. Major depressive disorder ii) Flashbacks

c. Parkinson’s Disease iii) Echolalia

d. Catatonic Schizophrenia iv) Appetite loss

Codes; A B C D
1). i ii iii iv
2). iv iii ii i
3). iii i iv ii
4). ii iv i iii

ANS: 4
Explanation:
A person with PTSD often have flashbacks of the traumatic event.
A person with Major depressive disorder undergoes severe loss in appetite.
A person with Parkinson’s Disease is often associated with pill-rolling tremor as an early symptom.
Catatonic Schizophrenia patients are often associated with meaningless repetition of another person's
spoken words, called Echolalia

25. Sleep disorders can be categorized as

1). Paraphilias and Dysfunctions
2). Insomnia and Hypersomnia
3). Parasomnias and Dyssomnias
4). Serotonergic and Dopaminergic

ANS: 3
Explanation:
Sleep disorders are broadly classified into dyssomnias, parasomnias, circadian rhythm, sleep disorders
involving the timing of sleep, and other disorders including ones caused by medical or psychological
conditions. The most common sleep disorder is insomnia.

26. Which of the following is not a diagnosable sleep disorder :

1). Somnambulism
2). Somniloquy
3). Sleep terror
4). Insomnia

ANS: 2
Explanation: Somniloquy or sleep talking is a kind of sleep disorder. It refers to talking aloud during
sleep. A person who sleeps talks is unaware of the fact that he/she talks while sleeping and also unaware
about what he/she is exactly talking about. It is very common and usually not considered a medical
problem.

27. Which of the following does not present with symptoms of mental retardation?
1). Cri du chat syndrome
2). Down’s syndrome
3). Fugue
4). Trisomy-21
ANS: 3
Explanation: Fugue, dissociative fugue, is a psychological state in which a person loses awareness of
their identity or other important autobiographical information and is not associated with symptoms of
mental retardation.

28. Which of the following disorders generally show a childhood onset?

a). Delusional disorder
b). Asperger’s syndrome
c). Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder
d). Mild Cognitive Impairment
Codes: 1). (c) and (d) only
2). (b) and (c) only
3). (a), (b) and (c) only
4). (b), (c) and (d) only

ANS: 2
Explanation: Asperger’s syndrome is diagnosed between the ages of five and nine, with some diagnosed
as early as age three.
Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) symptoms start before age 12, and in some children,
they're noticeable as early as 3 years of age.
The mean age of onset of Delusional disorder is about 40 years, but the range is from 18 years to 90 years
Mild cognitive impairment (MCI) is the stage between the expected cognitive decline of normal aging
and the more serious decline of dementia.

29. Which of the following is not a positive symptom of schizophrenia?

a). Disorganized speech
b). Bizarre behaviour
c). Flat effect
d). Hallucinations
Codes:
1). d only
2). a and b
3). c only
4). a and d

ANS:3
Explanation: Positive symptoms are characterized by the presence of odd or unusual feelings, thoughts
or behaviors, positive psychotic symptoms may include: Auditory hallucinations such as hearing voices
that other people cannot hear and Visual hallucinations, or seeing things that are not really there.
Flat affect is a condition that causes people to not express emotions in the same way other people might,
hence it is not something that is getting added to the individuals characteristics.
30. Persons with genetic “markers” for schizophrenia have a physical vulnerability to the disorder but will
not develop schizophrenia unless they are exposed to critical times in development. This is according to
1). Biological model
2). Social learning model
3). Neurobiological model
4). Stress-vulnerability model

ANS: 4
Explanation: Stress-vulnerability model states that a genetic or biological predisposition to certain
mental disorders (e.g., schizophrenia, mood disorders) exists and that psychological and social factors can
increase the likelihood of symptomatic episodes.

31. Vijay was working as executive manager in a multinational company. His team members always
found it difficult to get along with him. Vijay always craved for excessive admiration and attention, took
undue advantage of others, and was very arrogant and preoccupied with fantasies of unlimited success
and power. He seems to be suffering from
1). Borderline personality disorder
2). Narcissistic personality disorder
3). Histrionic Personality disorder
4). Schizoid personality disorder

ANS: 2
Explanation: Narcissistic personality disorder (NPD) is a personality disorder in which people have an
inflated opinion of themselves. They also have an intense need for the admiration and attention of others.

32. Conversion Disorder (Hysteria) is now placed in the category of :

1). Anxiety Disorders
2). Anxiety related Disorders
3). Somatoform Disorders
4). Psychological Factors effecting Physical conditions

ANSWER: 3
Explanation: Conversion disorder is a mental condition in which a person has blindness, paralysis, or
other nervous system (neurologic) symptoms that cannot be explained by medical evaluation and is now
placed in Somatoform Disorders.

33. The statement, “Normalcy and Abnormalcy differ in degree not in kind” represents the __________
of abnormalcy.
1). Deviance Criteria
2). Personal Discomfort Criteria
3). Statistical Criteria
4). Social Discomfort Criteria

ANSWER: 3
Explanation: The statement, “Normalcy and Abnormalcy differ in degree not in kind” represents the
Statistical Criteria of abnormalcy.

34. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer choosing from the codes given below :

LIST I LIST II

a. Sufficient cause (i) A condition, existence of which guarantee for

the genesis of a mental disorder

b. Reinforcing cause ii) A condition that tends to maintain maladaptive

behaviour that has already occured

c. Contributory cause iii) A condition that occurs relatively in early life

and may not show its effect for many years

d. Distal cause iv) A condition that increases the probability of a

disorder

Codes
A B C D
1). (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
2). (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
3). (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
4). (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)

ANSWER: 2
Explanation:
Sufficient cause is a condition, existence of which guarantee for the genesis of a mental disorder.
Reinforcing cause is a condition that tends to maintain maladaptive behaviour that has already
Contributory cause is a condition that increases the probability of a disorder.
Distal cause is a condition that occurs relatively in early life and may not show its effect for many years.

35. A psychotic disorder in which a person’s functioning is not markedly impaired, weather is behaviour
obviously odd or bizarre and free from hallucinations is called :
1). Schizo affective Disorder
2). Schizophreniform Disorder
3). Delusional Disorder
4). Shared Psychotic Disorder

ANSWER: 3
Explanation: Patients suffering from Schizo affective Disorder, Schizophreniform Disorder and Shared
Psychotic Disorder often suffer from some form of hallucinations and Delusional Disorder does not
involve any form of Hallucinations

36. In which of the following disorders a person has two or more different personalties, and either of
which is dominant at a time?
1). Dissociative amnesia
2). Split personality
3). Dissociative identity disorder
4). Schizophrenia.

ANSWER: 3
Explanation: Dissociative identity disorder, previously called multiple personality disorder, is mental
disorder characterized by the maintenance of at least two distinct and relatively enduring personality
states.

37. Match List – I with List – II and indicate your answer with the help of codes given below :

List I (Therapy) List II (Clinical Condition)

a. Cognitive Behaviour Therapy 1. Anxiety disorders

b. Exposure Techniques 2. Post-traumatic stress disorder

c. Dialectical Behaviour Therapy 3. Depression

d. Eye-movement desensitization and 4. Borderline personality disorder

reprocessing
Codes:
ABCD
a). 3 1 4 2
b). 4 2 3 1
c). 2 4 1 3
d). 1 3 2 4
ANS: A
Explanation:
Depression is usually treated with Cognitive Behaviour Therapy.
Anxiety disorders can be treated using Exposure Techniques
Borderline personality disorder are treated with Dialectical Behaviour Therapy
Post-traumatic stress disorder can be treated with Eye-movement desensitization and reprocessing

38. Using the multiaxial system of DSM IV-TR paranoid personality disorder and borderline personality
disorder would be coded on
a). Axis I
b). Axis II
c). Axis III
d). Axis IV
ANS:2
Explanation: The last DSM, DSM-IV-TR, used a "multi-axial" diagnostic system. This means that when
a diagnosis was made, attention was paid to five different areas, or axes, that could affect the individual
who was being diagnosed.
Axis II was reserved for long-standing conditions of clinical significance, like personality
disorders and mental retardation. These disorders typically last for years, are present before adulthood,
and have a significant impact on functioning which includes the likes of Paranoid personality disorder and
borderline personality disorder

39. A 17 year old woman has been binging on large quantities of food, above and beyond what most
people would eat under similar circumstances. She then engages in purging behaviour as often as 3 or 4
times a week. She feels she has no control over it. The results of her physical examination are normal and
she is of normal weight. She is most likely suffering from
a). Anorexia nervosa
b). Bulimia nervosa
c). Binge-eating disorder
d). Eating disorder not otherwise specified
ANS: B
Explanation:
Anorexia nervosa- An eating disorder causing people to obsess about weight and what they eat. Anorexia
is characterized by a distorted body image, with an unwarranted fear of being overweight.
Bulimia nervosa- A serious eating disorder marked by bingeing, followed by methods to avoid weight
gain. They then take steps to avoid weight gain. Most commonly, this means vomiting (purging).
Binge-eating disorder- Is a serious eating disorder in which you frequently consume unusually large
amounts of food and feel unable to stop eating.
Eating disorder not otherwise specified- It is the most common category of eating disorder seen in
outpatient settings. Eating disorder NOS is the category in DSM-IV reserved for eating disorders of
clinical severity that do not meet diagnostic criteria for either one of the two eating disorders recognised
in DSM-IV, anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa.

40. Which of the following are features of Borderline Personality Disorder?

1). affective instability
2). Lack of remorse
3). Impulsivity
4). Self-mutilation
5). Over concern with order and rules.
Codes: a). 1, 2 and 3
b). 1, 3 and 4
c). 1, 2, 4 and 5
d). 2, 3, 4 and 5
ANS: B
Explanation:
Features of Borderline Personality Disorder include:
affective Intense fear of abandonment, Rapid changes in self-identity and self-image, Instability,
Impulsivity and risky behavior, Self-mutilation

41. Match List – I with List – II and indicate your answer with the help of the codes given below:

List – I (Description) List – II (Nomenclature

a. Number of new cases that occur over a given 1. Epidemiology

period of time.

b. Study of the distribution of diseases or health 2. Syndrome

related behaviours in a given population.

c. Number of active cases in a population in a 3. Incidence

given period of time.

d. A group or cluster of symptoms that occur 4. Prevalence

together

Codes
ABCD
a). 2 1 3 4
b). 4 2 1 3
c). 3 1 4 2
d). 1 4 3 2
Answer: C
Explanation:
Incidence -Number of new cases that occur over a given period of time.
Epidemiology - Study of the distribution of diseases or health related behaviours in a given
Prevalence -Number of active cases in a population in a given period of time.
Syndrome - A group or cluster of symptoms that occur together

42. Down syndrome is associated with which of the causal factors?

a). Trisomy 18
b). Trisomy 12
c). Trisomy 21
d). Trisomy 14
ANS: C
Explanation:
Down syndrome is associated with Trisomy 21. People with Down syndrome are born with an extra
chromosome
Trisomy 18 is a chromosomal abnormality. It's also called Edwards syndrome
Trisomy 12- Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
Trisomy 14- Trisomy Mosaic is a rare chromosomal disorder in which chromosome 14 appears three
times (trisomy) rather than twice in some cells of the body

43. Which of the following do/does not describe an obsession?

1). Continually reliving a traumatic event.
2). An unwanted thought that a person finds intrusive and distressing.
3). A behaviour or mental act that a person feels compelled to perform.
4). Something a person enjoys doing and talking about constantly.
Codes:
a). 1, 2 and 4
b). 2 and 4
c). 2, 3 and 4
d). 1, 3 and 4
ANS:4
Explanation:
An obsession can be described by a behaviour or mental act that a person feels compelled to perform,
continually reliving a traumatic event, something a person enjoys doing and talking about constantly.

44. Given below are two statements Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Indicate your answer choosing from
the code given below.
Assertion (A): In case of anxiety disorder, people become inclined to make negative evaluation of
themselves, their world, and their future.
Reason (R): People acquire a relatively stable set of cognitive structures or schemas that contain
dysfunctional beliefs.
Codes:
a). Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
b). Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
c). (A) is true, but (R) is false.
d). (A) is false, but (R) is true.
ANS:4
Explanation:
An anxiety disorder is a type of mental health condition. wherein you may respond to certain things and
situations with fear and dread. You may also experience physical signs of anxiety, such as a pounding
heart and sweating. But would not make negative evaluation of themselves. But people do actually
acquire a relatively stable set of cognitive structures or schemas that contain dysfunctional beliefs.

45. Arrange the following events in the order of their occurrence in Panic circle :
i). Apprehension or worry
ii). Body sensations
iii). Perceived threat
iv). Interpretation of sensations as catastrophic
v). Trigger stimulus
Codes:
a). I, III, II, V, IV
b). V, II, III, I, IV
c). V, III, I, II, IV
d). III, V, I, II, IV
Answer: 3
Explanation:
Order of occurrence in Panic circle is:
Trigger stimulus -> Perceived threat -> Apprehension or worry -> Body sensations -> Interpretation of
sensations as catastrophic.
Panic attacks are defined as rapid occurrences of anxiety or rapid escalations in current anxiety. Four or
more symptoms have to escalate or occur within a ten-minute period, to meet panic criteria. These
symptoms include physical responses such as palpitations, dizziness, sweating, choking, trembling or
shaking, breathlessness, depersonalization, and cognitive symptoms such as fear of dying, suffocating,
going crazy,

46. The technique involved in guidance which is called “The heart of the guidance programme” is
a). The case study
b). The interview
c). The cumulative record
d). Aptitude test
ANS: D
Explanation:
Aptitude Test is called as the heart of the guidance programme. An aptitude test is an assessment used to
determine a candidate's cognitive ability or personality. They're extremely common in job assessments as
they can be used to predict the likelihood of a candidate's success in a job role, whilst eliminating any bias
through its standardised administration.
Interview- A formal consultation usually to evaluate qualifications as of a prospective student or
employee.
Cumulative record- It is defined as “a permanent record of a student which is kept up-to-date by school, it
is his educational history with information about his school achievement, attendance, health, test scores
and similar pertinent data.
Case study- A case study is an in-depth, detailed examination of a particular case within a real-world
context.

47. According to Elizabeth Kubler-Ross most people experience predictable stages when they face
impending death. Which is the correct sequence of the stages?
a). Anger, sadness, bargaining, denial, acceptance
b). Bargaining, anger, denial, sadness, acceptance
c). Acceptance, anger, bargaining, denial, sadness
d). Denial, anger, bargaining, sadness, acceptance
ANS: D
Explanation:
The 5 stages when people experience when they face impending death are called Denial, anger,
bargaining, sadness, acceptance.
Denial is often the first reaction to overwhelming, unimaginable news. Denial, or disbelief or shock,
protects us by allowing such news to enter slowly and to give us time to come to grips with what is taking
place.
Anger also provides us with protection in that being angry energizes us to fight against something and
gives structure to a situation that may be thrusting us into the unknown. It is much easier to be angry than
to be sad or in pain or depressed.
Bargaining involves trying to think of what could be done to turn the situation around. Living better,
devoting self to a cause, being a better friend, parent, or spouse, are all agreements one might willingly
commit to if doing so would lengthen life.
Depression is sadness and sadness is appropriate for such an event. Feeling the full weight of loss, crying,
and losing interest in the outside world is an important part of the process of dying.
Acceptance involves learning how to carry on and to incorporate this aspect of the life span into daily
existence. Reaching acceptance does not in any way imply that people who are dying are happy about it
or content with it.

48. Match List-I and List-II : and indicate your answer by choosing from the codes given below :
List I ( Disorders) List II ( Description)
a. Prosopagnosia 1. Ignoring one half of visual space and not perceiving objects in that field
b. Unilateral visual neglect 2. Inability to recognize faces.
c. Agnosia 3. Impairment in realistic self-appraisal
d. Anosognosia 4. Failure to recognize objects
Codes 1. A B C D
a). 1 4 3 2
b). 3 2 1 4
c). 3 1 4 2
d). 2 1 4 3
ANS: D
Explanation:
Prosopagnosia- Inability to recognize faces
Unilateral visual neglect- Ignoring one half of visual space and not perceiving objects in that field.
Agnosia- Failure to recognize objects
Anosognosia- Impairment in realistic self-appraisal

49. In treating which of the following conditions ‘mand’ is used as the central principle of behaviour
modification?
a). Anxiety
b). Autism
c). Anhedonia
d). ADHD
ANS: B
Explanation:
Mand is a term that B.F. Skinner used to describe a verbal operant in which the response is reinforced by
a characteristic consequence and is therefore under the functional control of relevant conditions of
deprivation or aversive stimulation
Skinner used Mand for the treatment of Autism.

50. Which of the following are the negative symptoms of Schizophrenia?

1). Hallucinations and Apathy
2). Asociality and Apathy
3). Anhedonia and Poverty of speech
4). Poverty of speech and delusions
1. Codes: a). 1 and 3 only
b). 2 and 3 only
c). 3 and 4 only
d). 2 and 4 only
ANS: B
Explanation:
Negative symptoms refer to an absence or lack of normal mental function involving thinking, behavior,
and perception, these include:
Lack of pleasure (Anhedonia)
Trouble with speech/ Poverty of speech
Flattening
Withdrawal
Struggling with the basics of daily life
Asociality and Apathy

51. Match List-I with List-II : and indicate your answer by choosing from the codes given below :
List I (Disorder) List II (Symptoms)
a. Dyssomnias 1. Abnormal behaviour that occurs during sleep.
b. Insomnia 2. Sleeplessness
c. Parasomnias 3. It involves problems in getting to sleep or getting sufficient high quality sleep
d. Hypersomnia 4. Excessive sleep
Codes 1. A B C D
a). 2 4 3 1
b). 1 2 3 4
c). 3 2 1 4
d). 1 3 2 4
ANS: C
Explanation:
Dyssomnias- It involves problems in getting to sleep or getting sufficient high quality sleep
Insomnia- Sleeplessness
Parasomnias- Abnormal behaviour that occurs during sleep.
Hypersomnia- Excessive sleep
52. Which of the following pairs is not the negative symptom of Schizophrenia?
a). Emotional flattering and Asociality
b). Anhedonia and Amotivation
c). Poverty of speech and Apathy
d). Hallucinations and Bizarre behaviour
ANS:D
Explanation:
Negative symptoms refer to an absence or lack of normal mental function involving thinking, behavior,
and perception, these include:
Lack of pleasure (Anhedonia)
Trouble with speech/ Poverty of speech
Flattening
Withdrawal
Struggling with the basics of daily life
Asociality and Apathy
Hence not the negative symptoms of Schizophrenia are Hallucinations and Bizarre behavior, these are
positive symptoms.

53. Given below are two statements, Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Indicate your answer choosing from
the codes given below :
Assertion (A): The most important neurotransmitter implicated in schizophrenia is Dopamine. Reason
(R): Clinical evidence suggests that drugs which reduce the level of dopamine in the brain also give rise
to psychotic states like schizophrenia.
Codes: a). Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
b). Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
c). (A) is true, but (R) is false.
d). (A) is false, but (R) is true

ANS:C
Explanation:
Dopamine is an inhibitory neurotransmitter involved in the pathology of schizophrenia. The revised
dopamine hypothesis states that dopamine abnormalities in the mesolimbic and prefrontal brain regions
exist in schizophrenia.
The positive symptoms of schizophrenia include hallucinations and delusions as a result of increased
subcortical release of dopamine
Hence reduction in Dopamine does not contribute to rise in psychotic states like schizophrenia.

54. Given below are two statements, Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Indicate your answer choosing from
the codes given below.
1. Assertion (A): Recent research has shown positive effect of cognitive remediation training on the
neuro-cognitive functions as well as the overall functioning of patients with schizophrenia.
2. Reason (R): Pharmacotherapy alone does not help patients with schizophrenia to function at the highest
possible level of their ability.
3. Codes: a). Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
b). Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
c). (A) is true, but (R) is false.
d). (A) is false, but (R) is true
ANS: B
Explanation:
Recent research has shown positive effect of cognitive remediation training on the neuro-cognitive
functions as well as the overall functioning of patients with schizophrenia.
Pharmacotherapy (Pharmacotherapy (pharmacology) is the treatment of a disorder or disease with
medication) alone does not help patients with schizophrenia to function at the highest possible level of
their ability. Although both are true they are not mutually responsible for each other.

55. Experience of failure followed by ______ cognitions lead to depression. Choose appropriate code:
1). Internal attributions
2). Feeling of controllability
3). Hopelessness
4). Stable attributions
5). specific attributions
1. Codes:
a). 1, 3, 4
b). 1, 2, 4
c). 2, 3, 5
d). 3, 4, 5
ANS: B
Explanation:
Experience of failure followed by Internal attributions, Feeling of controllability, Stable attributions of
cognitions lead to depression.

56. The most common cause of severe intellectual and emotional impairment in older individuals is
a). Parkinson’s disease
b). Multiple sclerosis
c). Alzheimer’s disease
d). Senile psychosis
ANS: A
Explanation:
The most common cause of severe intellectual and emotional impairment in older individuals is
Parkinson’s disease.
Parkinson's disease- It is a brain disorder that leads to shaking, stiffness, and difficulty with walking,
balance, and coordination. Parkinson's symptoms usually begin gradually and get worse over time. As the
disease progresses, people may have difficulty walking and talking.
Multiple sclerosis (MS)- is a potentially disabling disease of the brain and spinal cord (central nervous
system).In MS, the immune system attacks the protective sheath (myelin) that covers nerve fibers and
causes communication problems between your brain and the rest of your body. Eventually, the disease
can cause permanent damage or deterioration of the nerves.
Alzheimer’s disease -A progressive disease that destroys memory and other important mental functions.
Brain cell connections and the cells themselves degenerate and die, eventually destroying memory and
other important mental functions.
Memory loss and confusion are the main symptoms.
Senile psychosis- depressive or paranoid delusions or hallucinations or similar mental disorders due to
degeneration of the brain in old age, as in senile dementia. toxic psychosis that due to ingestion of toxic
agents or to the presence of toxins within the body
No cure exists, but medication and management strategies may temporarily improve symptoms.

57. Which of the following characteristics best describes Borderline Personality Disorder?
1). Impulsivity and affective instability.
2). Unusual perceptual experiences.
3). Unstable and intense interpersonal relationship.
4). Recurrent suicidal behaviour or gesture.
5). Preoccupation with details and rules.
Codes:
a). 1, 2 and 5
b). 2, 4 and 5
c). 2, 3 and 5
d). 1, 3 and 4
ANS: D
Explanation:
A mental disorder characterised by unstable moods, behaviour and relationships.
Symptoms include emotional instability, feelings of worthlessness, insecurity, impulsivity and impaired
social relationships, Suicidal threats or behavior or self-injury.
Treatments include talk therapy or, in some cases, medication. Hospitalisation helps if symptoms are
severe.

58. Mental Retardation is associated with

a). Trisomy 14
b). Trisomy 21
c). Trisomy 12
d). Trisomy 23
ANS: B
Explanation:
Mental Retardation is associated with Trisomy 21.
Trisomy 21- A medical term for having an extra copy of a chromosome is 'trisomy. 'Down syndrome is
also referred to as Trisomy 21. This extra copy changes how the baby's body and brain develop, which
can cause both mental and physical challenges for the baby.
Trisomy 14- Trisomy Mosaic is a rare chromosomal disorder in which chromosome 14 appears three
times (trisomy) rather than twice in some cells of the body
Trisomy 12- Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
Trisomy 23- A genetic disorder in which a person has three copies of a chromosome instead of two.

59. Patients with damage to the frontal lobes behave as if they lack a control system that monitors their
processing resources appropriately. They are said to suffer from
a). Gerstmann Syndrome
b). Dysexecutive Syndrome
c). Korsakoff's Syndrome
d). None of the above
ANS: B
Explanation:
The term 'dysexecutive syndrome' refers to a dysregulation of executive functions and is strictly
associated to frontal lobe damage. Dysexecutive syndrome typically encompasses emotional,
motivational and behavioural symptoms, as well as cognitive deficits
Gerstmann syndrome is a rare neurological disorder that can occur as the result of a brain injury
or as a developmental disorder. The syndrome is characterized by the loss or absence of four cognitive
abilities- the loss of the ability to express thoughts in writing (agraphia, dysgraphia), to perform simple
arithmetic problems (acalculia), to recognize or indicate one’s own or another’s fingers (finger agnosia),
and to distinguish between the right and left sides of one’s body. Additional cognitive defects may occur
in some cases.
Korsakoff's syndrome is a disorder that primarily affects the memory system in the brain. It
usually results from a deficiency of thiamine (vitamin B1), which may be caused by alcohol abuse,
dietary deficiencies, prolonged vomiting, eating disorders, or the effects of chemotherapy.

60. A child was classified as a case of mental retardation. On DSM IV / IV (TR), this diagnosis would be
recorded on:

(A) Axis I

(B) Axis II

(C) Axis III

(D) Axis IV

Answer: (B)
Explanation: DSM-IV-TR, used a "multi-axial" diagnostic system. This means that when a diagnosis
was made, attention was paid to five different areas, or axes, that could affect the individual who was
being diagnosed.
Axis II was reserved for long-standing conditions of clinical significance, like personality disorders and
mental retardation. Hence mental retardation would fall on Axis II of DSM IV / IV (TR).

61. Match List – I with List – II and indicate your answer using the codes given below:

List – I List – II

(Symptom) (Disorder)

p. Waxy flexibility 1. Agoraphobia

q. Rapid speech and flight of ideas 2. Schizophrenia

r. Excessive fear of crowded places 3. Narcolepsy

s. Cataplexy 4. Mania

Codes:

pqrs

(A) 3 4 1 2

(B) 3 2 4 1

(C) 4 2 1 3

(D) 2 4 1 3

Answer: (D)
Explanation:
Waxy flexibility- Schizophrenia: Waxy flexibility is a psychomotor symptom of catatonia as associated
with schizophrenia, bipolar disorder, or other mental disorders which leads to a decreased response to
stimuli and a tendency to remain in an immobile posture.
Mania- Rapid speech and flight of ideas
Agoraphobia - Excessive fear of crowded places
Cataplexy- Narcolepsy: Cataplexy is a sudden, brief loss of voluntary muscle tone triggered by strong
emotions such as laughter. The condition is most commonly associated with narcolepsy, a sleep disorder
that is thought to affect between 135,000 and 200,000 people in the United States. Cataplexy occurs
during waking hours.

62. According to epidemiology, different types of measures of epidemiology of mental illness are

1. Prevalence

2. Point prevalence

3. Incidence

4. Percentage

(A) 1, 2, 4 only

(B) 1, 3, 4 only

(C) 2, 3, 4 only

(D) 1, 2, 3 only

Answer: (D)
Explanation:
Prevalence, Point prevalence, Incidence are the different types of measures of epidemiology of
mental illness.
 Prevalence- In epidemiology, prevalence is the proportion of a particular population found to be
affected by a medical condition at a specific time.
Incidence- In epidemiology, incidence is a measure of the probability of occurrence of a given
medical condition in a population within a specified period of time. Although sometimes loosely
expressed simply as the number of new cases during some time period.
Point Prevalence Surveys collects information on prescribing practices of antibiotics and other
information relevant to treatment and management of infectious diseases in hospitalized patients, and
complements surveillance of antimicrobial consumption.
Percentage- A percentage is a number or ratio expressed as a fraction of 100. It is often denoted
using the percent sign, "%"

63. Match List – I and List – II and indicate your answer using the codes given below:

List – I List – II

(Disorder) (Explanation)

p. Depression 1. Classical conditioning

q. Schizophrenia 2. Negative attribution style

r. Phobia 3. Alcoholism

s. Korsakoff’s syndrome 4. Dopamine hypothesis

Codes:

pqrs

(A) 3 2 4 1

(B) 2 4 1 3

(C) 1 3 2 4

(D) 2 1 4 3

Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Depression- Negative attribution style: Numerous studies have shown that depression-prone people are
characterized by a chronic style of attributing failures to internal, stable, and global causes, sometimes
labeled as the “depressive attributional style.” Or “Negative attribution style”.
Schizophrenia- Dopamine hypothesis: Dopamine is an inhibitory neurotransmitter involved in the
pathology of schizophrenia. The revised dopamine hypothesis states that dopamine abnormalities in the
mesolimbic and prefrontal brain regions exist in schizophrenia.
The positive symptoms of schizophrenia include hallucinations and delusions as a result of increased
subcortical release of dopamine
Phobia- Classical conditioning: Phobias. Classical conditioning is used both in understanding and
treating phobias. A phobia is an excessive, irrational fear to something specific, like an object or
situation. When you develop a phobia, classical condition can often explain it.
Korsakoff’s syndrome- Alcoholism: Korsakoff syndrome is a chronic memory disorder caused by severe
deficiency of thiamine (vitamin B-1). Korsakoff syndrome is most commonly caused by alcohol misuse,
but certain other conditions also can cause the syndrome.

64. Read each of the following two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and indicate your answer
using the codes given below:

Assertion (A): Increased metabolic activity in frontal cortex and the caudate nucleus has been implicated
in Obsessive Compulsive Disorder.

Reason (R): Current evidence suggests that increased serotonin activity and increased sensitivity of some
brain structures to serotonin are involved in Obsessive Compulsive Symptoms.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (B)
Explanation:
OCD can be defined as Excessive thoughts (obsessions) that lead to repetitive behaviours (compulsions).
Some research links the development of OCD to a chemical imbalance of serotonin in the brain and other
studies link it to increased metabolic activity in frontal cortex and the caudate nucleus but both are not
explanations of each other.