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RMS Mock Test 3 2023

The document contains information about an entrance exam for admission to military schools in India. It provides details about the exam structure, including the number of questions and marks for each subject (Science, Maths, English, Social Science, Hindi). It also includes instructions for taking the exam such as duration, question format, and how to fill out the answer sheet. The document aims to inform candidates about the exam format and guidelines.

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Shulabh kaushik
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100% found this document useful (1 vote)
536 views20 pages

RMS Mock Test 3 2023

The document contains information about an entrance exam for admission to military schools in India. It provides details about the exam structure, including the number of questions and marks for each subject (Science, Maths, English, Social Science, Hindi). It also includes instructions for taking the exam such as duration, question format, and how to fill out the answer sheet. The document aims to inform candidates about the exam format and guidelines.

Uploaded by

Shulabh kaushik
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
You are on page 1/ 20

Admission Helpline No: 7404503977 DISHAYEN COACHING CENTRE(CLICK HERE )

CET-2022(DCC-14)
DIRECTORATE GENERAL OF OF MILITARY TRAINING (MT – 15)
QUESTION PAPER FOR ADMISSION TO RASHTRIYA MILITARY
SCHOOL AT CHAIL, AJMER, BELGAUM, BANGALORE AND
DHOLPUR FOR CLASS IX FOR ACADMIC SESSION 2021-2022

SECTION NO. OF QUESTIONS MAX MARKS PAGE


SCIENCE 50 50 MARKS DCC
MATHEMATICS 50 50 MARKS DCC
ENGLISH 50 50 MARKS DCC
SOCIAL SCIENCE 30 30 MARKS DCC
HINDI 20 20 MARKS DCC

ROLL NO. __________ MAX TIME ALLOWED 2H 30 MIN

INSTRUCTIONS
1. Do not open this test booklet until you are asked to do so. Immediately after the commencement of
the examination, you should id check that this test booklet does not have any unprinted or turn or
missing pages or question etc. If so get it replaced by a complete new test booklet

2. You have to enter your roll number on the test booklet in the space provided above

3. This textbook contains 2000 questions in 5 section mentioned above. Each question comprises four
responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the answer sheet. In case
you feel that there in more than one correct response marks the response which you consider the best.
In any case choose only response for each question. If more than one circle is shaded. It will be treated
as wrong answer

4. All questions are of objective type with multiple choice answers and carry equal marks. There is no
negative marking

5. Please use black/blue ball pen to completely darken the circle corresponding to the correct answer.
You have to mark all your response only on the separate OMR answer sheet provided. Before you
proceed to mark the response to various questions of the test booklet in the answer sheet you have to
fill in some particulars in the OMR answer sheet as par instruction given in the answer sheet

6. After you have completed filling in all your response on the answer sheet and the examination has
concluded. You should hand over to the invigilator only the OMR answer sheet. You are premised to
take away with you the test booklet.

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8. Four runners started running


mathematics simultaneously from a point on a circular
track. They took 200 seconds, 300 seconds,
1. The least number of five digits which has 360 seconds and 450 seconds to complete
123 as a factor is one round. After how much time do they meet
(a) 10037 (b) 10086 at the starting point for the first time ?

(c) 10081 (d) 10063 (a) 1800 seconds (b) 3600 seconds

2. Product of two co-prime numbers is 117. (c) 2400 seconds (d) 4800 seconds
Then their L.C.M. is
9. The smallest positive integer, when
(a) 117 (b) 9 multiplied by 392, the product is a perfect
square, is
(c) 13 (d) 39
(a) 6 (b) 5
3. The sum of √0.01 + √0.81 + √1.21 +
√0.009 is : (c) 3 (d) 2

(a) 2.1 (b) 2.13 √24+√6


10. Evaluate :
√24−√6
(c) 2.03 (d) 2.11
(a) 2 (b) 3
4. If (125)2/3× (625)–1/4 = 5x the value of x is
(c) 4 (d) 5
(a) 3 (b) 2
11. The ratio of the length of a school ground
(c) 0 (d) 1 to its width is 5 : 2. If the width is 40 m, then
the length is
5. If A : B = 3 : 4, B : C = 5 : 7 and C : D = 8 : 9
then A : D is equal to (a) 200 m (b) 100 m
(a) 3 : 7 (b) 7 : 3 (c) 50 m (d) 80 m
(c) 21 : 10 (d) 10 : 21 12. If by selling an article for Rs. 390 a
shopkeeper gains 20%, then the cost price is
6. If x% of 25/2 is 150, then the value of x is :
(a) Rs. 350 (b) Rs. 325
(a) 1000 (b) 1200
(c) Rs. 300 (d) Rs. 370
(c) 1400 (d) 1500
13. In a school 70% of the students are girls.
7. If 3 times a number exceeds its 3/5 by 60,
The number of boys are 510. Then the total
then what is the number ?
number of students in the school is :
(a) 25 (b) 35
(a) 850 (b) 1700
(c) 45 (d) 60
(c) 1830 (d) 1900

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14. A merchant loses 10% by selling an 21. The ratio of the area of a square to that of
article. If the cost price of the article is 15, the square drawn on its diagonal is :
then the selling price of the article is
(a) 1 : 1 (b) 1 : 2
(a) 13.20 (b) 16.50
(c) 1 : 3 (d) 1 : 4
(c) 12.30 (d) 13.50
22. Find the unit’s digit in the product of 437,
15. How much simple interest will Rs. 4000 82, 28, 45 and 47.
earn in 18 months at 12% per annum?
(a) 0 (b) 1
(a) Rs. 216 (b) Rs. 360
(c) 2 (d) 3
(c) Rs. 720 (d) Rs. 960
23. The greatest number, which when divide
16. The principal, which will amount to 989 and 1327 leave remainders 5 and 7
270.40 in 2 years at the rate of 4% per annum respectively, is :
compound interest, is
(a) 8 (b) 16
(a) 200 (b) 225
(c) 24 (d) 32
(c) 250 (d) 220
24. 1008 divided by which single digit
17. A can do a piece of work in 4 hours; B and number gives a perfect square ?
C can do it in 3 hours. A and C can do it in 2
hours. How long will B alone take to do it ? (a) 9 (b) 4

(a) 10 hours (b) 12 hours (c) 8 (d) 7

(c) 8 hours (d) 24 hours 25. If x=12 and y=4 then find (x+y)

18. A car goes 10 metres in a second. Find its (a) 4096 (b) 3066
speed in km/hour. (c) 3616 (d) 4226
(a) 40 (b) 32 26. The third proportional to 0.8 and 0.2 is :
(c) 48 (d) 36 (a) 0.05 (b) 0.8
19. If 3x+3 + 7 = 250, then x is equal to (c) 0.4 (d) 0.032
(a) 5 (b) 3 27. If 125% of x is 100, then x is :
(c) 2 (d) 1 (a) 80 (b) 150
20. If ฀ABC is an isosceles triangle with ฀C = (c) 400 (d) 125
90° and AC = 5 cm, then AB is :
28. At what rate per cent per annum will a
(a) 5 cm (b) 10 cm sum of Rs.1,000 amounts to Rs.1,102.50 in 2
years at compound interest ?
(c) 5 √2 cm (d) 2.5 cm

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(a) 6.5% (b) 5% (a) 22/3 (b) 44/3

(c) 6% (d) 5.5% (c) 44 (d) 22

29. On sports day, if 30 children were made to 35. A pair of a coin is tossed find the
stand in a column, then 16 columns could be probability of getting one head one tail
formed. If 24 children were made to stand in
a column, then how many columns could be (a) 1/2 (b) 1/3
formed? (c) 5/12 (d) ¼
(a) 18 (b) 20 36. Three cubes each of side 10 cm are joined
(c) 22 (d) 24 end to end find the surface area of resultant
figure
30. Two dice are tossed the probability that
the total score is a prime number is (a) 1350 (b) 1400

(a) 1/6 (b) 1/2 (c) 1420 (d) none of these

(c) 5/12 (d) 7/9 37. The surface area of a cube is 486 square
metre then its volume is
31. Find the area of a rhombus whose
diagonals are of lengths 10 cm and 8.2 cm (a) 729 (b) 781

(a) 18 (b) 25 (c) 625 (d) none of these

(c) 42 (d) 24 38. Find the area of a sector of a circle having


radius 4 cm and angle 40o
32. Find the height of a cylinder whose radius
is 7 cm and the total surface area is 968 cm2 (a) 5.59 (b) 38.5

(a) 51 (b) 30 (c) 5.5 (d) 15

(c) 26 (d) 15 39. If a number is as much greater than 31 as


it is less than 75, then the number is
33. Profit of 936000 has to be divided among
three partner Aniruddh, Balwant and Pankaj (a) 106 (b) 44
in the respective ratio 2:3:5 how much does (c) 74 (d) 53
Pankaj get
40. The least number which when divided by
(a) 280800 (b) 187200 4, 6, 8, 12 and 16 leaves a remainder of 2 in
(c) 468000 (d) 155000 each case is :

34. The conference of a circle is equal to the (a) 46 (b) 48


perimeter of an equilateral triangle if the (c) 50 (d) 56
radius of the circle is 7 cm what is the length
of the side of the equilateral triangle 41. The value of√0.000441 . is equal to :

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(a) 0.21 (b) 0.0021 48. If √3 n = 2187 then the value of n is :

(c) 0.021 (d) 0.00021 (a) 13 (b) 14

42. If mn = 169, what is the value of (m+1)(n–1) (c) 15 (d) 16


? (a) 14 (b) 13
3𝑥+2𝑦
49. If x : y = 2 : 3, then the value of is
(c) 196 (d) 170 9𝑥+5𝑦
equal to
43. 6200 divided into three parts
proportional to 1/2 : 1/3 : 1/5 are (a) 11/4 (b) 4/11
respectively
(c) 1/2 (d) 5/14
(a) 3000, 2000, 1200

(b) 3500, 1500, 1200 50. √2 + √2 + √2 … … . is equal to

(c) 2500, 2000, 1700 (a) √2 (b) 2√2

(d) 2200, 3000, 1000 (c) 2 (d) 3

44. If 50% of (x – y) = 30% of (x + y), then


what per cent of x is y? science
(a) 25% (b) 100/3 % 51. The increase in concentration of which
gas is not responsible for Global Warming?
(c) 40% (d) 400%
(a) Sulphur dioxide (b) Nitrogen
45. 2 16 –1 is divisible by
(c) Carbon dioxide (d) Methane
(a) 11 (b) 13
52. The Halley’s Comet is seen after every
(c) 17 (d) 19
(a) 76 months (b) 76 years
46. Five bells begin to toll together and toll
respectively at intervals of 6, 7, 8, 9 and 12 (c) 56 months (d) 56 years
seconds. After how many seconds will they
toll together again ? 53. Beam of light striking the reflecting
surface is called
(a) 72 Sec. (b) 612 Sec.
(a) reflecting ray (b) incident ray
(c) 504 Sec. (d) 318 Sec.
(c) refracted ray (d) normal ray
√0.441
47. The value of is equal to :
√0.625 54. The power of an earthquake is expressed
on a scale called
(a) 0.048 (b) 0.84
(a) seismic scale (b) iron scale
(c) 0.48 (d) 0.084
(c) richter scale (d) large scale

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55. Which of the following does not conduct 61. The liquid material in the nucleus is
electricity?
(a) chromosomes (b) bacteria
(a) Sugar solution
(c) nucleoplasm (d) nucleolus
(b) Vinegar solution
62. Deforestation leads to
(c) Lemon juice solution
(a) an increase in the temperature of the
(d) Caustic soda solution earth

56. Sound is a kind of (b) imbalance of O2 and CO2

(a) work (b) energy (c) increase in rainfall

(c) force (d) pressure (d) both (a) and (b)

57. A matchstick catches fire when struck 63. The burning of LPG is an example of
against the side of the matchbox because:
(a) rapid combustion
(a) of the chemicals
(b) spontaneous combustion
(b ) of friction
(c) slow combustion
(c) friction produces a spark and the
(d) explosion
(d) none of these chemicals catches fire
64. Petroleum is mainly a mixture of which
58. Force acting on per unit area is called one of the following class?

(a) non-contact forces (b) contact forces (a) Carbohydrates (b) Carbogens

(c) force (d) pressure (c) Hydrocarbons (d) Alcohols

59. When a sperm having X-chromosome 65. The non-metal which has very high
fuses with the ovum, the child born will be melting point is:

(a) male (a) sulphur (b) iodine

(b) female (c) phosphorus (d) graphite

(c) male as well as female twin 66. Which fibre is used as artificial wool?

(d) it depends on the chance of fusion (a) Acrylic (b) Rayon

60. Binary fission is observed in (c) Nylon (d) Cotton

(a) Hydra (b) yeast 67. Which of the following drug is an


antipyretic?
(c) Amoeba (d) human being
(a) Insulin (b) Alcohol

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(c) Streptomycin (d) Paracetamol (a) baby (b) foetus

68. Which is pesticides? (c) embryo (d) none of these

(a) 2, 4-dichlorophenoxyacetic acid 75. The pressure exerted by a liquid:

(b) Malathion (a) decreases with depth

(c) Metolachlor (b) does not change with depth

(d) Chloroform (c) increases with depth

69. The bread or dosa dough rises because of (d) is different in different directions at he
the action of: same depth

(a) heat (b) grinding 76. Which instrument is used for spraying
weedicides?
(c) growth of yeast cells (d) none of these
(a) Sprayer (b) Cultivator
70. The most reactive metal is
(c) Plough (d) Combine
(a) copper (b) silver
77. The process by which amount of nitrogen
(c) potassium (d) calcium remains the same in the atmosphere is known
71. The main elements present In petroleum as
are: (a) fermentation (b) carbon cycle
(a) carbon and oxygen (c) nitrogen cycle (d) photosynthesis
(b) carbon and nitrogen 78. Which of the following is natural fibre
(c) carbon and hydrogen obtained from plants?

(d) hydrogen and oxygen (a) Cotton (b) Wool

72. The zone of a flame used by goldsmith for (c) Rayon (d) Ketone
melting gold and silver is: 79. A substance which cannot be broken
(a) innermost zone (b) middle zone down further by chemical reactions, by
cooling, heating, or by electrolysis, is called
(c) outermost zone (d) all of these ______

73. Which of the following is not a major (a) Metal (b) Non Metal
component of protoplasm:
(c) Element (d) Compound
(a) hydrogen (b) nitrogen
80. Petroleum is found under the
(c) Sulphur (d) oxygen
(a) sedimentary rocks (b) water
74. The developing zygote is called:

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(c) sand (d) coke (a) sodium (b) magnesium

81. Acid rain contains mainly (c) iodine (d) bromine

(a) oxygen and nitrogen gas 87. State of motion is described by

(b) fluorine and chlorine gas (a) Position of rest

(c) magnesium oxide (b) Position of motion

(d) nitrogen oxide and sulphur dioxide (c) Both by the state of rest or motion

82. The plants found in a particular area are (d) None of these
termed as
88. Which of the following is true:
(a) flora (b) fauna
(a) We write on a paper with pen due to
(c) species (d) all of the above friction

83. Which of the following combinations are (b) A nail is fixed in the wall due to friction
present in plant cell but not in animal cell
(c) Soles of shoes wear out due of friction
(a) Cell Wall & Plastid
(d) All of these
(b) Cell wall and Cell membrane
89. The frequency determines the of a sound.
(c) Plastid and Nucleus
(a) loudness
(d) Cell Membrane and Cytoplasm
(b) pitch
84. Sets of reproductive terms are given
below. Choose the set that has an incorrect (c) both loudness and pitch
combination. (d) none of these
(a) Sperm, testis, sperm duct, penis 90. Copper is
(b) Menstruation, egg, oviduct, uterus (a) a good conductor
(c) Sperm, oviduct, egg, uterus (b) an insulator
(d) Ovulation, egg, oviduct, uterus (c) both (a) and (b)
85. Which one of the following is not a part of (d) none of these
female reproductive organs?
91. When two bodies are rubbed against each
(a) Uterus (b) Ovary other, they acquire
(c) Oviduct (d) Penis (a) equal and like charges
86. Production of thyroxin requires (b) equal and unlike charges

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(c) unequal and like charges a) Blue Data book

(d) unequal and unlike charges b) Red Data book

92. Light enters the eye through c) Green data book

(a) eye lens (b) pupil d) Black data Book

(c) cornea (d) retina 98. 1 kilogram weight is equal to

93. If the angle of incidence of light falling on (a) 98 N (b) 9.8 N


a plane mirror is 30°, what will be the angle of
reflection? (c) 0.98 N (d) 0.098 N

(a) 90° (b) 60° 99. A spring balance is used for measuring

(c) 30° (d) 0° (a) mass (b) weight

94. What term is used for celestial bodies that (c) pressure (d) speed
revolve around the Sun in highly elliptical 100. Which of the following occurs during
orbit? lightning?
(a) Comet (b) Meteors (a) Acid rain (b) Nitrogen fixation
(c) Asteroids (d) Planets (c) Green house effect (d) Earthing
95. Carbon monoxide in vehicle exhaust
causes english
(a) Increased oxygen carrying capacity of
DIRECTION (Q. 101 -105 ) Read the passage
RBCs
given below complete the sentence that
(b) Reduced Nitrogen carrying capacity of follow
RBCs
The kingdom of books is as vast as the
(c) Reduced oxygen carrying capacity of RBCs universe, for there is no corner of it which
they have left unexplored. There is no dearth
(d) Reduced carbon carrying capacity of RBCs of books on any topic, be it as simple as the
composition of sodium nitrate or as intricate
96. Supply of water to crops at appropriate
as the mechanism of a space craft rocketing
intervals is called
towards the Mars. We make use of books for
(a) cultivation (b) irrigation the dissemination of useful ideas, for
popularising the fruits of our research in
(c) harvesting (d) sowing various fields of knowledge and for spreading
our progressive views on matters which are
97. ____ is the Source book which keeps a
of vital concern to our fellow beings. In fact,
record of all the endangered animals and
no single product of human labour has been
plants.
as helpful to the advancement of civilisation

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as books which are written in all languages of (c) lineant (d) benefit
the world and which are decoratively placed
in bookshelves in our homes and tastefully Choose the appropriate synonym for each
displayed in bookstalls and libraries. If to of the word below
Keats works of ancient poets like Homer were 106. FALSE
realms of gold from which he derived much
joy as well as inspiration, to the modem lover (A) Untrue (B) Incorrect
of books, the labours of all geniuses, including
those of Keats, are mines of inestimable (C) Inaccurate (D) Defective
intellectual wealth which he goes on 107. FESTAL
exploring for the sake of his mental and
spiritual advancement. (A) Noisy (B) Merry

101. The kingdom of books is compared to (C) Sad (D) Serious


……………………
108. Want
(a) a nation (b) universe.
(A) wish (B) Refuse
(c) a country (d) a state
(C) Detest (D) Hesitate
102. The books are used for ……………………
109. ERRAND
(a) for gaining knowledge
(A) Error (B) Misadventure
(b) for learning new things
(C) Mission (D) Foolishness
(c) for gaining useful ideas
110. ALERT
(d) all the above
(A) Live (B) Watchful
103. Keats was inspired by:
(C) Smart (D) Active
(a) Ancient poets (b) Homer
Find the word correctly spelt word
(c) Wordsworth (d) Robert Frost
111. (A) separate (B) Seperate
104. The appropriate title for the passage is:
(C) Seperete (D) Separete
(a) Books
112. (A) aeroplain (B) aeroplane
(b) Books and Men
(C) aroplain (D) aroplane
(c) Books are the temple of learning
113. (A) moskitoes (B) mosqwitose
(d) Books—An everlasting companion
(C) mosquitoes (D) mosquitoes
105. ‘Dearth’ means:
114. (A) Restuarent (B) Restaurant
(a) scarcity (b) plenty

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(C) Resturant (D) Restaurent (C) Coffee was being taken by me.

115. (A) Thorogh (B) Thurough (D) Coffee has been taken by me.

(C) Thorouh (D) Thorough 122.Who saw the thief?

Fill in the blanks with appropriate option: (A) Who has seen the thief?

116. See you ____ Wednesday morning. (B) By whom was the thief seen?

(A) at (B) on (C) By whom was the thief been seen?

(C) by (D) of (D) By whom has the thief been seen?

117. Fuel is a source _____ energy. 123. Does he help the poor?

(A) of (B) in (A) Were the poor helped by him?

(C) for (D) over (B) The poor was helped by him?

118. I’ll be home _____ 6’o clock. (C) Are the poor helped by him?

(A) in (B) since (D) Is the poor helped by him?

(C) on (D) by 124. She wrote some letters.

119. There are national parks _____ some parts (A) Some letters had written by her.
of the country.
(B) Some letters have written by her.
(A) in (B) of
(C) Some letters were written by her.
(C) at (D) over
(D) Some letters are written by her.
120.Who was the first man _____ the moon?
125. My mother loves me.
(A) in (B) at
(A) I had loved by my mother.
(C) of (D) on
(B) I have loved by my mother.
In the questions below the sentence have
been given in Active / Passive voice from (C) I am loved by my mother.
the given alternatives choose the one with (D) I was loved by my mother.
best Express the given sentence in
Passive/Active voice In the following questions a sentence has
been given in Direct/Indirect speech out
121. I was taking coffee. of the four alternative suggested, select
(A) Coffee is being taken by me. the one which best expresses the same
sentence in Direct/Indirect speech
(B) Coffee was taken by me.

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126. He said, “I am glad to be here this (b) He exclaimed that she did not have a
evening.” lovely voice.

(a) He said he was glad to be here this (c) He exclaimed that she does not have a
evening. lovely voice.

(b) He says he was glad to be here this (d) He exclaimed that she had a very lovely
evening. voice.

(c) He asked he is glad to be here this 130. “I don't know why they haven't signed
evening. the papers and accepted the gift,” said Crene
to me.
(d) He said that he was glad to be there that
evening. (a) Crene told me that he don’t know why
they haven’t signed the papers and accepted
127. He said, “I have passed the examination.” the gift.
(a) He announced that he has passed the (b) Crene told me that I don't know why they
examination. haven't signed the papers and accepted the
(b) He said that he had to pass the gift.
examination (c) Crene said to me that he didn’t know why
(c) He said that he has passed the they hadn’t signed the papers and accepted
examination the gift.

(d) He said that he had passed the (d) Crene told me that he didn’t know why
examination. they hadn’t signed the papers and accepted
the gift.
128. “Jack fell as he’d have wished,” the
mother said. Out of the four alternatives, choose the
one which can be substituted for the given
(a) The mother said that Jack fell as he had words/sentence
wished.
131. The word is no longer in use.
(b) The mother said that Jack has fallen as he
has wished. (a) old fashion (b) antique

(c) The mother said that Jack had been fallen (c) vanished (d) obsolete
as he would have been wished. 132. Full of twists and turns
(d) The mother said that Jack had fallen as he (a) Cinch (b) Tortuous
would have wished.
(c) Fascile (d) Smooth
129. He said, “What a lovely voice she has !”
133. Suitable or intended for only young
(a) He exclaimed that she has a very lovely persons
voice.
(a) puerile (b) adolescent

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(c) juvenile (d) youthful 140. Receiving his first award was a shot in
the arm for him.
134. One skilled in telling stories
(a) something that is painful
(a) Raconteur (b) Ventral
(b) something that needs attention
(c) Tyro (d) Fanatic
(c) something done with a purpose
135. Government by a ruler who has
unlimited power. (d) something that gives encouragement

(a) Monarchy (b) Anarchy Direction (Q.141-145) Fill in the blanks


choosing the most appropriate word from
(c) Autocracy (d) Despotism the given options
In each of the following questions, four Four cases of burglary have been ...(141)...
alternatives are given for the with the arrest of one ...(142)... criminal. The
Idiom/Phrase in bold in the sentence. police have ...(143)... gold and silver jewellery
Choose the alternative which best from him. The police increased their public
expresses the meaning of the contacts with the residents of the area after
Idiom/Phrase as your answer. following a spate of burglaries. They held
136. carry out corner meetings to ...(144)... the residents on
steps to ...(145)... prevention.
(a) continue (b) complete something
141. (a) connected (b) adjusted
(c) to take in (d) bring
(c) solved (d) deferred
137. I have taken fancy to this car.
142. (a) notorious (b) more
(a) revised (b) developed liking for
(c) thief (d) imprisoned
(c) improved (d) given imaginative touches
143. (a) withdrawn (b) amassed
138. He beats about the bush.
(c) sold (d) recovered
(a) talks continuously
144. (a) harass (b) arrest
(b) speak well
(c) probe (d) educate
(c) does not talk specifically
145. (a) loss (b) crime
(d) talks sensibly
(c) its (d) burglar
139. My kith and kin congratulated me on
my brilliant success. Complete the following by the correct
Question tags.
(a) father and mother (b) relatives
146. We can take a taxi, _____?
(c) colleagues (d) niece and nephew
(A) Can i (B) Can we

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(C) Do they (D) Can’t we 153. Who was the founder of the 'Servant of
India Society'?
147. She was absent yesterday, _____?
(A) G.K. Gokhale (B) M.G. Ranade
(A) Does she (B) Was she
(C) B.G. Tilak (D) Bipin Chandra Pal
(C) Wasn’t she (D) I she
154. Who gave the slogan “Inquilab
148. The baby looks cute, _____? Zindabad?
(A) Doesn’t it (B) Do they (A) Chandrashekhar Azad
(C) Does it (D) Will it (B) Subhash Chandra Bose
149. He works very hard, _____? (C) Bhagat Singh
(A) Did he (B) Do he (D) Iqbal
(C) Does he (D) Doesn’t he 155. In which years did Gandhiji start
150. I need not get up early tomorrow, _____? Satyagraha Movement?

(A) Need I (B) Should I (A) 1919 (B) 1917

(C) Shall I (D) Can I (c) 1934 (d) 1909

156. The members of Lok Sabha hold office


Social science for a term of

(A) 4 years (B) 5 years


151. Who was the first Indian Governor-
General of India? (C) 6 years (D) 3 years

(A) B.R. Ambedkar 157. The minimum age to qualify for election
to the Lok Sabha is
(B) C.Rajgopalachari
(A) 25 years (B) 21 years
(C) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(C) 18 years (D) 35 years
(D) Dr. S.Radhakrishnan
158. Pick out the date on which the new
152. The “Arya Samaj” was founded by
Indian Constitution came into force.
(A) Swami Dayananda Saraswati
(A) On 26 January 1949
(B) Swami Vivekananda
(B) On 26 January 1950
(C) Keshav Chandra Sen
(C) On 26 January 1952
(D) Ishwar Chandra Vidya-Sagar
(D) On 26 January 1947

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159. What is the national motto of India? 165. The minimum age required to become a
member of Rajya Sabha is
(A) Satyamev Jayate
(A) 21 years (B) 25 years
(B) Vande Mataram
(C) 30 years (D) 35 years
(C) Jai Jawan Jai Kisan
166. Which is the first national park of India?
(D) Jai Hind
(A) Kanha National Park
160. The minimum age of the voter in India is
(B) Dudhwa National Park
(A) 15 years (B) 18 years
(C) Corbett National Park
(C) 21 years (D) 25 years
(D) Rajaji National Park
161. Who, among the following, has been
known as the 'Frontier Gandhi'? 167. When was the United Nations
Organization established?
(A) Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan
(A) 20 January 1919
(B) Khan Saheb
(B) 20 January 1920
(C) Chaudhary Shaukatullah
(C) 24 October 1945
(D) Liaquat Ali Khan
(D) 20 January 1940
162. Which city is known as electronic city?
168. When was the Gandhi Irwin Pact made?
(A) Jaipur (B) Gurgaon
(A) 1935 (B) 1931
(C) Bangalore (D) Patna
(C) 1929 (D) 1932
163. The members of Parliament can express
themselves in the House in 169. The first newspaper which was
published in India was
(A) English only
(A) The Calculatta Gazette
(B) Hindi only
(B) The Calculatta Gazette
(C) English or Hindi
(C) The Oriental Maganize of Calculatta
(D) English, Hindi or mother tongue
(D)The Bengal Gazette
164. Where is the headquarters of the
International Court of Justice located? 170. Who wrote Waiting for the Mahatma?

(A) Paris (B) New York (A) MJ Akbar (B) Pran Chopra

(C) Geneva (D) The Hague (C) RK Narayan (D) Rajmohan Gandhi

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171. When was the World Trade Organization 177. When was the demand for a separate
established? Pakistan raised?

(A) 1991 (B) 1997 (a) 1940 (b) 1935

(C) 1995 (D) 1999 (c) 1967 (d) 1955

172. Which of the following movement was 178. Which law was called black law by
NOT led by Mahatma Gandhi? Gandhiji?

(A) Champarah Satyagraha (a) salt law (b) Rowlatt Act

(B) Wahabi Movement (c) Hunter Commission (d) none of these

(C) Non-Coorperation Movement 179. Between whom was the first battle of
Panipat (1526) fought?
(D) Civil Disobedience Movenment
(a) Babur and Ibrahim Lodi
173. Numismatics is the study of what?
(b) Akbar and Ibrahim Lodi
(A) Coins (B) Number
(c) Shah Jahan and Ibrahim Lodi
(C) Ticket (D) Space
(d) Humayun and Ibrahim Lodi
174. In which year the Right to Information
Act was passed? 180. Laterite is the main soil

(A)2001 AD (B)2005 AD (a) Malabar Coastal Region

(C)2004 AD (D) 2002 AD (b) in the Coromandel Coast

175. Who said that "India's Soul live in (c) in Bundelkhand


villages”?
(d) in Baghelkhand
(A) Vinoba Bhave

(B) Jayaprakash Narayan


ह िं दी
(c) Jawahar Lal Nehru 181. ‘घर में नह ीं दाने अम्मा चल भु नाने’ लोकोक्ति
का सह अर्थ होगा -
(D) Mahatma Gandhi
(A) सामथ्र्य से बाहर कायथ करना
176. In which year did the Simon Commission
arrive in India?
(B) शे ख मारना
(a) 1928 (b) 1935
(C) व्यर्थ के कामोीं में समय नष्ट करना
(c) 1947 (d) 1921
(D) ना होने पर भ ढोींग करना

182. ननन्यान्वें के फेर में पड़ना’ मु हावरे का अर्थ है .

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(A) धन जोड़ने में लगे रहना (c) पानण (d) कर

(B) मू खथता के कायथ कर बैठना 189. पक्ष का पयाथ यवाच शब्द नह ीं है ?

(C) नकस चक्कर में पड़ जाना (a) नवहग (b) पररीं दा

(D) पररवार के झींझटोीं में फींसे रहना (c) करका (d) परवेरू

183. घोड़ा शब्द का तत्सम शब्द है 190. ″ कतथव्य” में प्रत्यय?

(A) घोड़ा (B) घटक (A) ते (B) य

(C) घोटक (D) घटक (C) वय (D) तव्य

184. शु द्ध शब्द छााँ नठए 191. ननम्न में से कौन सा शब्द शु द्व है ।

(a) नन:स्वार्ी (b) ननस्वार्थ (A) कृतज्ञ (B) कृतग्य

(c) ननस्स्स्वार्थ (d) नन:स्वार्थ (C) नक्रतग्य (D) प्रनतग्या

185. इनमें से कौन सा शब्द सक्ति का उदहारण नह 192. ‘आज वन’शब्द में समास है ?
है ।
(A) अव्यय (B) तत्पु रुष
(a) सींसार (b) अत्यींत
(C) द्वीं द (D) बहुब्र नह
(c) सदाचार (d) सामानजक
193. ननम्न में से सह कर्न नह ीं है ?
186. इनमें से सह सींनध नवच्छेद का उदहारण है ।
(A) स्वर 15 होते हैं
(a) तर्ै व = तर्ा + ऐव
(B) स्वर को 2 भागोीं में बाीं टा जाता है
(b) स् वच्द = स्व + च्छ
(C) नजन स्वरोीं को बोलने में अनधक समय लगे उन्हें
(c) महनषथ = महा + ऋनष द घथ स्वर कहते हैं

(d) अन् वेषण = अनु + ऐषण (D) नजन स्वरोीं को बोलने में कम समय लगे उन्हें ह्रस्व
स्वर कहते हैं
187. नकस क्रम में अशु द्ध वतथन है
194. अिा होना’ मु हावरे का अनभप्राय है -
(A) अक्तन्वष्ट (B) औषनध
A.आाँ खोीं से नदखाई न दे ना
(C) उन्ननत (D) कनवींद्र
B.जहााँ धााँ धल का बोलबाला हो
188. ननम्ननलक्तखत में कौनसा शब्द ‘हार्’ का
पयाथ यवाच नह ीं है ? C.आाँ ख से काना

(a) कनट (b) हस्त D.नववेक भ्रष्ट होना

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195. शु द्ध वतथन के नवकल्प का चयन क नजए_

(a) सींनक्षप्त करण (b) सींसत्सदस्य

(c) सहस्त्र (d) सींद पनन

196. नौ, दो ___ होना

(a) बारह (b) तेरह

(c) ग्यारह (d) दस

197. रामायण का सींनध रूप होगा ?

(A) राम+आयन (B) राम+अयन

(C) राम+यन (D) रमा+आयन

198 उसने पढ़ा र्ा। इस वाक्य में काल है ?

(A) आदु ननक्काल (B) भू तकाल

(C) वतथमानकाल (D) इनमें से कोई नह ीं

199. राम ध रे ध रे पढता है इस वाक्य में ‘ध र-ध रे ’


शब्द है ?

(A) सवथनाम (B) अव्यय

(C) नकयाथ -नवशे ष्ण (D) नवशे ष्ण

200. प्रत्यपथण शब्द मे उपसगथ लगा हुआ है ?

A. प्र B. प्रनत

C. प्रत्य D. पर

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Answer key
1-b 21-b 41-c 61-c 81-d 101.b 121.c 141.c 161-a 181.d
2-a 22-a 42-a 62-d 82-a 102.d 122.b 142.a 162-c 182.a
3-b 23-c 43-a 63-a 83-a 103.b 123.c 143.d 163-d 183.b
4-d 24-d 44-a 64-c 84-c 104.d 124.c 144.d 164-d 184.c
5-d 25-a 45-c 65-d 85-d 105.a 125.c 145.b 165-c 185.d
6- 26-a 46-c 66-a 86-c 106.a 126.d 146.d 166-c 186.c
7-a 27-a 47-b 67-d 87-c 107.b 127.d 147.c 167-c 187.d
8-a 28-b 48-b 68-b 88-d 108.a 128.d 148.a 168-b 188.a
9-d 29-b 49-b 69-c 89-b 109.c 129.d 149.d 169-d 189.c
10-b 30-c 50-b 70-c 90-a 110. b 130.d 150.a 170-c 190.d
11-b 31-c 51-b 71-c 91-b 111.a 131.d 151-b 171-c 191.a
12-b 32-d 52-b 72-c 92-c 112.b 132.b 152-a 172-b 192.a
13-b 33-c 53-b 73-c 93-c 113.d 133.c 153-a 173-a 193.a
14-d 34-b 54-c 74-c 94-a 114.b 134.a 154-c 174-b 194.d
15-c 35-a 55-a 75-c 95-c 115. d 135.c 155-b 175-d 195.C
16-c 36-b 56-b 76-a 96-b 116.b 136.b 156-b 176. a 196.C
17-b 37-a 57-c 77-c 97-b 117.a 137.b 157-a 177.a 197.a
18-d 38-a 58-d 78-a 98-b 118.d 138.c 158-b 178.b 198.B
19-c 39-d 59-b 79-c 99-b 119.a 139.b 159-a 179. a 199.c
20-c 40-c 60-c 80-a 100-b 120.d 140.d 160-b 180. a 200.b

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