Human Performance & Limitation (HPL)

1. The percentage of Oxygen in the atmosphere:

a. Decreases with an increase in altitude
b. Remains constant up to approximately 33 700 feet
c. Remains constant up to approximately 70 000 feet
d. Increases with an increase in altitude

2. The approximate altitude where the atmospheric pressure is half the sea- level value is:
a. 10 000 feet
b. 12 000 feet
c. 18 000 feet
d. 33 000 feet

3. A healthy pilot should be able to operate without suffering the effects of hypoxia up to altitudes of:
a. 10 000 feet
b. 16 000 feet
c. 18 000 feet
d. 20 000 feet

4. The percentage of Oxygen in the atmosphere remains at 21%, by volume:

a. Up to 10 000 feet
b. Up to 18 000 feet
c. Up to 8 000 feet
d. Throughout the majority of the atmosphere

5. Pilots need to breathe supplementary Oxygen when flying at high altitude because of:
a. The decreased temperature
b. Decreased atmospheric pressure, and a decrease in the partial pressure of Oxygen
c. A decrease in the proportion of Oxygen by volume
d. The upper limit of the Troposphere

6. The respective percentages of the gases that make up the atmosphere are:
a. Nitrogen 78% Oxygen 21% Argon 0.95% Carbon Dioxide and trace gases 0.05%
b. Oxygen 78% Nitrogen 21% Argon 0.95% Carbon Dioxide 0.05%
c. Nitrogen 78% Oxygen 21% Argon 0.05% Carbon Dioxide and trace gases 0.95%
d. Oxygen 78% Nitrogen 21% Argon 0.95% Carbon Dioxide 0.05%

7. At 36 000 feet, the air pressure is:

a. Three quarters of the sea-level value
b. Half of the sea-level value.
c. One quarter of the sea-level value
d. One tenth of the sea-level value

8. Breathing is regulated by:

a. The will of each human being
b. The presence of hemoglobin in the blood
c. Monitoring changes in the level of Carbon Dioxide in the blood
d. The transfer of Oxygen from the blood to the tissues of the body

Page 1 of 20
Questionnaire
Human Performance & Limitation (HPL)
9. A smoker will feel the symptoms of hypoxia (Oxygen starvation) at:
a. A lower altitude than a non-smoker
b. A higher altitude than a non-smoker
c. The same altitude as a non-smoker
d. Smoking makes no difference to a person's susceptibility to hypoxia

10. On average, how long does it take to eliminate one unit of alcohol from the blood?
a. 24 hours
b. 12 hours
c. One hour
d. 8 hours

11. The mechanism that maintains a constant flow of blood around the body is called:
a. The Respiratory System
b. The Reproduction System
c. The Nervous System
d. The Circulatory System

12. How long after prolonged breathing-in of Carbon Monoxide must a pilot refrain from flying?
a. 8 hours
b. 12 hours
c. Several days
d. 24 hours

13. Pilots should not fly within.... hours of donating blood.

a. 12
b. 24
c. 36
d. 48

14. The main function of the red blood cells is to:

a. Carry Oxygen to the tissues
b. Assist in the clotting process
c. Produce antibodies to fight infection
d. Deliver digested food products to the tissues

15. Angina is caused by:

a. Death of part of the heart muscle
b. A blockage of pulmonary blood vessels
c. Insufficient blood reaching the heart muscle
d. A blocked blood vessel in the brain

16. Carbon monoxide is dangerous because:

a. Its smell and taste are not easily recognizable to the inexperienced pilot
b. Hemoglobin has10 times the affinity for it than it has for Oxygen
c. Hemoglobin has 110 times the affinity for it than it has for Oxygen
d. Hemoglobin has 210 times the affinity for it than it has for Oxygen

17. The damaging levels of alcohol are 21 units for men and 14 units for women. This is:
a. Per day
b. Per week
c. Per month
d. Per year

Page 2 of 20
Questionnaire
Human Performance & Limitation (HPL)

18. Compared to a non-smoker, someone who smokes is likely to experience the effects of hypoxia at:
a. A higher altitude
b. The same altitude
c. A lower altitude
d. Any altitude

19. The % of Oxygen in the atmosphere, by volume, is:

a. 21% to an altitude of 10 000 feet
b. 14% to an altitude of 10 000 feet
c. 21 % to an altitude of 33 700 feet
d. 21% throughout the atmosphere

20. Hypoxia is defined as:

a. The condition where there is insufficient Oxygen to meet the body's needs
b. The altitude at which a person begins to show symptoms of decompression sickness
c. The condition where Carbon Monoxide replaces Oxygen in the white cells
d. The condition where Carbon Dioxide will not bind to hemoglobin

21. At low altitude, the most common symptoms of hyperventilation include:

a. Anxiety, scuba diving, vibration and poor visual acuity
b. Feeling of well-being, shock, heat and poor visual acuity
c. Motion sickness, poor visual acuity, heat and scuba diving
d. Dizziness, visual disorder, anxiety, tingling around feet, hands and lips

22. You have been diving to a depth of 32 feet using SCUBA pressure breathing equipment:
a. Do not fly for a period of 12 hours
b. Do not fly for a period of 24 hours
c. Do not fly for a period of 48 hours
d. There is no limitation on when you can next fly

23. How would a light aircraft pilot perceive the image of a fast moving jet approaching head-on? The image
would be:
a. Small at first and grow in size steadily and regularly
b. Small at first, displaying an immediate rapid growth rate, but less rapidly just before impact
c. Small at first, maintaining a constant size and approach rate
d. Small at first, displaying a slow growth rate, then increasing in size rapidly just before impact

24. The iris is responsible for controlling:

a. The rate of dark adaption
b. The amount of light entering the eye
c. The rate of light adaption
d. The amount of accommodation
25. In order to see an object best, at night, a pilot should:
a. Look directly at the object, blinking several times
b. Look slightly to one side of the object
c. Look directly and intensely at the object
d. Look away from the object and then repeatedly look back at it

Page 3 of 20
Questionnaire
Human Performance & Limitation (HPL)
26. The ability of the lens to change shape to focus an image on the retina is called:
a. Acuity
b. Acclimatization
c. Accommodation
d. Auto-kinesis

27. The sensors called 'Rods':

a. Are sensitive to lower light levels than the 'Cones'
b. Are used primarily by day
c. Are highly sensitive to color changes
d. Are concentrated on the optic nerve

28. Light levels at high altitude are dangerous because they:

a. Cause reflections on the windscreen
b. Contain more of the damaging Blue and UV light
c. Cause the iris to close, blinding the pilot
d. Cause a blind spot on the optic nerve.

29. A person who has 'Myopia'

a. Has a shorter than normal eyeball and vision is corrected with a Concave lens
b. Has a longer than normal eyeball and vision is corrected with a Convex lens
c. Has a shorter than normal eyeball and vision is corrected with a Convex lens
d. Has a longer than normal eyeball and vision is corrected with a Concave lens

30. The part of the eye where we have the best visual acuity is:
a. The fovea
b. The iris
c. The pupil
d. The peripheral retina

31. Astigmatism is the name for:

a. The ability of the lens to change shape
b. An eyeball which is too short
c. A mis-shapen cornea
d. Colorblindness
e.
32. Two light aircraft are on a head-on collision course with a closing speed of 180 knots and a flight visibility of
3 kilometers. If contact was made at maximum visual range, what time is available for either pilot to take
avoiding action?
a. 27 seconds
b. 34 seconds
c. 51 seconds
d. 1 minute and 30 seconds

33. The light-sensitive tissue lining the rear of the eyeball which contains rods and cones is known as:
a. The pupil
b. The cornea
c. The retina
d. The iris

Page 4 of 20
Questionnaire
Human Performance & Limitation (HPL)
34. The three parts of the ear are the:
a. Incus, malleus and stapes
b. Outer, middle and inner
c. Cochlea, otoliths and tympanum
d. Ear lobe, ear canal and ear drum

35. The bones in the middle ear are known collectively as:
a. The otoliths
b. The monoliths
c. The ossicles
d. The saccules

36. A fit young person can detect a range of sounds between:

a. 20 and 20 000 Hertz
b. 500 and 3 000 Hertz
c. 700 and 5 000 Hertz
d. 50 and 10 000 Hertz

37. The function of the eustachian tube is to:

a. Equalize pressure between the middle and inner ear
b. Connect the inner ear to the back of the throat
c. Allow circulation of fluid in the semi-circular canals
d. Equalize pressure between the outer and middle ear

38. Permanent hearing loss may result from continuous exposure to:
a. Noise in excess of 120 decibels
b. Dusty conditions, allowing a build-up in ear wax
c. Noise in excess of 90 decibels
d. Excessive heat which boils the fluid in the semi-circular canals

39. Permanent deafness that is associated with old age, is known as:
a. Myopia
b. Presbyopia
c. Mycusis
d. Presbycusis

40. The main function of the vestibular apparatus is to:

a. Detect angular and linear accelerations
b. Mechanically transmit sound to the cochlea
c. Prevent excessive sounds from damaging the ear drum
d. Prevent excessive sounds from damaging the otoliths

41. To maintain spatial orientation in the absence of visual references, the pilot should:
a. Believe the sensations of his vestibular apparatus
b. Immediately climb to get above cloud
c. Believe the "seat of the pants" sensations from the somatosensory system
d. Believe the aircraft instruments

42. Motion sickness arises when there is:

a. Vertical displacement from the horizontal axis
b. Disorientation caused by loss of visual references
c. A mismatch between visual and vestibular signals
d. Vertical displacement from the longitudinal axis

Page 5 of 20
Questionnaire
Human Performance & Limitation (HPL)

43. Which of the conditions given below, are symptomatic of motion sickness:
i. Nausea
ii. Hypoxia
iii. Hyperventilation
iv. Pallor
v. Stomach cramp
vi. Cold sweating

a. i, ii, iii and iv

b. iii only
c. i, iii, iv and vi
d. i, iii, v and vi

44. What is the cause of conductive deafness?

a. Damage to the Pinna
b. Blockage of the Eustachian Tube
c. Damage to the Ossicles and/or the Ear-Drum
d. Low ambient pressure

45. Which part of the ear senses linear accelerations?

a. The Ossicles
b. The Eustachian Tube
c. The Auditory Nerve
d. The Otoliths in the Vestibular Apparatus

46. The body mass index is obtained by:

a. Multiplying body weight in kilograms by height in meters squared
b. Adding body weight in kilograms to height in meters squared
c. Multiplying body weight in pounds by height in feet squared
d. Dividing body weight in kilograms by height in meters squared

47. A body mass index of 23 for a male or female pilot indicates he/she is:
a. Underweight
b. Normal
c. Overweight
d. Obese

48. In order to be effective, exercise should be:

a. Sufficient to double the resting heart rate for 20 minutes at least twice per week
b. Sufficient to halve the resting heart rate for 20 minutes, at least three times per week
c. Sufficient to double the resting heart rate for 20 minutes, at least three times per week
d. Sufficient to double the resting heart rate for 30 minutes, at least twice a week

49. Breakfast should supply:

a. At least 25% of the daily calorie intake
b. Sufficient calories to spend a whole day at the airfield
c. Enough protein to make up 50% of the daily calories consumed
d. A high fat start to the day to give energy and reduce the risk of heart disease

Page 6 of 20
Questionnaire
Human Performance & Limitation (HPL)
50. An intake of iron is essential for:
a. Improving personal magnetism
b. The manufacture of hemoglobin
c. The production of Rhodopsin to improve night vision
d. Building and maintaining healthy bones and teeth

51. The condition of Gastroenteritis makes a pilot:

a. Fit to fly
b. Fit to fly if no attack has been experienced for an hour
c. Fit to fly provided appropriate medication is being taken
d. Unfit to fly

52. A fit or seizure is symptomatic of:

a. An interruption of the blood supply to the pulmonary system
b. A reduction in the blood supply to the brain
c. An electrical disturbance in the brain
d. The failure of the pancreas to produce insulin

53. The recommended maximum daily caffeine intake is approximately;

a. 150 - 200mg
b. 200 - 250mg
c. 250 - 300mg
d. 300 - 350mg

54. The maximum number of units of alcohol is 21 for men and 14 for women. These limits are:
a. Per day
b. Per week
c. Per month
d. Per year

55. If a pilot is suffering from a cold or flu, he:

a. Is unfit to fly
b. Is fit to fly if taking appropriate medication
c. Is fit to fly if no sneezing has being experienced for one hour
d. Is fit to fly if he can clear his ears

56. A pilot is 2 meters tall and weighs 90 kilograms. What is his Body Mass Index and is he over-weight?
a. 40; yes
b. 22.5; no
c. 22,5, yes
d. 40; no

57. What angle of bank, in a balanced turn, will subject the body to an acceleration of 2g?
a. 15°
b. 60°
c. 30°
d. 45°

58. What is the best way for a pilot to reassure any nervous passenger whom he is about to take flying?
a. To allow the passenger to see his pilot's license
b. To show the passenger his log book which is a record of his experience of safe flying
c. To explain to the passenger how much other people have enjoyed flying with him
d. To give the passenger a thorough pre-flight briefing, following established and approved guidelines

Page 7 of 20
Questionnaire
Human Performance & Limitation (HPL)

59. For what period of time must a pilot refrain from flying after being given an anesthetic?
a. 24 hours following a local anesthetic and 48 hours following a general anesthetic
b. 12 hours following a local anesthetic and 24 hours following a general anesthetic
c. 12 hours following a local anesthetic and 48 hours following a general anesthetic
d. 24 hours following both local anesthetic and a general anesthetic

60. At what rate does the body remove alcohol from the blood?
a. 100 milligrams per 15 milliliters per hour
b. 50 milligrams per 100 milliliters per hour
c. 15 milligrams per 100 milliliters per hour
d. 120 milligrams per 80 milliliters per hour

61. Which of the answer options below includes three important health risks to which obese people are exposed
by virtue of excessive body weight?
a. Heart attack, blood circulatory problems, hypertension
b. Myopia, loss of appetite, nausea
c. Insomnia, disorientation, muscular tension
d. Memory lapse, diminished awareness, lack of coordination

62. Unconditioned reflexes are:

a. Those which can be learned
b. Those that may be improved by repetition
c. Those which are instinctive
d. Those that are required by the check list

63. Perception is one of the most important aspects of information processing because:
a. Sensory information is modeled into a meaningful structure
b. Good judgments and decisions are made at this stage
c. Corrective actions and responses are carried out at this stage
d. It incorporates selective, divided and focused attention

64. "Chunking" is:

a. The grouping of check list items to reduce turn round time
b. A bizarre method of word association technique
c. A method of increasing the number of unrelated items held in working memory
d. The associative phase of learning a skill
65. The three parts of long-term memory are classified as:
a. Ultra short, short and working
b. Selective, divided and focused
c. Static, dynamic and motor
d. Semantic, episodic and procedural

66. An Illusion is:

a. A deliberate modification of the truth to catch out the unwary pilot
b. When perception is not the same as the real world
c. The difference between divided and selective attention
d. A condition arising when deprived of visual or auditory stimuli

Page 8 of 20
Questionnaire
Human Performance & Limitation (HPL)
67. If a pilot flies a visual approach to a runway which has a pronounced upward slope of which he is unaware,
what will be the likely result?
a. The pilot will fly an approach which is shallower than intended, leading to the possibility of
undershooting.
b. The pilot will fly an approach which is steeper than intended, leading to the possibility of
overshooting.
c. The pilot will fly an approach which is shallower than intended, leading to the possibility of
overshooting
d. The pilot will fly an approach which is steeper than intended, leading to the possibility of
undershooting

68. If a pilot flies a visual approach to a runway which has a pronounced downward slope of which he is
unaware, what will be the likely result?
a. The pilot will fly an approach which is shallower than intended, leading to the possibility of
undershooting.
b. The pilot will fly an approach which is steeper than intended, leading to the possibility of
overshooting.
c. The pilot will fly an approach which is shallower than intended, leading to the possibility of
overshooting
d. The pilot will fly an approach which is steeper than intended, leading to the possibility of
undershooting.

69. If a pilot flies a visual approach to a runway which is wider than the runway he is used to, what will be the
likely result?
a. The pilot will fly an approach which is higher than intended with the danger that he will round out
too late, or undershoot the runway.
b. The pilot will fly an approach which is lower than intended with the danger that he will round out
too late, or undershoot the runway.
c. The pilot will fly an approach which is lower than intended with the danger that he will round out
too late, or overshoot the runway.
d. The pilot will fly an approach which is higher than intended with the danger that he will round out
too soon, or overshoot the runway.
70. If a pilot is on the final approach to a runway which is narrower than he expects, what will be the most likely
result?
a. The pilot will be led to fly a higher approach than normal, with the danger of rounding out too soon,
or overshooting the runway.
b. The pilot will fly a lower approach than normal, with the danger of rounding out too soon, or
overshooting the runway.
c. The pilot will fly a lower approach than normal, with the danger of rounding out too late, or
undershooting the runway.
d. The pilot will be led to fly a higher approach than normal, and be forced to go around.

71. If a pilot is flying above a layer of stratus cloud with a sloping upper surface, how is the pilot most likely to
misperceive the visual image?
a. The pilot may mistake the slope as a lowering cloud base, and divert to an alternate airfield.
b. The pilot may feel that he is climbing and initiate a descent.
c. The pilot may mistake the upper surface of the cloud layer as the "true" horizon and apply bank as
he selects an attitude which puts the aircraft's wings parallel to the cloud surface.
d. The pilot may feel that he is descending and initiate a climb.

Page 9 of 20
Questionnaire
Human Performance & Limitation (HPL)
72. Hazy conditions may lead a pilot to perceive:
a. Objects outside the aircraft as being further away than they actually are
b. Objects outside the aircraft as being closer than they actually are
c. Objects outside the aircraft as being more numerous than they actually are
d. Objects outside the aircraft in exactly the same way as in conditions of good visibility

73. Approaching a runway at night where only the runway lights are visible, with no lights to indicate the nature
of the surrounding terrain may result in the pilot:
a. Flying too high an approach and overshooting the runway
b. Flying too high an approach and undershooting the runway
c. Flying too low an approach and overshooting the runway
d. Flying too low an approach and undershooting the runway

74. How will a pilot perceive a runway to which he is flying an approach, but which is smaller than the runways
he is used to?
a. The runway will appear nearer than it is in reality.
b. The runway will appear further away than it is in reality,
c. The pilot will get the impression that he is low and close.
d. The pilot will perceive no difference between this runway and the ones he is used to.

75. How will a pilot perceive a runway to which he is flying an approach, but which is bigger than the runways he
is used to?
a. The runway will appear nearer than it is in reality.
b. The runway will appear further away than it is in reality.
c. The pilot will get the impression that he is high and distant.
d. The pilot will perceive no difference between this runway and the ones he is used to.

76. As captain of an aircraft you will need to show good leadership skills. Which one of the following is not one
such skill?
a. Forward planning
b. Maintaining good situational awareness
c. Being aware of one's limitations and capabilities
d. Aggressive assertiveness

77. You have planned to take a couple of friends on an air experience flight. On the day, the weather conditions
are marginal and there is a strong cross- wind on the runway. As a competent assessor of risk, which of the
following decisions should you take?
a. Get airborne as planned, as it is always wise to stick to your flight plan if you possibly can
b. Reschedule the flight for another time, discounting the immediate disappointment to your friends
c. Proceed with the flight and treat it as an opportunity to practice flying in adverse conditions.
d. Ask your friends if they are prepared to fly in the prevailing conditions.

78. Complete the following statement: Mental Overload usually:

a. leads to better performance
b. leads to degraded performance
c. has no effect on performance
d. causes changes in the speed and accuracy of performance which vary from individual to individual

Page 10 of 20
Questionnaire
Human Performance & Limitation (HPL)
79. Complete the following statement: If, as an experienced pilot, you are flying with someone of much greater
experience, and you see him do something you consider to be dangerous, you should:
a. immediately question his course of action
b. wait until the action or maneuver is completed, and then question him
c. ignore the situation because he obviously knows what he is doing
d. do nothing for the moment, but check the wisdom and correctness of his action by discussing it with
an instructor after you have landed

80. A moderate level of arousal will:

a. Lead to a breakdown in health over a period of time
b. Produce interest in external events and performing tasks
c. Lead to slow processing of sensory information
d. Lead to deterioration of performance due to narrowing of attention

81. The life event that is considered to produce the most stress is:
a. Minor violations of the law
b. Marital separation
c. Personal injury or illness
d. Death of a partner or spouse

82. Having successfully overcome a stressful situation once, how will the person react if placed in the same or
similar situation a second time?
a. There will be little difference
b. Stress will increase because he will be afraid of what he knows lies ahead
c. Stress will reduce because, having already successfully overcome the stressful situation, he will be
confident he can do so again
d. Experience can not affect reaction to stress

83. An important factor to remember with regard to stress factors is:

a. They decay with time
b. They are cumulative
c. They are objective in nature
d. They affect all pilots equally

84. The relationship between arousal and performance means:

a. Performance is degraded by under-arousal and improved by over- arousal
b. Performance is improved by both under and over-arousal
c. Performance is degraded by both under and over-arousal
d. Performance is improved by under arousal and degraded by over- arousal

85. Which of the following statements is false?

a. All people react in the same way to the same stressful situation
b. Stress is a natural condition of life
c. Stress is cumulative
d. The right training can make a stressful task less stressful

Page 11 of 20
Questionnaire
Human Performance & Limitation (HPL)
86. Complete the following statement. The level of stress felt by an individual is dependent on:
a. actual ability
b. perceived demand
c. a combination of perceived demand and actual ability
d. none of the above

87. You are positioned short of the holding point and are in the middle of your pre take-off checks when you
receive clearance to take-off from ATC. The wisest course of action is:
a. Ask ATC to "standby" and complete your checks property, recommencing your checks by going back
over the last one or two previously completed items on your check list.
b. Rapidly run through your remaining checks, acknowledge ATC's clearance and take-off.
c. Skip the last few items on your checklist and take-off as cleared.
d. Ignore ATC, and finish your checks before replying.

88. What are Stress Factors or Stressors?

a. Pulse-rate inducers
b. Circumstances or events which provoke any kind of reaction to the demands placed upon the human
organism
c. Events and circumstances which cause stress
d. Measures of stress exhibited by a person

89. Sitting below the eye datum point:

a. Prevents the pilot's head from coming into contact with the cockpit roof
b. Means that part of the undershoot may be obscured, on the approach
c. Allows faster egress from the cockpit in an emergency
d. Means that part of the overshoot may be obscured, on the approach

90. If a pilot is interrupted when carrying out the pre-take-off checks, he should:
a. Recommence the checks from the item in the checklist reached when the interruption occurred
b. Recommence the checks from the beginning of the checklist
c. Recommence the checks beginning with an item located one step back in the checklist from the item
reached when the interruption occurred
d. Recommence the checks beginning with an item located one step further on in the checklist from
the item reached when the interruption occurred

91. Which of the following is NOT a basic consideration governing the way controls should be both designed and
arranged?
a. Controls should be standardized in location and sense of use from one aircraft to the other
b. Controls should be standardized between aircraft, in terms of their shape and materials only
c. Controls having different functions should both look and feel different
d. Important controls should be located in easily reached and unobstructed positions

92. You are preparing for a training flight with an instructor and cannot find yourchecklist. You should:
a. Perform the checks from memory
b. Use a checklist for a different aircraft type
c. Take time to find the checklist even at the risk of missing part of your airborne time
d. Rely on the instructor to point out anything that you might have missed

Page 12 of 20
Questionnaire
Human Performance & Limitation (HPL)
93. Which of the following occur(s) when a pilot is sitting too high in a cockpit?
i. Good downward outside view
ii. Poor view of instruments
iii. Upwards outside view obstructed
94. i) only
95. i) and ii) only
96. i), ii) and iii)
97. ii) and iii) only

98. An analogue display is generally better than a digital display for showing which sort of data?
a. Quantitative
b. Qualitative
c. Numerical
d. Subjective

99. A standard "T" layout has the artificial horizon or attitude indicator at the centre. Which of the following is
NOT included in the rest of the "T"?
a. The altimeter
b. The airspeed indicator
c. The direction indicator
d. The compass

100. Which of the following actions does NOT constitute a pilot error when carrying out checks from a
check list?
a. Carrying out checks diligently and expeditiously
b. Carrying out checks from the list slowly and laboriously
c. Automatically responding to the check list without carrying out the check
d. Missing out items
101. Complete the following statement with the most correct of the options a), b), c) or d). Compared to
a Non-smoker, someone who smokes likely to experience the effects of hypoxia at:
a. A higher altitude.
b. A lower altitude.
c. The same altitude.
d. Any altitude.

102. The part of atmospheric pressure caused by the presence of Oxygen in the air is known as :
a. Liquid Oxygen
b. Air Pressure.
c. The partial pressure of oxygen.
d. Vacuum.

103. After SCUBA diving to a depth of just over 30 ft, using compressed air, it is recommended that the
person does not fly for:
a. 12 hours
b. 24 hours
c. 48 hours
d. 06 hours.

Page 13 of 20
Questionnaire
Human Performance & Limitation (HPL)
104. A likely symptom or likely symptoms of Hypoxia might be:
a. Cyanosis.
b. Increased heart rate.
c. Formication.
d. Answers a and c.

105. You have two passengers in your unpressurized aircraft and, at an altitude of 8000 ft, one of them
displays Symptoms of hpoxia but the other does not. The most likely reason for this is that the hypoxic
passenger is probably:
a. Elderly.
b. A small child
c. Has consumed several units of alcohol, whilst the other has not.
d. Is suffering from blocked sinuses.

106. If you have suffered prolonged exposure to exhaust gases, What period of time should elapse before
you Pilot an aircraft?
a. 2 Weeks.
b. A number of days.
c. 3 Hours.
d. 12 Hours.

107. Why do aircrew and passengers suffer from lack of Oxygen at high altitude?
a. Because of the rapid decrease in temperature with altitude.
b. Because of decrease in the proportion of oxygen in the air with increasing altitude.
c. Because the air at altitude is thin.
d. Because of the lower atmospheric pressure at altitude.

108. A likely symptom, or likely symptoms, of hypoxia might be:

a. Unconsciousness
b. Impaired judgement.
c. Tingling fingers and toes.
d. All of the above.

109. Above what altitude do pilots need to breathe supplementary oxygen?

a. 2,000 ft
b. 8,000 ft
c. 10,000 ft
d. 20,000 ft.

110. The effects of Hypoxia can be increased by:

a. Increased Altitude.
b. Increased Temperature.
c. Alcohol.
d. All of the above.
111. Approximately how long does it take for a person to dissipitate one unit of alcohol from the blood?
a. 1/2 hour
b. 1 hour.
c. 2 Hour
d. 12 Hour
Page 14 of 20
Questionnaire
Human Performance & Limitation (HPL)

112. A healthy pilot should be able to operate normally without supplementary oxygen up to what
altitude?
a. 8000 feet
b. 9000 feet.
c. 10,000 feet.
d. 12,000 feet.

113. Which of the following is not a part of the human ear?

a. Tympanum
b. Semi-circular canal
c. Cornea
d. Otoliths

114. Which of the following gases regulates the rate and depth of breathing, depending on the levels at
which the gas is present in the blood?
a. Oxygen
b. Nitrogen
c. Carbon Dioxide.
d. Carbon Monoxide.

115. Complete the following statement. The Fovea consists of:

a. Rods Only.
b. Cones and Rods
c. Cones only
d. No light cells - it is part of the blind spot.

116. In a Myopic eye, the eye ball is _________ than normal causing the image to fall ________ the
retina.
a. a. Shorter in front of
b. b. Longer in front of
c. c. Longer Behind
d. d. Shorter Behind

117. Dark adaptation take about _______ for the Rods, and _________ for the Cones.
a. 30 minutes, 7 minutes
b. 15 minutes, 20 minutes
c. 7 minutes, 30 minutes
d. 25 minutes, 45 minutes

118. At night it is easier to focus on an object if you:

a. Look directly at it.
b. Look about 50 degrees either side of it.
c. Look slightly to one side of it.
d. Look directly at it while holding your eyes open as wide as you can.

Page 15 of 20
Questionnaire
Human Performance & Limitation (HPL)
119. Empty Field Myopia is a condition where the eyes naturally focus at a distance of approximately:
a. 1 - 2 metres
b. Infinity
c. 20 - 500 metres.
d. At the horizon

120. Hypermetropia and Myopia are normally caused by:

a. Eye strain.
b. Stress
c. A misshapened eye ball.
d. Badly fitting spectacles

121. The power of accommodation in an eye:

a. Is decreased as the elasticity of the lens decreases.
b. Is increased as the elasticity of the lens decreases.
c. Is not affected by the degree of elasticity of the lens.
d. has nothing to do with lens.

122. Colour blindness or more accurately colour-defective vision, is caused by:

a. A defect in the lens tissue of the eye.
b. Defective functioning of the ciliary muscles.
c. A foreshortened eyeball.
d. A defect in the structure of the colour-sensitive cones in the retina.

123. In which part of the eye is visual acuity at its highest?

a. The Retina
b. The Pupil
c. The Fovea
d. The Cornea

124. What is the component of the eye responsible for peripheral vision and sensitive to low light levels?
a. The Cones
b. The Rods
c. The Fovea
d. The Retina

125. Visual acuity is at its highest when the image of an object is sharply focused on the:
a. Fovea
b. Optic Nerve
c. Iris
d. Retina

126. Two light aircrafts are on a head on collision course with a closing speed of 280 kt. Flight visibility is 4
Km.What would be the time available to either pilot to take avoiding action, if visual contact are made at
maximum visual range?
a. 25 - 30 Sec
b. 20 - 25 Sec
c. 10 - 15 Sec
d. 15 - 20 Sec.
Page 16 of 20
Questionnaire
Human Performance & Limitation (HPL)

127. Complete the following statement. In order to see a sharp image of an oncoming aircraft which has
been detected by the eye, a pilot should:
a. Look to one side of the oncoming aircraft.
b. Commence a systematic scan of the airspace in front of him.
c. Blink several times to make the image clearer.
d. Look directly at the oncoming aircraft.

128. Which is the name of the condition in which the eyes of people in mid to late middle age are unable
to Accommodate sufficiently to focus on small objects near to the eye?
a. Astigmatism
b. Presbyopia
c. Myopia
d. Hypermetropia.

129. Astigmatism is caused by a defect in the:

a. Retina
b. Fovea
c. Iris
d. Cornea

130. Which of the following organs of the body is the single most dependable source of sensory
information?
a. The Ear
b. The Nose
c. The Eye
d. The Neo-cortex.

131. Where is the blind spot?

a. On the Iris.
b. On the Fovea
c. On the edge of the lens.
d. Where the optic nerve enters the Retina.

132. The amount of light entering the eye is controlled by:

a. Cornea
b. Lens
c. Pupil
d. Iris

133. What is Blind Spot?

a. On the Iris.
b. On the Fovea.
c. On the edge of the lens.
d. Where the optic nerve enters the retina.

Page 17 of 20
Questionnaire
Human Performance & Limitation (HPL)
134. Hypermetropia is caused by a _________ eyeball and treated by a _________ lens whereas Myopia
is caused by a __________ eyeball and treated with a _________ lens.
a. Lengthened, Convex, Shortened, Concave
b. Shortened, Concave, Lengthened, Convex.
c. Lengthened, Concave, Shortened, Convex.
d. Shortened, Convex, Lengthened, Concave.

135. In which part of eye is visual acuity at its highest?

a. The Retina
b. The Pupil
c. The Fovea.
d. The Cornea.

136. As light falls on the retina at increasing angle from Fovea the sharpness of central vision:
a. Increases.
b. Remains the same.
c. Decreases.
d. Decreases at first and then returns to normal.

137. Complete the following statement. The power of accommodation in an eye:

a. Is decreased as the elasticity of the lens decreases.
b. Is increased as the elasticity of the lens decreases.
c. Is not affected by the degree of elasticity of the lens.
d. Has nothing to do with the lens.

138. An analogue display is generally better than a digital display for showing which sort of data?
a. Quantitative
b. Qualitative.
c. Numerical
d. Subjective.

139. The three needle type altimeter used in many light aircraft is:
1) Easy to mis-read.
2) Hardly ever mis read.
3) Accurate and reliable.
4) Not very accurate or reliable.
a. 1 only.
b. 2 only.
c. 1 & 3.
d. 2 & 4.

140. Which of the following is not a term used for the defined position of pilot's eye?
a. Eye Datum
b. Bird's Eye view.
c. Design eye position
d. Reference eye point.

Page 18 of 20
Questionnaire
Human Performance & Limitation (HPL)
141. Which of the following is not a basic consideration governing the way controls should be both
designed and arranged?
a. Controls should be standardized in location and sense of use from one aircraft to the other.
b. Controls should be standardized between aircraft, in terms of their shape and materials.
c. Controls having different look should both look and feel different.
d. Important controls should be located in easily reached and un-obstructed positions.

142. Cockpits are generally designed for males in the central ________ of size distribution.
a. 5%
b. 50%
c. 90%
d. 100%

143. What is the name of the model which shows the relationship between human beings and all of the
factors to which they have to relate?
a. The HASSEL model.
b. The FREDA concept.
c. The BUMFITCH model.
d. The SHELL model.

144. Which of the following is the most important factor in deciding the size of a cockpit?
a. The size of human being in central 90% of size distribution.
b. The number of pilot-manipulated controls required in the cockpit.
c. Heating and air-conditioning factors.
d. The overall size of the aircraft.

145. The standard 'T' layout has the artificial horizon or attitude indicator at the centre. Which of the
following does not make up for the rest of the 'T'?
a. The Altimeter.
b. The airspeed Indicator.
c. The Direction Indicator.
d. The Compass.

146. You are preparing for a training flight with the instructor nad cannot find your checklist. You should:
a. Perform the checks from memory.
b. Use a checklist for a different aircraft type.
c. Take time to find the checklist at the risk of missing part of your airborne time.
d. Rely on the instructor to point out anything that you might have missed.

147. Which of the following occur when a pilot is sitting too high in a cockpit?
1) Good downward outside view
2) Poor view of instruments.
3) Upwards outside view obstructed.
a. 1 only.
b. 1 & 2 only.
c. 1, 2 and 3.
d. 2 and 3 only.

Page 19 of 20
Questionnaire
Human Performance & Limitation (HPL)
148. What are Stress Factors or Stressors?
a. Pulse-rate inducers.
b. Circumstances or events which provoke any kind of reaction to the demands placed upon the human
organism.
c. Events and circumstances which cause stress.
d. Measures of stress exhibited by a person.

149. In terms of stress, what is arousal?

a. A measure of a person's readiness, fitness and ability to respond effectively to a given stress
factor.
b. A personality trait.
c. Training to cope with increased stress level.
d. A condition in which an individual becomes highly stressed.

150. Complete the following statement correctly. Both over- and under-arousal can lead to:
a. Boredom.
b. Optimum Performance.
c. Over-performance.
d. Under-performance.

Page 20 of 20
Questionnaire