Chinmay Tutorials [9929277130]

Professional Factory……… Business Communication

CSEET
Paper 1

Business
Communication

MCQS
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Chinmay Tutorials [9929277130]
Professional Factory……… Business Communication

Chapter – 1

Essential Grammar and Its Usage

Multiple Choice Questions

Q1. The part of Grammar concerned with changes in the form of words by internal
modification or by affixation is known as _________
A. Accidence B. Incidence
C. Incident D. Excellence

Q2. The manner in which these words are arranged in the form of a sentence is
called_______

A. Syntax B. Flow
C. Arrangement D. Sintex

Q3. Words are divided into _____ classes

A Nine B. Eight

C Sixteen D Eighteen

Q4. ______ word classes are called Part of Speech.

A. Noun and Pronoun B Conjunction and Preposition
C Verb and Adverb D All of above

Q5. A noun is “……………. word”.

A Naming B Taking
C. Giving D None of above

Q6. Nouns may be divided into _______ and __________

A. Common nouns ; Proper nouns
B Collective nouns ; Proper nouns
C Common nouns ; Collective nouns
D None of above

Q7. ___________are the names given in common to all persons, places or things of the
same class.
A. Common nouns B Proper Noun
C Improper Nouns D All of above

Q8. _________include another class known as collective nouns.

A. Common nouns B Proper Noun
C Improper Nouns D All of above

Q9. A___________ names a group of people, animals or things regarded as a whole., e.g.,
batch, company, university, crowd, flock, etc.

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A. Common nouns B Proper Noun
C Collective Nouns D All of above
Q10. __________ are the names of particular persons, places or things.
A. Common nouns B Proper Noun
C Collective Nouns D All of above

Q11. ________are used in place of nouns.

A. Pronouns B Prepositions
C Adjectives D Adverb

Q12. Pronouns may be ______ and _________

A. Personal ; Relative B Proper; Collective
C Common; Collective D Personal; Common

Q13. Personal Pronouns represent ______ or ______

A Place; Person B. Person ; Things
C Things; Place D none of above

Q14. The most common relative pronouns are ______ , _______and ________.
A Which; When; Where B What; Where; When
C Whom; When; That D. Whom ; Which ; Those

Q15. A relative pronoun acts as a _______ and as a ________ at the same time.
A. Pronoun ; Conjunction B Noun ; Conjunction
C Pronoun ; Interjection D Preposition ; Conjunction

Q16. __________ show possession, e.g., mine, ours, yours their, its and hers.
A Collective Pronoun B Relative Pronoun
C Possessive Pronoun D. Both B and C

Q17. A word used to describe or point out, a person, animal, place or thing which the noun
names, or to tell the number and quantity, is called an _________
A. Adjective B Verb
C. Adverb D Conjunction

Q18. Two or more words can be joined with a _______ to form a ___________
A Hyphen ; Collective adjective B Comma ; Compound adjective
C. Hyphen ; Compound adjective D Comma ; Collective adjective

Q19. A _______ is a word that tells or asserts something about a person or thing.
A. Verb B. Adverb
C. Pronoun D. Adjective

Q20. A verb is a word that ______ or _______ something about a person or thing.
A. Do ; Tells B. Asserts ; Do
C. Does ; Tells D. Tells ; Asserts

Q21. A verb is a word that tells or asserts something about a _______ or ________.
A. Person ; Thing B. Thing ; Person
C. Person : Name D. Name ; Peron

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Q22. Verb comes from Latin _____, meaning a word.

A. Virbum B. Vrebum
C. Virbo D. Verbum

Q23. Verb comes from ______ language

A. Latin B. Greek
C. French D. Anglo French

Q24. _______ qualify or add to the meaning of nouns

A Noun B. Adjective
C Pronoun D. Adverb

Q25. ________ modify the meaning not only of verbs, but also of adjectives, prepositions,
conjunctions, etc.
A Adverb B. Pronoun
C Noun D. Adjective

Q26. Adverbs modify the meaning not only of verbs, but also of _______, prepositions,
conjunctions, etc.
A Noun B. Adverb
C Adjective D. Pronoun

Q27. Adverbs modify the meaning not only of verbs, but also of adjectives, __________,
conjunctions, etc.

A Noun B. Adjective
C Prepositions D. Adverb

Q28. Adverbs modify the meaning not only of verbs, but also of adjectives, prepositions,
________ , etc.
A Conjunctions B Adverb
C Noun D Pronoun

Q29. A _______, is placed before a noun or its equivalent in order to show its relationship in
terms of time, place, etc.:
A Prepositions B Adverb
C Adjective D Conjunctions

Q30. There are hardly any rules governing the use of prepositions
A. True B. Partly false
C. False D. Partly true

Q31. According to ______ “Almost all our great writers have allowed themselves to end a
sentence or a clause with a preposition.”
A Fowler B. Greek Word
C French D. Anglo French word

Q32. According to , ________ rule the sentence should read well.

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A Thumb B Fowler
C Finger D Left – hand
Q33. It is largely the ______ that determines the choice of a preposition.
A Usage B Adverb
C Adjective D Prepositions

Q34. It is largely the usage that determines the choice of a _________.

A Adverb B Prepositions
C Adjective D Conjunctions

Q35. Prepositions is largely _______

A Adverb B Usage
C Colloquial D Fowler

Q36. _______ join words or even sentences conveying related ideas.

A Conjunctions B Adverb
C Prepositions D Adjective

Q37. Two commonly used conjunctions are :____ and _______.

A. And ; but B is; are
C are; is D but; and

Q38. Conjunctions may also be used in pairs. E.g. neither-nor , either -or
A. True B. Partly false
C. False D. Partly true

Q39. Such conjunctions are known as_________.

A Adjective B Prepositions
C. Correlative Conjunctions D Adverb

Q40. _________ are words which are used in a sentence to express strong emotion or
feeling.
A Interjections B Adverb
C Conjunctions D Adjective

Q41. Interjections are words which are used in a sentence to express ________or ________.
A Emotions; Strong Feelings B Strong emotion ; feeling
C Strong Feelings; Gestures D Strong Gestures; Emotions

Q42. __________may not form a part of its grammatical structure.

A Noun B. Prepositions
C Interjections D. Pronoun

Q43. We should use ________ in our sentences.

A Active Voice B Passive Voice
C Either A and B D Both A and B

Q44. _______ are shorter, direct and emphatic.

A Active Voice B Passive Voice
C Either A and B D Both A and B

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Q45. _________ is also found more suitable while drafting legal formulations as no identifiable
subject can be mentioned.
A Active Voice B Passive Voice
C Either A and B D Both A and B

Q46. Passive Voice is also found more suitable while drafting __________ as no identifiable
subject can be mentioned.
A Regional Formation B Legal Formulation
C Logical Formation D None of Above

Q47. ______ leaves indefinite the person or thing spoken of

A Articles B Adjective
C Adverb D Noun

Q48. A or an is called the _________

A Definite Article B Proper Article
C Indefinite Article D None of above

Q49. The is called the _______

A Definite Article B Proper Article
C Indefinite Article D None of above

Q50. _________ points out some particular person or thing

A Definite Article B Proper Article
C Indefinite Article D None of above

Q51. The____________ is used before singular countable nouns

A Definite Article B Proper Article
C Indefinite Article D None of above

Q52. The indefinite article is used before _____________

A Plural countable nouns B. Singular countable nouns
C Either A or B D. Both A or B

Q53. The _______ article is used before singular countable nouns, plural countable nouns
and uncountable nouns
A Indefinite Article B Common Article
C Definite Article D None of above

Q54. The article ______ is used when the noun to which it is attached begins with a vowel
sound
A A B. An
C The D None of above

Q55. It is the vowel sound and not the vowels that determines the use of _____ or ______.
A. A ; An B A; the
C. An ; The D None of above

Q56. He is ____ honest man

A. The B. An

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C. A D. All of above

Q57. He has joined _____ union.

A. A B. The
C. An D. All of above

Q58. I have lost _____ one-rupee note.

A. The B. An
C. A D. All of above

Q59. Usage implies the manner in which the native speakers of a language use it.
A. False B. Partly true
C. True D. Partly false

Q60. ______or ________ often lays down new standards of acceptance.

A. Habitual ; Customary care B Perpetual;Customary care
C.Habitual ; Customer care D Perpetual;Customer care

Q61. ________ assigns to the word ‘Tense’.

A. Webster Dictionary B. Bhargav Dictionary
C. Oxford Dictionary D Excellent Dictionary

Q62. The word tense comes from _______

A. Latin B. Greek
C. French D. Anglo French

Q63. The word tense comes from Latin word _______ meaning time.
A. Tempus B. Tempar
C. Tempes D. Tenese

Q64. A verb that refers to present time is said to be in the __________.

A. Past Tense B. Future Tense
C. Present Tense D. Present Perfect

Q65. The verb refers to past time then is said to be in _______.

A. Past Tense B. Future Tense
C. Present Tense D. Present Perfect

Q66. The verb which shows that the action is mentioned simply, without anything being said
about the completeness or incompleteness of the action is said to be _________
A. Simple Past Tense B. Past Perfect
C. Simple Present Tense D. Present Perfect

Q67. The verb which shows that the action is mentioned as incomplete or continuous, that is,
as still going on is said to be in __________
A. Present Continuous Tense B. Future Continuous Tense
C. Past Continuous Tense D. Past Perfect

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Q68. The verb which shows that the action is mentioned as finished, complete or perfect, at
the time of speaking is said to be in _______
A. Past Perfect Tense B. Present Perfect Continuous
C. Present Perfect Tense D. Past Continuous Tense

Q69. The verb which shows that the action is going on continuously, and not completed at this
present moment is said to be _________
A. Present Continuous Tense B. Present Perfect Continuous
C. Simple Past Tense D. Past Perfect Tense

Q70. We may define ______ as that form of a verb which shows the time and the state of an
action or event.
A. Tense B. Adverb
C. Conjunction D. Adjective

Q71. A group of words, which makes complete sense, is called a ________.

A. Line B. Paragraphs
C. Sentence D. Syntax

Q72. __________ also lays down rules for arranging words in a certain order to form
meaningful sentences.
A. Grammar B. Tense
C. Syntax D. Paragraphs

Q73. A sentence consists of _____ parts

A.2 B. 4
C. 3 D. 5

Q74. The part which names the person or thing we are speaking about is called the ______ of
the sentence.
A. Word B. Subject
C. Line D. Phrases

Q75. The part which tells something about the subject is called ______.
A. Word B. Phrase
C. Predicate D. Subject

Q76. The part which names the _____ or ______ we are speaking about is called the subject
of the sentence.
A. Person ; Thing B. Thing ; person
C.Subject : Thing D. Subject : Person

Q77. A ______ is a group of words, which neither has a finite verb nor makes any sense by
itself. Depending on its place in the sentence.
A. Phrase B. Sentence
C. Syntax D. Predicate

Q78. Phrase may be of three types: _______ , _________ , ________

A. Noun ; Adjective ; Adverb
B. Adverbial Phase ; Prepositions ; Noun

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C. Adjective ; Noun ; Adverbial Phase
D. Adverb ; Compositions ; Noun

Q79. When in a sentence word (s) as an adjective does. Hence , it is called an _________
A. Adjective Phrase B. Noun
C. Adverb D. Phrase

Q80. Just as the work of an Adjective is often done by a group of words called an
___________.
A. Adjective Phrase B. Predicate
C. Phrase D. Sentence

Q81. He answered in a very rude manner. (How?)

Since the phrase very rude manner does the work of an Adverb, it is called an
__________.
A. Adverb Trail Phrase B. Adjective
C. Adjective Phrase D. Adverb

Q82. A ________ is a group of words that does the work of a Noun.

A. Noun Phrase B. Adverb Phrase
C. Adjective Phrase D. None of Above

Q83. My demat account has been closed. ( Which Phrase is this ) :

A. Adjective Phrase B. Noun Phrase
C. Adverb Phrase D. Adverb Trail Phrase

Q84. The basic knowledge of grammar helps us understand different Sentence structures or
patterns
A. True B. Partly true
C. False D. Partly false

Q85. A group of words that form a part of a sentence, and has a subject and a predicate of its
own, is called a ________.
A Phrase B. Clause
C Idom D. None of above

Q86. The clause that makes good sense by itself, and hence could stand by itself, as a
separate sentence is called a _______ .
A Agent Clause B. Object Clause
C Subordinate Clause D. Principal clause

Q87. A clause which cannot stand by itself and makes good sense but not complete sense
are called ____________.
A. Dependent clause B Object Clause
C Independent Clause D. Principal clause

Q88. A sentence which has only one finite verb and one independent clause is called
___________.
A Complex Sentence B. Simple sentence
C Compound Sentence D Negative Sentence

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Q89. A sentence which has only _________ and ____________ is called Simple sentence.
A. One finite verb ; One independent clause
B. Two finite verb ; One independent clause
C. One finite verb ; Two independent clause
D. Two finite verb ; Two independent clause

Q90. A ___________ is made up of two or more independent clauses.

A Complex Sentence B. Simple sentence
C Compound Sentence D Negative Sentence

Q91. A ________ has an independent clause and atleast one dependent clause.
A Complex Sentence B. Simple sentence
C Compound Sentence D Negative Sentence

Q92. A complex sentence has an independent clause and at least ____________.

A Two dependent clause B. One dependent clause
C Five dependent clause D Four dependent clause

Q93. Sentences can be constructed using different structures or patterns. The simplest
sentence may have : ____________ , ______________ , ______________
A. A noun or a pronoun in the beginning
B. Another noun or its equivalent in the end
C. A verb in the middle
D. All of above

Q94. It is important to use varying ____________ in your writing so that the interest of the
reader is not lost.
A. Sentences structures B Tense Structure
C Both A and B D Neither A Nor B

Q95. Sentences are also constructed on the basis of _____________.

A. Complexity of writing B Tense of Writing
C Style of Writing D None of above

Q96. __________ are also constructed on the basis of complexity of writing.

A. Sentence B. Paragraphs
C. Tense D. Letter

Q97. __________ are suited to simple style of letter writing and are closer to the spoken
form.
A. Loose sentences B Compound Sentence
C Complex Sentence D Simple Sentence

Q98. ___________ begin with the main statement and develop it to its logical conclusion.
A. Loose sentences B Compound Sentence
C Complex Sentence D Simple Sentence

Q99. ____________ are decorous and emphatic but more difficult to write.
A. Loose sentences B Compound Sentence
C Periodic Sentence D Simple Sentence

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Q100. In which sentence the order is reversed and the main statement is made at the end.
A. Loose sentences B Compound Sentence
C Periodic Sentence D Simple Sentence

Q101. _________ are easier to write as well as understand.

A. Shorter sentences B Compound Sentence
C Longer Sentence D Simple Sentence

Q102. ________ are prone to grammatical errors and need careful thought and planning.
A. Shorter sentences B Compound Sentence
C Longer Sentence D Simple Sentence

Q103. Mixing the shorter and ________ to sustain the interest of the reader.
A. Shorter sentences B Compound Sentence
C Longer Sentence D Simple Sentence

Q104. If a good sentence should focus on a single thought, ___________ should restrict itself
to a single topic or idea.
A. A good paragraph B A Short Paragraph
C A Long Paragraph D None of above

Q105. If a good sentence should focus on a ________, a good paragraph should restrict itself
to a single topic or idea.
A Specific Thought B Many Thoughts
C. Single thought D All Thoughts

Q106. If a __________ should focus on a single thought, a good paragraph should restrict itself
to a single topic or idea.
A. Longer sentence B. Good sentence
C. Shorter sentence D. Any of above

Q 107. The ______ sentence of a paragraph sums up its central idea and develops it further.
A. Topic B Closing
C Ending D Starting

Q108. An _______“is an addition to the base form or stem of a word in order to modify its
meaning or create a new word”.
A Suffix B Prefix
C. Affix D None of above

Q109. _________ should be preferred because they enable the reader to follow the writer’s
plan.
A. Shorter sentence B. Longer sentence
C. Good sentence D. Periodic sentence

Q110. An affix “is an addition to the base form or stem of a word in order to modify its meaning
or create a new word” is given under which dictionary ?
A. The Concise Oxford Dictionary, Ninth Edition.
B. The Concise Oxford Dictionary, Tenth Edition.

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C. The Concise Oxford Dictionary, Third Edition.
D. The Concise Oxford Dictionary, Fourth Edition.

Q111. If the affix or addition to the root word comes at the beginning, it is called a _______.
A Suffix B Prefix
C. Affix D None of above

Q112. The word ‘prefix’ in itself is an apt example of a prefix as it is made up of the root word
‘fix’- ’to join or fix’, with the affix ‘pre’- meaning ‘before’, added to it.
A. False B. Partly false
C. True D. Partly true

Q113. Identify the correct prefix groups :

A. Supportive Prefixes B. Negative Prefixes
C. Size Prefixes D. All of above

Q114. _________ are prefixes that support or are for the root word.
A. Opposing Prefixes B. Derivative Prefixes
C. Supportive Prefixes D. Negative Prefixes

Q115. ________ are prefixes that are opposed to the action denoted by the root word.
A. Derivative Prefixes B. Reversative Prefixes
C. Opposing Prefixes D. Pejorative Prefixes

Q116. ____________ are prefixes that denote the absence of distinguishing features of the
root word.
A. Place Prefixes B. Negative Prefixes
C. Supportive Prefixes D. Class Changing Prefixes

Q117. ___________ are prefixes that denote the act of undoing the previous act that the root
word denotes as being done.
A. Reversative Prefixes B. Pejorative Prefixes
C. Negative Prefixes D. Size Prefixes

Q118. ___________ are those that denote the meaning of removing something or depriving
something or someone.
A. Opposing Prefixes B. Derivative Prefixes
C. Status Prefixes D. Place Prefixes

Q119. _________ are those that express contempt, disapproval, bad or wrong.
A. Pejorative Prefixes B. Time Prefixes
C. Derivative Prefixes D. Reversative Prefixes

Q120. _________ are prefixes that indicate place or placing of things, situation, etc.
A. Place Prefixes B. Class Changing Prefixes
C. Status Prefixes D. Number Prefixes

Q121. _______ denote size.

A. Status Prefixes B. Size Prefixes
C. Class Changing Prefixes D. Number Prefixes

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Q122. _________ denote time.
A. Time Prefixes B. Number Prefixes
C. Status Prefixes D. None of above

Q123. __________ are those that denote number.

A. Status Prefixes B. Miscellaneous
C. Number Prefixes D. None of above

Q124. ___________ are those that denote a status.

A. Status Prefixes B. Class Changing Prefixes
C. Size Prefixes D. Number Prefixes

Q125. ____________ have the effect of changing the word class, like making transitive verbs
from nouns, adjectives, intensifying force of the verbs used, etc.
A. Status Prefixes B. Class Changing Prefixes
C. Size Prefixes D. None of above

Q126. ____________are some of the common prefixes that do not fall into the above
categories
A. Other B. Different
C. Miscellaneous D. Quasi

Q127. It is a __________ added at the end of a word to form a derivative.

A. Morpheme B Prefix
C Suffix D.None of Above

Q128. An addition to the end of a word to form a derivative of the root word is a ________.
A Suffix B Prefix
C. Affix D None of above

Q129. Select the correct suffix group

A. Noun Suffixes – Adjective Suffixes
B. Verb Suffixes – Adverb Suffixes
C. Noun Suffixes – Adjective Suffixes
D. Both ‘A’ & ‘B’

Q130. Acity indicates a _______ and __________

A. Quality ; State of being B Quantity; State of being
C Either A or B D None of above

Q131. Ant denoting attribution of ______ or ______ and denoting an _________

A. An action ; state ; agency B An action ; Estate ; agent
C. A Reaction ; state ; agent D. An action ; state ; agent

Q132. Age denoting _________ or its ______/function/state or condition/set of place or

abode/aggregate number of
A An action ; Decision B An Reaction ; result
C. An action ; result D. An Pro-action ; result

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Q133. Noun suffix Ation/ion denoting ______ or its ______
A An action ; Decision B An Reaction ; result
C. An action ; result D. An Pro-action ; result

Q134. Noun suffix Cle, cule, ule indicates _______

A. Small size B. Medium size
C. Large Size D. None of Above

Q135. Noun suffix Ist denotes a ________________, who uses something, etc.
A. Member of Procession B. Member of Probession
C. Member of a profession D. None of Above

Q136. Noun suffix Ity denotes quality/_________/degree of.

A. Indemnity B. Warranty
C. Gurantee D. Condition

Q137. Noun suffix Ling refers to ________ or ___________

A. largeness; Lesser Stature B. Smallness ; lesser stature
C. Greatness; Lesser Stature D. None of above

Q138. Following are the words formed with Noun suffix Ment (means or result of An action)
A. arrangement, embarrassment B. curtailment, bewilderment
C. arrangement, bewilderment D All of above

Q139. Following are the words formed with Noun suffix ness (a state or condition).
A. usefulness, carelessness, willingness, wilderness
B. usefulness, carelessness, willingness, kindness
C. usefulness, carelessness, kindness, wilderness
D. usefulness, carelessness, willingness, kindness, wilderness

Q140. Following are the words formed with Noun suffix ship (quality or condition, status, tenure,
skill, etc.)
A. companionship, citizenship, workmanship, membership
B. scholarship, citizenship, workmanship, membership
C. scholarship, companionship, workmanship, membership
D. scholarship, companionship, citizenship, workmanship, membership

Q141. ly forms ________ from _________

A. Adverbs ; Adjective B. Pronoun ; Adverb
C. Adverb ; Noun D. Adjective ; Adverb

Q142. wise includes of manner or _________ or ________

A. Respect: Dadication B. Honour ; Direction
C. Honour; Dedicaiton D. Respect ; Direction

Q143. After addresses that head letters and on the envelopes ________ is omitted
A. Hyphen B. Full stop

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C. Semi-Colon D. Comma

Q144. After _____ full stop is omitted

A. Dates B. Exclamation
C. Reference Number D. Serial Number

Q145. After ________ that ends letters full stop is omitted

A. Signatures B. Exclamation
C. Reference Number D. Names

Q146. After title of books, Newspaper headings, chapter headings, sub-headings,Page number
full stop is omitted
A. False B. True
C. Partly True D. Partly False

Q147. After acronyms which are pronounced as one word __________ are omitted
A. Colons B. Commas
C. Semi Colons D. Full stop
Q148. In the following cases the full stop is omitted:
A. After addresses that head letters and on the envelopes
B. After dates
C. After title of books, newspaper headlines, chapter headings, sub-headings, page
numbers
D. All of above

Q149. ____________ are word elements or combining forms that can be combined with other
words that already exist to form new words.
A. Combination Words B. Compounding Words
C LATIN words D None of above

Q150. Most combining forms are of _______ or ______ origin.

A. Latin B. Greek
C. French D. Both ‘A’ & ‘B’

Q151. The marks, such as full stop, comma, inverted commas, hyphen and brackets are used
in writing to separate sentences and their elements and to clarify meaning.
A. False B. True
C. Partly false D. Partly true

Q152. The marks, such as full stop, comma, inverted commas, hyphen and brackets are used
in writing to separate sentences and their elements and to clarify meaning, are called
___________.
A. Exclamation marks B. Egressing Marks
C. Punctuation Marks D. None of above

Q153. The importance of punctuation in writing can be compared to the importance of pause,
intonation and emphasis used in the spoken word.
A. Partly true B. Partly false

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C. False D. True

Q154. One can state that the chief purpose of using punctuation is to make the meaning of a
written passage clear.
A. Partly true B. True
C. Partly false D. False

Q155. The punctuation marks remove _________.

A. Vagueness B. Either ‘A’ or ‘B’
C. Ambiguities D. Confusion

Q156. What is the chief purpose of using punctuation ?

A. To make the meaning of a written passage clear
B. To make passage precise
C. To make passage free from ambiguity
D. All of above

Q157. Punctuation can also serve other purposes:

A. Highlighting certain words
B. Altering the flow of a sentence
C. Introducing delicate effects in style
D. All of above

Q158. _______ is the most basic form of punctuation which separates words, sentences,
paragraphs and chapters.
A. Space B. Shift
C. Enter D. Tab

Q159. Usually _______ alphabet space is used between words and punctuation, and also after
sentences,unless it is the last sentence of a paragraph, when the rest of the space on
that line is left blank.
A. One B. Four
C. Two D. Three

Q160. Usually one alphabet space is used between _______ and ________, and also after
sentences, unless it is the last sentence of a paragraph, when the rest of the space on
that line is left blank.
A. Sentence ; Punctuation B. Word ; Punctuation
C letter; Punctuation D All of the above

Q161. Space of one line or more is left between paragraphs to distinguish them and at times a
slight indention is also used on the first line to distinguish the beginning of a new
paragraph.
A True B Partly True
C False D Partly False

Q162. ________also known as a stop, point or period (in American English) is used to end a
declarative sentence, a sentence which is not a question or an exclamation.
A. Comma B. Hyphen

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C. Full stop D. None of above

Q163. The Full Stop (.) also known as a stop, point or period (in American English) is used to
end a ___________, a sentence which is not a question or an exclamation.
A. Declarative sentence B. Interrogative Sentence
C. Interrogative Negative sentence D. Both B and C

Q164. A full stop may also be used after initials or after a shortened form of a word to indicate
_________.
A. Thought B. Abbreviation
C. Either A or B D. Both A and B

Q165. A full stop is also used at times to denote abbreviated numerals, such as a date or a
number, though at times full stop, slash or hyphen is also used to denote date.
A. True B. False
C. Partly True D. Partly False

Q166. _________ is also used before decimal and between units of money
A. Comma B. Hyphen
C. Full stop D. None of above

Q167. AIDS stands for :

A. Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome
B All India Divorcee Society
C All Industry Development Society
D Accrued Interest on Debts and Shares

Q168. GST stands for :

A Going Self Test B Gross Settlement Treaty
C. Goods Service Tax D General Settlement Treaty

Q169. WTO stands for :

A. World Trade organization B World Tour Organization
C Water Trading and Outsourcing D Writ towards overdrafts

Q170. GMT stands for :

A General Meeting Time B Greenmich Median Time
C. Greenwich Mean Time D Gross Metric Tonne

Q171. BBC stands for :

A Britain Broadcasting Corporation
B. British Broadcasting Corporation
C British Broadcasting Co-operation
D. British Broadcasting Co-operation

Q172. Hz stands for :

A. Hertz B. Heartz
C Hezard D Hurtz

Q173. Amp stands for :

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A. Amplifier B. Assets Management Poftfolio
C. Ampire D. Ampere

Q174. _____________ separate or enclose subordinate clauses and phrases in sentences.

A. Semi Colon B. Colon
C. Commas D. None of above

Q175. Its most typical use is to separate two main clauses that are linked by a __________.
A Adverb B. Conjunction
C. Adjective D. Interjection

Q176. ________ mark appears just before the conjunction.

A. Commas B. Semi Colon
C. Colon D. Hyphen

Q177. ______ are used to separate main clauses even when they are not linked by a
conjunction
A. Hyphen B. Comma
C. Semi colon D. Colon

Q178. Before tags/_________ and comments comma is used

A. Questions B. Answer
C. Both A and B D. Neither A nor B

Q179. To denote words left out ________ is used

A. Semi colon B. Colon
C. Comma D. Hyphen

Q180. Enclose additional thoughts, ___________ or information. Here the commas are used in
_______ and they separate parenthetical elements in a sentence.
A. Qualification ; Pairs B. Classifications; Pairs
C. Clarification; Pairs D. None of Above

Q181. To set off ___________ comma is used

A. Active voice B. Indirect speech
C. Direct speech D. None of above

Q182. To set off _________________ or ________________ comma is used.

A. Affirmative ; Contrasting statement
B. Comparative ; Contrasting statement
C. Negative; Contrasting statement
D. Comparative; Adjoining Statement

Q183. To separate ___________, numbers into units, names, and title or honor, or degree,
day, month and year in a date_________ is used
A. Adverb ; Semi colon B. Adjective ; Comma
C. Adjective ; Colon D. Noun ; Colon

Q184. __________ is used between words to clarify meaning.

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A Interjection B. Hyphen
C Conjunction D Colon

Q185. ___________ It also links words to form a compound word.

A Interjection B. Hyphen
C Conjunction D Colon

Q186. After a few prefixes or other word elements _________ is used.

A Interjection B. Hyphen
C Conjunction D Colon

Q187. Before a few _________ where the last alphabet of the first word and the first alphabet
of the second word are the same, in order to avoid an unattractive sequence _________
is used.
A. Adverb ; Semi colon B. Adjective ; Comma
C. Adjective ; Colon D. Suffix; Hyphen
Q188. When the _________ of a word begins with a capital letter hyphen is used.
A. Main part B. End part
C. Middle part D. Both ‘A’ & ‘B’

Q189. When the _________ is repeated ___________ is used.

A. Suffix ; Comma B. Prefix ; Hyphen
C. Prefix ; Colon D. Suffix ; Hyphen

Q190. When a _________ and a _______ are combined to form a word hyphen is used.
A. Noun ; Adverb B. Pronoun ; Verb
C. Pronoun; Adverb D. Noun ; Verb

Q191. When an adjective and a noun are combined to form a word _________ is used.
A. Hyphen B. Comma
C. Colon D. Semi colon

Q192. When two __________ are combined to form a word hyphen is used .
A. Pronoun B. Adjective
C. Adverb D. Verb

Q193. When compound words express an _________ relation _______ is used.

A. ‘End’; Hyphen B. ‘And’ ; Hyphen
C. Both A and B D. None of Above

Q194. When compound numbers between 21-99 are spelt out _______ is used.
A. Semi colon B. Hyphen
C. Comma D. Colon
Q195. __________ is also used to link the starting and ending point of a series.
A. Semi colon B. Colon
C. Comma D. Hyphen

Q196. When a word has to be broken at the end of a line of print or writing _________ is used.
A. Semi colon B. Comma

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C. Hyphen D. Colon

Q197. To avoid _______ or ___________ hyphen is used.

A. Confusion ; Ambiguity
B. Biasness ; Vagueness
C. Vagueness ; Ambiguity
D. Ambiguity ; misinterpretation

Q198. To prevent confusion between a new formation and a conventional word with the same
prefix ______ is used.
A. Hyphen B. Semi colon
C. Colon D. Comma

Q199. ___________ is used to separate two or more in dependant clauses that are placed
together and which are of equal importance in the sentence.
A. Hyphen B. Semi colon
C. Colon D. Comma
Q200. The use of ____________ emphasizes or adds weight to the second clause.
A. Hyphen B. Semi colon
C. Colon D. Comma

Q201. Semi colons are also used to:

A. Join words ; group of words ; sentences
B. Separate word groups that already contain commas
C. Both ‘A’ & ‘B’
D. Either ‘A’ or ‘B’

Q202. Semi colon provide pauses before certain _______ such as none the less, however,
etc.
A. Noun B. Adjective
C. Pronoun D. Adverb

Q203. ________ are used to emphasize contrasts:

A. Semi colon B. Apostrophe
C. Comma D. Hyphen

Q204. Colon (:) is a punctuation mark that has three major functions:
A. To introduce some kind of explanation.
B. To introduce examples.
C. To introduce quotations or direct speech.
D. All of above

Q205. Some of the other functions of the colon are:

A. To point the reader’s attention forward.
B. To introduce subtitles.
C. To present a conclusion.
D. All of above

Q206. An Apostrophe (’) is used :

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A. To denote possession and other kinds of relationship.
B. Contractions of words.
C. Either ‘A’ or ‘B’
D. Both ‘A’ & ‘B’

Q207. When apostrophe is used to denote possession and other relationships, the basic rules
to remember are:
A. The apostrophe comes before the ‘s’ if the noun is singular.
B. The apostrophe comes after the ‘s’ if the noun is plural.
C. Both ‘A’ & ‘B’
D. A is Correct & B is Incorrect

Q208. __________________ ending is in ‘s’, e.g. its, ones, theirs, etc. do not take on an
apostrophe.
A. Possessive personal pronouns B. Relative Pronoun
C. Proper Noun D. None of above

Q209. ______________, except for ‘each’ take on an apostrophe,

A. Possessive personal pronouns B. Relative Pronoun
C. Indefinite pronouns D. None of above

Q210. In _____________, the use of apostrophe is required.

A. Interaction of Words B. Contraction of words
C. Concentration of words D. Presentation of Words

Q211. The ___________ takes the place of the missing letter or letters.
A. Semi colon B. Apostrophe
C. Comma D. Hyphen

Q212. The apostropheis at times used to denote _________of part of some number:
A. Submission B. Omission
C. Transmission D. Conversion

Q213. It comes from the _________-which means a grandson or descendant .

A. Irish Q’ B. Erish O’
C. Erish Q’ D. Irish O’

Q214. Here again Mc is the contraction of ________ which means ‘son of.’
A. Mac-cain B. Macoon
C. Mac D. Machine
Q215. ________ is a personal pronoun and does not need an apostrophe.
A. There’s B. Heir’s
C. ‘Its’ D. None of above
Q216. ”It’s” is a contraction of either ‘it is’ or ‘it has’ and therefore it takes an apostrophe.
A. True B’ False
C. Partly True D. Partly False

Q217. ___________ also known as quotes or inverted commas are used to enclose material
that is introduced into a text from outside it,
A. Quotation marks B.Question Marks

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C. Both A and B D. None of above

Q218. There are two types of quotation marks __________ and __________.
A. Tri; Quadra B.Single ; Tri
C. Quadra ; Double D. Single ; Double

Q219. __________are also known as parentheses

A.Brackets B. Blocks
C. Inverted Commas D. None of above

Q220. _________ are used to enclose certain contents, which the writer sets out apart so that
the flow of the sentence is not interrupted.
A. Brackets B. Blocks
C. Inverted Commas D. None of above

Q221. Crescent brackets are used in :

A. To enclose an abbreviation that is be subsequently used in the text
B. To enclose references from other topics in a text
C. To enclose a translation or equivalent expression
D. All of above

Q222. ____________ are used to enclose words that are not usually intended to be the part of
a sentence
A. Curly Brackets B. Square Brackets
C. Circle Brackets D. None of above

Q223. Square Brackets are used to enclose words that are not usually intended to be the part
of a sentence, but only as _____________ or ___________.
A. Editorial ; Auditoria interjection B. General ; Authorial interjection
C. Editorial ; Authorial interjection D. General ; Auditoria interjection

Q224. Select your animal {goat, sheep, cow, horse} and come to the market - is an example of
which type of bracket.
A.Circle Brackets B. Brace bracket
C.Square Brackets D.Crescent Brackets

Q225. I found it on Games.com http://www.games.com./ - is an example of which type of

bracket.
A. Angle bracket B. Brace bracket
C. Square Brackets D. Crescent Brackets

Q226. Some of the other functions of the colon are :

A. To introduce a number of items listed separately.
B. To introduce a question.
C. After headings in correspondence.
D. All of above

Q 227 The punctuation marks remove ambiguities,

A. Partly true B. True

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C. Partly false D. False

Q 228 Brackets are of two kinds:- __________ and ____________

A Crescent shaped ; Square shaped
B Croscent shaped ; Curly shaped
C Crescent shaped ; Circle shaped
D Circle shaped ; Square shaped

Answer

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
A A B D A A A A C B
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A A B C A C A C A D
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
A D A B A C C A A A
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A A A B C A A A C A
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
B C A A B C A C A A
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
C B C B A B A C C A
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
C A A C A C A C B A
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
C A A B C A D C A A
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
A A B A B D A B A C
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A B D A A A A A C C
101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A C C A C B A C A B
111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
B C D C C B A B A A
121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
B A C A B C A A D A
131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
A C C A C D B A D D
141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A D B A D B A D A D
151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
B C D A C D D A A B
161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A C A B B C A C A C
171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
B A D C B A B A C A

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181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190
C B B B B B D A B D
191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A B B B D C A B B B
201 202 203 204 205 206 207 208 209 210
C A B D D D C A C C
211 212 213 214 215 216 217 218 219 220
B B D C C A A D A A
221 222 223 224 225 226 227 228
D B C B A D B D

PAST Exam Question

August 2020

Q.1 Three words out of four are homophones

Find the odd one out.
a) Praise b) Prays
c) Prise d) Preys

Q.2 Choose the sentence which has been correctly punctuated?

a) We stayed in Jaisalmer, Rajasthan, Indore, Madhya Pradesh; Surpur, Karnataka;
before going to Delhi
b) We stayed in Jaisalmer, Rajasthan, Indore, Madhya Pradesh, Supur, Karnataka,
before going to Delhi.
c) We stayed in Jaisalmer, Rajasthan: Indore, Madhya Pradesh: Surpur,
Karnataka: before going to Delhi
d) We stayed in Jaisalmer : Rajasthan: Indore: Madhya Pradesh, Surpur: Karnatak,
before going to Delhi.

Q.3 Which of the following is the correct revision of the sentence?

Neither my friend nor my companion agree to walk to the office
a) Neither my friend nor my companion agree to walk to the office
b) Neither my friend nor my companions agrees to walk to the office
c) Neither my friend nor my companion agree to walk to their office
d) Neither my friends nor my companions agrees to walk to the office

Q.4 Complete the given sentence with the correct choice:

I don’t have a car I wish ______.
a) I would have one
b) I can be having a car
c) I could have had a car
d) I was having a car
November 2020

Q.5 Fill in the blanks with appropriate word.

The _________ children were _______ excited
a) dancing extremely b) naughty grimly
c) tactum quizzically d) practicing remorsefully

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Q.6 Choose the word that is correctly spelt
a) bureiu b) beuro
c) bureau d) burou

January 2021

Q.7 Fill in the blanks with the correct verb form

_________ you been to London?
a) Did b) Do
c) Have d) has

Q.8 Fill in the blanks with the correct answer:

Did you _________ what they said about your _________?
a) here/hair b) hear/ hair
c) heir/ hair d) hair/ hair

Q.9 Fill in the blanks with the correct prefix

She wanted to attend a _______ collegiate competition.
a) semi b) auto
c) anti d) inter

Q.10 Fill in the blanks by selecting one of the terms listed below
A market structure in which a single vendor sells a unique product in the market is
defined as _______.
a) Oligopoly b) Doupoly
c) Monopoly d) Syndicate

Q.11 Complete the given sentence with the correct choice.

The tea is _________
a) too hot to drink b) too hot too drink
c) to hot to drink d) to hot too drink

Q.12 Pick out the part of the sentence that has an error. If there is no error choose option A.
The children were playing happily.
a) No error b) Happily
c) The children d) Were playing

May 2021

.Q.13 Fill in the blanks with the correctly spelt word.

“I will _______ make it happen, said Gloria”. “But you can’t, the _____ won’t allow it”
said Andrea.
a) definately, government b) definitely, government
c) deinately, government d) definitely, government

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Q.14 Fill in the blanks in a way that completes the sentences.
Rechel was not pleased with Mary exposing her secret. As a result, she was quite
______ with her friend.
a) Upset b) Satisfied
c) Happy d) Glad

Q.15 Knowledge derived from several disciplines such as, Anthropology, Psychology,
Sociology and Political Science are used in communication, so it is considered as.
a) extra- disciplinary science b) intra-disciplinary science
c) inter- disciplinary science d) contra – disciplinary science

Q.16 Choose the correct sentence from the options below:

a) I was wondering today; if her friend’s were going to visit her father restaurant
b) I was wondering today; if he friend’s were going to visit her father’s restaurant
c) I was wondering today in her friends were going to visit her father’s restaurant
d) I was wondering today in her friends’ were going to visit her fathers’ restaurant

Q.17 Read the sentence to determine whether it has any grammatical error and choose the
option with the error, then choose option D.
I am getting more better by the day
a) I am getting b) no error
c) by the day d) more better

Q.18 From the options below, choose the statement that correctly describes the given
scenario
“Thinks will happen to you good or bad, according to how you behave”
a) On could nine
b) As you sow, so shall you reap
c) The grass is always greener on the other side
d) Don’t judge a book by its cover

Q.19 Choose the meaning of the emboldened word from the options below:
“What time is the afternoon break”?
a) to disintegrate a whole in to parts
b) to suspend regular activity for a period
c) to destroy
d) to breach an agreement or rule

Q.20 Fill in the blanks in a way that completes the sentence:

The high _______ needed _______ against leakage.
a) Sealing, ceiling b) Ceiling, sealing
c) Ceiling, ceiling d) Sealing, sealing

Q.21 Choose the correct option from the choice below:

a) She had not fought him after high school leaving
b) She had not fighted with him after leaving high school
c) She did not fight with him after she had left high school
d) She had not fighting with him since high school leaving

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Q.22 Fill in the blanks in a way that completes the sentence.
They were _______ for each other, said the ______ of honor.
a) maid, made b) made, made
c) made, maid d) maid, maid

Q.23 Choose the correct sentence from the options below:

a) “No, You must use a fire extinguisher to put out the fire, and not hit it with a
cloth,” Amelia Screamed.
b) “No! You must use a fire extinguisher to put out the fire, not hit it with a cloth!,”
Amelia Screamed.
c) “No? You must use a fire extinguisher to put out the fire, not hit it with a cloth!,”
Amelia Screamed
d) “No? You must use a fire extinguisher to put out the fire and not hit it with a
cloth!,” Amelia Screamed.

Q.24 A message that always promotes cordial interpersonal relations is a

a) Negative message b) Severe message
c) Positive message d) Formal message

July 2021

Q.25 Fill in the blanks in a way that completes the sentence.

“Bob is a builder ________, he knows a lot about architecture”.
a) so b) nor
c) despite d) either

Q.26 Fill in the blanks in a way that completes the sentence:

We all _______ him to be good at numbers but little did we _______ he also excelled in
English.
a) Know, no b) Know, Know
c) No, no d) No, know

Q.27 Arrange the following parts of the sentence in the correct order
A) Lies not in never falling
B) Every time we fall
C) The
D) But in rising
E) Greatest Glory in living
a) BCEAD b) DBACE
c) CEADB d) CADBE

‘
Q.28 Read the sentence to determine whether it has any grammatical error and choose the
option with the error accordingly if there is no error, then choose option D.
I find it hard to choose between these four flavours.
a) I find it b) Hard to choose
c) Between these four flavours d) No error

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November 2021

Q.29 Fill in the blanks with the correct option

Choose the word from the choices given below
The plane _______ right through the tower spreading terror and devastation.
a) flu b) flue
c) flew d) flow

Q.30 Choose the correct option for the following abbreviation

UNESCO
a) United Nations Education Scientific and Culture Organization
b) United Nation Educational Scientific and Culture Organization
c) United Nations Education Science and Cultural Organization
d) United Nations Educational Scientific and Cultural Organization

Q.31 Change the voice:

Gungun Sings a melodious song:
a) A melodious song had sung by Gungun
b) A melodious song was being sung by Gungun
c) A melodious song is sang by Gungun
d) A melodious song is sung by Gungun

Q.32 Complete the sentence with the correct option:

The sender should choose his words very carefully in order to ______ .
a) avoid ambiguity b) complicate the message
c) confuse the receiver d) create a vague message

Q.33 Fill in the blanks with the correct option

Although he was delayed because of heavy traffic, he did not _______ the plane.
a) board b) miss
c) reach d) catch

Q.34 Choose the correct sequence and mark the right answer accordingly
A) Food, water, by insect vector, or as an aerosol;
B) Intended to deliberately
C) Biological weapons are devices
D) Producing organisms or toxins in
E) Disseminate disease
a) A BCDE b) CBEDA
c) BEC DA d) DACBE

Q.35 GST stands for :

a) Goods and services tax b) Goods and supply tax
c) Government sales tax d) Goods and storage tax

Q.36 Fill in the blank with a suitable option:

The quality of Mangoes ______ excellent
a) were b) have
c) is d) are

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Q.37 Fill in the blanks with appropriate word.
_______ ! broke up.
a) Oops b) Yahoo
c) Hurray d) Yee- haw

Q.38 Rearrange the following parts and choose a correct sequence to form a meaningful
Sentence.
A) the king requested the prince
B) When the Prince in disguise came
C) to many his daughter
D) to beg for food in the palace
a) B D CA b) BDAC
c) ACBD d) DCAB

Answers:
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
C A D A B C C B D C
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A A D A C C C B B B
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
C C B C A B C D C D
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38
D A B D A A A B

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Chapter 2

Enriching Vocabulary

Multiple Choice Questions

Q1. Vocabulary is a person's own knowledge of words.

A. True B. False
C. Partly False D. Partly True

Q2. When you use a language with good words, it makes a positive impact on others.
A. False B. True
C. Partly True D. Partly False

Q3. Which of the following are the reasons to enrich your list of vocabulary words . :
A. Building your vocabulary is important in reading comprehension.
B. Building your vocabulary will improve your communication skills- verbal and
written communication skills.
C. Building your vocabulary may help improve your personal life, social life and
professional life
D. All of above

Q4. “erudite” means “______________

A. Having B. Learning
C. Showing knowledge D. All of above

Q5. The words you would choose to communicate with someone depend on the following
factors:
A. The range or repertoire of your vocabulary - Unless you know a word, you would
not be able to useit.
B. Your audience or person you are communicating with
C. Type of communication
D. All of above

Q6. The words you would choose to communicate with someone depend on the following
factors:
A. The message you intend to convey
B. Context and usage
C. Regional or national differences in language or connotation also influence your
choice of words
D. All of above

Q7. ________ in Britain has a positive meaning.

A. Liberal B. Generous
C. Regional D. Connotation

Q8. ‘Liberal’ in Britain has a ________ meaning.

A. Negative B. Optimistic
C. Adverse D. Positive

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Q9. ‘Liberal’ in Britain has a positive meaning. It means generous and open minded,
whereas in America it is used as a term of __________.
A. Social abuse B. Capital abuse
C. Political abuse D. Liberal abuse

Q10. Good dictionaries give all the changes that a root word can undergo.
A. False B. True
C. Partly true D. Partly false

Q11. You should word your message so that it is easy for them to understand it and respond
favorably.
A. Partly false B. Partly true
C. True D. False

Q12. As for conciseness, you must be careful not to sacrifice effectiveness for brevity.
A. True B. Partly true
C. False D. Partly false

Q13. Simple language produces the best and the quickest response from everyone.
A. True B. False
C. Partly true D. Partly false

Q14. Using familiar words does not mean using colloquial English.
A. False B. Partly false
C. Partly true D. True

Q15. Using familiar words means :

A. The words with sharp and clear meanings in the mind.
B. Using the language that is used by most of us in everyday conversation.
C. A good suggestion in which the simplest words that carry the meaning without
offending the readers’ intelligence are used.
D. None of above

Q16. ________ is language that is unique to a particular field of knowledge,

A. Familiar words B. Gender-neutral words
C. Jargon D. Short words

Q17. Jargon has two parts:

A. It is the private language that only the persons in that particular field can
understand.
B. It is wider acceptance of certain words and phrases in the general language used
by the public.
C. Either ‘A’ or ‘B’
D. Both ‘A’ & ‘B’

Q18. __________ means (an expressive style that uses excessive or superfluous words) or
using more words than necessary is a common weakness.
A. Simplicity B. Jargon
C. Verbosity D. Superfluous words

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Q19. According to _______________words increase in number to fill the quantity of paper
available.
A. Parkinson’s Law B. University of Manchester
C. Oxford Dictionary D. Studies of readability

Q20. Writing requires considerable knowledge of the language being used. But beyond basic
familiarity with vocabulary, good writers possess a sensitivity to words’ shades of
meaning.
A. False B. Party true
C. True D. Partly false

Q21. Knowledge of language enables you to use words that carry the meaning you want to
communicate.
A. False B. Partly false
C. True D. Partly true

Q22. Finding and knowing ____________ is helpful in the sense that it enhances your
vocabulary by increasing your stock of words.
A. Antonyms B. Homonym
C. Homophone D. Synonyms

Q23. The synonyms of adept is :

A. Proficient B. Skill
C. Shorten D. Sufficient

Q24. The synonyms of abstain is :

A. Additional B. Follower
C. Ill D. Refrain

Q25. The synonyms of abridge is :

A. Careless B. Praise
C. Shorten D. Disciple

Q26. The synonyms of abundant is :

A. Ample B. Execute
C. Dangerous D. Auxiliary

Q27. The synonyms of accessory is :

A. Satisfactory B. Huge
C. concoct D. Additional

Q28. The synonyms of adherent is :

A. Follower B. Cunning
C. Valid D. Messy

Q29. The synonyms of brisk is :

A. Hard B. Deftness
C. Praise D. Lively

Q30. The synonyms of cordial is :

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A. Congenial B. Dull
C. Fussy D. Exhausted

Q31. The synonyms of captious is :

A. Convincing B. Moralising
C. Risky D. Censorious

Q32. The synonyms of cogent is :

A. Valid B. Sickly
C. Morose D. Decline

Q33. The synonyms of didactic is :

A. Colossal B. Preach
C. Sensible D. Skilled

Q34. The synonyms of effete is :

A. Eulogy B. Lax
C. Worn - out D. Unplanned

Q35. The synonyms of ephemeral is :

A. Transient B. Oppressive
C. Blunt D. Astute

Q36. The synonyms of extravagant is :

A. Excessive B. Deadly
C. Festivity D. Execute

Q37. The synonyms of fabricate is :

A. Festivity B. Disciple
C. Concoct D. Short - lived

Q38. The synonyms of fatal is :

A. Huge B. Deftness
C. Fast D. Deadly

Q39. The synonyms of fastidious is :

A. Merriment B. Hard
C. Messy D. Risky

Q40. The synonyms of gigantic is :

A. Colossal B. Fussy
C. Spite D. Giant

Q41. The synonyms of inadvertent is :

A. Spite B. Lax
C. Careless D. Sickly

Q42. The synonyms of insidious is :

A. Astute B. Poverty
C. Festivity D. Satisfactory

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Q43. The synonyms of judicious is :
A. Summit B. Merriment
C. Sensible D. Pine

Q44. The synonyms of malice is :

A. Blunt B. Encomium
C. Cosmopolitan D. Ill will

Q45. The synonyms of obtuse is :

A. Stupid B. Deftness
C. Flourish D. Eulogy

Q46. The synonyms of onerous is :

A. Pine B. Wasteful
C. Burdensome D. Infertile

Q47. The synonyms of panegyric is :

A. Encomium B. Healing
C. Want D. Wreckful

Q48. The synonyms of reticent is :

A. Culmination B. Silent
C. Sound D. Poverty

Q49. The synonyms of sterile is :

A. Suave B. Barren
C. Want D. Crave

Q50. The synonyms of thrive is :

A. Summit B. Healthy
C. Thirst D. Prosper

Q51. The synonyms of wholesome of is :

A. Healing B. Complete
C. Crave D. Reserved

Q52. The synonyms of yearn is :

A. Wreckful B. Infertile
C. Yarn D. Crave

Q53. The synonyms of zenith is :

A. Culmination B. Sufficient
C. Summit D. Both ‘A’ & ‘C’

Q54. The antonyms of bankrupt is :

A. Inability B. Written
C. Solvent D. Fiction
Q55. The antonyms of economical is :
A. Immigrant B. Slow
C. Export D. Extravagant

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Q56. The antonyms of emigrant is :
A. Immigrant B. Rigid
C. Criticism D. Superior

Q57. The antonyms of explicit is :

A. Spurious B. Busy
C. Implicit D. Stale

Q58. The antonyms of flattery is :

A. Decline B. Slow
C. Criticism D. War

Q59. The antonyms of fresh is :

A. Stale B. Rotten
C. Quiet D. Board

Q60. The antonyms of genuine is :

A. Normal B. Duplicate
C. Spurious D. Inaccurate

Q61. The antonyms of haste is :

A. Despair B. Export
C. Plentiful D. Slowness

Q62. The antonyms of hope is :

A. Proud B. Quiet
C. Despair D. Implicit

Q63. The antonyms of humble is :

A. Busy B. Inward
C. Proud D. Broad

Q64. The antonyms of meager is :

A. Addition B. Plentiful
C. Written D. Entrance

Q65. The antonyms of native is :

A. Rigid B. Normal
C. Foreign D. Spurious

Q66. The antonyms of omission is :

A. Written B. Duplicate
C. Addition D. Proposer

Q67. The word, homo, means _______ and phone means _________
A. Same ; Device B. Single ; Sound
C. Home ; Sound D. Same ; Sound
Q68. The word,_________, means “same,” and ___________ means “sound.”
A. Homo ; Phone B. Hope ; Phone
C. Home ; Telephone D. Homes ; Phone

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Q69. __________ are two words that sound the same, but have different meanings.
A. Homophones B. Familiar words
C. Antonyms D. Synonyms

Q70. Homophones are two words that sound the same, but have different meanings.
A. False B. Partly true
C. Partly false D. True

Q71. Select the correct example of homophones :

A. Accexx B. Acces
C. Acess D. Access

Q72. Select the correct example of homophones :

A. Adcise B. Advize
C. Advice D. Adsize

Q73. Select the correct example of homophones :

A. Cell B. Sell
C. Call D. Both ‘A’ & ‘B’

Q74. The word homo- means “_______” but –nym means “_________.”
A. Home ; Nine B. Same ; Sound
C. Same ; Name D. None of above

Q75. The word ________- means “same,” but –_______ means “name.”
A. Homo ; Nine B. Homes ; Nym
C. Home ;Oym D. Homo ; Nym

Q76. A _________ is a single word (with one spelling) that has more than one meaning.
A. Antonyms B. Synonyms
C. Homonyms D. Homophone

Q77. A homonym is a single word (with one spelling) that has more than one meaning.
A. Partly false B. False
C. Partly true D. True

Q78. I am afraid of bats – is an example of :

A. Homophone B. Synonyms
C. Homonym D. Antonyms

Q79 That letter was addressed to me – is an example of :

A. Antonyms B. Homonym
C. Homophone D. Synonyms

Q80 Greed - Inordinate desire to gain and hoard wealth

A. Fragile B. Hangar
C. Amateur D. Avarice
Q81. That which cannot be taken by force
A. Impregnable B. Fragile
C. Vacillate D. Genocide

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Q82. One who learns a subject as a hobby
A. Euphony B. Nomad
C. Amateur D. Vacillate

Q83 That which can be easily broken.

A. Vandal B. Malcontent
C. Malinger D. Fragile

Q84. To show indecision/to sway to and fro in a decision

A. Vacillate B. Numismatics
C. Vandal D. Malinger

Q85. Pleasant sound

A. Hangar B. Genocide
C. Pleasure D. Euphony

Q86 Deliberate killing of whole community or race

A. Nomad B. Vacillate
C. Impregnable D. Genocide

Q87. The place where an aero plane is housed

A. Porch B. Malcontent
C. Hangar D. Vendetta

Q88. A person who is dissatisfied and is inclined to rebel

A. Malinger B. Malcontent
C. Vandal D. Nomad

Q89 To pretend to be sick in order to avoid work

A. Impregnable B. Euphony
C. Malinger D. Vandal

Q90. One of a race or tribe who has no fixed location and wanders from place to place
A. Numismatics B. Genocide
C. Nomad D. Vendetta

Q91. The study or collection of coins, bank notes and medals

A. Vandal B. Amateur
C. Malcontent D. Numismatics

Q92. A blood feud started by murder-seeking vengeance

A. Vandal B. Malinger
C. Avarice D. Vendetta

Q93 A person who deliberately damages private or public property

A. Avarice B. Vandal
C. Euphony D. Fragile

Q94. There is a relationship between a sound and the way it is expressed in writing, the same
sound is often conveyed through different spellings.

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A. Partly false B. True
C. Partly true D. False

Q95. Spelling errors are common when :

A. Certain alphabets/letters are repeated in a word.
B. When noun and verb forms of the same word have different spellings.
C. One has to sometimes choose between ‘ei’ and ‘ie’.
D. All of above

Q96 Spelling errors are common when :

A. Words have the same pronunciation but different spellings.
B. An extra letter at times alters the meaning of the word.
C. ‘e’ can be either dropped or retained when changing the root word.
D. All of above

Q97. A ________ is the minimum rhythmic sound of a spoken language.

A. Syllable B. Abbreviations
C. Stress D. Rhythm

Q98 Only one ________ in a word carries the main stress.

A. Stress B. Language
C. Syllable D. Rhythm

Q99 __________ are the shortened form of a word, phrase or text.

A. Idioms B. Phrases
C. Abbreviations D. Homophones

Q100 In formal writing it is best to use only well-known abbreviations that are understood by
all and are infrequent practice.
A. Partly true B. False
C. True D. Partly False

Q101 Etc. means _______

A. Ettcetrra B. Exeectra
C. Etcetera D. Eectrra

Q102. P.M stands for :

A. Prime Minister B. Primary Market
C. Prime Market D. Prime Meridian

Q103. Ms stands for :

A. Master B. Miss
C. Manuscript D. Microsoft

Q104 _________ are words formed from the initial letters of other words.
A. Antonyms B. Synonyms
C. Homophones D. Acronyms

Q105. FICCI stands for :

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A. Federation of Indian Chambers of Charity and Industry
B. Federation of International Charity of Commerce and Interest
C. Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry
D. Federation of International Custom of Cocaine and Industry

Q106. NaCl stands for :

A. Sodium Calcium B. Sodium Hydride
C. Sodium Hydrade D. Sodium Chloride

Q107 ’Mr.’ which is ‘________’ in plural

A. Messes B. Messers
C. Mister D. Messues

Q108. ________which the dictionary defines ‘as the form of expression peculiar to a
language.’
A. Idiom B. Expressions
C. Phrases D. Abbreviations

Q109. A ________ is a group of words, a part of sentence which does not make a complete
sentence, but has an independent meaning and makes some sense:
A. Expressions B. Phrases
C. Idioms D. None of above

Q110. ________ means(compelled to retreat)

A. Pull one through B. Gloss over
C. Beat back D. Cast aside

Q111. ___________ means (to amount to)

A. Boil down to B. Play off against
C. Cut off with a shilling D. Cast aside

Q112. ________ means (to reject, to throw aside)

A. Labour under B. Gloss over
C. Pull one through D. Cast aside

Q113. __________ means (to give someone a mere trifle in the will)
A. Cut off with a shilling B. Boil down to
C. Pull one through D. Bear back

Q114. ______ means (to ignore)

A. Labour under B. Boil down to
C. Gloss over D. Pull one through

Q115. ________ means (to suffer from some disadvantage or distress)

A. Beat back B. Play off against
C. Labour under D. Cast aside

Q116. ________ means (to set one party against another for one’s own advantage).
A. Play off against B. Cast a slur upon
C. A give and take policy D. To go rack and ruin

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Q117. ________ means (to recover, to help one recover)
A. Beat back B. A give and take policy
C. To get the upper hand or to get the better D. Pull one through

Q118 ___________ means(by word or act cast a slight reproach on someone)

A. To cut the Gordian knot B. To fall to someone ‘s lot
C. Cast a slur upon D. To catch a tartar

Q119. ____________ means (to encounter a strong adversary)

A. To go rack and ruin B. To give a someone the slip
C. To catch a tartar D. A give and take policy

Q120. ________ means (to remove a difficulty by bold or unusual measures)

A. To cut the Gordian knot B. To blunt the edge of
C. To go rack and ruin D. To set store on

Q121. __________ means (to become someone’s responsibility)

A. To give someone the slip B. To catch a tartar
C. To fall to someone ‘s lot D. A give and take policy

Q122. ________ means (to prevail over)

A. To turn the tables
B. Pull one through
C. To go rack and ruin
D. To get the upper hand or to get the better

Q123. ________ means (to dodge someone who is looking for you)
A. To make amends B. To give someone the slip
C. To have the right ring D. To make common cause

Q124. ____________ means (a policy of mutual concessions)

A. To go rack and ruin B. Gloss over
C. A give and take policy D. None of above

Q125 ________ means(reach a state of despair through neglect)

A. To go rack and ruin B. To have the whip hand
C. To cross the rubicon D. To blunt the edge of

Q126. _________ means (to have a difference with a person that has not yet been fully
expressed)
A. To cross the rubicon B. To blunt the edge of
C. To throw cold water upon D. To have a bone to pick with

Q127. ______ means (to have a position of power or control)

A. To keep a thing to oneself B. To have the right ring
C. To have the whip hand D. To make virtue of necessity

Q128. _____ means (to have so much work in hand that some part of it is either left undone or
done very badly)

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A. To flog a dead horse
B. To bear the brunt of
C. To eat humble pie
D. To have too many irons in fire
Q129. _______ means (to be genuine)
A. To beard the lion in his den B. To curry favor
C. To have the right ring D. To cross the rubicon

Q130. _______ means(have personal interests to serve)

A. To blunt the edge of B. To have an axe on grind
C. To set store on D. To turn the tables

Q131. ________ means (to be silent about one’s intentions)

A. To keep a thing to oneself, to keep one’s own counsel
B. To put the cart before the horse
C. To rise to the occasion
D. To make a cat’s paw or a tool of someone

Q132. _____ means (to keep away extreme poverty and hunger)
A. To bear the brunt of
B. To make amends
C. To have the whip hand
D. To keep the wolf from the door

Q133. ______ means (to bring to sudden end)

A. To make short work of
B. To throw in the sponge/towel
C. To throw cold water upon
D. To take a leap in the dark

Q134. __________ means (to compensate or make up for a wrong doing)

A. To set one’s own house in order
B. To make amends
C. To put the cart before the horse
D. To make common cause

Q135. ______ means (to unite in order to achieve a shared aim)

A. To make common cause
B. To make much ado about nothing
C. To cook or doctor an account/a book
D. To beard the lion in his den

Q136. _________ means (Pretend or believe that something which one is obliged to do or
accept is good for one’s character, moral development, etc.)
A. To have too many irons in the fire
B. To make a cat’s paw or a tool of someone
C. To rise to the occasion
D. To make a virtue of necessity

Q137. __________ means (to make a great fuss about a trifle)

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A. To eat humble pie
B. To make much ado about nothing
C. To make a cat’s paw or a tool of someone
D. To throw in the sponge/towel

Q138 _______ means (to use someone as a means of achieving one’s goal)
A. To take the bull by the horns
B. To rise to the occasion
C. To set one’s own house in order
D. To make a cat’s paw or a tool of someone

Q139. ___________ means(reverse the proper order or procedure)

A. To put the cart before the horse B. To set store on
C. To rise to the occasion D. To turn the tables

Q140. ____________ means (show the daring, imagination etc., which fits a particular
occasion)
A. To set store on B. To turn the tables
C. To rise the occasion D. To make common cause

Q141. ________ means (to consider to be of a particular degree of importance)

A. To set store on B. To make amends
C. To throw cold water upon D. To have the whip hand

Q142. ___________means (to arrange one’s affairs harmoniously)

A. To feather one’s nest
B. To set one’s own house in order
C. To cross the rubicon
D. To blunt the edge of

Q143. ___________ means (deal decisively with a difficult or unpleasant situation)

A. To take the bull by the home B. To eat humble pie
C. To throw cold water upon D. To turn the tables

Q144 ________ means(take a risky action/step in the hope that it is right)

A. To curry favour B. To make amends
C. To take a leap in the dark D. To flog a dead horse

Q145. _________ means (to discourage someone from doing something)

A. To throw cold water upon B. To turn the tables
C. To blunt the edge of D. To bear the brunt of

Q146. ____________ means(to give up a contest/acknowledge defeat)

A. To turn the tables B. Greek Word
C. Latin word D. To throw in the sponge

Q147. _______ means(gain an advantage after having been at a disadvantage)

A. To turn the tables B. To go to rack and ruin
C. To set store on D. To make common cause

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Q148. ________ means (to tamper with or falsify the facts of figures/ accounts)
A. To flog a dead horse B. A give and take policy
C. To cook or doctor an account/a book D. To eat humble pie

Q149. _______ means (to bear the main force or shock of)
A. To bear the brunt of B. To blunt the edge of
C. To flag a dead horse D. To feather one’s nest

Q150 ________ means (to oppose or challenge someone in his stronghold place)
A. To burn the candle at both ends B. To strain every nerve
C. To beard the lion in his den D. To stick at nothing

Q151. _________ means (to make something less effective)

A. To blunt the edge of
B. To feather one’s nest
C. To curry favour
D. To split hair

Q152. _________ means (to make too great a demand on one’s physical or mental resources
by overwork or overindulgence in some activity)
A. To strain every nerve
B. To force one’s hand
C. To stick at nothing
D. To burn the candle at both hands

Q153 ____ means (to take an important action or step that cannot be reversed)
A. To cross the rubicon
B. To rule the roost
C. To curry favour
D. To speak volumes about

Q154. _________ means (to win favour by gifts or flattery/try to flatter)

A. To harp on the same thing B. To tie somebody’s hands
C. To pass muster D. To curry muster

Q155 . _______ means (waste one’s energies on a lost cause)

A. To see through something B. To steal a march on
C. To flog a dead horse D. To eat one’s words

Q156 ______ means (to provide for oneself through dishonest means)
A. To feather one’s nest B. To lord it over someone
C. To scatter to the winds D. To blunt the edge of

Q157. _______ means (to have to humiliate oneself)

A. To haul over the coals B. To eat humble pie
C. To burn one’s fingers D. To stretch a point
Q158. ________ means (to retract one’s assertions under compulsion)
A. To run the gauntlet B. To talk shop

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C. To eat one’s words D. To stick at nothing

Q159. _______ means (to issue a challenge, to accept a challenge).

A. To force one’s hands
B. To rule the roost
C. To scatter to the winds
D. To throw down the gauntlet, to take up the gauntlet

Q160. ______ means (to undergo severe criticism or ill treatment)

A. To rest one’s laurels B. To stretch a point
C. To run the gauntlet D. To see through something

Q161. _______ means (to get oneself into trouble through miscalculation/ foolishness)
A. To burn one’s own fingers B. To steal the march on
C. To haul over the coals D. To strain every nerve

Q162. _______ means (to compel one to do something unwillingly or earlier than when one
wished to do it)
A. To pass muster B. To force one’s hands
C. To harp on the same thing D. To scatter to the winds

Q163. _________ means(reproach/reprimand someone severely)

A. To strike while the iron is hot
B. To eat one’s words
C. To haul over the coals
D. To split hair

Q164. ________ means (to unnecessarily cause delay in taking action)

A. To see a thing through coloured spectacles
B. To plough a lonely furrow
C. To let the grass grow under your feet
D. To pay one back in one’s own coin

Q165. ______ means (to behave in a superior or domineering manner with someone)
A. To haul over the coals B. To speak volumes about
C. To talk shop D. To lord it over someone

Q166. _______ means (to be punctiliously careful about one’s speech or behaviour)
A. To plough a lonely laurels
B. To mind one’s P’s and Q’s
C. To run the gauntlet
D. To force one’s hand

Q167. _______ means (to be accepted as satisfactory)

A. To pass muster
B. To stick at nothing
C. To rise like a phoenix from its ashes
D. To rest on one’s laurels
Q168. _____ means (to give tit for tat; to retaliate)

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A. To see a thing through coloured spectacles
B. To rule the roost
C. To pay one back in one’s own coin
D. None of above

Q169. _____ means (to work without help or support)

A. To steal a march on B. To split hair

C. To strain every nerve D. To plough a lonely furrow

Q170. ______ means (to rest satisfied with one’s achievement and make no further efforts)

A. To speak volumes about B. To rest on one’s laurels

C. To rise like a phoenix from its ashes D. None of above

Q171. _______ means (to keep repeating the same things over and over again)
A. To harp on the same thing B. To stick at nothing
C. To stretch a point D. None of above

Q172. _______ means (the phoenix is a mythical Arabian bird. It had no mate but when it was
about to die, it made a funeral pile of wood and aromatic gums and burned itself to
ashes on it. From the ashes a young phoenix is believed to have risen; to rise up to
former glory after being totally destroyed)
A. To tie somebody’s hands
B. To see through something
C. To rise like a phoenix from its ashes
D. None of above

Q173. _____ means (be the one who directs others in a business, community, household, etc.)

A. To see through something B. To speak volumes about

C. To stretch a point D. To rule the roost

Q174. ________ means (to waste (i) to scatter)

A. To split hair B. To throw mud at

C. To scatter to the winds D. To steal a march on

Q175. ____________ means (to observe what influence, whether it is favorable or adverse, is
likely to affect the existing state of things)

A. To see a thing through coloured spectacles

B. To strain every nerve
C. To tie somebody’s hands
D. To see which way the wind blows

Q176. ________ means (to regard something unfavorably because of one’s prejudices)

A. A dog in the manger

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B. To see a thing through coloured spectacles
C. To speak volumes about
D. To see through something

Q177. ______ means (to understand the true nature of something beneath deceptive
appearances)

A. To see through something B. Creature comforts

C. To stretch a point D. To throw mud at

Q178. ________ means (to have abundant evidence about something).

A. To strain every nerve B. To split hair

C. To strike while iron is hot D. To speak volumes about

Q179. _______ means (quibble or argue on minor points)

A. To talk shop B. To stretch a point

C. To split hair D. To steal a march on

Q180. _____ means (to do something so as to gain an advantage over another)

A. To steal a march on B. To stick at nothing
C. A sheet anchor D. To throw mud at

Q181. _______ means(behave in an unscrupulous way to get what one wants)

A. To strain every nerve B. To stick at nothing
C. To stretch a point D. None of above

Q182. _______ means (to use one’s utmost efforts)

A. To pass muster B. Tall talk
C. To strain every nerve D. To stretch a point

Q183. _______ means (to extend a regulation/definition to cover something not included in it)
A. To tie somebody’s hand B. To stretch a point
C. To strike while iron is hot D. To talk shop

Q184. _______ means (to take immediate advantage of an opportunity)

A. Tall talk
B. To see through something
C. To haul over the coals
D. To strike while the iron is hot

Q185. _______ means (to discuss matters connected with one’s trade or profession)
A. To talk shop B. To throw mud at
C. A white elephant D. None of above

Q186. ______ means (to restrict somebody’s activities)

A. To split hair B. A cold - comfort
C. To tie somebody’s hands D. To strain every nerve

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Q187. ________ means (to talk ill of)
A. To throw mud at B. A maiden speech
C. A white lie D. None of above

Q188. _____ means (ill will towards each other, enmity)

A. A bone of contention B. Creature comforts
C. Bad blood D. The gift of the grab

Q189. _______ means (subject of dispute)

A. A nine-day wonder B. A white elephant

C. A bosom friend/pal D. A bone of contention

Q190. ______ means (A very intimate and trusted friend)

A. Good offices B. A bosom friend/pal

C. A maiden speech D. None of above

Q191. ________ means (someone who is too clumsy, rough, coarse, etc. to suit his/her
surroundings and company or to handle a delicate situation)

A. Like a bull in a china shop B. Greek Word

C. Lynch law D. A herculean task

Q192. ________ means (inadequate consolation)

A. A sheet anchor B. A wild-goose chase

C. A cold-comfort D. A dog in the manner

Q193. _______ means (material comforts that contribute to physical ease and well-being)

A. A white lie B. An apple of discord

C. The ins and outs D. Creature comforts

Q194. _______ means (a person who prevents others from having things that he does not
need himself))

A. A dog in the manager B. The lion’s share

C. French leave D. lynch law

Q195. ______ means (adequate space to move or work in)

A. A fair-weather friend B. Penelope’s web
C. Elbow room D. French leave

Q196. ______ means (a friend who deserts you in difficulties)

A. A herculean task B. A nine-day wonder
C. A fair-weather friend D. A sheet anchor

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Q.197 _______ means (absence from work or duty without permission)
A. French leave B. Scot free
C. An apple of discord D. lynch law

Q.198 ______ means (influence)

A. The pros and cons B. An apple of discord
C. Good offices D. None of above

Q199. ______ means (a job requiring greater effort)

A. A herculean task B. The rising generation

C. Null and void D. None of above

Q200. ______ means (Mob law, law administered by private individuals and followed by
summary execution)

A. A maiden speech B. The powers that be

C. Lynch law D. The lion’s share

Q.201 _______ means (the first speech of a new member in a public body as in Town Hall or in
Parliament)

A. An apple of discord B. A storm in a tea cup

C. A maiden speech D. A white lie

Q202. _________ means (a person or event that attracts a lot of notice for a short time but is
soon forgotten)
A. A nine-day wonder B. The lion’s share
C. The rising generation D. Tall talk

Q203 __________ means (the young people).

A. The rising generation B. An apple of discord
C. Scot free D. A white lie

Q204. _______ means (without suffering any punishment or injury)

A. By the skin of one’s teeth B. A wild-goose chase
C. A sheet anchor D. Scot free

Q205. ________ means(a dependable person, or thing relied upon in the last resort)
A. A white lie B. A white elephant
C. A sheet anchor D. None of above

Q206. ________ means (boastful language)

A. Tall talk B. Penelope’s web
C. The ins and outs D. None of above

Q207. _______ means (something expensive to maintain)

A. A wild-goose B. French leave
C. An apple of discord D. A white elephant

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Q208. ________ means(a harmless lie told to avoid hurting someone’s feelings)
A. A white lie B. A storm in a tea cup
C. The pros and cons D. None of above

Q209. ______ means (a useless search, investigation or enterprise)

A. The gift of the gab B. The three R’s
C. The powers that be D. A wild-goose chase

Q210. ______ means (a subject of dispute/rivalry)

A. A white lie B. An apple of discord
C. The lion’s share D. None of above

Q211. _______ means (eloquence, fluency in speech)

A. The powers that be B. Penelope’s web
C. The pros and cons D. The gift of the gab

Q212. _______ means (the full details, intricacies, complications of a thing)

A. The ins and outs B. Good offices
C. The lion’s share D. Lynch law

Q213. ______ means (an unfairly large share)

A. The three R’s B. The pros and cons
C. Bad blood D. The lion’s share

Q214. _______ means (mastery in reading, writing and arithmetic)

A. Penelope’s web B. The three R’s
C. Elbow room D. None of above

Q215. _______ means (a work which seems to be going on and yet never comes to an end)
A. A white lie B. Penelope’s web
C. A white elephant D. The powers that be

Q216. ______ means (any governmental, legislative, managerial body)

A. The rising generation B. A fair-weather friend
C. A cold - comfort D. The powers that be

Q217. _______ means (various points or arguments for and against someone or something)
A. The pros and cons B. Tall talk
C. A bone of contention D. A nine-day wonder

Q218 _______ means (narrowly escape or avoid by a small margin)

A. By the skin of one’s teeth B. Penelope’s web
C. Null and void D. To be at sea

Q219. ______ means (a great fuss over a trifle)

A. To be at sixes and sevens B. A storm in a tea cup
C. A white elephant D. To be on the carpet

Q220. ______ means (invalid, valueless, no longer in force)

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A. The pros and cons B. A dog in the manager
C. The rising generation D. Null and void

Q221. ________ means (unintelligible, incomprehensible language)

A. To be greek or double dutch to one
B. To be in the doldrums
C. To be on one’s last leg
D. To be worth its weight in gold

Q222. ________ means (extremely valuable)

A. To be worth its weight in gold \
B. To be on the wane
C. To be at sea
D. To be on the carpet

Q223. _______ means(confused, uncertain)

A. To be at one’s wits end B. To be on one’s last leg
C. To be on the carpet D. To be at sea

Q224. _______ means (in a state of confusion or disarray)

A. To be at one’s wits end B. To be on the wane
C. To be at sixes and sevens D. None of above

Q225. ________ means (be completely at a loss as to what to do)

A. To be in the doldrums B. To be on the wane
C. To be at one’s wits end D. To be on the carpet

Q226. ________ means (feeling depressed; in low spirits or depression)

A. To be in the doldrums
B. To be on one’s last leg
C. To be on the wane \
D. To be worth its weight

Q227. ________ means (becoming weaker or less vigorous)

A. To be on the carpet B. To be at one’s wits end
C. The powers that be D. To be on the wane

Q228. _________ means (being severely reprimanded by someone in authority)

A. To be on one’s last leg B. Null and void
C. To be on the carpet D. A cold-comfort

Q229. _______ means (near the end of life, usefulness or existence)

A. By the skin of one’s teeth B. A storm in a tea cup
C. To be on the wane D. To be on one’s last leg

Q230. _____ means (money immediately available for use)

A. In short supply B. Ready money or cash
C. To pay one’s way D. Bad debts

Q231. ______ means(debts regarded as irrecoverable)

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A. Bad debts B. In short supply
C. To weather the storm D. To be in the same boat

Q232. _______ means (not easily available)

A. To sail before the wind B. In short supply
C. To bring a thing under hammer D. To drive a hard bargain

Q233. ________ means (to sell something by auction)

A. The game is not worth the candle
B. To bring a thing under hammer
C. To give a broadside
D. To take something by storm

Q234. ________ means(insist on the best possible price when negotiating with somebody)
A. To drive a hard bargain B. To be in the same boat
C. To weather the storm D. To pay one’s way

Q235. ______ means(earn enough to cover one’s expenses)

A. To take something by storm B. To cast anchor
C. To pay one’s way D. None of above

Q236. _________ means (to capture a place by sudden and violent attack)
A. To bring a thing under hammer
B. To strike one’s flag or colours or to show the white
C. The game is not worth the candle
D. To take something by storm

Q237. ________ means (to surrender)

A. To strike one’s flag or colours or to show the white
B. To give a broadside
C. To be in the same boat
D. In short supply

Q238. ________ means (to come out of a crisis successfully)

A. To sail before the wind B. To weather the storm
C. To cast anchor D. To be in the same boat

Q239. _________ means (sail in the direction in which the wind is blowing or act in a safe way)
A. To sail before the wind B. To weather the storm
C. To take the wind out of one’s sails D. To give a broadside
Q240. ______ means (to settle in a place for the time being)
A. To bring a thing under hammer B. To cast anchor
C. To be in the same boat D. None of above
Q241. ________ means (a naval phrase meaning to charge at once at an enemy by arranging
all the guns along one side of a ship. Metaphorically it means to make a vigorous attack
upon an opponent)
A. To be in the same boat
B. Not hold a candle to something or someone
C. To give broadside
D. The game is not worth the candle

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Q242. ________ means (be in the same difficult circumstances as others)
A. To cast anchor B. To pay one’s way
C. To be in the same boat D. None of above

Q243. ________ means(upset or disturb an overconfident or pompous person)

A. To take the wind out of one’s sails B. In short supply
C. To cast anchor D. To take something by storm

Q244. ________ means (the advantage or enjoyment to be gained is not worth the time spent
in gaining it)
A. To take something by storm
B. The game is not worth the candle
C. Not hold a candle to something or someone
D. None of above

Q245. ________ means (be inferior to someone)

A. To cast anchor B. To weather the storm
C. Not hold a candle to something or someone D. None of above

Q246. _________ means(one never loses hope).

A. Better late than ever B. To hit the nail on the bed

C. Hope springs eternal in the human breast D. All is well that ends well

Q247. Fools rush in where angels fear to tread means :

A. Said of reckless persons B. An aged lover
C. Said of something impossible D. Be revengeful

Q248. _________ means (An aged lover).

A. Out of the frying pan into fire B. Beggars can’t be choosers
C. There is no fool like an old fool D. None of above

Q249. _______ means (Precept means moral instruction).

A. Example is better than percept
B. Tow heads are better than one
C. He who pays the piper calls the tune
D. It never rains bur pours

Q250. ________ means(One has to act according to the wishes of one’s master).
A. One man’s meat is another man’s poison
B. Ever man for himself and god for us all
C. He who pays the piper calls the tune
D. Haste makes waste

Q251. You cannot make a silk purse out of a sow’s ear means :
A. People of like character come together
B. Said of something impossible
C. None but the brave deserve the fair
D. None of above

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Q252. _______ means(People of like character come together).
A. Beggars can’t be choosers B. It never rains but pours
C. Birds of a feather flock together D. None of above

Q253. One man’s meat is another man’s poison means :

A. A little knowledge is a dangerous thing
B. None but the brave deserve the fair
C. One man’s meat is another man’s poison
D. To hit the nail on the head

Q254. _________ means (From one trouble to another bigger trouble).

A. It never rains but pours B. To hit the nail on the head
C. Out of the frying pan into the fire D. All is well that ends well

Q255. The last straw breaks the camel’s back means :

A. The smallest addition to an already heavy task or burden makes it tolerable
B. Haste makes waste
C. Nearer look a gift horse in the mouth
D. You can’t have the cake and eat it too
Q256. _________ means(A prior warning should prepare one for the contingency).
A. To err is human
B. Fore-warned is fore-armed
C. One swallow does not make a summer
D. None of above

Q257. Out of sight, out of mind means :

A. Render unto Caesar what is Caesar’s
B. Haste makes waste
C. Once you lose sight of a thing, you forget it altogether
D. All is well then ends well

Q258. __________ means (Things look nice and beautiful when they are not within reach).
A. Distance lends enchantment to the view
B. All is well that ends well
C. Better late than never
D. To hit the nail on the head

Q259. __________ means (Be revengeful).

A. Make hay while the sun shine B. To rob peter to pay Paul
C. Render unto Caesar what is Caesar’s D. None of above

Q260. Look before you leap means:

A. Never look a gift horse in the mouth
B. Do not be reckless and impulsive
C. Be revengeful
D. Two heads are better than one

Q261. __________ means (To make full use of the given opportunity).
A. It never rains but pours B. To err is human

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C. Make hay while the sun shines D. Look before you leap

Q262. ________ means (There can be no choice about things given in charity or gift).
A. Nearer the church , the farther from god
B. Two heads are better than one
C. Never look a gift horse in the mouth
D. You can’t have the cake and eat it too

Q263. Nearer the Church, the farther from God means :

A. Things take time to complete and to mature
B. To harm one person [or side] in order to benefit the other
C. To make full use of the given opportunity
D. The more opportunity you have the less you benefit from them

Q264. To rob peter to pay Paul means :

A. Things take time to complete and to mature
B. A prior warning should prepare one for the contingently
C. To harm one person [or side] in order to benefit and to mature
D. People of like character come together

Q265. __________ means(Things take time to complete and to mature)

A. None but the brave deserve the fair
B. Rome was not built in a day
C. A little knowledge is a dangerous thing
D. Look before you leap

Q266. __________ is a short way of writing a word or a phrase that could also be written out in
full.
A. Foreign words and phrases B. Phrases
C. Abbreviation D. Proverbs

Q267. ____________ is defined as: A shortened form of a word or phrase used for brevity in its
place consisting of the first letter, or the first few letters of the word, followed by a period
(full stop).
A. Phrases B. Idioms
C. Proverb D. Abbreviations

Q268. Which of the following is the correct statement :

A. Several British universities were founded in the Victorian era; for example, the
University of Manchester was established in 1853.
B. Several British universities were founded in the Victorian era; for example, the
University of Manchester was established in 1851.
C. Several British universities were founded in the Victorian era; for example, the
University of Manchester was established in 1860.
D. Several British universities were founded in the Victorian era; for example, the
University of Manchester was established in 1854.

Q269. A.D. stands for :

A. Anne Damnum B. Anno Danimi
C. An Direct D. Anno Domini

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Q270. B.C. stands for :
A. Before Ciren B. Before Christ
C. Belied Christ D. Befre Christ

Q271. ______ means from the beginning

A. ab initio B. ab origin
C. avant-propos D. cacus belli

Q272. _________ means from the origin

A. bon voyage B. ad libitum
C. ab origin D. beau spirits

Q273. ________ means list of additions (addenda to a book)

A. ad hoc B. au courant
C. a la mode D. addenda
Q274. ______ means speak or perform in public without advance preparation. (Extempore)
A. ad libitum B. bizarre
C. alma mater D. avant-garde

Q275. _________ means according to value

A. a la mode B. ad valorem
C. en masse D. beaux spirits

Q276. __________ meansa body elected or appointed for a particular work (ad hoc
committee)
A. beau ideal B. elite
C. ad hoc D. apropos

Q277. _________ means to infinity, endlessly, forever

A. coup de grace B. au revoir
C. ad infinitum D. alma mater

Q278. ________ means a school or a college which one has attended

A. a la crate B. de novo
C. a priori D. alma mater

Q279. _________ means according to the card/list (A la carte dishes are available here)
A. a priori B. dernierressort
C. a la carte D. au fait

Q280. _________ means according to the fashion

A. a la mode B. de jure
C. beau monde D. a posteriori

Q281. _________ means the other self; alternative personality; intimate friend (He is my alter
ego - we go everywhere together)
A. amour proper B. confere
C. bona fide D. alter ego

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Q282. ________ means a public or open apology, reparation
A. de facto B. amende honorable
C. beau ideal D. corrigenda

Q283. _________ means self-love; self-esteem

A. au courant B. apropos
C. amour proper D. détente

Q284. ________ means the former order of things, a political or social system that has been
displaced by a more modern one.
A. ancienregime B. debacle
C. au fait D. None of above

Q285. ________ means empirical, from effect to cause

A. en masse B. apropos
C. errata D. a posteriori

Q286. __________ means from cause to effect (presumptive) Every science cannot be taught
a priori.
A. eureka B. bete noire
C. a priori D. elite

Q287. ________ means with reference to (apropos our talk)

A. apropos B. ex-officio
C. de novo D. entourage

Q288. _________ meansfully acquainted with matters, well-informed, up-to- date

A. errata B. debacle
C. entrepreneur D. au courant

Q289. __________ meansexpert, having detailed knowledge

A. casus belli B. au fait
C. circa D. cul-de-sac

Q290. ___________ means until we meet again (to say au revoir at parting)
A. au revoir B. bete noire
C. coup de grace D. deprofundis

Q291. _________ means preliminary matter, preface

A. avant-garde B. de’nouement
C. avant-propos D. entourage
Q292. _________ means new, unusual or experimental
A. enfant terrible B. en rapport
C. avant-garde D. esprit de corps

Q293. _________ means the ideal of perfection

A. beaux spirits B. corrigenda
C. beau ideal D. bete noire

Q294. _________ means the world of fashion

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A. bona fide B. beau monde
C. casus belli D. prima facie

Q295. ________ means men of wit

A. bizarre B. mala fide
C. bon voyage D. beaux spirits

Q296. _________ means a special aversion (India has always been bete noire for Pakistan)
A. et cetera B. bete noire
C. contretemps D. chef d’ oeuvre
Q297. __________ meansgenuine sincere (He is a bona fide citizen of India).
A. bona fide B. dramatis personae
C. détente D. enfant terrible

Q298. _________ means strange, unknown

A. en rapport B. bizarre
C. errata D. causecelebre

Q299 ________ meanshave a good journey

A. dernierressort B. confere
C. de jure D bon voyage

Q300. ___________ means that which causes or justifies war

A. causecelebre B. casus belli
C. cul-de-sac D. enfant terrible

Q301. Cause celebre means :

A. approximately
B. and the rest
C. a famous case in law , controversial well-publicised issue
D. in harmony

Q302. _________ means a deputy to the Ambassador/a diplomatic representative to a minor

country
A. circa B. confere
C. debacle D. charged’ affaires

Q303. ___________ means masterpiece (Mona Lisa is Vinci’s chef d’ oeuvre.)

A. en masse B. corrigenda
C. entourage D. chef d’ oeuvre
Q304. _________ means approximately
A. circa B. de facto
C. contretemps D. elite

Q305. ______ means colleague

A. debacle B. confere
C. beaux spirits D. de novo

Q306. _________ means a minor dispute or disagreement

A. de jure B. de facto

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C. coupd’etat D. contretemps

Q307. ________ means a thing to be corrected (in a book)

A. corrigenda B. deprofundis
C. cul-de-sac D. errata

Q308. __________ means violent change in government

A. esprit de corps B. vice versa
C. coupd’etat D. detente

Q309. _________ means a finishing stroke

A. de’nouement B. amour proper
C. coup de grace D. debacle

Q310. __________ means a blind alley

A. debacle B. cul-de-sac
C. de jure D. none of above

Q311. ___________ means an utter failure or disaster

A. deprofundis B. eureka
C. debacle D. pro forma

Q312. __________ means actual or in fact

A. de facto B. de novo
C. dramatis personae D. enfant terrible

Q313. _________ means from the law, by right

A. au revoir B. détente
C. de jure D. seriatim
Q314. _________ means anew, again (trial of a case)
A. en masse B. de novo
C. et cetera D. ex-officio

Q315. _________ means the end of a plot or narrative (in a play)

A. de’ nouement B. sanctum sanctorum
C. elite D. resume

Q316. ________ means a heartfelt appeal or feeling

A. dernierressort B. entrepreneur
C. pro rata D. deprofundis

Q317. _________ means last resort

A. errata B. elite
C. esprit de corps D. dernierressort

Q318. _________ means easing of strained relations especially between countries

A. dramatis personae B. corrigenda
C. détente D. coup de grace

Q319. _________ means characters of a novel, play or narrative

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A. elite B. en rapport
C. ipso facto D. dramatis personae

Q320. __________ means select group or class

A. entourage B. et cetera
C. elite D. contretemps

Q321. _________ means child who asks awkward questions; person or thing causing
embarrassment by unruliness
A. protégé B. en masse
C. zeigeist D. enfant terrible

Q322. _________ means a person who sets up business taking greater financial risk
A. coupd’etat B. ex-officio
C. circa D. entrepreneur

Q323. __________ means all together

A. en masse B. poste restante
C. en rapport D. et cetera

Q324. __________ means in harmony

A. pro forma B. nota bene
C. en rapport D. et cetera

Q325. __________ means group of people accompanying a dignitary

A. entourage B. probonopublico
C. in extenso D. eureka

Q326. _________ means list of errors

A eureka B. viva voce
C. errata D. tour de force

Q327. ________ means the animating spirit of a particular group like a regiment
A esprit de corps B. faux pas
C. verbatim D. seriatim

Q328. __________ meansand the rest

A. de novo B. et cetera
C. modus operandi D. post mortem

Q329. ________ means I (have) found it !

A. eureka B. impasse
C. oar excellence D. in toto

Q330. _______ means by virtue of his office/status/position

A. previous officer B. terra incognito
C. ex-officer D. subjudice

Q331. _____ means a report in the media that reveals something discreditable
A. resume B. expose

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C. verbatim D. subrosa

Q332. ________ means with retrospective action or force

A. impasse B. pro forma
C. ex post facto D. mala fide

Q333. ______ means a social blunder

A. malapropos B. gauche
C. mutatis mutandis D. faux pas

Q334. _______ means a thing already done/accomplished fact

A. fait accompli B. laissez-faire
C. pro rata D. nota bene

Q335. _______ means unsophisticated/socially awkward

A. in toto B. hoi polloi
C. impasse D. gauche

Q336. __________ means the common people

A. hoi polloi B. terra incognito
C. impasse D. quid pro quo

Q337. _________ means a deadlock

A. zeigeist B. var excellence
C. impasse D. in memoriam
Q338. ___________ means in full
A. paripassu B. noblesse oblige
C. post mortem D. in extenso
Q339. _________ means in memory of
A. ipso facto B. in memoriam
C. mala fide D. in toto

Q340. ________ means entirely/as a whole

A. in toto B. sui generis
C. sine die D. ste t

Q341. _________ means by that very fact or act

A. vis-à-vis B. tour de force
C. ipso facto D. voxpopuli ,vox Dei

Q342. _________ means a policy of non-interference

A. viva voce B. subrosa
C. laissez faire D. post mortem

Q343. ________ means in bad faith

A. mala fide B. status quo
C. nota bene D. summumbonum

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Q344. _________ means ill-timed/inappropriately
A. sine die B. vice versa
C. malapropos D. var excellence

Q345. ___________ means a way of doing something (of a gang, group, etc.)
A. modus operandi B. ste t
C. videlicet D. paripassu

Q346. ____________ means with the necessary changes

A. terra incognito B. vice versa
C. mutatis mutandis D. post mortem

Q347. __________ means privilege entails responsibility

A. noblesse oblige B. verbatim
C. protégé D. nota bene

Q348. __________ means note well

A. pro rata B. nota bene
C. ultra virus D. var excellence

Q349. ________ means better than the others of the same kind
A. paripassu B. sui generis
C. piece de resistance D. var excellence

Q350. __________ means side by side, equally or equivalently

A. per se B. prima facie
C. paripassu D. voxpopuli ,vox Dei

Q351. __________ means by itself

A. subjudice B. poste restante
C. status quo D. per se

Q352. _________ means the important feature of a creative work or meal, etc.
A. piece de resistance B. probonopublico
C. quid pro quo D. None of above

Q353. __________ means a department in the post office that keeps letters for a period till
called for
A. prima facie B. poste restante
C. raison d’ etre D. viva voce

Q354. __________ means examination/analysis made after death/or an event has occured
A. sine die B. post mortem
C. terra incognito D. vis-à-vis

Q355. _________ means at first view of consideration

A. prima facie B. resume
C. pro forma D. pro rata

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Q356. ___________ means for the good of the public
A. quid pro quo B. seriatim
C. probonopublico D. videlicet

Q357. ___________ means denoting a standard document or form

A. pro rata B. pro forma
C. zeigeist D. sanctum sanctorum

Q358. _________ means according to rate or proportion

A. protégé B. subrosa
C. pro rata D. vis-à-vis

Q359. ___________ means one under the protection/guidance of another older or experienced
person
A. resume B. protégé
C. vice versa D. None of above

Q360. ___________ means a favour or advantage given in return for something

A. quid pro quo B. ste t
C. seriatim D. sine die

Q361. ___________ means the most important reason for a thing’s existence
A. sanctum sanctorum B. raison d’ etre
C. tour de force D. sui generis

Q362. ___________ means a summary or curriculum vitae

A. verbatim B. terra incognito
C. resume D. seriatim

Q363. __________ means holy of holies (temple, church, etc.)

A. status quo B. subrosa
C. mala fide D. sanctum sanctorum

Q364. __________ means point by point

A. seriatim B. expose
C. videlicet D. sui generis

Q365. ________ means without a day being appointed

A. status quo B. terra incognito
C. sine die D. ex post facto

Q366. __________ means the existing condition

A. debacle B. ultra virus
C. status quo D. None of above

Q367. __________ meanslet it stand, do not deter

A. ste t B. in toto
C. bizarre D. prima facie

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Q368. ______________ means under judicial consideration and therefore prohibited from public
discussion
A. subrosa B. viva voce
C. zeigeist D. subjudice

Q369. __________ means confidentially/done in secret

A. terra incognito B. sui generis
C. subrosa D. None of above

Q370. ________ means in a class by itself

A. sui generis B. viva voce
C. protégé D. summumbonum
Q371. ________ means the chief good
A. videlicet B. seriatim
C. summumbonum D. resume

Q372. _____ means an unknown territory

A. poste restante B. paripassu
C. beau ideal D. terra incognito

Q373. __________ means a notable feat of strength or skill

A. tour de force B. détente
C. fair accompli D. piece de resistance

Q374. _______ means beyond one’s authority

A. post mortem B. ultra virus
C. avant-garde D. ste t

Q375. _______ means word for word

A. verbatim B. deprofundis
C. elite D. de jure

Q376. __________ means conversely

A. en rapport B. vice versa
C. entourage D. noblesse oblige

Q377. _________ means namely, more formal term for viz.

A. en masse B. au revoir
C. casus belli D. videlicet

Q378. _________ means in relation to, as compared with, in a position facing one another
A. eureka B. vis-à-vis
C. ad hoc D. None of above

Q379. ___________ means an oral examination

A. viva voce B. a posteriori
C. errata D. amour proper

Q380. ___________ means the voice of the people is the voice of God

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A.zeigiest B. cul-de-sac
C. voxpopuli ,vox Dei D. de facto

Q381. __________ means the defining spirit of a particular period or age

A.entrepreneur B. corrigenda
C. entourage D. Zeigeist

Q382. The firemen were beaten back by the flames and the building was reduced to ashes- is
the example of :
A. To cut the Gordian knot
B. To have a bone to pick with
C. Beat back
D. Cast aside

Q383. His entire argument boiled down to the fact that he would not join the movement unless
he saw some monetary gain in it– is the example of :
A. A give and take policy
B. To blunt the edge of
C. Pull one through
D. Boil down to

Q384. People normally cast aside truth and honesty for immediate gains-is the example of :
A. To cross the rubicon
B. Cast aside
C. Cast a slur upon
D. To curry favour

Q385. The father was so angry with the son over his marriage that he cut him off with a shilling-
is the example of :
A. Gloss over
B. Cut off with a shilling
C. To set store on
D. To throw cold water upon

Q386.Even if you are an important person your faults cannot be glossed over-is the example of :
A. Gloss over
B. To catch a tartar
C. Pull one through
D. To go to rack and ruin

Q387.Let us not labour under the delusion that our friends will come to our aid in times of
difficulty-is the example of :
A. Pull one through
B. To give someone the slip
C. Labour under
D. To take a leap in the dark

Q388. It best serves theinterests of the super powers to play off one poor nation against
another-is the example of :
A. To put the cart before the horse

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B. To turn the tables
C. To have a bone to pick with
D. Play off against

Q389. Armed with the latest medicines, the doctor will pull him through-is the example of :
A. To fall to someone’s lot
B. To make short work of
C. To throw in the sponge/towel
D. Pull one through

Q390. Many a men cast a slur on their own good name by some mean act-is the example of :
A. Cast a slur upon
B. To bear the brunt of
C. To have an axe to grind
D. To set one’s own house to order

Q391. When Hitler marched on to Russia he hardly knew that he would catch a Tartar in the
tough people of that country-is the example of :
A. To get the upper hand or to get the better
B. To rise to the occasion
C. To keep the wolf from the door
D. To catch a tartar

Q392. The Indian Parliament threw out the Bill for Abolition of Privy Purses. The Government
cut the Gordian knot by abolishing the purses through a Presidential Ordinance-is the example
of :
A. To beard the lion in his den
B. To have the whip hand
C. To cut the Gordian knot
D. To have the right ring

Q393. It has fallen to the lot of the eldest brother to pay off the debts of the father-is the
example of :
A. To fall someone’s lot
B. To split hair
C. A give and take policy
D. Boil down to

Q394.Hari got the better of Suresh in the Degree Examination- is the example of :
A. To cooker doctor an account/a book
B. To make a common cause
C. To get the upper hand or to get the better of
D. To flog a dead horse

Q395. The police had nearly arrested the dacoits when the latter gave them the slip and hid
himself in the Chambal ravines-is the example of :
A. To have a bone to pick with
B. To burn the candle at both ends
C. to speak volumes about
D. To give someone the slip

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Q396. A give and take policy alone can restore peace between India and Pakistan-is the
example of :
A. To strain every nerve
B. To steal a march on
C. A give and take policy
D. To make a much a do about nothing

Q397. If a big war comes, our economy will go to rack and ruin- is the example of :
A. To go to rack and ruin
B. To stretch a point
C. To eat humble pie
D. To lord it over someone

Q398. The extreme leftists have a bone to pick with the police and if ever they come to power-is
the example of :
A. To harp on the same thing
B. To stick at nothing
C. To rule the roost
D. To have a bone to pick with

Q399. Even after the split in the party he has the whip hand in the party-is the example of :
A. To make amends
B. To make short work of
C. To talk shop
D. To have the whip hand

Q400. His performance is poor because he has too many irons in the fire – is the example of :
A. To have too many irons in the fire
B. To see through something
C. To keep a thing to oneself , to keep one’s own counsel
D. None of above

Q401. The Americans’ pronouncements of world peace do not usually have the right ring-is the
example of :
A. To take the bull by the horns
B. To take a leap in the dark
C. To have the right ring
D. To pass muster

Q402. Bigger nations supply arms to the smaller ones primarily because the former has their
own axe to grind-is the example of :
A. To have an axe to grind
B. To tie somebody’s hands
C. To pay one back in one’s own coin
D. To rise like a phoenix from its ashes

Q403. A great leader must ultimately keep his own counsel- is the example of :
A. To strike while the iron is hot
B. To pass muster
C. To burn one’s fingers

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D. To keep a thing to oneself , to keep one’s own counsel

Q404.Lakhs of people in India still have to fight daily to keep the wolf from the door-is the
example of :
A. To keep the wolf from the door
B. To make amends
C. To plough a lonely furrow
D. To throw mud at

Q405. The locusts made short work of the standing ripe corn-is the example of :
A. To take the bull by the horns
B. To feather one’s nest
C. To rest one’s laurels
D. To make short work of
Q406. By being polite today, he has made amends for his past insolence – is the example of :
A. An apple to discord
B. The lion’s share
C. To make amends
D. The ins and outs

Q407. During the elections the princes made a common cause with the rightist parties. Both
went down-is the example of :
A. To make common cause
B. To make a cast’s paw or a tool of someone
C. A sheet anchor
D. Bad blood

Q408. When a Minister knows that he is going to be booted out of the cabinet he makes a virtue
of necessity and resigns ‘on health grounds’- is the example of :
A. To blunt the edge of
B. To haul over the coals
C. Like a bull in a china shop
D. To make a virtue of necessity

Q409. Crying over the loss of ten rupees is really making much ado about nothing – is the
example of :
A. To make much a do about nothing
B. To rise to the occasion
C. To eat one’s words
D. A while lie

Q410. The super powers have made a cat’s paw of the smaller nations of Asia in their game of
power politics-is the example of :
A. To force one’s hand
B. Elbow room
C. French leave
D. To make a cat’s paw or a tool of someone

Q411. Preparing the blue print of a project without analyzing market potential is like putting the
cart before the horse-is the example of :

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A. To put the cart before the horse
B. To stick at nothing
C. A wild-goose chase
D. A maiden speech

Q412. A flood threatened to burst the reservoir but the villagers rose to the occasion and did not
relax till they had made all secure-is the example of :
A. To bear the brunt of
B. To rise to the occasion
C. A white elephant
D. To set store on

Q413. India did set much store on the Indo Soviet Treaty of friendship-is the example of :
A.To set store on
B. To set one’s own house in order
C. A nine-day wonder
D. The gift of the gab

Q414. Let Pakistan set his own house in order before talking about the welfare of the Kashmir’s-
is the example of :
A. To turn the tables
B. The lion’s share
C. An apple of discord
D. To set one’s own house in order

Q415. The doctor had to take the bull by the horns by deciding to amputate the patient’s leg in
order to save his life-is the example of :
A. To scatter to the winds
B. Good offices
C. A herculean task
D. To take the bull by the horns

Q416. You took a leap in the dark in going into partnership with that man-is the example of :
A. To take a leap in the dark
B. To throw in the sponge/towel
C. Creature comforts
D. None of above

Q417.The doctor threw cold water upon my plans for a world tour by declaring that I would not
be able stand the strain of -is the example of:
A. To cross the rubicon
B. Penelope’s web
C. The pros and cons
D. To throw cold water upon

Q418. Faced with stiff competition from big companies, many a small companies throw in the
sponge-is the example of :
A. A cold-comfort
B. To throw in the sponge/towel
C. The rising generation

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D. None of above

Q419. Pakistan started with a blitzkrieg but the superior tactics of our armed forces soon turned
the tables on them-is the example of :
A.To cook or doctor an account/a book
B. To flog a dead horse
C. To turn the tables
D. A sheet anchor

Q420. From the balance sheet presented to the shareholders, the company seemed to be
flourishing, but later on it turned out that the management had cooked the accounts-is the
example of :
A. Null and void
B. To cook or doctor an account/a book
C. To eat humble pie
D. To mind one’s P’s and Q’s

Q421. The infantry forces have to bear the brunt of a battle-is the example of :
A. A bone of contention
B. To throw mud at
C. To bear the brunt of
D. To blunt the edge of

Q422. The Indian Army broke through strong Pakistan fortifications, and in the Shakargarh area
bearded the lion in his own den - is the example of :
A. To blunt the edge of
B. To beard the lion in his den
C. Lynch law
D. A dog in the manner

Q423. Time blunts the edge of grief- is the example of :

A. To cross the rubicon
B. To harp on the same thing
C. To blunt the edge of
D. None of above

Q424.In any kind of job, especially academic, you cannot afford to burn the candle at both ends,
if you want to be productive every day-is the example of :
A. The three R’s
B. A white lie
C. Scot free
D. To burn the candle at both ends

Q425. The Government will have to think of many things before nationalizing the textile industry
for once they cross the Rubicon there will be no going back-is the example of :
A. A storm in the tea cup
B. To cross the rubicon
C. To eat humble pie
D. To be at sea

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Q426. He was trying to curry favour with the boss by offering him an expensive gift-is the
example of :
A. The gift of gab
B. A fair-weather friend
C. An apple of discord
D. To curry favour

Q427. We will be flogging a dead horse if we try to make Sanskrit the national language of
India-is the example of :
A. To flog a dead horse
B. To eat humble pie
C. Bad blood
D. Beat back

Q428. Many bureaucrats feather their own nest while they have the opportunity-is the example
of :
A. To be on one’s last leg
B. Good offices
C. To feather one’ nest
D. None of above

Q429. Since no one came to his support he had to eat humble pie and give in to their demands-
is the example of :
A. French leave
B. A nine-day wonder
C. To eat humble pie
D. To blunt the edge of

Q430. It is hard for a haughty man to have to eat his words-is the example of :
A. To eat one’s words
B. To run the gauntlet
C. To force one’s hand
D. None of above

Q431.In order to defend his title the young Brazilian wrestler threw down the gauntlet-is the
example of :
A. To pass muster
B. A wild-goose chase
C. To throw down the gauntlet , to take up the gauntlet
D. To run the gauntlet

Q432. Most books have to run the gauntlet of the literary critics – is the example of :
A. To run the gauntlet
B. A maiden speech
C. To be on the carpet
D. To harp on the same thing

Q433.If you’ve never played the stock market in the past this is not the time to start, as you are
likely to burn your fingers-is the example of :
A. To speak volumes about

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B. To split hair
C. To burn one’s fingers
D. None of above

Q434. The Government wanted to do all that it could to meet the workers’ demands. But the
violence by the strikers forced their hands to declare a lockout- is the example of :
A. To force one’s hand
B. To steal a march on
C. The ins and outs
D. None of above

Q435. If your bad habits become known, you will get hauled over the coals and you richly
deserve it too-is the example of :
A. To rest one’s laurels
B. To see which way the wind blows
C. To stick at nothing
D. To haul over the coals

Q436. The authorities should listen to students’ grievances. If they let the grass grow under their
feet the situation would turn from bad to worse-is the example of :
A. To pass muster
B. To let the grass grow under your feet
C. To lord it over someone
D. None of above

Q437. The intoxication of power is so strong that when a man gains it he begins to lord it over
his fellows-is the example of :
A. To mind one’s P’s and Q’s
B. To strain every nerve
C. To lord it over someone
D. A bosom friend/pal

Q438. The manager suspects his chief clerk of dishonesty, and if the clerk does not mind his P’s
and Q’s, he will soon find himself out of job-is the example of :
A. To rise like a phoenix from its ashes
B. To see through something
C. To be worth its weight in gold
D. To mind one’s P’ and Q’s

Q439. Though my work in college was not as good as it could have been, it passed muster and
I got good results-is the example of :
A. To pass muster
B. To be on the wave
C. To harp on the same thing
D. None of above

Q440. Howsoever revengeful you may be, unless you are strong enough you cannot pay him
back in his own coin-is the example of :
A. The powers that be
B. The pros and cons

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C. To pay one back in one’s own coin
D. A white lie

Q441. In the organized society of today no individual or nation can plough a lonely furrow-is the
example of :
A. To plough a lonely furrow
B. The ins and outs
C. A cold-comfort
D. To throw mud at

Q442. Even if he wins the biggest award, a film star will never rest on his laurels. He will try to
reach greater heights of stardom-is the example of :
A. To strain every nerve
B. To stick at nothing
C. To rest on one’s laurels
D. None of above

Q443. This gentleman keeps harping on the same string that he is from Oxford and deserves
the best-is the example of :
A. The lion’s share
B. A maiden speech
C. The gift of gab
D. To harp on the same string

Q444. Germany was completely decimated in the Second World War. But it has risen like a
phoenix from its ashes-is the example of :
A. To steal a march on
B. Penelope’s web
C. To rise like a phoenix from its ashes
D. Good offices

Q445. In rural areas it is normally the Sarpanch who rules the roost-is the example of :
A. To rule the roost
B. To scatter to the winds
C. To stick at nothing
D. None of above

Q446. Whatever we had gained by independence we scattered to the wind-is the example of ;
A.the three R’s
B. A herculean task
C. To scatter to the winds
D. To see through something

Q447. In party-politics people sitting on the fence keep on watching which way the wind is
blowing before deciding whom to support-is the example of :
A. To see which way the wind blows
B. To speak volumes about
C. To see things through
D. To be in the same boat

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Q448. Pakistan has for long looked at India through coloured spectacles and never trusted even
the most genuine of her peace moves-is the example of :
A. To talk shop
B. To tie somebody’s hands
C.To see a thing through coloured spectacles
D. To be in the doldrums

Q449. They saw through the game of the enemy-is the example of :
A. To split hair
B. To see through something
C. To steal march on
D. None of above

Q450. The success of democracy in India speaks volumes about the maturity of her people-is
the example of :
A. To stretch a point
B. To tie somebody’s hands
C. To steal march on
D. To speak volumes about

Q451. As the drought played havoc in Bihar, the authorities were busy splitting hair trying to
decide whether there was ‘scarcity conditions’ or ‘famine’-is the example of :
A. To split hair
B. To give a broadside
C. A storm in a tea cup
D. Elbow room

Q452. While we were still debating the desirability of joint ventures with foreign concerns,
Singapore and Malaysia stole a march over us and opened their gates to foreign investment in a
big way-is the example of :
A. To strain every nerve
B. To talk shop
C. To steal a march on
D. The lion’s share

Q453. An ambitious politician will stick at nothing if that serves high ends-is the example of :
A. To stick at nothing
B. A white lie
C. Scot free
D. To be worth its weight in gold

Q454. We have to strain every nerve to get over the poverty line-is the example of :
A.To be at one’s wits end
B. By the skin of one’s teeth
C. To strain every nerve
D. A wild-goose chase

Q455. Targeting small bakeries as part of the drive to move polluting industries from residential
areas to industrial ones is stretching the point a little too far-is the example of :
A. To stretch a point

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B. Penelope’s web
C. The powers that be
D. French leave

Q456. By going in for general elections immediately after the war, the Congress struck while the
iron was hot-is the example of :
A. To talk shop
B. To rest one’s laurels
C. To strike while the iron is hot
D. To tie somebody’s hand

Q457.During tea breaks at any seminar you will always find the participants talking shop-is the
example of :
A. A sheet anchor
B. A fair-weather friend
C. Tall talk
D. To talk shop

Q458. Although the management was aware about the severe financial crises one of their
employees was going through, it could not pass the loan for it hands were tied by the
Company’s policy-is the example of :
A. To tie somebody’s hands
B. Like a bull in a china shop
C. Good offices
D. None of above

Q459.Some people specialize in throwing mud at others-is the example of :

A. A wild-goose chase
B. A dog in a manner
C. To throw mud at
D. An apple of discord

Q460. There has been bad blood between India and Pakistan since 1947-is the example of :
A. Lynch law
B. Bad blood
C.A white elephant
D. None of above

Q461. Kashmir continues to be a bone of contention between India and Pakistan-is the example
of :
A. To be on the wave
B. To be in the doldrums
C. Good offices
D. A bone of contention

Q462. Bosom friends never betray one another-is the example of :

A. A bosom friend/pal
B. A cold-comfort
C. The gift of gab
D. The ins and outs

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Q463. Don’t let him handle the labour problem, with his short tempered nature he will only be
like a bull in a China shop and worsen the situation-is the example of :
A. A herculean task
B. A maiden speech
C. Like a bull in a China shop
D. Tall talk

Q464. The mere promise of a better future is only cold comfort to the frustrated youth of today-is
the example of :
A. The lion’s share
B. The powers that be
C. The pros and cons
D. A cold-comfort

Q465. A poor labourer is more concerned about creature comforts than spiritual development-is
the example of :
A. Creature comforts
B. A fair-weather friend
C. To be Greek or double Dutch to one
D. none of above
Q466. The affluent nations follow a dog in the manger policy. They would rather destroy what
they can’t use themselves than give it to the poor nations of Asia and Africa -is the example of :
A. Elbow room
B. A dog in the manager
C. A white lie
D. The three R’s

Q467. Too many rules and red-tapism hardly gives one elbow room to try out new methods that
might prove more profitable for an organization –is the example of :
A. The lion’s share
B. Penelope’s web
C. Elbow room
D. None of above

Q468. A fair-weather friend disappears the moment your money disappears –is the example of :
A. A fair-weather friend
B. An apple of discord
C. French leave
D. A storm in a tea cup

Q469.Don’t take too many French leaves now, it will mar your chances for a promotion –is the
example of :
A. Tall talk
B. A nine-day wonder
C. By the skin of one’s teeth
D. French leave

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Q470. One can get a good job only through the good offices of someone in power – is the
example of :
A. A maiden speech
B. Good offices
C. A wild-goose chase
D. The rising generation

Q471. Eradication of poverty is a herculean task requiring the collective efforts of the entire
country- is the example of :
A. A herculean task
B. To be on one’s last leg
C. Ready money or cash
D. Null and void

Q472.In African countries they often resort to lynch law to punish criminals- is the example of :
A. A nine-day wonder
B. Tall talk
C. Lynch law
D. A maiden speech

Q473. Every MP looks forward to his maiden speech because it is an opportunity for him to
make a good impression- is the example of :
A. A maiden speech
B. The lion’s share
C. A wild-goose chase
D. None of above

Q474. The controversy of the match-fixing charges in the cricket match was but a nine- day
wonder- is the example of :
A. To be at sea
B. To be on the carpet
C. A nine-day generation
D. The gift of gab

Q475. The rising generation is quite techno-savvy- is the example of :

A. The ins and outs
B. To be worth its weight in gold
C. A storm in a tea cup
D. None of above

Q476. Because he had influential connections, the culprit went scot free- is the example of :
A. Tall talk
B. Scot free
C. The pros and cons
D. To harp on the same thing

Q477. In times of immense strain and problems, one’s family and friends are one’s sheet anchor
who keep one from giving in –is the example of :
A. The gift of gab
B. To stick at nothing

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C. A sheet anchor
D. To haul over the coals

Q478. If we have no real accomplishments, we indulge in tall talk to delude ourselves and
others too- is the example of :
A. To split hair
B. To scatter to the winds
C. To force one’s hands
D. None of above

Q479. I had to dispose off the car as it turned out to be a white elephant- is the example of :
A. To lord it over someone
B. A white elephant
C. The lion’s share
D. None of above

Q480. His white lie that everything was alright with him, helped soothe his agitated mother, who
had heard that he had met with an accident- is the example of :
A. A white lie
B. To be on the carpet
C. To pass muster
D. To talk shop

Q481. The hoaxer had sent the police on a wild-goose chase- is the example of :
A. An apple of discord
B. A wild-goose chase
C. To speak volumes about
D. None of above

Q482. Kashmir continues to be the apple of discord between India and Pakistan- is the example
of :
A. Penelope’s web
B. To rest on one’s laurels
C. To stretch a point
D. An apple of discord

Q483.The gift of the gab invariably makes for a successful politician- is the example of :
A. To mind one’s P’s and Q’s
B. An apple of discord
C. The gift of gab
D. None of above

Q484. We are yet to learn the ins and outs of the Mao-Nixon agreement- is the example of :
A. The ins and outs
B. The three R’s
C. To blunt the edge of
D. To be at sixes and seven

Q485. The big nations continue to have the lion’s share of world trade- is the example of :
A. To put the cart before the horse

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B. To strain every nerve
C. The lion’s share
D. None of above

Q486. The three R’s have been the main focus of primary education for many decades now- is
the example of :
A. The three R’s
B. To tie somebody’s hand
C. To turn tables
D. To be at sea

Q487. A housewife’s chores are a Penelope’s web - is the example of :

A. The powers that be
B. To flog a dead horse
C. To eat humble pie
D. None of above

Q488. Unless you agitate against powers that be, they will never do anything for your welfare –
is the example of :
A. The powers that be
B. Tall talk
C. To run the gauntlet
D. To see things through

Q489.Before taking a major decision it is always best to weigh its pros and cons – is the
example of :
A. Bad blood
B. To stretch a point
C. The pros and cons
D. To keep a things oneself, to keep one’s own counsel

Q490. The storm broke up the ship but the sailors escaped by the skin of their teeth – is the
example of :
A. By the skin of one’s teeth
B. to be Greek or double Dutch to one
C. To lord it over someone
D. To rule the roost

Q491. The commotion over the bomb explosion turned out to be a storm in a tea cup; it was a
Diwali cracker burst by an urchin – is the example of :
A. To be on the carpet
B. To throw mud at
C. To make a virtue of necessity
D. A storm in a tea cup

Q492. The court declared the appointment of the managing director by ‘X’ limited null and void –
is the example of :
A. To be at one’s wits end
B. Null and void
C. Good offices

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D. None of above

Q493. In the desert a bottle of water is often worth its weight in gold – is the example of :
A. To be on the wane
B. To be one’s last leg
C. To be worth its weight in gold
D. None of above

Q494. He spoke so fast that all he said was double Dutch to the audience – is the example of :
A. To be Greek or double Dutch to one
B. To strike when iron is hot
C. To plough a lonely furrow
D. None of above

Q495. I am quite at sea as for as economics is concerned – is the example of :

A. Bad debts
B. To take the wind out of one’s sails
C. To be at sea
D. Elbow room

Q496. I haven’t had time to arrange everything, so I’m all at sixes and sevens – is the example
of :
A. To be in the doldrums
B. To sail before the wind
C. To burn one’s fingers
D. To be at sixes and sevens

Q497. With the master shouting from the bathroom and the mistress from the kitchen the
servant was at his wits end as to who to attend first – is the example of :
A. To be at one’s wits end
B. To give a broadside
C. To eat one’s words
D. None of above

Q498. He has been in the doldrums ever since his wife left him – is the example of :
A. To be in the doldrums
B. To strike one’s flag or colours or to show the white
C. To set one’s house in order
D. To make common cause

Q499. After the second World War, the British rule was on the wane – is the example of :
A. To be in wane
B. To be on the wane
C. On the wane
D. To have been in wane

Q500.With the increasing use of computers in offices, it seems the typewriter is at its last leg –
is the example of :
A. To be on one’s last leg
B. Creature comforts

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C. To be on one leg
D. None of above

Q501. The unpunctual clerk was repeatedly on the carpet – is the example of:
A. To be in the same boat
B. To throw cold water upon
C.To talk shop
D. To be on the carpet

Q502. If we have no real accomplishments, we indulge in tall talk to delude ourselves and
others too – is the example of :
A. Tall talk
B. Elbow room
C. Talk talk
D. None of above

Q503. A housewife’s chores are a Penelope’s web – is the example of :

A. The pros and cons
B. French leave
C. Penelope’s web
D. To let the grass grow under your feet

Answer:

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
B A B D A C D B C C
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
B D B D C A C C A D
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
C D A C C A B A C A
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
C C B B D B B A C C
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
B B A D B D C A C
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
B A D B C B A B C B
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
C B A A B A C A B D
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
D B D B B A B A B A
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
B C A D B B C C B D
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
C D C C A B D B A D
101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110

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A D C B A A D A C B
111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
D B D C D A A B A C
121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A B D A D C C B C D
131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
C C D B A C B A C A
141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
B A A B A C B C A A
151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
D A B A B A D D B C
161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
B C D A A C B A B D
171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
C D A B A C A D A C
181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190
B C D B A C D A C B
191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A C A D B C C C B D
201 202 203 204 205 206 207 208 209 210
`B C B C D B C C C B
211 212 213 214 215 216 217 218 219 220
A A D B B D A A B D
221 222 223 224 225 226 227 228 229 230
A A D C C A D C D B
231 232 233 234 235 236 237 238 239 240
A B B A C D A B A B
241 242 243 244 245 246 247 248 249 250
C C A B C C A C A C
251 252 253 254 255 256 257 258 259 260
B C C C A B C A C B
261 262 263 264 265 266 267 268 269 270
C C D C B C D B B B
271 272 273 274 275 276 277 278 279 280
A C D A B C C D A a
281 282 283 284 285 286 287 288 289 290
D B C A D C A D B A
291 292 293 294 295 296 297 298 299 300
C C A B D B A B D B
301 302 303 304 305 306 307 308 309 310
C D D A B D A C C B
311 312 313 314 315 316 317 318 319 320
C A C B A D D C D A
321 322 323 324 325 326 327 328 329 330
D D A C A C A B A C
331 332 333 334 335 336 337 338 339 340
B C D A D A C D B A
341 342 343 344 345 346 347 348 349 350

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C C A C A C A B D C
351 352 353 354 355 356 357 358 359 360
D A B B A C B C B A
361 362 363 364 365 366 367 368 369 370
B C D A C C A D C A
371 372 373 374 375 376 377 378 379 380
C D A B A B D B A C
381 382 383 384 385 386 387 388 389 390
D C D B B A C D D A
391 392 393 394 395 396 397 398 399 400
D C A C D C A D D A
401 402 403 404 405 406 407 408 409 410
C A D A D C A D A D
411 412 413 414 415 416 417 418 419 420
A B D D D A D B C B
421 422 423 424 425 426 427 428 429 430
C B C D B D A C C A
431 432 433 434 435 436 437 438 439 440
C A C A D B C D A C
441 442 443 444 445 446 447 448 449 450
A C D C A C A C B D
451 452 453 454 455 456 457 458 459 460
A C A C A C D A C B
461 462 463 464 465 466 467 468 469 470
D A C D A B C A D B
471 472 473 474 475 476 477 478 479 480
A C A C D B C D B A
481 482 483 484 485 486 487 488 489 490
B D C A C A D A C A
491 492 493 494 495 496 497 498 499 500
D B C A C D A A B A
501 502 503
D A C

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PAST Exam Questions
August 2020

Q.1 Given below are synonyms of ‘Sadness’.

Find the odd one out:
a) Woe b) Happiness
c) Desolation d) Sorrow.

Q.2 Choose the right foreign word/ phrase to fill in the blank:
The manager did not accept his suggestion; so the situation remains _______.
a) Pro bono b) Prima donna
c) Status symbol d) Status quo

Q.3 Complete the proverb :

A rolling stone _______
a) makes many loans b) is soon gone by
c) gathers no moss d) breaks bones

Q.4 The word ‘Screen’ means both hide and show. Select the sentences in which both the
meanings are illustrated correctly.
a) The security guards screened the luggage on their screens very carefully.
b) The movie was screened on the screen, in the newly built theatre.
c) The screen screened the A rated movie to a mixed audience of adults.
d) Hussain bi screened her face with her hijab during the screening of her movie.

Q.5 Use the given clue and fill in the blanks with the correct idioms/ phrases
We were asked to present the case ________ (using few words).
a) in the driver’s seat b) in a nutshell
c) in full swing d) as a long shot

Q.6 Fill in the blanks with the synonym of the word given in brackets.
She was ________ (dismayed ) with the poor performance for her students.
a) Destroyed b) Divested
c) Dismembered d) Disappointed

November 2020

Q.7 Choose the word that doesn’t belong in the Sentence. She went to eat Pizza at a
restaurant despite of her diet restrictions.
a) of b) her
c) diet d) a

Q.8 Which of the following best explains the term expense

a) It is the amount earned by offering a service
b) It is the cost incurred in or required for something
c) It is something that enhances one’s credit score
d) It is the difference between Profit and Loss

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Q.9 Complete the sentence with the correct option. The channel of communication should be
decided _______ the composition of the message.
a) after b) during
c) following d) prior to

Q.10 Choose the correct meeting of the Phrase “To add fuel to flame”.
a) To make a bad situation worse
b) To burn something fill it flames out
c) To extend support in the kitchen
d) To argue unknowingly till the end

Q.11 Which of the following will convey the meaning of the proverb A chain is only as strong
as its weakest link.
a) One weak part will render the whole weak
b) One weak part cannot render the whole weak
c) One weak part will render the weak part weak
d) One weak part in the strong chain cannot render it weak

Q.12 Cuisine means

a) Style of cooking b) Signature dish
c) Dish d) Cooked dish

Q.13 Fill in the blanks with a suitable option

He is married ________ a nurse
a) with b) to
c) by d) for

Q.14 Fill in the blanks with the correct options:

Shiva had received Nisha’s two letters _________ that night. The _______ of the two
seems more loyal
a) latter, later b) later, later
c) latter, latter d) later, latter

Q.15 An IQ test measures:

a) Innovation b) Ignorance
c) Intelligence d) Information

Q.16 Choose the Synonym of the given word. CONCISE

a) Discursive b) Lengthy
c) Concentrate d) Brief

Q.17 Fill in the blanks by selecting one of the options listed below:
A/An ________ is a guarantee given to the purchaser of an article promising to repair or
replace it if required within a specified time.
a) Invoice b) Warranty
c) Incentive d) Indent

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Q.18 Substitute one word for the given group of words:
“Extremely Unwilling to spend money”
a) Prodigal b) Spendthrift
c) Parsimonious d) Mercenary

Q.19 Fill in the blanks with the antonym of the word given in brackets:
She unnecessarily feels ________ (isolated)
a) solitary b) alone
c) included d) excluded

Q.20 Fill in the blanks with the appropriate one-word substitution for the highlighted word
James Bond’s latest car can operate both on land and sea it is ________
a) amorphous b) artificial
c) amphibious d) amphitheater

Q.21 Pick out the correct meaning of the highlighted word, in the context of the sentence:
A brick crashed through the window
a) to hit finally b) to hit repeatedly
c) to hit something hard d) to hit completely

Q.22 Use the given clue ad fill in the blank with te correct idiom/phrase
We think that this project will be ________ (easy).
a) an apple of the eye b) a piece of cake
c) a call from the front d) a hot potato

Q.23 Choose the right proverb to fit the given scenario:

I always fight with my brother. But now that he is away from home, I sorely miss him.
a) Absence makes the heart grow founder
b) Actions speck louder than word
c) A bad workman always blames his tools
d) A bird in hand is worth two in the bush

Q.24 Fill in the blanks with the correctly spelt word. They sell all kinds of building _______.
a) meterials b) materiels
c) materials d) matariels

January 2021

Q.25 Fill in the blanks with the antonym of the word given in brackets:
She unnecessarily feels ______ (isolated)
a) solitary b) alone
c) included d) excluded

Q.26 Fill in the blanks with the appropriate one-word substitution for the highlighted words
James Bond’s latest car can operate both on land and sea it is _______
a) amorphous b) artificial
c) amphibious d) amphitheatre

Q.27 Pick out the correct meaning of the highlighted word, in the context of the sentence:
A brick crashed through the window

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a) to hit finally b) to hit repeatedly
c) to hit something hard d) to hit completely

Q.28 Use the given clue and fill in the blank with the correct idiom/phrase We think that this
project will be ________ (easy).
a) an apple of the eye b) a piece of cake
c) a call from the front d) a hot potato

Q.29 Choose the right proverb to fit the given scenario-

I always fight with my brother. But now that he is away from home, I sorely miss him.
a) Absence makes the heart grow fonder
b) Actions speak louder than words
c) A bad workman always blames his tools
d) A bird in hand is worth two in the bush

Q.30 Fill in the blanks with the correctly spelt word. They sell all kinds of buildings_______.
a) meterials b) meteriels
c) materials d) materiels

May 2021

Q.31 The Idiom “I will cross the bridge when I come to it” means:
a) I want to know that the bridge is strong before I cross it
b) I don’t want to deals with this issue right now
c) I want to deals with this issue right now
d) I want to take the necessary precautions before crossing the bridge.

Q.32 Fill in the blanks by selecting one of the terms listed below
A/ an _____ is a set of proposals or terms offered or greed upon as a whole
a) action plan b) appraisal fee
c) default setting d) package deal

Q.33 Which of the following options in an Antonym of ‘Intelligent”?

a) Foolish b) Wise
c) Sly d) Frugal

Q.34 Choose the meaning of the emboldened word from the options below:
“That would be one pound”, said the ice cream vendor.
a) unit of mass and weight
b) to crunch and item by beating
c) an animal shelter for strays
d) monetary currency

Q.35 Fill in the blanks with the correctly spelt word:

________ are health professionals who practice in pharmacy
a) Pharmacists b) Pharmacsists
c) Pharmmacits d) Pharmaccist

Q.36 Fill in the blanks in a way that completes the sentence:

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I thought chocolate brownies are so easy to make but when I tried to make it was a
______
a) coup de grace b) debacle
c) de jure d) en rapport

Q.37 Choose the meaning of the emboldened idiom.

Linda has always been with me through thick and thin.
a) no matter how difficult b) no matter how thick
c) under easy circumstance d) under no circumstances

Q.38 The phrase “ to pass away” means

a) sleep b) comatose
c) die d) give

July 2021

Q.39 Which of the following conveys the meaning of the emboldened idiom?
All that he said boiled down to the fact that he is not keen about helping us.
a) Neglected b) Amounted to
c) Negated d) Argued about

Q.40 MBBS Stands for

a) Master of Medicine, Bachelor of Surgen
b) Medicinae Bccalaureus, Baccalaureus Chiruglae
c) Medical Baccalaureus, Baccalaureus chinora
d) Bachelor or Medicine and a, Bechelor of Surgery

Q.41 The foreign word that correctly describes the practice of providing something in return for
what is received is
a) Ad nauseam b) Fait accompli
c) Modus operandi d) Quid pro quo

Q.42 Give one word for –

A fragrant liquid used to give a pleasant smell to one’s body.
a) Stench b) Stink
c) Scent d) Smelly

Q.43 Complete the proverb Blood _______

a) Is equal in quantity in all b) Is red for all
c) Is thicker than water d) Is what lasts for ever
Q.44 Which of the following words is the antonym of ‘Generous’?
a) Fulsome b) Plenty
c) Miserly d) Abundant

Q.45 Fill in the blanks in a way that completes the sentence:

“The activities she has on her ______ are out of her own _______
a) Itinerary, accord b) Itinarery, accord
c) Itinery, acaord d) Itinerary, achord

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Q.46 Choose the meaning of the emboldened word from the options below Cells of bark are
dead and compactly arranged without inter cellular spaces.
a) To shout at someone is a forceful manner
b) To e wrong about the reason for something
c) The hard outer covering of a tree
d) Noise that a dog and some other animals make

November 2021

Q.47 Choose the most appropriate meaning of the underline word in the given sentence.
The traitors are endeavouring to join the bio-weapon war.
a) to suffer something difficult
b) try hard to achieve something
c) an enterprise
d) remain in existence

Q.48 Example is better than precept means:

a) It is easy to speak something than to follow
b) Showing the best example may prove someone wrong
c) It is better to show something in action than merely advising others
d) Perception is beautiful when examples are given

Q.49 Replace the Underlined word with a suitable synonym

The back-fire is something that you experience after the bullet has already been shot.
a) advance b) stay
c) backup d) recoil

Q.50 Choose the word that is correctly spelt.

a) accommodate b) accommodate
c) accommodate d) accommodate

Q.51 Fill in the blanks with the correct option:

_______ is an assessment carried out to decide if a suggested plan or method is
possible or reasonable.
a) Market Study b) Feasability Study
c) Gap Analysis d) Production Study

Q.52 Replace the underline words with the correct option.

She recapitulates again the whole lesson.
a) recapitulates b) recapitulating again
c) recapitulate d) recapitulate again

Q.53 Fill in the blanks with the correct option.

If you eat too much, you _______.
a) become fat b) become feeble
c) become dehydrated d) recapitulate again

Q.54 Choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the given word. “Using words in
a clever way”
a) Witty b) Smart

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c) Cunning d) Twisting

Q.55 Fill in the blanks with the correct answer:

You are not the _______ individual who believes that eyes are the windows of the
_______.
a) Sole/ Soul b) Sole/ Soel
c) Soel/ Soul d) Soel/ Sole

Q.56 Vis-à-vis means:

a) Practical test b) Face to face
c) Interview d) Oral test

Q.57 Choose the antonym of the given word Awkward:

a) Clumsy b) Rude
c) Artless d) Graceful

Q.58 Choose the word that is correctly spelt:

a) Suspicious b) Suspicioss
c) Susspicious d) Susppicious

Q.59 Fill in the blanks by selecting one of the options listed below:
________ is a fund used by a business for small items of expenditure and restored to a
fixed amount periodically.
a) Imprest b) Mutual fund
c) bond d) Hybrid funds

Q.60 Replace the underline words with the correct option.

Despite of being rich he works hard for his boss:
a) Despite off b) Despite
c) Despite for d) Inspite

Q.61 “Honesty is the best policy” means :

a) Bad situations in life makes a person best and honest
b) We have to be honest and true in life even in bad situations
c) Be honest to get the goods rewards
d) Only the best person can be honest

Q.62 Per se means:

a) per head b) for instance
c) by or in itself d) for example

Q.63 Fill in the blanks with the correct option

_______ is a measure of how much you owe your creditors for goods services supplied
to you.
a) Accounts receivable b) Account payable
c) Venture capital d) Paid in Capital

Q.64 Fill in the blanks with the correct options.

All the efforts of the doctors proved _______ as they were unable to remove the clot
from the ______

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a) Vains, Viens b) Veins, Vain
c) Vien, Vains d) Vain, Veins

Q.65 Fill in the blanks with the appropriate option.

The country of Vatican City is ruled by the Pope. This practice is called ______ .
a) democracy b) theocracy
c) oligarchy d) autocracy

Q.66 Choose the most appropriate meaning of the underline word in the given Sentence.
Those lines that I have written to you before are a lie.
a) rest flat an a surface b) to remain
c) recline d) false statement

Answers:
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
B D C C B D A B C A
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A A B D C D B C C C
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
C A A C C C C B A C
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
C D A D A B A C B D
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
D C C C A A B C D C
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
B A A A A B D A A B
61 62 63 64 65 66
B C B D B D

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Chapter 3
Business Correspondence
Q1. The word comprehension means………………………………………
A the ability to understand what you listen
B. the ability to understand what you read.
C. the ability to understand what you listen or what you read.
D. All of above
Q2. …………is an exercise which aim sat improving or testing one’s ability to under stand a
language.
A. comprehension B. Passage
C. Report D. Essay
Q3. The paragraphs in comprehension show the idea or mood, concerning issues, their
solutions that the author provides.
A. True B. False
C. Partly True D. Partly False
Q4. Which of the following is not a Strategy to Solve Comprehension Passages?
A. Assume any thing based on your person al belief.
B. Read the passage as fast as possible.
C. Look back at the paragraph when in doubt.
D Try to understand some certain unfamiliar words by reading the line thoroughly.
The theme of the line will make you understand the meaning of the words.

Q5. Which of the following is a Strategy to Solve Comprehension Passages?

A. Try to understand some certain unfamiliar words by reading the line
thoroughly. The theme of the line will make you understand the meaning of the
words.
B. Underline or mark the keywords. These will help you to discover the logical
connections in the passage and help in understanding it better.
C. Try to translate a complex line in an easy one in your own words and your own
language. This will help you in analyzing them an idea of the paragraph and in
seeking the cause and effects of the passage.
D. All of Above
Q6. Which of the following are the things to remember while reading a comprehension
passage?

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A. Find the central idea of passage and The tone of passage
B. Focus on Details and Logical Structure
C. Find the central idea of passage, Focus on Details, The tone of passage and
Logical Structure
D. Find the central idea of passage, The tone of passage and Logical Structure
Q.7 ……………is important to get an overall understanding of the passage and to mentally
make a note about the category it belongs to.
A. Find the central idea of passage B. Focus on Details
C. Logical Structure D. The tone of passage
Q8. “one must be able to sort such details of the passage without wasting too much time on
skimming or reading the passage again. So, it is advisable to noted own some points
that may feel important to you.” Is related to……………………….
A. Find the central idea of passage B. Focus on Details
C. Logical Structure D. The tone of passage
Q9. “Sometimes, questions are asked about the passage. Having a proper understanding of
the passage is essential for such questions. Always pay attention to the way certain
words shape the passage.” Is related to……………………..
A. Find the central idea of passage B. Focus on Details
C. Logical Structure D. The tone of passage
Q10. “Firstly, recognize words that have a positive or negative connotation, used by the author.
Look for descriptive phrases. Secondly, study and understand the various to nest here
are.”Is related to……………………..
A. Find the central idea of passage B. Focus on Details
C. Logical Structure D. The tone of passage
Q11. …………are some of the types of tone of passages.
A. acerbic, biased B. dogmatic, optimistic, humorous
C. grandiose, introspective D. All of above
Q12. ……………is important to get an overall understanding of the passage and to mentally
make a note about the category it belongs to.
A. Find the central idea of passage B. Focus on Details
C. Logical Structure D. The tone of passage
Q13. To develop a better level of comprehension one requires certain skills like:
A. Logical ability and Fluency B. Inference Power

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C. Analytical ability and Reasoning ability D. All of Above
Q14. Analytical ability, fluency, and vocabulary skills are key to reading
comprehension.
A. True B. False
C. Partly False D. Partly True
Q15. Analytical ability, fluency, and …………….are key to reading comprehension.
A. Reading Skills B. Singing Skills
C. Listening Skills D. Vocabulary Skills
Q16. Reading aloud and talking about experiences can not help to build reading skills.
A. True B. False
C. Partly False D. Partly True
Q17. Reading speed should be slow in order to scan and skim to summarize the major
points of the passage.
A. True B. False
C. Partly False D. Partly True
Q18. Reading aloud and talking about experiences can help to build reading skills.
A. True B. False
C. Partly False D. Partly True
Q19. Reading speed should be fast in order to scan and skim to summarize the major
points of the passage.
A. True B. False
C. Partly False D. Partly True
Q20. ………………while reading allows taking in more information from the text and
………………….. allows them to hold on to that information and use it to gain meaning.
A. Paying attention; working memory
B. Taking Tea; Working Memory
C. Paying attention; Acknowledging
D. Paying attention; Artificial Intelligence
Q21. Reading speed should be fast in order to scan and skim to summarisethe major
points of the passage.
A. scan; Skim B. Scan; Remember
C. Remember; NOTE D. Understand; Note

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Answer:

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
C A A A D C A B C D
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
D A D A D B B A A A
21
A

PAST Exam Questions

August 2020

Q.1 Rearrange the sentences to make a meaningful paragraph.

1. While handing me a small pouch, he said, “This is all the money I have and I
want to give it to you for liberating children so that they can go to School.”
2. His gesture was simple yet very powerful.
3. He had just witnessed a meaning on the power of education, across the street,
from the dhaba he worked at.
4. During the march, in a small town call Pilkhuwa in Uttar Pradesh, a child labourer
of about 10 years of age approached me.
a) 2143 b) 1324
c) 3241 d) 4312

Q.2 Arrange the jumbled sentence in the right orders.

On a Saturday Morning
A) a series of bizarre events
B) occurred aboard the
C) luxury liner S. S. Bretagne
D) in early August in 1969
E) fifty-five thousand-ton
a) A BCED b) DABEC
c) ABECD d) ABCDE

Read the passage and answer the following questions below:

(3 Question 4 & Question 5.)
In economics, inflation is a sustained increase in the general price level of goods and services in
an economy over a period of time. When the general prices level rises, each unit of currency
buys fewer goods and services; consequently, inflation reflects a reduction in the purchasing
power per unit of money - a loss of real value in the medium of exchange and unit of account
within the economy. The common measure of inflation is the inflation rate. Economists
generally believe that very high rates of inflation and hyperinflation are caused by an excessive
growth of the money supply. Low or moderate inflation may be attributed to fluctuations in real
demand for goods and services, or changes in available supplies such as during scarcities. The
apposite of inflation is deflation, a sustained decrease in the general price level of goods and
services.

Q.3 Fluctuation in supply and demand leads to :

a) hyperinflation b) deflation

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c) moderate inflation d) high inflation

Q.4 When there is inflation, the value of currency units:

a) increases b) sustains
c) decrease d) does not change.

Q.5 Growth of money supply result in _________

a) deflation b) high inflation rate
c) low inflation rate d) moderate inflation rate

November 2020

Q.6 Complete the sentence with the correct option:

In the 21st Century, there was a revolutionary change in modes of communication with
the advent of ________
a) the railways b) the speed post
c) the internet d) the air mail

Q.7 Fill in the blanks in a way that completes the sentences:

“The death of Mary’s father, which occurred just days after her birth, put her on the
throne even as an _______”
a) adult b) eulogy
c) infant d) endowment

Q.8 Rearrange the following parts and choose a correct Sequence to form a meaningful
sentence:
A) had a wise and
B) of Vijaygarh
C) the kingdom
D) king king
a) DCBA b) CBAD
c) BDCA d) ACDB

Question 9 to 11 are based on passage given below :

Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow:
“Thousands of years ago, the first man discovered how to make fire. He was probably
burned at the stake he had taught his brothers to light. He was considered an evildoer
who had dealt with a demon mankind dreaded. But thereafter men had fire to keep them
warm, to cook their food, to light their caves. Centuries later the first man invented the
wheel. He was probably torn on the rack he had taught his brothers to build. He was
considered a transgressor who ventured into forbidden territory. But thereafter, men
could travel past any horizon. He had left them a gift they had not conceived and he had
opened the roads of the world” The man, the unsubmissive and first, stands in the
opening chapter of every legend mankind has recorded about its beginning. Prometheus
was chained to a rock and torn by vultures- because he had stolen the fire of the goods.
Adam was condemned to suffer- because he had eaten the fruit of the three of
knowledge. Whatever the legend. Some where in the shadows of its memory mankind
knew that its glory began with one and that one paid for his courage. “Throughout the
centuries there were men who took first steps down new roads armed with nothing but

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their own vision unborrowed, and the response they received- hatred. The great creators
the thinkers, the artists, the scientists, the inventors stood alone against the men of their
time. Every great new thought was opposed. Every great new invention was denounced.
The first motor was considered foolish. The airplane was considered impossible. The
power loom was considered vicious. Anaesthesia was considered sinful. But the men of
unborrowed vision went ahead. They fought, they suffered ad they paid. But they won.
The ‘power loom’ was considered

Q.9 The ‘power loom’ was considered

a) vicious b) helpful
c) unlawful d) victorious

Q.10 Which of the following words is similar in meaning to the word “Conceived” as used in
the passage?
a) confirmed b) assessed
c) believed d) devised

Q.11 The first man who discovered how to make fire was thought to be an
a) Evilgiver b) Evilmaker
c) Evildoer d) Evil protector

Q.12 Choose the correct option to rearrange the sentences and make meaningful paragraph
A) A cousin in, possibly a year older, and me, all at the same time
B) The first was already married
C) The elders decided to marry my second brother, who was two or three years my
senior
D) We were three brothers
a) CADB b) BACD
c) BCAD d) DBCA

January 2021

Q.13 Arrange the jumbled sentence in the right order:

He sat ______________
A) as still as a mouse
B) waiting to see
C) there
D) what would happen
a) BDCA b) ABCD
c) ACBD d) CABD

Q.14 Choose the correct sequence and make the right answer accordingly
A) The nets were big and strong
B) The next morning
C) Very soon all the fish were caught
D) The fisherman came and threw their nets in the pond
a) BDAC b) CBDA
c) ACBD d) DCAB

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May 2021

Question 15 to 17 are based on passage given below:

Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow:
Scholarly interest in earthquakes can be traced back to antiquity in 132 CE, Zhang Heng of
China’s Han dynasty designed the first known seismoscope. The Lisbon earthquake of 1755,
coinciding with the general flowering of science in Europe, set in motion intensified scientific
attempts to understand the behaviour and causation of earthquakes. From 1857, Robert Mallet
laid the foundation of instrumental seismology and carried out seismological experiments using
explosives. He is also responsible for coining the word “seismology”. Seismology has revealed
much about the structure of the Earth’s core mantle and crust. The English seismologist Richard
Dixon Oldham’s studies of earthquake records in 1906 led to the discovery of the Earth’s core.
From studies of the creation quake of Oct 8, 1909, the geophysicist Andrija Mohorovicic
discovered the discontinuity (often called the moho) that separates the crust from the underlying
mantle. Today there are more than 1,000 seismograph stations around the world, and their data
are used to complie seismicity maps.

Q.15 The first known seismoscope was designed by ________.

a) Andrija Mohorovicic b) Zhang Heng
c) Robert Mallet d) Richard Dixon Oldham

Q.16 The word seismology was coined by ________

a) Andrija Mohorovicic b) Zhang Heng
c) Robert Mallet d) Richared Dixon Oldham

Q.17 The discovery of the Earth’s core was a result of studies by ________
a) Andrija Mohorovicic b) Zhang Heng
c) Robert Mallet d) Richard Dion Oldham

Q.18 Arrange the following parts of the sentence in the correct order.
A) Together
B) One of the causes of diabetes in Indians
C) With stress ranks as one of the
D) Poor diet
a) ECADB b) BAEDC
c) CDAEB d) CEADB

Q.19 Choose the correct option to rearrange the sentences and make a meaningful
paragraph:
A) Being healthy is about consciously thinking about your health
B) of products that have been formulated to seamlessly
C) Flora, as the pioneer of heart health brings to you a range
D) Healthy is not about a size or shape
E) Integrate health in to your life in your own way
a) ECBDA b) ADCBF

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c) DACBE d) CBEDA

Q.20 Arrange the following parts of the sentence in the correct order.
A) and I will spend
B) to night this wrong
C) if a need to
D) every penny in the bank
E) I will spend my last during breath
a) CEBAD b) BCEDA
c) ECADB d) ECABD

Q.21 to 23 are based on passage given below:

Read the following passage and answer the questions that follows:
Heritable traits are passed from one generation to the next via DNA, a molecule that encodes
generatic information. Evolution in organisms occurs through changes in heritable traits – the
inherited characteristics of an organisms. In humans, for example, eye colour is an inherited
characteristic and an individual might inherit the “brown –eye trait” from one of their parents.
Inherited traits are controlled by genes and the complete set of genes within an organisms’
genome (genetic material) is called its genotype. The complete set observable traits that make
up the structure and behaviour of an organism is called its phenotype. These traits come from
the interaction of its genotype with the environment. As a result, many aspects of an organism’s
phenotype are not inherited. For example, subtended skin comes from the interaction between a
person’s genotype and sunlight. Thus, suntans are not passed on to people’s children.

Q.21 Evolution occurs when there are changes in one’s

a) environment b) heritable traits
c) phenotype d) diet

Q.22 Traits are passed via.

a) DNA b) Behaviour
c) phenotype d) Environment

Q.23 Te interaction between one’s genotype and the environment results in one’s _____.
a) Suntan b) Mutation
c) Phenotype d) DNA

Q.24 Choose the correct option to rearrange the sentences and make a meaningful
paragraph
1. And now here is my secret, a very simple secret’
2. It is only with the heart that one can see right
3. “Goodbye”, said the fox
4. Because what is essential in invisible to the eye
a) 1432 b) 3124
c) 1243 d) 2 413

July 2021

Q.25 to 27 are based on passage given below:

Read the following passage and answer the questions that follows:

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The octopus (plural octopuses) is a soft-bodies, eight-limbed mollusc of the order Octopada
Around 300 species are recognised and the order is grouped within the class Cephalopoda with
squids, cuttlefish, and nautiloids. Like other cephalopods, the octopus is bilaterally symmetric
with two eyes and a beak, with its mouth at the center point of the eight limbs. The soft body can
radically alter its shape, enabling octopuses to squeeze through small gaps. They trail their
eight lappendages behind them as they swim. The siphon is used both for respiration and for
locomotion, by expelling a jet of water. Octopuses have a complex nervous system and
excellent sight and are among the most intelligent and behaviourally diverse of all invertebrates.
Strategies to defend themselves against predators include the expulsion of ink, the use of
camouflage and threat displays, the ability to jet quickly through the water and hide, and even
deceit. All octopuses are venomous, but only the blue-ringed octopuses are known to be deadly
to humans. Octopuses appear in mythology as sea monsters like the kraken of Norway and the
Akkorokamui of the Ainu, and probably the Gorgon of ancient Greece. They are eaten and
considered a delicacy by humans in many parts of the world, especially the Mediterranean and
the Asian seas.

Q.25 The octopus is a type of _____-

a) Fish b) Molluse
c) Amphibian d) Mammal

Q.26 Octopuses have a nervous system that is _______

a) Simple b) Symmetrical
c) Complex d) Primitive

Q.27 The mythological kraken of Norway is _______

a) A dragon b) A whale shark
c) An Octopus d) A Gorgon

Q.28 Rearrange the sentences given to make a meaningful paragraph

1) The Shadows changed shape and moved along the walls to each room from
morning to evening
2) Mridu liked the house in which she lived
3) The two coconut trees were never silent.
4) From the barred, old Fashioned windows on every side, the green of teh garden
sent cool, dark shadows in the four rooms.
a) 2413 b) 2134
c) 4213 d) 1423

November 2021

Q.29 Rearrange the following parts and choose a correct sequence to form a meaningful
sentence:
A) to see a snake
B) back, she was shocked
C) on her husband’s chair
D) When the princess came
a) ABCD b) CABD
c) DBAC d) DCBA

Q.30 Choose the correct sequence and mark the right answer accordingly:

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A) And went straight to the fish
B) He slowly slipped in to the pond
C) The Crocodile heard all this
D) When the fishermen left
a) CDBA b) DACB
c) DBCA d) CBAD

Q.31 Which of the following factors is important in both written and spoken from the
communication to enable comprehension?
a) Language b) Telephone
c) Paper d) Dictaphone

Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow:
The platypus is a semiaquatic egg-laying mammal endemic to eastern Austrialia, including
Tasmania. It is among nature’s most unlikely animals. In fact the first scientists to examine a
specimen believed they were the victims of a hoax. The animal is best described as a
hodgepodge of more familiar species, the duck (bill and webbed feet( beaver (tail), and otter
(body and fur). Like other monotremes, it senses prey through electorlocation. It is one of the
few species of venomous mammals. While both male and female ankles deliver venom.
Although powerful enough to kill smaller animals such as dogs, the venom is not lethal to
humans, but the pain is so excruciating that the victim may be incapacitated. Platypuses hunt
underwater, where they swim gracefully by padding with their front webbed feed and steering
with their hind feet and beaver like tail.
Folds of skin cover their eyes and ears to prevent water from entering, and the nostrils close
with a water tight seal. These Australian mammals are bottom feeders.
They scoop up insects and larvae, shelfish and worm in their bill along with bits of gravel and
mud from the bottom. All this material is stored in cheek pouches and at the surface, mashed for
consumption. Platypuses do not have teeth, so the bits of gravel help them to “chew” their meal.
The unique features of the platypus make it an important subject in the study of evolutionary
biology, and a recognisable and iconic symbol of Australia. The platypus is the animal emblem
of the state of New South wales.

Q.32 The platypus delivers venom through ________

a) tail b) ankle spurs
c) teeth d) skin

Q.33 Underwater, the platypus use their tail to _______

a) Swim b) defend
c) steer d) hunt

Q.34 the platypus seemed to be a hoax, made up of ________ animals.

a) 2 b) 3
c) 4 d) 5

Read the following passage and answer the questions that follows
Chocolate is a preparation of roasted and ground cocoa seeds that is made in the form of a
liquid, paste, or in a block, which may also be used as a flavouring ingredient in other foods.
The earliest signs of use are associated with olmec sites (within what would become Mexico’s

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post-colonial territory suggesting consumption of chocolate beverages, dating form 19th century
BCE. The majority of Mesoamen can people made chocolate beverages, including the Maya
and Aztecs. In contrast to the Maya, who liked their chocolate warm, the Aztecs drank it cold,
seasoning it with a board vanety of additives, including chile pepper, alispice, vanilla and honey.
The Aztecs were unabe to grow cocoa themselves, as their home in the empire. Those who
lived in areas ruled by the Aztecs were required to offer cocoa seeds in payment of the tax they
deemed “tribute”. Cocoa beans were often used as currency for example, the Aztecs used a
system in which one turkey cost 100 cacao beans and one fresh avocado was worth three
beans. The English word “Chocolate” comes, via Spanish, from the classical Nahauti word
xocolate. The seeds of the cocoa tree have n intense bitter taste and must be fermented to
develop the flavour after fermentation, the beans are dried, cleaned and roasted. The Shell is
removed to produce cocoa nibs, which are then ground to cocoa mass, unadulterated
chocolate, in rough form Although cocoa originated in the Americans. West African countries,
particularly Cote d’ Ivoire and Ghana, are the leading. Producers of cocoa in the 21st century
accounting for some 60% of the world cocoa supply.

Q.35 According to the passage, chocolate originated in the ________

a) Cote d’Ivoire b) Americas
c) Europe d) Ghana

Q.36 The Aztecs obtained chocolate through _________.

a) cultivation b) trade
c) tax d) barter system

Q.37 Various seasonings were added to the chocolate by the:

a) Mexicans b) Mayans
c) Olmecs d) Aztecs

Q.38 Fill in the blanks with the correct word:

It is much more common for feeling of linking warmth, and enthusiasm to be conveyed
and reciprocated through _____ communication.
a) Aural b) non-verbal
c) verbal d) written

Answers:
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
D B C C B C C B A B
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
C D D A B D D D D A
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
B A C C B C C A C D
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38
A B C B B D B A

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Chapter 4
CONCEPT OF BUSINESS COMMUNICATION

Multiple Choice Questions

Q.1 The word ‘communicate’ has been derived from the………..
A Latin Word B Greek Word
C French D Anglo French word

Q.2 The word ‘communicate’ has been derived from the Latin word
A Communi B Commun is
C Com D Communicate

Q.3 The Latin word ‘Communis’ means…………..

A Share B To Share
C Sharing D Both ‘A’ and ‘B’

Q.4 Communication is a………….

A Procedure B Process
C Series D Sequence

Q.5 Communication is a………….by which………………..is exchanged

A Procedure; Fact B Procedure; Information
C Process; Information D Process; Facts

Q.6 Communication is a process by which information is exchanged through a

A Common systern of symbols B Signs
C Behavior D All of above

Q.7 Communication is the expression of

A Facts and opinions B Facts and Ideas
C Facts, Opinions, Ideas or Feelings D Facts, Ideas or Feelings

Q.8 The definition “CommunicAtion in its simplest form of conveying of inform Ation from
one person to Another is given by…………………
A Hudson B Koontz and O’ Donell
C Webster’s Dictionary D None of above

Q.9 According to Hudson “CommunicAtion in its …………… of conveying of inform Ation

from one person to Another”
A Simplest Form B Easiest Form
C Quickest Form D Fastest Form

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Q.10 The definition “CommunicAtion is the transfer of inform Ation from one person to
Another whether or not it elicits confidence” is given by…………………………..
A Hudson B Koontz and O’ Donell
C George Terry D Allen Louis

Q. 11 The definition “CommunicAtion is An exchange off Acts, ideAS, opinions or emotions

by two or more persons.” Is given by…………….
A Koontz and O’ Donell B George Terry
C Hudson D Allen Louis

Q.12 The definition “CommunicAtion is the sum of All things, one person does when he
wAnts to create understAnding in the mind of Another. It is Abridge of meAning. It
involves A System Atic And continuous process of telling, listening And
understAnding.”Is given by…………….
A Koontz and O’ Donell B George Terry
C Hudson D Allen Louis

Q.13 Communication is a………….

A One Way B Two Way
C Two Dimensional D Three Dimensional

Q.14 For the completion of communication process at least…………….persons are required

A One Minor B One Major
C One Major and One Minor D Two

Q.15 Communication is the act of………..

A Exchanging Information
B Understanding from one person to another
C Exchanging Information and Understanding from one person to another
D Understanding from one person to another and Exchanging Information

Q.16 The definition” Communication is the act of exchanging information and understanding from
one person toanother” is given by……………….
A A.D. Scott B Scott
C Henry Fayol D Webster’s Dictionary

Q.17 The definition “administrative communication is a process which involves the

transmission and accurate replication of ideas ensured by feedback for the purpose of
eliciting action which will accomplish organization goals” is given by………………
A A.D. Scott B Scott
C Henry Fayol D Taylor

Q.18 Communication’s go alis to have there ceiver understand the message as it was
intended.

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A True B False
C Partly True D Partly False

Q.19 The increasing use of telephone, mobile, recording devices, such as dictaphone, answering
machines, live broad casting and telecasting, and video conferencing have now a days,
shifted the focus from……………..
A Internal to External B External to Internal
C Writing to Speaking D Speaking to Writing

Q.20 When one communicates to transact some commercial activity, that is, providing goods
or services, with the intention of generating profits, it is termed as business communication.
A Buying Activity; communication
B Selling Activity; Communication
C Commercial Activity; Business Communication
D Commercial Activity; Communication

Answer:

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
A B B B C D C A A B
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
B D B D C D B A C C

PAST Exam Questions

August 2020
Q.1 Fill in the blanks by selecting one of the terms listed below:
________ is the risk that is accepted as the outcomes of a particular job or profession.
a) Occupational hazard b) Natural hazard
c) Psycho social hazard d) Capital hazard

Q.2 The quality of trust worthiness of the sender can be proved from his:
a) correct framing of the message
b) attention of detail
c) credibility
d) fluency

Q.3 Which of the following is an advantage in the store- and- forward feature in telephone
conferencing?
a) It allows the receiver freedom to decide when he wants to receive the message.
b) It has a storage facility that enables translation of the coded message in to
different languages.
c) It allows forwarding of calls from one tool to the other after storing it.
d) It saves the caller’s details and allows automatic deletion and editing of a
message.

Q.4 An internet is a computer network for sharing information, collaboration tools, operational
systems, and other computing services ______.

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a) Only within an organisation
b) Only with national companies
c) Only with external organisation
d) Only with multinational companies

Q.5 Transmission of information within the same level of organizational hierarchy is known
as:
a) Lateral communication b) Horizontal communication
c) Vertical communication d) Backward communication

Q.6 Communication saves to achieve within a group or organisation which of the following
four major functions?
a) Anger b) Motivation
c) Emotional expression d) Information
e) Confusion f) Control

November 2020

Q.7 Whom would you choose as the recipient of a message?

a) Those who will be affected by the message or its results
b) Those who should not have access to the information
c) Those who have no responsibility or capability of understanding
d) Those who have no say or interest in the matter

Q.8 What is the meaning of miscommunication ?

a) using the wrong medium to communicate
b) using the wrong language
c) disturbance in the channel of communication
d) the receiver not perceiving the intended meaning of the message

Q.9 What is the difference between Cellphones and Telephones?

a) Cellphones Convey verbal messages
b) Telephones are called landlines
c) Cellphones are wireless
d) Telephones are useful for long distance communication

Q.10 Which of the following in an email conveys what the mail is about?
a) Complimentary close
b) Superscription
c) Subject line
d) Sender’s address

Q.11 What kind of keyboard does a smart phone have?

a) virtual Keyboard
b) ergonomic Keyboard
c) Bluetooth Keyboard

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d) Physical Keyboard

Q.12 Short paragraph should be used in an email because

a) Business information should never be simple
b) short paragraph need more complex words
c) short paragraph are not always vivid
d) information overload in a single paragraph is a problem

Q.13 Which of the following proves that talking is an important means of communication ?
a) Man is a social animal
b) We need to interact with ourselves
c) Most of our daily activities involve talking to others
d) We like to use our vocal chords

January 2021

Q.14 Which of the following traits should be given the highest priority to improve business
relations?
a) Brashness b) Aggressiveness
c) Courtesy d) Arrogance

Q.15 Which of the following is the best mode of illustrating a process or procedure?
a) diagrams b) graphs
c) flow charts d) maps

Q.16 Which of the following is a respected skill in business communication ?

a) Conciseness b) Redundancy
c) Verbosity d) Wordiness

Q.17 Which of the following factors can interfere with communication process?
a) Correctness b) Simplicity
c) Clarity d) Noise

Q.18 Which of the following networks establishes a contact between the superior and the
subordinate and vice-versa?
a) Circuit network b) Vertical network
c) Chain network d) Star network

Q.19 Who among the following gave the following definition Communication in its simplest
form of conveying of information from one person to another?
a) Allen Louis b) George Terry
c) Hudson d) Koontz and O’Donell
Q.20 Complete the sentence with the correct option A badly- expressed message is a barrier
to communication because __________

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a) the discrepancy is not noticed
b) the sender cannot express what he wishes to say
c) the message is not well – structured
d) the receiver feels the interation is a waste of time

Q.21 Complete the sentence using the correct option. Chances of mis- communication are
greater _____________
a) in telephonic messages
b) in video calls
c) without visual cues
d) in face to face conversation

May 2021

Q.22 All the following can be non verbal cues in interpersonal communication EXCEPT.
a) Comments b) Eye contact
c) Body movements d) Posture

Q.23 Which of the following statement conveys the meaning of internal communication
network?
a) It is the pattern of directions in which information flows in the organization
b) it is the channel used to pass on information to the customers and clients
c) It is the process in which criticism flows in the organization from down to top
d) It is the pattern of directions in which information is obtained from customers.

Q.24 Written communication is utilized in all of the following EXCEPT

a) Reports b) Letters
c) Circulars d) Meetings

Q.25 Complete the sentence with the correct option

A receiver who shows lack of interest creates a barrier by his/ her _______
a) participation b) willingness
c) indifference d) determination

Q.26 Who initially determines the mode of communication?

a) the sender b) the receiver
c) The person who d) the person receiving the feed back

Q.27 Fill in the blanks in the way that completes the sentence:
At a time the employees were worried about ________ their jobs, the chairman’s
message of retaining all employees came as a _______ announcement.
a) losing, welcome b) getting, shock
c) may be, refreshing d) fully, happy

Q.28 Choose the correct option to complete the sentence:

In the _____ communication the reaction on the face of the receiver about the feed back
given in understood.
a) telephonic b) fact to face
c) e-mail d) written

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Q.29 Complete the sentence with the correct option:
Informal communication within an organisation makes use of ______
a) horizontal communication b) circulars
c) leteral communication d) grapevine

Q.30 B,C, D, E, F, G are the subordinates to A in the organizational hierarchy and receive
commands from ‘A’. This kind of communication network is called.
a) Vertical b) Star
c) Chain d) Circuit

Q.31 Which of the following are modes of written communication?

a) Presentations b) Road Maps
c) Pagers d) Notices

Q.32 How can the barrier of poor retention by the receiver be overcome?
a) By recalling the message b) By frequently taking breaks
c) By controlling anger d) By noting down points

July 2021
Q.33 Body language belongs to which of the following means of communication?
a) Informal communication b) Written Communication
c) Oral Communication d) Non-Verable Communication

Q.34 In which of the following forms of Communication networks do all members of the group
communicate with each other and exchange information?
a) Star b) Chain
c) Wheel d) Circuit

Q.35 Fill in the blanks with the correct words Spoken words would be classified as the ______
mode of communication.
a) Visual b) Oral
c) Spatial d) Gestural

Q.36 How can barriers created by refutations and arguments be resolved?

a) Listening to the views of the other
b) Setting up the Sender or receiver at a higher position
c) Trying to prove one’s own views are correct
d) Stating the Contradictions

Q.37 Shankar and Krishna are working in the same company. Shankar sent a meeting
request to Krishna. This form of communication will fall under which of the following
kinds of communication?
a) Extra communication b) External communication
c) Internal communication d) Intricate communication

Q.38 What is the preferred method of conducting meetings today?

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a) Belongings b) Social networking
c) Video Conferencing d) Presentations

Q.39 Which of the following statements about communication is TRUE?

a) Ineffective communication produces at least some times goods result to the
sender
b) Ineffective communication is vague, incomplete incorrect and difficult to
understand
c) Ineffective communication in an organisation some times helps in decision
making
d) Ineffective communication is rarely the breeding ground of misunderstanding and
mistrust.

Q.40 The statements, “We are very sorry to learn about the in convenience the delay has
caused you is used in a/an ______
a) Claim Letter b) Adjustment Letter
c) Complaint letter d) Sales letter

Q.41 Which of these can be done through intranet?

a) Project proposals can be rejected
b) Technical reports can be identified
c) Company’s news can be shared
d) Employer’s location can be allocated

November 2021

Q.42 Which of the following is a characteristic of internal communication?

a) Internal communication is never at a personal level
b) The tone of internal communication extremely confidential
c) Most of the internal communication is oral
d) Internal communication strictly avoids gestures

Q.43 All of these are examples of interactive communication, EXCEPT

a) Reporting b) Internet
c) computers d) ATM machines

Q.44 Oral communication is not required in which of the following forms of communication ?
a) Pamphlet b) Presentation
c) Public Speech d) Pod cast

Q.45 An intranet unlike an internet cannot be used for which of the following activities?
a) Sharing of resources and best practice
b) Working collaboratively on office documents
c) It is not useful to sell products or services
d) Better internal communication

Q.46 Which of these can be a barrier to communication?

a) Unblased opinion
b) Good network connection
c) Clear diction

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d) Use of high-sounding words

Q.47 .The person who develops and sends the message is known as
a) decoder b) encoder
c) collector d) editor

Q.48 What is the advantage of an Intranet?

a) It is cost effective and encourages workers to become more productive
b) It gives employers an opportunity to extract more manual labour from workers
c) It helps the company to post all kinds of financial data like budget and revenue
d) It results in employees engaging in time waste activities such as group chats.

Q.49 Which of the following factors decides the success or failure of communication?
a) Feed back b) Repetition
c) Gestures d) Character

Q.50 In vertical communication job related instructions are given by the manager to:
a) Sub ordinates b) Superiors
c) Colleagues d) Investers

Answers

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
A C D A B A A D C C
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A D C C C A C B C B
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
B A A D C A A B D C
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
D A D A B A C C B B
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
C C C A C A B A A A

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Chapter 5

LISTENING SKILLS

Multiple Choice Questions

Q1. According to Oxford Living Dictionaries, to listen simply means ___________ to sound
or ________.
A. Giving action; Listening B. Giving attention; Sound
C. Giving attention; Action D. None of above

Q2. ___________ is the process of analyzing sounds in a language.

A. Action B. Effective listening
C. Hearing D. Attention

Q3. Effective listening is the process of analyzing _______ in a language

A. Sound B. Hearing
C. Grammar D. Speaking

Q4. Listening is the “________” part of communication.

A. Listening B. Receiving
C. Receiver D. Important

Q5. Effective listening is the process of analyzing sounds in a language, organizing them into
recognizable patterns, interpreting the patterns and understanding the message by
inferring the meaning.
A. False B. True
C. Partly false D. Partly true

Q6. The three P’s of effective listening are:

A. Purposeful B. Productive
C. Powerful D. All of above

Q7. Good listening skill is the foundation of effective ___________.

A. Listening B. Human relations
C. Hearing D. None of above

Q8. Communication is not complete without _____________.

A. Action B. Effective hearing
C. Reply D. Effective listening

Q9. Good listeners can be_____________ and thus can face or handle crisis or critical
situations.
A. Good negotiator B. Good listener
C. Bad negotiator D. Good leader

Q10. ________________ is a physiological process.

A. Reaction B. Hearing
C. Communication D. None of above

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Q11. Undoubtedly effective listening is an extremely important as it serves a number of
possible purposes depending on the situation and the nature of the communication:
A. To critically assess what is being said.
B. To gain a full and accurate understanding into the speakers point of view and ideas.
C. To specifically focus on the messages being communicated, avoiding distractions and
preconceptions
D. All of above

Q12. Undoubtedly effective listening is an extremely important as it serves a number of

possible purposes depending on the situation and the nature of the communication:
A. To observe the non-verbal signals accompanying what is being said to enhance
understanding.
B. To develop a selflessness approach, putting the speaker first.
C. To show interest, concern and concentration.
D. All of above

Q13. _________ is the ability to accurately receive and interpret messages in the
communication process.
A. Hearing B. Listening
C. Communication D. Action

Q14. __________ is a physical process.

A. Listening B. Research
C. Action D. Hearing

Q15. ___________ is not a passive process.

A. Hearing B. Listening
C. Symbolic listening D. None of above

Q16. _____________ is a mental activity.

A. Hearing B. Understanding
C. Listening D. None of above

Q17. ___________ is the most basic type of listening, whereby the difference between
difference sounds is identified.
A. Descriptive listening B. Empathetic listening
C. Different listening D. Discriminative listening

Q18. To comprehend the meaning requires first having a lexicon of words at our fingertips and
also all rules of __________ and ________ by which we can understand what others are
saying.
A. Grammar; Action B. Grammar; Syntax
C. Action; Listening D. Listening; Hearing
Q19. The visual components of communication, and an understanding of body language helps
us understand what the other person is really meaning.
A. Partly false B. False
C. True D. Partly true
Q20. Comprehension listening is also known as _______________________________ .
A. Content listening B. Full listening
C. Informative listening D. All of above

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Q21. ______________ is listening in order to evaluate and judge, forming opinion about what
is being said.
A. Critical listening B. Therapeutic listening
C. Biased listening D. Empathetic listening

Q22. Judgment includes assessing strengths and weaknesses, ___________ and approval.
A. Understanding B. Agreement
C. Assignment D. None of above

Q23. ___________ happens when the person hears only what they want to hear, typically
misinterpreting what the other person says based on the stereotypes and other grudges
that they have.
A. Appreciative listening B. Critical listening
C. Biased listening D. None of above

Q24. Biased listening is often very _________ in nature.

A. Differentiated B. Evaluative
C. Effective D. Biased

Q25. In _______________, we make judgments about what the other person is saying.
A. Therapeutic listening B. Selective listening
C. Relationship listening D. Evaluative listening

Q26. Evaluative listening is particularly pertinent when the other person is trying to persuade
us, perhaps to change our behavior and maybe even to change our beliefs.
A. Partly true B. Partly false
C. True D. False

Q27. Evaluative listening is also called ___________________.

A. Judgmental listening B. Critical listening
C. Interpretive listening D. All of above

Q28. In _______________, we seek certain information which will appreciate.

A. Appreciative listening B. Sympathetic listening
C. Comprehensive listening D. None of above

Q29. _____________ is used while listening to good music, poetry or maybe even the stirring
words of a great leader.
A. Sympathetic listening B. Appreciative listening
C. Relationship listening D. None of above
Q30. In ___________ we care about the other person and show this concern in the way we
pay close attention and express our sorrow for their ills and happiness at their joys.
A. Appreciative listening B. Therapeutic listening
C. Sympathetic listening D. Relationship listening

Q31. _____________ requires excellent discrimination and close attention to the nuances of
emotional signals.
A. Therapeutic listening B. Active listening
C. Empathetic listening D. Relationship listening

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Q32. In _____________, the listener has a purpose of not only empathizing with the speaker
but also to use this deep connection in order to help the speaker understand, change or
develop in some way.
A. Dialogue listening B. Comprehensive listening
C. selective listening D. Therapeutic listening

Q33. The word 'dialogue' stems from the _______ words.

A. Latin B. French
C. Greek D. Anglo French

Q34. The word 'dialogue' stems from the Greek words '_____', meaning 'through' and
'_______' meaning 'words'.
A. Dai; gue B. Dai; Laogs
C. Dia; logue D. Dia; logos

Q35. The word '_______' stems from the Greek words 'dia', meaning 'through' and 'logos'
meaning 'words'.
A. Dialogos B. Dailogs
C. Dialogue D. Dalogue

Q36. ___________ mean learning through conversation and an engaged interchange of

ideas and information in which we actively seek to learn more about the person and how
they think.
A. Active listening B. Selective listening
C. Dialogue listening D. None of above

Q37. Dialogic listening is sometimes known as '_____________'.

A. Full listening B. Rational listening
C. Selective listening D. Critical listening

Q38. _______________ is also important in areas such as negotiation and sales.

A. Selective listening B. Relationship listening
C. Active listening D. None of above

Q39. ___________ is a more negative type of listening.

A. Critical listening B. Selective listening
C. Appreciative listening D. None of above

Q40. _____________ is a sign of failing communication

A. Dialogue listening B. Active listening
C. Selective listening D. None of above

Q41. _________________ occurs when the listener attempts to understand as clearly as

possible what the speaker says.
A. Evaluative listening B. Active listening
C. Critical listening D. None of above
Q42. _____________ are combined and subsumed under listening.
A. Active listening B. Effective listening
C. Both ‘A’ & ‘C’ D. None of above

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Q43. Listening is not a ______________ process.
A. Active B. Passive
C. Mental D. None of above

Q44. Natural keys to communication:

A. Skills of speaking B. Skills of listening
C. Both ‘A’ & ‘B’ D. None of above

Q45. Listening involves process of ____________ and _______________.

A. Inference; interference B. Interpretation; inference
C. Interpretation; interference D. Interference; action

Q46. ____________ is a voluntary activity and deliberate.

A. Hearing B. Analyzing sound
C. Communication D. Listening

Q47. Listeners are of ____________ types.

A. Five B. Three
C. Two D. Four

Q48. _______________ involve themselves actively in the communication process by keenly

listening not only to the message but also to the way it has been delivered.
A. Marginal listeners B. Active listeners
C. Evaluative listeners D. None of above

Q49. Active listeners take note of the verbal content along with its nonverbal subtexts.
A. Partly false B. False
C. True D. Partly true

Q50. ____________ listeners exhibit exactly the opposite behavioristic traits of active
listeners.
A. Active B. Evaluative
C. Marginal D. Passive

Q51. Passive“__________,” is actually hearing not listening!

A. Hearing B. Listening
C. Speaking D. None of above

Q52. Since passive listeners keep their minds closed, communication with them is _______
and _____________.
A. Futile; complete B. Futile; incomplete
C. Complete; easy D. Incomplete; difficult

Q53. ______________ pay attention only to partial message and lack sensitivity to the
nuances, inner meanings, nonverbal subtexts involved in communication.
A. Active listeners B. Passive listeners
C. Evaluate listeners D. None of above

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Q54. Passive listeners allow someone to speak, without _________ or seeking
_____________.
A. Interrupting; clarifications B. Interrupting; ambiguity
C. Interference; clarifications D. None of above

Q55. The ___________ do not listen at all because they are genuinely disinterested in the
subject.
A. Passive listeners B. Marginal listeners
C. Non-listeners D. Active listeners

Q56. Non-listeners make fake attention, but they could easily be recognized by their blank
stare, impatient and nervousness mannerisms.
A. False B. True
C. Partly false D. Partly true

Q57. Non-listeners make fake attention, but they could easily be recognized by their
__________, ______________ and ____________ .
A. Fake expressions, impatient, blank stare
B. Nervousness mannerisms, impatient, disinterested
C. Blank stare, impatient, nervousness mannerisms
D. Blank state, Presence of mind, nervousness

Q58. Non-listeners might suffer from __________ and ___________

A. nervousness, rigidity of thinking B. Rigidity of thinking, egotism
C. Egotism, nervousness D. None of above

Q59. Non- listeners frequently interrupt is speaker by using “_____________” and

“_________”.
A. I know, Hmm B. I listening, I know
C. I understand, I don’t know D.I understand, I know

Q60. _______________ are Impatient to listen to the main ideas, pay superficial attention,
and are interested only in the bottom line.
A. Evaluative listeners B. Non-listeners
C. Marginal listeners D. None of above

Q61. Marginal listeners use _______________ to excuse themselves from conversations.

A. Ignorance B. External distractions
C. Distractions D. Social distancing

Q62. Marginal listeners does not have the patience to sit through complex technical
presentations, and jump to findings and conclusions.
A. True B. Partly true
C. Partly false D. False

Q63. It is risky to communicate with marginal listeners because they are not focused on the
___________ and often ____________ their import.
A. Bottom line; misrepresent B. Main topic; misinterpretation
C. Main ideas; misunderstanding D. None of above

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Q64. ______________ literally assess the verbal content on the basis of words not
paralinguistic or nonverbal cues.
A. Evaluative listeners B. Active listeners
C. Marginal listeners D. Effective listeners

Q65. Evaluate listeners do not show empathy or sensitivity to the speaker.

A. Partly false B. True
C. Partly true D. False

Q66. Evaluate listeners are mostly _________ and __________ as they presume the
meaning before actually the speaker completes a sentence.
A. Optimistic; judgmental B. Prejudiced; evaluating
C. Judgmental; prejudiced D. Judgmental; evaluating

Q67. The characteristics of active listener are:

A. Receptive body language B. Eye contact
C. Nonverbal affirmations D. All of above

Q68. _____________ pays attention to the speaker’s stance, perspective, point of view, bias
and prejudices.
A. Effective listener B. Active listener
C. Good listener D. All of above

Q69. Barrier of communication are:

A. Inadequate language base B. Disinterestedness
C. Partial listening D. All of above

Q70. Barrier of communication are:

A. Pre-judging the speaker/speech B. Negative towards the speaker
C. Diffidence D. All of above

Q71. _____________ is required to fully understand the speaker.

A. Full concentration B. Sufficient language background
C. Presence of mind D. Any of above

Q72. Inadequate language base include:

A. Weak language proficiency B. Lack of technical vocabulary
C. Combined with fear and shyness D. All of above

Q73. _____________ occurs when people happily indulge themselves in multitasking and
allow themselves to be distracted easily.
A. Disinterestedness B. Diffidence
C. Partial listening D. None of above

Q74. when talking over the phone during a conversation, many people are habituated to flip
through a book, or surf through the internet due to which they fail to pay full attention to
the speaker – is the case of:
A. Disinterestedness B. Negativity
C. Inadequate language base D. Partial listening

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Q75. ____________ means Lack of interest in the subject prevents one to pay complete
attention.
A. Negativity B. Disinterest
C. Partial listening D. Disinterestedness

Q76. Due to disinterestedness in the subject, during a conversation, the listener may focus on
other interesting subjects.
A. True B. Partly false
C. False D. Partly true

Q77. ______________ means the listeners form biased opinions by looking at the speaker’s
look, dress and mannerism.
A. Partial listening B. Diffidence
C. Pre judging the speaker/the speech D. None of above

Q78. In Pre-Judging the Speaker/the Speech, The bias against the speaker can be formed
due to one’s own gender and color preferences.
A. False B. True
C. Partly true D. Partly false

Q79. The major cause of poor listening is due to the listener’s emotional, mental and
psychological mind- set.
A. True B. False
C. Partly true D. Partly false

Q80. When there is negativity, the listener shows animosity, undermines the speaker’s
capabilities, and keeps disagreeing with the speaker’s viewpoints.
A. False B. Partly false
C. True D. Partly true

Q81. __________ listeners suffer from a defeatist attitude.

A. Diffident B. Active
C. Diffidence D. None of above

Q82. Diffidence listeners suffer from a defeatist attitude.

A. False B. True
C. Partly true D. Partly false

Q83. New students and participants in a conference suffer from this kind of self-diffidence and
affect the listening process – is the case of:
A. Partial listening B. Over enthusiasm
C. Diffidence D. None of above

Q84. _________________ are listeners who often become over enthusiastic and intolerant and
start supplying gaps in the speaker’s ideas.
A. Diffidence B. Over enthusiasm/Intolerance
C. Active listener D. None of above

Q85. Socio- culturally embedded beliefs and convictions become so strong and firmly rooted in
one’s minds and act as barriers to new thoughts and fresh ideas.

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A. True B. Partly false
C. False D. Partly true

Q86. If one has a deep rooted conviction on caste system based arranged marriage, then the
person will not be able to openly listen to a talk on the benefits of inter-caste love marriage – is
the case of:
A. Diffidence B. Over enthusiasm/Intolerance
C. Deep-rooted beliefs D. None of above

Q87. Such ____________ deep-rooted beliefs lead to superficial listening and cause
disagreement with the speaker’s stance and view point.
A. Deep-rooted beliefs B. Pre-Judging the speaker/the speech
C. Negativity D. Diffidence

Q88. According to _____________, “the mind is like a parachute, it functions only when it is
open.”
A. Lucy Schuler B. William Shakespeare
C. Robert Schuler D. Robert B. Wield

Q89. __________ means forming an opinion in one’s mind even before actually confronting the
situation.
A. Preamble B. Judgmental
C. Prejudice D. None of above

Q90. Principle of communication is:

A. Stop talking B. Put the speaker at ease
C. Prepare yourself to listen D. All of above

Q91. Principle of communication is:

A. Remove distractions B. Be patient
C. Empathetic D. All of above

Q92. Principle of communication is:

A. Avoid personal prejudice B. Listen for ideas-not just words
C. Listen to the tone D. All of above

Q93. ____________ means help the speaker to feel free to speak.

A. Prepare yourself to listen B. Put speaker at ease
C. Stop talking D. None of above

Q94. ____________ means Focus on what is being said.

A. Remove distractions B. Be patient
C. Empathies D. None of above

Q95. Remove distractions include:

A. Don’t doodle B. Look out the window
C. Shuffle papers D. All of above

Q96. ___________ means try to understand the other person’s point of view.
A. Be patient B. Avoid personal prejudice

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C. Empathise D. None of above

Q97. By having an open mind we can more fully empathise with the speaker.
A. Partly false B. False
C. True D. Partly true

Q98. listening skills do not come naturally to most people; they require _______, _________,
and ___________ to develop.
A. Patience; Willingness; Biasness B. Willingness; Biasness; Equality
C. Willingness; Practice; Patience D. Practice; Regularity; Confidence

Q99. Barrier to effective listening is:

A. Preconceived ideas or bias B. Negativity
C. Diffidence D. Pre judging

Q100. Barrier to effective listening is:

A. Negativity B. Deep-rooted beliefs
C. Having a close mind D. None of above

Q101. Barrier to effective listening is:

A. Noise B. Bringing in emotions
C. Distraction D. All of above

Q102. Effective listening includes being open-minded to the ideas and opinions of others,
A. False B. True
C. Partly true D. Partly false

Q103. ____________ is a problem for many reasons.

A. Noise B. Bringing in emotions
C. Distraction D. Interrupting

Q104. Interrupting is _____________, ______________ and ______________.

A. Difficult to speak; Difficult to listen; Behavior
B. Attitude; Difficult to speak; Aggressive
C. Aggressive behavior; Difficult to speak; Difficult to listen
D. Aggressive; Disrespectful; Difficult to listen

Q105. We respond to people based on personal appearances, how initial introductions or

welcomes were received and/or previous interpersonal encounters.
A. Partly true B. True
C. False D. Partly false

Q106. _____________ - it means when we have a lot on our minds we can fail to listen to what
is being said as we're too busy concentrating on what we're thinking about.
A. Having a closed mind B. Bringing in emotions
C. Noise D. Preoccupation

Q107. It can be difficult to listen to the views of others that contradict our own opinions.
A. True B. Partly true
C. False D. Partly false

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Q108. The key to effective listening and interpersonal skills more generally is the ability to have
a truly open mind.
A. Partly false B. False
C. True D. Partly true

Q109. ____________ erect barriers to effective communication.

A. Becoming emotional B. Interrupting
C. Preoccupation D. Emotions

Q110. Emotions erect barriers to effective communication.

A. Partly false B. True
C. False D. Partly true

Q111. A listener's senses are not likely to be functioning at their optimum level when he or she
is angry.
A. Partly true B. True
C. False D. Partly false

Q112. ________is any unwanted sound.

A. Emotions B. Noisy environment
C. Sound D. None of above

Q113. ___________ is a great impediment to clear communication.

A. Emotion B. Noise
C. Closed mind D. None of above

Q114. ___________ can be offensive and is usually hard to hide.

A. Faking attention B. Emotions
C. Distraction D. None of above

Q115. Faking attention is hurtful and sends the message to the speaker that the listener doesn't
really care about what the speaker is saying.
A. False B. Partly false
C. Partly true D. True

Q116. If an individual cannot listen actively in the present moment, it is best to let that be known
and suggest that the communication process be put off until a point when there are no
distractions.
A. True B. Partly false
C. False D. Partly true

Q117. _____________ can hinder one's ability to listen.

A. Becoming emotional B. Diffidence
C. Negativity D. None of above

Q118. When a receiver is angered, it is easy for him or her to miss the most important part of
the sender's message.
A. False B. True

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C. Partly true D. Partly false

Q119.______________, may be helpful for the listener to wait until the speaker is finished
before responding.
A. Bringing emotions B. Distractions
C. To avoid jumping to conclusions D. None of above

Q120. To avoid jumping to conclusions can also be helpful to ask questions throughout the
conversation to clarify issues, or to let the speaker know that he or she is communicating in a
way that suggests a certain thing,
A. Partly true B. False
C. True D. Partly false

Q121. It is easy to become distracted while trying to communicate.

A. True B. Partly false
C. False D. Partly true

Q122. Distraction may lead to:

A. Miscommunication B. Turing out all together
C. Faking attention D. All of above

Q123.Following are the Ways to improve listening skills:

A. Be prepared to accept violence
B. Try to be prepare beforehand
C. Be sure the environment is conducive to listening
D. All of above

Q124. Following are the Ways to improve listening skills:

A. Refrain from formulating an immediate response
B. Concentrate
C. Provide clues that you are actively involved
D. All of above

Q125. It is important to the speaker to feel like the listener cares about what the speaker is
saying.
A. False B. True
C. Partly true D. Partly false

Q126. When people don't feel like you care about them, they don't trust you and the
communication process quickly breaks down.
A. Partly true B. Partly false
C. False D. True

Q127. Verbal and non-verbal clues that you are listening are:
A. Acknowledging statements B. Eye contact
C. Gestures D. All of above

Q128. ____________ requires willingness and practice.

A. Refrain B. Concentration

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C. Communication D. None of above

Q129. Concentration requires ____________ and ____________.

A. Willingness; attitude B. Willingness; knowledge
C. Willingness; practice D. Knowledge; practice

Q130. Practicing active listening helps with concentration but there are other elements that
contribute to your ability to concentrate on what someone is saying.
A. Partly false B. True
C. False D. Partly true

Q131. When you're involved in an exchange of information, you can't be _____________.

A. Preoccupied B. Distracted
C. Emotional D. Multi-tasking

Q132. It is important to refrain from formulating an immediate response.

A. True B. Partly false
C. False D. Partly true

Q133. ___________ help us to learn what others have to say by forcing us to think about their
message and to acknowledge what we have heard rather than just responding with our
own opinions.
A. Communication B. Conversation
C. Dialogue D. None of above

Q134. Dialogues help us to learn what others have to say by forcing us to think about their
message and to acknowledge what we have heard rather than just responding with our
own opinions.
A. False B. Partly false
C. True D. Partly true

Q135. ___________can have a huge impact on the outcome of a dialogue or any form of
communication.
A. Opportunity B. Preparation
C. Concentrate D. None of above

Q136. _____________will be important, it is essential to keep in mind the purpose of the

exchange.
A. Listening B. Active listening
C. Effective listening D. Passive listening

Q137. The dialogue should be viewed as an_________ to uncover the truth and make progress,
rather than as a challenge or conflict.
A. Threat B. Weakness
C. Strength D. Opportunity

Q138. A willingness to accept revisions will keep the communication process running smoothly.
A. Partly true B. True
C. False D. Partly false

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Q139. "spending 90 seconds expressing an opinion and 900 seconds blindly defending it." This
statement is given under principle_____________.
A. Be prepared to accept revisions B. Concentrate
C. Try to prepare beforehand D. None of above

Q140. Choosing the right environment is important because it will help the listener
_____________ and avoid ______________.
A. Concentration; confusion B. Presence of mind; ambiguity
C. Focus; distractions D. Listening skills; distractions

Q141. Although there is no set environment which is best for all communication, in general it is
best to avoid areas where there are high levels of activity, __________, an
uncomfortable temperature, _____________, etc.
A. Loud noises; poor air flow B. Loud voices; listener attitude
C. Poor air flow; patience D. None of above

Q142. ______________is the most important part of the communication process.

A. Active listening B. Passive listening
C. Effective listening D. None of above

Q143. There are many barriers to effective listening, but practicing listening techniques will help
one overcome these barriers and become a good listener.
A. True B. False
C. Partly true D. Partly false

Q144. When somebody else is talking listen to what they are saying, do not interrupt, talk over
them or finish their sentences for them - Here which principle of effective listening is
applied?
A. Prepare yourself to listen B. Stop talking
C. Put the speaker at ease D. None of above

Q145. Focus on the speaker. Put other things out of mind is a principle given under:
A. Listen to the tone B. Put the speaker at ease
C. Prepare yourself to listen D. None of above

Q146. Help the speaker to feel free to speak is a principle given under:
A. Stop talking B. Put the speaker at ease
C. Remove distraction D. None of above

Q147. Maintain eye contact but don’t stare – show you are listening and understanding what is
being said. Here which principle of effective listening apply?
A. Put the speaker at ease B. Be patient
C. Listen to the tone D. None of above

Q148. Try to be impartial is a principle given under:

A. To be patient
B. Wait and watch for non-verbal communication

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C. Avoid personal prejudice
D. None of above

Q149. Focus on what is being said and try to ignore styles of delivery is a principle under:
A. Remove distractions B. Avoid personal prejudice
C. Be patient D. None of above

Q150. ___________and ________ both add to what someone is saying.

A. Volume; tone B. Tone; frequency
C. Volume; frequency D. None of above

Q151. A good speaker will use both volume and tone to their advantage to keep an audience
attentive;
A. False B. Partly false
C. True D. Partly true

Q152. Everybody will use pitch, tone and volume of voice in certain situations – let these help
you to understand the emphasis of what is being – Here which principle of effective
listening apply?
A. Be patient B. Listen to tone
C. Wait and watch for non-verbal communication D. None of above

Q153. You need to get the whole picture, not just isolated bits and pieces is a principle given
under:
A. Listen for ideas-not just words
B. Wait and watch for non-verbal communication
C. Preoccupation
D. None of above

Q154. one of the most difficult aspects of listening is the ability to link together pieces of
information to reveal the ideas of others.
A. Partly true B. True
C. False D. Partly false

Q155. An ____________is serious about the whole process of communication.

A. Effective listener B. Evaluative listener
C. Active listener D. Marginal listener

Q156. ______________ focus on the content as well the manner in which it is delivered.
A. Evaluative listener B. Passive listener
C. Marginal listener D. Active listener

Q157. _____________ take note of the verbal content along with its nonverbal subtexts.
A. Passive listener B. Active listener
C. Marginal listener D. None of above

Q158. Active listeners are quiet sensitive towards the feelings of others, they understand the
mood of the audience.
A. True B. False

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C. Partly false D. Partly true

Q159. Active listener show __________ and make the audience or the other person cared for.
A. Sympathy B. Interest
C. Empathy D. None of above
Q160. Once there is ___________ involvement, there will be hundred per cent success in terms
of communication.
A. Unilateral B. Mutual
C. No D. None of above

Q161. So it leads to a win-win situation and causes effective _____________.

A. Controlling B. Hearing
C. Communication D. Listening

Q162.______________is attempting to understand the perspective of the speaker and

empathize, not sympathize, with him or her.
A. Selective listening B. Relationship listening
C. Dialogue listening D. Effective listening

Q163. _____________is particularly pertinent when the other person is trying to persuade us,
perhaps to change our behavior and maybe even to change our beliefs.
A. Appreciative listening B. Sympathetic listening
C. Evaluative listening D. None of above

Q164. We also discriminate between subtleties of language and comprehend the inner meaning
of what is said.
A. Partly true B. Partly false
C. False D. True

Q165. In order to get others to expose these deep parts of themselves to us, we also need to
demonstrate our ___________in our demeanor towards them,
A. Empathy B. Sensitivity
C. Sympathy D. None of above

Q166. Visual components of communication, and an understanding of body language helps us

understand what the other person is really meaning.
A. False B. Partly true
C. True D. Partly false

Q167. Discriminative listening is the most basic type of listening, whereby the difference
between _______________is identified.
A. Same sounds B. Difference sounds
C. Nature sounds D. None of above

Q168. We learn to discriminate between sounds within our own language early, and later are
unable to discriminate between the ___________ of other languages.
A. Theories B. Pronunciation
C. Examples D. Phonemes

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Q169. A person who cannot hear the subtleties of emotional variation in another person's voice
will be less likely to be able to discern the emotions the other person is experiencing.
A. True B. Partly false
C. False D. Partly true

Q170. Listening is a visual as well as _________act.

A. Multi-tasking B. Speaking
C. Auditory D. None of above

Q171. Listening means paying attention not only to the story, but how it is told, the use of
language and voice, and how the other person uses his or her body.
A. False B. True
C. Partly false D. Partly true

Q172. __________ is a physical process.

A. Listening B. Speaking
C. Hearing D. Communication

Q173. _________ is not to be confused with ____________.

A. Communication; hearing B. Listening; communication
C. Listening; hearing D. Hearing; listening

Q174. Hearing is a _________________

A. Physical process B. Emotional process
C. Mental process D. Physiological process

Q175. _____________is an involuntary act that happens automatically.

A. Hearing B. Communication
C. Listening D. None of above

Q176. Your ability to listen effectively depends on the __________ to which you perceive and
understand these messages.
A. Degree B. Think
C. Receive D. None of above

Q177. _____________ shows that effective communication involves 50% more listening than
speaking.
A. Development B. Survey
C. Research D. None of above

Q178. Research shows that effective communication involves ________ more listening than
speaking.
A. 50% B. 65%
C. 90% D. 78%

Q179. Without the ability to listen effectively, messages are easily misunderstood.
A. Partly true B. True
C. Partly false D. Partly true

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Q180. The skill of _________ is intimately related to the skill of __________.
A. Listening; hearing B. Communication; hearing
C. Hearing; speaking D. Listening; speaking

Q181. Your competence in listening is directly proportional to that of speaking.

A. False B. Partly false
C. True D. Partly true
Q182. Listening is not a/an__________ process.
A. Active B. Passive
C. Second D. None of above

Q183. The phrase ‘active listening’ is used to describe this process of being _________
involved.
A. Full B. Partial
C. Not D. None of above

Q184. To be an effective listener, one has to be completely involved in the communication

process, and fully present.
A. Partly true B. Partly true
C. Partly false D. True

Q185. To be an effective listener, one has to be completely involved in the communication

process, and fully present. Here ‘fully’, means :
A. Physical present B. Emotional present
C. Mentally present D. All of above

Q186. ___________listening requires significant real-time cognitive effort as the listener

analyzes.
A. Evaluative B. Discriminative
C. Critical D. None of above

Answer:

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
C b A b B d B B a b
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
D d b d B A D B c D
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
a B C B D C D a B C
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
C D C D C C B B B C
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
B C B C B D D B C D
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
B B B A C B C B D C
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
B A C A B C D B D D
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
B D C D D A C B A C

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81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
C B C B A C A C C D
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
D D B A D C C C A C
101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
D B D C B D A C D B
111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
B B B A D A A B C C
121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A D D D B D D B C B
131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
D A C C B C D B A C
141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A C A B C B A C B A
151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
C B A B C D B A C B
161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
C D C D A C B D A C
171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
B C C A C A C A B D
181 182 183 184 185 186
C B A D D C

PAST Exam Questions

August 2020

Q.1 Which of the following is true?

a) Listening does not allow interruption
b) Being a good listener requires conscious effort
c) Listening comes naturally
d) The listener does not need to concentrate

Q.2 The direct communication between the speaker and listener is called:
a) Presentational communication
b) Interactive communication
c) Interpersonal communication
d) Interpretive communication

November 2020

Q.3 Which of the following phrases express a positive attitude?

a) Send me your catalogue at the earliest
b) Kindly respond to our request for
c) We will not continue our business relations with you
d) We don’t like your unprofessional approach

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January 2021

Q.4 In the process of listening, interpreting the message is also known as _____
a) absorbing the message
b) decoding the message
c) perceiving the message
d) receiving the message

Q.5 Complete the sentence with the correct option when the listener responds to
the message, this is called the _________
a) sensing stage b) evaluating stage
c) feed back stage d) interpreting stage

May 2021

Q.6 Attentive listening helps to.

a) achieve goals
b) create new relationship
c) give a positive impression
d) remember what the speaker is saying

Q.7 How does increasing one’s vocabulary help in listing skills?

a) Stimulates memory
b) Results in less attention
c) Increase as potential for better understanding
d) Creates interest

July 2021

Q.8 What is the difference between hearing and Listening ?

a) Poor Listeners are not spotted easily
b) Hearing is involuntary
c) Listening Skill are easy to learn
d) Listening is a part of the communication process

November 2021

Q.9 In what kind of listening does the listener allow the other person to speak
without asking any questions?
a) Passive b) Active
c) Effective d) Critical

Q.10 Complete the Sentence with the appropriate Words:

Listening is the art of ______ and under- standing what some one is saying?
a) following b) hearing
c) knowing d) guessing

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Answers:
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
B C A C C A C B A B

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Chapter 6
BUSINESS CORRESPONDENCE

Q1 Business firms have grown tremendously in scale of ?

(A) operations. (B) communication

(C) dynamic. (D) Anthropology

Q2 : Narrow division of work results in different activities being handled by ?

(A) different departments (B) Growing Specialization

(C) communication (D) Personal Asset

Q3 The most important goal of business communication is_________.

(A). favorable relationship between sender and receiver.

(B) organizational goodwill

(C) receiver response

(D) receiver understanding

Q4 Down ward communication flows from_________ to_________.

A. Upper to lower B. Lower to upper

C. Horizontal D. Diagonal

Q5 Horizontal communication takes place between_________.

A.superior to subordinate B.subordinate to superior

C.employees with same status D.none of these

Q6 Appeals and representations are used in_________communication.

A.horizontal B.downward

C.upward D.grapevine

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Q7 The study of communication through touch is_________.

A.chronemics B.haptics

C.proxemics D.semantics

Q8 Communication is the task of imparting ?

A.tranin B.information

C.knowledge D.message

Q.9 The following is the permanent records for business

A.Business letters B.Ledgers

C.Production reports D.All of the above

10. Body of a letter is divided into ________ parts.

A.1 B.2

C.3 D.4

11. When working to create and maintain a favorable relationship with a receiver, a sender
should

A. do just what the receiver expects

B. impress the receiver by using technical terms

C. stress mutual interests and benefits

D. use positive wording

12. As per Newman and Summer Communication is the Exchange of

A. Facts B. opinion

C. emotions D. all the above

13. The ________ body of the presentation should be broken into short and clear units

A. Main B. middle

C. upper D. lower

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14 Which of the following terms best describes the grapevine as a communication pattern?

A. Diagonal B. Informal

C. Serial D. Verbal

15. The following is (are) the most effective ways of communication.

A. Verbal B. Non Verbal

C. Written D. All the above

16. The _________ of business letter is called layout.

A. Body B. content

C. pattern D. all the above

17. Interaction between three to twelve people who share a common goal, a sense of
commitment, and who attempt to influence one another is known as

A. business communication B. small-group communication

C. personal communication D. rhetorical communication

18. When a group agrees to support and commit to the decision of the group, they have
reached

A. a consensus B. a census

C. a solution D. an analysis

Q 19 Goals help us to __________.

A. Communicate B. work

C. Success D. motivate

20. An effective oral presentation process follows _________ steps.

A.3 B.4

C.5 D.6

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21. Business letters produce immediate effect because they are:

A. interesting B. brief

C. formal D. informal

22. Set off the list of Do and Donts by using ___________.

A. Body B. letter heads

C. Bullets D. Formal

23. The envelope indicated that there was ,_________ but in fact there was only a letter
inside

A. an enclosure B. a sender

C. A salutation D. an indent

24 Our address and phone number are shown on our_________

A. letterhead B. snail mail

C. postage D. salutation

25. In block text format, you do not_________each paragraph

A. indent B. punctuation

C. margin D. transition

26. A memorandum (memo) is considered a brief form of written communication for:

A. internal use B. external use

C. formal use D. legal use

27. Simplicity in writing means essentially is

A. the use of simple sentences B. the use of simple words

C. the use of simple tense D. plainness

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28. Good business letters are characterized by the following personal quality of the writer:

A. seriousness B. sincerity

C. formality D. Humour

29. Which of the following is a correct dateline for a business letter?

A. August, 20, 1998 B. 20-Aug-97

C. August 20, 1996 D. Aug 20 1995

30. The most modern letter style is

A. modified-block B. full-block

C. simplified D. block

31. Effective professional correspondence uses an appropriate style, clear and concise
language, and…………………….

A. the passive voice B. the active voice

C. open punctuation D. mixed punctuation

32. Modern business letters are usually written in:

A. indented style B. semi-block style

C. simplified style D. full-block style

33. Persuasive messages should be written in the __________ order.

A. indirect B. passive

C. direct D. indecisive

34 Which of the following is not part of a cover letter?

A. salutation B. return address

C. references D. close

35. The first goal in writing a business letter is to get the recipients ..........

A. address B. attention

C. services D. trade
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36. In developing the plan for a persuasive message,

A. consider primarily the writer's perspective

B. try to predict the reader's reaction

C. cover the pros and cons equally

D. all of the above

37. A good business letter is simple and straightforward without being simplistic or ..........

A. panoramic B. paternal

C. patriotic D. patronizing

38. The conclusion or ending paragraph should bring the communication to a polite
and ......... close.

A. businesslike B. interminable

C. measurable D. None of above

39 Which of the following is not one of the three major types of appeals discussed in the
text?

A. logic based B. emotion based

C. psychology based D. character based

40. Letters that please the receiver are called

A. condolence letters B. routine letters

C. invitation letters D. good-news letters

41. The central appeal in a persuasive letter?

A. emphasizes how the reader will benefit from the request

B. is introduced early on in the message

C. is presented in you-viewpoint language

D. all of the above

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42. Form letters are also known as

A. formal letters B. circular letters

C. persuasive sales letters D. bad news letters

43 A memorandum (memo) is considered a brief form of written communication for

A. legal use B. formal use

C. internal use D external use

44. The primary goal of the beginning of a persuasive message is to

A. sell the idea

B. gain the reader's attention

C. establish a courteous tone

D. present the pros and cons of the message

45. Good business letters are characterized by the following personal quality of the writer

A. seriousness B. humour

C. sincerity D. formality

46. The simplified style business letter has

A. indentation B. a complimentary close

C. a subject line D. a salutation

47. Modern business letters are usually written in

A. simplified style B. indented style

C. full-block style D. semi-block style

48. A persuasive message will fail if

A. it does not focus on what is in it for the reader B. it only lists facts

C. it moves too slowly D. all of the above

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49. In circular letters personal interest is created by using the word_________.

A. You B. Our customers

C. Everybody D. Dear customers

50. ___________are routine reports prepared at regular time interval-daily, weekly, monthly
quarterly or annually.

A. Periodic reports B. Formal reports

C. Progress reports D. Conference reports

51 ___________ reports are usually short messages with natural, casual use of language.

A. Conference B. Periodic

C. Informal D. Formal

52. The form of communication used most of the time for written messages to persons
inside your organization is called

A. Memorandum B. Business letter

C. Pamphlet D. adjustment letter

53. Feedback is a listeners

A. verbal critique of your message

B. Reversion to a message

C. acceptance of a message

D. verbal or nonverbal responses to a message

54. To decode a message is to

A. translate ideas into code B. interpret a message

C. reject a message D. evaluate a message

55 Which of the following sentences is least effective in driving for the sale?

A. Visit our web site today to order your tickets for the Super Bowl

B. We hope to hear from you soon

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C. Mail the enclosed card now--your free gift is waiting

D. Call our 800-number within 24 hours to place your order for the Mac II recorder

56. Feedback can come in the form of

A. environmental noise

B. nonverbal communication only

C. verbal communication only

D. verbal and nonverbal listener responses

57. In the communication process, a receiver is the person who encodes an idea. message
interference. a message pathway. Whereas a receiver is

A. the person who encodes an idea

B. message interference

C. a message pathway

D. the person who decodes a Message

58. The first opportunity to gain the reader's attention in a direct mail letter is

A. in the attention line B.in the opening paragraph

C. in the top margin D.on the envelope

59. An example of a communication channel is

A. face-to-face conversation B. feedback

C.context D.noise

60. In interpersonal communication, ethics

A.are important B.stand in the way of honesty

C.increase barriers to understanding D.are not a consideration

61. Which of the following is an example of a nonverbal message?

A. Yelling B.Eye contact

C. Jargon D.Mumbling
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62. The ability to communicate effectively

A. is a natural talent that cannot be learned

B. depends on the education level of those around you

C. can be learned

D. depends on not using technology to send messages

63. A message can only be deemed effective when it is

A. repeated back as proof of understanding

B. communicated face-to-face

C. delivered with confidence

D. understood by others and produces the intended results

64. Learning to communicate with others is key to

A. winning the approval of everyone around you

B. establishing rewarding relationships

C. never being misunderstood

D. eliminating all of your listeners' physiological noise

65. Select the statement that is not true of sales letters.

A. The layout can differ from that of the traditional letter

B. A headline could replace the inside address

C. The letter should avoid sentence fragments and choppy paragraphing

D. Attention-gaining devices are used to capture the reader

66 business report elements are

A executive summary B body

C recommendation D all of the above

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67) memorandum in plural

A memo B memoranda

C memos D none

68) salutation is used in the memorandum

A true B false

C partly true D partly false

69) in memorandum numbering is optional

A true B false

C partly true D partly false

70) In memorandum date is stated on which side

A right side B left side

C centre D none

71). __________type of orders are issued if there are a number of operational specialties

A. written B. general

C. mandatory D. procedural

72) __________ is a particular type of order in which the subordinate is not only ordered to
do a job but also given guidance on how to do it

A. Instruction B. Procedural

C. persuasion D. Advice

73) if the employees do not abide by the norms of organisation, or violate the rules and
regulations the employer will give_________ to employee

A. warning B. suggestion

C. counseling D. advice

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74). _________barrier is related to the process of coding and decoding the message

A. organizational B. semantic

C. technological D. Individual

75). _____________barriers are caused due to the faulty physical conditions such as ringing
telephone, poor listening, etc

A. interpersonal B. physical

C. technological D. organizational

76) Oral communication is the interchange of _____________ between the sender and
receiver.

A. written messages B. verbal messages.

C. cues and clues D. signs and gestures

77) The foremost barrier to oral communication is

A. interestedness B. humility

C. concentration D. poor listening

78). The handshake that conveys confidence is

A. Limp B. Firm

C. Loose D. Double

79). Letterhead generally contains

A Name and address of Registered Office,

B Identity Number (CIN) and Company logo

C Contact numbers and E-mail addresses of the company

D all of the above

80) types of layout of letterhead

A two types b three types

c one type d none of the above

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81) characteristics of essential good business letter

A. COMPLETENESS B. CLARITY

C. SIMPLICITY D. all of the above

82) Following are the benefits of written of business letter

A. Creation of friendly atmosphere

B Motivation the reader

C Establishment of mutual trust; Enhance the Goodwill of the firm

D all of the above

83) messages where the audience is expected to react in a neutral to positive manner

A. Positive B. Negative

C. persuasive D. None

84) messages where the audience is expected to react in a negative manner.

A. Positive B. Negative

C. persuasive D. None

85) audience is expected to need encouragement in order to act as the sender desire

A. Positive B. Negative

C. persuasive D. None

86) word ‘Report’ is derived from the

A. Latin reportare B. French reportare

C. Greek reportare D. None

87) “reportare” which means to

A carry back B carry forward

C carry straight D none

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88) business report include

A corporate governance report B situational report

C compliance report D all of the above

89) Disseminating information to a large number of employees within the organization.

A office circular B memorandum

c business report D all of the above

90) Office Orders have a format similar to that of

A memorandums B office report

C office circular D none of above

91) ____are exchange between two different departments

A office order B office circular

c office notes d none of above

92) office note is a

A individual preference b group preference

c both A and B d none of above

93 memorandum and letter is different

A true b false

C partly true d partly false

94) full form of MIS

A Memorandum information system

B memorandum information sign

C memorandum internal system

D memorandum internal sign

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95) element of MIS

A management b information

c system d all of above

96) Definition “the art of getting thing done through people” is given by

A marry follet B Taylor

C fayol D George

97) characteristics of MIS

A comprehensiveness B coordinated

C sub system D All of the above

98) ………………Are the basic requirement of MIS

A hardware B software

C data; procedure d all of the above

Answer:

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

A A D A b C D b a C

11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

d d A B C C B A A A

21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30

D C A A A A d B A c

31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40

B d A C A B D A C D

41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50

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D c C B C C C D A A

51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60

D A D B B b D D A A

61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70

D B c C D D B b A A

71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80

B A A B B B D b D A

81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90

D D A b C A a D A A

91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98

C A A a d A D D

PAST Exam Questions

August 2020

Q.1 Which of the following messages is a positive message?

a) We cannot take your order now
b) We do not want to continue our business relations with you
c) We sincerely appreciate your interest in our training programmes
d) We cancel your trip with immediate effect

Q.2 Fill in the blanks by selecting one of the options listed below:
___________ is a written statement of a particular job.
a) Job rotation b) Job satisfaction
c) Job description d) Job enlargement

Q.3 An alphabetical list of sources, such as books, journals etc; consulted by the writer in
preparing a business report is called:
a) Index b) Contents
c) Title d) Bibliography

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Q.4 A negative message can ________.
a) cause severe damage in interpersonal relationship
b) improve business relations
c) bring more customers to the organisation
d) hurt the feeling of the sender

November 2020

Q.5 Which of the following cannot be used for transmission of Information ?

a) fax b) business networking
c) E-mail d) SMS

Q.6 Which of the following is NOT a part of Memo?

a) Complimentary Segment
b) Heading Segment
c) Opening Segment
d) Discussion Segment

Q.7 What should a business report convey?

a) Strengths b) Weaknesses
c) Factual details d) Challenges

Q.8 Which of the following is the main purpose of writing a business letter?
a) To congratulate b) To inform
c) To chat casually d) To seek advice

January 2021

Q.9 One should use highly formal and courteous language while writing to
a) your friend
b) your parents
c) a colleague in the office
d) the chairman of a company

Q.10 Which of the following memos is used to give credit to employees of an organisation for
their outstanding accomplishments?
a) General b) Documentary
c) Disciplinary d) Congratulatory

May 2021

Q.11 In a business letter, what is the full form of Encl.

a) Encircle b) Encyclopedia
c) Enclosure d) Encyclic

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Q.12 Choose the phrase which is polite
a) please permit me to say that …..
b) your application is rejected …….
c) we cannot replace the items once it is sold …….
d) You cannot return the damaged goods …….

Q.13 In an –email, the message should be _______.

a) focused b) complicated
c) ambiguous d) cluttered

Q.14 Choose the correct statement with regard to email.

a) It allows editing
b) We cannot attach video clips
c) It is not possible to send audio files
d) It is easy to create animations on email.

Q.15 The sender should avoid the feature of ______ in a formal email.
a) Salutation b) Subject line
c) Reference d) Reply to all

Q.16 What is the most essential quality of a business report?

a) Ambiguity b) Clarity
c) Plagiansm d) Writer-Oriented
Q.17 What does ‘P. S.’ stand for
a) Post Story b) Post Scriptum
c) Please Send d) Post Supply

Q.18 A business report is meant for ________.

a) only the reader b) a journalist
c) a specific audience d) only the team leader

Q.19 Choose the appropriate solution of a business letter.

a) Hello Sir b) My Dearest Kumar
c) Dear Sir d) Hi Ramya

July 2021

Q.20 The sender should include a sentence or a short paragraph highlighting the relevance of
the _______
a) Greeting b) Attachment
c) Deadline d) Date

Q.21 The employees are informed about policy changes in the organisation through a.
a) Letterhead b) Dash Board
c) Memorandum d) Report

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Q.22 Negative messages should be conveyed with a
a) Harsh tone b) Considerate attitude
c) Frown of the face d) Confusing gesture

November 2021

Q.23 In a formal email, a nice ______ provides a friendly opening, in the same way as saying
‘hello’ on the telephone.
a) smiley b) gesture
c) greeting d) emoji

Q.24 Arrange the various segments of a Memo in a sequence:

i) Heading Segment
ii) Opening Segment
iii) Discussion Segment
iv) Closing Segment
a) i, ii, ii, iv b) iv, I, ii, iii
c) ii, i, iii, iv d) ii, I, iv, iii

Q.25 Which of the following modes of communication is a written communication?

a) video b) Radio
c) Photograph d) Memo
Q.26 Choose the correct sequence of the various part of a business letter.
i) Body
ii) Heading
iii) Salutation
iv) in side heading
a) iv, iii, i, ii b) iii, ii, i, iv
c) ii, iv, iii, i d) i, ii, iii, iv

Q.27 References and appendix in a business report are placed:

a) at the end of report b) in the abstract of a report
c) in the middle of a report d) on the title page of a report

Q.28 In a formal network within an organisation information is Not passed on through which of
the following ways?
a) Memos b) Bulletins
c) Internet d) Face Book

Q.29 Which of the following is Not a business letter?

a) Adjustment letter b) Sales letter
c) Friendly letter d) Request letter

Q.30 In a business report suggestions for actions or change are known as:
a) quotations b) Charts
c) Recommendations d) Findings

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Q.31 What is the purpose of an “Executive” summary?
a) It does not serve any clear purpose
b) it allows a busy reader to get the main points without reading the whole report
c) It is written only to high light the methodology and procedure
d) It encourages the reader to skip the main points and go to facts and figures.

Answers:
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
C C D D B A C B D D
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
C A A A D B B C C C
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
C B C A D C A D C C
31
C

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Chapter 7

CONCEPT OF E-CORRESPONDENCE

Multiple Choice Questions

Q1. The _____________ is a system of interlinked hypertext documents accessed via the
Internet.
A. World Wide Web B. Extranet
C. Intranet D. None of above

Q2. The World Wide Web is a system of interlinked hypertext documents accessed via the
__________.
A. Extranet B. Intranet
C. Internet D. None of above

Q3. The World Wide Web is a system of interlinked hypertext documents accessed via the
Internet.
A. Partly false B. False
C. True D. Partly false

Q4. With ___________, one can view web pages that contain text, images, videos, and other
multimedia and navigate among them via hyperlinks.
A. Google B. Web browser
C. Internet D. None of above
Q5. The __________ and the ________ are two separate but related things.
A. Internet; web B. Internet; web browser
C. Web; extranet D. None of above

Q6. The ____________, is a way of accessing information over the medium of the Internet.
A. Internet B. Web
C. World Wide Web D. Both ‘B’ & ‘C’

Q7. ____________ is an information-sharing model that is built on top of the Internet.

A. Internet B. Web browser
C. Communication D. Web

Q8. The Web uses the ________ protocol (one of the languages spoken over the Internet) to
transmit data.
A. HTML B. STML
C. HTTP D. POP

Q9. The Web also utilizes browsers, such as Google Chrome, Internet Explorer or Firefox to
access Web documents called Web pages that are linked to one another via hyperlinks.
A. Partly true B. True
C. Partly false D. False

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Q10. Web documents also contain:
A. Graphics B. Video
C. Sound D. All of above

Q11. The Web is just one of the ways through which information can be disseminated over the
Internet.
A. False B. Partly false
C. True D. Partly true

Q12. A _____________ is software application that enables you to find, retrieve, and display
information available on the World Wide Web (WWW).
A. Web browser B. Internet
C. Web D. None of above

Q13. The information on the Web is organized and formatted using tags of a Markup language
called ___________.
A. HTTP B. HTML
C. POP D. IMAP

Q14. Popular web browsers are:

A. Google chrome B. Face book
C. Firefox D. Both ‘A’ & ‘C’

Q15. A __________is converts the HTML tags and their content into a formatted display of
information.
A. Web B. POP
C. Web browser D. Extranet

Q16. ___________ can be used by you for going back to the previously visited web page.
A. Recent history B. Forward button
C. Backspace D. Back button

Q17. _________ is used to visit the next page (if you are not on the most recent page visited by
you, this may happen when you have pressed the back button at least once).
A. Search B. Forward button
C. Refresh D. None of above
Q18. ___________ allows you to view multiple web pages in the same browser without
opening a new browser session.
A. Search B. Stop
C. Tab D. None of above

Q19. _________ is a place where you can type the web page address that you want to retrieve
from the web address.
A. Address bar B. Contact
C. Home D. None of above

Q20. __________ also known as URL.

A. Refresh B. E-mail
C. Contact list D. Address bar

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Q21. Address bar displays the address of the web page currently being visited by you.
A. False B. Partly false
C. Partly true D. True

Q22. ____________ shows the links to the web pages previously visited by you.
A. Address bar B. Tab
C. Recent history D. Search

Q23. ___________ reloads the current web page.

A. Refresh B. Reload
C. Tab D. None of above

Q24. ___________ also clawed as reload button.

A. Tab B. Home
C. Refresh D. None of above

Q25. ____________ cancels loading of the current web page.

A. Back button B. Stop
C. Hom D. None of above

Q26. Stop button is used when the page is in the loading state.
A. Partly false B. Partly true
C. False D. True

Q27. _________ button will bring you back to the home page of your website.
A. Refresh B. Home
C. Search D. Stop

Q28.___________ box allows any term to be searched by the search engine from the web.
A. Interface B. Refresh
C. Search D. Recent history

Q29. __________ is the network of networks and is used for many applications.
A. Intranet B. Internet
C. Extranet D. None of above

Q30. Internet has ____________ of networks and ___________ of users, using many services.
A. Hundred; thousands B. Millions; thousands
C. Millions; hundred D. Thousands; millions

Q31. Information that travels over the Internet does so via a variety of languages known as
_________.
A. POP B. Internet
C. Protocols D. Markup language

Q32. The Internet uses ________ as its basic protocol on which many more application level
protocols have been developed.
A. TCP B. IP
C. Both ‘A’ & ‘B’ D. A

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Q33. _____________ is a collection of textual documents and other resources, linked by
hyperlinks and URLs, transmitted by web browsers and web servers.
A. Extranet B. Web
C. Intranet D. Internet

Q34. Viewing a web page on the World Wide Web normally begins either by typing the URL of
the page into a web browser or by following a hyperlink to that page or resource.
A. False B. Partly true
C. True D. Partly false

Q35.“The letters written by one party to another, and the answers thereto, make what is called
the _____________ of the parties.
A. Correspondence B. Understanding
C. Relationship D. None of above

Q36. E-Correspondence is commonly known as:

A. Email-correspondence B. Electronic correspondence
C. Both ‘A’ & ‘B’ D. None of above

Q37. ________________ is an electronic method of providing you with important information on

your email address.
A. E-mail B. E-Correspondence
C. Gmail D. None of above

Q38. Features of E-mail are:

A. Electronic B. Attachments
C. Cost-effective D. All of above

Q39. _________ is an electronic mode of message transmission as it is sent using HTML.

A. Internet B. E-Correspondence
C. Gmail D. E-mail

Q40. HTML refers to:

A. Hyper Text Makeup Language B. High Text Markup Language
C. Hyper Text Markup Language D. Hyper Taxation Markup Language

Q41. Today with the advent of smart-phones, communicating through emails has become even
more cost-effective.
A. True B. False
C. Partly true D. Partly false

Q42.E-mail is one of the cost-effective modes of fast communication.

A. False B. Partly true
C. True D. Partly false

Q43. Packages like ‘_________’ and ‘________’ help us compose new mails or forward the
received ones to one or all of the people whose email addresses are stored in the
‘Address Box’.
A. Outlook; mail B. Messenger; outlook
C. Mail; messenger D. None of above

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Q44. ______________ like ‘Messenger’ and ‘Outlook’ help us compose new mails or forward
the received ones to one or all of the people whose email addresses are stored in the
‘Address Box’.
A. Interface B. Packages
C. Spam D. Attachments

Q45.An ____________ between email programme and word processing programme allows us
to cut, copy and paste material from one place to the other.
A. Attachments B. Spam
C. Packages D. None of above

Q46. The ‘_______’ option allows us to share documents, worksheets, presentations, pictures
and videos along with the mails.
A. Interface B. Attach
C. Spam D. None of above

Q47.The ‘Attach’ option allows us to share:

A. Documents B. Worksheets
C. Pictures D. All of above

Q48. Unsolicited or Junk mails can be filtered by using the ‘______’ option which forbids
unwanted mails to enter your inbox.
A. Electronic B. Spam
C. Signature D. None of above

Q49. Once you add your signature it automatically appears at the end of every mail that you
compose.
A. Partly true B. False
C. True D. Partly false

Q50. The ___________ option helps us to locate old email communications.

A. Tab B. Cloud storage
C. Search D. None of above

Q51. ____________is a more recent feature through data is stored.

A. Hard drive B. Storage
C. Memory card D. Cloud storage

Q52. ____________ is a trend of online work has brought about other changes like virtual
workplaces, work from home, flexi-time etc.
A. Search B. Work office
C. Changes at the workplace D. None of above

Q53. __________ is the main folder in your email account.

A. Sent mail B. Drafts
C. Contact list D. Inbox

Q54. ___________ contains all the e-mails that have arrived in your e-mail account.
A. Spam B. Inbox
C. Trash D. Drafts

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Q55. You can click on inbox to see the mails that you have not read (shown in bold) as well as
the mails that you have already read (in normal font).
A. False B. Partly false
C. True D. Partly true

Q56. ___________ shows all the e-mails sent by you from your e-mail account.
A. Compose mail B. Trash
C. Spam D. Sent mail

Q57. ___________ is unsolicited e-mails or junk mails.

A. Spam B. Drafts
C. Trash D. None of above

Q58. Spam is also called as ____________.

A. Unwanted e-mails B. Cloud storage
C. Trash D. None of above

Q59. Spam mails are also a big cause of computer viruses. Spam mails are identified by the
mail services and placed in this folder.
A. False B. Partly true
C. Partly false D. True

Q60. ______________ is any deleted mail.

A. Spam B. Compose mail
C. Trash D. None of above

Q61. ___________ allows you to get back an e-mail which have already been deleted.
A. Spam B. Compose mail
C. Trash folder D. None of above

Q62. Mails are permanently deleted from trash folder.

A. False B. True
C. Partly true D. Partly false

Q63. ______________ is addressing, writing, and sending an e-mail message.

A. To field B. Group contacts
C. Contact D. Compose list

Q64. By clicking on the ____________ button a window appears where we can write our
message in the message box and the email addresses of the person we want to send
the mail.
A. Contact list B. Spam
C. Compose list D. None of above

Q65. The _________ helps you to find email address of a person whom you have saved in your
Contact list.
A. Compose B. Subject
C. Contacts D. None of above

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Q66. __________ means you have to put the address of the receiver.
A. To field B. To put
C. To enhance D. None of above

Q67.In case you want to send email to more than one receiver then put __________ between
their email addresses
A. Bracket B. Punctuation
C. Exclamation D. Comma

Q68. Cc stands for:

A. Credit copy B. Credit comma
C. Carbon copy D. None of above

Q69. Bcc stands for:

A. Blank carbon copy B. Blind carbon copy
C. Blank credit cop D. None of above

Q70. ______ the persons whose address is listed in this field will receive carbon copy of the
message
A. Pc B. Cc
C. Bcc D. Tc

Q71. ________ the recipient who had got Blind carbon copy is invisible to other recipients.
A. True B. Partly false
C. Partly true D. False

Q72. ___________ is the main heading of your mail.

A. Heading B. Text area
C. Subject D. None of above

Q73. Subject will explain that the mail is regarding which issue.
A. False B. Partly true
C. True D. Partly false
Q74.The subject should be __________ of the mail to help the receiver understand what mail is
about without having to open the mail.
A. Operative B. Different
C. Descriptive D. None of above
Q75. _____________means the message is written in this area.
A. Passage B. Text area
C. Subject D. None of above

Q76. You can send the mail by clicking the _________ button.
A. Receive B. Send
C. Receive D. None of above

Q77. Contacts that are organized in different groups are called as __________.
A. Square contacts B. Group contacts
C. Circle contacts D. None of above

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Q78.Today companies are able to customize their e-mail services to meet their own unique
communication
A. True B. Partly true
C. False D. Partly false

Q79. ____________ tools in the market can help entrepreneurs and managers address a wide
array of issues from excessive volumes of e-mail
A. Management tools B. Mail management tools
C. E-mail management tools D. None of above

Q80. ____________appearance and _________ are paramount in an e-mail.

A. Executive; subject B. Regular; content
C. Professional; title D. Professional; content

Q81. Some basic guidelines and action points to be followed are:

A. Maintain separate accounts for official and personal e-mails.
B. Avoid ‘Emoticons”
C. The standards of professionalism that dictate postal correspondence
D. All of above

Q82. Some basic guidelines and action points to be followed are:

A.Limit the size of attachments to be received or sent out by e-mail.
B. Have a standard signature for your official e-mails
C. Avoid ‘spamming.’
D. All of above

Q83. The standards of professionalism that dictate postal correspondence are:

A. Proper grammar B. Structure

C. Tone D. All of above

Q84 .Avoid ‘Emoticons” – smileys, winks etc in official correspondence.

A. True B. False
C. Partly false D. Partly true

Q85 .Maintain separate accounts for official and personal e-mails.

A. False B. True
C. Partly true D. Partly false

Q86. What helps you to maintain a proper distribution list of recipients for your mails?
A. Spamming B. Delete
C. Emoticons D. None of above

Q87.___________________ helps organization in monitor data security, virus attacks etc.

A. Avoid ‘Emoticons”
B. Spamming
C. Respond promptly to official e-mail messages
D.Limit the size of attachments to be received or sent out by e-mail.

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Q88. What helps the organization in accurate identification?
A. Respond promptly to official e-mail messages
B.Have a standard signature for your official e-mails
C.Set up efficient daily e-mail practices
D. None of above

Q89.Respond promptly to official e-mail messages – less than _____ hours.

A. 10 B. 12
C. 24 D. 23

Q90. _________ sends out wrong signals.

A. Response B. Wrong-response
C. Non-response D. None of above

Q91.What makes you to ensure that your inbox is not cluttered and allows for incoming
messages without delay?
A. Delete old messages that can clutter up your inbox
B. Use the “Reply/Reply All” features with care
C. Maintain separate accounts for official and personal e-mails
D. None of above

Q92.Review incoming e-mails only at ___________ or __________ set times a day.

A. One; two B. Three; five
C. Two; three D. Five; four

Q93. Invest in ________________ that can block e-mail spam that clogs many systems.
A. Management tools B. Supplementary tools
C. Administrative tools D. None of above

Q94. Use the “_______________” features with care.

A. Reply/reply all B. Send/send all
C. Send/send all D. None of above

Q95. Use the fields ________________ appropriately.

A. To B. Bcc
C. Cc D. All of above

Q96. The recipients in the ‘_____’ are those who need to take action based on your e-mail;
A. Cc B. To
C. Bcc D. None of above
Q97. Those in ‘_____’ are included for information.
A. Bcc B. Cc
C. To D. None of above

Q98. Those in ‘________’ are included when the recipients are not known to each other and
their e-mail ids are to be kept confidential.
A. To B. Bcc
C. Cc D. None of above

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Q99. All e-mail sent through normal channels can be intercepted.
A. False B. True
C. Partly true D. Partly false

Q100. The desire to say what we feel must be overcome with the desire to be courteous and
professional, which we all know in our hearts, is the better way to communicate.
A. Partly false B. Partly true
C. False D. True

Q101. ______________ comes in various colours and designs and it is as creative as the
sender makes
A. E-mail B. Web browser
C. Internet D. E-mail Correspondence

Q102. Select E-mail etiquette from the following:

A. Mind your manners
B. Address people you don’t know as Mr. , Mrs. Or Dr.
C. Be concise
D. All of above

Q103. Select E-mail etiquette from the following:

A. Use correct spelling and proper grammar
B. Be professional
C. Watch your tone
D. All of above

Q104. ____________ means Think of the basic rules you learned growing up, like saying
please and thank you.
A. Address people you don’t know as Mr. , Mrs. Or Dr.
B. Mind your people
C. Be concise
D. All of above

Q105. ____________________ address someone by first name only if they imply it’s okay with
them to do so.
A. Watch your tone
B. Mind your manners
C. Address people you don’t know as Mr. , Mrs. Or Dr.
D. None of above

Q106. According to ___________ defines tone as an “accent or inflection expressive of a mood

or emotion.”
A. Charles Darwin B. Merriam
C. Both ‘B’ & ‘D’ D. Webster

Q107.In _____________it is very difficult to express tone in writing, but make sure that you
should come across as respectful, friendly, and approachable.
A. Be professional B. Watch your tone
C. Be concise D. None of above

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Q108. It is very difficult to express tone in writing, but make sure that you should come across
as:
A. Approachable B. Respectful
C. Friendly D. All of above

Q109. In ___________ you should not sound curt or demanding.

A. Watch your tone B. Be concise
C. Be professional D. Be polite

Q110. According to _____________ you should get to the point of your email as quickly as
possible, but don’t leave out important details that will help your recipient answer your
query.
A. Be professional B. Watch your tone
C. Be concise D. None of above

Q111. _____________ means, to stay away from abbreviations and don’t use emoticons (those
little smiley faces).
A. Be concise B. Be professional
C. Be polite D. None of above

Q112. _____________ means to use a dictionary or a spell checker whichever works better for
you.
A. Be concise B. Use correct spelling and proper grammar
C. Be professional D. None of above

Q113.While you can write in a conversational tone (contractions are okay), pay attention to
basic rules of grammar.
A. Partly true B. False
C. Partly false D. True

Q114. Career Planning Site visitor Larry Batchelor says, “I never fill in the ‘TO’ email address
until I am completely through proofing my email and I am sure that it is exactly the way
that I want it. This will keep you from accidentally sending an email prematurely. In the
past, I have accidentally clicked on the send icon, when I really meant to click on the
attachment icon.”– is the example of:
A. Be concise B. Use correct spelling and proper grammar
C. Wait to fill in the “TO” Email Address D. None of above

Q115. Advantages of using E-mail are:

A. Managerial email is easy B. Email is fast
C. Email is inexpensive D. All of above

Q116. Advantages of using E-mail are:

A. Email is easy to filter B. Transmission is secure and reliable
C. Email is fast D. All of above

Q117. Due to ___________you can manage all your correspondence on screen and so can
your customers.
A. Email is easy B. Email is inexpensive
C. Managing email is easy D. None of above

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Q118. Due to ____________Mail is delivered instantly from your office to anywhere in the
world. No other method of delivery can provide this service.
A. Email is fast B. Email is easy to filter
C. Email is inexpensive D. None of above

Q119. Compared to telephone calls, faxes, or over night courier service, Email is
____________.
A. Less expensive B. Very expensive
C. Inexpensive D. None of above

Q120. Due to _____________the subject line on an Email makes it easy to prioritize messages.
A. Email is inexpensive B. Email is fast
C. Email is easy to filter D. None of above

Q121. Due to ______________The level of security in transmitting Email messages is very

high, and the industry continues to strive to develop even tighter security levels.
A. Email is easy B. Email is inexpensive
C. Email is easy to filter D. Transmission is secure and reliable

Q122. ___________ is private.

A. Internet B. Intranet
C. E-mail D. World Wide Web

Q123. If the address information is correct, rarely does an Email go astray.

A. True B. Partly false
C. False D. Partly true

Q124. Email has been credited for increased __________, ______________, and a host of
other advantages tied to increased productivity.
A. Communication; business relations B. Efficient; business relations
C. Efficiency; business readiness D. Efficiency; business relations

Q125. Disadvantages of E-mail are:

A. Time consuming B. Misunderstanding
C. Security D. All of above

Q126. Disadvantages of E-mail are:

A. Impersonal communication B. Vulnerability
C. Internet connectivity D. All of above

Q127. Organizing and reading through emails can also eat up a great deal of time and prove an
obstacle in the way of a worker’s productivity.
A. True B. False
C. Partly false D. Partly true

Q128. Sensitive information can be easily shared and distributed within a business through
email.
A. Partly true B. True
C. Partly false D. False

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Q129. An e mail can be intercepted by a hacker or go on an incorrect email address and wind
up in someone else’s inbox.
A. False B. Partly true
C. True D. Partly false

Q130. Pronouns and popular__________ can lead to conflicts in emails.

A. Noun B. Professional terms
C. Adverb D. Jargon

Q131. Email is filled with abbreviations and short descriptions, which can often be
misunderstood and/or interpreted the wrong way.
A. Partly true B. True
C. False D. Partly false

Q132. E-mail depends on the internet connectivity which can get disturbed or disconnected due
to various reasons:
A. Email should not be considered as a replacement for direct, face-to-face
communication.
B. Email cannot be considered a confidential mode of communication.
C.Email cannot be relied in case of emergency messages as the receiver may read it at
his own convenient time.
D. All of above

Q133.The word ‘intra’ means _________ or ________.

A. Under; within B. Within; internal
C. In; under D. Internal; under

Q134. ____________is like the internet, except that it contains information specific to the
particular organization.
A. Web browser B. Extranet
C. Web D. Intranet

Q135. External people, who are not on the network cannot access the intranet.
A. True B. Partly true
C. Partly false D. False

Q136. The ___________ is the most effective of all the types of electronic communication.
A. Extranet B. Intranet
C. Internet D. None of above

Q137. A company intranet helps to keep employees at least with various happenings within the
company, and it can be used to communicate within the company by posting various
newsletters, articles, and company training documents.
A. Partly false B. Partly true
C. False D. True

Q138. The _________ implies that only the company employees who are set up on the server
can access the company pages.
A. Extranet B. Internet
C. Intranet D. None of above

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Q139. Most companies use their intranet in place of paper and emails because it gives
information to everyone within the company, regardless of their location.
A. Partly true B. False
C. True D. Partly false

Q140.Intranets have been quite effective in keeping communication open to all employees,
A. True B. False
C. Partly true D. Partly false

Q141. Benefits of Intranet are:

A. Workforce productivity B. Web publishing
C. Time D. All of above

Q142. Benefits of Internet are:

A. Communication B. Enhance collaboration
C. Cost-effective D. All of above

Q143.The intranet is a great tool that may be used in order to get messages across to the staff
members.
A. False B. Partly false
C. True D. Partly true

Q144. Intranet increasers the workforce productivity.

A. False B. Partly true
C. Partly false D. True

Q145. Intranets allow organizations to distribute information to employees on an as-_________

basis.
A. Requirement B. Needed
C. Timely D. None of above

Q146. Intranets can serve as a powerful tool of communication within an organization, vertically
as well as horizontally.
A. False B. True
C. Partly false D. Partly true

Q147. Intranets can serve as a powerful tool of communication within an organization,

____________ as well as _____________.
A. Vertically; diagonal B. Vertically; horizontal
C. Diagonal; horizontal D. None of above

Q148. By providing this information on the ________, staff has the opportunity to keep up-to-
date with the strategic focus of the organization.
A. Intranet B. Internet
C. Extranet D. None of above

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Q149. By providing this information on the intranet, staff has the opportunity to keep up-to-date
with the ___________ focus of the organization.
A. Administrative B. Strategic
C. Management D. None of above

Q150. ______________ allows cumbersome corporate knowledge to be maintained.

A. Cost-effective B. Enhance collaboration
C. Web publishing D. None of above

Q151. It allows cumbersome corporate knowledge to be maintained and easily accessed

throughout the company using ______________ and _____________.
A. Hypermedia; web technologies B. Web technologies; media
C. Hypermedia; web browser D. WWW; web technologies

Q152. Intranets are also being used as a platform for _________ and ____________
applications to support business operations and decisions across the internetworked
enterprise.
A. Developing; deploying B. Deploying; demonstrating
C. Developing; knowledgeable D. None of above

Q153. Intranets are also being used as a platform for developing and deploying applications to
support business operations and decisions across the internetworked enterprise.
A. False B. Partly true
C. True D. Partly false

Q154. ____________ means Information is easily accessible by all authorized users, which
enables teamwork.
A. Web publishing B. Enhance collaboration
C. Communication D. Immediate updates

Q155.Intranets make it possible to provide your audience with “________” changes.

A. Live B. Passive
C. Active D. Peceptional

Q156.The purpose of the intranet is for ________ communication.

A. Internal B. Line
C. External D. Bus

Q157.Intranets are also being used as __________________ platforms.

A. Corporate communication-changed B. Corporate culture-changed
C. Community culture-changed D. None of above

Q158. When part of an intranet is made accessible to customers and others outside the
business that becomes part of an extranet.
A. Partly true B. Partly false
C. False D. True

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Q159. Businesses can send private messages through the public network, using special
______________ and other security safeguards to connect one part of their intranet to
another.
A. Mode of Communication B. Encryption/Description
C. Language D. None of above

Q160. Most commonly, intranets are managed by the communications, Administrative

departments of large organizations, or some collaboration among these.
A. Partly false B. False
C. Partly true D. True

Q161. “Electronic mail” or “e-mail” as it is commonly called is the process of sending or

receiving a computer file or message by computer modem over telephone wires to a pre-
selected “mail box” or “address” on another computer.
A. False B. Partly false
C. True D. Partly true

Q162. E-mail can also be sent automatically to a large number of electronic addresses via
_________.
A. Address bar B. Contact list
C. Mailing list D. Group contact list

Q163. E-mail stands as a central component of business communication.

A. Partly true B. True
C. Partly false D. False

Q164. In terms of sheer volume, more than ______ billion pieces of e-mail were delivered in the
United States in 1999.
A. 640 B. 536
C. 557 D. 564

Q165. This research was done by _____________.

A. eMarketer Internet B. eMarket Intranet
C. eMarket Typhoons D. None of above

Q166.eMarketer estimates that in 2000 the number of active e-mail users in America reached
_____ million.
A. 111 B. 200
C. 112 D. 100

Q167. ______ years ago , had become said that it would be possible to instantly deliver
documents to a recipient sitting half way across the globe.
A. 10 B. 45
C. 40 D. 50

Q168. In _____, the Massachusetts Institute of Technology (MIT) was the first to demonstrate
the use of the first email system known as MAILBOX.
A. 1970 B. 1990
C. 1965 D. 2000

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Q169. In 1965, the______________________ was the first to demonstrate the use of the first
email system known as MAILBOX.
A. Massachusetts Institute of Technology (MIT)
B. Melbourne Institute of Technology (MIT)
C. Massachusetts Institute of Transmission (MIT)
D. Manchester Institute of Technology (MIT)

Q170. In 1965, the Massachusetts Institute of Technology (MIT) was the first to demonstrate the
use of the first email system known as ____________.
A. ADDRESS B. ENIAC
C. MAILBOX D. WEB NERD

Q171. In 1965, the Massachusetts Institute of Technology (MIT) was the first to demonstrate the
use of the first email system known as MAILBOX.
A. Partly true B. True
C. False D. Partly false

Q172.The history of email addresses can also be attributed to __________.

A. Tomilson B. Thompson
C.Tomilnson D. Tomlinson

Q173. Who chose the ‘@’ symbol to provide an addressing standard in the form of
“user@host”?
A. Tomlinson B.Tomilson
C.Tomilnson D. Thompson

Q174. __________ is called the “father of email”.

A. Tomilson B. Page
C. Tomlinson D. None of these

Q175. By __________, email in its improved form was being used by the US military.
A. 1970 B. 1974
C. 1968 D. 1990

Q176. By _______, efforts to organize the email bore fruit.

A. 1975 B. 1980
C. 1978 D. None of these

Q177. Which year was the watershed year in history email marketing?
A. 1975 B. 1977
C. 1976 D. 2000

Q178. Requirement for protocols was felt almost immediately, and in ______ file transfer
protocol (FTP) was put in use to send email messages.
A. 1979 B. 1971
C. 1978 D. 1972

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Q179. The main drawback here was that FTP created ___________________________, which
resulted in loss of precious memory space.
A. A separate mail for every recipient and then saved as draft
B. A separate mail for every recipient and then dispatched it
C. A separate mail by every sender and then dispatched it
D. A separate message for every recipient and then dispatched it

Q180. SMTP was founded in _________.

A. 1970s B. 2000s
C. 1960s D. 1980s

Q181. Which of the following is standard for receiving emails?

A. HTTP B. POP
C. SMTP D. IMAP

Q182. Who was the successor of POP?

A. SMTP B. Gmail
C. IMAP D. HTTP

Q183. By the early ______, free and user-friendly email service providers had taken the industry
by storm.
A. 1990s B. 2000s
C. 1980s D. 1960s

Q184.Players like ‘__________’ and ‘_________’ were competing for the market share.
A. Yahoo; Gmail B. Yahoo; hotmail
C. Gmail; hotmail D. Gmail; Google

Q185. Today, there are more than __________ million email users across the globe.
A. 200 B. 800
C. 500 D. 600

Q186. Most of us e-mail ________ and ________ every day.

A. Back; forth B. Both ‘A’ & ‘B’
C. Forth; back D. Either ‘A’ or ‘B’

Q187. Those who need to take action based on your e-mail should use ‘_________’ field.
A. Cc B. Bcc
C. To D. None of above

Q188. Those in ‘________’ are included for information;

A. Bcc B. To
C. Cc D. None of above

Q189. Those in ‘________’ are included when the recipients are not known to each other and
their e-mail ids are to be kept confidential.
A. Cc B. Bcc
C. To D. None of above

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Q190. Choose to send a group or list of people the same message using _______, which is the
kindest and least obvious way to send mail short of encryption.
A. Bcc B. Cc
C. To D. None of above

Q191. Due to email is fast ,Timely buying and selling decisions can be made in one heartbeat.
A. Partly false B. False
C. Partly true D. True

Q192. WWW stands for:

A. World Web Wide B. World Wide Web
C. World Wealth Web D. World Wide Wildlife

Q193. HTTP stands for:

A. Hyper Transfer Text Protocol B. High text Transfer Protocol
C. High text Transmission Protocol D. Hypertext Transfer Protocol

Q194. TCP/IP stands for:

A. Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol
B. Transfer Communication Protocol/Intranet Protocol
C. Transmission Control Program/Internet Program
D. Transmission Control Protocol/Information Protocol

Q195. SMTP stands for:

A. Simple Mail Transmission Protocol B. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol
C. Signature Mail Transfer Protocol D. Simple Mail Transfer Program

Q196. POP stands for:

A. Post Office Program B. Pandemic Office Protocol
C. Post Office Protocol D. Post Official Protocol

Q197. IMAP stands for:

A. Internet Message Access Program
B. Intranet Message Access Protocol
C. Internet Message Access Protocol
D. Internet Message Allow Protocol

Q198. The terms ________ and ___________ are often used in everyday speech without much
distinction.
A. Internet; World Wide Web B. Internet; HTML
C. World Wide Web; intranet D. None of above

Answer:

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
a C C B A D d C B D
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
C A B D c D b C a D
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
d c A C B D B C B D

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31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
C C C c a C B D D C
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A c B b c B D B C C
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
d C d b C D A d D C
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
C b D c C A D C B B
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
A C C C b b B A C D
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
d d D A B A D B C C
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A C B a d B b B B D
101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
D D d D C C B D A C
111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
b b D C d D C A A c
121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
D C A C D d A b c D
131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
B D B D A C d b C A
141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
D D C D B b B B b C
151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
A A C B A A D D B B
161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
C C B B A A D C C C
171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
B D A C B A C D B D
181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190
B C A B D A C C B A
191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198
D A B A B C C A

PAST Exam Questions

August 2020

Q.1 On the internet, junk mail is called _____.

a) Emoticon b) Acronym
c) Spam d) Forgery

Q.2 Give one word for something that happens over and over or continues for a
long time.
a) Chronicle b) Choleric
c) Chronic d) Cleric

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Q.3 Which of the following sentences is more appropriate in a formal email?
a) Mohan will send the memo, Yah !
b) Hey, the memo will be sent by Mohan
c) Mr. Mohan, the Chairman, will send the memo
d) Guys, the memo could be sent by Chairman Mohan

Q.4 Which of the following is a type of digital means of communication ?

a) Social media posts
b) Memorandum
c) Assignment
d) Recitation

Q.5 The full form of FAQ is _________

a) Frequently Annoying Questions
b) Frequently Answered Questions
c) Frequently Available Questions
d) Frequently Asked Questions

Q.6 Which of the following is a formal closing is an official email?

a) Yours sincerely
b) Yours lovingly
c) Your’s student
d) Your colleague

Q.7 Official email is best used ______.

a) Only for external circulation
b) to forward personal photographs to internal staff
c) to convey short routine messages quickly
d) for sending intra personal messages

Q.8 Which of these statements about the mobile phone is Not true?
a) It can receive calls from any location
b) It can send calls as radio wave signals
c) It is not connected to a telephone network
d) It hardly has any health hazards

November 2020

Q.9 An e-mail can link to previous e- mails in the same window so it basically
a) Intertextual
b) Hypertextual
c) Spam
d) Editable

Q.10 All of the following are features of an e-mail EXCEPT:

a) Signature can be included
b) Attachments can be included
c) It is not a hard copy
d) It is printable

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January 2021

Q.11 Intranets are increasingly being used as platforms for _______

a) corporate culture- change
b) employee exchange programme
c) customer interaction programmes
d) wholesale marketing techniques

Q.12 E-mail appears in a window, with clearly defined ________

a) pictures b) photographs
c) edges d) grphs

Q.13 The subject line in a business email is preferably written in _______

a) ten sentences b) one sentence
c) one paragraph d) two paragraphs

Q.14 One of the disadvantages of an email is that it ________

a) is sent from one computer to the other
b) lacks personal touch
c) is written in Third person
d) always carries spam

May 2021

Q.15 Choose the correct statement with regard to intranet:

a) It is high on maintenance
b) It delays projects
c) It is not conducive
d) It is cost- effective

Q.16 Now a days, educational material at all levels from pre-school to post-
doctoral is available on _____.
a) notice boards b) Website
c) intranets d) catalogues

Q.17 What is a very important consideration before choosing a service provider for
your mobile phone?
a) ease of Availability b) network Coverage
c) brand image d) cost of Package

Q.18 Television broadcasts, web-based communications such as social media,

interactive blogs, public and inranet company web pages, facebook, and
twitter allow messages.
a) to reach a limited elite audience
b) to be collected by only leaders
c) to reach instantaneously and globally
d) to be collected in the library

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Q.19 It is essential to _______ in the main body of an email message
a) use the same font consistently
b) underline every sentence of the text
c) apply animation for images
d) highlight the text in various colours

Q.20 What style of language should be used in a formal e-mail?

a) Boorish b) Conversational
c) Polite d) Aggressive

Q.21 Which of the following is TRUE?

a) We cannot mark a copy of email
b) Email is a common form of formal communication
c) There is no need to use punctuation in an email
d) Sending e-mail is difficult.

Q.22 In an e-mail, information must be _______ according to importance.

a) prioritized b) deleted
c) filed d) corrected

Q.23 Intranet is increasingly used by organisation for ________

a) maintaining corporate protocol
b) social networking
c) encouraging grapevine
d) Project management

July 2021
Q.24 All the following are disadvantages of e-mail EXCEPT
a) e-mails can be sent to one person or several people
b) Viruses are easily spread via email attachments
c) e-mail spam also referred to as junk e-mail or simply SPAM is possible
d) The recipient needs access to the internet to receive e-mail.

Q.25 Vocabulary in an e-mail must be

a) Bombastic b) Simple
c) High-sounding d) Redundant
November 2021
Q.26 Which of the following kinds of paragraphs are not suitable in a business e-
mail?
a) Short and clear b) Clear and coherent
c) Long and cumbersome d) Simple and correct

Q.27 In an email, Headers are used to ______.

a) duplicate messages easily
b) scan the entire email
c) underscore insignificant details
d) zoom in an relevant information

Q.28 on the internet, junk mail is called ______

a) Spam b) acronym

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c) emoticon d) forgery

Q.29 Choose the most polite expression that is used in E-correspondence

a) “Anand, I never imagined you could be so dumb
b) “Anand, see me in my cabin right now”
c) “Thanks for your quick response, Mr. “Anand”.
d) “Anand have you lost your brain?

Q.30 When messages are sent by e-mail to all the participants for an online
discussion it is called:
a) e-mail discussion list b) online forum
c) bulletin board d) Web forum

Q.31 It is very important to be _______ in a formal email.

a) gender-specific b) rude
c) gender-neutral d) impolite

Q.32 To remove Span- automatically, we should just hit the ______ button.
a) Escape b) Enter
c) Delete d) Help

Q.33 Email etiquette Suggests that you must ______

a) Identify yourself and the topic
b) attach unnecessary files
c) mention personal details
d) use highly information language
Answers:
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
C C C A D A C C B C
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A C B B D B B C A C
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
B A D A B C D A C A
31 32 33
C C D

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Chapter No 8
Common Business Terminologies
MCQ Questions:
Q1. The topic of ‘Business Terminology’ is the main vehicle by which facts, opinion sand other
‘higher’ units of knowledge are represented and conveyed.
A. True B. False
C. Partly True D. Partly False
Q2. Sound terminology work is meant for reducing ambiguity and increasing clarity.
A. True B. False
C. Partly True D. Partly False
Q3. Sound terminology work is meant for reducing ambiguity and increasing clarity.
A. Business terminology work B. Logical terminology work
C. Sound terminology work D. Legal terminology work
Q4. The quality of specialist communication depends to alarge extenton the quality of the
terminology employed.
A. True B. False
C. Partly True D. Partly False
Q5. Business glossary serves as a ready guide for business proprietors, managers, students
and general readers.
A. True B. False
C. Partly True D. Partly False
Q6. Management in the sense of business terminology means…………….
A. those incharge of dealing with customers
B. those incharge of maintaining accounts & records
C. those incharge of running a business
D. Both A and B
Q7. Business in the sense of business terminology means…………….
A. the activity of providing goods and services involving financial and commercial
and industrial aspects
B. the activity of providing goods and services

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C. the activity of providing goods and services involving cash and credit to
customers.
D. Both B and C
Q8. Marketing in the sense of business terminology means……………..
A. the commercial processes involved in promoting and selling of a product or
service
B. the commercial processes involved in promoting and selling and distributing a
product or service
C. the commercial processes involved in promoting and distributing a product or
service
D. None of Above
Q9. Profit is the amount of money left over after expenses are taken out.
A. True B. False
C. Partly True D. Partly False
Q10. Telecommuting involves working at home usually on a computer
A. True B. False
C. Partly True D. Partly False
Q11. ……………is a planned reduction in the number of employees needed in a firm in
order to reduce costs and make the business more efficient
A. Downcasting B. Upsizeing
C. Downsizing D. Downsizeing
Q12. ………… means contracting out selected functions or activities of an organization to
other organizations that can do the work more cost efficiently
A. outhousing B. Outsourcing
C. Insourcing D. Inhousing
Q13. R & D or Research and Development is a Business or government activity that is purposely
designed to stimulate invention and innovation
A. True B. False
C. Partly True D. Partly False
Q14. Headquarters (usually plural) is the office that serves as the administrative center of an
enterprise Find the
A. True B. False
C. Partly True D. Partly False

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Q15. Market means the world of commercial activity where goods and services are bought
and sold
A. True B. False
C. Partly True D. Partly False

Q16. ………………. Is the Assent given by a party to a bill of exchange by signing a cross the
face of it.………………may be done online by clicking on the Accept button.
A. Acceptance; offer B. Consideration; Acceptance
C. Consent; Acceptance D. Acceptance; Acceptance

Q17. ACCEPTANCE is Assent given by a party to a bill of exchange by signing across the face
of it.
A. True B. False
C. Partly True D. Partly False
Q18. …………..is the signature of a clerk or attorney certifying that the person signing the
document has signed by his or her free act and for the purposes set forth therein.
A. Acknowledgement B. Stamping
C. Affixation of initials D. None of above
Q19. Acquisition costs are the incremental costs involved in obtaining a new customer.
A. True B. False
C. Partly True D. Partly False
Q20. ………………are the incremental costs involved in obtaining a new customer.
A. Acquisition costs B. Marketing costs
C. Advertisement Cost D. Overhead Cost
Q21. …………… is a term usually used in insurance to denote risks and dangers arising out of
natural causes that are beyond human control.
A. Act of God B. Act of Allah
C. Act of Zeus D. Act of Christ
Q22. Act of God is a term usually used in insurance to denote risks and dangers arising out of
natural causes that are beyond human control.
A. True B. False
C. Partly True D. Partly False
Q23. ……………is also called a case or law suit.
A. Action B. Remedial Action
C. Both A and B D. None of above

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Q24 .……………is a civil judicial proceeding where one party sues another for a wrong
done, or to protect a right or to prevent a wrong.
A. Action B. Remedial Action
C. Both A and B D. None of above
Q25. ADB stands for……………
A. American Dutch bank B. Afghanistan Development Bank
C. Asian Development Bank D. Authorized Designated Bank
Q26. ADJOURNMENT means postponement of a court session until an other time or
place.
A. True B. False
C. Partly True D. Partly False
Q27. ……………means postponement of a court session until another time or place.
A. Reservation of Decision B. Adjournment
C. Rescheduling D. None of Above
Q28. ADJUDICATION is not a decision or sentence imposed by a judge
A. True B. False
C. Partly True D. Partly False
Q.29 …………. is written statement signed in the presence of a judicial officer, a Notary Public
or an Oath Commissioner that is admissible as evidence in a court of law.
A. Affidavit B. Oath Certificate
C. Protest D. Notary
Q30. ……………. is declaring something to be true under the penalty of perjury by a person
who will not take an oath for religious or other reasons.
A. Narration B. Declaration
C. AFFIRMATION D. None of above
Q31. AFFIRMATION is declaring something to be true under the penalty of perjury by a person
who will not take an oath for religious or other reasons.
A. True B. False
C. Partly True D. Partly False
Q32. AGENDA is not a program listing items of business to be transacted in a meeting.
A. True B. False
C. Partly True D. Partly False

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Q33. …………. is a program listing items of business to be transacted in a meeting.
A. Agenda B. Explanatory Statement
C. Prospectus D. Business Letter
Q34. …………… is a person appointed to act generally or for a special business purpose on
behalf of the Principal usually on payment of a commission.
A. Salesman B. Sandwich-man
C. Manager D. Agent
Q35. ALLEGATION means saying that something is true
A. True B. False
C. Partly True D. Partly False
Q36. ……………. Is the assertion, declaration or statement of a party inacase, made in a
pleading.
A. Allegation B. Alienation
C. Action D. Alteration

Q37. ……………… means the coming together of two or more previously autonomous
businesses in to a single undertaking.
A. Merger B. Demerger.
C. Amalgamation D. Acquisition
Q38. ADR stands for:
A. Australian Depository Receipt B. American Depository Receipt
C. Asian Development Regulations D. None Of Above
Q39. ……………. is a receipt showing evidence that shares of a foreign corporation are held
on deposit or under control of an U.S banking institution. Used to facilitate transactions
and expedite transfer of beneficial ownership for a foreign security in the United States.
A. American Depository Receipt B. Global Depository Receipt
C. Indian Depository Receipt D. None of Above
Q40. The extinction or gradual writing off of liability or debt over a period of time, loosely
speaking, through depreciation of wasting assets through operation of a sinking or
purchase fund is Known as………………..
A. AMORTISATION B. Depreciation
C. Both A and B D. Either of A and B

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Q41. ………………. is a statutory document filed by every company annually with the
Registrar of Companies, stating the particulars such as status, names of directors,
shareholders, in debtness etc. of the company
A. Annual Return B. MIS Reports
C. Notice of Meeting D. Quarterly Reports
Q42. …………. Is a fixed sum of money payable for the whole or a part of a person’s life under
the terms of an insurance policy or a Will.
A. Annuity B. Premium
C. Installments D. None of above
Q43. Annuity is a fixed sum of money payable for the whole or a part of a person’s life under the
terms of an insurance policy or a Will.
A. True B. False
C. Partly True D. Partly False
Q44. Appeal is a process by which the correctness of the decision of a lower court or tribunal
is questioned in a higher court.
A. True B. False
C. Partly True D. Partly False
Q45. ……………. is a process by which the correctness of the decision of a lower court or
tribunal is questioned in a higher court.
A. Approach B. Appeal
C. Allegation D. Litigation

Q46. ……………… is the official court form filed with the court clerk which tells the court that
you are representing yourself in a lawsuit or criminal case or that an attorney is
representing you.
A. Appearance B. Form G
C. Muchulka D. None of Above
Q47. When a defendant in a civil case files an appearance, the person is submitting to the
court’s jurisdiction.
A. True B. False
C. Partly True D. Partly False
Q48. The party appealing a decision or judgment to a higher court is known as
A. APPEALLANT B. Appalleate
C. APPELLANT D. Appealate

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Q49. The business of taking advantage of difference in price of a security traded on two or
more stock exchanges, by buying in one and selling in other or vice versa is known
as…………..
A. Trading B. Arbitrage
C. Settlement D. Hedging

Q50. ……………….Aquasi – judicial arrangement where by a dispute between parties is

resolved by referring it by mutual consent to arbitrators whose decision is binding.
A. Arbitration B. Settlement
C. Legal Proceedings D. None of above
Q51. ………………… is anything to which money value can be attached, owned by a business
or individual.
A. Asset B. Capital
C. Liability D. None of above
Q52. Asset turnover ratio is calculated as………………………..
A. sales divided by total assets B. Purchase divided by total assets
C. Liability divided by total assets D. Capital divided by total assets

Q53. …………………. Means a transfer of right, title or interest in a property from one person to
another.
A. Assignment B. Sale
C. Lease D. None of above
Q54. For an assignment to have legal effect it must be absolute, in writing and be
communicated to the one owing the right.
A. True B. False
C. Partly True D. Partly False
Q55. ASSOCHAM means………….
A. Associated Chamber of Commerce & Industry
B. Associated Chamber of Commerce and Development
C. Associated Chamber of Industry and Development
D. None of Above

Q56. Associated Chamber of Commerce & Industry is one of the bodies representing the
……………..
A. Rural Industry B. Textile Industry
C. Steel industry D. Indian industry

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Q57. …………… is the term originally denoted a form of protection against events, which must
happen i.e. death.
A. Assurance B. Insurance
C. Both A and B D. Either A or B
Q58. ……………….was used for cover against loss linked with conting encies such as fire or
lightening.
A. Assurance B. Insurance
C. Both A and B D. Either A or B

Q59. …………….. is alien on property or assets to hold it to pay or satisfy any final judgment.
A. Attachment B. Award
C. Reward D. Decree
Q60. Attachment is alien on property or assets to hold it to pay or satisfy any final judgment.
A. True B. False
C. Partly True D. Partly False
Q61. Attestation is authentication of a signature by an authorized person, who could be an
oaths commissioner or a notary public.
A. True B. False
C. Partly True D. Partly False
Q62. ……………..is authentication of a signature by an authorized person, who could be an
oaths commissioner or a notary public.
A. Accusation B. Attestation
C. Affirmation D. None of above
Q63. …………… is important to get an overall understanding of the passage and to mentally
make a note about the category it be longs to.
A. Find the central idea of passage B. Focus on Details
C. Logical Structure D. The tone of passage
Q64 ………………. Is a document through which a person legally appointed or empowered to
act on behalf of another during the latter’s lifetime for a specific or general purpose.
A. Assignment B. Affidavit
C. Attorney D. Both A and C
Q65. Attorney is a document through which a person illegally appointed or empowered to act on
behalf of another during the latter’s lifetime for a specific or general purpose.
A. True B. False
C. Partly True D. Partly False

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Q66. ATTORNEYOFRECORD means a Attorney whose name appears in the permanent
records or files of a case.
A. True B. False
C. Partly True D. Partly False
Q67.______________ is a public sale conducted by the auctioneer in which the goods are
given away to the highest bidder at the fall of a hammer.
A. Audit B. Market
C. Auction D. Super market
Q68. Auction is a public sale conducted by the ___________ in which the goods are given away
to the highest bidder at the fall of a hammer.
A. Agent B. Pawnee
C. Del credere D. Auctioneer
Q69. Auction is a public sale conducted by the auctioneer in which the goods are given away to
the highest bidder at the fall of a hammer.
A. False B. True
C. Partly false D. Partly true
Q70.___________ is an examination of accounts and their underlying records in order to be
able to express an opinion on their honesty and trueness, with a report on them by the
internal staff or a firm of auditors.
A. Bank statement B. Call
C. Annuity D. Audit
Q71. Audit is an examination of accounts and their underlying records in order to be able to
express an opinion on their honesty and trueness, with a report on them by the internal
staff or a firm of auditors.
A. True B. Partly true
C. False D. Partly false
Q72 . Bad debt is an open account balance or loan that is proved to be impossible to be
collected.
A. Partly false B. False
C. Partly true D. True
Q73. __________ is an open account balance or loan that is proved to be impossible to be
collected.
A. Case laws B. Bank rate
C. Bad debt D. Cheque

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Q74. _____________ is also called Bond. Money or property given to the court for the
temporary release of a defendant, to ensure that the defendant will return to court.
A. Bail B. Crisis
C. Case D. CRR
Q75. Bail also called Bond.
A. False B. Partly true
C. Partly false D. True
Q76. _____________ is the financial statement generally prepared at the end of a period
usually the financial year showing the assets, liabilities and net worth of an organization.
A. Bank account B. Balance sheet
C. Book keeping D. Cash flow statement
Q77. Balance sheet is the financial statement generally prepared at the end of a period usually
the financial year showing the assets, liabilities and net worth of an organization.
A. Partly true B. Partly false
C. True D. False
Q78. A ___________ allows the account holder to deposit, safeguard his money, earn interest,
and make cheque payments.
A. Bank Locker B. Bank account
C. Loan account D. Overdraft
Q79. A bank account allows the account holder to deposit, safeguard his money, earn interest,
and make cheque payments.
A. False B. Partly false
C. True D. Partly true
Q80. ___________ is the maximum lending/borrowing rate determined by the Reserve Bank of
India from time to time taking into account the state of economy.
A. Reverse Repo Rate B. Interest rate
C. Repo rate D. Bank rate
Q81. Bank rate is the maximum lending/borrowing rate determined by the Reserve Bank of
India from time to time taking into account the state of economy.
A. True B. Partly false
C. False D. Partly true

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Q82. Bank rate is the maximum lending/borrowing rate determined by the ________________
from time to time taking into account the state of economy.
A. Government B. Reserved Bank of India
C. Reserve Bank of India D. Reversed Bank of India
Q83. ____________is a statement issued in loose-leaf or Passbook form by the bank showing
credit-debit entries and the balance in an account during a given period.
A. Ledger B. Book keeping
C. Bank statement D. None of above
Q84. Bank statement is a statement issued in loose-leaf or Passbook form by the bank showing
credit-debit entries and the balance in an account during a given period.
A. False B. True
C. Partly true D. Partly false
Q85. ________ is a legal condition where a person or a business in which liabilities exceed the
assets and the debtor is unable to repay amounts owed.
A. Bankruptcy B. Insolvency
C. Either A or B D. Credit list
Q86. Bankruptcy is a legal condition where a person or a business in which liabilities exceed the
assets and the debtor is unable to repay amounts owed.
A. Partly false B. False
C. True D. Partly true
Q87. ________ is the value of an asset as appearing in the Books of Accounts, after the
accounting processes to which it has been subject and is not necessarily the market
value of the said asset.
A. Market Value B. Book value
C. Realizable value D. None of above
Q88. Book value is the value of an asset as appearing in the Books of Accounts, after the
accounting processes to which it has been subject and is not necessarily the market
value of the said asset.
A. False B. Partly false
C. Partly true D. True
Q.89. __________is a method of accounting that involves the timely recording of all financial
transactions for the business.
A. Book keeping B. Book of accounts

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C. Book statement D. None of above
Q90. Book keeping is A method of accounting that involves the timely recording of all financial
transactions for the business.
A. Partly false B. False
C. True D. Partly true
Q91. A ___________ is a normal cheque which a bank refuses to pay.
A. Cheque B. Case
C. Bounced cheque D. None of above
Q92. A bounced cheque is a normal cheque which a bank refuses to pay.
A. False B. True
C. Partly true D. Partly false
Q93. __________ is output of the standard break-even analysis.
A. Shut – down point B. Break – even point
C. Cross – even point D. None of above
Q94.Break-even point is output of the standard break-even analysis.
A. Partly true B. True
C. Partly false D. False
Q95. A ___________ is an agreement designed to address situations in which one or more of
the entrepreneurs wants to sell their interest in the venture.
A. Sell agreement B. Buy – sell agreement
C. Buy agreement D. Agreement
Q96. A buy-sell agreement is an agreement designed to address situations in which one or
more of the entrepreneurs wants to sell their interest in the venture.
A. Partly false B. False
C. True D. Partly true
Q97. ________is A demand made by a limited company to the holders of partly paid- up shares
to pay a further installment towards the nominal value of their shares.
A. Called money B. Call in arrears
C. Call D. Call in advance
Q98. Call is A demand made by a limited company to the holders of partly paid- up shares to
pay a further installment towards the nominal value of their shares.

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A. Partly true B. True
C. False D. Partly false
Q99. _________is the amount of money, invested in a business; available for working; manifest
in tangible goods like building and machinery or in the form of circulating assets. The
term has several specific uses.
A. Call B. long term capital
C. Asset D. Capital

Q100. Capital is The amount of money, invested in a business; available for working; manifest
in tangible goods like building and machinery or in the form of circulating assets. The
term has several specific uses.
A. Partly false B. False
C. True D. Partly true
Q101. Money spent on improvement of fixed assets and not chargeable against profits is known
as ________________.
A. Revenue Expenditure B. Deferred Revenue Expenditure
C. Expenditure D. Capital Expenditure
Q102. _____________ means Spending on capital assets (also called plant and equipment, or
fixed assets, or long-term assets).
A. Revenue Expenditure B. Deferred Revenue expenditure
C. Capital Expenditure D. Expenditure
Q104. Capital Expenditure means Spending on capital assets (also called plant and equipment,
or fixed assets, or long-term assets).
A. False B. Partly true
C. True D. Partly false
Q104. _______means A lawsuit or action in a court.
A. Case B. Cause list
C. Case laws D. Summon
Q105. Case means A lawsuit or action in a court.
A. False B. Partly true
C. True D. Partly false

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Q106. _________are the Judgments by courts usually of higher courts, in leading cases, which
are treated as authorities and quoted and relied on in similar cases by the lower or same
level courts.
A. Case B. Cases
C. Decision D. Case laws
Q107. Case laws are the Judgments by courts usually of higher courts, in leading cases, which
are treated as authorities and quoted and relied on in similar cases by the lower or same
level courts.
A. Partly true B. True
C. False D. Partly false
Q108. ____________is A discount offered in addition to normal trade discounts when payment
is made in cash before the expiry of the period of credit.
A. Cash discount B. Discount
C. Trade discount D. Regular discount
Q109. Cash discount is A discount offered in addition to normal trade discounts when payment
is made in cash before the expiry of the period of credit.
A. Partly true B. True
C. False D. Partly false
Q110.The ______________ is one of the three main financial statements (along with income
statement and balance sheet).
A. Cash flow statement B. Profit and loss account
C. Income statement D. Income and expenditure account
Q111. The cash flow statement is one of the three main financial statements (along with income
statement and balance sheet).
A. Partly true B. Partly false
C. False D. True
Q112. The cash flow statement reconciles _____________ (profit and loss) with the balance
sheet.
A. Bank statement B. Balance sheet
C. Income statement D. Profit and loss account
Q113. ___________ is issued by the Registry of the matters to be heard by the court on any
day.
A. Call list B. Check list

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C. Cause list D. None of above
Q114. Cause list is issued by the Registry of the matters to be heard by the court on any day.
A. True B. False
C. Partly false D. Partly true
Q115. ________ is A legal doctrine literally meaning ‘let the buyer beware’ of what he is buying
and satisfy himself about the quality and condition of what he is buying.
A. Nemo judexcausasua B. Caveat Emptor
C. CRR D. None of above

Q116. Caveat Emptor is A legal doctrine literally meaning ‘let the buyer beware’ of what he is
buying and satisfy himself about the quality and condition of what he is buying.
A. Partly true B. Partly false
C. False D. True
Q117. ………… is A negotiable instrument drawn on a bank where the drawer has an account
ordering the bank to pay the stated sum to a person or to the order of another person.
A. Promissory Note B. Blank cheque
C. Stale cheque D. Cheque
Q118 When the cheque is bearer, payment is made on presentation.
A. Partly true B. True
C. False D. Partly false
Q119. ____________is A security generally in the form of fixed assets and offered in addition
to those already furnished.
A. Contingent Liability B. Collateral
C. Credit D. Debit note
Q120. Collateral is A security generally in the form of fixed assets and offered in addition to
those already furnished.
A. Partly true B. True
C. Fa lse D. Partly false
Q121 ______________means A payment in percentage terms made to an agent or a broker for
goods sold or services performed.
A. Brokerage B. Consortium
C. Commission D. None of above

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Q122. Commission is A payment in percentage terms made to an agent or a broker for goods
sold or services performed.
A. Partly true B. False
C. Partly false D. True
Q123. _________are the Laws that develop through case decisions by judges and areNot
enacted by legislative bodies.
A. Contract Law B. Criminal Law
C. Company Law D. All of above

Q124. Company Law is the Law that develop through case decisions by judges. Not enacted by
legislative bodies.
A. True B. False
C. Partly false D. Partly true
Q125. ________is A legal document that tells the court what you want, and is served with a
summons on the defendant to begin the case.
A. Complaint B. Note
C. FIR D. Credit note
Q126. Complaint is A legal document that tells the court what you want, and is served with a
summons on the defendant to begin the case.
A. Partly false B. False
C. Partly true D. True
Q127. ___________is A stipulation that is binding on signatories of a legal contract and the
breach of which entitles the aggrieved party to rescind the contract.
A. Terms B. Conditions
C. Regulations D. None of above
Q128. Conditions is A stipulation that is binding on signatories of a legal contract and the breach
of which entitles the aggrieved party to rescind the contract.
A. Partly false B. Partly true
C. True D. False
Q129 ____________means Transferring the title of goods, the details of which are given in the
Performa Invoice, to an agent for sale. The proceeds and account of sale are furnished
to the consignee periodically.
A. Invoice B. Consignment

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C. Cover note D. None of above
Q130. Consignment means Transferring the title of goods, the details of which are given in the
Performa Invoice, to an agent for sale. The proceeds and account of sale are furnished
to the consignee periodically.
A. False B. True
C. Partly true D. Partly false

Q131. ________ is An association of companies formed for the purpose of undertaking a

particular activity. There may be no other connection between the companies outside the
scope of activities.
A. Corporation B. Consortium
C. Commission D. Group
Q132. Consortium is An association of companies formed for the purpose of undertaking a
particular activity. There may be no other connection between the companies outside the
scope of activities.
A. Partly false B. False
C. True D. Partly true
Q133. _________is A finding that someone disobeyed a court order. Can also mean disrupting
court, for example, by being loud or disrespectful in court.
A. Contempt of court B. Custody
C. Cover note D. None of above
Q134. Contempt of court Is A finding that someone disobeyed a court order. Can also mean
disrupting court, for example, by being loud or disrespectful in court.
A. False B. Partly true
C. Partly False D. True
Q135. __________is An agreement between parties in order to create legal obligations under a
seal or for a consideration and enforceable by law.
A. Agreement B. Contract
C. Both A & B D. None of above
Q136. Contract is An agreement between parties in order to create legal obligations under a
seal or for a consideration and enforceable by law.
A. True B. False

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C. Partly false D. Partly true
Q137. _________means To be found guilty of committing a crime
A. Crime B. Conviction
C. Breaking the law D. Disobeying
Q138. Conviction means not To be found guilty of committing a crime
A. False B. Partly true
C. Partly false D. True
Q139. _________ are the Expenses in prosecuting or defending a case in court. Usually does
not include attorney’s fees.
A. Day order B. Expenditure
C. Charges D. Costs
Q140. Costs are the Expenses in prosecuting or defending a case in court. Usually does not
include attorney’s fees.
A. Partly false B. False
C. True D. Partly true
Q141. __________isA document issued by an insurance company to provide cover to the
insured till a formal policy document is issued.
A. Premium Note B. Cover note
C. Credit note D. Conviction note
Q142. Cover note is A document issued by an insurance company to provide cover to the
insured till a formal policy document is issued.
A. Partly true B. Partly false
C. True D. False
Q143 __________means Literally “trust or belief”. In commerce, it means giving goods the
payment for which is to be made at a subsequent date.
A. Debit B. Credit
C. Either A or B D. None of above
Q144. Credit means Literally “trust or belief”. In commerce, it means giving goods the payment
for which is to be made at a subsequent date.
A. True B. False
C. Partly false D. Partly true

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Q145. __________isA document sent by a seller to a buyer to rectify an error of overcharge in
an invoice or to allow credit for goods returned. It is entered in the books of account.
A. Pending Note B. Debit note
C. Credit note D. None of above
Q146. Credit note isA document sent by a seller to a buyer to rectify an error of overcharge in
an invoice or to allow credit for goods returned. It is entered in the books of account.
A. Partly true B. True
C. False D. Partly false

Q147. __________means Credit Rating and Information Services of India Limited.

A. Crisis B. Crisil
C. CRISOIL D. None of above
Q148. Crisilmeans Credit Rating and Information Services of India Limited.
A. Partly false B. False
C. True D. Partly true
Q149. ___________means Reckless heavy short sales leading unduly to depressed prices.
A. Short Selling B. Dispose
C. Crisis D. Deficiency
Q150. Crisis means Reckless heavy short sales leading unduly to depressed prices.
A. Partly true B. True
C. False D. Partly false
Q151. _____________means Questioning by a party or the attorney of an adverse party or a
witness.
A. Cross Examination B. Examination
C. Indirect Examination D. Direct Examination
Q152. Cross Examination means Questioning by a party or the attorney of an adverse party or a
witness.
A. Partly false B. Partly true
C. True D. False
Q153 __________is Notified by the Reserve Bank of India from time to time.
A. Credit Rating Ratio B. Capital Redemption Reserve

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C. Cash Reserve Ratio D. None of above
Q154. CRR means Cash Reserve Ratio notified by the Reserve Bank of India from time to time
which indicates the reserves of commercial banks set apart as a measure of security.
A. Partly false B. False
C. Partly true D. True
Q155. ___________ are the same as short-term assets.
A. Cash assets B. Capital assets
C. Current assets D. None of above

Q156. Current Assets are the same as short-term assets.

A. Partly false B. Partly true
C. True D. False
Q157. ______________ refers to short-term debt and short-term liabilities.
A. Current Liabilities B. Curent Liabilities
C. Current Debt D. None of above
Q158.Current Debt refers to short-term debt and short-term liabilities.
A. Partly false B. Partly true
C. True D. False
Q159 ………….. total should always be equal to total assets.
A. Cash and Equity B. Debt and Equity
C. Debt and loans D. Equity and Debenture
Q160. __________ is the Compensation awarded by a court of law for breach of contract in a
civil litigation.
A. Damages B. Conviction
C. Destroy D. Harm
Q161. Damages means the Compensation awarded by a court of law for breach of contract in a
civil litigation.
A. Partly true B. True
C. False D. Partly false
Q162. ___________is An order which remains valid for the day it is entered, unless matched, it
is automatically cancelled at the end of the trading.

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A. Purchase B. Order
C. Day order D. None of above
Q163. Day order isAn order which remains valid for the day it is entered, unless matched, it is
automatically cancelled at the end of the trading.
A. Partly true B. Partly false
C. True D. False

Q164. ___________isAn instrument/security through which a company may borrow funds from
public or public financial institutions, on which interest usually is payable on specific
dates and principal amount repayable on a particular date on redemption of the same.
A. Shares B. Debenture
C. Warrants D. Share warrant
Q165. Debenture isAn instrument/security through which a company may borrow funds from
public or public financial institutions, on which interest usually is payable on specific
dates and principal amount repayable on a particular date on redemption of the same.
A. Partly false B. Partly true
C. False D. True
Q166. _____________isA note sent by seller to buyer to rectify an undercharge in the original
invoice. It is in the nature of a supplementary invoice.
A. Credit note B. Invoice note
C. Debit note D. None of above
Q167. Credit note isA note sent by seller to buyer to rectify an undercharge in the original
invoice. It is in the nature of a supplementary invoice.
A. True B. False
C. Partly true D. Partly true
Q168. __________ is the sum of liabilities and capital. This should always be equal to total
assets.
A. Cash and Equity B. Debt and Equity
C. Debt and loans D. Equity and Debenture
Q169. Debt and Equity is the sum of liabilities and capital which should always be equal to total
assets.
A. True B. Partly true

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C. Partly false D. False
Q170. When you borrow money from a lender and agree to repay the principal with interest in
regular payments for a specified period of time is called as ________________
A. Equity Financing B. Capital Financing
C. Debt Financing D. None of above
Q171. Debt Financing means When you borrow money from a lender and agree to repay the
principal with interest in regular payments for a specified period of time.
A. True B. False
C. Partly true D. Partly false
Q172. Debt Financing has been the most common form of funding for ___________.
A. Small company B. Large businesses
C. Small businesses D. Organization
Q173. ________-An unsworn statement of facts made by a party to the transaction, or by one
who has an interest in the facts recounted.
A. Declared B. Deed
C. Declaration D. Declare
Q174. Declaration isAn unsworn statement of facts made by a party to the transaction, or by
one who has an interest in the facts recounted.
A. Partly true B. Partly false
C. False D. True
Q175. ________is A legal document in writing, signed, sealed and delivered by the person
making the deed.
A. Deed B. Declaration
C. Declare D. None of above
Q176. _________meansTo fail to respond or answer to the plaintiff’s claims by filing the
required court document; usually an Appearance or an Answer.
A. Crime B. Depository
C. Conviction D. Default
Q177. Default meansTo fail to respond or answer to the plaintiff’s claims by filing the required
court document; usually an Appearance or an Answer.
A. Partly true B. False
C. Partly false D. True

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Q178. ___________In civil cases, the person who is given court papers, also called a
respondent. In criminal cases, the person who is arrested and charged with a crime.
A. Defandant B. Plaintiff
C. Defendant D. Both ‘A’ & ‘B’
Q179. Defendant In civil cases, the person who is given court papers, also called a respondent.
In criminal cases, the person who is arrested and charged with a crime.
A. True B. Partly false
C. Partly true D. False
Q180. In _________ Defendant is the person who is arrested and charged with a crime.
A. Civil case B. Criminal case
C. Arbitral case D. Both ‘A’ & ‘B’
Q181. __________ means Conversion of debentures from electronic form securities paper or
such as physical shares
A. DE mat B. Materialization
C. Dematerialization D. Damaterialization
Q182. Rematerialization means Conversion of debentures into electronic form securities paper
or such as physical shares
A. Partly true B. True
C. Partly false D. False
Q183. __________isThe system of organization which works through registered members
called depository participants, to maintain a record of securities in electronic or
dematerialized form.
A. Dispose B. Depository
C. Depository D. None of above
Q184. Depository isThe system of organization which works through registered members called
depository participants, to maintain a record of securities in electronic or dematerialized
form.
A. False B. Partly false
C. Partly true D. True
Q185. Depository is The system of organization which works through registered members called
___________.
A. Depositors B. Depository member

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C. Depository participants D. Depository group
Q186. ___________ is The fall in the value of a fixed or movable asset due to wear and tear or
passage of time.
A. Depreciation B. Realization
C. Revaluation D. None of above
Q187. Depreciation meansThe fall in the value of a fixed or movable asset due to wear and tear
or passage of time.
A. False B. True
C. Partly true D. Partly false
Q188. ______________are the Markets such as futures and option markets that are developed
to satisfy specific needs arising in traditional markets.
A. Derivative markets B. Forward market
C. Spot market D. None of above
Q189. Derivative market are not the Markets such as futures and option markets that are
developed to satisfy specific needs arising in traditional markets.
A. Partly true B. Partly false
C. false D. True
Q190. _____________ is an approach to create a competitive advantage based on obtaining a
significant value difference that customers will appreciate and be willing to pay for, and
which ideally will increase their loyalty as a result.
A. Deviation B. Dismissal
C. Differentiation D. None of above
Q191. Differentiation is an approach to create a competitive advantage based on obtaining a
significant value difference that customers will appreciate and be willing to pay for, and
which ideally will increase their loyalty as a result.
A. Partly true B. Partly false
C. True D. False
Q192. ___________is A legitimate payment of money out of some fund.
A. Disbursement B. Discount
C. Disbarment D. None of above
Q193. Disbursement means A legitimate payment of money out of some fund.
A. False B. Partly true

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C. True D. Partly false
Q194. _________isA reduction from a stated amount.
A. Dispose B. Decrease
C. Deprive D. Discount
Q195. Discount isA reduction from a stated amount.
A. Partly false B. False
C. True D. Partly true

Q196. ____________means A Bill of Exchange encashed for a charge by the banker before the
date on which it becomes payable.
A. Disposition B. Dissolution
C. Discounted bill D. Decreased bill
Q197. Discounted bill - A Bill of Exchange encashed for a charge by the banker before the date
on which it becomes payable.
A. True B. False
C. Partly true D. Partly false
Q198. A ____________ enchased for a charge by the banker before the date on which it
become payable is called as Discounted bill
A. Hundi B. Cheque
C. Bill of exchange D. Bill
Q199. __________is A judge's decision to end the case.
A. Dispose B. Decision
C. Declare D. Dismissal
Q200 The reasons for refusing the payment of cheques include insufficient funds, signature
mismatch, or some other valid reason.
A insufficient funds B signature mismatch
C Stop Payment D All of Above
Q201 …………………. Is the unit sales volumes or actual sales amounts that a company
needs to equal its running expense rate and not lose or make money in a given month.
A. Shut – down point B. Break – even point
C. Cross – even point D. None of above

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Q202 the cash flow statement shows actual cash inflows and outflows of the business over a
specified period of time.
A. Partly true B. Partly false
C. False D. True

Q203 Order cheques require endorsement while crossed ones are paid into an account.
A. Partly true B. True
C. False D. Partly false
Q204 …………… contains information like bench, courtroom number and the position of the
matter.
A. Call list B. Check list
C. Cause list D. None of above
Q 205 Cause list contains information like bench, courtroom number and the position of the
matter.
A. Partly true B. True
C. False D. Partly false
Q206. When responsibility for payments is also accepted, the commission paid in extra to
agent is called………….
A. Brokerage B. Additional Commission
C. Extra Commission D. Del Credre Commission
Q 207 Crisil is an agency set up in ………1988
A. April B. January
C. May D. August
Q208 CRISIL is an agency set up in April 1988
A. Partly false B. False
C. True D. Partly true
Q209 …………….indicates the reserves of commercial banks set apart as a measure of
security.
A. Credit Rating Ratio B. Capital Redemption Reserve
C. Cash Reserve Ratio D. None of above
Q210. Documents to Title means Documents which provide conclusive evidence of ownership
of some asset.

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A. Partly false B. True
C. False D. Partly true
Q211. ______________isThe permanent home of a person.
A. Domestic Resident B. Resident
C. Ordinary Resident D. Domicile
Q212. Domicile does not meanThe permanent home of a person.
A. Partly false B. False
C. Partly true D. True
Q213. _________ is A document requiring one party, usually a bank, to make payment to
another from funds which are held by the former.
A. Cheque B. Bills of exchange
C. Draft D. None of above
Q214. Draft meansA document requiring one party, usually a bank, to make payment to another
from funds which are held by the former.
A. True B. Partly false
C. Partly true D. False
Q215. ____________ means Selling goods in a market usually overseas, at a price well below
cost, usually with an intention to ruin the indigenous market/competition.
A. Exporting B. Disposing
C. Dumping D. Importing
Q216. Dumping meansSelling goods in a market usually overseas, at a price well below cost,
usually with an intention to ruin the indigenous market/competition.
A. Partly false B. Partly true
C. True D. False
Q217 ____________ means A refundable security in the form of demand draft or bank
guarantees to keep off non-serious applicants usually for tenders.
A. Earning money B. Security Amount
C. Earnest money D. Fixed Deposit
Q218. Earnest money meansA refundable security in the form of demand draft or bank
guarantees to keep off non-serious applicants usually for tenders.
A. Partly false B. True
C. False D. Partly false

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Q219. _______ refers to earnings before interest and taxes.
A. EBIT B. EBAT
C. EBITAD D. Either ‘A’ or ‘C’
Q220. EBIT refers to :
A. Earnest before Interim tax B. Earn before Interest and Taxes
C. Earnings before Interest and Taxes D. Earning before Index and Time

Q221. __________ - is equal to the gross margin (the difference between total sales revenue
and total direct cost of sales) minus total operating expenses (tax-deductible expenses
incurred in conducting normal business operations, such as wages and salaries, rent,
and so on), plus any depreciation (The loss of value of assets over time) and
amortization.
A. Earnings before interest, taxes , dividend and amortization
B. Earnings before interest, taxes , depreciation and amount
C. Earnings before interimtaxes , depreciation and amortization
D. Earnings before incometaxes , depreciation and amortization
Q222. _________ refers to the benefit that larger production volumes allow fixed costs to be
spread over more units lowering the average unit costs and offering a competitive price
and margin advantage.
A. Economic Scale B. Economies to Scale
C. Economy to Scale D. None of above
Q223. Economies to scale refers to the benefit that larger production volumes allow fixed costs
to be spread over more units lowering the average unit costs and offering a competitive
price and margin advantage.
A. Partly false B. Partly true
C. True D. False
Q224. ___________ looks into violations involving foreign exchange.
A. Enforcement Department(ED) B. Economic Department(ED)
C. Enforcement Directorate(ED) D. Enforce Director (ED)
Q225. Enforcement Directorate(ED) is the department that looks into violations involving foreign
exchange.
A. Partly false B. False

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C. True D. Partly true
Q226. ____________ means Some liability which is attached to a property and thereby,
imposes a burden on the owner.
A. Encumbrance B. Loan
C. Security D. All of above

Q227. Encumbrance means Some liability which is attached to a property and thereby, imposes
a burden on the owner.
A. Partly false B. Partly true
C. True D. False
Q228. ____________ means writing on the back of a bill of exchange i.e. an Order cheque
authorizing the bank to pay to the bearer or a specified person or prohibit
A. EPS B. Endorsement
C. Transfer D. None of above
Q229. Endorsement is A writing on the back of a bill of exchange i.e. an Order cheque
authorizing the bank to pay to the bearer or a specified person or prohibit
A. True B. Partly true
C. Partly false D. False
Q230 ___________ is someone who starts a new business venture; someone who recognizes
and pursues opportunities others may not see as clearly, and finds the resources
necessary to accomplish his or her goals.
A. Intraprenure B. Market Maker
C. Leader D. Entrepreneur
Q231. Intrapenure is someone who starts a new business venture; someone who recognizes
and pursues opportunities others may not see as clearly, and finds the resources
necessary to accomplish his or her goals.
A. True B. Partly false
C. Partly true D. False
Q232. _____________ isA company’s net profit attributable to equity/ ordinary shareholders
divided by the number of such shares that have been issued and paid-up.
A. Earning on investment B. Earn per share
C. Earnings per share D. None of above

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Q233. Earnings per share means A company’s net profit attributable to equity/ ordinary
shareholders divided by the number of such shares that have been issued and paid-up.
A. False B. True
C. Partly true D. Partly false

Q233. __________ isA legal document kept in the custody of a third party, taking effect or made
available only when some conditions are satisfied or some period of time has elapsed.
A. ESCROW B. ESCREW
C. SCROW D. EXROW

Q235. ESCROW isA legal document kept in the custody of a third party, taking effect or made
available only when some conditions are satisfied or some period of time has elapsed.
A. Partly false B. Partly true
C. True D. False

Q236. ESOP refers to :

A. Employee Share Option Scheme. B. Employee Stock Option Scheme.
C. Employer Stock Option Scheme. D. Employee Stock Opposite Scheme.

Q237. __________ isA forecast of the total cost of a particular work given before the work is
actually undertaken by the person who may be called upon to undertake
A. Assume B. Assumption
C. Forecasting D. Estimate

Q238. Estimate means A forecast of the total cost of a particular work given before the work is
actually undertaken by the person who may be called upon to undertake
A. Partly true B. False
C. True D. Partly false

Q239. ______________ meansTestimony, documents or objects presented at a trial to prove a

fact.

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A. Factor B. Evidence
C. Execute D. None of above

Q240. Evidence meansTestimony, documents or objects presented at a trial to prove a fact.

A. False B. Partly false
C. Partly true D. True

Q241. ___________ meansSome action, normally the payment of money, taken where there is
no legal necessity to do so but where some moral obligation is recognized.
A. Ex Gratia B. Ex Parte
C. FIPB D. None of above

Q242. Ex Gratia meansSome action, normally the payment of money, taken where there is no
legal necessity to do so but where some moral obligation is recognized.
A. Partly false B. True
C. False D. Partly true

Q243. ____________ is Done for, or at the request of, one side in a case only, without prior
notice to the other side.
A. Ex Gratia B. Ex Parte
C. Ex Post Facto D. None of above

Q244. Ex Parte is Done for, or at the request of, one side in a case only, without prior notice to
the other side.
A. False B. Partly false
C. Partly true D. True

Q245. ____________ isThe treasury of the Government.

A. Ex Chequer B. Treasurer

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C. Taxes D. Revenue

Q246. Ex Chequer isThe treasury of the Government.

A. Partly false B. True
C. False D. Partly true
Q247. ____________ isThe prices, which exclude all expenses after the goods have been
delivered on the docks, the side of the ship or at the designated warehouse.
A. Warehouse B. Ex-Dock
C. Ship D. Ex-Dock/Ship/Warehouse
Q248. Ex-Dock/Ship/Warehouse are The prices, which exclude all expenses after the goods
have been delivered on the docks, the side of the ship or at the designated warehouse.
A. Partly false B. Partly true
C. True D. False
Q249. ____________ is A person named in the Will of the deceased testator to administer/carry
out its provisions/ directions.
A. Executer B. Exclusionist
C. Executor D. Executist

Q250. Executor is not a person named in the Will of the deceased testator to administer/carry
out its provisions/ directions.
A. Partly false B. True
C. False D. Partly true

Q251. ___________ isThe return that an investor might expect on an investment if the same
investment were made many times over an extended period.
A. Return B. Investment return
C. Expected return D. None of above

Q252. Expected return isThe return that an investor might expect on an investment if the same
investment were made many times over an extended period.
A. True B. False
C. Partly true D. Partly false

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Q253. _____________ is The amount by which the market price of an option exceeds the
amount that could be realized if the option were exercised and the underlying commodity
liquidated.
A. Excess value B. Extinct value
C. Face value D. Extrinsic value
Q254. Extrinsic value is also known as ____________.
A. Market value B. Added value
C. Time value D. Excess value
Q255. Extrinsic value isThe amount by which the market price of an option exceeds the amount
that could be realized if the option were exercised and the underlying commodity
liquidated.
A. False B. Partly false
C. Partly true D. True

Q256. ___________ meansA value evident from an examination of the object itself. Usually
means the amount printed on the face of a security as opposed to its market value.
A. Market value B. Factor value
C. Face value D. Marginal value

Q257. Face value is also known as ____________

A. Nominal value B. Market value
C. Marginal value D. None of above

Q258. Face value meansA value evident from an examination of the object itself. Usually means
the amount printed on the face of a security as opposed to its market value.
A. Partly false B. False
C. True D. Partly true
Q259. __________ isA mercantile agent who deals in his own name but enjoys the right to hold
and dispose off goods on behalf of the principal at pre- negotiated terms.
A. Manger B. Agent
C. Del credere D. Factor

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Q260. A _____________ who deals in his own name but enjoys the right to hold and dispose off
goods on behalf of the principal at pre-negotiated terms is called as Factor.
A. Auctioneer B. Agent
C. Mercantile agent D. None of above

Q261. Broker is A mercantile agent who deals in his own name but enjoys the right to hold and
dispose off goods on behalf of the principal at pre-negotiated terms.
A. Partly true B. True
C. Partly false D. False

Q262 FEMA refers to :

A. The Foreign Exchange Multipurpose Act B. The Foreign Exchange Management Act
C. The Forest Expertise Management Act D. The Foreign Export Management Act

Q263. FICCI refers to:

A. Federation of Indian Chamber of Communication & Internet
B. Federation of Indian Commission of Commerce & Industry
C. Federation of International Chamber of Commerce & Industry
D. Federation of Indian Chamber of Commerce & Industry

Q264. FICCI is a representative body of ____________

A. Indian government B. Indian Telecommunication department
C. Income Tax D. Indian industry

Q265. ___________ means Imposing the obligations of a trust.

A. Finding B. Financial
C. Fiduciary D. Fictions
Q266. Fiduciary means Imposing the obligations of a trust
A. Partly true B. False
C. Partly false D. True

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Q267. ___________ isAn integral part of the loan application process is furnishing information
that shows your business is a good credit risk.
A. Financial statement B. Balance sheet
C. Equity D. Income statement
Q268. Cash Flow Statement isAn integral part of the loan application process is furnishing
information that shows your business is a good credit risk.
A. Partly true B. True
C. Partly false D. False
Q269. _____________ meansThe court’s or jury’s decision on issues of fact.
A. Evidence B. Funding
C. Finding D. Fiscal
Q270. Finding meansThe court’s or jury’s decision on issues of fact.
A. False B. Partly false
C. Partly true D. True
Q271. FIPB refers to:
A. Foreign Investment Protocol Board
B. Foreign Industry Promotion Board
C. Film Investment Promotion Board
D. Foreign Investment Promotion Board
Q272. Firm isA collective name given to partners in a business.
A. Partly true B. True
C. Partly false D. False
Q273. ___________ - A collective name given to partners in a business.
A. Partnership B. Firm
C. Partnership Firm D. Both B and C
Q274. ___________ meansA commitment to sell at a certain price subject to acceptance of
offer within a specified time.
A. Offer B. Business offer
C. Firm offer D. Fiscal

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Q275. Firm offer is not A commitment to sell at a certain price subject to acceptance of offer
within a specified time but
A. False B. Partly false
C. True D. Partly true
Q276. ___________ is Related to the raising and use of money by the Government.
A. Fiscal B. Factor
C. Deficit D. None of above
Q277. Fiscal is Related to the raising and use of money by the Government.
A. False B. Partly false
C. Partly true D. True
Q278. ___________ is Also known as long-term assets or non-current assets, these are things
that are of a fixed nature because they cannot be easily converted into cash and often
require complex procedures and a significant amount of time before you can have their
cash value in hand.
A. Hedge B. Assets
C. Short-term assets D. Fixed assets

Q279. …………………… are the Example of fixed assets:

A. Land , Real estate , Cash B. Furniture , Cash , Land
C. Land , Real estate , Machinery and equipment D. Cash , Trade receivables , Debtors

Q280. Indent may mention specific goods or source from which to procure. Alternatively it may
be left to the agent
A. Partly true B. True
C. Partly false D. False
Q281. ______________ isThe interest rate on a loan that is established in the beginning and
does not change for the lifetime of the loan is said to be fixed.
A. Bank rate B. Floating interest rate
C. Interest rate D. Fixed interest rate
Q282. Floating interest rate is The interest rate on a loan that is established in the beginning
and does not change for the lifetime of the loan is said to be fixed.
A. Partly true B. True

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C. Partly false D. False
Q283. ___________ isThe price of one currency in terms of the other.
A. Tax rate B. Hire purchase
C. Foreign exchange D. None of above
Q284. Foreign exchange means The price of one currency in terms of the other.
A. Partly true B. Partly false
C. True D. False
Q285 Loans with fixed interest rates are appealing to _____________.
A. Large business owner B. Organization
C. Small business owner D. All of above
Q286. _____________ isThe price of one currency in terms of the other.
A. Repo rate B. Bank rate
C. Hire-purchase D. Foreign exchange rate
Q287. Foreign exchange rate isThe price of one currency in terms of the other.
A. Partly false B. Partly true
C. True D. False
Q288. _____________ is A contract where a party agrees to deliver at a specified future time a
certain amount of specified securities at an agreed rate.
A. Forward contract B. Future Contract
C. Options Contract D. Contract
Q289. Derivatives is A contract where a party agrees to deliver at a specified future time a
certain amount of specified securities at an agreed rate.
A. Partly false B. Partly true
C. True D. False
Q290. ____________ isA term implying that goods transacted will be delivered at a future date
on agreed terms.
A. Delivery B. Back delivery
C. Forward delivery D. None of above
Q291. Forward delivery means that goods transacted will be delivered at a future date on
agreed terms.
A. True B. Partly false

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C. Partly true D. False
Q292 _____________ means deferment of contracts traded at present to some future date at
current prices.
A. Option Trading B. Trading
C. Forward trading D. None of above
Q293. Forward trading means deferment of contracts traded at present to some future date at
current prices.
A. True B. Partly true
C. False D. Partly false
Q294. ____________ means A consideration paid for the carriage of goods.
A. Hire-purchase B. Delivery
C. Custody D. Freight
Q295. Loading Charge is consideration paid for the carriage of goods.
A. Partly true B. True
C. Partly false D. False
Q296. _____________ is The purchase of commodities or currencies or financial instruments
for delivery at some future time.
A. Futures B. Forwards
C. options D. Swaps
Q297. Futures isThe purchase of commodities or currencies or financial instruments for delivery
at some future time.
A. False B. Partly false
C. True D. Partly true
Q298. GAAP refers to:
A. Generally Accepted Accounts Principles
B. Generally Accepted Accounting Principles
C. Generally Accepted Auditing Principles
D. Generated Acceptable Auditing Principles

Q299. GDP refers to:

A. Gross Domestic Produce B. General Domestic Product

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C. Gross Domestic Product D. Grand Domestic Product

Q300. ____________ isThe total value of all the goods and services produced by a country for
use within its own borders during a particular period.
A. GNP B. GDP
C. NPD D. NDP
Q301. Gross Domestic Product meansThe total value of all the goods and services produced by
a country for use within its own borders during a particular period.
A. Partly false B. False
C. True D. Partly true
Q302. GDR refer to:
A. Global Depository Receipts B. Global Depository Revenue
C. Global Deposit Receipt D. Gross Depository Receipts
Q303. _____________ isAn intangible saleable asset, such as reputation or location of a
business, which makes the business worth more than its book value.
A. Reputation B. Image
C. Goodwill D. None of above
Q304. Trademark Is An intangible saleable asset, such as reputation or location of a business,
which makes the business worth more than its book value.
A. Partly false B. True
C. Partly true D. False
Q305. ____________ means A complaint filed against an attorney or judge, claiming an ethics
violation.
A. Petition B. Grievance
C. Appeal D. None of above
Q306. Grievance meansA complaint filed against an attorney or judge, claiming an ethics
violation.
A. False B. Partly true
C. True D. Partly false
Q307. ___________ means the business finance term and definition can be calculated as total
sales (income) less the costs (expenses) directly related to those sales.

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A. Net profit B. Profit
C. Return D. Gross profit
Q308. Net profit is the business finance term and definition can be calculated as total sales
(income) less the costs (expenses) directly related to those sales.
A. True B. Partly false
C. Partly true D. False
Q309. ____________ means An undertaking by a person in writing to be answerable for the
deeds of another.
A. Guarantee B. Guardian
C. Hedge D. None of above
Q310. Guarantee isAn undertaking by a person in writing to be answerable for the deeds of
another.
A. False B. Partly true
C. True D. Partly false
Q311. __________ isA person who creates a trust which takes the responsibility of repayment
of a loan.
A. Agent B. Guarantor
C. Banker D. None of above
Q312. Guardian is A person who creates a trust which takes the responsibility of repayment of a
loan.
A. False B. Partly false
C. Partly true D. True
Q313. ___________ is A person who has the power and duty to take care of another person
and/or to manage the property and rights of another person who is considered incapable
of taking care of his or her personal affairs.
A. Parents B. Guardian
C. Elders D. None of above
Q314 Executor isA person who has the power and duty to take care of another person and/or to
manage the property and rights of another person who is considered incapable of taking
care of his or her personal affairs.
A. False B. Partly true
C. Partly false D. True

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Q315. ___________ isA court order used to bring a person physically before a court in order to
test the legality of the person's detention.
A. Ex Parte B. Ex Gratia
C. Habeas Corpus D. Quid Pro Quo
Q316. Habeas Corpus isA court order used to bring a person physically before a court in order
to test the legality of the person's detention.
A. True B. Partly true
C. Partly false D. False
Q317. ___________ means Reducing risk by taking a position which offsets an existing or
anticipated exposure in financial operations.
A. Hedge B. Hire purchase
C. IMF D. None of above
Q318 Roll Over meansReducing risk by taking a position which offsets an existing or anticipated
exposure in financial operations.
A. Partly false B. True
C. Partly true D. False
Q319. _____________ isAn agreement to hire goods for use with an option to transfer the title
after payment of the installments agreed upon.
A. Futures B. Purchase
C. Hire - purchase D. None of above
Q320. Hire-purchase isAn agreement to hire goods for use with an option to transfer the title
after payment of the installments agreed upon.
A. True B. Partly false
C. False D. Partly true

Q321. __________ is A company which controls the activities of one or more companies
A. Parent company B. Subsidiary company
C. Holding company D. Company

Q322. Holding company isa company which controls the activities of one or more companies
A. Partly false B. False

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C. Partly true D. True
Q323. Insolvency may lead to bankruptcy with the pronouncement by a court.
A. Deficiency B. Insolvency
C. Bankruptcy D. Defaulter
Q324. ___________ isThe act of pledging or mortgaging movable or immovable assets.
A. Passing the Possession B. Hypothecation
C. Both A and B D. None of above
Q325. Hypothecation is an act of pledging or mortgaging movable or immovable assets.
A. Partly false B. False
C. Partly true D. True

Q326. IAS refers to:

A. Indian Accounting Standards B. International Account Standards
C. International Accounting Standards D. Indian Administrative Services

Q327. IMF refers to:

A. Indian Monetary Federation. B. International Monetary Fund.
C. International Monetary Federation D. Indian Monetary Fund
Q328. _____________ is where you analyze your company’s profits and losses. As such, it
should come as no surprise that the income statement is also commonly referred to as
the “profit and loss statement.”
A. Income statement B. Balance sheet
C. Book of accounts D. Profit and loss account
Q329. Cash Flow Statement is where you analyze your company’s profits and losses. As such,
it should come as no surprise that the income statement is also commonly referred to as
the “profit and loss statement.”
A. Partly false B. True
C. Partly true D. False
Q330. ___________ is A direct and graded tax imposed by the government upon income. The
tax o income of corporate and other business enterprises may be higher than that of
individuals.
A. Corporate tax B. Lease

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C. Surplus D. Income tax
Q331. GST isA direct and graded tax imposed by the government upon income. The tax on
income of corporate and other business enterprises may be higher than that of
individuals.
A. Partly true B. Partly false
C. True D. False
Q332. ___________ isA contractual obligation to compensate some other person in the event
that a loss is suffered by them for a specified cause.
A. Indemnity B. Insurance
C. Guarantee D. Assurance
Q333. Indemnity isA contractual obligation to compensate some other person in the event that a
loss is suffered by them for a specified cause.
A. False B. Partly true
C. Partly false D. True
Q334. ______________ isAn order sent to the agent to buy goods. It may mention specific
goods or source from which to procure. Alternatively it may be left to the agent.
A. Interest B. Inflation
C. Indent D. None of above
Q335 Indent is An order sent to the agent to buy goods. It may mention specific goods or source
from which to procure. Alternatively it may be left to the agent.
A. False B. True
C. Partly true D. Partly false
Q336. ___________ isa deed signed between two or more parties as opposed to one made by
a single party.
A. Indenture B. Insolvency
C. Jury D. None of above
Q337. Indenture is a deed signed between two or more parties as opposed to one made by a
single party.
A. Partly false B. False
C. Partly true D. True
Q338. ____________ isAn increase in money supply without a corresponding increase in
production. This leads to an increase in prices.
A. Insurance B. Insider trading

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C. Deflation D. Inflation
Q339. Deflation isAn increase in money supply without a corresponding increase in production.
This leads to an increase in prices.
A. True B. False
C. Partly false D. Partly true
Q340. _____________ is an order of the court directing a person to act or refrain from acting in
a certain manner.
A. Insolvency B. Intangible asset
C. Injunction D. None of above
Q341. Injunction is an order of the court directing a person to act or refrain from acting in a
certain manner.
A. Partly true B. Partly false
C. False D. True
Q342. ___________ means Trading in a company’s shares by a person connected with and
having access to its sensitive, unpublished and confidential information.
A. Insider trading B. Cash Trading
C. Outsider Trading D. Market Making
Q343. Insider trading means Trading in a company’s shares by a person connected with and
having access to its sensitive, unpublished and confidential information.
A. True B. Partly true
C. Partly false D. False
Q344. ___________ isA state where the total assets of an entity are insufficient in value to meet
its total liabilities.
A. Insurance B. Insolvency
C. Bankruptcy D. Defaulter
Q345. Bankruptcy isA state where the total assets of an entity are insufficient in value to meet
its total liabilities.
A. Partly false B. False
C. True D. Partly true
Q346. ___________ isA formal, legal document.
A. Document B. Paper
C. Instrument D. None of above

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Q347. Instrument is A formal, legal document.
A. False B. Partly false
C. True D. Partly true
Q348. ____________ is an arrangement under which the insurer agrees to compensate the
insured in the event of a loss on payment of a premium.
A. Indemnity B. Insurance
C. Guarantee D. None of above
Q349. Insurance - It is an arrangement under which the insurer agrees to compensate the
insured in the event of a loss on payment of a premium.
A. Partly false B. Partly true
C. True D. False
Q350. ___________ isAn asset which has no physical or documentary form.
A. Intangible asset B. Tangible asset
C. Lease D. None of above
Q351. Intangible asset is An asset which has physical or documentary form.
A. Partly false B. False
C. Partly true D. True
Q352. _____________ isA valuable intangible asset created by the exercise of human
intelligence and imagination.
A. Goodwill B. Patent
C. Trademark D. Intellectual property
Q353. Intellectual property is A valuable intangible asset created by the exercise of human
intelligence and imagination.
A. Partly false B. True
C. Partly true D. False
Q354. ____________ is a payment made for the use of borrowed funds.
A. Installment B. Interest
C. Either A or B D. None of above
Q355. Interest is a payment made for the use of borrowed funds.
A. Partly true B. Partly true

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C. True D. False
Q356. ___________ is a percentage of the principal amount charged by the lender for the use
of its money.
A. Interest rate B. Exchange rate
C. Repo rate D. No-delivery period
Q357. Interest rate is a percentage of the principal amount charged by the lender for the use of
its money.
A. False B. Partly true
C. Partly false D. True
Q35\8. ___________ allow the bank account holders to access their accounts using the
internet.
A. Internet banking B. E-banking
C. Online banking D. All of above
Q359 Banks allow account holders to access their accounts using the internet and by internet
banking it they can also perform certain transactions.
A. Partly true B. True
C. False D. Partly false
Q360. ____________ is a list of items in stock at a given point of time.
A. Inventory B. Purchase Book
C. Manifest D. Sales Book
Q361. Inventory is a list of items in stock at a given point of time.
A. Partly true B. Partly false
C. True D. False
Q362 ______________ is a document sent by a seller to the purchaser giving descriptions of
goods, their quantity/ number, prices and total amount payable.
A. Mediation B. Bill of supply
C. Invoice D. Challan
Q363. Credit note is document sent by a seller to the purchaser giving descriptions of goods,
their quantity/ number, prices and total amount payable.
A. True B. False
C. Partly false D. Partly true

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Q364. IRDA refers to:
A. Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority
B. Indian Railway Development Authority
C. Insurance Regulatory and Development Association
D. Industry Regulatory and Development Authority
Q365. ____________ isThe decision/ruling of a court of law in a civil or criminal litigation.
A. Award B. Litigation
C. Reward D. Judgment
Q366. Judgment isThe decision/ruling of a court of law in a civil or criminal litigation.
A. Partly false B. Partly true
C. True D. False
Q367. ____________ is A document issued by consolidating or aggregating a large number of
market lots into a single composite share certificate.
A. Jumbo certificate B. Labor intensive
C. Certificate D. None of above
Q368. Share WarrantA document issued by consolidating or aggregating a large number of
market lots into a single composite share certificate.
A. False B. True
C. Partly false D. Partly true
Q369. ______________ is a body of persons appointed to hear evidence and give their verdict
in a criminal trial.
A. Jury B. Court
C. arbitration D. None of above
Q370. Jury is a body of persons appointed to hear evidence and give their verdict in a criminal
trial.
A. Partly false B. True
C. False D. Partly true
Q371. ___________ is The basis of payment made in the form of goods or services rather than
money.
A. Mortgage B. Kind

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C. Plea D. None of above
Q372. Kind The basis of payment made in the form of goods or services rather than money.
A. Partly true B. Partly false
C. True D. False
Q373. _____________ isThe characteristic of production methods which require large
application of labour and uses relatively little capital.
A. Capital Intensive B. Labor intensive
C. Technique Intensie D. None of above
Q374. Labour intensive is The Technique of production methods which require large application
of labour and uses relatively little capital.
A. Partly false B. True
C. Partly true D. False
Q375. ____________ is an order to facilitate the delivery of a ship’s cargo issued after the
completion of formalities.
A. Landing order B. Letter of credit
C. Perquisite D. Loading order
Q376. Landing order is an order to facilitate the delivery of a ship’s cargo issued after the
completion of formalities.
A. Partly true B. True
C. Partly false D. False
Q377. Laundering isThe process of passing funds through a number of transactions with the
intention to conceal their origin.
A. Partly true B. False
C. Partly false D. True
Q378. __________ isThe process of passing funds through a number of transactions with the
intention to conceal their origin.
A. Liabilities B. Laundering
C. Moratorium D. None of above
Q379 ___________ isThe right to use a property for a specified term in lieu of lease-money or
rent paid periodically.
A. Lease B. PIG
C. Legal tender D. None of above

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Q380. Lease isThe right to use a property for a specified term in lieu of lease-money or rent
paid periodically.
A. False B. Partly false
C. Partly true D. True
Q381. _____________ isThe form of money that may be legally used to pay for the goods
procured or the services used.
A. Tender B. Legal tender
C. Dollar D. None of above
Q382 Legal tender isThe form of money that may be legally used to pay for the goods procured
or the services used.
A. Partly true B. Partly false
C. True D. False
Q383. _____________ is a letter addressed by a banker to a correspondent abroad authorizing
payment of a specified sum on its credit to the mentioned beneficiary under stated
conditions
A. Pay-in-slip B. Post of credit
C. Instrument D. Letter of credit
Q384 . Letter of Debit is a letter addressed by a banker to a correspondent abroad authorizing
payment of a specified sum on its credit to the mentioned beneficiary under stated
conditions
A. Partly false B. True
C. Partly true D. False
Q385. _____________ isA legal obligation, by an individual or a body of persons, expressed in
terms of money.
A. Contingent liabilities B. Current liabilities
C. Liabilities D. None of above
Q386. Assets isA legal obligation, by an individual or a body of persons, expressed in terms of
money.
A. True B. False
C. Partly true D. Partly false

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Q387. ____________ are those whose existence or otherwise will be confirmed by the
outcome of some future event and at times may not have to be met at all if the event
does not occur.
A. Further liabilities B. Contingent liabilities
C. Future liabilities D. All of above
Q388. ______________ is aDefamatory material in recorded form as opposed from slander
which is oral. The victim may file a suit for damages.
A. Libel B. Liberal
C. Slander D. Defamation
Q389. Slander Defamatory material in recorded form as opposed from Libel which is oral. The
victim may file a suit for damages.
A. False B. Partly false
C. Partly true D. True
Q390. ____________ is A document issued by a competent authority granting permission to
carry on some activity, which otherwise will be unlawful.
A. Passport B. License
C. Approval D. None of above
Q391. License is A document issued by a competent authority granting permission to carry on
some activity, which otherwise will be unlawful.
A. False B. True
C. Partly true D. Partly false
Q392. ____________ isThe right to retain some asset till a claim is settled or a contractual
obligation has been fulfilled.
A. Lien B. resell Goods
C. Stoppage in Transict D. None of above
Q393. Lien isThe right to retain some asset till a claim is settled or a contractual obligation has
been fulfilled.
A. Partly false B. True
C. Partly true D. False
Q394. __________ meansThe liability of a member to contribute to the assets of a company up
to the nominal value of the shares held and not paid by him.
A. Limited liability B. Lien
C. Manifest D. Liquidity

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Q395 In case of unlimited liability the liability of a member to contribute to the assets of a
company up to the nominal value of the shares held and not paid by him.
A. Partly false B. True
C. Partly true D. False
Q396. ___________ isAn official appointed to conduct the winding up of a company in
accordance with due process of law.
A. Liquidator B. MCA
C. Litigant D. None of above
Q397. ExecutorAn official appointed to conduct the winding up of a company in accordance with
due process of law.
A. False B. Partly false
C. Partly true D. True
Q398. __________ is an indicator of how quickly an asset can be turned into cash for full
market value.
A. Perishability B. Flexibility
C. Liquidity D. None of above
Q399. Liquidity is an indicator of how quickly an asset can be turned into cash for full market
value.
A. Partly false B. Partly true
C. True D. False
Q400 Documents to Title Usually denotes non- negotiable documents such as Bills of Lading
or Delivery Challans showing the transfer of title to the transferee for a specific period
A. Partly false B. True
C. False D. Partly true
Q401 Dumping means Selling goods in a market usually overseas, at a price well below cost,
usually with an intention to ……………..the indigenous market/competition.
A. ruin B. Develope
C. Create D. Either A or C
Q402. bankruptcy may lead to insolvency with the pronouncement by a court.
A. Partly false B. True
C. False D. Partly true

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Q403. Interest may be either simple or compound.
A. Partly false B. True
C. False D. Partly true
Q404. MCA refer to:
A. Ministry of Corporate Association B. Ministry of Corporate Affairs
C. Management of Corporate Affairs D. Ministry of Company Affairs
Q405. ______________ isA dispute resolution process in which an impartial third party assists
the parties to voluntarily reach a mutually acceptable settlement.
A. Meditation B. Merchant banker
C. Lien D. None of above
Q406. Meditation is dispute resolution process in which an impartial third party assists the
parties to voluntarily reach a mutually acceptable settlement.
A. Partly false B. True
C. Partly true D. False
Q407. _____________ isA fundamental document which contains the provisions of the
company’s constitution, which is filed with the Registrar of Companies at the time of the
incorporation of a company.
A. Article of association B. Memorandum of association
C. Balance sheet D. None of above
Q408. Memorandum of association is A fundamental document which contains the provisions of
the company’s constitution, which is filed with the ……………. at the time of the
incorporation of a company.
A. Registrar B. Registrar of Companies
C. Registrar of Firm D. Regional Director
Q409. _____________ isA financial institution that specializes in securities market activities
such as underwriting and trading, and in advisory activities such as mergers and
acquisitions.
A. Merchant banker B. Banker
C. Manager D. None of above

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Q410 Banker to issue isA financial institution that specializes in securities market activities
such as underwriting and trading, and in advisory activities such as mergers and
acquisitions.
A. False B. True
C. Partly true D. Partly false
Q411. _________ isThe amalgamation of two or more enterprises which were previously
separate usually to achieve greater viability and control.
A. Net worth B. Merger
C. Monopoly D. None of above
Q412. Acquisition is The amalgamation of two or more enterprises which were previously
separate usually to achieve greater viability and control.
A. True B. False
C. Partly false D. Partly true
Q413. ___________ isThe minimum number of shares for which applications have to be
received by a company in a public issue before allotment can be made by it.
A. Excess subscription B. Maximum subscription
C. Allotment D. Minimum subscription
Q414. Minimum subscription isThe minimum number of shares for which applications have to
be received by a company in a public issue before allotment can be made by it.
A. Partly false B. True
C. False D. Partly true
Q415. ____________ is an exclusive right or privilege created through law or by acquiring and
exercising control with a view to regulating the price.
A. Company B. Sole proprietorship
C. Monopoly D. None of above
Q416. Oligopoly is An exclusive right or privilege created through law or by acquiring and
exercising control with a view to regulating the price.
A. Partly false B. True
C. Partly true D. False
Q417. ____________ means A freeze on the payment of debts by a government in times of
national crisis or an emergency.

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A. Plea bargain B. Moratorium
C. Injunction D. None of above
Q418. Moratorium isA freeze on the payment of debts by a government in times of national
crisis or an emergency.
A. False B. True
C. Partly false D. Partly true
Q419. ____________ isA legal charge on property which holds it as security for a loan.
A. Security B. Collateral
C. Mortgage D. Contingent

Q420. ChsrgeA legal charge on property which holds it as security for a loan.
A. True B. False
C. Partly false D. Partly true

Q421. NABARD Stands For:

A. National Bank for Agricultural & Rural Development
B. National Bureau for Agricultural & Rural Development
C. National Bank for Agricultural & Rural Disposal
D. National Bank for Aeronautics & Race Development
Q422. NASDAQ refers to:
A. National Association of Security Dealers Automatic Quotations
B. National Association of Security Dealers Automated Quotations
C. National Association of Security Dealing Automated Quotations
D. National Association of Selling Dealers Automated Quotations
Q423. ____________ is A document in which property may be transferred to another in good
faith by simple delivery
A. Dividend warrants B. Cheque
C. Mortgage papers D. Negotiable instrument
Q424. Railway Reciept is A document in which property may be transferred to another in good
faith by simple delivery,

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A. True B. False
C. Partly true D. Partly false
Q425. _____________ isThe amount remaining after all expenses have been deducted from
the gross profit. It may be distributed in the form of dividend.
A. Profit B. Net profit
C. Gross profit D. Business profit
Q426. Gross profit isThe amount remaining after all expenses have been deducted from the
gross profit. It may be distributed in the form of dividend.
A. False B. Partly false
C. Partly true D. True
Q427. ____________ is the business finance term and definition is an expression of your
business’s total value, as determined by your total current assets less the total liabilities
currently owed by the business.
A. Net worth B. Net profit
C. Net asset D. Net value
Q428. Net Assets is a business finance term and definition is an expression of your business’s
total value, as determined by your total current assets less the total liabilities currently
owed by the business.
A. False B. True
C. Partly true D. Partly false
Q.429 Net worth = Assets - _________
A. Equity B. Liabilities
C. Capital D. None of above
Q430. ___________ isThe time during which the register of shareholders of a company remains
closed.
A. Non – current liabilities B. No – delivery period
C. Plea D. None of above
Q431. ____________ Implies that arrears of dividend will not accrue.
A. Cumulative B. Accurate
C. Non - cumulative D. None of above
Q432.cumulative Implies that arrears of dividend will not accrue.
A. Partly true B. True

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C. Partly false D. False

Q433. ___________ is also referred to as long-term liabilities, this category encompasses

debts or obligations that your company must repay in over a year’s time.
A. Non – current liabilities B. Current liabilities
C. Perjury D. Liabilities
Q434.current liabilities - Also referred to as long-term liabilities, this category encompasses
debts or obligations that your company must repay in over a year’s time.
A. False B. Partly false
C. Partly true D. True
Q435. ______________ are those that are not critical for a company to provide its product or
service, but which are nevertheless essential to establish and run a business.
A. Operating assets B. Non – operating assets
C. Notarize D. Assets

Q436.operative assets - are those that are not critical for a company to provide its product or
service, but which are nevertheless essential to establish and run a business.
A. False B. True
C. Partly false D. Partly true

Q437. _____________ meansTo formally complete a document by acknowledgement or oath.

A. Notarize B. Sealing
C. Petition D. Signature

Q438. Notarize meansTo formally complete a document by acknowledgement or oath.

A. Partly false B. True
C. Partly true D. False
Q439. ____________ isA person who attests or certifies documents by the authority of the
court.
A. Notarize B. Notary public
C. Petitioner D. None of above
Q440. Notary public - A person who attests or certifies documents by the authority of the court.

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A. True B. False
C. Partly true D. Partly false
Q441. NSE refers to:
A. National Stock Exchange B. National Stock Export
C. National Share Exchange D. Notion Stock Exchange
Q442. NYSE refers to:
A. New York Stock Export B.New York Stock Exchange
C. New York Share Exchange D. New Jersey Stock Exchange

Q443. ____________ means To swear/affirm to the truth of a statement/document.

A. Petition B. Oath
C. Declaration D. None of above

Q444. Declaration meansTo swear/affirm to the truth of a statement/document.

A. True B. False
C. Partly false D. Partly true
Q445. __________ are those assets that are required for a business to complete its day-to-day
functions.
A. Operating assets B. Non operating assets
C. Assets D. None of above
Q446. Operating assets are those assets that are required for a business to complete its day-to-
day functions.
A. False B. Partly false
C. Partly true D. True
Q447. ___________ is the contractual right but not the obligation, to buy and sell a specific
amount of a given security at a previously fixed price or at a priced fixed at a designated
future date.
A. Futures B. Forwards
C. Options D. Swaps

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Q448. Forwards are the contractual right but not the obligation, to buy and sell a specific
amount of a given security at a previously fixed price or at a priced fixed at a designated
future date.
A. Partly true B. True
C. Partly false D. False
Q449. ___________ isA written direction of a court or judge to do or refrain from doing certain
acts.
A. Order B. Delivery
C. Petition D. None of above
Q450. Order is A written direction of a court or judge to do or refrain from doing certain acts.
A. Partly true B. True
C. Partly false D. False
Q451. _______________ Expenses incurred by a professional carrying out duties on behalf of
a client that are to be reimbursed by the client in addition to any fee payable.
A. Out-of-pocket expenses B. Regular
C. Excess expenses D. Reasonable
Q452Regular Expenses incurred by a professional carrying out duties on behalf of a client that
are to be reimbursed by the client in addition to any fee payable.
A. Partly false B. True
C. Partly true D. False
Q453. ____________ are the indirect expenses incurred in the production of goods and cannot
be put under a specific heading.
A. Over expenses B. Over cost
C. Overheads D. None of above
Q454. Overheads - These are the indirect expenses incurred in the production of goods and
cannot be put under a specific heading.
A. True B. False
C. Partly true D. Partly false
Q455. ___________ isA right or privilege granted by law to an inventor also called a patentee,
to enjoy the fruits of his invention for a specified period.
A. Intellectual rights B. Patent
C. Trademark D. Copyright

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Q456. Patent isA right or privilege granted by law to an inventor also called a patentee, to enjoy
the fruits of his invention for a specified period.
A. True B. False
C. Partly true D. Partly false
Q457. Patent is A right or privilege granted by law to an inventor also called a __________, to
enjoy the fruits of his invention for a specified period.
A. Patentee B. Holder
C. Copyright holder D. Right owner
Q458. _____________ is A person to whom the amount is payable or in whose favour the Bill of
Exchange is drawn.
A. Payee B. Buyer
C. Payer D. Hire owner
Q459. Drawer is A person to whom the amount is payable or in whose favour the Bill of
Exchange is drawn.
A. False B. True
C. Partly false D. Partly true
Q460. ______________ isA form filled up to deposit cash or cheque in a bank. The account
holder retains the counterfoil.
A. Pay-in-demand B. Pay-in-slip
C. Pay-in-receipt D. Pay-in-order
Q461. Pay-in-slip isA form filled up to deposit cash or cheque in a bank. The account holder
retains the counterfoil.
A. Partly true B. Partly false
C. False D. True
Q462. __________ meansMaking false statements under oath.
A. Perjury B. Oath
C. Pinjury D. Pledge
Q463. Perjury meansMaking false statements under oath.
A. False B. Partly false
C. True D. Partly true

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Q464. _____________ are Some benefit which is attached to an employment apart from the
wages or salary paid.
A. Petition B. Perquisite
C. Placing D. None of above
Q465. Compensation means Some benefit which is attached to an employment apart from the
wages or salary paid.
A. True B. False
C. Partly false D. Partly true
Q466. _____________ is the statement affirms that you as an individual will act as guarantor for
the business’s debt, making you personally liable for the balance of the loan even in the
event that your business fails.
A. Personal guarantee B. Third party guarantee
C. Guarantee D. None of above
Q467. General guarantee is statement affirms that you as an individual will act as guarantor for
the business’s debt, making you personally liable for the balance of the loan even in the
event that your business fails.
A. False B. Partly false
C. True D. Partly true
Q468. _____________ isA formal written request to a court, which starts a special proceeding.
In juvenile court, the legal document which specifies the complaint against the juvenile
and/or family.
A. Mercy B. Petition
C. Plaintiff D. None of above

Q469. Petition Is A formal written request to a court, which starts a special proceeding. In
juvenile court, the legal document which specifies the complaint against the juvenile
and/or family.
A. True B. Partly false
C. Partly true D. False
Q470. ___________ isAnother word for plaintiff, the person starting the lawsuit.
A. Filer B. Petit filer
C. Petitioner D. None of above

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Q471. Pleading Another word for plaintiff, the person starting the lawsuit.
A. Partly true B. True
C. Partly false D. False

Q472. _____________ isA small amount of cash kept to cover day-to-day trivial or
miscellaneous expenses.
A. Small cash B. Petty cash
C. Cash in hand D. Cash

Q473. cash in hand is A small amount of cash kept to cover day-to-day trivial or miscellaneous
expenses.
A. Partly false B. False
C. True D. Partly true

Q474. ___________ are the Operators who get killed by the speculators.
A. PIT B. SIG
C. TIP D. PIG
Q475. Litigant is A party to a case.
A. False B. Partly false
C. True D. Partly true
Q476. ___________ meansA prior arrangement to place or sell shares to select investors such
as financial institutions.
A. Plotting B. Placing
C. Both A and B D. None of above

Q477. Placing means A prior arrangement to place or sell shares to select investors such as
financial institutions.
A. True B. Partly false
C. Partly true D. False

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Q478. ______________ isThe person who sues or starts a civil case, also called the petitioner
or the complainant.
A. Plaintiff B. Defendant
C. Both ‘A’ & ‘B’ D. None of above

Q479. Plaintiff is The person who sues or starts a civil case, also called the petitioner or the
complainant.
A. Partly true B. True
C. Partly false D. False

Q480. ___________ means An accused persons answer to a criminal charge.

A. Defend B. Plea
C. Result D. None of above

Q481. Plea means An accused persons answer to a criminal charge.

A. False B. Partly false
C. Partly true D. True

Q482. not guilty; guilty; no contest – is the example of:

A. Dismissal B. Plea
C. Dismiss D. Result

Q483. _____________ isThe agreement where a defendant makes with the prosecutor to avoid
a trial.
A. Bargain B. Plea settlement
C. Plea bargain D. None of above

Q484 Plea bargain isThe agreement a defendant makes with the prosecutor to avoid a trial.
A. Partly false B. Partly true
C. False D. True

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Q485. ___________ are the documents filed with the court by the parties in a civil or criminal
case.
A. Policy B. Hearing
C. Plead D. Pleading

Q486. Pleadings are The documents filed with the court by the parties in a civil or criminal case.
A. Partly true B. Partly false
C. True D. False
Q487. _____________ is A comprehensive document issued by the insurer to the insured
setting out detailed terms and conditions governing the cover.
A. Portfolio B. Policy
C. Terms D. Conditions
Q488. Cover Note is A comprehensive document issued by the insurer to the insured setting out
detailed terms and conditions governing the cover.
A. True B. Partly true
C. False D. Partly false

Q489. ____________ isA list of securities owned by a person or an institution.

A. Holding B. Agenda
C. Portfolio D. None of above

Q490. Portfolio isA list of securities owned by a person or an institution.

A. Partly false B. True
C. Partly true D. False

Q491. _________ is used To affix a future date while executing a document or issuing a Bill of
Exchange.
A. Post-date B. Pre-date
C. Pro-date D. Preceding-date

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Q492. Blank-date is usedTo affix a future date while executing a document or issuing a Bill of
Exchange.
A. False B. Partly false
C. Partly true D. True

Q493. Post-date is To affix a future date while executing a document or issuing a

____________
A. Promissory note B. Cheque
C. Hundi D. Bill of exchange

Q494. ___________ isThe limits within which the price of a security is allowed to fluctuate.
A. Price tag B. Price band
C. Price D. None of above

Q495. Price band isThe limits within which the price of a security is allowed to fluctuate.
A. Partly false B. True
C. False D. Partly true

Q496. __________ is the collective effort of bulls or bears to manipulate the price of a security
without any regard for fundamentals of the company.
A. Price rising B. Price bargain
C. Price rigging D. Price reduce

Q497. Price rigging is the collective effort of bulls or bears to manipulate the price of a security
without any regard for fundamentals of the company.
A. True B. Partly false
C. False D. Partly true

Q498. ____________ is The sum of money lent on which interest is being paid.
A. Interest B. Amount

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C. Principal D. None of above
Q499. ____________ isA person who owns or has a share in the ownership of a business.
A. Business man B. Owner
C. Manager D. Proprietor

Q500. ________ is A party to a case.

A. plaintiff B. Litigant
C. Advocate D. None of above

Q501. Litigant isA party to a case.

A. False B. Partly false
C. True D. Partly true

Q502 ___________ isA declaration by the master of the ship about to set sail which gives
details about the crew, cargo, passengers and the port of destination.
A. Market lot B. Manifest
C. Mortgage D. None of above

Q503. Manifest isA declaration by the Captain of the ship about to set sail. It gives details about
the crew, cargo, passengers and the port of destination.
A. False B. Partly false
C. Partly true D. True

Q504 Prosecutor is Also called the state's attorney which Represents the state in a criminal
case against a defendant.
A. True B. Partly true
C. Partly false D. False

Q505. _____________ is A document issued by a company inviting subscription to the public

issue of its securities.
A. Prospectus B. Offer Document
C. Letter of Offer D. Draft letter of Offer
Q506. Prospectus is A document which is issued by a company inviting subscription to the
public issue of its securities.
A. Partly false B. Partly true
C. True D. False

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Q507. ______________ is the person One who acts on behalf of another, usually used to
denote a person authorized by a member of a company to be present and vote on his behalf in
a meeting.
A. Proxy B. Reserve
C. Quorum D. None of above

Q508. Proxy is One who acts on behalf of another, usually used to denote a person authorized
by a member of a company to be present and vote on his behalf in a meeting.
A. Partly true B. False
C. Partly false D. True

Q509. ______________ is The minimum number of members required to be present in order to

transact business at a meeting.
A. Quorum B. Forum
C. Persons D. None of above

Q510. Quorum is The minimum number of members required to be present in order to transact
business at a meeting.
A. Partly true B. Partly false
C. False D. True

Q511. _____________ is A firm statement of the total cost for which specified work will be
undertaken.
A. Invoice B. Quotation
C. Estimate D. None of above

Q512. Quotation is A firm statement of the total Income for which specified work will be
undertaken.
A. True B. Partly true
C. Partly false D. False

Q513. ______________ refers to trading in which the brokers quote for buying and selling a
security simultaneously.
A. Quote driven trading B. Quote
C. Recession D. None of above

Q514. Trading in futures refers to trading in which the brokers quote for buying and selling a
security simultaneously.
A. Partly false B. True
C. Partly true D. False

Q515. ___________ is A condition of the economy of a country under which business is

conducted at a reduced level.
A. Recession B. Opression
C. Recission D. None of above

Q516. Recession A condition of the economy of a country under which business is conducted
at a reduced level.
A. False B. Partly true

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C. True D. Partly false

Q517. _____________ is An explanation of the difference between two figures which purport to
express the same quantity.
A. Rechecking B. Reconciliation
C. Reconsidering D. None of above
Q518. Reconciliation is An explanation of the difference between two figures which purport to
express the same quantity.
A. Partly true B. Partly false
C. True D. False

Q519 _____________ is A date on which the records of a company are closed for the purpose
of determining the stockholders to whom dividends, proxies, rights, etc. are to be sent.
A. Record date B. Declared Date
C. Retrospective Date D. None of above

Q520. Record date is A date on which the records of a company are closed for the purpose of
determining the stockholders to whom dividends, proxies, rights, etc. are to be sent.
A. Partly true B. Partly false
C. True D. False

Q521 ______________ is An amount of money sent by one person to another, usually by post.
A. Remittance B. Remit
C. Assistance D. Repay

Q522. Remittance is An amount of money sent by one person to another, usually by post.
A. Partly false B. True
C. Partly true D. False

Q523. ______________ is the rate at which a bank borrows money from the Reserve Bank of
India (RBI). The bank pledges or sells government securities to the RBI for the same.
A. Reverse rate B. Bank rate
C. Repo rate D. Reverse repo rate

Q524. Reverse Repo rate - is the rate at which a bank borrows money from the Reserve Bank
of India (RBI). The bank pledges or sells government securities to the RBI for the same.
A. True B. Partly false
C. False D. Partly true

Q525. Loan provide under repo rate are usually for a period of up to _________ weeks.
A. Three B. Six
C. Seven D. Two

Q526. ___________ is An amount set aside out of profits or surpluses to meet contingencies.
A. Royalty B. reserve
C. Preserve D. Bank account

Q527. Preserve - An amount set aside out of profits or surpluses to meet contingencies.
A. False B. Partly false
C. True D. Partly true

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Q528. _____________ is The minimum price set in advance, that is acceptable to the
auctioneer, so as to ensure that the object for sale will not be sold at too low a value.
A. Reserve price B. Declared Price
C. Preserve price D. None of above

Q529. Declared price - The minimum price set in advance, that is acceptable to the auctioneer,
so as to ensure that the object for sale will not be sold at too low a value.
A. True B. False
C. Partly false D. Partly true

Q530. ___________ is The sale of goods to the final consumer.

A. Retail trade B. Mutual Trade
C. Retained trade D. Wholesale trade

Q531. Retail trade is The sale of goods to the wholesaler.

A. Partly true B. True
C. Partly false D. False

Q532. ___________ is Just like it sounds, this term represents any profits earned that are
retained in the business.
A. Excessive Earning B. Earnings
C. Blocked Earning D. Retained earnings

Q533 Retained earnings is Just like it sounds, this term represents any profits earned that are
retained in the business.
A. Partly true B. False
C. Partly false D. True

Q534. Retained earnings is also referred as:

A. Bootstrapping B. Savingstapings
C. Bootsaping D. Bootsstrapings

Q535. ____________ means Taking effect as though it had occurred at an earlier date.
A. Rumbaing B. Retrospective
C. Notified D. None of above

Q536. Respective Date means Taking effect as though it had occurred at an earlier date.
A. Partly true B. False
C. Partly false D. True

Q537.When banks have surplus funds and they deposit them with the RBI
for short periods, the RBI offers them a _____________ rate.
A. Repo B. Reverse repo
C. Bank D. None of above

Q538. Reverse repo rate means When banks have surplus funds and they deposit them with
the other banks for short periods, the RBI offers them this rate.
A. True B. False

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C. Partly false D. Partly true

Q539. _____________ is The facility to borrow money up to a certain specified amount and to
replace one borrowing that has been paid off with another so long as the overall limit is not
exceeded.
A. Reducing Rate B. Recurring Rate
C. Resolving Rate D. Revolving rate

Q540. Revolving rate is The facility to borrow money up to a certain specified amount and to
replace one borrowing that has been paid off with another so long as the overall limit is not
exceeded.
A. True B. False
C. Partly false D. Partly true

Q541. _______________ is the Manipulation of share prices to attract buyers and sellers to the
rigger’s advantage.
A. Fluctuating Market B. Developed Market
C. Rigged market D. Volatile Market

Q542. Rigged market means Manipulation of share prices to attract buyers and sellers to the
rigger’s advantage.
A. True B. False
C. Partly true D. Partly true

Q543. _____________ is the Payment made to the owner of a property for permission to use it.
A .Rent B. Royalty
C. Installment D. None of above

Q544. Royalty is the Payment made to the owner of a property for permission to use it.
A. Partly true B. False
C. Partly false D. True
Q545. _____________ is A thorough search of a ship by custom officers to detect contraband
or undeclared dutiable cargo.
A. Rummaging B. Raiding
C. Searching D. None of above

Q546. Raiding A thorough search of a ship by custom officers to detect contraband or

undeclared dutiable cargo.
A. False B. Partly true
C. True D. Partly false

Q547 SAFTA stands for:

A. South Asian Free Transportation Area
B. South Asian Free Trade Area
C. South African Free Trade Area
D. South Asian Free Trade Association

Q548. ____________ means Recovering items from a site of destruction.

A. Left over B. Savage

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C. Residuary D. Salvage

Q549. Salvage means Recovering items from a site of destruction.

A. Partly true B. False
C. True D. Partly false

Q550. _______________ is A method of drawing conclusions about the whole by examining

portions of it selected at random.
A. Auditing B. Sampling
C. Swapping D. Investigating

Q551 Sampling is A method of drawing conclusions about the whole by examining portions of it
selected at random.
A. True B. Partly true
C. False D. Partly false

Q552. __________ is A fraudulent activity where usually small sums of money is obtained from
a large number of persons, so that the activity is not detected.
A. Layering B. Scam
C. Laundering D. Misrepresentation

Q553. Scam is A fraudulent activity where usually small sums of money is obtained from a large
number of persons, so that the activity is not detected.
A. Partly false B. Partly true
C. False D. True

Q554. SEBI refers to:

A. Securities and Exchange Board of Indonesia
B. Securities and Exchange Board of India
C. Securities and Expertise Board of India.
D. Stock and Exchange Board of India

Q555 ______________ means where the asset being used as collateral for the loan is said to
be “securing” the loan. In the event that your small business defaults on the loan, the lender can
then claim the collateral and use its fair- market value to offset the unpaid balance.
A. Unsecured loan B. Secured loan
C. Long-term loan D. None of above

Q556. Unsecured loan - The asset being used as collateral for the loan is said to be “securing”
the loan. In the event that your small business defaults on the loan, the lender can then claim
the collateral and use its fair-market value to offset the unpaid balance.
A. True B. False
C. Partly false D. Partly true

Q557. ____________ is a Reporting on the various segments of a business’s activity.

A. Segmental reporting B. Symmetrical Reporting
C. Financial Reporting D. None of above

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Q558. ____________ is A claim of one party when adjusted against an amount payable to
another, so that only the balance remains payable or the whole debt is paid off.
A. Settlement B. Spot
C. Set-off D. None of above

Q559. Set-off is A claim of one party when adjusted against an amount payable to another, so
that only the balance remains payable or the whole debt is paid off.
A. True B. Partly true
C. Partly false D. False

Q560. ____________ is the scrip-wise netting of trades by a broker at the end of the
trading cycle.
A. Hedge B. Settlement
C. Roll Over D. None of above

Q561. hedging is the scrip-wise netting of trades by a broker at the end of the trading cycle.
A. False B. True
C. Partly true D. Partly false

Q562. __________ is A unit of capital in a limited company.

A. Share B. Stock
C. Atom D. None of above

Q563. Share is a largest unit of capital in a limited company.

A. False B. Partly false
C. True D. Partly true

Q564. ______________ are entitled to a fixed rate of dividend.

A. Equity share B. Preference share
C. Shares D. None of above

Q565. _____________ is A certificate issued to shareholders in paper or physical form.

Besides the names of the holders, it carries the certificate, folio and distinctive numbers.
A. Registration certificate B. Signature
C. Share certificate D. Common seal

Q566. Share Warrant is A certificate issued to shareholders in paper or physical form. Besides
the names of the holders, it carries the certificate, folio and distinctive numbers.
A. True B. Partly false
C. False D. Partly true

Q567. ____________ is A person holding shares of a company. His rights include an invitation
to attend and vote in Annual General Meetings, to receive a copy of audited results and receive
dividend whenever declared.
A. Investor B. Transferor
C. Director D. Shareholder

Q568. Shareholder is A person holding shares of a company. His rights include an invitation to
attend and vote in Annual General Meetings, to receive a copy of audited results and
receive dividend whenever declared.

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A. Partly true B. True
C. Partly false D. False

Q569. SIB refers to:

A. Securities and Investments Board of UK
B. Securities and Investments Board of India
C. Shares and Investments Board of Russia
D. Securities and Investments Board of United States

Q570. ___________ means a share of large denomination into shares of smaller

denominations. Also means sub- division of holdings.
A. Grouping B. Splitting
C. Dividing D. None of above

Q571. Splitting means a share of large denomination into shares of smaller denominations.
A. a share of large denomination is converted into shares of smaller denominations
B. a share of small denomination is converted into shares of larger denominations
C. Either A or B
D. True

Q572. The process of combining shares of a small denominations into one of higher
denomination is called ____________.
A. Uniting B. Consolidation
C. Splitting D. None of above

Q573 ____________ means payment is due immediately.

A. Default B. Maturity
C. Demand D. Spot

Q574. Spot means payment is due immediately.

A. False B. Partly true
C. True D. Partly false

Q575. __________ implies delivery and payment of shares on the day of purchase or the next.
A. Spot trading B. Trading
C. Tangible delivery D. Takeover

Q576. ___________ is An applicant, for a new issue of shares, who hopes to sell the shares on
allotment at a profit once trading commences in the secondary market.
A. Stop transfer B. Sting
C. Swap D. Stag

Q577. Stag is An applicant, for a new issue of shares, who hopes to sell the shares on allotment
at a ……. once trading commences in the secondary market.
A. Loss B. profit
C. No profit No loss D. None of above

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Q578 _____________ implies delivery and payment on the same day of the contract or the day
following the day of the contract.
A. Spot delivery B. Delivery
C. Trespass D. None of above

Q579. ____________ is The ad valorem duty paid, evidenced by the affixing of revenue stamps
on the instrument, to give legal effect to the same.
A. EXise Duty B. Stamp duty
C. Customs duty D. None of above

Q580. Stamp duty is The ad valorem duty paid, evidenced by the affixing of revenue stamps on
the instrument, to give legal effect to the same.
A. True B. Partly true
C. False D. Partly false

Q581. ______________ is An instruction, which remains in force till withdrawn.

A. Stop transfer B. Order
C. Sub judice D. Standing order

Q582. Standing order is useful to order routine and regular payments such as to an insurance
company.
A. False B. Partly false
C. Partly true D. True

Q583. _______________ are the records mandatory to be maintained under some law, such as
those relating to charges, members, minute book for directors and shareholders’ meetings etc.
A. Statutory records B. Books of accounts
C. Statutory books D. None of above

Q584. Books of accounts are the Records mandatory to be maintained under some law, such
as those relating to charges, members, minute book for directors and shareholders’ meetings
etc.
A. Partly false B. True
C. Partly true D. False

Q585. ___________ is An organized market for the sale and purchase of securities.
A. Stock exchange B. Stock Trading Exchange
C. Stock Indices D. None of above

Q586. In India stock exchanges are regulated by the Securities & Exchange Board of India.
A. False B. Partly true
C. Partly true D. True

Q587. _____________ is an instruction given by an account holder to his banker not to encash
any payment for cheque/ demand draft from his account in case of loss, theft etc. of the same.
A. Stop Payment B. Stop transfer
C. Stop Giving Payment D. Both A and B

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Q588. Stop transfer is an instruction given by an account holder to his banker not to encash any
payment for cheque/ demand draft from his account in case of loss, theft etc. of the same.
A. False B. True
C. Partly true D. Partly false

Q589. A matter pending decision by a Court is called ___________.

A. Suo Moto B. Quo Warranto
C. Subrogation D. Sub Judice

Q590. __________ - The legal principle that entitles an insured only the actual loss sustained in
cases of pure indemnity.
A. Subrogation B. Tort
C. Trustee D. Voucher

Q591. Subrogation is The legal principle that entitles an insured only the actual loss sustained in
cases of pure indemnity.
A. False B. Partly true
C. True D. Partly false

Q592. ___________ is A legal paper that is used to start a civil case and get jurisdiction over a
party.
A. Vanilla issue B. Swap
C. Summons D. None of above

Q593. Summon is A legal paper that is used to start a civil case and get jurisdiction over a party.
A. Partly false B. True
C. Partly true D. False

Q594 ___________ means when The Court may take action on its own when facts requiring
legal intervention reach its notice.
A. Suo Moto B. Notice
C. Tale over D. None of above

Q595. Summons means The Court may take action on its own when facts requiring legal
intervention reach its notice.
A. True B. Partly false
C. False D. Partly true

Q596. _______________ is A financial transaction which exploits arbitrage opportunities

between markets and in which two counter parties agree to exchange streams of payments over
time according to a predetermined rule.
A. Write off B. Take over
C. Swap D. Merger

Q597. Swap is A financial transaction which exploits arbitrage opportunities between markets
and in which two counter parties agree to exchange streams of payments over time according to
a predetermined rule.

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A. True B. False
C. Partly false D. Partly true

Q598. ____________ means The acquisition of control of a company by another company

achieved by the purchase of the majority of its shares.
A. Trustee B. Amalgamation
C. Tax holiday D. Takeover

Q599. Merger means the acquisition of control of a company by another company achieved by
the purchase of the majority of its shares.
A. True B. Partly true
C. Partly false D. False

Q600. _____________ are those assets that you can see and touch. This can include items that
may also be referred to as current or fixed assets.
A. Assets B. Intangible assets
C. Testimonial D. Tangible assets

Q601. Intangible assets are those assets that you can see and touch. This can include items
that may also be referred to as current or fixed assets.
A. True B. Partly false
C. False D. Partly true

Q602. ________ is A list of applicable rates of duty under excise or customs.

A. Testimonial B. Tariff
C. Tender D. Underwriter

Q603. Tariff is A list of applicable rates of duty under excise or customs.

A. False B. Partly false
C. Partly true D. True

Q604. ____________ isA period of time established under statute, during which a business is
not required to pay tax on its earnings.
A. Tax holiday B. Title
C. Trespass D. None of above
Q605. Tax holiday isA period of time established under statute, during which a business is not
required to pay tax on its earnings.
A. Partly true B. Partly false
C. False D. True
Q606. __________ means If your business fails to pay taxes owed to the designated
government entity, namely the IRS, you may find your assets seized
A. Turnover B. Seize
C. Tax lien D. None of above

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Q607. If your business fails to pay taxes owed to the designated government entity, namely the
IRS, you may find your assets seized
A. False B. True
C. Partly true D. Partly false

Q608. ______________ an offer to provide goods or services at mentioned prices and

understated conditions in response to a notice published in a newspaper.
A. Offer B. Specific Offer
C. Tender D. General Offer
Q609. Tender is an offer to provide goods or services at mentioned prices and understated
conditions in response to a notice published in a newspaper.
A. Partly true B. False
C. Partly false D. True
Q610. _____________ are debt financing tools used to raise needed funds for your small
business.
A. Term loans B. Short- term loans
C. Medium-term loans D. Long-tem loans
Q611. Term loan are equity financing tools used to raise needed funds for your small business.
A. False B. Partly true
C. Partly false D. True
Q612. _____________ is A certificate issued by a responsible person to an individual about his
conduct, ability, qualifications or credit.
A. Character Certificate B. Graduation Degree
C. Post-graduation Degree D. Testimonial
Q613. Testimonial is A certificate issued by a responsible person to an individual about his
conduct, ability, qualifications or credit.
A. Partly false B. True
C. Partly true D. False
Q614. ________ is the Legal recognition of the ownership of property, usually proven by a
document.
A. Lease Deed B. Sale deed
C. Purchase Deed D. Title

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Q615. Title is Legal recognition of the ownership of property, usually proven by a document.
A. Partly true B. Partly false
C. False D. True
Q616. ____________ isA civil injury or wrong to someone else, or their property.
A. Mistake B. Misrepresentation
C. Fraud D. Tort
Q617 Tort is A civil injury or wrong to someone else, or their property.
A. Partly true B. True
C. Partly false D. False
Q618. TQM refers to:
A. Total Quantity Management B. Total Quality Manager
C. Total Quality Management D. Travel Quality Management
Q619. ___________ is A discount given by one business to another which is making a
purchase for resale to ultimate customers thereby enabling the buyers to earn profits.
A. Trade discounts B. Cash discounts
C. Cash discount D. All of above
Q620. Special discount is A discount given by one business to another which is making a
purchase for resale to ultimate customers thereby enabling the buyers to earn profits.
A. True B. Partly true
C. False D. Partly false
Q621. ___________ is A distinctive mark or sign or symbol protected by law and placed on
goods to identify the manufacturer.
A. Transmission B. Trademark
C. Copyright D. None of above
Q622. Trademark is A distinctive mark or sign or symbol protected by law and placed on goods
to identify the manufacturer.
A. True B. Partly false
C. False D. Partly true
Q623_____________ is the process of transferring the ownership of securities after the death
of the holder to the legal heirs.
A. Communication B. Transmit

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C. Usage D. Transmission
Q624. TRAI stands for:
A. Telecom Regulatory Authority of India B. Telecom Regulatory Authority of Israel
C. Telecom Regulatory Association of India D. Transport Regulatory Authority of India

Q625. ____________ is A short term bearer discount security issued by Governments as a

means of financing their cash requirements.
A. Loans B. Bills
C. Bill of exchange D. Treasury bills
Q626. Bond is short term bearer discount security issued by Governments as a means of
financing their cash requirements.
A. False B. True
C. Partly true D. Partly false
Q627. _____________ means when any person enter someone’s land or property without their
permission. It is an offence which is punishable in law.
A. Mistake B. Undue influence
C. Misrepresentation D. Trespass
Q628. Trespass means To enter someone’s land or property without their permission. It is an
offence which is punishable in law.
A. Partly false B. False
C. Partly true D. True
Q629. ___________ is A person who holds property in trust for another for the use or benefit of
another.
A. Underwriter B. Trust
C. Trustee D. Holder
Q630. Author is A person who holds property in trust for another for the use or benefit of
another.
A. Partly false B. True
C. Partly true D. False
Q631. __________ is the total value of goods and services sold or provided in a given period,
usually during a year by a trading organization.
A. Gross sales B. Net worth

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C. Turnover D. Net value
Q632. Turnover means The total value of goods and services bought in a given period, usually
during a year by a trading organization.
A. True B. False
C. Partly false D. Partly true
Q633. _____________ is One who undertakes in return for a commission to purchase shares
offered to public and not subscribed for, up to an agreed number.
A. Usury B. Underwriter
C. Writer D. None of above
Q634. Underwriter is One who undertakes in return for a commission to purchase shares
offered to public and not subscribed for, up to an agreed number.
A. Partly false B. Partly true
C. False D. True
Q635. _________ are Loans that are not backed by collateral
A. Long-term loan B. Secured loan
C. Term loan D. Unsecured loan
Q636.secured loan are the Loans that are not backed by collateral
A. Partly false B. True
C. Partly true D. False
Q637. ___________ are an excellent example of unsecured loans that are a good option for
small business funding when combined with other financing options.
A. Credit cards B. Cheque
C. Debit cards D. Overdraft
Q638. ______________ is a Document by which an advocate is authorized to represent a party
in court.
A. Vakalathnama B. Usuy
C. Case D. Visa
Q639. Vakalathnama is a Document by which an advocate is authorized to represent a party in
court.
A. Partly true B. True
C. Partly false D. False

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Q640. ___________ is A straight fixed rate issue which has terms and conditions usually
accepted as being conventional to a particular securities market.
A. Vanilla issue B. VAT
C. Chocolate issue D. None of above

Q641. Vanilla issue is A straight fixed rate issue which has terms and conditions usually
accepted as being conventional to a particular securities market.
A. True B. Partly true
C. False D. Partly false
Q642. Zero Coupon Bond is sold originally at a substantial discount from its eventual maturity
value, paying the investor its full face value when it comes due.
A. Partly false B. True
C. Partly true D. False

Q643. VAT was a tax levied at specific rates on the selling price of goods at each stage of
production and distribution
A. True B. Partly false
C. False D. Partly true
Q644. ____________ means the Capital invested in a business on the basis that the investor
receives a share in the outcome of the enterprise rather than an agreed fixed rate of
return.
A. Venture capital B. Capital employed
C. Working capital D. None of above
Q645. capital employed means Capital invested in a business on the basis that the investor
receives a share in the outcome of the enterprise rather than an agreed fixed rate of
return.
A. False B. Partly true
C. True D. Partly false
Q646. ____________ is an endorsement made on the passport of the traveler by the envoy of
the country to which he intends to travel.
A. Travel B. Passport
C. Tickets D. VISA

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Q647. Ticket is an endorsement made on the passport of the traveler by the envoy of the
country to which he intends to travel.
A. Partly false B. Partly true
C. True D. False
Q648 _____________ is A document or some such evidence of some transaction, usually
payment of money.
A. Voucher B. Bank statement
C. Gifts D. Cheque
Q649. Voucher is A document or some such evidence of some transaction, usually payment of
money.
A. Partly true B. False
C. Partly false D. True
Q650. ________ is the Remuneration paid to manual workers.
A. Daily pay B. Salary
C. Wages D. Remuneration
Q651. Salary is the Remuneration paid to manual workers.
A. False B. True
C. Partly true D. Partly false
Q652. __________________ is A tradable instrument giving the holder the right to buy from the
issuer a fixed income security or equity stock under specified conditions after some
period of time.
A. Debenture B. Certificate
C. Stock D. Warrant
Q653. Warrant is A tradable instrument giving the holder the right to buy from the issuer a fixed
income security or equity stock under specified conditions after some period of time.
A. Partly false B. False
C. Partly true D. True
Q654. _________________ is A contractual obligation, which entitles the injured party to seek
damages but not to cancel the contract.
A. Gurantee B. Indemnity
C. Condition D. Warranty

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Q655. Warranty is A contractual obligation, which entitles the injured party to seek damages but
not to cancel the contract.
A. Partly false B. Partly true
C. True D. False
Q656 ____________ is A general term applied to a person or group appointed or set up to
safeguard the interests of a particular group.
A. Wolf B. Watch guard
C. Watchdog D. None of above
Q657. Watchdog is A general term applied to a person or group appointed or set up to
safeguard the interests of a particular group.
A. Partly true B. Partly false
C. Partly false D. True
Q658. ____________ is the process that brings to a conclusion the life of a company.
A. Winding up B. Liquidation
C. Shut down point D. Dissolution
Q659. Dissolution is the process that brings to a conclusion the life of a company.
A. Partly false B. True
C. Partly true D. False

Q660. ____________ is aman oeuvre engaged in by companies, banks, mutual funds etc., at
the end of the accounting period in order to impress stock holders who will be receiving
the report showing that funds are better managed and invested than what might have
been drawn up.
A. Mediation B. banker
C. Arbitrator D. Window dressing
Q661. Window dressing is Aman oeuvre engaged in by companies, banks, mutual funds etc., at
the end of the accounting period in order to impress stock holders who will be receiving
the report showing that funds are better managed and invested than what might have
been drawn up.
A. Partly true B. True
C. Partly false D. False
Q662. __________ are the Speculators who make a kill in the market.
A. Wolf B. Watchdog

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C. Liquidator D. Petitioner
Q663. Wolf are Speculators who make a kill in the market.
A. True B. False
C. Partly true D. Partly false
Q664 __________ consists of the financial resources necessary for maintaining the day-to-day
operation of the business.
A. Operating capital B. Processing capital
C. Working capital D. Daily capital
Q665. Fixed capital consists of the financial resources necessary for maintaining the day-to-day
operation of the business.
A. False B. Partly false
C. Partly true D. True
Q666. _________ is A document issued by the court directing the respondent to do or not to do
some specified act.
A. Usury B. Writ
C. Tort D. Warrant
Q667. Summon is A document issued by the court directing the respondent to do or not to do
some specified act.
A. True B. False
C. Partly true D. Partly false
Q668. _______________ is a writ, is a direction that the Court issues, which is to be obeyed by
the authority/person to whom it is issued.
A. Watchdog B. Writ
C. Writ & writ petition D. None of above
Q669. Writ & writ petition is a writ, is a direction that the Court issues, which is to be obeyed by
the authority/person to whom it is issued.
A. Partly false B. False
C. True D. Partly true
Q670 ____________ means to extinguish or cancel a debt, treating it as if it has been paid by
debiting it from the profit and loss account.
A. Write off B. Writ
C. Usury D. None of above

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Q671.………………… is sold originally at a substantial discount from its eventual maturity value,
paying the investor its full face value when it comes due.
A. Voucher B. Coupon
C. Zero Coupon Bond D. None of above
Q672. ____________ is a bond that pays no interest while the investor holds it.
A. Voucher B. Coupon
C. Zero Coupon Bond D. None of above

Q673. Zero Coupon Bond Is A bond that pays no interest while the investor holds it.
A. Partly false B. True
C. Partly true D. False
Q674. _________ is the Authority given to take some action.
A. Decree B. Authorize
C. License D. Mandate
Q675. Mandate is the Authority given to take some action.
A. True B. Partly true
C. Partly false D. False
Q676. ________ promises an instant delivery.
A. Spot sale B. Spot delivery
C. Takeover D. None of above
Q677. Proprietor isA person who owns or has a share in the ownership of a business.
A. True B. Partly false
C. False D. Partly true
Q678. ____________ means To carry on a case or judicial proceeding. To proceed against a
person criminally.
A. Preserve B. Prosecute
C. Process D. None of above
Q679. Prosecute means To proceed against a person criminally.
A. True B. False
C. Partly true D. Partly false

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Q680. _____________ isAlso called the state's attorney.
A. Lawyer B. Prosecutionist
C. Prosecutor D. None of above
Q681. ………………..Represents the state in a criminal case against a defendant.
A. Prosecutor B. Lawyer
C. Barrister D. None of above
Q682 shareholders has the rights to recieve an invitation to attend and vote in Annual General
Meetings, to receive a copy of audited results and receive dividend whenever declared.
A. True B. False
C. Partly true D. Partly false
Q683 Stamp duty is the ………..duty paid, evidenced by the affixing of revenue stamps on the
instrument, to give legal effect to the same.
A ad valorem B Ab Valorem
C ad Velarom D Ab Velarom
Q 684 In India stock exchanges are regulated by……………..
A TRAI B SEBI
C NCLT D IRDAI
Answer:

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
A A C A A C A B A A
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
D B A A A D A A A A
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
A A A A C A B B A C
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A B A D A A C B A A
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A A A A B A A C B A
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
A A A A A D A B A A
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A B A C B A C D B D
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
A D C A D B C B C D
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
A B C B A C B D A C
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100

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C B B B B C C B D C
101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
D C C A C D B A B A
111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
D C C A B D D B B B
121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
C D C A A D B C B B
131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
B C A D B A B A D C
141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
B C B A C B B C C B
151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
A C C D C C C C B A
161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
B C C B D C B B A c
171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A C C D A D D C A B
181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190
C D C D C a B A C C
191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
C a C D C C A C D D
201 202 203 204 205 206 207 208 209 210
B D B C B D A C C B
211 212 213 214 215 216 217 218 219 220
D B C A C C C B A C
221 222 223 224 225 226 227 228 229 230
A B C C C A C B A D
231 232 233 234 235 236 237 238 239 240
D C B A C C D C B D
241 242 243 244 245 246 247 248 249 250
A B B D A B D C C C
251 252 253 254 255 256 257 258 259 260
C A D C D C A C D C
261 262 263 264 265 266 267 268 269 270
D B D D C D A D C D
271 272 273 274 275 276 277 278 279 280
D B D C A A D D C B
281 282 283 284 285 286 287 288 289 290
D D C C C D C A C C
291 292 293 294 295 296 297 298 299 300
A C A D B A C B C B
301 302 303 304 305 306 307 308 309 310
C A C D B C D D A C
311 312 313 314 315 316 317 318 319 320
B D B A C A A B C A
321 322 323 324 325 326 327 328 329 330
C D B B D C B A D D
331 332 333 334 335 336 337 338 339 340

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D A D C B A D D B C
341 342 343 344 345 346 347 348 349 350
D A A B B C C B C A
351 352 353 354 355 356 357 358 359 360
B D B B C A D D B A
361 362 363 364 365 366 367 368 369 370
C C B A D C A A A B
371 372 373 374 375 376 377 378 379 380
B C B B A B D B A D
381 382 383 384 385 386 387 388 389 390
B C D D C B B A A B
391 392 393 394 395 396 397 398 399 400
B A B A D A A C C B
401 402 403 404 405 406 407 408 409 410
A B B B A B B B A A
411 412 413 414 415 416 417 418 419 420
B B D B C D B B C B
421 422 423 424 425 426 427 428 429 430
A B D B B A A A B B
431 432 433 434 435 436 437 438 439 440
C D A A B A A B B A
441 442 443 444 445 446 447 448 449 450
A B B B A D C D A B
451 452 453 454 455 456 457 458 459 460
A D C A B A A A A B
461 462 463 464 465 466 467 468 469 470
D A C B B A A B A C
471 472 473 474 475 476 477 478 479 480
D B B D C B A A B B
481 482 483 484 485 486 487 488 489 490
D B C D D C B C C B
491 492 493 494 495 496 497 498 499 500
A D D B B C A C D B
501 502 503 504 505 506 507 508 509 510
C B A A A C A D A D
511 512 513 514 515 516 517 518 519 520
B D A D A C B C A C
521 522 523 524 525 526 527 528 529 530
A B C C D B A A B A
531 532 533 534 535 536 537 538 539 540
D D D A B B B B D A
541 542 543 544 545 546 547 548 549 550
C A B D A C B D C B
551 552 553 554 555 556 557 558 559 560
A B D B B B A C A B
561 562 563 564 565 566 567 568 569 570
A A A B C C D B A B
571 572 573 574 575 576 577 578 579 580

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A B D C A D B A B A
581 582 583 584 585 586 587 588 589 590
D A C D A D D B D A
591 592 593 594 595 596 597 598 599 600
C C B A C C A D D D
601 602 603 604 605 606 607 608 609 610
C B D A D C B C D A
611 612 613 614 615 616 617 618 619 620
A D B D D D B C A C
621 622 623 624 625 626 627 628 629 630
B A D A D A D D C D
631 632 633 634 635 636 637 638 639 640
C A B D D B A A B A
641 642 643 644 645 646 647 648 649 650
A B A A A D D A D C
651 652 653 654 655 656 657 658 659 660
A D B D C C D A D D
661 662 663 664 665 666 667 668 669 670
B A A C A B A C C A
671 672 673 674 675 676 677 678 679 680
C C B D A A A B A C
681 682 683 684
A A A B

PAST Exam Questions

January 2021
Read the passage and answer the following question
Scholarly interest in earthquakes can be traced back to antiquity in 132 CE, Zgabg
Heng of China’s Han dynasty designed the first known seismoscope. The Lisbon
earthquake of 1755, coinciding with the general flowering of science in Europe, set
in motion intensified scientific attempts to understand the behavior and causation of
earthquakes from 1851, Robert Mallet laid the foundation of instrumental
seismology and carried out seismological experiments using explosives. He is also
responsible for coining the word “seismology” seismology has revealed much about
the structure of the Earth’s core, mantle, and crust. The English seismologist
Richard Dixon oldham’s studies of earthquake records in 1906 led to the discovery
of the Earth’s core from studies of the Croatian quake of Oct. 8, 1909, the
geophysicist Andrija Mohorovicic discovered the discontinuity (often called the
Moho) that separates the crust from the underlying mantle. Today there are more
than 1,000 seismograph stations around the world and their data are used to
compile seismicity maps.

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Q.1 Fill in the blanks by selecting one of the terms listed below
An ________ is an official inspection of an organization’s accounts,
typically by an independent body.
a) Audit
b) Appraisal
c) Investigation
d) Inquiry

Q.2 Pick out the right expansion of the highlighted abbreviation:

I got my new SIM
a) Subscriber Identity Mode
b) Subscriber Identification Module
c) Sample Identity Module
d) Subscription Identity Module

Q.3 The word “ Seismology” was coined by _______

a) Andrija Mohorovicic
b) Zhang Heng
c) Robert Mallet
d) Richard Dixon Oldham

Q.4 The discovery of the Earth’s core was a result of studies by ______
a) Andrija Mohorovicic
b) Zhang Heng
c) Robert Mallet
d) Richard Dixon Oldham

Q.5 The first known seismoscope was designed by ____________

a) Andrija Mohorovicic
b) Zhang Heng

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c) Robert mallet
d) Richard Dixon Oldham

May 2021
Q.6 Choose the phrase below that best describes the meaning ‘from the
beginning’
a) ab first b) ab begin
c) ab intio d) ab intern

Q.7 which of the following is a definition of ‘Market’?

a) A inancila institution licensed to received deposits and make
loans
b) A place that provides services to other departments within a
business
c) A place where two parties can gather to facilitate the exchange
of goods and services
d) A place or building equipped for scientific experiments.

Q.8 Replace the sentence with a single word:

A person who decides what will be published in a newspaper
a) Reader b) Buyer
c) Editor d) Writer

Q.9 Hand-held computer devices that can perform a number of different things
like receiving emails, writing messages, sending texts in a word processor are
called.
a) Periodical Digital Assistants
b) Personal Digital Activators
c) Personal Digital Assistants
d) Periodical Digital Accounts

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Q.10 An item of property owned by a person or company, regarded as
having value is
a) an asset b) an investment
c) a loan d) a fee
Q.11 Which of the following options is a synonym of ‘Obese’.
a) overweight b) Thin
c) Slim d) Lean
Q.12 BBC stands for .
a) Broad Band Center
b) British Broadcasting Corporation
c) Bombay Broadcasting Corporation
d) Bombay Broadcasting Center
Q.13 A written order to a person requiring them to make a specified payment to
the signatory or to a named payee is
a) Package deal b) Action plan
c) Bill of exchange d) Default setting

Q.14 Replace the sentence with a single word:

a) Quarantine b) Hospitalisation
c) Pandemic d) Block a de
July 2021
Q.15 Fill in the blank by selecting one of the options listed below:
__________ is having job from which one is unlikely to be dismissed.
a) Job enrichment b) Job description
c) Job security d) Job rotation
Q.16 What is the full form of MCA?
a) Ministry of Consumer Affairs
b) Ministry of cultivation and Administration
c) Ministry of Cultural Affairs
d) Ministry of Corporate Affairs

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Q.17 Fill in the blanks by selecting one of the terms listed below:
______ is the level of human and property loss that can be tolerated by an
individual, household, group, organization, community region, state or
nation.
a) Occupational Hazard b) Terms and conditions
c) Capital gains d) Acceptable risk

Q.18 Complete the Sentence.

The researcher conclusively proved the ______ of her exciting findings.
a) Authenticity b) Marginality
c) Debatebility d) Spuriousness
November 2021
Q.19 Fill in the blanks by selecting one of the options listed below:
_______ is the reduction in the value of an asset over time, particularly
due to wear and tear
a) Bankruptcy b) Depreciation
c) Not loss d) Liquidity
Q.20 Which of the following means of communication is preferred for legal
documentation?
a) Social-media b) written
c) aural d) Sign language
Answers:
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
A B D D B C C C C A
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A B C A C D D A B B

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