P5042&1 WASSCE Name…………..………………...……………….…...
November 2015
BIOLOGY 2&1
Essay & Objective
2𝟏⁄𝟐 hours
2&1 Index Number……….………..……………………..
THE WEST AFRICAN EXAMINATIONS COUNCIL
West African Senior School Certificate Examination
November 2015
BIOLOGY 2&1 21⁄2 hours
Do not open this booklet until you are told to do so. While you are waiting, read the following
instructions carefully.
Write your name and index number in ink in the spaces provided at the top right-hand corner of this
booklet.
This booklet consists of two papers. Answer Paper 2 which comes first, in your answer booklet and
Paper 1 on your Objective Test answer sheet. Paper 2 will last for 1 hour 40 minutes after which the
answer booklet will be collected. Do not start Paper 1 until you are told to do so. Paper 1 will last
for 50 minutes.
© 2015 The West African Examinations Council
sP5042&lfad/pa/gh
2
PAPER 2 1hr 40minutes
ESSAY
[70 marks]
Answer three questions in all; two questions in Section A and one compulsory question in either
Section B or Section C.
No marks will be awarded for answering questions not peculiar to your own country.
Write your answers in ink in your answer booklet.
Large labelled diagrams should be used where they make an answer clearer. The names given for chosen
species must be English or scientific and not vernacular.
Credit will be given for clarity of expression and orderly presentation of answers.
SECTION A
FOR ALL CANDIDATES
Answer two questions only from this section.
1. (a) State the levels of organisation of the following organisms/structures:
(i) Blood;
(ii) Guinea pig;
(iii) Hibiscus flower;
(iv) Human skeleton;
(v) Plasmodium. [5 marks]
(b) What is homeostasis? [3 marks]
(c) (i) Explain briefly how the kidney maintains acid-base balance of the blood. [6 marks]
(ii) Explain two factors that affect the functioning of the kidney. [6 marks]
2. (a) Write the balanced chemical equation for the process of photosynthesis. [4 marks]
(b) Make a diagram 8 cm-10 cm long of the transverse section of a dicotyledonous
leaf and label fully. [11 marks]
(c) State five functions of the mammalian liver. [5 marks]
3. (a) A sample of garden soil was placed in a measuring cylinder, enough water was
added to it. It was shaken and allowed to settle for 30 minutes. Draw a diagram
6 cm- 8 cm long to show the various layers formed and label fully. [7 marks]
(b) State four reasons why each of the following soils is not suitable for crop production:
(i) clayey:
(ii) sandy. [8 marks]
(c) (i) List two examples of refuse. [2 marks]
(ii) State three ways in which refuse is disposed of in the community. [3 marks]
4. (a) What is mutation? [2 marks]
(b) List three symptoms of Down's Syndrome. [3 marks]
(c) State four ways each by which genetics has contributed to improvement in:
(i) medicine;
(ii) agriculture. [8 marks]
(d) (i) Explain the term comparative anatomy. [3 marks]
(ii) State four examples of comparative anatomy. [4 marks]
SECTION B
FOR CANDIDATES IN GHANA ONLY
Answer all the questions in this section.
5. (a) In a tabular form, state four observable differences between the Order
Diptera and Order Lepidoptera. [4 marks]
(b) Explain the following types of sections used in the examination of organs in an organism:
(i) Longitudinal section;
(ii) Transverse section. [4 marks]
(c) List five careers associated with the study of Biology. [5 marks]
(d) Explain briefly the following terms.
(i) endocytosis;
(ii) exocytosis. [4 marks]
(e) Describe briefly the structure of Euglena. [8 marks]
(f) (i) Name three structures that protect the mammalian heart. [3 marks]
(ii) List two mechanisms in flowering plants that perform similar functions as
the pumping of blood by the heart of mammals. [2 marks]
SECTION C
FOR CANDIDATES IN NIGERIA, SIERRA LEONE, THE GAMBIA AND LIBERIA
Answer all the questions in this section.
6. (a) (i) Name the two types of competition in an ecosystem. [2 marks]
(ii) List four factors that bring about competition among organisms. [4 marks]
(iii) Explain briefly the role of competition in the process of succession. [2 marks]
(b) State three ways by which water is lost from living organisms to the atmosphere. [3 marks]
(c) Name two organisms each which are:
(i) fluid feeders;
(ii) filter feeders. [4 marks]
(d) State two functions each of the following parts of the mammalian skin:
(i) cornified layer;
(ii) hair erector muscle;
(iii) sebaceous gland. [6 marks]
(e) State four factors that can result in overcrowding in a habitat. [4 marks]
(f) State five benefits of family planning. [5 marks]
sP5042&1fad/pa/gh
END OF ESSAY TEST
BLANK SHEET
sP5042&1fad/pa/gh
DO NOT TURN OVER THIS PAGE
UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO.
YOU WILL BE PENALIZED SEVERELY IF YOU ARE
FOUND LOOKING AT THE NEXT PAGE BEFORE YOU
ARE TOLD TO DO SO.
PAPER 1 50 minutes
oBJECTIVE TEST
[50 marks]
1. Use 2B pencil throughout.
2. On the pre-printed answer sheet, check that the following details are correctly printed:
(a) In the space marked Name, check your surname followed by your other names.
(b) In the spaces marked Examination, Year, Subject and Paper, check 'WASSCE
November', '2015', 'BIOLOGY', and '1' in that order.
(c) In the box marked Index Number, your index number has been printed vertically in the
spaces on the left-hand side, and each numbered space has been shaded in line with
each digit. Reshade each of the shaded spaces.
(d) In the box marked Subject Code, the digits 504113 are printed vertically in the spaces on
the left-hand side. Reshade the corresponding numbered spaces as you did for your index
number.
3. An example is given below. This is for a male candidate whose name is John Abu DADZIE.
His index number is 7102143958 and he is offering Biology 1.
THE WEST AFRICAN EXAMINATIONS COUNCIL
ANSWER SHEET
PRINT IN BLOCK LETTERS
DADZIE JOHN ABU GHA
Name;
Examination: WASSCE November Year; 2015
Subject: BIOLOGY Paper; 1
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1. .Use grade 2B pencil throughout.
2. Answer each question by choosing one letter and shading it like this: [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] [E]
3. Erase completely any answer you wish to change.
4. Leave extra spaces blank if the answer spaces provided are more than you need.
5. Do not make any markings across the heavy black marks at the sheet right-hand edge of your
answer sheet
sP5042&1fad/pa/gh
6
Answer all the questions.
Each question is followed by four options lettered A to D. Find the correct option for each question and
shade in pencil on your answer sheet, the answer space which bears the same letter as the option you have
chosen.
Give only one answer to each question. An example is given below.
Which part of the gill of fish is involved in gaseous exchange?
A. Gill slits
B. Gill bars
C. Gill covers
D. Gill filaments
The correct answer is Gill filaments, which is lettered D, and therefore answer space D would be
shaded.
Bコ Eコ
コ コ コ コ コ
Aコ Cコ Dコ
Think carefully before you shade the answer spaces; erase completely any answers you wish to change.
Do all rough work on this question paper.
Now answer the following questions.
1. Which of the following statements best describes species? Species
A. is the naming, describing and classifying of organisms.
B. within the same genus share different characteristics.
C. are a group of organisms that interbreed freely to produce viable offspring.
D. within the same genus share very specific characteristics.
Study the diagram below and answer questions 2 to 4.
2. The organism in the diagram belongs to the Class
A. Insecta.
B. Arachnida.
C. Chilopda.
D. Crustacea.
3. In which of the following habitats can the organism be found?
A. Marine
B. Forest
C. Swamp
D. Pond
4. The structural feature that confirms the habitat of the organism is the
A. antenna.
B. compound eyes.
C. abdomen.
D. uropod.
sP5042&1fad/pa/gh
7
5. Algae are protoctists because
A. they lack tissue differentiation.
B. their habitat is mostly terrestrial.
C. their habitat is mostly aquatic.
D. they have root-like and leaf-like structures.
6. In which of the following organisms is the cell not capable of independent existence?
A. Paramecium
B. Euglena
C. Spirogyra
D. Amoeba
7. The structure responsible for reproduction in the cell is
A. nucleus.
B. mitochondrion.
C. endoplasmic reticulum.
D. lysosome.
8. Which of the following statements best defines plasmolysis?
A. Shrinking of cytoplasm away from cell wall as a result of water loss
B. Movement of water from region of higher concentration to region of lower concentration
C. Shrinking of an animal cell placed in a solution weaker than that inside the cell
D. Absorption of water by cells leading to turgidity
9. When the tip of a seedling is removed in an experiment on phototropism, the shoot
A. stops growing.
B. maintains straight growth.
C. bends downward.
D. bends away from light.
The diagram below is an illustration of a plant. Study it carefully and answer questions
10 to 12
10. Which of the labelled parts gives rise to
the part labelled I?
A. II
B. III
C. IV
D. VI
11. The part labelled II is the
A. stem.
B. stolon.
C. rhizoid.
D. sucker.
12. The main difference between the propagation of yam and the plant illustrated is in the
A. presence of the parts labelled V.
B. season of growth.
C. part of the plant that stores food.
D. formation of the plant labelled VI Turn over
sP5042&1fad/pa/gh
8
13. In which vertebrae do vertebrarterial canals occur?
A. Cervical
B. Thoracic
C. Lumbar
D. Sacral
14. Which of the following animals does not possess a closed circulatory system?
A. Toad
B. Cockcroach
C. Tilapia
D. Lizard
15. The thin muscular membrane in lungs of mammals which separates the thoracic and abdominal
cavities is the
A. liver.
B. pleural membrane.
C. intercostal muscle.
D. diaphragm.
16. The main importance of excretion to a living organism is that it
A. gets rid of toxic waste.
B. reduces constipation in the cells.
C. removes all the water from the cells.
D. builds up the body tissues of the cells.
17. A gland in the mammalian skin produces an oily substance known as
A. keratin.
B. sebum.
C. melanin.
D. sweat.
18. One characteristic of hormonal action in humans is that
A. blood transmits information to target areas.
B. their action is initiated by the brain.
C. their response activity is short-lived.
D. the effectors are muscles and glands.
19. An animal that is very active and has good muscular control is likely to have a well developed
A. cerebellum.
B. olfactory lobe.
C. cerebrum.
D. optic lobe.
20. What type of joint connects the incus with the malleus?
A. Hinge
B. Ball and socket
C. Gliding
D. Pivot
21. The most effective method of birth control is the
A. use of intra-uterine devices.
B. use of injectables.
C. regular intake of pills.
D. use of condoms.
sP5042&1fad/pa/gh
9
22. In the alimentary tract of a bird, food is usually stored in the
A. gizzard.
B. beak.
C. crop.
D. proventriculus.
23. The diastema in mammals is associated with feeding in
A. herbivores.
B. carnivores.
C. omnivores.
D. saprophytes.
24. Food from the mouth can enter the following structures except the
A. nostril.
B. pharynx.
C. trachea.
D. Eustachian tube.
25. The layer of cells which is specially designed to absorb sunlight in the leaf is ·
A. upper epidermis.
B. lower epidermis.
C. spongy mesophyll.
D. palisade mesophyll.
26. Which of the following statements is the function of the stomach?
A. Digestion, storage and mechanical breakdown of all food
B. Secretion of acid to kill bacteria and absorption of water and nutrients
C. Churning of food, digestion of protein, secretion of acid to kill bacteria
D. Digestion of protein, absorption of water and nutrients
27. Which of the following food items would produce the greatest amount of energy for a farmer?
A. Beans
B. Vegetables
C. Cabbage
D. Yam
28. Rivers, lakes and oceans are a part of the
A. biosphere.
B. hydrosphere.
C. lithosphere.
D. atmosphere.
29. Which of the following populations of organisms is most likely to go into extinction? A
A. small population in a very unstable environment.
B. large population with a lot of genetic variability.
C. small population with adequate resources.
D. large population with little predation.
30. Interactions between living components and non-living components of an environment constitute
A. an ecosystem.
B. a biotic factor.
C. an abiotic factor.
D. a community.
sP5042&1fad/pa/gh Turn over
10
31. The term turbidity in ecological studies refers to
A. the distribution of plankton in water bodies.
B. the degree of faecal pollution of water bodies.
C. the degree of cloudiness of water bodies.
D. thermal stratification of water bodies.
The diagram below is an illustration of a pyramid of numbers. Study it and answer questions
32 to 34.
32. The diagram also represents
A. trophic levels.
B. histogram.
C. food chains.
D. food web.
33. Which group of organisms are likely to be found in the part labelled III?
A. Producers
B. Carnivores
C. Primary consumers
D. Secondary consumers
34. In which of the labelled parts in the diagram would herbivores be involved in the energy transfer?
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
35. Which of the following statements about parasitic association is not correct?
A. The parasite lives on another organism known as the host.
B. The parasite obtains its food from the host.
C. It is the host that benefits from the association.
D. The parasite is usually smaller than the host.
In a population of rats, the statistics shows 86 births and 34 deaths per 1,000. Use the statement to
answer questions 36 and 37.
36. What is the birth rate of rats?
A. 8.6%
B. 10.9%
C. 34.0%
D. 86.0%
37. What is the growth rate?
A. 5.2%
B. 10.6%
C. 15.2%
D. 25.2%
sP5042&1fad/pa/gh
11
38. HIV/AIDS can be transmitted through the following channels except
A. exchange of body fluids.
B. mother-child transmission.
C. sharing of utensils.
D. sexual intercourse.
39. Wildlife is conserved in
A. game reserves.
B. forest reserves.
C. amusement parks.
D. natural parks.
40. Which of the following practices does not promote soil conservation?
A. Contour ridging
B. Application of manure
C. Bush clearing
D. Crop rotation
41. Afforestation can lead to
A. erosion.
B. flooding.
C. leaching.
D. wind break.
The chart below shows the percentage of human population in a village than can or cannot
move their pinna. Use it to answer question 42.
42. Which type of variation is shown in the population represented in the chart?
A. Continuous
B. Discontinuous
C. Morphological
D. Dual variation
43. A heterozygous Rhesus positive man marries a homozygous Rhesus negative woman What is the
likely disadvantage to the woman during the subsequent pregnancies?
A. Having a Rhesus positive child
B. Shortage of blood
C. Miscarriage
D. Sickle cell offspring
44. Which of the following pairs are genetically identical?
A. Cells extracted from siblings of same parent
B. Cells extracted from two maize plants
C. Two seeds from an orange fruit
D. Two cells from the same plant
Turn over
12
45. If a 26 year old blind man is married to a one-eyed woman and they have four children, how many
of them would likely be blind like their father?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
46. The transmission and expression of traits in organisms from parents to the offspring is called
A. heredity.
B. mutation.
C. variation.
D. evolution.
47. Each DNA nucleotide consists of a sugar, nitrogen base and a
A. phosphate.
B. chloride.
C. sulphate.
D. nitrate.
48. Which of the following animals is a social insect?
A. Mosquito
B. Butterfly
C. Honeybee
D. Grasshopper
The diagram below is an illustration of a modified part of a plant. Study it and answer
questions 49 and 50.
49. The plant is likely to be found in a
A. desert.
B. pond.
C. rain forest.
D. savanna.
50. The main adaptive feature of the plant that enables
it live successfully in its habitat is the
A. thick, fleshy and succulent stems.
B. presence of many stomata on the plant's surface.
C. presence of numerous pneumatophores.
D. few spines on its surface.
END OF PAPER
