BLOOD BANKING PROGRESS EXAM

Total points 59/105

The respondent's email (lenvycahpdelusa@gmail.com) was recorded on submission of this

form.

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KEY *

07-7182023

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SURNAME, FIRST NAME *

Delusa, Len Vycah

SCHOOL *

Holy Name University

LRH SECTION *

SECTION A

SECTION B

SECTION C1

SECTION C2

SECTION D1

SECTION D2

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 Transfusion-transmissible infectious agents for which UNIVERSAL *0/1
SCREENING of all donations in all countries is recommended. Check four
(4) boxes.

Cytomegalovirus (CMV)

Plasmodium sp. (malaria)

Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)

Hepatitis B virus (HBV)

Hepatitis C virus (HCV)

Treponema pallidum (syphilis)

Correct answer

Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)

Hepatitis B virus (HBV)

Hepatitis C virus (HCV)

Treponema pallidum (syphilis)

Feedback

Transfusion-transmissible infectious agents for which universal screening of all donations

in all countries is recommended:

Screening for the following four infections that are transmissible by transfusion is
recommended as mandatory for the provision of a safe blood supply. These infections can
cause chronic disease with possible serious consequences and present the greatest
infection risk to recipients of transfusion:
1. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
2. Hepatitis B virus (HBV)
3. Hepatitis C virus (HCV)
4. Treponema pallidum (syphilis)

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 What is the maximum volume of blood that can be collected from a 110- *1/1
lb donor, including samples for processing?

450 mL

500 mL

525 mL

550 mL

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When RBCs are stored, there is a “shift to the left.” This means: * 0/1

Hemoglobin-oxygen affinity increases, owing to an increase in 2,3 -DPG

Hemoglobin-oxygen affinity increases, owing to a decrease in 2,3-DPG

Hemoglobin-oxygen affinity decreases, owing to a decrease in 2,3-DPG

Hemoglobin-oxygen affinity decreases, owing to an increase in 2,3-DPG

Correct answer

Hemoglobin-oxygen affinity increases, owing to a decrease in 2,3-DPG

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 What are the current storage time and storage temperature for platelet *0/1
concentrates and apheresis platelet components?

5 days at 1°C to 6°C

5 days at 24°C to 27°C

5 days at 20°C to 24°C

7 days at 22°C to 24°C

Correct answer

5 days at 20°C to 24°C

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Prestorage pooled platelets can be stored for: * 0/1

4 hours

24 hours

5 days

7 days

Correct answer

5 days

Feedback

Because they are produced in a CLOSED SYSTEM, they can be stored for 5 days from
collection.

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 Additive solutions are approved for storage of red blood cells for how *0/1
many days?

21

42

35

Correct answer

42

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One criterion used by the FDA for approval of new preservation solutions *0/1
and storage containers is an average 24-hour post-transfusion RBC
survival of more than:

50%

60%

65%

75%

Correct answer

75%

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 What is the lowest allowable pH for a platelet component at outdate? * 0/1

5.9

6.8

6.2

Correct answer

6.2

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Which of the following occurs during storage of red blood cells? * 0/1

pH decreases

2,3-DPG increases

ATP increases

Plasma K+ decreases

Correct answer

pH decreases

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 Which of the following is approved for bacterial detection specific to *0/1
extending the expiration of apheresed platelets to 7 days?

BacT/ALERT

eBDS

Gram stain

Pan Genera Detection (PGD) test

Correct answer

Pan Genera Detection (PGD) test

Feedback

In November 2009, the FDA approved the first rapid test to detect bacteria in platelets—the
Pan Genera Detection (PGD) test (Verax Biomedical).

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The pattern of inheritance most commonly expressed by blood group *0/1

genes is:

X-linked recessive

Autosomal recessive

Autosomal codominant

X-linked codominant

Correct answer

Autosomal codominant
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RBCs must be washed in saline at least three times before the addition of *1/1
AHG reagent to:

Wash away any hemolyzed cells

Remove traces of free serum globulins

Neutralize any excess AHG reagent

Increase the antibody binding to antigen

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You are working on a specimen in the laboratory that you believe to be a *0/1
Bombay phenotype. Which of the following reactions would you expect to
see?

Patient’s cells + Ulex europaeus = no agglutination

Patient’s cells + Ulex europaeus = agglutination

Patient’s serum + group O donor RBCs = no agglutination

Patient’s serum + A1 and B cells = no agglutination

Correct answer

Patient’s cells + Ulex europaeus = no agglutination

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 Which of the following ABO blood groups contains the least amount of H *1/1
substance?

A1B

A2

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Cells carrying a weak D antigen require the use of what test to *0/1
demonstrate its presence?

Indirect antiglobulin test

Direct antiglobulin test

Microplate test

Warm autoadsorption test

Correct answer

Indirect antiglobulin test

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 Which of the following is the most common haplotype in the African *1/1
American population?

DCe

DcE

Dce

ce

Feedback

R0 (Dce) Blacks

R1 (DCe) Whites, Native Americans, Asians

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If a patient who is R1R1 is transfused with RBCs that are R0r, which *1/1
antibody is he most likely to produce?

Anti-D

Anti-c

Anti-e

Anti-G

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 The following results were obtained on a 51-year-old male with hepatitis *0/1
C:

Retype the patient’s sample to confirm group AB positive

Repeat the Rh typing

Run a saline control in forward grouping

Report the patient as group AB, Rh positive

Correct answer

Run a saline control in forward grouping

Feedback

In the case of an AB-positive person, a saline control must be run in forward grouping to
obtain a negative reaction; this will ensure agglutination is specific in the other reactions.

When samples test AB Rh-positive or when the Rh test is performed by itself, a separate
saline control or 6% to 8% albumin control must be used to ensure the observed reactions
are true agglutination and not a result of spontaneous agglutination.

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 What is the purpose of including a reagent control when interpreting *0/1
group AB, D-positive red cells after testing with a low-protein anti-D
reagent?

To detect false-positive agglutination reactions

To detect false-negative agglutination reactions

To identify a mix up with patient’s sample

To confirm ABO typing results

Correct answer

To detect false-positive agglutination reactions

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Transformation to Leb phenotype after birth may be as follows: * 0/1

Le(a–b–) to Le(a+b–) to Le(a+b+) to Le(a–b+)

Le(a+b–) to Le(a–b–) to Le(a–b+) to Le(a+b+)

Le(a–b+) to Le(a+b–) to Le(a+b+) to Le(a–b–)

Le(a+b+) to Le(a+b–) to Le(a–b–) to Le(a–b+)

Correct answer

Le(a–b–) to Le(a+b–) to Le(a+b+) to Le(a–b+)

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 In what way do the Lewis antigens change during pregnancy? * 0/1

Lea antigen increases only

Leb antigen increases only

Lea and Leb both increase

Lea and Leb both decrease

Correct answer

Lea and Leb both decrease

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The most commonly encountered of the Lewis antibodies: * 1/1

Anti-Le a

Anti-Le b

Anti-Le bH

Anti-Le bL

Feedback

Anti-Lea is the most commonly encountered of the Lewis antibodies and is often detected
in room temperature tests, but it sometimes reacts at 37°C and in the indirect antiglobulin
test.

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 Which of the following best describes MN antigens and antibodies? * 0/1

Well developed at birth, susceptible to enzymes, generally saline reactive

Not well developed at birth, susceptible to enzymes, generally saline reactive

Well developed at birth, not susceptible to enzymes, generally saline reactive

Well developed at birth, susceptible to enzymes, generally antiglobulin reactive

Correct answer

Well developed at birth, susceptible to enzymes, generally saline reactive

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Which autoantibody specificity is found in patients with paroxysmal cold *1/1

hemoglobinuria?

Anti-I

Anti-i

Anti-P

Anti-P1

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 Which of the following is the most common antibody seen in the blood *1/1
bank after ABO and Rh antibodies?

Anti-Fya

Anti-k

Anti-Jsa

Anti-K

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Which antibody is most commonly associated with delayed hemolytic *1/1

transfusion reactions?

Anti-s

Anti-k

Anti-Lu

Anti-Jk

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 A patient with an M. pneumoniae infection will most likely develop a cold *1/1
autoantibody with specificity to which antigen?

P1

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The antibody to this high-prevalence antigen demonstrates mixed-field *1/1

agglutination that appears shiny and refractile under the microscope.

Vel

JMH

Jr

Sd

Feedback

Anti-Sda has characteristic shiny and refractile agglutinates under the microscope and is
inhibited with urine from Sd(a+) individuals and guinea pigs.

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 What red blood cell treatment can be used to differentiate between anti-D *1/1
and anti-LW?

Ficin

Trypsin

Dithiothreitol (DTT)

Papain

Feedback

Anti-LW does not react with DTT-treated D+ RBCs but anti-D does.

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A weakly reactive antibody with a titer of 128 is neutralized by plasma. *0/1

Which of the following could be the specificity?

Anti-JMH

Anti-Ch

Anti-Kn

Anti-Kp

Correct answer

Anti-Ch

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 The prevalence of ____ in Northern Europeans is 1% but is higher in the *1/1
Mennonite population

Diego a

Diego b

Scianna 1

Scianna 2

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 Anti-Sda has been identified in a patient. What substance would *1/1
neutralize this antibody and allow detection of other alloantibodies?

Saliva

Hydatid cyst fluid

Urine

Human breast milk

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How many days before a pretransfusion specimen expires? * 1/1

3 days

7 days

14 days

1 month

Feedback

Pretransfusion specimens must be collected within 3 days of the scheduled transfusion.

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 How many days must a pretransfusion specimen and donor unit *1/1
segments be retained post-transfusion?

3 days

7 days

14 days

1 month

Feedback

The patient sample and a segment from the donor unit must be retained post-transfusion
for at least 7 days. This allows for the investigation of any adverse events related to
transfusion, such as a delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction.

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Which is not true of rouleaux formation? * 1/1

Mimics agglutination

Appears like a “stacking of coins”

Can be seen in the antiglobulin test

Can be dispersed by saline

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 Protein A captures antibodies by binding to the: * 1/1

Fab portion of immunoglobulin

Fc portion of immunoglobulin

Surface of test cells

Surface of indicator cells

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Immunization for rubella (German measles) would result in a temporary *1/1

deferral for:

4 weeks

2 weeks

1 year

3 years

Feedback

RUBELLA (GERMAN MEASLES) VACCINATION - 4 weeks deferral

RUBEOLA (MEASLES) VACCINATION - 2 weeks deferral

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 Which of the following carries a 12-month deferral? * 1/1

Donor received Hepatitis B immune globulin

Donor received pituitary growth hormone from another human

Donor received the MMR vaccine

Donor spent 10 years in Africa

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A first-trimester or second trimester abortion or miscarriage: * 0/1

4 weeks deferral

6 weeks deferral

12 months deferral

Not cause for deferral

Correct answer

Not cause for deferral

Feedback

A first-trimester or second trimester abortion or miscarriage is not cause for deferral.

Female donors should be temporarily deferred for 6 weeks following termination of

pregnancy. Exceptions can be made by the blood bank medical director for an autologous
donation if complications are
anticipated at delivery.

A 12-month deferral would apply if the woman received a transfusion during her
pregnancy.
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Donors who have received a transfusion of blood or its components or *1/1

other human tissues (organ, tissue, bone marrow transplant, or bone or
skin graft) known to be possible sources of bloodborne pathogens
should be deferred for _____ from the time of receiving the blood product
or graft

4 weeks

6 weeks

12 months

3 years

Feedback

Donors who during the preceding 12 months have received a transfusion of blood or its
components or other human tissues (organ, tissue, bone marrow transplant, or bone or
skin graft) known to be possible sources of bloodborne pathogens should be deferred for
12 months from the time of receiving the blood product or graft.

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 Currently, steps taken to reduce transfusion-transmitted CMV include: * 0/1

Plaque reduction neutralization test

NAT testing

Leukoreduction

Minipool screening

Correct answer

Leukoreduction

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The first retrovirus to be associated with human disease was: * 1/1

HCV

HIV-1

HTLV-1

WNV

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 What is the most common parasitic complication of transfusion? * 1/1

Babesia microti

Trypanosoma cruzi

Plasmodium species

Toxoplasma gondii

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RBCs that have been leukoreduced must contain less than ______ *0/1
leukocytes and retain at least ______ of original RBCs.

8 × 10 6th/ 85%

8 × 10 6th/ 90%

5 × 10 6th/ 85%

5 × 10 6th / 80%

Correct answer

5 × 10 6th/ 85%

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 Patient with APLASTIC ANEMIA should be transfused with: * 0/1

Fresh whole blood (FWB)

Washed RBCs less than 7 days old

Fresh frozen plasma and platelets

Cryoprecipitated AHF

Correct answer

Washed RBCs less than 7 days old

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Leukocyte-reduced filters can do all of the following except: * 0/1

Reduce the risk of CMV infection

Prevent or reduce the risk of HLA alloimmunization

Prevent febrile, nonhemolytic transfusion reactions

Prevent TA-GVHD

Correct answer

Prevent TA-GVHD

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 Which patient does NOT need an irradiated component? * 0/1

Bone marrow transplant recipient

Neonate weighing less than 1,200 g

Adult receiving an RBC transfusion

Adult receiving an RBC transfusion from a blood relative

Correct answer

Adult receiving an RBC transfusion

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RBC transfusions should be given: * 0/1

Within 4 hours

With lactated Ringer solution

With dextrose and water

With cryoprecipitate

Correct answer

Within 4 hours

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 Which type of transplantation requires all cellular blood components to *1/1
be irradiated?

Bone marrow

Heart

Liver

Kidney

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Select the appropriate product for a bone marrow transplant patient with *1/1
anemia:

RBCs

Irradiated RBCs

Leukoreduced RBCs

Washed RBCs

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 Which fluid should be used to dilute RBCs? * 0/1

0.9% saline

5% dextrose and water

Immune globulin

Lactated Ringer solution

Correct answer

0.9% saline

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Fatal transfusion reactions are mostly caused by: * 0/1

Serologic errors

Improper storage of blood

Improper handling of the product

Clerical errors

Correct answer

Clerical errors

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 Pain at infusion site and hypotension are observed with what type of *1/1
reaction?

Delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction

Acute hemolytic transfusion reaction

Allergic reaction

Febrile nonhemolytic reaction

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The most common isolate found in RBC units: * 1/1

Bacillus cereus

Propionobacterium acnes

Staphylococcus epidermidis

Yersinia enterocolitica

Feedback

According to the CDC, Yersinia enterocolitica is the most common isolate found in RBC
units, followed by the Pseudomonas species. Together, these two account for more than
80% of all bacterial infections transmitted by RBCs.

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 The organisms most frequently recovered from donated blood and *0/1
contamination of platelets:

Yersinia enterocolitica and Pseudomonas species

Yersinia enterocolitica and Propionobacterium acnes

Staphylococcus aureus and Bacillus cereus

Staphylococcus epidermidis and Bacilus cereus

Correct answer

Staphylococcus epidermidis and Bacilus cereus

Feedback

Staphylococcus epidermidis, and Bacillus cereus (both gram-positive) are the organisms
most frequently recovered from donated blood and contamination of platelets.

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The only presenting sign most often accompanying a delayed hemolytic *0/2
transfusion reaction is:

Renal failure

Unexplained decrease in hemoglobin

Active bleeding

Hives

Correct answer

Unexplained decrease in hemoglobin

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Which transfusion reaction presents with fever, maculopapular rash, *1/1

watery diarrhea, abnormal liver function, and pancytopenia?

Transfusion-associated sepsis

Transfusion-related acute lung injury

Transfusion-associated graft-versus-host disease

Transfusion-associated allergic reaction

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The most common anticoagulant used for apheresis procedures is: * 1/1

Heparin

Sodium fluoride

Warfarin

Citrate

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 The minimum interval allowed between plateletpheresis component *0/1
collection procedures is:

1 day

2 days

7 days

8 weeks

Correct answer

2 days

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Which of the following can be given to an apheresis donor to increase the *1/1
number of circulating granulocytes?

DDAVP

Hydroxyethyl starch (HES)

Immune globulin

G-CSF

Feedback

Hematopoietic growth factors, in particular GCSF, are commonly used prior to the
collection procedure to increase the number of circulating stem cells in the peripheral
circulation.

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 Acute transfusion reactions: signs or symptoms presenting during or *1/1
within ___ hours of transfusion

Within 4 hours

Within 24 hours

Within 48 hours

Within 72 hours

Feedback

A transfusion reaction with signs or symptoms presenting during or within 24 hours of

transfusion is defined as an acute transfusion reaction.

A transfusion reaction with signs or symptoms presenting after 24 hours of transfusion is

defined as a delayed transfusion reaction.

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 In humans, there are ____ chromosomes. * 0/1

2 chromosomes (1 pair)

22 chromosomes (11 pairs)

44 chromosomes (22 pairs)

46 chromosomes (23 pairs)

Correct answer

46 chromosomes (23 pairs)

Feedback

In humans, there are 46 chromosomes. These 46 chromosomes are arranged into pairs,
with one of each being inherited from each parent. Humans have 22 autosomes and one
set of sex chromosomes, XX in the female and XY in the male.

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Humans have ___ autosomes and ____ of sex chromosomes, * 1/1

1 pair of autosomes, 23 pairs sex chromosomes

22 pairs of autosomes, 2 pairs sex chromosomes

22 pairs of autosomes, 1 pair sex chromosomes

23 pairs of autosomes, 1 pair sex chromosomes

Feedback

Humans have 22 pairs of autosomes and one pair of sex chromosomes (the X and Y).
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A1 individuals: * 1/1

A antigen

A and A1 antigens

Anti-A2

Production of only 240,000 to 290,000 antigen sites on the adult RBCs

Feedback

A1: A and A1 antigens, produces Anti-H

Potent gene A1 creates from 810,000 to 1,170,000 antigen sites on the adult RBCs

A2: A antigen only, produces Anti-A1

Inheriting an A2 gene, results in the production of only 240,000 to 290,000 antigen sites on
the adult A2 RBCs

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 The ultimate goal of biological safety is to: * 0/1

Provide safe and sterile working area

Provide immunity to healthcare workers

Prevent completion of the chain of infection by preventing transmission

Prevent the spread of harmful aerosols

Correct answer

Prevent completion of the chain of infection by preventing transmission

Feedback

The ultimate goal of biological safety is to prevent completion of the chain by preventing
transmission.

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 Which of the following includes an amorph? * 0/1

DcE

DCE

dce

All of these

Correct answer

dce

Feedback

d is an amorph

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 A cause of indefinite deferral of blood donation is: * 0/1

German measles vaccination

Residence in an endemic malaria region

Positive test for Trypanosoma cruzi

History of therapeutic rabies vaccine

Correct answer

Positive test for Trypanosoma cruzi

Feedback

Present or past clinical laboratory evidence of infection with Trypanosoma Cruz (Chagas
disease) is cause for an indefinite deferral from blood donation.

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Which one of the following constitutes permanent deferral status of a *1/1

donor?

Tattoo 5 months previously

Recent close contact with a patient with viral hepatitis

2 units of blood transfused 4 months previously

Confirmed positive test for HBsAg 10 years previously

Feedback

A positive test for HBsAg at any time is a permanent deferral.

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Which of the following donors may be accepted as a blood donor? * 1/1

Traveled to an area endemic for malaria 9 months previously

Spontaneous abortion at 2 months, 3 months previously

Resides with a known hepatitis B patient

Received blood transfusion 22 weeks previously

Feedback

A first-trimester or second-trimester abortion or miscarriage is not cause for deferral.

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In order to be a plateletpheresies donor, the platelet count must be at *1/1

least:

150,000/uL

200,000/uL

250,000/uL

300,000/uL

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 Prior to blood donation, the intended venipuncture site must be cleaned *1/1
with a scrub solution containing:

Hypochlorite

Green soap

10% acetone

Povidone iodine

Feedback

The scrub must used povidone-iodine. Donors who are sensitive to iodine can have the
area cleaned with a preparation of 2% chlorhexidine and 70% isopropyl alcohol.

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 What is/are the minimum pretransfusion testing requirement(s) for *0/1
autologous donations collected and transfused by the same facility?

ABO and Rh typing only

ABO/Rh type and antibody screen

ABO/Rh type, antibody screen, crossmatch

No pretransfusion testing is required for autologous donation

Correct answer

ABO and Rh typing only

Feedback

Only ABO and Rh typing are required with the patient's sample. Each autologous unit must
be confirmed for ABO and RH from an integrally attached segment.

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 Upon inspection, a unit of aphaeresis platelets is noted to have visible 1/1
clots, but otherwise appears normal. The technologist should:

Issue without concern

Filter to remove clots

Centrifuge to express off the clots

Quarantine for Gram stain and culture

Feedback

Clots in the unit may indicate bacterial contamination.

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An important determinant of platelet viability during storage is: * 1/1

Plasma potassium concentration

Plasma pH

Prothrombin time

Partial thromboplastin time

Feedback

The pH of platelets should be maintained at 6.2 or above throughout the storage period.

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The term PHENOTYPE refers to the test results obtained with specific antisera, *
and the term GENOTYPE refers to the genetic makeup of an individual.

Noted

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An individual's red blood cells give the following reactions with RH *1/1
antisera: anti-D (4+), anti-C (3+), anti-E (neg), anti-c(3+) anti-e (3+). The
individual's most probable GENOTYPE is:

DCe/DcE

DcE/dce

Dce/dce

DCe/dce

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 An individual's red blood cells give the following reactions with RH *0/1
antisera: anti-D (4+), anti-C (3+), anti-E (neg), anti-c(3+) anti-e (3+). The
individual's PHENOTYPE is:

Dce/dce

DCe/dce

DCce

Dce

Correct answer

DCce

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 ABO hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (HDFN) differs from Rh *0/1
HDFN in that:

Rh HDFN is clinically more severe than ABO HDFN

The direct antiglobulin test is weaker in Rh HDFN than ABO

Rh HDFN occurs in the first pregnancy

The mother's antibody screen is positive in ABO HDFN

Correct answer

Rh HDFN is clinically more severe than ABO HDFN

Feedback

ABO HDFN is a mild disease that may occur in any ABO-incompatible pregnancy including
the first, since antibodies are naturally occurring.

Rh HDFN does not occur until the mother has become immunized. Once this happens,
subsequent pregnancies may be quite severely affected. The DAT is typically weak or even
negative in ABO HDFN and strongly positive in Rh HDFN.

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RBCs agglutinated by Dolichos biflorus: * 1/1

O red cells

B and AB red cells

A2 and A2B red cells

A1 and A1B red cells

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 Some blood group antibodies characteristically hemolyze appropriate *1/1
antigen-positive red cells in the presence of :

Complement

Anticoagulants

Preservatives

Penicillin

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The major crossmatch will detect a(an): * 1/1

Group A patient mistyped as O

Unexpected red cell antibody in the donor unit

Rh-negative donor unit mislabeled as Rh-positive

Recipient antibody directed against antigens on the donor red cells

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In the Fisher-Race nomenclature, "d" represents: * 1/1

Presence of D antigen

Absence of D antigen

Elimination of D antigen

Weak D antigen
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If the Du rosette test is positive, quantitation of the fetomaternal *1/1

hemorrhage must be done by:

Spectrophotometric technique

Indirect antiglobulin test

Flow cytometry

Hemagglutination-inhibition test

Feedback

Massive fetomaternal hemorrhages of more than 30 mL of whole blood occur in less than
1% of deliveries. These massive hemorrhages can lead to immunization if adequate RhIG
is not administered. A maternal sample should be obtained within 1 hour of delivery and
screened—using a test such as the rosette technique—for massive fetomaternal
hemorrhage.

If positive, quantitation of the hemorrhage must be done by Kleihauer-Betke or by flow

cytometry.

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 Performed as early as 10 to 12 weeks’ gestation to determine whether *1/1
the FETUS has the gene for the D antigen:

Amniocentesis

Cordocentesis

Peripheral blood sample

None of these

Feedback

If the mother has anti-D and the father is likely to be heterozygous for the D antigen,
amniocentesis or chorionic villous sampling can be performed as early as 10 to 12 weeks’
gestation to determine whether the fetus has the gene for the D antigen.

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Defined as the proportion of cases with a specific disease or condition *1/1

that give a positive test result:

Sensitivity

Specificity

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 Defined as the proportion of cases with absence of the specific disease *1/1
or condition that gives a negative test result:

Sensitivity

Specificity

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How are Rh antigens inherited? * 1/1

Autosomal recessive alleles

Sex-linked genes

Codominant alleles

X-linked

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 Which animal was immunized that led to discovery of the Rh blood *1/1
group?

Mice

Bats

Guinea pigs and rabbits

Rhesus macaque monkeys

Feedback

Landsteiner and Wiener reported on an antibody made by guinea pigs and rabbits when
they were transfused with Rhesus macaque monkey RBCs.

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Agglutination with yellow anti-serum, no agglutination with blue anti- *0/1

serum :

A+

B+

Correct answer

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 Reported the use of sodium citrate as an anticoagulant solutions for *0/1
transfusions in 1914:

Edward Lindemann

Hustin

Lewisohn

Rous and Turner

Correct answer

Hustin

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Introduced citrate-dextrose solution for preservation of blood in 1916: * 1/1

Edward Lindemann

Hustin

Lewisohn

Rous and Turner

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 Prospective donors with a history of SYPHILIS or GONORRHEA, of *1/1
treatment for either, or of a reactive screening test for syphilis, or where
no confirmatory test was performed, should be deferred for ___months
AFTER COMPLETION OF THERAPY.

3 months

6 months

12 months

36 months

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Donor deferral after complete recovery from tuberculosis: * 0/1

3 months

6 months

12 months

24 months

Correct answer

24 months

Feedback

Completion of therapy + 2 negative follow-up sputum exam.

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 For ABO grouping, mix red cell suspension and antiserum and centrifuge *0/1
for approximately:

10 seconds

15 seconds

20 seconds

60 seconds

Correct answer

20 seconds

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Centrifugation for the GEL TEST: * 0/1

5 minutes

10 minutes

15 minutes

20 minutes

Correct answer

10 minutes

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 Shelf-life of FFP stored at -18C: * 1/1

24 hours

1 year

2 years

7 years

10 years

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Shelf-life of FFP stored at -65C: * 1/1

24 hours

1 year

2 years

7 years

10 years

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 Fresh frozen plasma must be thawed at which temperature? * 1/1

1 to 6C

Room temperature

37C

40C or higher

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Once thawed, FFP must be transfused within: * 1/1

4 hours

6 hours

12 hours

24 hours

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THAWED UNPOOLED cryoprecipitate must be transfused within: * 1/1

4 hours

6 hours

12 hours

24 hours
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What is the expiration of cryoprecipitate once pooled? * 0/1

4 hours

6 hours

8 hours

24 hours

Correct answer

4 hours

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Incubation time for the GEL TEST and solid-phase red cell adherence test: * 0/1

5 minutes

10 minutes

15 minutes

20 minutes

Correct answer

15 minutes

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 What component is indicated for patients who have anti-IgA antibodies? * 0/1

Whole blood

Packed RBCs

Washed RBCs

Granulocytes

Correct answer

Washed RBCs

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The blood warmer should have automatic temperature control with an *1/1
ALARM that will sound if the blood is warmed:

Over 37C

Over 42C

Over 50C

Over 56C

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STANDARD OPERATING PROCEDURE (SOP) manuals are integral *1/1
components of any blood bank laboratory’s quality-assurance program.
They are reviewed at least _____ and updated on a regular basis to reflect
changes in operations and implementation of new regulations.

Annually

Every 2 years

Every 5 years

Every 10 years

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