MEDICAL TECHNOLOGY INTERNSHIP
SEROLOGY-IMMUNOLOGY & BLOOD BANKING
1. He was said to have been given the world's first blood transfu-
sion by his Jewish physician Giacomo di San Genesio, who had
him drink the blood of three 10-year-old boys.
a. Pope Innocent VII c. Pope Gregory III
b. Pope Pius I d. Pope Boniface IV
2. The number of H antigen structures currently identified are:
a. Two c. Six
b. Four d. Eight
3. Greatest amount of H antigen:
a. A1 c. AB
b. O d. B
4. Identify the blood type based on the following reactions:
FORWARD GROUPING REVERSE GROUPING
Anti-A Anti-B A cells B cells
0 4+ 3+ 0
a. Type O c. Type B
b. Type A d. Type AB
5. Bombay phenotype antibodies include:
a. Anti-A c. Anti-H
b. Anti-B d. All of the choices
6. What type of blood should be given in an emergency transfusion
when there is no time to type the recipient’s sample?
a. O Rh-negative,whole blood
b. O Rh-positive,whole blood
c. O Rh-negative, pRBCs
d. O Rh-positive, pRBCs
7. This blood group is an anthropological marker in Asian ancestry:
a. Diego c. Colton
b. Cartwright d. Gerbich
8. The activity of this antibody is enhanced in an acidic environ-
ment.
a. Anti-S c. Anti-N
b. Anti-U d. Anti-M
9. Shelf-life of packed red blood cells obtained through open system
with ACD anticoagulant:
a. 21 days c. 42 days
b. 35 days d. None of the choices
10. Indication for transfusion of neocytes:
a. Immune thrombocytopenic purpura
b. Hemolytic transfusion reaction
c. Thalassemia
d. Hydrops fetalis
11. Citrate in ACD functions as:
a. Anticoagulant d. Caramelization in-
b. ATP source hibitor
c. RBC membrane stabi-
lizer
12. The most common cause of transfusion-related sepsis is:
a. Whole blood c. Leukocyte concen-
b. Packed red blood trates
cells d. Platelet concentrates
13. Major advantage of gel technology:
a. Decreased sample c. Enhanced sensitivity
volume d. Standardization
b. Improved productivity
14. Agglutination reaction: “Several large clumps with clear back-
ground”
a. 4+ c. 2+
b. 3+ d. 1+
15. This type of autologous donation occurs when blood is collected
from the patient before the start of surgery. The patient’s blood
volume is returned to normal with fluids, and autologous blood
may be returned to the patient after the surgery is complete.
a. Preoperative c. Intraoperative
b. Normovolemic salvage
hemodilution d. Postoperative
salvage
16. The anticoagulant preferred in direct antiglobulin testing is:
a. EDTA c. Citrate
b. Heparin d. Oxalate
17. A donor was deferred by the physician due to the presence of
bluish purple areas under the skin of the donor. This is typical of:
a. Syphilis c. Candidiasis
b. Herpes simplex d. Kaposi’s sarcoma
18. A resident of Palawan for 10 years is deferred from donating
blood for:
a. 3 years c. 2 weeks
b. 1 year d. Permanent deferral
19. Size of pore in leukoreduction filter
a. 10um c. 2 um
b. 5um d. 4um
20. A febrile transfusion reaction is defined as a rise in body temper-
ature of _____ occurring in association with the transfusion of
blood or components and without any other explanation.
a. 1°C or more c. 3°C or more
b. 1°F or more d. 3°F or more
21. Rise in hematocrit after transfusion of fresh whole blood
a. 1-3% c. 5-10%
b. 3-5% d. >10%
22. The most severe form of HDN is associated with:
a. Anti-A c. Anti-K
b. Anti-B d. Anti-D
23. A diagnostic prenatal test in which a sample of the baby's blood
is removed from the umbilical cord:
a. Cordocentesis c. Both
b. PUBS d. None of the above
24. Percentage of B cells present in the circulation
a. 2 – 5 % c. 10 – 15 %
b. 5 – 10 % d. 75 – 85 %
25. What is C3b
a. Anaphylatoxin c. Chemotaxin
b. Opsonin d. Cytokine
26. What is the most common complement component deficiency?
a. C1 c. C3
b. C2 d. C4
27. Which of the following is the most common congenital immunod-
eficiency?
a. Severe combined immunodeficiency
b. Selective IgA deficiency
c. X-linked agammaglobulinemia
d. Common variable immunodeficiency
28. Which disease might be indicated by antibodies to smooth mus-
cle?
a. Chronic active hep- c. Hashimoto’s thyroidi-
atitis tis
b. Primary biliary cirrho- d. Myasthenia gravis
sis
29. The most common fungal infection for AIDS patients is caused
by:
a. Candida albicans c. Blastomyces
b. Cryptococcus dermatitidis
neoformans d. Cryptosporidium
parvum
30. This dengue antigen has been detected in the serum of dengue
virus infected patients as early as 1 day post onset of symptoms
(DPO), and up to 18 DPO.
a. NS1 c. E
b. C d. prM
31. These are expressed in the developing fetus and in rapidly divid-
ing tissue, such as that associated with tumors, but that are ab-
sent in normal adult tissue:
a. Oncogenes d. Tumor specific anti-
b. Oncofetal antigens gen
c. Sarcoma
32. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is a/an _________ assay.
a. Chemical c. Enzymatic
b. Molecular d. Biologic
33. Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism (RFLP) is a/an
_________ assay.
a. Chemical c. Enzymatic
b. Molecular d. Biologic
34. Hives and itching are under what type of hypersensitivity?
a. Type I c. Type III
b. Type II d. Type IV
35. Gamma counter uses these substances as labels:
a. Isotopes c. Enzymes
b. Fluorochromes d. Immune complexes
36. Treponema pallidum immobilization (TPI) test: 10% treponemes
are immobilized. Interpret the result.
a. Positive c. Doubtful
b. Negative d. Indeterminate
37. When reading for a slide agglutination for Salmonella, macro-
scopic agglutination is graded as 25%.
a. Non-reactive c. Positive
b. Negative d. 1+
38. Other name for “HCV RNA”:
a. Viral clade c. Viral load
b. Surface antigen d. Core antigen
39. Not included as a Hepatitis B serologic marker:
a. HBcAg c. Anti-HBeAg
b. HBeAg d. Anti-HBcAg
40. Autoimmune diseases are mostly associated with which class of
HLA?
a. Class I c. Class III
b. Class II d. Class IV
41. Which of the following activates both T and B cells?
a. Pokeweed mitogen c. Concanavalin A
b. Lipopolysaccharide d. Phytohemagglutinin
42. Immunoglobulin found in secretions (tears):
a. IgG c. IgE
b. IgM d. IgA
43. Pentameric immunoglobulin:
a. IgG c. IgE
b. IgM d. IgD
44. Population of NK cells:
a. 5-10% c. 15-20%
b. <10 % d. 70-80%
45. Chemokines are produced from:
a. many types of cells c. T cells
b. B cells d. None of the above
46. Cytokines are released by:
a. T & B cells c. macrophages, T cells, B
cells
b. T cells & macrophages d. NK cells
47. Large granular lymphocytes
a. NK cells c. T cells
b. B cells d. All of the above
48. CD 34:
a. HSC c. B cells
b. T cells d. Megakaryocyte
49. It is used as the receptor for the sheep red blood cells (sRBC) for
e-rosette assay:
a. CD2 c. CD4
b. CD8 d. CD21
