NEET Question Bank

NEET Biology
Previous year MCQ Bank
With Answer Key

CONTENT

1. The Living World

2. Biological Classification
3. Plant Kingdom and Animal Kingdom
4. Morphology and anatomy of Flowering Plants
5. Structural Organisation in Animals
6. Cell: The Unit of Life
7. Biomolecules
8. Cell Cycle and Cell Division
9. Transport in Plants
10. Mineral Nutrition
11. Photosynthesis
12. Respiration in Plants
13. Plant Growth and Development
14. Digestion and Absorption
15. Breathing and Exchange of Gases
16. Body Fluids and Circulation
17. Excretory Products and their Elimination
18. Locomotion and Movement
19. Neural Control and Coordination
20. Chemical Coordination and Regulation
21. Reproduction in Organisms
22. Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants
23. Human Reproduction
24. Reproductive Health
25. Heredity and Variation
26. Molecular Basis of Inheritance
27. Evolution
28. Health and Disease
29. Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production
30. Microbes in Human Welfare
31. Biotechnology: Principles and Processes
32. Organisms and Environment
33. Ecosystem
34. Biodiversity and its Conservation
35. Environmental Issues
Q1. System of classification used by Linnaeus was
(1) phylogenetic system
(2) natural system
(3) asexual system
(4) artificial system
Ans: (4)
[1988]
Q2. Artificial system of classification was first used by
(1) Pliny the Edler
(2) Linnaeus
(3) Bentham and Hooker
(4) De Candolle
Ans: (1)
[1988]
Q3. Classification given by Bentham and Hooker is
(1) phylogenetic
(2) artificial
(3) numerical
(4) natural
Ans: (4)
Q4. The term “New Systematics” was introduced by
(1) Julian Huxley
(2) Bentham and Hooker
(3) A.P. de Candolle
(4) Linnaeus
Ans: (1)
[1989]
Q5. Static concept of species was put forward by
(1) Theophrastus
(2) de Candolle
(3) Darwin
(4) Linnaeus
Ans: (4)

Q6. An important criterion for modern day classification is

(1) breeding habits
(2) resemblances in morphology
(3) presence or absence of notochord
(4) anatomical and physiological traits
Ans: (4)
[1990]
Q7. Employment of hereditary principles in the improvement of
human race is
(1) Euphenics
(2) Euthenics
(3) Ethnology
(4) Eugenics
Ans: (4)
[1990]
Q8. A taxon is
(1) a type of living organisms
(2) a group of related families
(3) a taxonomic group of any ranking
(4) a group of related species
Ans: (3)
[1990, 91, 92, 96]
Q9. Basic unit or smallest taxon of taxonomy/ classification is
(1) family
(2) species
(3) variety
(4) kingdom
Ans: (2)
[1990]
Q10. Linnaeus evolved a system of nomenclature called
(1) binomial
(2) mononomial
(3) polynomial
(4) vernacular
Ans: (1)
[1991]
Q11. Binomial nomenclature means
(1) two names, one latinised, other of a person
(2) one name given by two scientists
(3) two names of same plant
(4) one scientific name consisting of a generic and specific epithet
Ans: (4)
[1991]
Q12. Sequence of taxonomic categories is
(1) Division – Class – Order – Family – Tribe – Genus – Species
(2) Class – Phylum – Tribe – Order – Family – Genus – Species
(3) Phylum – Order – Class – Tribe – Family – Genus – Species
(4) Division – Class – Family – Tribe – Order – Genus – Species
Ans: (1)
[1991]
Q13. The term phylum was given by
(1) Theophrastus
(2) Cuvier
(3) Linnaeus
(4) Haeckel
Ans: (2)
[1992]
Q14. Homeostasis is organism’s
(1) disturbance in regulatory control
(2) tendency to change with change in environment
(3) plants and animal extracts used in homeopathy
(4) tendency to resist change
Ans: (4)
[1992]
Q15. Study of fossils is
(1) saurology
(2) palaeontology
(3) organic evolution
(4) herpetology
Ans: (2)
[1993]
Q16. Binomial nomenclature consists of two words
(1) Family and genus
(2) Genus and species
(3) Species and variety
(4) Order and family
Ans: (2)
[1993]
Q17. Phylogenetic classification is based on
(1) overall similarities
(2) utilitarian system
(3) common evolutionary descent
(4) habits
Ans: (3)
Q18. Species is
(1) specific class of evolution
(2) unit of classification
(3) not related to evolution
(4) unit in the evolutionary history of a tree
Ans: (2)
[1994]
Q19. Binomial nomenclature was introduced by
(1) Huxley
(2) de Vries
(3) John Ray
(4) Carlous Linnaeus
Ans: (4)

Q20. Linnaeus is credited with

(1) discovery of microscope
(2) binomial nomenclature
(3) discovery of blood circulation
(4) theory of biogenesis
Ans: (2)
Q21. If there was no CO2 in the earth’s atmosphere the
temperature of earth’s surface would be
(1) the same
(2) higher than the present form environmental issues
(3) dependent on the amount of oxygen in the atmosphere from
environmental issues
(4) less than the present
Ans: (4)
Q22. Species occurring in different geographical areas are called
as
(1) allopatric
(2) sibling
(3) neopatric
(4) sympatric
Ans: (1)
[1997]
Q23. In the five-kingdom system of classification, which single
kingdom out of the following can include blue green algae,
nitrogen-fixing bacteria and methanogenic archaebacteria?
(1) Protista
(2) Fungi
(3) Monera
(4) Plantae
Ans: (3)
[1998, 2003]
Q24. The high boiling point of water is advantageous to living
organisms because
(1) it allows organisms to spread heat evenly throughout their bodies
(2) the environment seldom reaches the boiling point of water
(3) organisms can absorb a great deal of heat before they reach the boiling
point from organisms and population
(4) organisms can easily boil off enough water to keep themselves cool
Ans: (4)
[1998]
Q25. “Taxonomy without phylogeny is similar to bones without
flesh” is the statement of
(1) Takhtajan
(2) Oswald Tippo
(3) Bentham and Hooker
(4) John Hutchinson
Ans: (1)
[1998]
Q26. Relative biological effectiveness (RBE) is usually referred to
damages caused by
(1) Encephalitis
(2) Low temperature
(3) Radiation
(4) High temperature
Ans: (3)
[1999]
Q27. The most important feature of all living systems is to
(1) produce gametes
(2) utilize oxygen to generate energy
(3) utilize solar energy for metabolic activities
(4) replicate the genetic information
Ans: (4)
[1999]
Q28. The book Genera Plantarum was written by
(1) Engler and Prantl
(2) Bessy
(3) Bentham & Hooker
(4) Hutchinson
Ans: (3)
Q29. A system of classification in which a large number of traits
are considered, is
(1) natural system
(2) artificial system
(3) phylogenetic system
(4) synthetic system
Ans: (1)
[2000]
Q30. The practical purpose of classification of living organisms is
to
(1) name the living organisms
(2) explain the origin of living organisms
(3) facilitate identification of unknown organisms
(4) trace the evolution of living organisms
Ans: (3)
Q31. What is true for individuals of same species?
(1) Interbreeding
(2) Live in same niche
(3) Live in different habitat
(4) Live in same habitat
Ans: (1)
[2001]
Q32. In five kingdom system, the main basis of classification is
(1) structure of cell wall
(2) structure of nucleus
(3) asexual reproduction
(4) mode of nutrition
Ans: (4)
[2001]
Q33. First life on earth was
(1) Autotrophs
(2) Cyanobacteria
(3) Photoautotrophs
(4) Chemoheterotrophs
Ans: (4)
[2001]
Q34. What is true for photolithotrops?
(1) Obtain energy from organic compounds
(2) Obtain energy from radiations and hydrogen from organic compounds
(3) Obtain energy from inorganic compounds
(4) Obtain energy from radiations and hydrogen from inorganic compounds
Ans: (4)
[2002]
Q35. Which of the following is less general in characters as
compared to genus?
(1) Class
(2) Species
(3) Family
(4) Division
Ans: (2)
Q36. Plants reproducing by spores such as mosses and ferns are
grouped under the general term
(1) Bryophytes
(2) Thallophytes
(3) Sporophytes
(4) Cryptogams
Ans: (4)
[2002]
Q37. Species are considered as
(1) the lowest units of classification
(2) real units of classification devised by taxonomists
(3) artificial concept of human mind which cannot be defined in absolute
terms
(4) real basic units of classification
Ans: (1)
[2003, 04]
Q38. Biosystematics aims at
(1) delimiting various taxa of organisms and establishing their relationships
(2) identification and arrangement of organisms on the basis of their
cytological characteristics
(3) the classification of organisms based on their evolutionary history and
establishing their phylogeny on the totality of various parameters from all
fields of studies
(4) the classification of organisms based on broad morphological characters
Ans: (3)
[2003]
Q39. Phenetic classification is based on
(1) observable characteristics of existing organisms
(2) sexual characteristics
(3) dendograms based on DNA characteristics
(4) the ancestral lineage of existing organisms
Ans: (1)
[2003]
Q40. Organisms which obtain energy by the oxidation of reduced
inorganic compounds are called
(1) saprozoic
(2) photoautotrophs
(3) coproheterotrophs
(4) chemoautotrophs
Ans: (4)
[2003]
Q41. Select the correct statement from the following?
(1) Mutations are random and directional
(2) Fitness is the end result of the ability to adapt and gets selected by nature
(3) Darwinian variations are small and direction less.
(4) All mammals except whales and camels have seven cervical vertebrae
Ans: (2)
[2004]
Q42. Biological organisation starts with
(1) atomic level
(2) cellular level
(3) submicroscopic molecular level
(4) organismic level
Ans: (3)
[2005]
Q43. ICBN stands for
(1) Indian Code of Botanical Nomenclature
(2) International Code of Botanical Nomenclature
(3) Indian Congress of Biological Names.
(4) International congress of Biological Names
Ans: (2)
[2007]
Q44. Which of the following is not true for a species?
(1) Each species is reproductively isolated from every other species.
(2) Members of a species can interbreed.
(3) Variations occur among members of a species.
(4) Gene flow does not occur between the populations of a species.
Ans: (4)
[2007]
Q45. Angiosperms have dominated the land flora primarily because
of their
(1) nature of self pollination
(2) power of adaptability in diverse habitat
(3) domestication by man
(4) property of producing large number of seeds
Ans: (2)
[2007]
Q46. Which one of the following aspects is an exclusive
characteristic of living things?
(1) Perception of events happening in the environment and their memory
(2) Isolated metabolic reactions occur in vitro
(3) Increase in mass by accumulation of material both on surface as well as
internally.
(4) Increase in mass from inside only
Ans: (1)
[2007]
Q47. Which one of the following animals is correctly matched with
its particular named taxonomic category?
(1) Humans - primata, the family
(2) Tiger - tigris, the species
(3) Housefly - musca, an order
(4) Cuttle fish - mollusca, a class
Ans: (2)
[2008]
Q48. Which one of the following is considered important in the
development of seed habit?
(1) Free -living gametophyte
(2) Heterospory
(3) Dependent sporophyte
(4) Haplontic life cycle
Ans: (2)
Q49. The haemoglobin of a human foetus
(1) has only 2 protein subunits instead of 4
(2) has a lower affinity for oxygen than that of the adult
(3) has a higher affinity for oxygen than that of an adult
(4) its affinity for oxygen is the same as that of an adult
Ans: (3)
[2011]
Q50. The living organisms can be unexceptionally distinguished
from the non-living things on the basis of their ability for
(1) growth and movement
(2) interaction with the environment and progressive evolution
(3) responsiveness to touch.
(4) reproduction
Ans: (4)
[2011M]
Q51. The vector for sleeping sickness is
(1) Sand fly
(2) House fly
(3) Fruit fly
(4) Tse-Tse fly
Ans: (4)
[2012M]
Q52. The causal organism for African sleeping sickness is
(1) T. tangela
(2) Trypanosoma cruzi
(3) T. gambiense
(4) T. rhodesiense
Ans: (3)
[NEET 2013]
Q53. The common characteristics between tomato and potato will
be maximum at the level of their
(1) Order
(2) Genus
(3) Division
(4) Family
Ans: (4)
[NEET Kar. 2013]
Q54. Which one of the following is not a correct statement?
(1) Key is taxonomic aid for identification of specimens.
(2) Botanical gardens have collection of living plants for reference.
(3) Herbarium houses dried, pressed and preserved plant specimens.
(4) A museum has collection of photographs of plants and animals
Ans: (4)
[1989]
Q55. Which one of the following organisms is scientifically
correctly named, correctly printed according to the International
Rules of Nomenclature and correctly described?
(1) Felis tigris - The Indian tiger, well protected in Gir forests.
(2) Musca domestica - The common house lizard, a reptile.
(3) E.coli - Full name Entamoeba coli, a commonly occurring bacterium in
human intestine.
(4) Plasmodium falciparum – A protozoan pathogen causing the most serious
type of malaria.
Ans: (1)
[1989]
Q56. Lichens indicate SO2 pollution because they
(1) are sensitive to SO2
(2) show association between algae and fungi
(3) flourish in SO2 rich environment
(4) grow faster than others
Ans: (1)
[1989]
Q57. The infective stage of malarial parasite Plasmodium that
enters human body is
(1) trophozoite
(2) merozoite
(3) minuta form
(4) sporozoite
Ans: (4)
Q58. A bite of Tse-Tse fly may pass to humans
(1) Entamoeba histolytica
(2) Leishmania donovani
(3) Plasmodium vivax
(4) Trypanosoma gambiense
Ans: (4)

Q59. Malaria fever coincides with liberation of

(1) merozoites
(2) cryptomerozoites
(3) trophozoites
(4) metacryptomerozoites
Ans: (1)
[1989]
Q60. Trypanosoma belongs to class
(1) Ciliata
(2) Sarcodina
(3) Sporozoa
(4) Zooflagellata
Ans: (4)
[1989]
Q61. Amoebiasis is prevented by
(1) drinking boiled water
(2) eating balanced food
(3) using mosquito nets
(4) eating plenty of fruits
Ans: (1)
[1990]
Q62. Which is true about Trypanosoma?
(1) Facultative Parasite
(2) Polymorphic
(3) Non-pathogenic
(4) Monogenetic
Ans: (2)
[1990, 2001]
Q63. Genetic information in Paramecium is contained in
(1) both micronucleus and macronucleus
(2) micronucleus
(3) mitochondria
(4) macronucleus
Ans: (2)
[1990]
Q64. The main difference in Gram (+)ve and Gram (–)ve bacteria
resides in their
(1) cytoplasm
(2) cell wall
(3) flagella
(4) cell membrane
Ans: (2)
[1990]
Q65. Which one belongs to monera?
(1) Gelidium
(2) Amoeba
(3) Spirogyra
(4) Escherichia
Ans: (4)
[1990]
Q66. Malignant tertian malarial parasite is
(1) P. ovale
(2) Plasmodium falciparum
(3) P. malariae
(4) P. vivax
Ans: (2)
[1990]
Q67. Who discovered Plasmodium in R.B.C of human beings?
(1) Laveran
(2) Ronald Ross
(3) Stephens
(4) Mendel
Ans: (1)
[1990, 1994]
Q68. Absorptive heterotrophic nutrition is exhibited by
(1) Bryophytes
(2) Algae
(3) Pteridophytes
(4) Fungi
Ans: (4)
[1990]
Q69. A nonphotosynthetic aerobic nitrogen fixing soil bacterium
is
(1) Azotobacter
(2) Rhizobium
(3) Klebsiella
(4) Clostridium
Ans: (1)
[1991]
Q70. Plasmodium, the malarial parasite, belongs to class
(1) Sporozoa
(2) Sarcodina
(3) Dinophyceae
(4) Ciliata
Ans: (1)
[1991]
Q71. The part of life cycle of malarial parasite Plasmodium vivax,
that is passed in female Anopheles is
(1) exoerythrocytic schizogony
(2) sexual cycle
(3) post-erythrocytic schizogony
(4) pre-erythrocytic schizogony
Ans: (2)
[1991]
Q72. Bacteria lack alternation of generation because there is
(1) no conjugation
(2) neither syngamy nor reduction division
(3) no exchange of genetic material
(4) distinct chromosomes are absent
Ans: (2)
[1991]
Q73. In Amoeba and Paramecium osmoregulation occurs through
(1) contractile vacuole
(2) pseudopodia
(3) general surface
(4) nucleus
Ans: (1)
[1991, 2002]
Q74. African sleeping sickness is due to
(1) Trypanosoma gambiense transmitted by Glossina palpalis
(2) Plasmodium vivax transmitted by Tse tse fly
(3) Entamoeba gingivalis spread by Housefly.
(4) Trypanosoma lewsii transmitted by Bed Bug
Ans: (1)
[1991, 1992]
Q75. Name the organisms which do not derive energy directly or
indirectly from sun
(1) Symbiotic bacteria
(2) Chemosynthetic bacteria
(3) Mould
(4) Pathogenic bacteria
Ans: (2)
[1992]
Q76. Schizogont stage of Plasmodium occurs in human cells
(1) Erythrocytes and liver cells
(2) Erthrocytes
(3) Erythrocytes, liver cells and spleen cells
(4) Liver cells
Ans: (1)
[1992]
Q77. If all ponds and puddles are destroyed, the organism likely to
be destroyed is
(1) Ascaris
(2) Leishmania
(3) Plasmodium
(4) Trypanosoma
Ans: (3)
[1993]
Q78. Genophore/bacterial genome or nucleoid is made of
(1) a single double stranded DNA
(2) histones and nonhistones
(3) a single stranded DNA
(4) RNA and histones
Ans: (1)
[1993]
Q79. Escherichia coli is used extensively in biological research as
it is
(1) easy to handle
(2) easily cultured
(3) easily multiplied in host
(4) easily available
Ans: (2)
[1993]
Q80. Organisms which are indicator of SO2 pollution of air
(1) Mushrooms
(2) Mosses
(3) Puffballs
(4) Lichens
Ans: (4)
[1993]
Q81. Temperature tolerance of thermal blue-green algae is due to
(1) mitochondrial structure
(2) cell wall structure
(3) homopolar bonds in their proteins
(4) cell organisation
Ans: (3)
 [1994]
Q82. The term antibiotic was first used by
(1) Waksman
(2) Flemming
(3) Lister
(4) Pasteur
Ans: (1)
[1994]
Q83. Organelle/organoid involved in genetic engineering is
(1) golgi apparatus
(2) plasmid
(3) lomasome
(4) mitochondrion
Ans: (2)
[1994]
Q84. Tobacco Mosaic Virus (TMV) genes are
(1) polyribonucleotides
(2) double stranded RNA
(3) proteinaceous
(4) single stranded RNA
Ans: (4)
[1994, 2003]
Q85. Reverse transcriptase is
(1) DNA dependent DNA polymerase
(2) RNA dependent RNA polymerase
(3) RNA dependent DNA polymerase
(4) DNA dependent RNA polymerase
Ans: (3)
[1994]
Q86. Entamoeba coli causes
(1) Dysentery
(2) Pyrrhoea
(3) None
(4) Diarrhoea
Ans: (3)
 [1994]
Q87. Protistan genome has
(1) gene containing nucleoproteins condensed together in loose mass
(2) membrane bound nucleoproteins embedded in cytoplasm
(3) nucleoprotein in direct contact with cell substance
(4) free nucleic acid aggregates
Ans: (2)
[1994]
Q88. Nitrogen fixer soil organisms belong to
(1) green Algae
(2) mosses
(3) soil Fungi
(4) bacteria
Ans: (4)
[1994]
Q89. Rickettsiae constitute a group under
(1) independent group between bacteria and viruses
(2) bacteria
(3) fungi
(4) viruses
Ans: (1)
[1994]
Q90. Nonsymbiotic nitrogen fixers are
(1) soil fungi
(2) Azotobacter
(3) blue-green algae
(4) Pseudomonas
Ans: (2)
[1994]
Q91. Decomposers are organisms that
(1) attack and kill plants as well as animals
(2) illaborate chemical substances, causing death of tissues
(3) operate in relay terms, simplifying step by step the organic constituents of
dead body
(4) operate in living body and simplifying organic substances of cells step by
step
Ans: (3)
[1994]
Q92. Claviceps purpurea is causal organism of
(1) Ergot of Rye
(2) Smut of Barley
(3) Powdery Mildew of Pea.
(4) Rust of Wheat
Ans: (1)
[1994]
Q93. Ustilago caused plant diseases called smut because
(1) they develop sooty masses of spores
(2) they parasitise cereals
(3) affected parts becomes completely black.
(4) mycelium is back
Ans: (3)
[1994]
Q94. Protista includes
(1) chemoautotrophs
(2) heterotrophs
(3) all the above
(4) chemoheterotrophs
Ans: (3)
Q95. Protists obtain food as
(1) chemosynthesisers
(2) photosynthesisers, symbionts and holotrophs
(3) holotrophs
(4) photosynthesisers
Ans: (2)
[1994]
Q96. Macro and micronucleus are the characteristic feature of
(1) Hydra and Ballantidium
(2) Paramecium and Vorticella
(3) Vorticella and Nictothirus
(4) Opelina and Nictothisus
Ans: (2)
[1994, 2003]
Q97. The function of contractile vacuole, in protozoa, is
(1) osmoregulation
(2) locomotion
(3) reproduction
(4) food digestion
Ans: (1)
[1995]
Q98. Which of the following organism possesses characteristics of
both a plant and an animal?
(1) Mycoplasma
(2) Bacteria
(3) Paramecium
(4) Euglena
Ans: (4)

Q99. The plasmid

(1) is a component of cell wall of bacteria
(2) helps in respiration
(3) is the genetic part in addition to DNA in micro-organisms
(4) genes found inside nucleus
Ans: (3)
[1995]
Q100. Mycorrhiza represents
(1) symbiosis
(2) antagonism
(3) parasitism
(4) endemism
Ans: (1)
[1995]
Q101. White rust disease is caused by
(1) Phytophthora
(2) Claviceps
(3) Albugo candida
(4) Alternaria
Ans: (3)
[1995]
Q102. The chemical compounds produced by the host plants to
protect themselves against fungal infection is
(1) phytoalexins
(2) phytotoxin
(3) hormone
(4) pathogen
Ans: (1)
[1995]
Q103. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
(1) covered smut of barley - Ustilago nuda
(2) root knot disease - Meloidogyne javanica
(3) late blight of potato - Phytophthora infestans
(4) smut of bajra - Tolysporium penicillariae
Ans: (1)
[1995]
Q104. The organism, used for alcoholic fermentation, is
(1) Aspergillus
(2) Pseudomonas
(3) Saccharomyces
(4) Penicillium
Ans: (3)
[1995]
Q105. Excretion in Amoeba occurs through
(1) plasma membrane
(2) lobopodia
(3) contractile vacuole
(4) uroid portion
Ans: (3)
[1995]
Q106. Interferons are
(1) anticancer proteins
(2) antiviral proteins
(3) complex proteins
(4) antibacterial proteins
Ans: (2)
[1996]
Q107. In bacterial chromosomes, the nucleic acid polymers are
(1) of two types-DNA and RNA
(2) linear DNA molecule
(3) linear RNA molecule
(4) circular DNA molecule
Ans: (4)
[1996]
Q108. Influenza virus has
(1) both DNA and RNA
(2) DNA
(3) only proteins and no nucleic acids.
(4) RNA
Ans: (4)
[1996]
Q109. Sex factor in bacteria is
(1) RNA
(2) Chromosomal replicon
(3) Sex-pilus
(4) F-replicon
Ans: (4)
[1996]
Q110. Azotobacter and Bacillus polymyxa are the examples of
(1) ammonifying bacteria
(2) symbiotic nitrogen-fixers
(3) disease-causing bacteria
(4) non-symbiotic nitrogen-fixers
Ans: (4)
[1996]
Q111. Which one of the following statements about viruses is
correct?
(1) Viruses are facultative parasites
(2) Viruses possess their own metabolic system
(3) Viruses are readily killed by antibiotics
(4) Viruses contain either DNA or RNA
Ans: (4)
[1996]
Q112. The plasmids pesent in the bacterial cells are
(1) linear double helical DNA molecules
(2) circular double helical DNA molecules
(3) linear double helical RNA molecules.
(4) circular double helical RNA molecules
Ans: (2)
[1996]
Q113. The hereditary material present in the bacterium Escherichia
coli is
(1) double stranded DNA
(2) single stranded DNA
(3) single stranded RNA
(4) deoxyribose sugar
Ans: (1)
[1997, 98]
Q114. Mycorrhiza is
(1) a fungus parasitising root system of higher plants
(2) a symbiotic association of plant roots and certain fungi
(3) an association of Rhizobium with the roots of lenguminous plants
(4) an association of algae with fungi
Ans: (2)
[1997]
Q115. Which one of the following is not true about lichens?
(1) Some species can be used as pollution indicators
(2) Their body is composed of both algal and fungal cells
(3) These grow very fast at the rate of about 2 cm per year
(4) Some form food for reindeers in arctic regions
Ans: (3)
[1997]
Q116. Transfer of genetic information from one bacterium to
another in the transduction process is through
(1) Another bacterium
(2) Conjugation
(3) Physical contact between donor and recipient strain
(4) Bacteriophages released from the donor bacterial strain
Ans: (4)
[1997]
Q117. A few organisms are known to grow and multiply at
temperatures of 100–105ºC. They belong to
(1) hot-spring blue-green algae (cyanobacteria)
(2) marine archaebacteria
(3) thermophilic, subaerial fungi
(4) thermophilic sulphur bacteria
Ans: (2)
[1998]
Q118. The main role of bacteria in the carbon cycle involves
(1) digestion or breakdown of organic compounds
(2) photosynthesis
(3) assimilation of nitrogenous compounds
(4) chemosynthesis
Ans: (1)
[1998]
Q119. Two bacteria found to be very useful in genetic engineering
experiments are
(1) Rhizobium and Diplococcus
(2) Escherichia and Agrobacterium
(3) Nitrosomonas and Klebsiella
(4) Nitrobacter and Azotobacter
Ans: (2)
[1998]
Q120. Most of the Lichens consist of
(1) red algae and ascomycetes
(2) blue-green algae and basidomycetes
(3) brown algae and phycomycetes
(4) blue-green algae and ascomycetes
Ans: (4)
 [1998]
Q121. Photosynthetic bacteria have pigments in
(1) chromoplasts
(2) leucoplasts
(3) chromatophores
(4) chloroplasts
Ans: (3)
[1998]
Q122. Due to which of the following organisms, yield of rice has
been increased?
(1) Sesbania
(2) Anabaena
(3) Bacillus polymexa
(4) Bacillus popilliae
Ans: (2)

Q123. Yeast Saccharomyces cerevisiae is used in the industrial

production of
(1) ethanol
(2) citric acid
(3) butanol
(4) tetracycline
Ans: (1)
[1998]
Q124. Which one of the following micro-organisms is used for
production of citric acid in industries?
(1) Rhizopus nigricans
(2) Penicillium citrinum
(3) Lactobacillus bulgaris
(4) Aspergillus niger
Ans: (4)
[1999]
Q125. Puccinia forms
(1) uredia and aecia on barberry leaves
(2) uredia and aecia on wheat leaves
(3) uredia and pycnia on barberry leaves
(4) uredia and telia on wheat leaves
Ans: (4)
[1999]
Q126. In fungi stored food material is
(1) sucrose
(2) glycogen
(3) glucose
(4) starch
Ans: (2)
[1999]
Q127. A virus can be considered a living organism because it
(1) reproduces (inside the host)
(2) responds to touch stimulus
(3) can cause disease
(4) respires
Ans: (1)
[2000]
Q128. Enzymes are absent in
(1) Algae
(2) Cyanobacteria
(3) Fungi
(4) Viruses
Ans: (4)
[2000]
Q129. A good green manure in rice fields is
(1) Salvinia
(2) Aspergillus
(3) Mucor
(4) Azolla
Ans: (4)
[2000]
Q130. In prokaryotes, the genetic material is
(1) linear DNA without histones
(2) linear DNA with histones
(3) circular DNA without histones
(4) circular DNA with histones
Ans: (3)
[2000]
Q131. What is true for cyanobacteria?
(1) Non-oxygenic with nitrogen
(2) Oxygenic with nitrogenase
(3) Non-oxygenic without nitrogenase
(4) Oxygenic without nitrogenase
Ans: (2)
[2000]
Q132. Extra-nuclear inheritance occurs in
(1) Phenylketonuria
(2) Killer strain in Paramecium
(3) Tay sach disease
(4) Colour blindness
Ans: (2)
[2000]
Q133. Interferons are synthesized in response to
(1) Viruses
(2) Mycoplasma
(3) Fungi
(4) Bacteria
Ans: (1)
Q134. Industrial production of ethanol from starch is brought about
by
(1) Azotobacter
(2) Saccharomyces
(3) Penicillium
(4) Lactobacillus
Ans: (2)
[2001]
Q135. Black rust of wheat is caused by
(1) Aspergillus
(2) Puccinia
(3) Rhizopus
(4) Mucor
Ans: (2)
[2001]
Q136. Adhesive pad of fungi penetrates the host with the help of
(1) softening by enzymes
(2) mechanical pressure and enzymes
(3) only by mechanical pressure
(4) hooks and suckers
Ans: (2)
[2001]
Q137. Plant decomposers are
(1) Protista and animalia
(2) Monera and fungi
(3) Animalia and monera
(4) Fungi and plants
Ans: (2)
[2001]
Q138. What is true for plasmid?
(1) Plasmid contains gene for vital activities
(2) Plasmids are widely used in gene transfer
(3) These are main party of chromosome
(4) These are found in virus
Ans: (2)
[2001]
Q139. Cauliflower mosaic virus contains
(1) ds DNA
(2) ss RNA
(3) ss DNA
(4) ds RNA
Ans: (1)
[2001]
Q140. What is true for archaebacteria?
(1) All fossils
(2) All halophiles
(3) Oldest living beings
(4) All photosynthetic
Ans: (3)
[2001]
Q141. Which of the following secretes toxins during storage
conditions of crop plants?
(1) Fusarium
(2) Aspergillus
(3) Colletotrichum
(4) Penicillium
Ans: (2)
Q142. Which statement is correct for bacterial transduction?
(1) Bacteria obtained its DNA directly
(2) Transfer of some genes from one bacteria to another bacteria through
virus
(3) Bacteria obtained DNA from other external source
(4) Transfer of genes from one bacteria to another bacteria by conjugation
Ans: (2)

Q143. In bacteria, plasmid is

(1) non-functional DNA
(2) extra – chromosomal material
(3) repetitive gene
(4) main DNA
Ans: (2)
[2002]
Q144. Which bacteria is utilized in gober gas plant?
(1) Ammonifying bacteria
(2) Methanogens
(3) Denitrifying bacteria
(4) Nitrifying bacteria
Ans: (2)
[2002]
Q145. Some bacteria are able to grow in Streptomycin containing
medium due to
(1) reproductive isolation
(2) natural selection
(3) genetic drift
(4) Induced mutation
Ans: (2)
[2002]
Q146. Chromosomes in a bacterial cell can be 1 – 3 in number
and
(1) are always linear
(2) can be circular as well as linear within the same cell
(3) can be either circular or linear, but never both with in the same cell
(4) are always circular
Ans: (4)
[2002]
Q147. Viruses are no more “alive” than isolated chromosomes
because
(1) they both need food molecules
(2) both require the environment of a cell to replicate
(3) they both require oxygen for respiration
(4) they require both RNA and DNA
Ans: (2)

Q148. The chief advantage of encystment to an Amoeba is

(1) the ability to live for sometime without ingesting food
(2) the chance to get rid of accumulated waste products
(3) protection from parasites and predators
(4) the ability to survive during adverse physical conditions
Ans: (4)
[2003]
Q149. During the formation of bread it becomes porous due to
release of CO2 by the action of
(1) Virus
(2) Yeast
(3) Protozoans
(4) Bacteria
Ans: (2)
 [2003]
Q150. Which fungal disease spreads by seed and flowers?
(1) Covered smut of barley
(2) Loose smut of wheat
(3) Soft rot of potato
(4) Corn stunt
Ans: (2)
[2003]
Q151. Which of the following statements is not true for
retroviruses?
(1) The genetic material in mature retroviruses is RNA
(2) DNA is not present at any stage in the life cycle of retroviruses
(3) Retroviruses are causative agents for certain kinds of cancer in man
(4) Retroviruses carry gene for RNAdependent DNA polymerase
Ans: (2)
[2003]
Q152. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(1) Spirulina - Single cell protein
(2) Streptomyces - Antibiotic
(3) Rhizobium - Biofertilizer
(4) Serratia - Drug addiction
Ans: (4)
[2003]
Q153. Lichens are well known combination of an alga and a fungus
where fungus has
(1) a parasitic relationship with the alga
(2) a saprophytic relationship with the alga
(3) a symbiotic relationship with the alga
(4) an epiphytic relationship with the alga
Ans: (3)
[2004]
Q154. Tobacco mosaic virus is a tubular filament of size
(1) 300 × 5 nm
(2) 700 × 30 nm
(3) 300 × 20 nm
(4) 300 × 10 nm
Ans: (3)
[2004]
Q155. Which one of the following statements about viruses is
correct?
(1) All viruses contain both RNA and DNA
(2) Nucleic acid of viruses is known as capsid
(3) Viruses are obligate parasites
(4) Viruses possess their own metabolic system
Ans: (3)
[2004]
Q156. For retting of jute the fermenting microbe used is
(1) Helicobactor pylori
(2) Methophilic bacteria
(3) Streptococcus lactin
(4) Butyric acid bacteria
Ans: (4)
[2004]
Q157. All of the following statements concerning the
Actinomycetes filamentous soil bacterium Frankia are correct
except that Frankia:
(1) Forms specialized vesicles in which the nitrogenase is protected from
oxygen by a chemical barrier involving triterpene hopanoids
(2) Can induce root nodules on many plant species
(3) Like Rhizobium, it usually infects its host plant through root hair
deformation and stimulates cell proliferation in the host’s cortex
(4) Cannot fix nitrogen in the free-living state.
Ans: (4)
[2004]
Q158. Auxopores and hormocysts are formed, respectively, by:
(1) Several cyanobacteria and several diatoms
(2) Some diatoms and several cyanobacteria
(3) Several diatoms and a few cyanobacteria.
(4) Some cyanobacteria and diatoms
Ans: (3)
 [2005]
Q159. Viruses that infect bacteria, multiply and cause their lysis,
are called
(1) lytic
(2) lysozymes
(3) lysogenic
(4) lipolytic
Ans: (1)
[2005]
Q160. The most thoroughly studied fact of the known bacteria-
plant interactions is the
(1) nodulation of Sesbania stems by nitrogen fixing bacteria
(2) cyanobacterial symbiosis with some aquatic ferns
(3) plant growth stimulation by phosphatesolubilising bacteria
(4) gall formation on certain angiosperms by Agrobacterium
Ans: (4)
[2005]
Q161. Which of the following environmental conditions are
essential for optimum growth of Mucor on a piece of bread? A.
Temperature of about 25°C B. Temperature of about 5° C C.
Relative humidity of about 5% D. Relative humidity of about 95%
E. A shady place F. A brightly illuminated place Choose the
answer from the following options:
(1) B, C and F only
(2) A, D and E only
(3) A, C and E only
(4) B, D and E only
Ans: (2)
[2005]
Q162. The thalloid body of a slime mould (Myxomycetes) is
known as
(1) mycelium
(2) plasmodium
(3) protonema
(4) fruiting body
Ans: (2)
[2006]
Q163. Which of the following statements regarding cilia is not
correct?
(1) Cilia contain an outer ring of nine doublet microtubules surrounding two
single microtubules
(2) Cilia are hair-like cellular appendages
(3) The organized beating of cilia is controlled by fluxes of Ca2+ across the
membrane
(4) Microtubules of cilia are composed of tubulin
Ans: (2)
[2006]
Q164. Which antibiotic inhibits interaction between RNA and
mRNA during bacterial protein synthesis?
(1) Tetracycline
(2) Neomycin
(3) Erythromycin
(4) Streptomycin
Ans: (2)
[2006]
Q165. There exists a close association between the alga and the
fungus within a lichen. The fungus
(1) fixes the atmospheric nitrogen for the alga
(2) provides protection, anchorage and absorption for the alga
(3) releases oxygen for the alga
(4) provides food for the alga
Ans: (2)
[2006]
Q166. Which one of the following is a slime mould?
(1) Anabaena
(2) Physarum
(3) Rhizopus
(4) Thiobacillus
Ans: (2)
Q167. Ergot of rye is caused by a species of
(1) claviceps
(2) uncimula
(3) phytophthora.
(4) ustilago
Ans: (1)
[2007]
Q168. Which pair of the following belongs to Basidiomycetes
(1) Morchella and mushrooms
(2) puffballs and Claviceps
(3) birds nest fungi and puffballs.
(4) peziza and stink borns
Ans: (3)
[2007]
Q169. Which one of the following statements about mycoplasma is
wrong?
(1) They cause diseases in plants
(2) They are pleomorphic
(3) They are also called PPLO.
(4) They are sensitive to penicillin
Ans: (4)
[2007]
Q170. The causative agent of mad-cow disease is a
(1) Bacterium
(2) Prion
(3) Virus
(4) Worm
Ans: (2)
[2007]
Q171. Which one is the wrong pairing for the disease and its causal
organism?
(1) Root-knot of vegetables - Meloidogyne sp
(2) Black rust of wheat - Puccinia graminis
(3) Late blight of potato - Alternaria solani
(4) Loose smut of wheat - Ustilago nuda
Ans: (3)
[2008]
Q172. Thermococcus, Methanococcus and Methanobacterium
exemplify:
(1) Bacteria whose DNA is relaxed or positively supercoiled but which have
a cytoskeleton as well as mitochondria
(2) Archaebacteria that contain protein homologous to eukaryotic core
histones
(3) Bacteria that contain a cytoskeleton and ribosomes
(4) Archaebacteria that lack any histones resembling those found in
eukaryotes but whose DNA is negatively supercoiled
Ans: (2)
[2008]
Q173. In the light of recent classification of living organisms into
three domains of life (bacteria, archaea and eukarya), which one of
the following statements is true about archaea?
(1) Archaea completely differ from both prokaryotes and eukaryotes
(2) Archaea resemble eukarya in all respects
(3) Archaea completely differ from prokaryotes.
(4) Archaea have some novel features that are absent in other prokaryotes and
eukaryotes
Ans: (4)
[2008]
Q174. Bacterial leaf blight of rice is caused by a species of
(1) Alternaria
(2) Xanthomonas
(3) Erwinia
(4) Pseudomonas
Ans: (2)
[2008]
Q175. Which one of the following is linked to the discovery of
Bordeaux mixture as a popular fungicide?
(1) Loose smut of wheat
(2) Bacterial leaf blight of rice
(3) Black rust of wheat
(4) Downy mildew of grapes
Ans: (4)
[2009]
Q176. Membrane-bound organelles are absent in:
(1) Chlamydomonas
(2) Saccharomyces
(3) Plasmodium
(4) Streptococcus
Ans: (4)
[2009]
Q177. Ringworm in humans is caused by:
(1) Nematodes
(2) Bacteria
(3) Viruses
(4) Fungi
Ans: (4)
[2009]
Q178. Single-celled eukaryotes are included in:
(1) Archaea
(2) Protista
(3) Monera
(4) Fungi
Ans: (2)
Q179. Mannitol is the stored food in:
(1) Gracillaria
(2) Porphyra
(3) Chara
(4) Fucus
Ans: (4)
[2010]
Q180. Phylogenetic system of classification is based on:
(1) floral characters
(2) morphological features
(3) evolutionary relationships
(4) chemical constituents
Ans: (3)
[2010]
Q181. Archegoniophore is present in:
(1) Adiantum
(2) Marchantia
(3) Funaria
(4) Chara
Ans: (2)
[2010]
Q182. Which one of the following organisms is not an example of
eukaryotic cells?
(1) Euglena viridis
(2) Paramecium caudatum
(3) Amoeba proteus
(4) Escherichia coli
Ans: (4)
[2011]
Q183. Ethanol is commercially produced through a particular
species of:
(1) Trichoderma
(2) Saccharomyces
(3) Aspergillus
(4) Clostridium
Ans: (2)
[2011]
Q184. Which one of the following is not a biofertilizer?
(1) Nostoc
(2) Agrobacterium
(3) Mycorrhiza
(4) Rhizobium
Ans: (2)
[2011]
Q185. Virus envelope is known as:
(1) Nucleoprotein
(2) Capsid
(3) Core
(4) Virion
Ans: (2)
[2011]
Q186. Which one of the following pairs is wrongly matched while
the remaining three are correct?
(1) Bryophyllum - Leaf buds
(2) Penicillium - Conidia
(3) Agave - Bulbils
(4) Water hyacinth - Runner
Ans: (4)
[2011]
Q187. Organisms called methanogens are most abundant in a:
(1) polluted stream
(2) sulphur rock
(3) hot spring
(4) cattle yard
Ans: (4)
[2011]
Q188. The gametophyte is not an independent, free living
generation in:
(1) Marchantia
(2) Polytrichum
(3) Pinus
(4) Adiantum
Ans: (3)
[2011]
Q189. Compared with the gametophytes of the bryophytes the
gametophytes of vascular plant are
(1) larger and have larger sex organs
(2) smaller but have larger sex organs
(3) smaller and have smaller sex organs
(4) larger but have smaller sex organs
Ans: (2)
[2011]
Q190. In eubacteria, a cellular component that resembles
eukaryotic cells is:
(1) ribosomes
(2) plasma membrane
(3) cell wall
(4) nucleus
Ans: (2)
[2011M]
Q191. The cyanobacteria are also referred to as
(1) Slime moulds
(2) protists
(3) blue green algae
(4) golden algae
Ans: (3)
[2011M]
Q192. The most abundant prokaryotes helpful to humans in making
curd from milk and in production of antibiotics are the ones
categorised as:
(1) Chemosynthetic autotrophs
(2) Cyanobacteria
(3) Heterotrophic bacteria
(4) Archaebacteria
Ans: (3)
[2011M]
Q193.
Ans: (2)
Q194. Selaginella and Salvinia are considered to represent a
significant step toward evolution of seed habit because:
(1) megaspores possess endosperm and embryo surrounded by seed coat
(2) female gametophyte is free and gets dispersed like seeds
(3) embryo develops in female gametophyte which is retained on parent
sporophyte.
(4) female gametophyte lacks archaegonia
Ans: (3)
 [2012]
Q195. Consider the following four statements whether they are
correct or wrong? (A) The sporophyte in liverworts is more
elaborate than that in mosses (B) Salvinia is heterosporous (C) The
life cycle in all seed-bearing plants is diplontic (D) In Pinus male
and female cones are borne on different trees
(1) Statements (B) and (C)
(2) Statements (A) and (C)
(3) Statements (A) and (B)
(4) Statements (A) and (D)
Ans: (4)
[2012]
Q196. Which one of the following sets of items in the options 1 - 4
are correctly categorized with one exception in it? Items-
Category- Exception
(1) Plasmodium, Cuscuta, Trypanosoma -Protozoan parasites- Cuscuta
(2) UAA, UAG, UGA -Stop codons -UAG
(3) Typhoid, Pneumonia, Diphtheria -Bacterial diseases -Diphtheria
(4) Kangaroo, Koala, Wombat -Australian marsupials -Wombat
Ans: (1)
[2012]
Q197. In the five-kingdom classification, Chlamydomonas and
Chlorella have been included in
(1) plantae
(2) protista
(3) monera
(4) algae
Ans: (4)
[2012]
Q198. How many organisms in the list given below are autotrophs?
Lactobacillus, Nostoc, Chara, Nitrosomonas, Nitrobacter,
Streptomyces, Saccharomyces, Trypanosomes, Porphyra, Wolffia
(1) Six
(2) Four
(3) Three
(4) Five
Ans: (1)
[2012M]
Q199. Which one single organism or the pair of organisms is
correctly assigned to its taxonomic group
(1) Yeast used in making bread and beer is a fungus
(2) Paramoecium and Plasmodium belong to the same kingdom as that of
Penicillium
(3) Nostoc and Anabaena are examples of protista
(4) Lichen is a composite organism formed from the symbiotic association of
an algae and a protozoan
Ans: (1)
[2012M]
Q200. Which statement is wrong for viruses
(1) They have ability to synthesize nucleic acids and proteins
(2) All are parasites
(3) Antibiotics have no effect on them
(4) All of them have helical symmetry
Ans: (4)
[2012M]
Q201. Sexual reproduction involving fusion of two cells in
Chlamydomonas is
(1) somatogamy
(2) isogamy
(3) hologamy
(4) homogamy
Ans: (2)
[NEET 2013]
Q202. Satellite RNAs are present in some
(1) Prions
(2) Plant viruses
(3) Bacteriophages
(4) Viroids
Ans: (2)
 [NEET Kar. 2013]
Q203. Specialized cellsfor fixing atmospheric nitrogen in Nostoc
are
(1) Hormogonia
(2) Akinetes
(3) Nodules
(4) Heterocysts
Ans: (4)
[NEET Kar. 2013]
Q204. Which one of the following is true for fungi?
(1) They are heterotrophs
(2) They are phagotrophs
(3) They lack nuclear membrane
(4) They lack a rigid cell wall
Ans: (1)
[NEET Kar. 2013]
Q205. Which of the following are likely to be present in deep sea
water?
(1) Saprophytic fungi
(2) Eubacteria
(3) Archaebacteria
(4) Blue-green algae
Ans: (3)
[1988]
Q206. In Pinus/gymnosperms, the haploid structure are
(1) megaspore, integument and root
(2) megaspore, endosperm and embryo
(3) pollen grain, leaf and root
(4) megaspore, pollen grain and endosperm
Ans: (4)
[1988]
Q207. Sperms of both Funaria and Pteris were released together
near the archegonia of Pteris. Only its sperms enter the archegonia
as
(1) Funaria sperms are less mobile
(2) Pteris archegonia repel Funaria sperms
(3) Pteris archegonia release chemical to attract its sperms
(4) Funaria sperms get killed by Pteris sperms
Ans: (3)
[1988]
Q208. Evolutionary important character of Selaginella is
(1) strobili
(2) heterosporous nature
(3) ligule
(4) rhizophore
Ans: (2)
Q209. In gymnosperms like Pinus and Cycas, the endosperm is
(1) diploid
(2) triploid
(3) tetraploid
(4) haploid
Ans: (4)
[1989]
Q210. Prothallus (gametophyte) gives rise to fern plant
(sporophyte) without fertilization. It is
(1) parthenocarpy
(2) apospory
(3) parthenogenesis
(4) apogamy
Ans: (4)
[1989]
Q211. The common mode of sexual reproduction in
Chlamydomonas is
(1) oogamous
(2) isogamous
(3) hologamous
(4) anisogamous
Ans: (2)
[1990]
Q212. The product of conjugation in Spirogyra or fertilization of
Chlamydomonas is
(1) oospore
(2) zygospore
(3) carpospore
(4) zoospore
Ans: (2)
[1990]
Q213. Protonema occurs in the life cycle of
(1) Somatogamy
(2) Riccia
(3) Spirogyra
(4) Funaria
Ans: (4)
[1990, 1993]
Q214. Moss peristome takes part in
(1) protection
(2) spore dispersal
(3) absorption
(4) photosynthesis
Ans: (2)
[1991]
Q215. Apophysis in the capsule of Funaria is
(1) middle part
(2) lower part
(3) fertile part
(4) upper part
Ans: (2)
[1991]
Q216. Which one of the following is not common between Funaria
and Selaginella?
(1) Flagellate sperms
(2) Archegonium
(3) Roots
(4) Embryo
Ans: (3)
 [1991]
Q217. The plant group that produces spores and embryo but lacks
vascular tissues and seeds is
(1) Bryophyta
(2) Pteridophyta
(3) Phaeophyta
(4) Rhodophyta
Ans: (1)
[1991]
Q218. A plant in which sporophytic generation is represented by
zygote
(1) Chlamydomonas
(2) Pinus
(3) Dryopteris
(4) Selaginella
Ans: (1)
[1992]
Q219. Bryophytes are amphibians because
(1) they are mostly aquatic
(2) they require a layer of water for carrying out sexual reproduction
(3) all the above
(4) they occur in damp places
Ans: (2)
[1992]
Q220. Which one has the largest gametophyte?
(1) Selaginella
(2) Cycas
(3) Moss
(4) Angiosperm
Ans: (3)
[1992]
Q221. Pteridophytes differ from mosses/bryophytes in possessing
(1) archegonia
(2) independent gametophyte
(3) flagellate spermatozoids
(4) well developed vascular system
Ans: (4)
[1992]
Q222. Turpentine is obtained from
(1) Gymnospermous wood
(2) Angiospermous wood
(3) Ferns
(4) Pteridophytes
Ans: (1)
[1992]
Q223. Resin and turpentine are obtained from
(1) Cedrus
(2) Cycas
(3) Abies
(4) Pinus
Ans: (4)

Q224. In Pinus, the pollen grain has 6 chromosomes then in its

endosperm will have
(1) 6
(2) 12
(3) 24
(4) 18
Ans: (1)
[1992]
Q225. A plant having seeds but lacking flowers and fruits belongs
to
(1) Ferns
(2) Pteridophytes
(3) Gymnosperms
(4) Mosses
Ans: (3)
[1993]
Q226. Which one is the most advanced from evolutionary point of
view.
(1) Chlamydomonas
(2) Selaginella
(3) Pinus
(4) Funaria
Ans: (3)
[1993]
Q227. Pinus differs from mango in having
(1) ovules not enclosed in ovary
(2) tree habit
(3) wood
(4) green leaves
Ans: (1)
[1993]
Q228. Pyrenoids are the centres for formation of
(1) fat
(2) porphyra
(3) starch
(4) enzymes
Ans: (3)
Q229. Chloroplast of Chlamydomonas is
(1) collar-shaped
(2) stellate
(3) spiral
(4) cup-shaped
Ans: (4)
[1993]
Q230. In Ulothrix/Spirogyra, reduction division (meiosis) occurs at
the time of
(1) zygospore germination
(2) gamete formation
(3) vegetative reproduction
(4) zoospore formation
Ans: (1)
[1993]
Q231. The absence of chlorophyll, in the lowermost cell of
Ulothrix, shows
(1) cell characteristic
(2) functional fission
(3) beginning of labour division
(4) tissue formation
Ans: (3)
Q232. Which of the following cannot fix nitrogen?
(1) Spirogyra
(2) Nostoc
(3) Anabaena
(4) Azotobacter
Ans: (1)

Q233. In Chlorophyceae, sexual reproduction occurs by

(1) Oogamy only
(2) Isogamy and anisogamy
(3) Anisogamy and oogamy
(4) Isogamy, anisogamy and oogamy
Ans: (4)
[1994]
Q234. Unique features of Bryophytes is that they
(1) lack roots
(2) produce spores
(3) lack vascular tissues
(4) have sporophyte attached to gametophyte
Ans: (4)
[1994]
Q235. The ‘wing’ of Pinus seed is derived from
(1) surface of ovuliferous scale
(2) testa
(3) all the above
(4) testa and tegmen
Ans: (1)
[1995]
Q236. In which one of these the elaters are present along with
mature spores in the capsule (to help in spore dispersal)?
(1) Funaria
(2) Riccia
(3) Sphagnum
(4) Marchantia
Ans: (4)
[1995]
Q237. The ‘amphibians’ of plant kingdom are
(1) bryophytes with simple internal organization
(2) unicellular motile algae
(3) pteridophytes with complex internal organization not reaching
angiosperm level.
(4) multicellular non-motile algae
Ans: (1)
[1995]
Q238. A well developed archegonium with neck consisting of 4-6
rows of neck canal cells, characterises
(1) Pteridophytes and gymnosperms
(2) Gymnosperms only
(3) Gymnosperms and flowering plants
(4) Bryophytes and pteridophytes
Ans: (4)
[1995]
Q239. The plant body of moss (Funaria) is
(1) predominantly sporophyte with gametophyte
(2) completely sporophyte
(3) predominantly gametophyte with sporophyte
(4) completely gametophyte
Ans: (3)

Q240. Agar is commercially obtained from

(1) brown algae
(2) red algae
(3) blue-green algae
(4) green algae
Ans: (2)
 [1996]
Q241. Multicellular branched rhizoids and leafy gametophytes are
characteristic of
(1) all pteridophytes
(2) all bryophytes
(3) some peteriodphytes
(4) some bryophytes
Ans: (4)
[1996]
Q242. An alga very rich in protein is
(1) Oscillatoria
(2) Spirogyra
(3) Chlorella
(4) Ulothrix
Ans: (3)
[1996, 97, 2003]
Q243. Blue-green algae belong to
(1) Rhodophyceae
(2) Eukaryotes
(3) Chlorophyceae
(4) Prokaryotes
Ans: (4)
[1996]
Q244. Which one of the following is a living fossil?
(1) Ginkgo
(2) Pinus
(3) Thuja
(4) Opuntia
Ans: (1)
[1997]
Q245. Seed-habit first originated in
(1) certain monocots
(2) certain ferns
(3) primitive dicots
(4) certain pines
Ans: (2)
[1997]
Q246. Ulothrix can be described as a
(1) membranous alga producing zoospores
(2) non-motile colonial alga lacking zoospores
(3) filamentous alga with flagellated reproductive stages
(4) filamentous alga lacking flagellated reproductive stages
Ans: (3)
[1997]
Q247. Which one of the following statements about Cycas is
incorrect?
(1) Its xylem is mainly composed of xylem vessels
(2) It does not have a well-organized female flower
(3) Its roots contain some blue-green algae.
(4) It has circinate vernation
Ans: (1)
[1997]
Q248. Brown algae is characterised by the presence of
(1) fucoxanthin
(2) phycocyanin
(3) haematochrome
(4) phycoerythrin
Ans: (1)
[1997]
Q249. Bryophytes can be separated from algae because they
(1) possess archegonia with outer layer of sterile cells
(2) are thalloid forms
(3) contain chloroplasts in their cells
(4) have no conducting tissue
Ans: (1)
[1998]
Q250. Ulothrix filaments produce
(1) heterogametes
(2) isogametes
(3) basidiospores
(4) anisogametes
Ans: (2)
[1998]
Q251. Bryophytes comprise
(1) dominant phase of gametophyte which produces spores
(2) sporophyte of longer duration
(3) small sporophyte phase and generally parasitic on gametophyte.
(4) dominant phase of sporophyte which is parasitic
Ans: (3)
[1998]
Q252. The antherozoids of Funaria are
(1) multiciliated
(2) aciliated
(3) monociliated
(4) flagellated
Ans: (4)

Q253. Largest sperms in the plant world are found in

(1) Cycas
(2) Pinus
(3) Thuja
(4) Banyan
Ans: (1)
[1998]
Q254. The “walking” fern is so named because
(1) it knows how to walk by itself
(2) it is dispersed through the agency of walking animals
(3) its spores are able to walk
(4) it propagates vegetatively by its leaf tips
Ans: (4)
[1999]
Q255. Bryophytes are dependent on water because
(1) the sperms can easily reach upto egg in the archegonium
(2) water is essential for fertilization for their homosporous nature
(3) archegonium has to remain filled with water for fertilization
(4) water is essential for their vegetative propagation
Ans: (1)
[1999]
Q256. The largest ovules, largest male and female gametes and
largest plants are found among
(1) Gymnosperms
(2) Angiosperms
(3) Dicotyledonous plants
(4) Tree ferns and some monocots
Ans: (1)
[1999, 2000]
Q257. Dichotomous branching is found in
(1) Liverworts
(2) Fern
(3) Marchantia
(4) Funaria
Ans: (3)
[1999]
Q258. Columella is a specialised structure found in the sporangium
of
(1) Spirogyra
(2) Ulothrix
(3) None of these
(4) Rhizopus
Ans: (4)
[1999]
Q259. Which of the following is true about bryophytes?
(1) They are thalloid
(2) They possess archegonia
(3) All of these
(4) They contain chloroplast
Ans: (3)
[1999]
Q260. In which of the following would you place the plants having
vascular tissue lacking seeds?
(1) Pteridophytes
(2) Algae
(3) Gymnosperms
(4) Bryophytes
Ans: (1)

Q261. Cycas have two cotyledons but not included in angiosperms

because of
(1) Circinate ptyxis
(2) Naked ovules
(3) Compound leaves
(4) Seems like monocot
Ans: (2)
[2000]
Q262. A research student collected certain alga and found that its
cells contained both chlorophyll a and chlorophyll b as well as
phycoerythrin. The alga belongs to
(1) Chlorophyceae
(2) Rhodophyceae
(3) Phaeophyceae
(4) Bacillariophyceae
Ans: (2)
[2000]
Q263. Floridean starch is found in
(1) Myxophyceae
(2) Chlorophyceae
(3) Cyanophyceae
(4) Rhodophyceae
Ans: (4)
[2000]
Q264. One of the most important reasons why wild plants should
thrive is that they are good sources of
(1) genes for resistance to disease and pests
(2) highly nutritive animal feed
(3) very rare and highly sought after fruits of medical importance
(4) unsaturated edible oils
Ans: (1)
 [2000]
Q265. In Ferns meiosis occurs when
(1) spores are formed
(2) spore germinates
(3) antheridia and archegonia are formed
(4) gametes are formed
Ans: (1)
[2001]
Q266. Which one pair of examples will correctly represent the
grouping Spermatophyta according to one of the schemes of
classifying plants?
(1) Pinus, Cycas
(2) Ginkgo, Pisum
(3) Rhizopus, Triticum
(4) Acacia, Sugarcane
Ans: (2)
[2002]
Q267. Which one of the following pairs of plants are not seed
producers?
(1) Funaria and Ficus
(2) Funaria and Pinus
(3) Ficus and Chlamydomonas
(4) Fern and Funaria
Ans: (4)
[2002]
Q268. Sexual reproduction in Spirogyra is an advanced feature
because it shows
(1) same size of motile sex organs
(2) physiologically differentiated sex organs
(3) morphologically different sex organs
(4) different sizes of motile sex organs
Ans: (2)
[2003]
Q269. Which of the following is without exception in
angiosperms?
(1) secondary growth
(2) presence of vessels
(3) autotrophic nutrition
(4) double fertilisation
Ans: (4)
[2003]
Q270. Which of the following plants produces seeds but not
flowers?
(1) Peepal
(2) Maize
(3) Pinus
(4) Mint
Ans: (3)
[2003]
Q271. Peat Moss is used as a packing material for sending flowers
and live plants to distant places because
(1) it serves as a disinfectant
(2) it is hygroscopic
(3) it is easily available
(4) It reduces transpiration
Ans: (2)
[2004]
Q272. In a moss the sporophyte
(1) manufactures food for itself as well as for the gametophyte
(2) produces gametes that give rise to the gametophyte
(3) is partially parasitic on the gametophyte
(4) arises from a spore produced from the gametophyte
Ans: (3)
Q273. Match items in Column I with those in Column II: Column I
Column II (A) Peritrichous (J) Ginkgo flagellation (B) Living fossil
(K) Macrocystis (C) Rhizophore (L) Escherichia coli (D) Smallest
(M) Selaginella flowering plant (E) Largest perennial (N) Wolffia
alga Select the correct answer from the following:
(1) A-N; B-L; C-K; D-N; E-J;
(2) A-L; B-J; C-M; D-N; E-K;
(3) A-J; B-K; C-N; D-L; E-K
(4) A-K; B-J; C-L; D-M; E-N
Ans: (2)

Q274. Which one of the following is a living fossil?

(1) Saccharomyces
(2) Cycas
(3) Spirogyra
(4) Moss [2003, 04]
Ans: (2)
[2006]
Q275. Which of the following propagates through leaf- tip?
(1) Marchantia
(2) Walking fern
(3) Moss
(4) Sproux-leaf plant
Ans: (2)
[2006]
Q276. In gymnosperms, the pollen chamber represents
(1) the microsporangium in which pollen grains develop
(2) a cavity in the ovule in which pollen grains are stored after pollination
(3) a cell in the pollen grain in which the sperms are formed.
(4) an opening in the megagametophyte through which the pollen tube
approaches the egg
Ans: (1)
[2006]
Q277. Flagellated male gametes are present in all the three of
which one of the following sets?
(1) Riccia, Dryopteris and Cycas
(2) Zygnema, Saprolegnia and Hydrilla
(3) Anthoceros, Funaria and Spirogyra
(4) Fucus, Marsilea and Calotropis
Ans: (1)
[2007]
Q278. If you are asked to classify the various algae into distinct
groups, which of the following characters you should choose?
(1) chemical composition of the cell wall
(2) nature of stored food materials in the cell
(3) types of pigments present in the cell.
(4) structural organization of thallus
Ans: (3)
[2007]
Q279. In the prothallus of a vascular cryptogam, the antherozoids
and eggs mature a different times. As a result
(1) self-fertilization is prevented
(2) there is high degree of sterility
(3) there is no change in success rate of fertilization
(4) one can conclude that the plant is apomictic
Ans: (1)
[2007]
Q280. Conifers differ from grasses in the
(1) formation of endosperm before fertilization
(2) lack of xylem tracheids
(3) production of seeds from ovules
(4) absence of pollen tubes
Ans: (1)
[2007]
Q281. Which one of the following plants is monoecious?
(1) Papaya
(2) Pinus
(3) Marchantia
(4) Cycas
Ans: (2)
[2007]
Q282. Select one of the following pairs of important features
distinguishing Gnetum from Cycas and Pinus and showing
affinities with angiosperms
(1) perianth and two integuments
(2) absence of resin duct and leaf venation
(3) embryo development and apical meristem
(4) presence of vessel elements and absence of archegonia
Ans: (4)
[2008]
Q283. Which one of the following is heterosporous?
(1) Adiantum
(2) Dryopteris
(3) Equisetum
(4) Salvinia
Ans: (4)
Q284. In which one of the following, male and female
gametophytes do not have free living independent existence?
(1) Polytrichum
(2) Pteris
(3) Cedrus
(4) Funaria
Ans: (3)
[2008]
Q285. Spore dissemination in some liverworts is aided by
(1) peristome teeth
(2) indusium
(3) elaters
(4) calyptra
Ans: (3)
[2009]
Q286. Some hyperthermophilic organisms that grow in highly
acidic (pH2) habitats belong to the two groups:
(1) Protists and mosses
(2) Eubacteria and archaea
(3) Liverworts and yeasts
(4) Cyanobacteria and diatoms
Ans: (2)
[2009]
Q287. Algae have cell wall made up of:
(1) pectins, cellulose and proteins
(2) cellulose, galactans and mannans
(3) cellulose, hemicellulose and pectins
(4) hemicellulose, pectins and proteins
Ans: (2)
[2009]
Q288. Male and female gametophytes are independent and free -
living in:
(1) Pinus
(2) Mustard
(3) Sphagnum
(4) Castor
Ans: (3)
[2010]
Q289. Which one of the following is a vascular cryptogam?
(1) Cedrus
(2) Ginkgo
(3) Equisetum
(4) Marchantia
Ans: (3)
[2010]
Q290. Which one of the following has haplontic life cycle?
(1) Wheat
(2) Polytrichum
(3) Funaria
(4) Ustilago
Ans: (4)
[2010]
Q291. Read the following five statements (A - E) and answer the
question. (A) In Equisetum the female gametophyte is retained on
the parent sporophyte. (B) In Ginkgo male gametophyte is not
independent. (C) The sporophyte in Riccia is more developed than
that in Polytrichum. (D) Sexual reproduction in Volvox is
isogamous. (E) The spores of slime molds lack cell walls. How
many of the above statements are correct?
(1) Four
(2) Two
(3) One
(4) Three
Ans: (2)
[2011M]
Q292. Which one of the following is common to multicellular
fungi, filamentous algae and protonema of mosses
(1) Mode of Nutrition
(2) Diplontic life cycle
(3) Multiplication by fragmentation
(4) Members of kingdom plantae
Ans: (3)
[2012]
Q293. Which one of the following is a correct statement?
(1) Antheridiophores and archegoniophores are present in pteridophytes.
(2) Pteridophyte gametophyte has a protonemal and leafy stage
(3) Origin of seed habit can be traced in pteridophytes
(4) In gymnosperms female gametophyte is free-living
Ans: (3)
[2012]
Q294. Cycas and Adiantum resemble each other in having:
(1) Cambium
(2) Seeds
(3) Vessels
(4) Motile Sperms
Ans: (4)
[2012]
Q295. In angiosperms, functional megaspore develops into
(1) endosperm
(2) embryo sac
(3) pollen sac
(4) ovule
Ans: (2)
[2012M]
Q296. Which of the following is not correctly matched for the
organism and its cell wall degrading enzyme?
(1) Fungi-Chitinase
(2) Plant cells-Cellulase
(3) Bacteria-Lysozyme
(4) Algae-Methylase
Ans: (4)
[2012M]
Q297. Read the following statements (A-E) and answer the
question which follows them. 1. In liverworts, mosses and ferns
gametophytes are free-living 2. Gymnosperms and some ferns are
heterosporous. 3. Sexual reproduction in Fucus, Volvox and
Albugo is oogamous 4. The sporophyte in liveworts is more
elaborate than that in mosses 5. Both, Pinus and Marchantia are
dioecious How many of the above statements are correct?
(1) Four
(2) Two
(3) One
(4) Three
Ans: (4)
[NEET 2013]
Q298. Isogamous condition with non-flagellated gametes is found
in:
(1) Fucus
(2) Spirogyra
(3) Chlamydomonas
(4) Volvox
Ans: (2)
[NEET 2013]
Q299. Besides paddy fields cyanobacteria are also found inside
vegetative part of:
(1) Psilotum
(2) Cycas
(3) Pinus
(4) Equisetum
Ans: (2)
[NEET 2013]
Q300. Which one of the following pairs is wrongly matched?
(1) Viroids - RNA
(2) Ginkgo -Archegonia
(3) Mustard - Synergids
(4) Salvinia - Prothallus
Ans: (2)
[NEET 2013]
Q301. Organ Pipe Coral is
(1) Helipora
(2) Tubipora
(3) Fungia
(4) Astraea
Ans: (2)
[NEET Kar. 2013]
Q302. Animals/organisms floating on the surface of water are
(1) benthos
(2) plankton
(3) neritic
(4) pelagic
Ans: (2)
[NEET Kar. 2013]
Q303. Which one of the following is wrongly matched?
(1) Sargassum-Chlorophyll c
(2) Nostoc-Water blooms
(3) Basidiomycetes-Puffballs
(4) Spirogyra-Motile gametes
Ans: (4)
[NEET Kar. 2013]
Q304. What is common in all the three, Funaria, Dryopteris and
Ginkgo?
(1) Well developed vascular tissues
(2) Independent sporophyte
(3) Independent gametophyte
(4) Presence of archegonia
Ans: (4)
[1988]
Q305. The plant body is thalloid in
(1) Salvinia
(2) Funaria
(3) Marchantia
(4) Sphagnum
Ans: (3)
[1988]
Q306. Fire bellied toad is
(1) Necturus
(2) Amphiuma
(3) Salamandra
(4) Discoglossus
Ans: (4)
[1988]
Q307. Which is not a true amphibian animal
(1) Tortoise
(2) Salamander
(3) Frog
(4) Toad
Ans: (1)
[1988]
Q308. Association between Sucker Fish (Remora) and Shark is
(1) Predation
(2) Commensalism
(3) Parasitism
(4) Symbiosis
Ans: (2)
[1988]
Q309. A wood boring mollusc/Shipworm is
(1) Limax
(2) Chiton
(3) Patella
(4) Teredo
Ans: (4)
[1988]
Q310. Silk thread is obtained from Silk Moth during
(1) nymph state
(2) pupal state
(3) adult state
(4) larval state
Ans: (2)
[1988]
Q311. Bird vertebrae are
(1) amphicoelous
(2) acoelous
(3) procoelous
(4) heterocoelous
Ans: (4)
[1988]
Q312. Feet of king fisher are modified for
(1) running
(2) wading
(3) catching
(4) perching
Ans: (2)
[1988]
Q313. Both male and female pigeons secrete milk through
(1) Crop
(2) Salivary glands
(3) Gizzard
(4) Modified sweat glands
Ans: (1)
[1988]
Q314. Typhlops is
(1) Blind Snake
(2) Sea Snake
(3) Grass Snake
(4) Glass Snake
Ans: (1)
[1988]
Q315. Necturus is
(1) Mud Puppy
(2) Hell Bender
(3) Blind Worm
(4) Congo Eel
Ans: (1)
[1988]
Q316. Transfer of Taenia to secondary host occurs as
(1) morula
(2) onchosphere
(3) egg.
(4) cysticercus
Ans: (2)
[1988]
Q317. Jelly Fishes belongs to class
(1) Anthozoa
(2) Hydrozoa
(3) None of these
(4) Scyphozoa
Ans: (4)
[1988]
Q318. Fish which can be used in biological control of
mosquitoes/Larvicidal fish is
(1) Cat Fish
(2) Eel
(3) Gambusia
(4) Carp
Ans: (3)
[1989, 01]
Q319. Lamina propria is connected with
(1) graafian follicle
(2) acini
(3) intestine
(4) liver
Ans: (3)
[1989]
Q320. Hair occur in all mammals except those of
(1) Primata
(2) Rodentia
(3) Cetacea
(4) Chiroptera
Ans: (3)
[1989]
Q321. Wish bone of birds is from
(1) hind limbs
(2) pelvic girdle
(3) pectoral girdle/clavicles
(4) skull
Ans: (3)
[1989]
Q322. Flight muscles of birds are attached to
(1) scapula
(2) clavicle
(3) coracoid
(4) keel of sternum
Ans: (4)
[1989]
Q323. A chordate character is
(1) postanal tail
(2) gills
(3) chitinous exoskeleton
(4) spiracles
Ans: (1)
[1989]
Q324. Earthworms are
(1) more useful than harmful
(2) useful
(3) more harmful
(4) harmful
Ans: (2)
[1989]
Q325. Photoreceptors of earthworm occur on
(1) dorsal surface
(2) clitellum
(3) lateral sides
(4) many eyes
Ans: (1)
[1989]
Q326. Blood of Pheretima is
(1) red with haemoglobin in corpuscles
(2) blue with haemocyanin in corpuscles
(3) red with haemoglobin in plasma
(4) blue with haemocyanin in plasma
Ans: (3)
[1989]
Q327. Pheretima posthuma is highly useful as
(1) they are used as fish meal
(2) their burrows make the soil loose
(3) they kill the birds due to biomagnification of chlorinated hydrocarbons
(4) they make the soil porous, leave their castings and take organic debris in
the soil
Ans: (4)
[1990]
Q328. Taenia saginata differs from Taenia solium in
(1) absence of scolex hooks and presence of both male and female
reproductive organs
(2) absence of scolex hooks
(3) presence of scolex hooks
(4) absence of scolex hooks and uterine branching
Ans: (4)
[1990]
Q329. Onchosphere occurs in
(1) Taenia
(2) Ascaris
(3) Planaria
(4) Fasciola
Ans: (1)
[1990]
Q330. Eutherians are characterised by
(1) ovoviviparity
(2) hairy skin
(3) glandular skin
(4) true placentation
Ans: (4)
[1990]
Q331. Ecdysis is shedding of
(1) dermis
(2) stratum corneum
(3) stratum Malpighi
(4) epidermis
Ans: (2)
[1990]
Q332. Penguin occurs in
(1) Africa
(2) Australia
(3) America
(4) Antarctica
Ans: (4)
[1990]
Q333. Kala-azar and Oriental Sore are spread by
(1) Sand Fly
(2) Housefly
(3) Fruit Fly
(4) Bed Bug
Ans: (1)
[1990]
Q334. Malpighian tubules are
(1) respiratory organs of insects
(2) excretory organs of insects
(3) respiratory organs of annelids
(4) excretory organs of annelids
Ans: (2)
[1990]
Q335. In hot summer and cold winter, the number of malaria cases
as well as Anopheles declines, Reappearance of malaria in humid
warm conditions is due to
(1) monkeys
(2) surving malarial parasites in human carriers
(3) mosquito larvae in permanent waters
(4) surviving sporozoites in surviving mosquitoes
Ans: (4)
[1990]
Q336. Classification of Porifera is based on
(1) reproduction
(2) branching
(3) symmetry
(4) spicules
Ans: (4)
[1990]
Q337. The excretory structures of flatworms/Taenia are
(1) malpighian tubules
(2) flame cells
(3) green glands
(4) protonephridia
Ans: (2)
[1991]
Q338. Bladderworm/cysticercus is the larval stage of
(1) Pinworm
(2) Tapeworm
(3) Liver Fluke
(4) Roundworm
Ans: (2)
[1991]
Q339. Earthworm possesses hearts
(1) 2 pairs
(2) 6 pairs
(3) 1
(4) 4 pairs
Ans: (4)
[1991]
Q340. Skin is a respiratory organ in
(1) primitive mammals
(2) lizards
(3) frog
(4) birds
Ans: (3)
[1991]
Q341. Which one occurs in Echinodermata
(1) Porous body
(2) Bilateral symmetry
(3) Soft skin
(4) Radical symmetry
Ans: (4)
[1991]
Q342. An insect regarded as greatest mechanical carrier of diseases
is
(1) Musca
(2) Pediculus
(3) Xenopsylla
(4) Cimex
Ans: (1)
[1991]
Q343. Metamorphosis of insects is regulated through hormone
(1) ecdysone
(2) pheromone
(3) all the above
(4) thyroxine
Ans: (1)
[1991]
Q344. Male and female cockroaches can be distinguished
externally through
(1) anal style and antennae in females
(2) anal styles in male
(3) both b and c
(4) anal cerci in female
Ans: (2)
[1991]
Q345. Ascaris lumbricoides infection occurs through
(1) improperly cooked measly pork
(2) sole of uncovered feet
(3) from air through inhalation
(4) contaminated cooked measly pork
Ans: (4)
[1991]
Q346. Ascaris larva is called
(1) hexacanth
(2) cysticercus
(3) onchosphere
(4) rhabditiform
Ans: (4)
[1991]
Q347. What is correct about Taenia?
(1) Female organs occur in anterior proglottides
(2) Male organs occur in posterior proglottides
(3) Mature proglottides contain both male and female organs
(4) Male organs occur in anterior proglottides
Ans: (3)
[1992]
Q348. The simplest type of canal system in Porifera is
(1) sycon type
(2) ascon type
(3) radial type
(4) leucon type
Ans: (2)
[1992]
Q349. An egg laying mammal is
(1) Koala
(2) Kangaroo
(3) Whale
(4) Platypus
Ans: (4)
[1992]
Q350. Kidney of adult rabbit is
(1) mesonephros
(2) pronephros
(3) opisthonephros
(4) metanephros
Ans: (4)
[1992]
Q351. Star fish belongs to
(1) Holothuroidea
(2) Asteriodea
(3) Crinoidea
(4) Ophiuroidea
Ans: (2)
[1992]
Q352. Eye of the molluscan group that resembles vertebrate eye
is
(1) pelecypoda
(2) bivalvia
(3) cephalopoda
(4) gastropoda
Ans: (3)
[1992]
Q353. Adult Culex and Anopheles can be distinguished with the
help of
(1) antennae/wings
(2) mouth parts/colour
(3) feeding habits
(4) sitting posture
Ans: (4)
[1992]
Q354. Sound box of birds is called
(1) syrinx
(2) pygostyle
(3) synsacrum
(4) larynx
Ans: (1)
[1992]
Q355. A. Periplaneta americana is nocturnal, omnivorous,
household pest. R. It is because it acts as scavenger
(1) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A
(2) A is true but R is false
(3) Both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation of A
(4) A is false but R is true
Ans: (1)
[1992]
Q356. Gorilla, Chimpanzee, Monkeys and Humans belongs to the
same
(1) family
(2) species
(3) order
(4) genus
Ans: (3)
[1992]
Q357. What is common in Whale, Bat and Rat?
(1) Extra-abdominal testes to avoid high temperature of body
(2) Absence of neck
(3) Presence of external ears
(4) Muscular diaphragm between thorax and abdomen
Ans: (4)
 [1992]
Q358. The cervical vertebrae in humans is
(1) double than that of horse
(2) same as in whale
(3) less than that in giraffe
(4) more than that in rabbit
Ans: (2)
[1993]
Q359. Bull Frog of India is
(1) R. ecutesbeiana
(2) Rana tigrina
(3) R. esculenta
(4) R. sylvatica
Ans: (2)

Q360. Aristotle’s lantern occurs in class

(1) Holothuroidea
(2) Echinoidea
(3) Ophiuroidea
(4) Asteroidea
Ans: (2)
[1993]
Q361. Give the correct matching of causative agent/ germ and
disease
(1) Glossina – Kala-azar
(2) Anopheles – malaria
(3) Wuchereria – Filariasis
(4) Leishmania – Sleeping sickness
Ans: (3)
[1993]
Q362. Tracheae of cockroach and mammal are similar in having
(1) ciliated inner lining
(2) paried nature
(3) origin from head
(4) noncollapsible walls
Ans: (4)
 [1993]
Q363. A larval stage occurs in the life history of all members of the
group
(1) housefly, earthworm and mosquito
(2) frog, lizard and cockroach
(3) butterfly, frog and mosquito
(4) ascaris, housefly and frog
Ans: (3)
[1993]
Q364. Mucus helps frog in forming
(1) smooth skin
(2) thick skin
(3) moist skin
(4) dry skin
Ans: (3)
[1993]
Q365. All vertebrates possess
(1) four chambered ventral heart
(2) renal portal system
(3) pharyngeal gill slits
(4) dorsal hollow central nervous system
Ans: (4)
[1993]
Q366. What is common between Ostrich, Penguin and Kiwi?
(1) Flightless birds
(2) Running birds
(3) Four toed birds
(4) Migratory birds
Ans: (1)
[1993]
Q367. Which one assists in locomotion
(1) Clitellum in Pheretima
(2) Trichocysts in Paramecium
(3) Posterior sucker in Hirudinaria
(4) Pedicellariae of Star Fish
Ans: (3)
[1993]
Q368. What is true about Taenia saginata?
(1) Rostellar hooks are absent
(2) Life history has pig as intermediate host
(3) Rostellum has double circle of hooks
(4) There are two large suckers on scolex
Ans: (1)
[1993]
Q369. Which one of the following animals possesses nerve cells
but no nerves
(1) Earthworm
(2) Hydra
(3) Frog’s tadpole
(4) Tapeworm
Ans: (2)
[1993]
Q370. Budding is a normal mode of asexual reproduction in
(1) tapeworm and Hydra
(2) starfish and Hydra
(3) sponge and starfish
(4) hydra and sponges
Ans: (4)
[1993]
Q371. Which one belongs to Platyhelminthes?
(1) Plasmodium
(2) Schistosoma
(3) Wuchereria
(4) Trypanosoma
Ans: (2)
[1994]
Q372. Point out the non-parasite
(1) Leech
(2) Tapeworm
(3) Sea anemone
(4) Mosquito
Ans: (3)
[1994]
Q373. Special character of Coelenterates is
(1) flame cells
(2) polymorphism
(3) hermaphroditism
(4) nematocysts
Ans: (4)
[1994]
Q374. Coelom derived from blastocoel is known as
(1) pseudocoelom
(2) enterocoelom
(3) haemocoelom
(4) schizocoel
Ans: (1)
[1994]
Q375. Radial symmetry is often exhibited by animals having
(1) benthos/sedentary living
(2) one opening of alimentary canal
(3) ciliary mode of feeding
(4) aquatic mode of living
Ans: (1)
[1994]
Q376. Golden era/age of reptiles is
(1) recent
(2) palaeozoic
(3) proterozoic
(4) mesozoic
Ans: (4)
[1994]
Q377. A common characteristic of all vertebrates is
(1) presence of two pairs of functional appendages
(2) presence of skull
(3) body is covered with an exoskeleton
(4) division of body into head, neck, trunk and tail
Ans: (2)
[1994]
Q378. All chordates possess
(1) skull
(2) exoskeleton
(3) axial skeletal rod of notochord
(4) limbs
Ans: (3)
[1994]
Q379. Tube feet occur in
(1) Cuttle Fish
(2) Cockroach
(3) Cat Fish
(4) Star Fish
Ans: (4)

Q380. Closed circulatory system occurs in

(1) cuttle Fish
(2) snail
(3) all of these
(4) cockroach
Ans: (1)
[1994]
Q381. True coelom is the space lying between the alimentary canal
and body wall enclosed by the layers of
(1) mesoderm on one side and ectoderm on the other
(2) ectoderm on both sides
(3) mesoderm on both sides
(4) endoderm on one side and ectoderm on the other
Ans: (3)
[1995]
Q382. Radial symmetry is usually associated with
(1) creeping mode of locomotion
(2) aquatic mode of life
(3) sedentary mode of life
(4) lower grade of organisation
Ans: (4)
[1995]
Q383. Pneumatic bones are expected to be found in
(1) frog’s tadpole
(2) pigeon
(3) flying fish
(4) house lizard
Ans: (2)
[1996]
Q384. Besides annelida and arthropoda, the metamerism is
exhibited by
(1) mollusca
(2) cestoda
(3) acanthocephala
(4) chordata
Ans: (4)

Q385. The organisms attached to the substratum, generally,

possess
(1) asymmetrical body
(2) radial symmetry
(3) cilia on surface to create water current
(4) one single opening of digestive canal
Ans: (2)
[1996]
Q386. The long bones are hollow and connected by air passages
these are characteristics of
(1) aves
(2) mammals
(3) all land vertebrates
(4) reptilia
Ans: (1)
[1996]
Q387. What is common among silverfish, scorpion, crab and honey
bee?
(1) Jointed legs
(2) Compound eyes
(3) Metamorphosis
(4) Poison gland
Ans: (1)
[1996]
Q388. The flightless bird Cassowary is found in
(1) New Zealand
(2) Mauritius
(3) Indonesia
(4) Australia
Ans: (4)
Q389. Functionwise, just as there are nephridia in an earthworm, so
are
(1) flame cells in liver fluke
(2) parotid glands in toad
(3) myotomes in fish
(4) statocysts in prawn
Ans: (1)
[1997]
Q390. What is true about all sponges without exception
(1) They have a mixed skeleton consisting of spicules and spongin fibres
(2) They are all marine
(3) They reproduce only asexually by budding
(4) They have flagellated collar cells
Ans: (4)

Q391. What is common between Ascaris lumbricoides and

Anopheles stephensi?
(1) Anaerobic respiration
(2) Sexual dimorphism
(3) Metamerism
(4) Hibernation
Ans: (2)
 [1998]
Q392. Indicate the correct statement
(1) Rat bears cloaca
(2) Camel has biconcave red blood cells
(3) Platypus lays eggs
(4) Bat bears feathers
Ans: (3)
[1998]
Q393. Cell-tissue-body organisation is characteristic of
(1) Liver fluke
(2) Star fish
(3) Sponge
(4) Hydra
Ans: (4)
[2000]
Q394. In desert grasslands which type of animals are relatively
more abundant?
(1) Fussorial
(2) Arboreal
(3) Diurnal
(4) Aquatic
Ans: (1)
[2000]
Q395. Most appropriate term to describe the life cycle of Obelia
is
(1) alternation of generations
(2) metagenesis
(3) neoteny
(4) metamorphosis
Ans: (2)
[2000]
Q396. In which of the animals dimorphic nucleus is found?
(1) Plasmodium vivax
(2) Amoeba proteus
(3) Paramecium caudatum
(4) Trypanosoma gambiense
Ans: (3)
[2001]
Q397. In which of the following notochord is present in embryonic
stage?
(1) Vertebrates
(2) All chordates
(3) Non chordates
(4) Some chordates
Ans: (2)
[2001]
Q398. Cause of mimicry is
(1) protection (defence)
(2) concealment
(3) both
(4) attack (offence)
Ans: (2)
[2002]
Q399. In which of the following, haemocyanin pigment is found?
(1) Echinodermata
(2) Mollusca
(3) Lower chordata
(4) Annelida
Ans: (2)
[2002]
Q400. In which of the following animal post anal tail is found?
(1) Scorpion
(2) Earthworm
(3) Cobra
(4) Lower invertebrate
Ans: (3)
[2002, 05]
Q401. One of the following is a very unique feature of the
mammalian body:
(1) Four chambered heart
(2) Homeothermy
(3) Rib cage
(4) Presence of diaphragm
Ans: (4)
[2003]
Q402. Sycon belongs to a group of animals, which are best
described as
(1) multicellular without any tissue organization
(2) multicellular having tissue organization, but no body cavity
(3) multicellular with a gastrovascular system
(4) unicellular or acellular
Ans: (1)
[2003]
Q403. During its life-cycle, Fasciola hepatica (liver fluke) infects
its intermediate host and primary host at the following larval stages
respectively:
(1) cercaria and redia
(2) miracidium and metacercaria
(3) metacercaria and cercaria
(4) redia and miracidium
Ans: (4)
[2003]
Q404. Given below are four matchings of an animal and its kind of
respiratory organ: (A) Silver fish – trachea (B) Scorpion – book
lung (C) Sea squirt – pharyngeal gills (D) Dolphin – skin The
correct matchings are
(1) A, B and C
(2) C and D
(3) B and D
(4) A and D
Ans: (1)
[2003]
Q405. Which one of the following is a matching pair of an animal
and a certain phenomenon it exhibits?
(1) Musca – Complete metamorphosis
(2) Taenia – Polymorphism
(3) Chameleon – Mimicry
(4) Pheretima – Sexual dimorphism
Ans: (1)
[2004]
Q406. In contrast to Annelids the Platyhelminths show:
(1) Radial symmetry
(2) Absence of body cavity
(3) Presence of pseudocoel
(4) Bilaterial symmetry
Ans: (2)
[2004]
Q407. From the following statements select the wrong one.
(1) Millepedes have two pairs of appendages in each segment of the body
(2) Prawn has two pairs of antennae
(3) Animals belonging to Phylum Porifera are exclusively marine
(4) Nematocysts are characteristic of the Pylum Cnidaria
Ans: (3)
Q408. Which one of the following characters is not typical of the
class Mammalia?
(1) Ten pairs of cranial nerves
(2) Thecodont dentition
(3) Seven cervical vertebrae
(4) Alveolar lungs
Ans: (1)
[2005]
Q409. In Arthropoda, head and thorax are often fused to form
cephalothorax, but in which one of the following classes, is the
body divided into head, thorax and abdomen?
(1) Crustacea
(2) Insecta
(3) Arachnida and Crustacea
(4) Myriapoda
Ans: (2)
 [2005]
Q410. The animals with bilateral symmetry in young stage, and
radial pentamerous symmetry in the adult stage, belong to the
phylum
(1) Cnidaria
(2) Annelida
(3) Echinodermata
(4) Mollusca
Ans: (3)
[2005]
Q411. Which one of the following is a matching set of a phylum
and its three examples?
(1) Porifera - Spongilla, Euplectella, Pennatula
(2) Platyhelminthes - Planaria, Schistosoma, Enterobius
(3) Cnidaria - Bonellia, Physalia, Aurelia
(4) Mollusca - Loligo, Teredo, Octopus
Ans: (4)
[2006]
Q412. Metameric segmentation is the characteristic of
(1) Mollusca and Chordata
(2) Echinodermata and Annelida
(3) Platyhelminthes and Arthropoda
(4) Annelida and Arthropoda
Ans: (4)
[2006]
Q413. Biradial symmetry and lack of cnidoblasts are the
characteristics of
(1) Hydra and starfish
(2) Ctenoplana and Beroe
(3) Starfish and sea anemone
(4) Aurelia and Paramecium
Ans: (2)
[2006]
Q414. In which one of the following sets of animals do all the four
give birth to young ones?
(1) Kangaroo, Hedgehog, Dolphin,, Loris
(2) Platypus, Penguin, Bat, Hippopotamus
(3) Lion, Bat, Whale, Ostrich
(4) Shrew, Bat, Cat, Kiwi
Ans: (1)
[2006]
Q415. Two common characters found in centipede, cockroach and
crab are
(1) Book lungs and antennae
(2) Jointed legs and chitinous exoskeleton
(3) Compound eyes and anal cerci
(4) Green gland and tracheae
Ans: (2)
[2006]
Q416. Which one of the following is the true description about an
animal concerned?
(1) Rat - Left kidney is slightly higher in position than the right one
(2) Earthworm - The alimentary canal consists of a sequence of pharynx,
oesophagus, stomach, gizzard and intestine
(3) Cockroach - 10 pairs of spiracles (2 pairs on thorax and 8 pairs on
abdomen)
(4) Frog - Body divisible into three regions - head, neck and trunk
Ans: (3)
Q417. Which one of the following is NOT a characteristic of
phylum Annelida?
(1) Pseudocoelom
(2) Closed circulatory system
(3) Ventral nerve cord
(4) Segmentation
Ans: (1)
[2006]
Q418. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
Animals - Morphological features \(i) Crocodile - 4-chambered
heart \(ii) Sea urchin – Parapodia\(iii) Obelia - Thecodont \(iv)
Lemur - Thecodont
(1) only (i) and (ii)
(2) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(3) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(4) only (i) and (iv)
Ans: (4)
[2007]
Q419. Annual migration does not occur in the case of
(1) Arctic tern
(2) Siberian crane
(3) Salmon
(4) Salamander
Ans: (4)
[2008]
Q420. What is common about Trypanosoma, Noctiluca,
Monocystis and Giardia?
(1) These are all parasites
(2) They have flagella
(3) These are all unicellular protists
(4) They produce spores
Ans: (3)
[2008]
Q421. Which one of the following pairs of animals comprises
‘jawless fishes’?
(1) Guppies and hag fishes
(2) Mackerals and Rohu
(3) Lampreys and eels
(4) Lampreys and hag fishes
Ans: (4)
[2008]
Q422. Which one of the following groups of animals is bilaterally
symmetrical and triploblastic?
(1) Sponges
(2) Aschelminthes (round worms)
(3) Coelenterates (Cnidarians)
(4) Ctenophores
Ans: (2)
[2008]
Q423. Which one of the following groups of three animals each is
correctly matched with their one characteristic morphological
feature? Animals Morphological - feature
(1) Scorpion, Spider, - Ventral solid central Cockroach nervous system
(2) Liver fluke, Sea - Bilateral anemone, Sea symmetry cucumber
(3) Cockroach, - Metameric Locust, Taenia segmentation
(4) Centipede, Prawn- Jointed appendages Sea urchin
Ans: (1)
[2008]
Q424. Ascaris is characterized by
(1) presence of true coelom but absence of metamerism
(2) absence of true coelom but presence of metamerism
(3) presence of true coelom and metamerism (metamerisation)
(4) presence of neither true coelom nor metamerism
Ans: (4)
Q425. Which one of the following phyla is correctly matched with
its two general characteristics?
(1) Echinodermata - Pentamerous radial symmetry and mostly internal
fertilization
(2) Arthropoda - Body divided into head, thorax and abdomen and respiration
by tracheae
(3) Mollusca - Normally oviparous and development through a trochophore
or veliger larva
(4) Chordata - Notochord at some stage and separate anal and urinary
openings to the outside
Ans: (3)
[2009]
Q426. What will you look for to identify the sex of the
following?
(1) Female cockroach-Anal cerci
(2) Female Ascaris- Sharply curved posterior end
(3) Male shark-Claspers borne on pelvic fins
(4) Male frog- A copulatory pad on the first digit of the hind limb
Ans: (3)
[2010]
Q427. Which one of the following statements about certain given
animals is correct?
(1) Insects are pseudocoelomates
(2) Round worms (Aschelminthes) are pseudocoelomates
(3) Flat worms (Platyhelminthes) are coelomates
(4) Molluscs are acoelomates
Ans: (2)
[2010]
Q428. Which one of the following kinds of animals are
triploblastic?
(1) Ctenophores
(2) Flat worms
(3) Corals
(4) Sponges
Ans: (2)
[2010]
Q429. Which one of the following statements about all the four of
Spongilla, Leech, Dolphin and Penguin is correct?
(1) Spongilla has special collared cells called choanocytes, not found in the
remaining three
(2) Penguin is homeothermic while the remaining three are poikilothermic
(3) All are bilaterally symmetrical
(4) Leech is a fresh water form while all others are marine
Ans: (1)
[2010]
Q430. One example of animals having a single opening to the
outside that serves both as mouth as well as anus is:
(1) Ascidia
(2) Octopus
(3) Fasciola
(4) Asterias
Ans: (3)
[2011]
Q431. Frogs differ from humans in possessing:
(1) nucleated red blood cells
(2) paired cerebral hemispheres [2011M]
(3) thyroid as well as parathyroid
(4) hepatic portal system
Ans: (1)
[2011]
Q432. Which one of the following statements is totally wrong
about the occurrence of notochord, while the other three are
correct?
(1) It is absent throughout life in humans from the very beginning
(2) It is present only in larval tail in Ascidians
(3) It is present throughout life in Amphioxus
(4) It is replaced by a vertebral column in adult frog
Ans: (1)
[2011]
Q433. In which one of the folllowing, the genus name, its two
characters and its class/phylum are correctly matched? Genus
name --Two characters --Class/ phylum
(1) Pteropus --(i) Skin possesses hair Mammalia (ii) Oviparous--Mamalia
(2) Ascaris --(i) Body segmented Annelida (ii) Males and females distinct --
Anelida
(3) Aurelia --(i) Cnidoblasts Coelenterata (ii) Organ level of organization--
Coelenterata
(4) Salamandra --(i) A tympanum represents ear Amphibia (ii) Fertilization is
external --Amphibia
Ans: (1)
[2011]
Q434. Which one of the following groups of animals is correctly
matched with its one characteristic feature without even a single
exception?
(1) Chondrichthyes: possess cartilagious endoskeleton
(2) Reptilia: possess 3 - chambered heart with one incompletely divided
ventricle
(3) Mammalia: give birth to young one.
(4) Chordata: possess a mouth provided with an upper and lower jaw
Ans: (1)
[2011M]
Q435. Which one of the following have the highest number of
species in nature?
(1) Birds
(2) Fungi
(3) Angiosperms
(4) Insects
Ans: (4)

Q436. Which group of animals belong to the same phylum?

(1) Sponge, Sea anemone, Starfish
(2) Earthworm, Pinworm, Tapeworm
(3) Malarial parasite, Amoeba, Mosquito
(4) Prawn, Scorpion, Locusta
Ans: (4)
[2011M]
Q437. Which one of the following categories of animals, is
correctly described with no single exception in it?
(1) All bony fishes have four pairs of gills and an operculum on each side.
(2) All sponges are marine and have collared cells.
(3) All reptiles possess scales, have a three chambered heart and are cold
blooded (poikilothermal).
(4) All mammals are viviparous and possess diaphragm for breathing.
Ans: (2)

Q438. Which one of the following pairs of animals are similar to

each other pertaining to the feature stated against them?
(1) Ascaris and Ancylostoma - Metameric segmentation
(2) Pteropus and Or nithorhyncus - Viviparity
(3) Sea horse and Flying fish - Cold blooded (poikilothermal)
(4) Garden lizard and Crocodile - Three chambered heart
Ans: (3)
 [2012M]
Q439.
Ans: (2)
[2012M]
Q440. The figure shows four animals (A), (B), (C) and (D). Select
the correct answer with respect to a common characteristics of two
of these animals. (A) (B) (C) (D)
(1) (A) and (B) have cnidoblasts for selfdefense
(2) (A) and (D) respire mainly through body wall
(3) (C) and (D) have a true coelom
(4) (B) and (C) show radial symmetry
Ans: (3)
[NEET 2013]
Q441. Which one of the following animals is correctly matched
with its one characteristics and the taxon? Animal Characteristic
Taxon
(1) Sea Anemone -- Triploblastic -- Cnidaria
(2) Duckbilled -- Oviparous -- Mammalian platypus
(3) Silverfish-- Pectoral and Chordata -- Pelvic fins
(4) Millipede -- Ventral nerve -- Arachnida cord
Ans: (2)
[NEET 2013]
Q442. The characteristics of class Reptilia are:
(1) Fresh water animals with bony endoskeleton, air-bladder to regulate
buoyancy
(2) Body covered with dry and cornified skin, scales over the body are
epidermal, they do not have external ears
(3) Marine animals with cartilaginous endoskeleton, body covered with
placoid scales
(4) Body covered with moist skin which is devoid of scales, the ear is
represented by a tympanum, alimentary canal, urinary and reproductive tracts
open into a common cloaca
Ans: (2)
[NEET 2013]
Q443. One of the representatives of phylum Arthropoda is:
(1) Flying fish
(2) Silverfish
(3) Cuttlefish
(4) Pufferfish
Ans: (2)
[NEET 2013]
Q444. Which of the following are correctly matched with respect to
their taxonomic classification?
(1) Spiny anteater, sea urchin, sea cucumberEchinodermata
(2) Centipede, millipede, spider, scorpionInsecta
(3) Flying fish, cuttlefish, silverfish-Pisces
(4) House fly, butterfly, tse tse fly, silverfishInsecta
Ans: (4)
[NEET Kar. 2013]
Q445. Match the name of the animal (column I), with one
characteristics (column II), and the phylum/class (column III) to
which it belongs : Column I -- Column II -- Column III
(1) Adamsia -- radially Porifera -- symmetrical
(2) Ichthyophis -- terrestrial -- Reptilia
(3) Petromyzon-- ectoparasite -- Cyclostomata
(4) Limulus -- body Pisces covered by chitinous -- exoskeleton
Ans: (3)
[NEET Kar. 2013]
Q446. Perisperm is
(1) peripheral part of endosperm
(2) remnant of endosperm
(3) disintegrated secondary nucleus
(4) persistent nucellus
Ans: (4)
[NEET Kar. 2013]
Q447. Micropyle of seed is involved in the passage of
(1) water
(2) male gamete
(3) gases
(4) pollen tube
Ans: (1)
[NEET Kar. 2013]
Q448. Fruit of Groundnut is
(1) Berry
(2) Legume
(3) Nut
(4) Caryopsis
Ans: (2)
[1988]
Q449. Sharks and dogfishes differ from skates and rays by
(1) H e a d a n d t r u n k a r e w i d e n e d considerably
(2) Their pectoral fins distinctly marked off from cyclindrical bodies
(3) Distinct demarcation between body and tail
(4) Gill slits are ventrally placed
Ans: (2)
[1988]
Q450. Which one of the following groups of animals reproduces
only by sexual means?
(1) Porifera
(2) Ctenophora
(3) Protozoa
(4) Cnidaria
Ans: (2)
[1988, 89]
Q451. Tegmen develops from
(1) inner integument
(2) funiculus
(3) outer integument
(4) chalaza
Ans: (1)
[1989, 2002, 04]
Q452. In Groundnut the food/oil reserve is present in
(1) endosperm
(2) epicarp
(3) cotyledons
(4) mesocarp
Ans: (3)
Q453. New Banana plants develop from
(1) stolon
(2) rhizome
(3) seed
(4) sucker
Ans: (4)
[1990]
Q454.
Ans: (3)
[1990]
Q455. Mango juice is got from
(1) endocarp
(2) epicarp
(3) pericarp and thalamus
(4) mesocarp
Ans: (4)
[1990]
Q456. Syngenesious condition is found in
(1) Solanaceae
(2) Asteraceae
(3) Fabaceae
(4) Labiate
Ans: (2)
[1990]
Q457. Vegetative reproduction of Agave occurs through
(1) bulbils
(2) rhizome
(3) sucker
(4) stolon
Ans: (1)
[1990]
Q458. Velamen is found in
(1) leaves of Ficus elastica
(2) roots of Screwpine
(3) aerial roots of orchids
(4) aerial and terrestrial roots of orchids
Ans: (3)
[1991]
Q459. A family delimited by head type of inflorescence is
(1) Solanaceae
(2) Fabaceae
(3) Liliaceae
(4) Asteraceae
Ans: (4)
[1991]
Q460. Vivipary is characteristic of
(1) hygrophytes
(2) mesophytes
(3) halophytes
(4) xerophytes
Ans: (3)
[1991]
Q461. Germination of seed within fruit is
(1) hypogeal
(2) ovipary
(3) epigeal
(4) vivipary
Ans: (4)
[1991]
Q462. Vivipary is
(1) fruit development without pollination
(2) seed germination with subterranean cotyledons
(3) seed germination inside the fruit while attached to the plant
(4) seed germination with epiterranean cotyledons
Ans: (3)
Q463. Botanical name of Cauliflower is
(1) Brassica oleracea var. botrytis
(2) Brassica oleracea var. capitata
(3) Brassica oleracea var. gemmifera
(4) Brassica campesteris
Ans: (1)
[1991]
Q464.
Ans: (3)
[1992]
Q465. Fruit of Mangifera indica is
(1) Capsule
(2) Berry
(3) Siliqua
(4) Drupe
Ans: (4)
[1992]
Q466. Hypanthodium is
(1) inflorescence
(2) thalamus
(3) ovary
(4) fruit
Ans: (1)
[1991, 92]
Q467. Plant having column of vascular tissues bearing fruits and
having a tap root system is
(1) gymnosperm of dicot
(2) monocot
(3) gymnosperm or monocot
(4) dicot
Ans: (4)
[1993]
Q468. A perennial plant differs from biennial in
(1) being tree species
(2) having underground perennating structure
(3) not dying after seasonal production of flowers
(4) having asexual reproductive structures
Ans: (3)
 [1994]
Q469. Pulses are obtained from
(1) Poaceae
(2) Fabaceae
(3) Solanaceae
(4) Asteraceae
Ans: (2)
[1994]
Q470. Epipetalous stamens with free filaments and fused anthers
occur in
(1) Liliaceae
(2) Asteraceae
(3) Poaceae
(4) Solanaceae
Ans: (2)
[1994]
Q471. Which one of the following statements is correct with
respect to the plant species and its use?
(1) Ricinus communis – important edible cereal
(2) Oryza sativa – rich source of protein
(3) Hibiscus esculentus – flowers eaten throughout the country.
(4) Manihot utilissima – root tubers eaten especially in Kerala
Ans: (4)
[1995]
Q472. Which part of the coconut produces coir?
(1) Epicarp
(2) Seed coat
(3) Pericarp.
(4) Mesocarp
Ans: (4)
[1995, 01]
Q473. Which one of the following is a true fruit?
(1) Cashew nut
(2) Apple
(3) Coconut
(4) Pear
Ans: (3)
Q474. Tetradynamous stamens are found in family
(1) Cruciferae
(2) Malvaceae
(3) Liliaceae
(4) Solanaceae
Ans: (1)

Q475. Buttress roots are found in

(1) Terminalia
(2) sorghum
(3) Pandanus
(4) banyan
Ans: (1)
[1997]
Q476. The embryo in sunflower has
(1) many cotyledons
(2) one cotyledon
(3) no cotyledon
(4) two cotyledons
Ans: (4)
[1997]
Q477. Aril represents the edible part of
(1) mango
(2) banana
(3) apple
(4) litchi
Ans: (4)
Q478. Which plant will lose its economic value if its fruits are
produced by induced parthenocarpy?
(1) banana
(2) brape
(3) orange
(4) pomegranate
Ans: (4)
[1997]
Q479. Heterospory and seed habit are often discussed in relation to
a structure called
(1) petiole
(2) spathe
(3) ligule
(4) bract
Ans: (3)
[1997, 99, 2005, 06]
Q480. Most plants are green in colour because
(1) chlorophyll is least effective in absorbing green light
(2) the atmosphere filters out all the colours of the visible light spectrum
except green
(3) green light allows maximum photosynthesis
(4) green light is the most effective wavelength region of the visible spectrum
in sunlight for photosynthesis
Ans: (1)
[1998]
Q481. Match the following and indicate which is correct
(1) Brassicaceae – Wheat
(2) Cucurbitaceae – Orange
(3) Leguminosae – Sunflower
(4) Malvaceae – Cotton
Ans: (4)
[1998]
Q482. The type of placentation in which ovary is syncarpous,
unilocular and ovules on sutures is called
(1) marginal placentation
(2) apical placentation
(3) superficial placentation
(4) parietal placentation
Ans: (4)
[1999]
Q483. The plant, which bears clinging roots, is
(1) screw pine
(2) trapa
(3) podostemon
(4) orchid
Ans: (4)

Q484. Angiosperm to which the largest flowers belong is?

(1) total root parasite
(2) total stem parasite
(3) partial root parasite
(4) partial stem parasite
Ans: (1)
[1999]
Q485. Floral features are chiefly used in Angiosperms
identification because
(1) reproductive parts are more stable and conservative than vegetative parts
(2) flowers are of various colours
(3) flowers are nice to work with
(4) flowers can be safely pressed
Ans: (1)

Q486. Which is correct pair for edible part?

(1) Guava - mesocarp
(2) Tomato - Thalamus
(3) Data palm - Mesocarp
(4) Maize - Cotyledons
Ans: (3)
[2001]
Q487. Bicarpellary gynoecium and oblique ovary occures in
(1) Pisum
(2) Mustard
(3) Brinjal
(4) Banana
Ans: (3)
[2001]
Q488. Edible part of banana is
(1) endocarp and less developed mesocarp
(2) epicarp
(3) epicarp and mesocarp
(4) mesocarp and less developed endocarp
Ans: (4)
[2001]
Q489. Roots of which plant contains an oxidising agent?
(4) Mustard
(2) Carrot
(3) Radish
(4) Soyabean
Ans: (4)
[2001]
Q490. What is eye of potato?
(1) Adventitious bud
(2) Axillary bud
(3) Apical bud
(4) Acessory bud
Ans: (1)
[2001]
Q491. In a cereal grain the single cotyledon of embryo is
represented by
(1) coleoptile
(2) scutellum
(3) coleorhiza
(4) prophyll
Ans: (2)
Q492. An ovule which becomes curved so that the nucellus and
embryo sac lie at right angles to the funicle is
(1) Anatropous
(2) Hemitropous
(3) Orthotropous
(4) Campylotropous
Ans: (2)
[2003]
Q493. The aleurone layer in maize grain is specially rich in
(1) starch
(2) auxins
(3) lipids
(4) proteins
Ans: (4)
[2003]
Q494. Juicy hair–like structures observed in the lemon fruit
develop from
(1) mesocarp
(2) mesocarp and endocarp
(3) endocarp
(4) exocarp
Ans: (3)
[2004]
Q495. Which of the following is a correct pair?
(1) Opuntia – predator
(2) Cuscuta – parasite
(3) Capsella – hydrophyte
(4) Dischidia – insectivorous
Ans: (2)
[2006]
Q496. Which of the following is a flowering plant with nodules
containing filamentous nitrogen-fixing micro-organism
(1) Cicer arietinum
(2) Crotalaria juncea
(3) Casuarina equisetifolia
(4) Cycas revoluta
Ans: (3)
[2006]
Q497. Pentamerous, actinomorphic flowers, bicarpellate ovary with
oblique septa and fruit a capsule of berry, are characteristic features
of
(1) Liliaceae
(2) Brassicaceae
(3) Asteraceae
(4) Solanaceae
Ans: (4)
[2000, 06]
Q498. Pineapple (ananas) fruit develops from
(1) a multilocular monocarpellary flower
(2) a multipistillate syncarpous flower
(3) a unilocular polycarpellary flower
(4) a cluster of compactly borne flowers on a common axis
Ans: (4)
[2006]
Q499. Long filamentous threads protruding at the end of the young
cob of maize are
(1) hairs
(2) styles
(3) anthers
(4) ovaries
Ans: (2)
[2006]
Q500. What type of placentation is seen in sweet pea?
(1) Marginal
(2) Axile
(3) Basal
(4) Free central
Ans: (1)
[2007]
Q501. Keel is characteristic of the flowers of:
(1) Calotropis
(2) Gulmohur
(3) Bean
(4) Cassia
Ans: (3)

Q502. In unilocular ovary with a single ovule the placentation is:

(1) Free Central
(2) Marginal
(3) Axile
(4) Basal
Ans: (4)
Q503. An example of axile placentation is:
(1) Marigold
(2) Dianthus
(3) Argemone
(4) Lemon
Ans: (4)
[2009]
Q504.
Ans: (1)
[2010]
Q505. Replum is present in the ovary of flower of
(1) Sun flower
(2) Lemon
(3) Pea
(4) Mustard
Ans: (4)

Q506.
Ans: (4)

Q507. What would be the number of chromosomes of the aleurone

cells of a plant with 42 chromosomes in its root tip cells?
(1) 84
(2) 42
(3) 21
(4) 63
Ans: (4)
[2010]
Q508. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(1) Placentation in primose is basal
(2) In tomato, fruit is a capsule
(3) Flower of tulip is a modified shoot
(4) Seeds of orchids have oil-rich endosperm
Ans: (3)
[2011]
Q509. The technical term used for the androecium in a flower of
China rose (Hibiscus rosa sinensis) is:
(1) Polyandrous
(2) Monadelphous
(3) Polyadelphous
(4) Diadelphous
Ans: (2)
[2011]
Q510. Ovary is half-inferior in the flowers of:
(1) brinjal
(2) guava
(3) cucumber
(4) plum
Ans: (4)

Q511. Sweet potato is homologous to

(1) Ginger
(2) Potato
(3) Turnip
(4) Colocasia
Ans: (3)
[2011]
Q512. Whorled, simple leaves with reticulate venation are present
in
(1) China rose
(2) Calotropis
(3) Alstonia
(4) Neem
Ans: (3)

Q513.
Ans: (4)
Q514. The ovary is half inferior in flowers of
(1) cotton
(2) peach
(3) guava
(4) cucumber
Ans: (2)
[2011M]
Q515. Flowers are zygomorphic in:
(1) ioruato
(2) mustard
(3) Datura
(4) gulmohur
Ans: (4)
[2011M]
Q516. How many plants in the list given below have composite
fruits that develop from an inflorescence Walnut, poppy, radish,
fig, pineapple, apple, tomato, mulberry
(1) Two
(2) Four
(3) Three
(4) Five
Ans: (3)
[2012]
Q517. The gynoecium consists of many free pistils in flowers of
(1) Papaver (4) Michelia
(2) Aloe (4) Tomato
Ans: (3)
[2012]
Q518. Phyllode is present in:
(1) Australian Acacia
(2) Asparagus
(3) Opuntia
(4) Euphorbia
Ans: (1)
[2012]
Q519. Cymose inflorescence is present in:
(1) Trifolium
(2) Solanum
(3) Brassica
(4) Sesbania
Ans: (2)
[2012]
Q520. Placentation in tomato and lemon is
(1) Marginal
(2) Parietal
(3) Axile
(4) Free central
Ans: (3)
[2012]
Q521. In china rose the flowers are:
(1) Zygomorphic, epigynous with twisted aestivation
(2) Actinomorphic, epigynous with valvate aestivation
(3) Actinomorphic, hypogynous with twisted aestivation
(4) Zygomorphic, hypogynous with imbricate aestivation
Ans: (3)
[2012]
Q522. How many plants in the list given below have marginal
placentation? Mustard, Gram, Tulip, Asparagus, Arhar, Sun hemp,
Chilli, Colchicine, Onion, Moong, Pea, Tobacco, Lupin
(1) Six
(2) Four
(3) Three
(4) Five
Ans: (1)
[2012]
Q523. Which one of the following organisms is correctly matched
with its three characteristics?
(1) Onion: Bulb, Imbricate aestivation, Axile placentation
(2) Pea: C3 pathway, Endospermic seed, Vexillary aestivation
(3) Maize: C3 pathway, Closed vascular bundles, Scutellum
(4) Tomato: Twisted aestivation, Axile placentation, Berry
Ans: (1)
[2012M]
Q524. Vexillary aestivation is characteristic of the family
(1) Solanaceae
(2) Fabaceae
(3) Brassicaceae
(4) Asteraceae
Ans: (2)
[2012M]
Q525. The coconut water and the edible part of coconut are
equivalent to:
(1) Mesocarp
(2) Endosperm
(3) Embryo
(4) Endocarp
Ans: (2)
[NEET 2013]
Q526. Inflorescence is racemose in
(1) Tulip
(2) Soyabean
(3) Aloe
(4) Brinjal
Ans: (2)
[NEET 2013]
Q527. In a cymose inflorescence the main axis
(1) Bears a solitary flower
(2) Terminates in a flower
(3) Has unlimited growth but lateral branches end in flowers
(4) Has unlimited growth
Ans: (2)
[NEET Kar. 2013]
Q528. How many plants among China rose, Ocimum, sunflower,
mustard, Alstonia, guava, Calotropis and Nerium (Oleander) have
opposite phyllotaxy?
(1) Four
(2) Two
(3) Five
(4) Three
Ans: (4)
[NEET Kar. 2013]
Q529. Among flowers of Calotropis, tulip, Sesbania, Asparagus,
Colchicine, Sweet pea, Petunia, Indigofera, Mustard, Soyabean,
Tobacco and groundnut how many plants have corolla with valvate
aestivation?
(1) Seven
(2) Five
(3) Eight
(4) Six
Ans: (1)
[NEET Kar. 2013]
Q530. Among bitter gourd, mustard, brinjal, pumpkin, china rose,
lupin, cucumber, sunhemp, gram, guava, bean, chilli, plum,
petunia, tomato, rose, withania, potato, onion, aloe and tulip how
many plants have hypogynous flower ?
(1) Eighteen
(2) Ten
(3) Six
(4) Fifteen
Ans: (4)
[NEET Kar. 2013]
Q531. Pith and cortex do not differentiate in
(1) monocot root
(2) monocot stem
(3) dicot root
(4) dicot stem
Ans: (2)
Q532. Cork is formed from
(1) phloem
(2) cork cambium (phellogen)
(3) xylem
(4) vascular cambium
Ans: (2)

Q533. Which one yields fibres?

(1) Teak
(2) Coconut
(3) Sisso
(4) Oak
Ans: (2)
[1988]
Q534. Which meristem helps in increasing girth?
(1) Primary meristem
(2) Lateral meristem
(3) Apical meristem
(4) Intercalary meristem
Ans: (2)
[1988]
Q535. Tunica corpus theory is connected with
(1) shoot apex
(2) root apex
(3) secondary growth
(4) root cap
Ans: (1)
[1988]
Q536. Cork cambium and vascular cambium are
(1) lateral meristems
(2) parts of secondary xylem and phloem
(3) apical meristems
(4) parts of pericycle
Ans: (1)
[1989]
Q537. Which is the correct fact about diffuse or ring porous
wood?
(1) Ring porous wood carries more water when need is higher
(2) Ring porous wood, carries more water for short period
(3) Diffuse porous wood is less specialised but conducts water rapidly
throughout
(4) Diffuse porous wood carries more water
Ans: (1)
[1989]
Q538. Sieve tubes are suited for translocation of food because they
possess
(1) broader lumen and perforated cross walls
(2) bordered pits
(3) no protoplasm
(4) no ends walls
Ans: (1)
[1989]
Q539. Death of protoplasm is a pre-requisite for a vital function
like
(1) absorption of water
(2) transport of sap
(3) gaseous exchange
(4) transport of food
Ans: (2)
[1989]
Q540. Organisation of stem apex into corpus and tunica is
determined mainly by
(1) rate of cell growth
(2) planes of cell division
(3) rate of shoot tip growth
(4) regions of meristematic activity
Ans: (2)
[1990, 95]
Q541. For union between stock and scion in grafting which one is
the first to occur?
(1) Differentiation of new vascular tissues
(2) Formation of callus
(3) Regeneration of cortex and epidermis
(4) Production of plasmodesmata
Ans: (2)
[1990]
Q542. Pericycle of roots produces
(1) vascular bundles
(2) mechanical support
(3) adventitious buds
(4) lateral roots
Ans: (4)
[1990]
Q543. Collenchyma occurs in
(1) climbing stems
(2) herbaceous climbers
(3) water plants
(4) woody climbers
Ans: (1)
[1990]
Q544. Collenchyma occurs in the stem and petioles of
(1) Dicot herbs
(2) Xerophytes
(3) Hydrophytes
(4) Monocots
Ans: (1)
[1990]
Q545. Monocot leaves possess
(1) apical meristem
(2) intercalary meristem
(3) mass meristem
(4) lateral meristem
Ans: (2)
[1990]
Q546. An organised and differentiated cellular structure having
cytoplasm but no nucleus is
(1) Sieve tubes
(2) Vessels
(3) Tracheids
(4) Xylem parenchyma
Ans: (1)
[1990]
Q547. Angular collenchyma occurs in
(1) Althaea
(2) Cucurbita
(3) Salvia
(4) Helianthus
Ans: (2)
[1990, 92]
Q548. Where do the casparian bands occur?
(1) Pericycle
(2) Epidermis
(3) Phloem
(4) Endodermis
Ans: (4)
[1990, 94]
Q549. Vascular cambium produces
(1) primary xylem and secondary phloem
(2) primary xylem and primary phloem
(3) secondary xylem and primary phloem
(4) secondary xylem and secondary phloem
Ans: (4)
[1991]
Q550. What is true about a monocot leaf
(1) Mesophyll not differentiated into palisade and spongy tissues
(2) Reticulate venation
(3) Well differentiated mesophyll
(4) Absence of bulliform cells from epidermis
Ans: (1)
[1991]
Q551. Abnormal/anomalous secondary growth occurs in
(1) Wheat
(2) Dracaena
(3) Sunflower
(4) Ginger
Ans: (2)
[1991]
Q552. Bordered pits are found in
(1) Companion cells
(2) Sieve cells
(3) Sieve tube wall
(4) Vessel wall
Ans: (4)
[1991]
Q553. A bicollateral vascular bundle is characterised by
(1) Longitudinal splitting of vascular bundle
(2) Phloem being sandwitched between xylem
(3) Xylem being sandwitched between phloem
(4) Transverse splitting of vascular bundle
Ans: (3)
[1992]
Q554. Commercial cork is obtained from
(1) Quercus/Oak
(2) Berberis/Barberry
(3) Betula/Birch
(4) Salix/Willow
Ans: (1)
[1993]
Q555. Which is correct about transport or conduction of
substances?
(1) Inorganic food moves upwardly and downwardly through xylem
(2) Organic food moves up through phloem
(3) Organic food moves upwardly and downwardly through phloem
(4) Organic food moves up through phloem
Ans: (3)
[1993]
Q556. As the secondary growth takes place (proceeds) in a tree,
thickness of
(1) both increase
(2) heart wood increases
(3) both remain the same
(4) sap-wood increases
Ans: (2)

Q557. Procambium forms

(1) only cork cambium
(2) only primary vascular bundles
(3) primary vascular bundles and vascular cambium
(4) only vascular cambium
Ans: (2)
[1993]
Q558. Periderm is produced by
(1) Phellogen
(2) Vascular cambium
(3) Intrafascicular cambium
(4) Fascicular cambium
Ans: (1)
[1993]
Q559. A narrow layer of thin walled cells found between
phloem/bark and wood of a dicot is
(1) Endodermis
(2) Cork cambium
(3) Pericycle
(4) Vascular cambium
Ans: (4)
[1994]
Q560. Which exposed wood will decay faster
(1) Wood with lot of fibres
(2) Sapwood
(3) Heartwood
(4) Softwood
Ans: (2)
[1994]
Q561. Transition of radial vascular bundle in root to conjoint
vascular bundle in stem occurs in which zone?
(1) Meristem
(2) Epicotyl
(3) At base of stem
(4) Hypocotyl
Ans: (4)
[1996]
Q562. Which of the following meristems is responsible for
extrastelar secondary growth in dicotyledonous stem?
(1) Intercalary meristem
(2) Intrafascicular cambium
(3) Phellogen
(4) Interfascicular cambium
Ans: (3)
[1997]
Q563. A leaf primordium grows into the adult leaf lamina by
means of
(1) marginal meristems
(2) apical meristem
(3) at first by apical meristem and later largely by marginal meristems.
(4) lateral meristem
Ans: (3)
[1998]
Q564. At maturity which of the following is enucleate?
(1) Palisade cell
(2) Sieve cell
(3) Cortical cell
(4) Companion cell
Ans: (2)
[1998]
Q565. What is not true about sclereids?
(1) These are commonly found in the shells of nuts and in the pulp of guava,
pear, etc
(2) These are parenchyma cells with thickened lignified walls
(3) These are also called the stone cells
(4) These are elongated and flexible with tapered ends
Ans: (2)
[1999]
Q566. Four radial vascular bundles are found in
(1) dicot stem
(2) dicot root
(3) monocot stem
(4) monocot root
Ans: (2)
[2000]
Q567. Vessels are found in
(1) all angiosperms, all gymnosperms and some pteriodophyta
(2) all angiosperms and some gymnosperms
(3) all pteridophyta
(4) most of angiosperms and few gymnosperms
Ans: (4)
[2001]
Q568. Main function of lenticel is
(1) gaseous exchange
(2) transpiration
(3) bleeding
(4) guttation
Ans: (2)
[2002]
Q569. Loading of pholem is related to
(1) separation of phloem parenchyma
(2) increases of sugar in phloem
(3) strengthening of phloem fibre
(4) elongation of phloem cell
Ans: (2)
[2002]
Q570. What happens during vascularization in plants?
(1) Differentiation of procambium, xylem and phloem is simultaneous
(2) Differentiation of procambium is immediately followed by the
development of secondary xylem and phloem
(3) Differentiation of procambium followed by the development of primary
phloem and then by primary xylem
(4) Differentiation of procambium followed by the development of xylem
and phloem
Ans: (4)
[2002]
Q571. Chlorenchyma is known to develop in the
(1) mycelium of a green mould such as Aspergillus
(2) pollen tube of Pinus
(3) spore capsule of a moss
(4) cytoplasm of Chlorella
Ans: (3)
[2002]
Q572. The apical meristem of the root is present
(1) only in tap roots
(2) in all the roots
(3) only in adventitious roots
(4) only in radicals
Ans: (2)
[2002]
Q573. The cells of the quiescent centre are characterised by
(1) having light cytoplasm and small nuclei
(2) dividing regularly to add to tunica
(3) dividing regularly to add to the corpus
(4) having dense cytoplasm and prominent nuclei
Ans: (1)
[2003]
Q574. Which of the following statements is true?
(1) Vessels are unicellular with wide lumen
(2) Vessels are multicellular with narrow lumen
(3) Tracheids are unicellular with wide lumen
(4) Tracheids are multicellular with narrow lumen
Ans: (3)

Q575. Axillary bud and terminal bud are derived from the activity
of
(1) apical meristem
(2) lateral meristem
(3) parenchyma
(4) intercalary meristem
Ans: (1)

Q576. A common structural feature of vessel elements and sieve

tube elements are
(1) enucleate condition
(2) pores on lateral walls
(3) thick secondary walls
(4) presence of p-protein
Ans: (1)
[2004]
Q577. In a woody dicotyledonous tree, which of the following
parts will mainly consist of primary tissues?
(1) Flowers, fruits and leaves
(2) All parts
(3) Shoot tips and root tips
(4) Stem and root
Ans: (3)
[2004]
Q578. Ectophloic siphonostele is found in
(1) Adiantum and Cucurbitaceae
(2) Osmunda and Equisetum
(3) Dicksonia and Maidenhair fern
(4) Marsilea and Botrychium
Ans: (2)

Q579. The most abundant element present in the plants is

(1) Manganese
(2) Carbon
(3) Iron
(4) Nitrogen
Ans: (2)
[2005]
Q580. In a longitudinal section of a root, starting from the tip
upward, the four zones occur in the following order:
(1) Cell division, cell enlargement, cell maturation, root cap
(2) Root cap, cell division, cell enlargement, cell maturation
(3) Cell division, cell maturation, cell enlargement, root cap
(4) Root cap, cell division, cell maturation, cell enlargement
Ans: (2)
[2006]
Q581. Which one of the following is resistant to enzyme action?
(1) Pollen exine
(2) Cork
(3) Leaf cuticle
(4) Wood fibre
Ans: (1)
[2007]
Q582. The length of different internodes in a culm of sugarcane is
variable because of
(1) size of leaf lamina at the node below each internode
(2) shoot apical meristem
(3) intercalary meristem
(4) position of axillary buds
Ans: (3)
[2007]
Q583. Vascular tissues in flowering plants develop from:
(1) periblem
(2) phellogen
(3) dermatogen
(4) plerome
Ans: (4)
[2008]
Q584. Passage cells are thin walled cells found in
(1) central region of style through which the pollen tube grows towards the
ovary
(2) phloem elements that serve as entry points for substance for transport ot
other plant parts
(3) endodermis of roots facilitating rapid transport of water from cortex to
pericycle.
(4) testa of seeds to enable emergence of growing embryonic axis during seed
germination
Ans: (3)
[2008]
Q585. For a critical study of secondary growth in plants. Which
one of the following pairs is suitable?
(1) wheat and maiden hair fern
(2) teak and pine
(3) sugarcane and sunflower.
(4) deodar and fern
Ans: (2)
[2008]
Q586. Reduction in vascular tissue, mechanical tissue and cuticle is
characteristic of:
(1) hydrophytes
(2) mesophytes
(3) xerophytes
(4) epiphytes
Ans: (1)
[2009]
Q587. In barley stem vascular bundles are:
(1) closed and radial
(2) closed and scattered
(3) open and scattered
(4) open and in a ring
Ans: (2)
[2009]
Q588. Palisade parenchyma is absent in leaves of:
(1) gram
(2) mustard
(3) sorghum
(4) soybean
Ans: (3)
Q589. The annular and spirally thickened conducting elements
generally develop in the protoxylem when the root or stem is:
(1) differentiating
(2) elongating
(3) maturing
(4) widening
Ans: (3)
[2009]
Q590. Anatomically fairly old dicotyledonous root is distinguished
from the dicotyledonous stem by
(1) position of protoxylem
(2) absence of secondary phloem
(3) absence of secondary xylem
(4) presence of cortex
Ans: (1)
[2009]
Q591. In land plants, the guard cells differ from other epidermal
cells in having:
(1) endoplasmic reticulum
(2) cytoskeleton
(3) chloroplasts
(4) mitochondria
Ans: (3)
[2010]
Q592. Ground tissue includes
(1) epidermis and cortex
(2) all tissues external to endodermis
(3) all tissues internal to endodermis
(4) all tissues except epidermis and vascular bundles
Ans: (4)
[2010]
Q593. Heartwood differs from sapwood in:
(1) having dead and non -conducting elements
(2) presence of rays and fibres
(3) being susceptible to pests and pathogens
(4) absence of vessels and parenchyma
Ans: (1)
[2010]
Q594. Which one of the following is not a lateral meristem?
(1) Phellogen
(2) Intrafascicular cambium
(3) Intercalary meristem
(4) Interfascicular cambium
Ans: (3)
[2011]
Q595. The chief water conducting elements of xylem in
gymnosperms are:
(1) transfusion tissue
(2) vessels
(3) tracheids
(4) fibres
Ans: (3)
[2011]
Q596. In Kranz anatomy, the bundle sheath cells have
(1) thin walls, no intercellular spaces and several chloroplasts
(2) thin walls, many intercellular spaces and no chloroplasts
(3) thick walls, many intercellular spaces and few chloroplasts
(4) thick walls, no intercellular spaces and large number of chloroplasts
Ans: (4)
[2011]
Q597. Some vascular bundles are described as open because
these
(1) possess conjunctive tissue between xylem and phloem
(2) are surrounded by pericycle but not endodermis
(3) are not surrounded by pericycle
(4) are capable of producing secondary xylem and phloem
Ans: (4)
[2011]
Q598. Function of companion cells is
(1) loading of sucrose into sieve elements by passive transport
(2) providing energy to sieve elements for active transport
(3) loading of sucrose into sieve elements
(4) providing water to phloem
Ans: (3)
[2011M]
Q599. Which one of the following is wrongly matched?
(1) Root - Exarch protoxylem
(2) Root pressure - Guttation
(3) Cassia - Imbricate aestivation
(4) Puccinia - Smut
Ans: (4)
[2011M]
Q600. The cork cambium, cork and secondary cortex are
collectively called:
(1) periderm
(2) phelloderm’
(3) phellem
(4) phellogen
Ans: (1)
[2011M]
Q601. Gymnosperms are also called soft wood spermatophytes
because they lack:
(1) Thick-walled tracheids
(2) Cambium
(3) Xylem fibres
(4) Phloem fibres
Ans: (3)
[2012]
Q602. Water containing cavities in vascular bundles are found in:
(1) Cycas
(2) Sunflower
(3) Pinus
(4) Maize
Ans: (4)
[2012]
Q603. Closed vascular bundles lack
(1) Cambium
(2) Ground tissue
(3) Pith
(4) conjunctive tissue
Ans: (1)
[2012]
Q604. Companion cells are closely associated with:
(1) Trichomes
(2) Sieve elements
(3) Guard cells
(4) Vessel elements
Ans: (2)
[2012]
Q605. The common bottle cork is a product of:
(1) Xylem
(2) Dermatogen
(3) Vascular Cambium
(4) Phellogen
Ans: (4)
[2012]
Q606. Which of the following statements is not true for stomatal
apparatus?
(1) Guard cells are always surrounded by subsidiary cells
(2) Inner walls of guard cells are thick
(3) Stomata are involved in gaseous exchange
(4) Guard cells invariably possess chloroplasts and mitochondria
Ans: (1)
[2012M]
Q607. Interfascicular cambium develops from the cells of:
(1) Pericycle
(2) Xylem parenchyma
(3) Medullary rays
(4) Endomermis
Ans: (3)
 [NEET 2013]
Q608. Lenticels are involved in:
(1) Photosynthesis
(2) Gaseous exchange
(3) Transpiration
(4) Food transport
Ans: (2)
[NEET 2013]
Q609. Age of a tree can be estimated by:
(1) diameter of its heartwood
(2) biomass
(3) its height and girth
(4) number of annual rings
Ans: (4)
[NEET 2013]
Q610. As compared to a dicot root, a monocot root has
(1) inconspicuous annual rings.
(2) many xylem bundles.
(3) more abundant secondary xylem.
(4) relatively thicker periderm.
Ans: (2)
[NEET Kar. 2013]
Q611. Haversian canals occur in
(1) Scapula
(2) Humerus
(3) Clavicle
(4) Pubis
Ans: (2)
[NEET Kar. 2013]
Q612. Histamine secreting cells are found in
(1) muscular tissue
(2) connective tissues
(3) nervous tissue
(4) lungs
Ans: (2)
Q613. Mineral found in red pigment of vertebrate blood is
(1) calcium
(2) magnesium
(3) copper
(4) iron
Ans: (4)
[1989]
Q614. Lymph differs from blood in possessing
(1) more RBC and few WBC
(2) only WBC
(3) more WBC and few RBC
(4) more RBC and WBC
Ans: (2)
[1989]
Q615. Meristematic tissue responsible for increase in girth of tree
trunk is
(1) Lateral meristem
(2) Apical meristem
(3) Phellogen
(4) Intercalary meristem
Ans: (1)
[1989]
Q616. Vitamin K is required for
(1) conversion of prothrombin to thrombin
(2) formation of thromboplastin
(3) synthesis of prothrombin
(4) conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin
Ans: (3)
[1990]
Q617. Formation of cartilage bones involves
(1) deposition of bony matter by osteoclasts only
(2) deposition of bony matter by osteoblasts and resorption chondroblasts
(3) deposition of bony matter by osteoblasts only
(4) deposition of bony matter by osteoclasts and resorption by chondroblasts
Ans: (2)
 [1992]
Q618. Afferent nerve fibre carries impulses from
(1) central nervous system to muscles
(2) effector to central nervous system
(3) central nervous system to receptors
(4) receptor to central nervous system
Ans: (4)
[1992]
Q619. Component of blood responsible for producing antibodies
is
(1) Erythrocytes
(2) Thrombocytes
(3) Lymphocytes
(4) Monocytes
Ans: (3)
[1993]
Q620. Characteristics of smooth muscle fibres are
(1) cylindrical, unbranched, unstriped, multinucleate and involuntary
(2) spindle-shaped, unbranched, unstriated, uninucleate and involuntary
(3) cylindrical, unbranched, striated, multinucleate and voluntary
(4) spindle shaped, unbranched, unstriped, multinucleate and involuntary
Ans: (2)
[1993]
Q621. Protein present in the matrix of cartilage is known as
(1) cartilagin
(2) chondrin
(3) ossein
(4) casein
Ans: (2)
[1993]
Q622. Stratum germinativum is an example of which kind of
epithelium?
(1) Columnar
(2) Cuboidal
(3) Squamous
(4) Ciliated
Ans: (1)
[1993]
Q623. Epithelial tissue with thin flat cells appearing like packed
tiles occurs on
(1) inner lining of fallopian tubes
(2) inner lining of cheek
(3) inner lining of ovary
(4) inner lining of stomach
Ans: (2)
[1994]
Q624. Blood capillary consists of
(1) endothelium and thin coat of muscle fibres
(2) endothelium only
(3) endothelium and thin coat of connective tissue plus muscle fibres
(4) endothelium and thin coat of connective tissue
Ans: (2)
[1997]
Q625. The layer of actively dividing cells of skin is termed as
(1) stratum malpighii/ stratum germinativum
(2) stratum compactum
(3) stratum lucidum
(4) stratum corneum
Ans: (1)
Q626. The polysaccharide present in the matrix of cartilage is
known as
(1) chondriotin
(2) cartilagin
(3) casein
(4) ossein
Ans: (1)
[1997]
Q627. The active molecule that helps initiate the inflammatory
response when mast cells degranulate is
(1) heparin
(2) perforin
(3) insulin
(4) histamine
Ans: (4)
[1998]
Q628. Which of the following is not exclusively supplied with
involuntary muscles?
(1) Muscles of iris
(2) Muscular coats of blood vessels
(3) Muscles of urethra
(4) Muscles of the ducts of glands
Ans: (3)
[1998]
Q629. The functional unit of contractile system in striated muscle
is
(1) Z-band
(2) myofibril
(3) cross bridges
(4) sarcomere
Ans: (4)
[1999]
Q630. Basement membrane is made up of
(1) both epidermal and endodermal cells
(2) epidermal cells only
(3) no cell at all, but is a product of epithelial cells
(4) endodermal cells only
Ans: (3)
[2000]
Q631. Which cartilage is present at the end of long bones?
(1) Elastic cartilage
(2) Calcified cartilage
(3) Fibrous cartilage
(4) Hyaline cartilage
Ans: (4)
 [2000]
Q632. During an injury nasal septum gets damaged and for its
recovery which cartilage is preferred?
(1) Calcified cartilage
(2) Hyaline cartilage
(3) Fibrous cartilage
(4) Elastic cartilage
Ans: (2)
[2000]
Q633. Which cells do not form layer and remain structurally
separate?
(1) Nerve cells
(2) Epithelial cells
(3) Gland cells
(4) Muscle cells
Ans: (1)
[2001]
Q634. A piece of bone such as femur of frog if kept in dilute HCl
for about a week will
(1) turn flexible
(2) assume black colour
(3) crack into pieces
(4) shrink in size
Ans: (1)
[2001]
Q635. Simple epithelium is a tissue in which the cells are
(1) continuously dividing to provide form to an organ
(2) hardened and provide support to the organs
(3) loosely connected to one another to form an irregular organ
(4) cemented directly to one another to form a single layer
Ans: (4)
[2002]
Q636. Areolar connective tissue joins
(1) bones with bones
(2) integument with muscles
(3) fat body with muscles
(4) bones with muscles
Ans: (2)
Q637. Which of the following substances, if introduced into the
blood stream, would cause coagulation of blood at the site of its
introduction?
(1) Thromboplastin
(2) Prothrombin
(3) Heparin
(4) Fibrinogen
Ans: (1)

Q638. ATPase enzyme needed for muscle contraction is located

in
(1) myosin
(2) actinin
(3) actin
(4) troponin
Ans: (1)
[2004]
Q639. Mast cells of connective tissue contain
(1) heparin and calcitonin
(2) vasopressin and relaxin
(3) serotonin and melanin
(4) heparin and histamine
Ans: (4)
[2005]
Q640. Which one of the following contains the largest quantity of
extracellular material?
(1) Areolar tissue
(2) Myelinated nerve fibres
(3) Stratified epithelium
(4) Striated muscle
Ans: (1)
[2006]
Q641. Which one of the following is correct pairing of a body part
and the kind of muscle tissue that moves it?
(1) Iris–Involuntary smooth muscle
(2) Biceps of upper arm–Smooth muscle fibres
(3) Heart wall–Involuntary unstriated muscle
(4) Abdominal wall–Smooth muscle
Ans: (4)
[2006]
Q642. Earthworms have no skeleton but during burrowing, the
anterior end becomes turgid and acts as a hydraulic skeleton. It is
due to
(1) gut peristalsis
(2) coelomic fluid
(3) setae
(4) blood
Ans: (2)
[2006]
Q643. In which one of the following preparations are your likely to
come across cell junctions most frequently?
(1) Hyaline cartilage
(2) Thrombocytes
(3) Ciliated epithelium.
(4) Tendon
Ans: (3)
[2007]
Q644. Bowman’s glands are found in
(1) juxtamedullary nephrons
(2) external auditory canal
(3) olfactory epithelium
(4) cortical nephrons only
Ans: (3)
[2008]
Q645. Mast cells secrete
(1) hemoglobin
(2) myoglobin
(3) hippurin
(4) histamine
Ans: (4)
[2009]
Q646. The kind of tissue that forms the supportive structure in our
pinna (external ears) is also found in:
(1) tip of the nose
(2) nails
(3) vertebrae
(4) ear ossicles
Ans: (1)
Q647. Which one of the following correctly describes the location
of some body parts in the earthworm Pheretima?
(1) Two pairs of testes in 10th and 11th segments.
(2) Four pairs of spermathecae in 4 - 7 segments.
(3) Two pairs of accessory glands in 16 - 18 segments.
(4) One pair of ovaries attached at intersegmental septum of 14th and 15th
segments.
Ans: (1)
[2009]
Q648. If a live earthworm is pricked with a needle on it outer
surface without damaging its gut, the fluid that comes out is:
(1) slimy mucus
(2) coelomic fluid
(3) excretory fluid
(4) haemolymph
Ans: (2)
[2009]
Q649. The cell junctions called tight, adhering and gap junctions
are found in
(1) neural tissue
(2) connective tissue
(3) muscular tissue
(4) epithelial tissue
Ans: (4)
 [2009]
Q650. The epithelial tissue present on the inner surface of
bronchioles and fallopian tube is:
(1) squamous
(2) glandular
(3) cuboidal
(4) ciliated
Ans: (4)
[2009]
Q651. The cells lining the blood vessels belong to the category
of:
(1) columnar epithelium
(2) smooth muscle tissue
(3) connective tissue
(4) squamous epithelium
Ans: (4)
[2010]
Q652. Which of the following is correctly stated as it happens in
the common cockroach?
(1) Nitrogenous excretory product is urea
(2) Malpighian tubules are excretory organs projecting out from the colon
(3) The food is ground by mandibles and gizzard
(4) Oxygen is transported by haemoglobin in blood
Ans: (3)
[2011]
Q653. The ciliated columnar epithelial cells in humans are known
to occur in:
(1) bile duct and oesophagus
(2) eustachian tube and stomach lining
(3) fallopian tubes and urethra
(4) bronchioles and fallopian tubes
Ans: (4)
[2011]
Q654. One very special feature in the earthworm Pheretima is
that
(1) the S- shaped setae embedded in the integument are the defensive
weapons used against the enemies
(2) fertilisation for eggs occurs inside the body
(3) it has a long dorsal tubular heart
(4) the typhlosole greatly increases the effective absorption area of the
digested food in the intestine
Ans: (4)
[2011]
Q655. The kind of epithelium which forms the inner walls of blood
vessels is:
(1) ciliated columnar epithelium
(2) cuboidal epithelium
(3) squamous epithelium
(4) columnar epithelium
Ans: (3)
[2011M]
Q656. Compared to those of humans, the erythrocytes in frog are
(1) very much smaller and fewer
(2) Without nucleus but with haemoglobin
(3) nucleated and without haemoglobin.
(4) nucleated and with haemoglobin
Ans: (4)
[2011M]
Q657. The type of muscles present in our:
(1) thigh are striated and voluntary
(2) heart are involuntary and unstriated smooth muscles
(3) upper arm are smooth muscle fibres fusiform in shape
(4) intestine are striated and involuntary
Ans: (1)
[2011M]
Q658. Which one of the following structures in Pheretima is
correctly matched with its function?
(1) Setae- defence against predators
(2) Clitellum - secretes cocoon
(3) Typhlosole - storage of extra nutrients
(4) Gizzard - absorbs digested food
Ans: (2)
[2011M]
Q659. Consider the following four statements (A-D) related to the
common frog Rana tigrina, and select the correct option stating
which ones are true (T) and which ones are false (F) Statements: \
(A) On dry land it would die due to lack of O2 its mouth is forcibly
kept closed for a few days \(B) It has four- chambered heart \(C)
On dry land it turns uricotelic from ureotelic \(D) Its life-history is
carried out in pond water Options: (A) (B) (C) (D)
(1) F F T T
(2) T F F T
FTTF
(4) T T F F
Ans: (2)
[2011M]
Q660. The breakdown of detritus into smaller particles by
earthworm is a process called
(1) mineralisation
(2) humification
(3) catabolism
(4) fragmentation
Ans: (4)
[2012]
Q661. What external changes are visible after the last moult of a
cockroach nymph?
(1) Labium develops
(2) Anal cerci develop
(3) Mandibles become harder
(4) Both fore wings and hind wings develop
Ans: (4)
[2012]
Q662.
Ans: (2)
Q663. The supportive skeletal structures in the human external ears
and in the nose tip are examples of
(1) bone
(2) ligament
(3) cartilage
(4) areolar tissue
Ans: (3)
[2012M]
Q664.
Ans: (2)

Q665. Select the correct statement from the ones given below with
respect to Periplaneta americana.
(1) There are 16 very long Malpighian tubules present at the junctions of
midgut and hindgut.
(2) Nervous system located dorsally, consists of segmentally arranged
ganglia joined by a pair of longitudinal connectives.
(3) Grinding of food is carried out only by the mouth parts.
(4) Males bear a pair of short thread like anal styles.
Ans: (4)
[NEET 2013]
Q666. Organelles can be separated from cell homogenate through
(1) differential centrifugation
(2) chromatography
(3) auto-radiography
(4) X-rays diffraction
Ans: (1)

Q667. Acetabularia used in Hammerling’s nucleocytoplasmic

experiments is
(1) unicellular uninucleate green algae
(2) unicellular fungus
(3) unicellular multinucleate green algae
(4) multicellular fungus
Ans: (1)
[NEET Kar. 2013]
Q668. According of fluid mosaic model, plasma membrane is
composed of
(1) phospholipids and integral proteins
(2) phospholipids and oligosaccharides
(3) phospholipids, extrinsic proteins and intrinsic proteins
(4) phospholipids and hemicellulose
Ans: (3)
[1988]
Q669. Select the correct option with respect to cockroaches
(1) Males bear short anal styles not present in females
(2) The fore wings are tegmina which are used in flight
(3) Nervous system comprises of a dorsal nerve cord and ten pairs of
ganglion
(4) Malpighian tubules convert nitrogenous wastes into urea
Ans: (1)
[1988]
Q670.
Ans: (2)
[1989]
Q671. Magnification of compound microscope is not connected
with
(1) focal length of eye piece
(2) numerical aperture
(3) tube length
(4) focal length of objective
Ans: (2)
[1989]
Q672. A bivalent consists of
(1) four chromatids and two centromeres
(2) two chromatids and one centromere
(3) four chromatids and four centromeres
(4) two chromatids and two centromeres
Ans: (1)
 [1989]
Q673. Nucleoproteins are synthesised in
(1) nucleolus
(2) nucleoplasm
(3) cytoplasm
(4) nuclear envelope
Ans: (3)
[1989]
Q674. Polyribosomes are aggregates of
(1) peroxisomes
(2) ribosomes and rRNA
(3) several ribosomes held together by string of mRNA
(4) only rRNA
Ans: (3)
[1989]
Q675. Plasma membrane is made of
(1) proteins, lipids and carbohydrates
(2) proteins and carbohydrates
(3) proteins, some nucleic acid and lipids
(4) proteins and lipids
Ans: (1)
[1990]
Q676. Fluid mosaic model of cell membrane was put forward by
(1) Garner and Allard
(2) Danielli and Davson
(3) Watson and Crick
(4) Singer and Nicolson
Ans: (4)
[1990]
Q677. Resolution power is the ability to
(1) distinguish amongst organelles
(2) distinguish two close points
(3) magnify image
(4) distinguish two close objects
Ans: (4)
 [1990]
Q678. Electron microscope has a high resolution power. This is
due to
(1) low wavelength of light source used
(2) electromagnetic lenses
(3) high numerical aperture of glass lenses used
(4) very low wavelength of electron beam
Ans: (4)
[1990, 92]
Q679. Hammerling’s experiments of Acetabularia involved
exchanging
(1) rhizoid and stalk
(2) cytoplasm
(3) gametes
(4) nucleus
Ans: (1)
[1991]
Q680. The latest model for plasma membrane is
(1) fluid mosaic model
(2) lamellar model
(3) molecular lipid model
(4) unit membrane model
Ans: (1)
[1991]
Q681. Ribosomes are the centre for
(1) protein synthesis
(2) respiration
(3) fat synthesis
(4) photosynthesis
Ans: (1)
[1991]
Q682. Angstrom (Å) is equal to
(1) 0.0001 mm
(2) 0.01 mm
(3) 0.00001 mm
(4) 0.001 mm
Ans: (1)
[1991]
Q683. Addition of new cell wall particles amongst the existing
ones is
(1) intussusception
(2) deposition
(3) aggregation
(4) apposition
Ans: (1)
[1991]
Q684. Cell wall shows
(1) differential permeability
(2) complete permeability
(3) impermeability
(4) semipermeability
Ans: (2)
[1992]
Q685. Ribosomes were discovered by
(1) De Robertis
(2) Golgi
(3) Palade
(4) Porter
Ans: (3)
[1992]
Q686. Experiments on Acetabularia by Hammerling proved the
role of
(1) chromosomes in heredity
(2) cytoplasm in controlling differentiation
(3) nucleo-cytoplasmic ratio
(4) nucleus in heredity
Ans: (4)
[1992]
Q687. Which one is apparato reticolare?
(1) Microfilaments
(2) Golgi apparatus
(3) Microtubules
(4) Endoplasmic reticulum
Ans: (2)
[1992]
Q688. An outer covering membrane is absent over
(1) mitochondrion
(2) nucleolus
(3) plastid
(4) lysosome
Ans: (2)
[1992]
Q689. All plastids have similar structure because they can
(1) perform same function
(2) store starch, lipids and proteins
(3) be present together
(4) get transformed from one type to another
Ans: (4)
[1992]
Q690. Oxysomes of F0 – F1 particles occur on
(1) inner mitochondrial membrane
(2) thylakoids
(3) chloroplast surface
(4) mitochondrial surface
Ans: (1)
[1992]
Q691. In salivary gland chromosomes/polytene chromosomes,
pairing is
(1) formed between nonhomologous chromosomes
(2) absent
(3) formed between homologous chromosomes
(4) occasional
Ans: (3)
[1992]
Q692. Which is correct about cell theory in view of current status
of our knowledge about cell structure
(1) Cell theory does not hold good because all living beings (e.g., viruses) do
not have cellular organisation
(2) It needs modification due to discovery of subcellular structures like
chloroplasts and mitochondria
(3) Cell theory means that all living objects consist of cells whether or not
capable of reproducing
(4) Modified cell theory means that all living beings are composed of cells
capable of reproducing
Ans: (1)
[1993]
Q693. Names of Schleiden and Schwann are associated with
(1) theory of cell lineage
(2) protoplasm as the physical basis of life
(3) nucleus functions as control centre of cell
(4) cell theory
Ans: (4)
[1993]
Q694. Binding of specific protein on regulatory DNA sequence can
be studied by means of
(1) light microscope
(2) ultra centrifugation
(3) X-ray crystallography
(4) electron microscope
Ans: (3)
[1993]
Q695. Glycogen is a polymer of
(1) fructose
(2) galactose
(3) sucrose
(4) glucose
Ans: (4)
[1993]
Q696. Balbiani rings (puffs) are sites of
(1) synthesis of polysaccharides
(2) DNA replication
(3) synthesis of lipids
(4) RNA and protein synthesis
Ans: (4)
[1993]
Q697. In plant cells, peroxisomes are associated with
(1) photoperiodism
(2) photorespiration
(3) photosynthesis
(4) phototropism
Ans: (2)
[1993]
Q698. Membranous bag with hydrolytic enzymes which is used for
controlling intracellular digestion of macro -molecules is
(1) lysosome
(2) endoplasmic reticulum
(3) phagosome
(4) nucleosome
Ans: (1)
[1993, 94]
Q699. Golgi apparatus is absent in
(1) bacteria and
(2) higher plants (4) yeast
Ans: (1)
[1993]
Q700. Cell recognition and adhesion occur due to biochemicals of
cell membranes named
(1) proteins and lipids
(2) proteins
(3) glycoproteins and glycolipids
(4) lipids
Ans: (3)
[1993]
Q701. Auxetic growth is
(1) increase in fatty tissue
(2) increase in cell volume only
(3) increase in intercellular material
(4) increase in cell number only
Ans: (2)
[1994]
Q702. Series of reactions which can convert fatty acids to sugars in
plants but not in animals is
(1) ornithine cycle
(2) krebs cycle
(3) glycolysis
(4) glyoxylate cycle
Ans: (4)
[1994]
Q703. Organelle having flattened membrane bound cisternae and
lying near the nucleus is
(1) centriole
(2) golgi apparatus
(3) nucleolus
(4) mitochondrion
Ans: (2)
[1994]
Q704. Mitochondrial cristae are sites of
(1) phosphorylation of flavoproteins
(2) breakdown of macromolecules
(3) oxidation-reduction reactions
(4) protein synthesis
Ans: (3)
[1994]
Q705. Inner membrane convolutions of a mitochondrion are known
as
(2) grana
(2) lamellae
(3) cristae
(4) thylakoids
Ans: (3)
 [1994]
Q706. Lysosomes have a high content of
(1) polyribosomes
(2) hydrolytic enzymes
(3) DNA ligases
(4) lipoproteins
Ans: (2)
[1995]
Q707. The desmosomes are concerned with
(1) cell adherence
(2) cytolysis
(3) cellular excretion
(4) cell division
Ans: (1)
[1995]
Q708. The point, at which polytene chromosomes appears to be
attached together, is called
(1) chromomere
(2) centriole
(3) chromocentre
(4) centromere
Ans: (3)
[1995]
Q709. The function of rough endoplasmic reticulum is
(1) protein synthesis
(2) fat synthesis
(3) steroid synthesis
(4) lipid synthesis
Ans: (1)
[1995]
Q710. The prokaryotic flagella possess
(1) ‘9 + 2’ membrane enclosed structure
(2) unit membrane enclosed fibre
(3) helically arranged protein molecule
(4) protein membrane enclosed fibre
Ans: (3)
[1996, 2000]
Q711. The cell organelle involved in glyco-sylation of protein is
(1) endoplasmic reticulum
(2) ribosome
(3) mitochondria
(4) peroxisome
Ans: (1)
[1997]
Q712. The proteins are synthesised at
(1) centrosomes
(2) ribosomes
(3) golgi bodies
(4) mitochondria
Ans: (2)
[1999]
Q713. Which of the following organ has single membrane?
(1) Mitochondria
(2) Nucleus
(3) Spherosomes
(4) Cell Wall
Ans: (3)
[1999]
Q714. Some of the enzymes,which are associated in converting fats
into carbhoydrates, are present in
(1) microsomes
(2) liposomes
(3) glyoxysomes
(4) golgi bodies
Ans: (3)
[1999]
Q715. Genes located on mitochondrial DNA
(1) show biparental inheritance like the nuclear genes
(2) generally show maternal inheritance
(3) are not inherited
(4) are always inherited from the male parent
Ans: (2)
[2000]
Q716. Ribosomes are produced in
(1) mitochondria
(2) nucleolus
(3) golgi body
(4) cytoplasm
Ans: (2)
[2001]
Q717. Which of the following occurs more than one and less than
five in a chromosome?
(1) Centromere
(2) Chromatid
(3) Telomere
(4) Chromosome
Ans: (2)
[2001]
Q718. In fluid mosaic model of plasma membrane
(1) phospholipids form a bimolecular layer in middle part
(2) upper layer is non-polar and hydrophilic
(3) proteins form a middle layer
(4) upper layer is polar and hydrophobic
Ans: (1)
[2002]
Q719. Element necessary for middle lamella is
(1) K
(2) Ca
(3) Cu
(4) Zn
Ans: (2)
[2002]
Q720. Microtubules absent in
(1) flagella
(2) mitochondria
(3) spindle fibres
(4) centriole
Ans: (2)
[2002]
Q721. The main organelle involved in modification and routing of
newly synthesized proteins to their destinations is
(1) lysosome
(2) chloroplast
(3) endoplasmic Reticulum
(4) mitochondria
Ans: (3)
[2002]
Q722. In chloroplasts, chlorophyll is present in the
(1) thylakoids
(2) outer membrane
(3) stroma
(4) inner membrane
Ans: (1)
[2003]
Q723. Flagella of prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells differ in
(1) microtubular organization and type of movement
(2) type of movement and placement in cell
(3) microtubular organization and function
(4) location in cell and mode of functioning
Ans: (1)
[2004]
Q724. In which one of the following is nitrogen not a
constituent?
(1) Bacteriochlorophyll
(2) Pepsin
(3) Invertase
(4) Idioblast
Ans: (4)
[2004]
Q725. Mitotic spindle is mainly composed of which protein?
(1) Tubulin
(2) Actin
(3) Myoglobin
(4) Myosin
Ans: (1)
[2005]
Q726. Which of the following statement regarding mitochondrial
membrane is not correct?
(1) The outer membrane resembles a sieve
(2) The enzymes of the electron transfer chain are embedded in the outer
membrane
(3) The outer membrane is permeable to all kinds of molecules
(4) The inner membrane is highly convoluted forming a series of infoldings
Ans: (2)
[2005]
Q727. Protein synthesis in an animal cell occurs
(1) on-ribosomes present in the nucleolus as well as in cytoplasm
(2) only on the ribosomes present in cytosol
(3) on ribosomes present in cytoplasm as well as in mitochondria
(4) only on ribosomes attached to the nuclear envelope and endoplasmic
reticulum
Ans: (3)
[2005]
Q728. Centromere is required for:
(1) crossing over
(2) movement of chromosomes towards poles
(3) transcription
(4) cytoplasmic cleavage
Ans: (2)
[2005]
Q729. A student wishes to study the cell structure under a light
microscope having 10X eyepice and 45X objective. He should
illuminate the object by which one of the following colours of light
so as to get the best possible resolution?
(1) Yellow
(2) Blue
(3) Red
(4) Green
Ans: (2)
[2005]
Q730. According to widely accepted “fluid mosaic model” cell
membranes are semi-fluid, where lipids and integral proteins can
diffuse randomly. In recent years, this model has been modified in
several respects. In this regard, which of the following statements
is incorrect?
(1) Proteins can remain confined within certain domains of the membrane.
(2) Proteins in cell membranes can travel within the lipid bilayer.
(3) Many proteins remain completely embedded within the lipid bilayer.
(4) Proteins can also undergo flip-flop movements in the lipid bilayer.
Ans: (4)
[2006]
Q731. Polysome is formed by
(1) a ribosome with several subunits
(2) several ribosomes attached to a single mRNA
(3) ribosomes attached to each other in a linear arrangement
(4) many ribosomes attached to a strand of endoplasmic reticulum
Ans: (2)
[2006]
Q732. Keeping in view the fluid mosaic model for the structure of
cell membrane, which one of the following statements is correct
with respect to the movement of lipids and proteins from one lipid
monolayer to the other (described as flipflop movement)?
(1) While proteins can flip-flop, lipids can not
(2) Both lipids and proteins can flip-flop
(3) Neither lipids, nor proteins can flip-flop
(4) While lipids can rarely flip-flop, protein can not
Ans: (4)
[2007]
Q733. Which one of the following is not a constituent of cell
membrane?
(1) phospholipids
(2) glycolipids
(3) cholesterol.
(4) proline
Ans: (4)
[2007]
Q734. Select the wrong statement from the following
(1) The chloroplasts are generally much large than mitochondria
(2) Both chloroplasts and mitochondria have an internal compartment, the
thylakoid space bounded by the thylakoid membrane
(3) Both chloroplasts and mitochondria contain an inner and an outer
membrane.
(4) Both chloroplasts and mitochondria contain DNA
Ans: (2)

Q735. A major break through in the studies of cells came with the
development of electron microscope. This is because
(1) the electron microscope is more powerful than the light microscope as it
uses a beam of electrons which has wavelength much longer than that of
photons
(2) the resolving power of the electron microscope is 200 – 350 nm as
compared to 0.1 – 0.2 for the light microscope
(3) the resolution power of the electron microscope in much higher than that
of the light microscope
(4) electron beam can pass through thick materials, whereas light microscopy
requires thin sections
Ans: (3)

Q736. Cytoskeleton is made up of:

(1) proteinaceous filaments
(2) callose deposits
(3) calcium carbonate granules
(4) cellulosic microfibrils
Ans: (1)
[2008]
Q737. Plasmodesmata are:
(1) connections between adjacent cells
(2) locomotary structures
(3) lignified cemented layers between cells
(4) membranes connecting the nucleus with plasmalemma
Ans: (1)
[2008]
Q738. Vacuole in a plant cell
(1) lacks membrane and contains air
(2) is membrane-bound and contains storage proteins and lipids
(3) lacks membrane and contains water and excretory substances
(4) is membrane-bound and contains water and excretory substances
Ans: (4)
[2008]
Q739. The two sub-units of ribosome remain united a critical ion
level of
(1) magnesium
(2) copper
(3) calcium
(4) manganese
Ans: (1)
[2009]
Q740. Cellulose is the major component of cell walls of
(1) Pseudomonas
(2) Pythium
(3) Saccharomyces
(4) Xanthomonas
Ans: (2)
[2009]
Q741. The main arena of various types of activities of a cell is:
(1) cytoplasm
(2) plasma membrane
(3) nucleus
(4) mitochondrian
Ans: (1)
 [2009]
Q742. Which one of the following has its own DNA?
(1) Lysosome
(2) Mitochondria
(3) Peroxisome
(4) Dictyosome
Ans: (2)
[2009]
Q743. Which one of the following structures between two adjacent
cells is an effective transport pathway?
(1) Endoplasmic reticulum
(2) Plasmodesmata
(3) Plasmalemma
(4) Plastoquinones
Ans: (2)
[2010]
Q744. Middle lamella is composed mainly of:
(1) phosphoglycerides
(2) muramic acid
(3) hemicellulose
(4) calcium pectate
Ans: (4)
[2010]
Q745. Stroma in the chloroplasts of higher plant contains:
(1) chlorophyll.
(2) light-dependent reaction enzymes
(3) light– independent reaction enzymes
(4) ribosomes
Ans: (3)
[2010]
Q746. What are those structures that appear as beads - on- string in
the chromosomes when viewed under electron microscope?
(1) Nucleosomes
(2) Genes
(3) Base pairs
(4) Nucleotides
Ans: (1)
[2010]
Q747. Peptide synthesis inside a cell takes place in:
(1) chromoplast
(2) chloroplast
(3) ribosomes
(4) mitochondria
Ans: (3)
[2011]
Q748. Important site for formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids
is
(1) plastid
(2) vacuole
(3) lysosome
(4) golgi apparatus
Ans: (4)
[2011]
Q749. Given below is a sample of a portion of DNA strand. What
is so special shown in it? 5’ —— GAATTC —— 3’ 3’ ——
CTTAAG —— 5’
(1) Start codon at the 5’ end
(2) Replication completed
(3) Palindromic sequence of base pairs
(4) Deletion mutation
Ans: (3)
[2011]
Q750. The plasma membrane consists mainly of:
(1) proteins embedded in a polymer of glucose molecules
(2) phospholipids embedded in a protein bilayer
(3) proteins embedded in a carbohydrate bilayer
(4) proteins embedded in a phospholipid bilayer
Ans: (4)
[2011]
Q751. Which one of the following does not differ in E.coli and
Chlamydomonas
(1) Cell wall
(2) Ribosomes
(3) Cellmembrane
(4) Chromosomal Organization
Ans: (3)
Q752. Ribosomal RNA is actively synthesized in
(1) Nucleoplasm
(2) Lysosomes
(3) Ribosomes
(4) Nucleolus
Ans: (4)
[2011M]
Q753. Which one of the following is not considered as a part of the
endomembrane system?
(1) Vacuole
(2) Golgi complex
(3) Lysosome
(4) Peroxisome
Ans: (4)
[2011M]
Q754. In mitochondria, proteins accumulate in the
(1) intermembrane space
(2) outer membrane
(3) matrix
(4) inner membrane
Ans: (4)
[2012]
Q755.
Ans: (4)
[2012]
Q756. Which one of the following cellular parts is correctly
described?
(1) Thylakoids - Flattened membranous sacs forming the grana of
chloroplasts.
(2) Centrioles - Sites for active RNA synthesis.
(3) Ribosomes - Those on chloroplasts are larger (80s) while those in the
cytoplasm are smaller (70s).
(4) Lysosomes - Optimally active at a pH of about 8.5.
Ans: (1)
[2012]
Q757. Which one of the following structures is an organelle within
an organelle?
(1) ER
(2) Ribosome
(3) Mesosome
(4) Peroxisome
Ans: (2)
[2012]
Q758. Select the correct statement from the following regarding
cell membrane.
(1) Lipids are arranged in a bilayer with polar heads towards the inner part.
(2) Na+ and K+ ions move across cell membrane by passive transport
(3) Fluid mosaic model of cell membrane was proposed by Singer and
Nicolson
(4) Proteins make up 60 to 70% of the cell membrane.
Ans: (3)
[2012]
Q759. Nuclear mebrane is absent in
(1) Volvox
(2) Penicillium
(3) Nostoc
(4) Agaricus
Ans: (3)
[2012M]
Q760. What is true about ribosomes
(1) These are found only in eukaryotic cells
(2) The prokaryotic ribosomes are 80S, where “S” stands for sedimentation
coefficient
(3) These are self-splicing introns of some RNAs.
(4) These are composed of ribonucleic acid and proteins
Ans: (4)
[2012M]
Q761. Which of the following type of plastids does not contain
stored food material?
(1) Elaioplasts
(2) Amyloplasts
(3) Aleuroplasts
(4) Chromoplasts
Ans: (4)
Q762. The term ‘glycocalyx’ is used for
(1) Cell wall of bacteria
(2) A layer surrounding the cell wall of bacteria
(3) Bacterial cell glyco-engineered to possess N-glycosylated proteins
(4) A layer present between cell wall and membrane of bacteria
Ans: (2)
[NEET 2013]
Q763. A major site for synthesis of lipids is:
(1) Nucleoplasm
(2) SER
(3) RER
(4) Symplast
Ans: (2)
[NEET 2013]
Q764. The Golgi complex plays a major role
(1) in post translational modification of proteins and glycosidation of lipids
(2) in digesting proteins and carbohydrates
(3) in trapping the light and transforming it into chemical energy
(4) as energy transferring organelles
Ans: (1)
[NEET Kar. 2013]
Q765.
Ans: (1)
[NEET Kar. 2013]
Q766. Which is not consistent with double helical structure of
DNA?
(1) A + T/C + G is not constant
(2) A = T, C = G
(3) Both A and B
(4) Density of DNA decreases on heating
Ans: (1)
Q767. RNA does not possess
(1) Adenine
(2) Uracil
(3) Cytosine
(4) Thymine
Ans: (4)
[NEET Kar. 2013]
Q768. In double helix of DNA, the two DNA strands are
(1) coiled differently (e) coiled over protein sheath
(2) coiled around a common axis (4) coiled around each other
Ans: (2)
[1988]
Q769. Why is a capsule advantageous to a bacterium?
(1) It provides means of locomotion
(2) It allows the bacterium to attach to the surface
(3) It allows bacterium to “hide” from host’s immune system
(4) It protects the bacterium from desiccation
Ans: (3)
[1988]
Q770.
Ans: (4)
[1990]
Q771. A segment of DNA has 120 adenine and 120 cytosine bases.
The total number of nucleotides present in the segment is
(1) 60
(2) 120
(3) 480
(4) 240
Ans: (3)
[1991, 05]
Q772. The basic unit of nucleic acid is
(1) Nucleoside
(2) Pentose sugar
(3) Nucleotide
(4) Nucleoid
Ans: (3)
Q773. In RNA, thymine is replaced by
(1) Cytosine
(2) Adenine
(3) Uracil
(4) Guanine
Ans: (3)
[1991, 92]
Q774. Mineral associated with cytochrome is
(1) Fe and Mg
(2) Cu
(3) Fe and Cu
(4) Mg
Ans: (3)
[1991]
Q775. A nucleotide is formed of
(1) Nitrogen base, sugar and phosphate
(2) Purine, pyrimidine and phosphate
(3) Pyrimidine, sugar and phosphate
(4) Purine, sugar and phosphate
Ans: (1)
[1991]
Q776. Amino acids are produced from
(1) Essential oils
(2) Proteins
(3) a-keto acids
(4) Fatty acids
Ans: (3)
Q777. Living cell contains 60 – 75% water. Water present in
human body is
(1) 75 – 80%
(2) 60 – 65%
(3) 65 – 70%
(4) 50 – 55%
Ans: (3)
[1991]
Q778. Adenine is
(1) Nucleoside
(2) Purine
(3) Nucleotide
(4) Pyrimidine
Ans: (2)
[1992]
Q779. Enzymes having slightly different molecular structure but
performing identical activity are
(1) Apoenzymes
(2) Holoenzymes
(3) Coenzymes
(4) Isoenzymes
Ans: (4)
[1992]
Q780. DNA is composed of repeating units of
(1) Ribonucleotides
(2) Ribonucleosides
(3) Deoxyribonucleotides
(4) Deoxyribonucleosides
Ans: (3)
[1992]
Q781. Which one contains four pyrimidine bases?
(2) UAGCGGUAA
(2) GATCAATGC
(3) TGCCTAACG
(4) GCUAGACAA
Ans: (2)
Q782. The four elements making 99% of living system are
(1) CHON
(2) CHOS
(3) CNOP
(4) CHOP
Ans: (1)
[1993]
Q783. An enzyme brings about
(1) increase in activation energy
(2) decrease in reaction time
(3) reduction in activation energy
(4) increase in reaction time
Ans: (3)
[1993]
Q784. Which is wrong about nucleic acids?
(1) Length of one helix is 45Å in B-DNA
(2) DNA is single stranded in some viruses
(3) One turn of Z-DNA has 12 bases
(4) RNA is double stranded occasionally
Ans: (1)
[1994]
Q785. Which is distributed more widely in a cell?
(1) Chloroplasts
(2) DNA
(3) Sphaerosomes
(4) RNA
Ans: (4)
[1994]
Q786. In which one of the following groups, all the three are
examples of polysaccharides?
(1) glucose, fructose, lactose
(2) Starch, glycogen, cellulose
(3) Galactose, starch, sucrose
(4) Sucrose, maltose, glucose
Ans: (2)
[1995]
Q787. The nitrogenous organic base purine occuring in RNA is
(1) guanine
(2) cytosine
(3) uracil
(4) thymine
Ans: (1)
[1995]
Q788. The pyrenoids are made up of
(1) core of starch surrounded by sheath of protein
(2) proteinaceous centre and starchy sheath
(3) core of nucleic acid surrounded by protein sheath
(4) core of protein surrounded by fatty sheath
Ans: (2)
[1995]
Q789. A polysaccharide, which is synthesized and stored in liver
cells, is
(1) arabinose
(2) lactose
(3) glycogen
(4) galactose
Ans: (3)
[1996]
Q790. Two free ribonucleotide units are interlinked with
(1) hydrogen bond
(2) peptide bond
(3) phosphodiester bond
(4) covalent bond
Ans: (3)
Q791. The RNA that picks up specific amino acids from the amino
acid pool in the cytoplasm to ribosome during protein synthesis is
called
(1) rRNA
(2) mRNA
(3) carrier RNA
(4) tRNA
Ans: (4)
[1996]
Q792. DNA synthesis can be specifically measured by estimating
the incorporation of radio labelled
(1) thymidine
(2) uracil
(3) deoxyribose sugar
(4) adenine
Ans: (1)
[1997]
Q793. Protein synthesis in an animal cell takes place
(1) in cytoplasm as well as in mitochondria
(2) only in the cytoplasm
(3) only on ribosomes attached to the nuclear envelope
(4) in the nucleolus as well as in cytoplasm
Ans: (1)
[1997]
Q794. Genes are packed into a bacterial chromosome by
(1) acidic proteins
(2) histones
(3) actin
(4) basic proteins
Ans: (4)
[1997]
Q795. Most diverse macromolecules, found in the cell both
physically and chemically are
(1) nucleic acids
(2) proteins
(3) lipids.
(4) carbohydrates
Ans: (2)
Q796. Minor changes at gene level are described as
(1) Reverse mutations
(2) Point mutations
(3) Forward mutations
(4) Chromosomal mutations
Ans: (2)
[1998]
Q797. Lactose is composed of
(1) Fructose + Galactose
(2) Glucose + Glucose
(3) Glucose + Galactose.
(4) Glucose + Fructose
Ans: (3)
[1998]
Q798. Cellulose, the most important constitutent of plant cell wall
is made of
(1) unbranched chain of glucose molecules linked by b-1, 4 glycosidic bond
(2) unbranched chain of glucose molecules linked by a-1, 4 glycosidic bond
(3) branched chain of glucose molecules linked by a-1, 6 glycosidic bond at
the site of branching.
(4) branched chain of glucose molecules linked by b-1, 4 glycosidic bond in
straight chain and a-1, 6 glycosidic bond at the site of branching
Ans: (1)
[1998]
Q799. The enormous diversity of protein molecules is due mainly
to the diversity of
(1) amino acid sequences within the protein molecule
(2) amino groups on the amino acids
(3) peptide bonds
(4) R groups on the amino acids
Ans: (1)
[1998]
Q800. Radioactive thymidine when added to the medium
surrounding living mammalian cells gets incorporated into the
newly synthesized DNA. Which of the following types of
chromatin is expected to become radioactive if cells are exposed to
radioactive thymidine as soon as they enter the S-phase?
(1) Both heterochromatin and euchromatin
(2) Heterochromatin
(3) Neither heterochromatin nor euchromatin but only the nucleolus
(4) Euchromatin
Ans: (4)
Q801. One of the similarities between DNA and RNA is that both
(1) have similar sugars
(2) are polymers of nucleotides
(3) have similar pyrimidine bases
(4) are capable of replicating
Ans: (2)
[1999]
Q802. The transfer RNA molecule in 3D appears
(1) Y-shaped
(2) L-shaped
(3) S-shaped
(4) E-shaped
Ans: (2)
[2000, 06]
Q803. Conjugated proteins containing carbohydrates as prosthetic
group are known as
(1) Lipoproteins
(2) Chromoproteins
(3) Nucleoproteins
(4) Glycoproteins
Ans: (4)
[2000]
Q804. Length of one turn of the helix in a b-form DNA is
approximately
(1) 0.34 nm
(2) 3.4 nm
(3) 20 nm
(4) 2 nm
Ans: (2)
[2000]
Q805. The secondary structure of that portion of an integral protein
that is buried in the lipid bilayer of a cell membrane is
(1) random coil
(2) b-strand
(3) a-helix
(4) b-bend
Ans: (3)
[2000]
Q806. Most abundant organic compound on earth is
(1) Lipids
(2) Protein
(3) Steroids
(4) Cellulose
Ans: (4)
[2000]
Q807. Due to discovery of which of the following in 1980 the
evolution was termed as RNA world?
(1) RNA have enzymatic property
(2) mRNA, tRNA, rRNA synthesise proteins
(3) RNA is not found in all cells
(4) In some virus RNA is genetic material
Ans: (1)
[2000]
Q808. Which is an essential amino acid?
(1) Glycine
(2) Serine
(3) Phenylalanine
(4) Aspartic acid
Ans: (3)
[2000]
Q809. Enzymes enhance the rate of reaction by
(1) combining with the product as soon as it is formed
(2) forming a reactant-product complex
(3) lowering the activation energy of the reaction
(4) changing the equilibrium point of the reaction
Ans: (3)
[2001]
Q810. Feedback inhibition of an enzymatic reaction is caused by
(1) Enzyme
(2) End product
(3) Rise in temperature
(4) Substrate
Ans: (2)
[2001]
Q811. Collagen is
(1) lipid
(2) fibrous protein
(3) carbohydrate
(4) globular protein
Ans: (2)
[2001]
Q812. Which of the following is a reducing sugar?
(1) beta -methyl galactoside
(2) galactose
(3) sucrose
(4) gluconic acid
Ans: (2)
[2001]
Q813. Lipids are insoluble in water because lipid molecules are
(1) neutral
(2) hydrophilic
(3) zwitter ions
(4) hydrophobic
Ans: (4)
[2002]
Q814. Spoilage of oil can be detected by which fatty acid?
(1) Linoleic acid
(2) Oleic acid
(3) Erucic acid
(4) Linolenic acid
Ans: (3)
Q815. Types of RNA polymerase required in nucleus for RNA
synthesis?
(1) 3
(2) 1
(3) 4
(4) 2
Ans: (1)
[2002]
Q816. The catalytic efficiency of two different enzymes can be
compared by the
(1) Km value
(2) formation of the product
(3) molecular size of the enzyme
(4) pH optimum value
Ans: (1)

Q817. Which of the following statements regarding enzyme

inhibition is correct?
(1) Non-competitive inhibition of an enzyme can be overcome by adding
large amount of substrate.
(2) Competitive inhibition is seen when a substrate competes with an enzyme
for binding to an inhibitor protein.
(3) Non-competitive inhibitors often bind to the enzyme irreversibly.
(4) Competitive inhibition is seen when the substrate and the inhibitor
compete for the active site on the enzyme.
Ans: (4)
[2004]
Q818. Which form of RNA has a structure resembling clover
leaf?
(1) m RNA
(2) rRNA
(3) t RNA
(4) hn RNA
Ans: (3)
[2004]
Q819. In which one of the following enzymes, is copper
necessarily associated as an activator?
(1) Lactic dehydrogenase
(2) Carbonic anhydrase
(3) Tyrosinase
(4) Tryptophanase
Ans: (3)
[2005]
Q820. Cancer cells are more easily damaged by radiation than
normal cells because they are
(1) different in structure
(2) starved of mutation
(3) non-dividing
(4) undergoing rapid division
Ans: (4)
[2005]
Q821. Carbohydrates, the most abundant biomolecules on earth,
are produced by:
(1) all bacteria, fungi and algae
(2) some bacteria, algae and green plant cells
(3) viruses, fungi and bacteria
(4) fungi, algae and green plant cells
Ans: (2)
[2005]
Q822. Antiparallel strands of a DNA molecule means that
(1) one strand turns clockwise
(2) the phosphate groups of two DNA strands, at their ends. share the same
position
(3) one strand turns anti-clockwise
(4) the phosphate groups at the start of two DNA strands are in opposite
position (pole)
Ans: (2)
 [2005]
Q823. Which one of the following hydrolyses internal
phosphodiester bonds in a polynucleotide chain?
(1) Endonuclease
(2) Lipase
(3) Exonuclease
(4) Protease
Ans: (1)
[2005]
Q824. Which of the following is the simplest amino acid?
(1) Glycine
(2) Alanine
(3) Tyrosine
(4) Asparagine
Ans: (1)

Q825. Enzymes, vitamins and hormones can be classified into a

single category of biological chemicals, because all of these
(1) are conjugated proteins
(2) help in regulating metabolism
(3) enhance oxidative metabolism
(4) are exclusively synthesized in the body of a living organism as at present
Ans: (2)
[2005]
Q826.
Ans: (3)
[2006]
Q827. Carrier ions like Na+ facilitate the absorption of substances
like:
(1) fatty acids and glycerol
(2) amino acids and glucose
(3) fructose and some amino acids
(4) glucose and fatty acids
Ans: (2)
[2007]
Q828. A competitive inhibitor of succinic dehydrogenase is
(1) m-ketoglutarate
(2) Malonate
(3) Malate
(4) Oxaloacetate
Ans: (2)
[2008]
Q829. About 98 percent of the mass of every living organism is
composed of just six element including carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen,
oxygen and
(1) calcium and phosphorus
(2) sulphur and magnesium
(3) phosphorus and sulphur.
(4) magnesium and sodium
Ans: (1)
[2010]
Q830. An organic substance bound to an enzyme and essential for
its activity is called
(1) Isoenzyme
(2) Holoenzyme
(3) Coenzyme
(4) Apoenzyme
Ans: (3)

Q831. Which one of the following biomolecules is correctly

characterized?
(1) Adenylic acid - Adenosine with a glucose phosphate molecule.
(2) Lecithin - A phosphorylated glyceride found in cell membrane.
(3) Alanine amino acid - Contains an amino group and an acidic group
anywhere in the molecule.
(4) Palmitic acid - An unsaturated fatty acid with 18 carbon atoms.
Ans: (2)

Q832.
Ans: (4)
Q833. Which one is the most abundant protein in the animal
world
(1) Collagen
(2) Trypsin
(3) Insulin
(4) Haemoglobin
Ans: (1)
[2012]
Q834.
Ans: (3)
Q835.
Ans: (4)
[2012M]
Q836. Which of the following statements about enzymes is
wrong?
(1) Enzymes are mostly proteins but some are lipids also
(2) Enzymes require optimum pH and temperature for maximum activity
(3) Enzymes are highly specific
(4) Enzymes are denatured at high temperatures
Ans: (1)
[NEET 2013]
Q837. Macro molecule chitin is:
(1) Simple polysaccharide
(2) Phosphorus containing polysaccharide
(3) Nitrogen containing polysaccharide
(4) Sulphur containing polysaccharide
Ans: (3)
[NEET 2013]
Q838. Transition state structure of the substrate formed during an
enzymatic reaction is:
(1) permanent and stable
(2) permanent but unstable
(3) transient but stable
(4) transient and unstable
Ans: (4)
[NEET 2013]
Q839. The essential chemical components of many coenzymes
are:
(1) Vitamins
(2) Nucleic acids
(3) Proteins
(4) Carbohydrates
Ans: (1)
[NEET 2013]
Q840. A phosphoglycerate is always made up of:
(1) a saturated or unsaturated fatty acid esterified to a phosphate group which
is also attached to a glycerol molecule.
(2) only an unsaturated fatty acid esterified to a glycerol molecule to which a
phosphate group is also attached
(3) only a saturated fatty acid esterified to a glycerol molecule to which a
phosphate group is also attached
(4) a saturated or unsaturated fatty acid esterified to a glycerol molecule to
which a phosphate group is also attached
Ans: (4)
[NEET Kar. 2013]
Q841. In meiosis, the daughter cells differ from parent cell as well
as amongst themselves due to
(1) independent assortment and crossing over
(2) segregation, independent assortment and crossing over
(3) segregation and independent assortment
(4) segregation and crossing over
Ans: (2)
Q842. Mitotic anaphase differs from metaphase in possessing
(1) half number of chromosomes and same number of chromatids
(2) same number of chromosomes and same number of chromatids
(3) same number of chromosomes and half number of chromatids
(4) half number of chromosomes and half number of chromatids
Ans: (3)
[1988]
Q843. Segregation of mendelian factor (Aa) occurs during
(1) Zygotene/Pachytene
(2) Diplotene
(3) Anaphase II
(4) Anaphase I
Ans: (4)
[1990]
Q844. Meiosis I is reductional division. Meiosis II is equational
division due to
(1) separation of chromatids
(2) pairing of homologous chromosomes
(3) disjunction of homologous chromosomes
(4) crossing over
Ans: (1)
[1991]
Q845.
Ans: (4)
[1991]
Q846. The exchange of genetic material between chromatids of
paired homologous chromosomes during first meiotic division is
called
(1) crossing over
(2) transformation
(3) synapsis
(4) chiasmata
Ans: (1)
[1992]
Q847. Meiosis is evolutionary significant because it result in
(1) eggs and sperms
(2) genetically similar daughters
(3) recombinations
(4) four daughter cells
Ans: (3)
[1993]
Q848. Best stage to observe shape, size and number of
chromosomes is
(1) prophase
(2) interphase
(3) telophase
(4) metaphase
Ans: (4)
[1994]
Q849. Meiosis II performs
(1) separation of homologous chromosomes
(2) separation of sex chromosomes
(3) separation of chromatids
(4) synthesis of DNA and centromere
Ans: (3)
[1994]
Q850. Number of chromatids at metaphase is
(1) two in mitosis and four in meiosis
(2) two each in mitosis and meiosis
(3) one in mitosis and two in meiosis
(4) two in mitosis and one in meiosis
Ans: (2)
[1996]
Q851. How many mitotic divisions are needed for a single cell to
make 128 cells?
(1) 28
(2) 7
(3) 64
(4) 14
Ans: (2)
[1996, 2000]
Q852. Which one of the following structures will not be common
to mitotic cells of higher plants?
(1) centromere
(2) cell plate
(3) spindle fibres
(4) centriole
Ans: (4)
[1996]
Q853. Colchicine is employed to diploidize a haploid cell as it
(1) allows replication of DNA twice in one cell cycle
(2) inhibits mitosis
(3) inhibits formation of centromere
(4) inhibits formation of mitotic spindle
Ans: (4)
[1996]
Q854. Lampbrush chromosomes occur during
(1) metaphase of meiosis
(2) prophase of mitosis
(3) interphase
(4) diplotene of meiosis
Ans: (4)
[1997]
Q855. In cell cycle, DNA replication takes place in
(1) mitotic metaphase
(2) G1 phase
(3) S phase
(4) G2 phase
Ans: (3)
[1997]
Q856. Best material for the study of mitosis in laboratory is
(1) leaf tip
(2) anther
(3) ovary
(4) root tip
Ans: (4)
[1997]
Q857. During cell division, the spindle fibres attach to the
chromosome at a region called
(1) centriole
(2) chromocentre
(3) chromomere
(4) kinetochore
Ans: (4)
[1998]
Q858. A bacterium divides every 35 minutes. If a culture
containing 105 cells per ml is grown for 175 minutes, what will be
the cell concentration per ml after 175 minutes?
(1) 32 × 105cells
(2) 5 × 105cells
(3) 175 × 105cells
(4) 35 × 105cells
Ans: (1)
[1998]
Q859. Microtubule is involved in the
(1) membrane architecture
(2) cell division
(3) dNA recognition
(4) muscle contraction
Ans: (2)
[2000]
Q860. During cell division in apical meristem the nuclear
membrane appears in
(1) telophase
(2) metaphase
(3) cytokinesis
(4) anaphase
Ans: (1)
[2002]
Q861. At what stage of the cell cycle are histone proteins
synthesized in a eukaryotic cell?
(1) During entire prophase
(2) During G-2 stage of prophase
(3) During telophase
(4) During S-phase
Ans: (4)
[2002]
Q862. Which one of the following precedes reformation of the
nuclear envelope during M phase of the cell cycle
(1) Formation of the contractile ring, and formation of the phragmoplast
(2) Decondensation from chromosomes, and reassembly of the nuclear
lamina
(3) Formation of the contractile ring, and transcription from chromosomes
(4) Transcription from chromosomes, and reassembly of the nuclear lamina
Ans: (4)
[2004]
Q863. If you are provided with root-tips of onion in your class and
are asked to count the chromosomes, which of the following stages
can you most conveniently look into?
(1) Anaphase
(2) Metaphase
(3) Prophase
(4) Telophase
Ans: (2)
[2004]
Q864. In the somatic cell cycle
(1) a short interphase is followed by a long mitotic phase
(2) In G1 phase DNA content is double the amount of DNA present in the
original cell
(3) G2 phase follows mitotic phase
(4) DNA replication takes place in S-phase
Ans: (4)
[2004]
Q865. If a diploid cell is treated with colchicine then it becomes
(1) diploid
(2) triploid
(3) monoploid
(4) tetraploid
Ans: (4)
[2005]
Q866. Select the correct option with respect to mitosis.
(1) Golgi complex and endoplasmic reticulum are still visible at the end of
prophase.
(2) Chromatids separate but remain in the centre of the cell in anaphase.
(3) Chromosomes move to the spindle equator and get aligned along
equatorial plate in metaphase
(4) Chromatids start moving towards opposite poles in telophase.
Ans: (3)
Q867. Which stages of cell division do the following figures A and
B represent respectively? Fig. A Fig. B
(1) Late Anaphase - Prophase
(2) Metaphase - Telophase
(3) Prophase - Anaphase
(4) Telophase - Metaphase
Ans: (1)
[2009]
Q868. During mitosis ER and nucleolus begin to disappear at:
(1) late metaphase
(2) late prophase
(3) early prophase
(4) early metaphase
Ans: (3)
[2010]
Q869. Synapsis occurs between:
(1) two homologous chromosomes
(2) mRNA and ribosomes
(3) a male and a female gamete
(4) spindle fibres and centromere
Ans: (1)
[2010]
Q870.
Ans: (4)
[2011]
Q871. A stage in cell division is shown in the figure. Select the
answer which gives correct identification of the stage with its
characteristics.
(1) Telophase Endoplasmic reticulum and nucleolus not reformed yet
(2) Late anaphase Chromosomes move away from equatorial plate, Golgi
complex not present
(3) Telophase Nuclear envelop reforms, golgi complex reforms
(4) Cytokinesis Cell plate formed, mitochondria distributed between two
daughter cells
Ans: (3)
[2011M]
Q872. Identify the meiotic stage in which the homologous
chromosomes separate while the sister chromatids remain
associated at their centromeres?
(1) Anaphase I
(2) Metaphase I
(3) Anaphase II
(4) Metaphase II
Ans: (1)
[2012]
Q873. Given below is the representation of a certain event at a
particular stage of a type of cell division. Which is this stage?
(1) Prophase of Mitosis
(2) Prophase I during meiosis
(3) Both prophase and metaphase of mitosis
(4) Prophase II during meiosis
Ans: (2)
[2012]
Q874. During gamete formation, the enzyme recombinase
participates during
(1) Prophase - I
(2) Metaphase - I
(3) Prophase - II
(4) Anaphase - II
Ans: (1)
[2012M]
Q875. At metaphase, chromosomes are attached to the spindle
fibres by their:
(1) kinetochores
(2) satellites
(3) centromere
(4) secondary constrictions
Ans: (1)
[NEET 2013]
Q876. Water potential is equal to
(1) yp + yw
(2) ys + O.P.
(3) ys + yp
(4) ys = T.P.
Ans: (3)
[NEET 2013]
Q877.
Ans: (1)
[NEET Kar. 2013]
Q878. During meiosis I, the chromosomes start pairing at
(1) Pachytene
(2) Leptotene
(3) Diplotene
(4) Zygotene
Ans: (4)
[NEET Kar. 2013]
Q879. During the metaphase stage of mitosis spindle fibres attach
to chromosomes at
(1) Both centromere and kinetochore
(2) Centromere
(3) Centromere, kinetochore and areas adjoining centromere
(4) Kinetochore
Ans: (4)
Q880. The complex formed by a pair of synapsed homologous
chromosomes is called
(1) Axoneme
(2) Kinetochore
(3) Equatorial plate
(4) Bivalent
Ans: (4)
[1988]
Q881. The principal pathway of water translocation in angiosperms
is
(1) xylem vessel system
(2) sieve cells
(3) xylem and phloem
(4) sieve tube elements
Ans: (1)
[1988]
Q882. A bottle filled with previously moistened Mustard seeds and
water was screw capped tightly and kept in a corner. It blew up
suddenly after about half an hour. The phenomenon involved is
(1) osmosis
(2) diffusion
(3) d.P.D
(4) imbibition
Ans: (4)
[1988]
Q883. Stomata open and close due to
(1) pressure of gases inside the leaves
(2) circadian rhythm
(3) turgor pressure of guard cells
(4) genetic clock
Ans: (3)
[1988, 2002]
Q884. Phenyl mercuric acetate (PMA) results in
(1) reduced respiration
(2) reduced photosynthesis
(3) killing of plants
(4) reduced transpiration [1990]
Q885. Transpiration is least in
(1) dry environment
(2) good soil moisture
(3) high atmospheric humidity
(4) high wind velocity
Ans: (3)
[1990]
Q886. Guttation is mainly due to
(1) transpiration
(2) root pressure
(3) imbibition
(4) osmosis
Ans: (2)
[1991, 99]
Q887. Which of the following is used to determine the rate of
transpiration in plants?
(1) Auxanometer
(2) Porometer/hygrometer
(3) Tensiometer/ Barometer
(4) Potometers
Ans: (4)
[1991]
Q888. Water movement between cells is due to
(1) D.P.D
(2) T.P.
(3) Incipient plasmolysis
(4) W.P.
Ans: (1)
[1992]
Q889. The most widely accepted theory for ascent of sap in trees
is
(1) pulsating action of living cell
(2) capillarity
(3) transpiration pull and cohesion Theory of Dixon and Jolly
(4) role of atmospheric pressure
Ans: (3)
[1992]
Q890. In soil, the water available for root absorption is
(1) hygroscopic water
(2) gravitational water
(3) combined water
(4) capillary water
Ans: (4)
[1992]
Q891. Amino acids are mostly synthesised from
(1) volatile acids
(2) mineral salts
(3) a-ketoglutaric acid
(4) fatty acids
Ans: (3)
[1992]
Q892. In guard cells when sugar is converted into starch, the
stomatal pore
(1) opens fully
(2) closes completely
(3) remains unchanged
(4) opens partially
Ans: (2)
[1992]
Q893. At constant temperature, the rate of transpiration will be
higher at
(1) 1 km above sea level
(2) Sea level
(3) 1.5 km above sea level
(4) 1 km below sea level
Ans: (3)
[1992]
Q894. Conversion of starch to organic acids is required for
(1) stomatal formation
(2) stomatal opening
(3) stomatal activity
(4) stomatal closing
Ans: (2)
 [1992]
Q895. In terrestrial habitats, temperature and rainfall conditions are
influenced by
(1) thermoperiodism
(2) water transformations
(3) translocation
(4) transpiration
Ans: (4)
[1992]
Q896. The movement of mineral ions into plant root cells as a
result of diffusion is called
(1) passive absorption
(2) osmosis
(3) endocytosis
(4) active absorption
Ans: (1)
[1993]
Q897. The closure of lid of pitcher in a pitcher plant, is due to
(1) paratonic movement
(2) turgor movement
(3) autonomous movement
(4) tropic movement
Ans: (1)
[1993]
Q898. Active and passive transports across cell membrane differ
in
(1) active transport is more rapid
(2) passive transport is nonselective
(3) passive transport is confined to anions while active transport in confined
to cations
(4) passive transport is along the concentration gradient while active transport
is due to metabolic energy
Ans: (4)
[1993]
Q899. An adaptation for better gaseous exchange in plant leaves
is
(1) waxy cuticle
(2) hair on lower surface
(3) stomata on lower surface away from direct sun rays.
(4) multiple epidermis
Ans: (3)
[1995]
Q900. Which is produced during water stress that brings stomatal
closure
(1) ferulic acid
(2) ethylene
(3) coumarin
(4) abscisic acid
Ans: (4)

Q901. Water potential in the leaf tissue is positive (+) during

(1) excessive absorption
(2) excessive transpiration
(3) guttation
(4) low transpiration
Ans: (3)
[1997]
Q902. Plants die from prolonged water-logging because
(1) cell sap in the plants becomes too dilute
(2) soil nutrients become very dilute
(3) nutrients leach down due to excess water
(4) root respiration stops
Ans: (4)
[1997]
Q903. The core metal of chlorophyll is
(1) nickel
(2) iron
(3) copper
(4) magnesium
Ans: (4)
[1997]
Q904. Bidirectional translocation of minerals takes place in
(1) parenchyma
(2) xylem
(3) cambium
(4) phloem
Ans: (4)
[1997]
Q905. With increase in the turgidity of a cell surrounded by water
the wall pressure will
(1) fluctuate
(2) increase
(3) remain unchanged
(4) decrease
Ans: (2)
[1997]
Q906. Movement of ions or molecules in a direction opposite to
that of prevailing electrochemical gradient is known as
(1) pinocytosis
(2) diffusion
(3) brownian movement
(4) active transport
Ans: (4)
[1997]
Q907. Water potential of actively absorbing cells is
(1) always 0
(2) always + ve
(3) always > 1
(4) always – ve
Ans: (4)
[1998]
Q908. If a cell A with DPD 4 bars is connected to cell B, C, D
whose OP and TP are respectively 4 and 4, 10 and 5 and 7 and 3
bars, the flow of water will be
(1) B to A, C and D
(2) A and D to B and C
(3) C to A, B and D
(4) A to B,C and D
Ans: (1)
[1998]
Q909. The water potential and osmotic potential of pure water
are
(1) zero and 100
(2) zero and zero
(3) 100 and zero
(4) 100 and 100
Ans: (2)
[1999]
Q910. Suppose an aquatic plant is placed in a test tube containing
distilled water and the tube is stoppered. The tube is left outdoors
for 24 hours and the pH value of the water is then measured at
regular intervals. Which of the following is the most probable
result?
(1) The pH value is lowest at noon
(2) The pH value is lowest just before sunrise
(3) The pH value is lowest just before sunset.
(4) The pH value is highest just before sunrise
Ans: (2)
[2000]
Q911. The ability of the Venus fly trap to capture insects is due
to:
(1) a passive process requiring no special ability on the part of the plant
(2) specialised “muscle-like” cells
(3) rapid turgor pressure changes
(4) chemical stimulation by the prey
Ans: (3)
[2001]
Q912. Dough kept overnight in warm weather becomes soft and
spongy because of
(1) cohesion
(2) absorption of carbon dioxide from atmosphehre
(3) osmosis
(4) fermentation
Ans: (4)
[2001]
Q913. Stomata of a plant open due to
(1) efflux of potassium ions
(2) influx of calcium ions
(3) influx of hydrogen ions
(4) influx of potassium ions
Ans: (4)
[2003]
Q914. When water moves through a semi permeable membrane
then which of the following pressure develops?
(1) T. P.
(2) O. P.
(3) W. P
(4) S. P
Ans: (2)
[2004]
Q915. Which of the following plant is found to have minimum
transpiration
(1) Mango
(2) Nerium
(3) Guava
(4) Hydrilla
Ans: (2)
[2005]
Q916. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(1) At present it is not possible to grow maize without chemical fertilizers
(2) Both Azotobacter and Rhizobium fix atmospheric nitrogen in root
nodules of plants.
(3) Extensive use of chemical fertilizers may lead to eutrophication of nearby
water bodies.
(4) Cyanobacteria such as Anabaena and Nostoc are important mobilizers of
phosphates and for plant nutrition in soil
Ans: (3)
[2005]
Q917. Two cells A and B are contiguous. Cell A has osmotic
pressure 10 atm, turgor pressure 7 atm and diffusion pressure
deficit 3 atm. Cell B has osmotic pressure 8 atm, turgor pressure 3
atm and diffusion pressure deficit 5 atm. The result will
(1) movement of water from cell A to B.
(2) no movement of water
(3) movement of water from cell B to A.
(4) equilibrium between the two
Ans: (1)
[2006]
Q918. The translocation of organic solutes in sieve tube members
is supported by
(1) cytoplasmic streaming
(2) P-proteins
(3) root pressure and transpiration pull
(4) mess flow involving a carrier and ATP
Ans: (2)
[2006]
Q919. Sulphur is an important nutrient for optimum growth and
productivity in
(1) oilseed crops
(2) cereals
(3) pulse crops
(4) fibre crops
Ans: (3)
[2007]
Q920. Potometer works on the principle of
(1) root pressure
(2) osmotic pressure
(3) potential difference between the tip of the tube and that of the plant
(4) amount of water absorbed equals the amount transpired
Ans: (4)
 [2007]
Q921. Which of the following criteria does not pertain to facilitated
transport?
(1) Uphill transport
(2) High selectivity
(3) Requirement of special membrane proteins
(4) Transport saturation
Ans: (1)
[2008]
Q922. Guttation is the result of:
(1) osmosis
(2) diffusion
(3) root pressure
(4) transpiration
Ans: (3)
[2008]
Q923. Guard cells help in:
(1) fighting against infection
(2) transpiration
(3) protection against grazing
(4) guttation
Ans: (2)
[2009]
Q924. Carbohydrates are commonly found as starch in plant
storage organs. Which of the following five properties of starch (a-
e) make it useful as a storage material? (A) Easily translocated (B)
Chemically non-reactive (C) Easily digested by animals (D)
Osmotically inactive (E) Synthesized during photosynthesis The
useful properties are
(1) (A), (C) and (E)
(2) (B) and (C)
(3) (A) and (E)
(4) (B) and (D)
Ans: (4)
 [2011M]
Q925. The rupture and fractionation do not usually occur in the
water column in vessel/tracheids during the ascent of sap because
of
(1) weak gravitational pull
(2) lignified thick walls
(3) transpiration pull
(4) cohesion and adhesion
Ans: (4)
[NEET 2013]
Q926. Mycorrhiza is a symbiotic relationship between roots of
higher plants and
(1) bacteria
(2) virus
(3) blue green algae
(4) fungi
Ans: (4)

Q927. Which one is an essential mineral, not constituent of any

enzyme but stimulates the activity of many enzymes
(1) K
(2) Zn
(3) Mg
(4) Mn
Ans: (1)
[1988]
Q928. Phosphorous and nitrogen ions generally get depleted in soil
because they usually occur as
(1) positively charged ions
(2) neutral ions
(3) both positively and negatively charged but disproportionate mixture
(4) negatively charged ions
Ans: (3)
[1989]
Q929. Minerals absorbed by roots move to the leaf through
(1) sieve tubes
(2) xylem
(3) none of the above
(4) phloem
Ans: (2)
[1989]
Q930.
Ans: (3)
[1995]
Q931. Which of the following is not caused by deficiency of
mineral nutrition?
(1) Etiolation
(2) Necrosis
(3) Shortening of internodes
(4) Chlorosis
Ans: (1)
[1995]
Q932. Which one of the following is not an essential element for
plants?
(1) Iodine
(2) Potassium
(3) Zinc
(4) Iron
Ans: (1)
[1995]
Q933. Which one of the following is a micronutrient for plants?
(1) Manganese
(2) Calcium
(3) Nitrogen
(4) Magnesium
Ans: (1)
[1996]
Q934. Which of the following can fix atmospheric nitrogen?
(1) Saprolegnia
(2) Albugo
(3) Anabaena
(4) Cystopus
Ans: (3)
[1996]
Q935. The association between blue-green algae and fungi occurs
in
(1) cannibism
(2) lichens
(3) mycorrhiza
(4) symbiosis
Ans: (2)
[1997]
Q936. Passive absorption of minerals depend on
(1) metabolic inhibitor
(2) temperature
(3) humidity
(4) temperature and metabolic inhibitor
Ans: (2)
[1997]
Q937. Enzyme involved in nitrogen assimilation
(1) transferase
(2) nitrogenase
(3) transaminase
(4) nitrate reductase
Ans: (2)
[1999]
Q938. The plants grown in magnesium-deficient but urea sprayed
soil would show
(1) yellowing of leaves
(2) deep green foliage
(3) loss of pigments in petals
(4) early flowering
Ans: (1)
[2000]
Q939. A pair of insectivorous plants is
(1) Dionaea and Viscum
(2) Drosera and Rafflesia
(3) Venus fly trap and Rafflesia
(4) Nepenthes and Bladderwort
Ans: (4)
[2001]
Q940. Which of the following is a free living aerobic
nonphotosynthetic nitrogen-fixer?
(1) Azospirillum
(2) Rhizobium
(3) Nostoc
(4) Azotobacter
Ans: (4)
[2001]
Q941. Which one of the following mineral elements plays an
important role in biological nitrogen fixation?
(1) Manganese
(2) Molybdenum
(3) Zinc
(4) Copper
Ans: (2)
[2001]
Q942. The major role of minor elements inside living organisms is
to act as
(1) building blocks of important amino acids
(2) binder of cell structure
(3) constituent of hormones
(4) co-factors of enzymes
Ans: (4)
[2001]
Q943. Choose the correct match
(1) Utricularia, Drosera, Dionaea
(2) Trapa, Dionaea, Drosera
(3) Dionaea, Trapa, Vanda
(4) Nepenthes ,Utricularia, Vanda
Ans: (1)
[2002]
Q944. In plants inulin and raphides
(1) secretory material
(2) reserved food material
(3) insect attracting material
(4) wastes
Ans: (2)
[2003]
Q945. Which aquatic fern performs nitrogen fixation?
(1) Salvia
(2) Azolla
(3) Salvinia
(4) Nostoc
Ans: (2)
[2003]
Q946. The deficiencies of micronutrients, not only affects growth
of plants but also vital functions such as photosynthetic and
mitochondrial electron flow. Among the list given below, which
group of three elements shall affect most, both photosynthetic and
mitochondrial electron transport:
(1) Mn, Co, Ca
(2) Co, Ni, Mo
(3) Cu, Mn, Fe
(4) Ca, K, Na
Ans: (3)
[2003]
Q947. A free living nitrogen-fixing cyanobacterium which can also
form symbiotic association with the water fern Azolla is
(1) Nostoc
(2) Tolypothrix
(3) Anabaena
(4) Chlorella
Ans: (3)
[2003]
Q948. Grey spots of oat are caused by deficiency of
(1) Zn
(2) Fe
(3) Mn
(4) Cu
Ans: (3)
[2003]
Q949. Boron in green plants assists in
(1) acting as enzyme cofactor
(2) sugar transport
(3) photosynthesis
(4) activation of enzymes
Ans: (2)
[2004]
Q950. The major portion of the dry weight of plants comprises of
(1) Calcium, magnesium and sulphur
(2) Carbon, hydrogen and oxygen
(3) Carbon, nitrogen and hydrogen
(4) Nitrogen, phosphorus and potassium
Ans: (2)
[2005]
Q951. Which one of the following pairs is wrongly matched?
(1) Textile - amylase
(2) Alcohol - nitrogenase
(3) Detergents - lipase
(4) Fruit juice - pectinase
Ans: (2)
[2007]
Q952. Manganese is required in:
(1) chlorophyll synthesis
(2) plant cell wall formation
(3) nucleic acid synthesis
(4) photolysis of water during photosynthesis
Ans: (4)
[2007]
Q953. Nitrogen fixation in root nodules of Alnus is brought about
by:
(1) Frankia
(2) Bradyrhizobium
(3) Azorhizobium
(4) Clostridium
Ans: (1)
[2008]
Q954. Which one of the following elements is not an essential
micronutrient for plant growth?
(1) Ca
(2) Zn
(3) Mn
(4) Cu
Ans: (1)
[2009]
Q955. A plant requires magnesium for
(1) cell wall development
(2) protein synthesis
(3) holding cells together.
(4) chlorophyll synthesis
Ans: (4)
[2009]
Q956. A prokaryotic autotrophic nitrogen fixing symboint is found
in:
(1) Cicer
(2) Alnus
(3) Pisum
(4) Cycas
Ans: (4)
[2009]
Q957.
Ans: (4)
[2010]
Q958. Which one of the following is not a micronutrient?
(1) Zinc
(2) Molybdenum
(3) Boron
(4) Magnesium
Ans: (4)
[2010]
Q959. An element playing important role in nitrogen fixation is:
(1) Manganese
(2) Molybdenum
(3) Zinc
(4) Copper
Ans: (2)

Q960. Which of the following is a symbiotic nitroger fixer?

(1) Azolla
(2) Azotobacter
(3) Glomus
(4) Frankia
Ans: (4)
[2011]
Q961. Which one of the following is essential for photolysis of
water?
(1) Copper
(2) Manganese
(3) Boron
(4) Zinc
Ans: (2)
[2011]
Q962. Which one of the following is not an essential mineral
element for plants while the remaining three are?
(1) Cadmium
(2) Iron
(3) Phosphorus
(4) Manganese
Ans: (1)
[2011]
Q963. The function of leg haemoglobin in the root nodules of
legumes is:
(1) nodule differentiation
(2) inhibition of nitrogenase activity
(3) expression of nif gene
(4) oxygen removal
Ans: (4)
[2011]
Q964. Nitrifying bacteria:
(1) convert proteins into ammonia
(2) oxidize ammonia to nitrates
(3) reduce nitrates to free nitrogen
(4) convert free nitrogen to nitrogen compounds
Ans: (2)
[2011M]
Q965. Which one of the following elements in plants is not
remobilised?
(1) Potassium
(2) Phosphorus
(3) Sulphur
(4) Calcium
Ans: (4)
[2011M]
Q966. Read the following four statements (A-D). (A) Both,
photophosphorylation and oxidative phosphorylation involve uphill
transport of protons across the membrane. (B) In dicot stems, a new
cambium originates from cells of pericycle at the time of secondary
growth. (C) Stamens in flowers of Gloriosa and Petunia are
polyandrous. (D) Symbiotic nitrogen-fixers occur in freeliving state
also in soil. How many of the above statements are correct?
(1) Four
(2) Two
(3) One
(4) Three
Ans: (1)
[2012]
Q967. For its activity, carboxypeptidase requires
(1) niacin
(2) zinc
(3) copper
(4) iron
Ans: (2)
[2012]
Q968. Which one of the following is wrong statement
(1) Phosphorus is a constituent of cell membranes, certain nucleic acids and
cell proteins.
(2) Anabaena and Nostoc are capable of fixing nitrogen in free living state
also.
(3) Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter a re chemoautotrophs.
(4) Root nodule forming nitrogen fixerslive as aerobes under free-living
conditions.
Ans: (1)
Q969. Which one of the following is correctly matched?
(1) Potassium - Readily immobilisation
(2) Passive transport of nutrients - ATP
(3) Bakane of rice seedlings - F. Skoog
(4) Apoplast - Plasmodesmata
Ans: (1)
[2012M]
Q970. Best defined function of Manganese in green plants is:
(1) Nitrogen fixation
(2) Photolysis of water
(3) Water absorption
(4) Calvin cycle
Ans: (2)
[2012M]
Q971. Carbon dioxide joins the photosynthetic pathway in
(1) Light reaction
(2) PS I
(3) Dark reaction
(4) PS II
Ans: (3)
[2012M]
Q972. Which of the following elements is a constituent of biotin?
(1) Calcium
(2) Sulphur
(3) Phosphorus
(4) Magnesium
Ans: (2)
[NEET 2013]
Q973. Which two distinct microbial processes are responsible for
the release of fixed nitrogen as dinitrogen gas (N2) to the
atmosphere?
(1) Decomposition of organic nitrogen, and conversion of dinitrogen to
ammonium compounds
(2) Anaerobic ammonium oxidation, and denitrification
(3) Enteric fermentation in cattle, and nitrogen fixation by Rhizobium in root
nodules of legumes
(4) Aerobic nitrate oxidation, and nitrite reduction
Ans: (2)
[NEET Kar. 2013]
Q974. The first stable product of fixation of atmospheric nitrogen
in leguminous plants is:
(1) Glutamate
(2) Ammonia
(3)
(4)
Ans: (2)
[NEET Kar. 2013]
Q975. For its action, nitrogenase requires
(1) high input of energy
(2) Mn2+
(3) super oxygen radicals
(4) light
Ans: (1)
[1988]
Q976. Greatest producers of organic matter are
(1) plants of the land area
(2) crop plants
(3) phytoplankton of oceans
(4) forests
Ans: (3)
[1988]
Q977. In C4 plants, Calvin cycle operates in
(1) Grana of mesophyll chloroplasts
(2) Stroma of bundle sheath chloroplasts
(3) Stroma of mesophyll chloroplasts
(4) Grana of bundle sheath chloroplasts
Ans: (2)
[1988]
Q978. The substrate for photorespiration is
(1) Serine
(2) Phosphoglyceric acid
(3) Glycine
(4) Glycolate
Ans: (4)
[1989]
Q979. The size of chlorophyll molecule is
(1) Head 15 × 15 Å, tail 20 Å
(2) Head 15 × 15 Å, tail 25 Å
(3) Head 10 × 12 Å, tail 25 Å
(4) Head 20 × 20 Å, tail 25 Å
Ans: (1)
[1989]
Q980. NADP+ is reduced to NADPH in
(1) Calvin cycle
(2) PS I
(3) Noncyclic photophosphorylation
(4) PS II
Ans: (3)
[1989]
Q981. Dark reactions of photosynthesis occur in
(1) Stroma outside photosynthetic lamellae
(2) Granal thylakoid membranes
(3) Periplastidial space
(4) Stromal lamella membranes
Ans: (1)
[1989]
Q982. Photosynthetic pigments found in the chloroplasts occur in
(1) matrix
(2) thylakoid membranes
(3) chloroplast envelope
(4) plastoglobules
Ans: (2)
[1990]
Q983. The first carbon dioxide acceptor in C4-plants is
(1) Oxalo-acetic acid
(2) Phosphoenol-pyruvate
(3) Phosphoglyceric acid
(4) Ribulose 1, 5-diphosphate
Ans: (2)
[1990, 92]
Q984. Kranz anatomy is typical of
(1) C 2 plants
(2) C 4 plants
(3) CAM plants
(4) C 3 plants
Ans: (2)
[1991]
Q985. A very efficient converter of solar energy with net
productivity of 2-4 kg/m2 or more is the crop of
(1) rice
(2) wheat
(3) bajra
(4) sugarcane
Ans: (4)
[1991]
Q986. The enzyme that catalyses carbon dioxide fixation in C4
plants is
(1) Carbonic anhydrase
(2) RuBP carboxylase
(3) Carboxydismutase
(4) PEP carboxylase
Ans: (4)
[1991]
Q987. Formation of ATP in photosynthesis and respiration is an
oxidation process which utilises the energy from
(1) Electrons
(2) Cytochromes
(3) Carbon dioxide
(4) Ferredoxin
Ans: (1)
[1991]
Q988. Ferredoxin is a constituent of
(1) Hill reaction
(2) PS I
(3) P680
(4) PS II
Ans: (2)
[1991]
Q989. During monsoon, the rice crop of eastern states of India
shows lesser yield due to limiting factor of
(1) temperature
(2) CO2
(3) water
(4) light
Ans: (4)
[1992]
Q990. Which technique has helped in investigation of Calvin
cycle?
(1) Radioactive isotope technique
(2) X-ray crystallography
(3) Intermittent light
(4) X-ray technique
Ans: (1)
[1992]
Q991. Which one is a C4-plant?
(1) Potato
(2) Papaya
(3) Maize/Corn
(4) Pea
Ans: (3)
[1992]
Q992. Translocation of carbohydrate nutrients usually occurs in the
form of
(1) Starch
(2) Glucose
(3) Sucrose
(4) Maltose
Ans: (3)
[1992]
Q993. Chlorophyll a occurs in
(1) all oxygen liberating autotrophs
(2) all photosynthetic autotrophs
(3) all plants except fungi
(4) in all higher plants
Ans: (1)
[1992]
Q994. All types of plastids possess essentially the same structure
because they
(1) occur in aerial parts
(2) perform the same function
(3) can transform from one form to another
(4) store food materials like starch, fat and protein
Ans: (3)
[1992]
Q995. Photosystem II occurs in
(1) Grana
(2) Stroma
(3) Mitochondrial surface
(4) Cytochrome
Ans: (1)
[1993]
Q996. Nine-tenth of all photosynthesis of world (85-90%) is
carried out by
(1) chlorophyll containing ferns of the forest
(2) large trees with millions of branches and levess
(3) scientists in the laboratories
(4) algae of the ocean
Ans: (4)
[1993, 95, 96, 99]
Q997. C4-cycle was discovered by
(1) Hill
(2) Hatch and Slack
(3) Arnon
(4) Calvin
Ans: (2)
[1993]
Q998. A photosynthesising plant is releasing 18O more than the
normal. The plant must have been supplied with
(1) CO2 with 18O
(2) O3
(3) C 6H12O6 with 18O
(4) H2O with 18O
Ans: (4)
[1993]
Q999. Maximum solar energy is trapped by
(1) growing algae in tanks
(2) planting trees
(3) growing grasses
(4) cultivating crops
Ans: (1)
[1994]
Q1000. The carbon dioxide acceptor in Calvin cycle/ C3-plants is
(1) Phosphoglyceric acid (PGA)
(2) Phospho-enol pyruvate (PEP)
(3) Ribulose monophosphate (RMP)
(4) Ribulose 1, 5-diphosphate (RuBP)
Ans: (4)
[1994]
Q1001. The principle of limiting factors was proposed by
(1) Arnol
(2) Blackman
(3) Liebig
(4) Hill
Ans: (2)
[1994]
Q1002. Photorespiration is favoured by
(1) low temperature and high O2
(2) high O2 and low CO2
(3) low O2 and high CO2
(4) low light and high O2
Ans: (2)
[1994]
Q1003. The specific characteristic of C4-plants is
(1) kranz anatomy
(2) bulliform cells
(3) parallel veins configuration
(4) isobilateral leaf
Ans: (1)
[1995]
Q1004. Which one occurs both during cyclic and noncyclic modes
of photophosphorylation?
(1) Release of O2
(2) Involvement of both PS I and PS II
(3) Formation of NADPH
(4) Formation of ATP
Ans: (4)
[1996]
Q1005. Pigment acting as a reaction centre during photosynthesis
is
(1) P700
(2) Carotene
(3) Cytochrome
(4) Phytochrome
Ans: (1)
[1996]
Q1006. Protochlorophyll differs from chlorophyll in lacking
(1) 4 hydrogen atoms in one of its pyrrole rings
(2) 2 hydrogen atoms in one of its pyrrole rings
(3) 4 hydrogen atoms in two of its pyrrole rings
(4) 2 hydrogen atoms in two of its pyrrole rings
Ans: (2)
[1996, 97]
Q1007. NADPH is generated through
(1) anerobic respiration
(2) photosystem I
(3) glycolysis
(4) photosystem II
Ans: (2)
[1996, 2004, 05]
Q1008. Which one of the following is represented by Calvin
cycle?
(1) Photophosphorylation
(2) Reductive carboxylation
(3) Oxidative phosphorylation.
(4) Oxidative carboxylation
Ans: (2)
[1996]
Q1009. Photosynthetically active radiation is represented by the
range of wavelength of
(1) 500-600 nm
(2) 340-450 nm
(3) 400-950 nm
(4) 400-700 nm
Ans: (4)
[1997]
Q1010. Chlorophyll ‘a’ molecule at its carbon atom 3 of the
Pyrrole ring II has one of the following
(1) carboxyl group
(2) aldehyde group
(3) magnesium.
(4) methyl group
Ans: (4)
[1998]
Q1011. How many turns of Calvin cycle yield one molecule of
glucose?
(1) Six
(2) Eight
(3) Four
(4) Two
Ans: (1)
[1998]
Q1012. The first step of photosynthesis is
(1) attachment of CO2 to 5 carbon sugar
(2) excitation of electron of chlorophyll by a photon of light
(3) ionisation of water
(4) formation of ATP
Ans: (2)
[1999]
Q1013. The enzyme which fixes CO2 in C4 plants is
(1) Reductase
(2) Hydrogenase
(3) RuBP carboxylase
(4) PEP carboxylase
Ans: (4)
[2000]
Q1014. Which enzyme is most abudantly found on earth?
(1) Nitrogenase
(2) Catalase
(3) Invertase
(4) Rubisco
Ans: (4)
[2000]
Q1015. Which one of the following statements about cytochrome
P-450 is wrong?
(1) It is a coloured cell
(2) It contains iron
(3) It has an important role in metabolism
(4) It is an enzyme involved in oxidation reaction
Ans: (2)
[1996, 2000]
Q1016. Cytochrome is
(1) Glycoprotein
(2) Metallo - Flavo protein
(3) Lipid
(4) Fe-containing porphyrin pigment
Ans: (4)
[2000]
Q1017. Which pigment system is inactivated in red drop?
(1) PS -II
(2) PS -I and PS -II
(3) None of these
(4) PS-I
Ans: (1)
[2000]
Q1018. Which pair is wrong?
(1) Calvin cycle – PGA
(2) C3 – Maize
(3) Hatch and Slack Pathway – Oxalo acetic Acid
(4) C4 – Kranz anatomy
Ans: (2)
[2001]
Q1019. Photochemical reactions in the chloroplast are directly
involved in
(1) Synthesis of glucose and starch
(2) Formation of phosphoglyceric acid
(3) Photolysis of water and phosphorylation of ADP to ATP
(4) Fixation of carbon dioxide
Ans: (3)
[2001]
Q1020. Fixation of one CO2 molecule through Calvin cycle
requires
(1) 3ATP and 2NADPH2
(2) 1 ATP and 2NADPH2
(3) 2ATP and 1NADPH2
(4) 2ATP and 2NADPH2
Ans: (1)
[2001]
Q1021. Which element is located at the centre of the porphyrin ring
in chlorophyll?
(1) Magnesium
(2) Manganese
(3) Potassium
(4) Calcium
Ans: (1)
[2002]
Q1022. In sugarcane plant 14CO2 is fixed in malic acid, in which
the enzyme that fixes CO2 is
(1) Phosphoenol pyruvic acid carboxylase
(2) fructose phosphatase
(3) ribulose phosphate kinase
(4) ribulose biphosphate carboxylase
Ans: (1)
[2002]
Q1023. Stomata of CAM plants
(1) open during the day and close at night
(2) never open
(3) open during the night and close during the day
(4) are always open
Ans: (3)
[2003]
Q1024. Which of the following absorb light energy for
photosynthesis?
(1) O2
(2) Chlorophyll
(3) RuBP
(4) Water molecule
Ans: (2)
[2003]
Q1025. In photosynthesis energy from light reaction to dark
reaction is transferred in the form of
(1) RuDP
(2) ADP
(3) Chlorophyll
(4) ATP
Ans: (4)
[2003]
Q1026. As compared to a C3 – plant, how many additional
molecules of ATP are needed for net production of one molecule of
hexose sugar by C4 – plants:
(1) twelve
(2) two
(3) zero
(4) six
Ans: (1)
[2003]
Q1027. Plants adapted to low light intensity have
(1) more extended root system
(2) larger photosynthetic unit size that the sun plants
(3) leaves modified to spines
(4) higher rate of CO2 fixation that the sun plants
Ans: (2)
[2003]
Q1028. In C3 plants, the first stable product of photosynthesis
during the dark reaction is
(1) 3-phosphoglyceric acid
(2) Malic acid
(3) Phosphoglyceraldehyde
(4) Oxaloacetic acid
Ans: (1)
[2004]
Q1029. Which one of the following is wrong in relation to
photorespiration?
(1) It occurs in daytime only
(2) It is a characteristic of C3 plants
(3) It is a characteristic of C4 plants
(4) It occurs in chloroplasts
Ans: (3)
[2004]
Q1030. Which fractions of the visible spectrum of solar radiations
are primarily absorbed by carotenoids of the higher plants?
(1) Green and red
(2) Violet and blue
(3) Red and violet
(4) Blue and green
Ans: (2)
[2005]
Q1031. The first acceptor of electrons from an excited chlorophyll
molecule of photosystem II is
(1) quinone
(2) iron-sulphur protein
(3) cytochrome
(4) ferredoxin
Ans: (1)
[2005]
Q1032. During photorespiration, the oxygen consuming reaction(s)
occur in
(1) stroma of chloroplasts
(2) stroma of chloroplasts and peroxisomes
(3) stroma of chloroplasts and mitochondria
(4) grana of chloroplasts and peroxisomes
Ans: (2)
[2005]
Q1033. In photosystem-1the first electron acceptor is
(1) An iron-sulphur protein
(2) Cytochrome
(3) Ferredoxin
(4) Plastocyanin
Ans: (1)
[2006]
Q1034. Photosynthesis in C4 plants is relatively less limited by
atmospheric CO2 levels because:
(1) Four carbon acids are the primary initial CO2 fixation products.
(2) Effective pumping of CO2 into bundle sheath cells.
(3) The primary fixation of CO2 is mediated via PEP carboxylase.
(4) Rubisco in C4 plants has higher affinity for CO2.
Ans: (3)
[2006]
Q1035. Chlorophyll in chloroplasts is located in:
(1) stroma
(2) grana
(3) both grana and stroma
(4) pyrenoid
Ans: (2)
[2007]
Q1036. In leaves of C4 plants malic acid synthesis during CO2
fixation occurs in
(1) bundle sheath
(2) epidermal cells
(3) guard cells
(4) mesophyll cells
Ans: (4)
[2007]
Q1037. Electrons from excited chlorophyll molecule of
photosystem II are accepted first by:
(1) Quinone
(2) Cytochrome-b
(3) Ferredoxin
(4) Cytochrome-f
Ans: (1)
[2007]
Q1038. The C4 plants are photosynthetically more efficient than
C3 plants because:
(1) the CO2 efflux is not prevented
(2) the CO2 compensation point is more
(3) they have more chloroplasts
(4) CO2 generated during photorespiration is trapped and recycled through
PEP carboxylase
Ans: (1)

Q1039. The wavelength of light absorbed by Pr form of

phytochrome is
(1) 620 nm
(2) 680 nm
(3) 640 nm
(4) 720 nm
Ans: (2)
[2008]
Q1040. In the leaves of C4 plants, malic acid formation during
CO2 fixation occurs in the cells of
(1) epidermis
(2) bundle sheath
(3) mesophyll
(4) phloem
Ans: (3)
[2008]
Q1041. Photoperiodism was first characterised in:
(1) tomato
(2) tobacco
(3) cotton
(4) potato
Ans: (2)
[2008]
Q1042. PGA as the first CO2 fixation product was discovered in
photosynthesis of:
(1) Angiosperm
(2) Bryophyte
(3) Alga
(4) Gymnosperm
Ans: (3)
[2009]
Q1043. Cyclic photophosphorylation results in the formation of
(1) ATP
(2) ATP and NADPH
(3) NADPH
(4) ATP, NADPH and O2
Ans: (1)
[2009]
Q1044. Oxygenic photosynthesis occurs in:
(1) Chlorobium
(2) Oscillatoria
(3) Chromatium
(4) Rhodospirillum
Ans: (2)
[2010]
Q1045. Importance of day length in flowering of plants was first
shown in
(1) cotton
(2) lemna
(3) petunia
(4) tobacco
Ans: (4)
[2010]
Q1046. The correct sequence of cell organelles during
photorespiration is:
(1) Chloroplast-peroxisome-mitochondria
(2) Chloroplast-Golgibodies-mitochondria
(3) Chloroplast-vacuole-peroxisome
(4) Chloroplast-Rough Endoplasmic reticulum, Dictyosomes
Ans: (1)
[2010]
Q1047. A process that makes important difference between C3 and
C4 plants is:
(1) Photosynthesis
(2) Transpiration
(3) Photorespiration
(4) Glycolysis
Ans: (3)
[2011]
Q1048. CAM helps the plants in:
(1) disease resistance
(2) conserving water
(3) reproduction
(4) secondary growth
Ans: (2)
[2011]
Q1049. Of the total incident solar radiation the proportion of PAR
is:
(1) less than 50%
(2) about 70%
(3) more than 80%
(4) about 60%
Ans: (1)
[2012]
Q1050. C4 plants are more efficient in photosynthesis than C3
plants due to:
(1) Presence of thin cuticle
(2) Higher leaf area
(3) Lower rate of photorespiration
(4) Presence of larger number of chloroplasts in the leaf cells
Ans: (3)
[2012]
Q1051. R.Q. is
(1) CO2/O2
(2) C/N
(3) O2/CO2
(4) N/C
Ans: (1)
[NEET 2013]
Q1052. NADP+ is reduced to NADPH in
(1) glycolysis
(2) HMP
(3) EMP
(4) Calvin Cycle
Ans: (2)
[NEET Kar. 2013]
Q1053. Incomplete oxidation of glucose into pyruvic acid with
several intermediate steps is known as
(1) HMS-pathway
(2) TCA-pathway
(3) Krebs cycle
(4) glycolysis
Ans: (4)
[1988]
Q1054. Bundle sheath cells
(1) Lack RuBisCo
(2) Are rich in RuBisCo
(3) Lack both RuBisCo and PEP carboxylase
(4) Are rich in PEP carboxylase
Ans: (2)
[1988]
Q1055. Pigment-containing membranous extensions in some
cyanobacteria are:
(1) Chromatophores
(2) Basal bodies
(3) Heterocysts
(4) Pneumatophores
Ans: (1)
[1988]
Q1056. Out of 36 ATP molecules produced per glucose molecule
during respiration
(1) 2 during glycolysis and 34 during Krebs cycle
(2) 2 are produced outside glycolysis and 34 during respiratory chain
(3) All are formed inside mitochondria
(4) 2 are produced outside mitochondria and 34 inside mitochondria
Ans: (4)
[1990]
Q1057. Connecting link between glycolysis and Krebs cycle
is/before entering Krebs cycle pyruvate is changed to
(1) pyruvate
(2) oxaloacetate
(3) acetyl CoA
(4) PEP
Ans: (3)
[1990]
Q1058. EMP can produce a total of
(1) 24 ATP
(2) 6 ATP
(3) 38 ATP
(4) 8 ATP
Ans: (4)
 [1990]
Q1059. R.Q. is ratio of
(1) oxygen consumed to water produced
(2) CO2 produced to substrate consumed
(3) oxygen consumed to CO2 produced
(4) CO2 produced to O2 consumed
Ans: (4)
[1990, 92, 97]
Q1060. End product of glycolysis is
(1) glucose 1-phosphate
(2) acetyl CoA
(3) fructose 1-phosphate
(4) pyruvic Acid
Ans: (4)
[1991]
Q1061. Apparatus to measure rate of respiration and R.Q. is
(1) Respirometer
(2) Auxanometer
(3) Manometer
(4) Potometer
Ans: (1)
[1992]
Q1062. When one glucose molecule is completely oxidised, it
changes
(1) 30 ADP molecules into 30 ATP molecules
(2) 36 ADP molecules into 36 ATP molecules
(3) 32 ADP molecules into 32 ATP molecules
(4) 38 ADP molecules into 38 ATP molecules
Ans: (1)
[1992]
Q1063. Oxidative phosphorylation is production of
(1) ATP in respiration
(2) ATP in photosynthesis
(3) NADH in respiration
(4) NADPH in photosynthesis
Ans: (4)
Q1064. At a temperature above 35ºC
(1) there is no fixed pattern
(2) rate of photosynthesis will decline earlier than that of respiration
(3) both decline simultaneously
(4) rate of respiration will decline earlier than that of photosynthesis
Ans: (2)
[1992]
Q1065. End products of aerobic respiration are
(1) carbon dioxide, water and energy
(2) sugar and oxygen
(3) carbon dioxide and energy
(4) water and energy
Ans: (1)
[1992]
Q1066. Maximum amount of energy/ATP is liberated on oxidation
of
(1) starch
(2) fats
(3) vitamins
(4) proteins
Ans: (2)
[1992]
Q1067. Life without air would be
(1) impossible
(2) reductional
(3) anaerobic
(4) free from oxidative damage
Ans: (3)
[1993]
Q1068. Out of 38 ATP molecules produced per glucose, 32 ATP
molecules are formed from NADH/FADH2 in
(1) oxidative decarboxylation
(2) respiratory chain
(3) EMP
(4) Krebs cycle
Ans: (2)
[1993]
Q1069. End product of citric acid/Krebs cycle is
(1) pyruvic acid
(2) citric acid
(3) CO2 + H2O
(4) lactic acid
Ans: (3)
[1993]
Q1070. Terminal cytochrome of respiratory chain which donates
electrons to oxygen is
(1) Cyt. a1
(2) Cyt. b
(3) Cyt. a3
(4) Cyt. c
Ans: (3)
[1994]
Q1071. Which of the following is essential for conversion of
pyruvic acid into acetyl Co-A?
(1) TPP
(2) LAA
(3) All of these
(4) NAD
Ans: (3)
[1994]
Q1072. In animal cells, the first stage of glucose breakdown is
(1) oxidative phosphorylation
(2) Krebs cycle
(3) E.T.C.
(4) glycolysis
Ans: (4)
[1994, 97]
Q1073. Respiratory substrate yielding maximum number of ATP
molecule is
(1) amylose
(2) ketogenic amino acids
(3) glycogen
(4) glucose
Ans: (4)
[1994]
Q1074. Fermentation products of Yeast are
(1) methyl alcohol + Water
(2) H2O + CO2
(3) ethyl alcohol + CO2
(4) methyl alcohol + CO2
Ans: (3)
[1994]
Q1075. ATP is injected in cyanide poisoning because it is
(1) Na+ – K+ pump operates at the cell membranes
(2) necessary for cellular functions
(3) ATP breaks down cyanide
(4) necessary for Na+ – K+ pump
Ans: (2)
[1995]
Q1076. Fermentation is anaerobic production of
(1) ethers and acetones
(2) protein and acetic acid
(3) alcohol and lipoproteins
(4) alcohol, lactic acid or similar compounds
Ans: (4)
[1995]
Q1077. Krebs cycle occurs in
(1) chloroplasts
(2) mitochondria
(3) ribosomes
(4) cytoplasm
Ans: (2)
[1996]
Q1078. The enzymes hexokinase which catalyses glucose to
glucose-6-phosphate in glycolysis is inhibited by glucose-6-
phosphate. This is an example of
(1) feedback allosteric inhibition
(2) competitive inhibition
(3) positive feedback.
(4) non-competitive inhibition
Ans: (1)
[1996]
Q1079. Oxidative phosphorylation involves simultaneous oxidation
and phosphorylation to finally form
(1) DPN
(2) pyruvate
(3) ATP
(4) NADP
Ans: (3)
[1996]
Q1080. Respiratory quotient (R.Q.) for fatty acid is
(1) 1
(2) > 1
(3) 0
(4) < 1
Ans: (4)
[1996]
Q1081. Net gain of ATP molecules during aerobic respiration is
(1) 40 molecules
(2) 36 molecules
(3) 48 molecules
(4) 38 molecules
Ans: (2)
[1997]
Q1082. Maximum usable energy per mol of glucose metabolised
will be generated during
(1) fermentation into ethanol by yeast
(2) aerobic respiration by germinating seeds
(3) glycolysis in the skeletal muscle of a sprinter performing a hundred metre
dash
(4) production of methanol by enteric bacteria
Ans: (2)
[1997]
Q1083. Site of respiration in bacteria is
(1) mesosome
(2) episome
(3) microsome
(4) ribosome
Ans: (1)
[1997]
Q1084. In Krebs cycle FAD participates as electron acceptor
during the conversion of
(1) succinic acid to Fumaric acid
(2) succinyl CoA to Succinic acid
(3) fumaric acid to Malic acid
(4) alfa keto glutarate to Succinyl CoA
Ans: (1)
[1999]
Q1085. The mechanism of ATP formation both in chloroplast and
mitochondria is explained by
(1) chemiosmotic theory of Mitchell
(2) relay pump theory of Godlewski
(3) Cholondy-Went’s Model
(4) Munch’s pressure/ mass flow model
Ans: (1)
[1999]
Q1086. In which one of the following do the two names refer to
one and the same thing?
(1) Tricarboxylic acid cycle and citric acid cycle
(2) Tricarboxylic acid cycle and urea cycle
(3) Citric acid cycle and Calvin cycle
(4) Krebs cycle and Calvin cycle
Ans: (1)
 [2002]
Q1087.
Ans: (1)
[2003]
Q1088. During anaerobic digestion of organic waste, such as in
producing biogas, which one of the following is left undegraded?
(1) Lignin
(2) Cellulose
(3) Hemi-cellulose
(4) Lipids
Ans: (1)
[2003]
Q1089. In alcoholic fermentation
(1) triose phosphate is the electron donor while pyruvic acid is the electron
acceptor
(2) oxygen is the electron acceptor
(3) there is no electron donor
(4) triose phosphate is the electron donor while acetaldehyde is the electron
acceptor
Ans: (4)
Q1090. How many ATP molecules are produced by aerobic
oxidation of one molecule of glucose?
(1) 38
(2) 2
(3) 34
(4) 4
Ans: (1)
[2003]
Q1091. The bacterium (Clostridium botulinum) that causes
botulism is
(1) an obligate aerobe
(2) an obligate anaerobe
(3) a facultative anaerobe
(4) an facultative aerobe
Ans: (2)
[2004]
Q1092. How many ATP molecules could maximally be generated
from one molecule of glucose, if the complete oxidation of one
mole of glucose to CO2 and H2O yields 686 kcal and the useful
chemical energy available in the high energy phosphate bond of
one mole of ATP is 12 kcal?
(1) One
(2) Thirty
(3) Two
(4) Fifty -seven
Ans: (4)
[2005]
Q1093. During the stage in the complete oxidation of glucose are
the greatest number of ATP molecules formed from ADP
(1) conversion of pyruvic acid to acetyl Co-A
(2) glycolysis
(3) electron transport chain
(4) krebs cycle
Ans: (3)
[2005]
Q1094. Chemiosmotic theory of ATP synthesis in the chloroplasts
and mitochondria is based on:
(1) accumulation of K ions
(2) membrane potential
(3) proton gradient
(4) accumulation of Na ions
Ans: (3)
[2006]
Q1095. In glycolysis, during oxidation electrons are removed by
(1) NAD+
(2) ATP
(3) molecular oxygen
(4) glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate
Ans: (1)
 [2006]
Q1096. The chemiosmotic coupling hypothesis of oxidative
phosphorylation proposes that adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is
formed because:
(1) a proton gradient forms across the inner membrane
(2) high energy bonds are formed in mitochondrial proteins
(3) there is a change in the permeability of the inner mitochondrial membrane
toward adenosine diphosphate (ADP)
(4) ADP is pumped out of the matrix into the intermembrane space
Ans: (1)
[2007]
Q1097. In germinating seeds fatty acids are degraded exclusively
in the
(1) peroxisomes
(2) proplastids
(3) mitochondria
(4) glyoxysomes
Ans: (4)
[2007]
Q1098. The energy-releasing process in which the substrate is
oxidised without an external electron acceptor is called
(1) aerobic respiration
(2) fermentation
(3) glycolysis
(4) photorespiration
Ans: (3)
[2008]
Q1099. The overall goal of glycolysis, krebs cycle and the electron
transport system is the formation of
(1) nucleic acids
(2) ATP in one large oxidation reaction
(3) ATP in small stepwise units.
(4) sugars
Ans: (3)
[2008]
Q1100. All enzymes of TCA cycle are located in the mitochondrial
matrix except one which is located in inner mitochondrial
membranes in eukaryotes and in cytosol in prokaryotes. This
enzyme is
(1) succinate dehydrogenase
(2) isocitrate dehydrogenase
(3) lactate dehydrogenase.
(4) malate dehydrogenase
Ans: (1)
[2008]
Q1101. Movement of leaves of Sensitive Plant, Mimosa pudica are
due to
(1) hydrotropism
(2) thermonasty
(3) chemonasty
(4) seismonasty
Ans: (4)
[2009]
Q1102.
Ans: (2)
[2010]
Q1103. Which of the metabolites is common to respiration
mediated breakdown of fats, carbohydrates and proteins?
(1) Acetyl CoA
(2) Fructose 1, 6 - bisphosphate
(3) Glucose - 6 - phosphate
(4) Pyruvic acid
Ans: (1)
[NEET 2013]
Q1104. The energy - releasing metabolic process in which
substrate is oxidised without an external electron acceptor is
called:
(1) aerobic respiration
(2) glycolysis
(3) photorespiration
(4) fermentation
Ans: (4)
Q1105. Aerobic respiratory pathway is appropriately termed:
(1) anabolic
(2) parabolic
(3) catabolic
(4) amphibolic
Ans: (4)
[1988, 99]
Q1106. Leaves of many grasses are capable of folding and
unfolding because they
(1) have specialised bulliform cells
(2) are very thin
(3) have parallel vascular bundles
(4) are isobilateral
Ans: (1)
[1988]
Q1107. Hormone primarily connected with cell division is
(1) cytokinin/Zeatin
(2) IAA
(3) gibberellic acid
(4) NAA
Ans: (1)
[1988, 97]
Q1108. Cut or excised leaves remain green for long if induced to
root or dipped in
(1) auxins
(2) gibberellins
(3) ethylene
(4) cytokinins
Ans: (4)
[1988]
Q1109. Gibberellins promote
(1) leaf fall
(2) seed germination
(3) root elongation
(4) seed dormancy
Ans: (2)
[1988, 1991]
Q1110. Phytochrome is involved in
(1) photoperiodism
(2) phototropism
(3) geotropism
(4) photorespiration
Ans: (1)
[1989]
Q1111. Which of the following movement is not related to auxin
level
(1) Nyctinastic leaf movements
(2) Bending of shoot towards light
(3) Movement of sunflower head tracking the sun
(4) Movement of root towards soil
Ans: (1)
Q1112. Which of the following hormones can replace
vernalisation?
(1) Gibberellins
(2) Auxin
(3) Ethylene
(4) Cytokinin
Ans: (1)
[1989]
Q1113. Leaf fall can be prevented with the help of
(1) florigen
(2) abscisic acid
(3) cytokinins
(4) auxins
Ans: (3)

Q1114. Mowing grass lawn facilitates better maintenance

because
(1) removal of apical dominance
(2) wounding stimulates regeneration
(3) removal of apical dominance and promotion of lateral meristem
(4) removal of apical dominance and stimulation of intercalary meristem
Ans: (4)
[1989]
Q1115. Which one increases in the absence of light?
(1) Elongation of internodes
(2) Uptake of minerals
(3) Ascent of sap
(4) Uptake of water
Ans: (1)
[1990]
Q1116. Tendrils exhibit/twining of tendrils is due to
(1) heliotropism
(2) thigmotropism
(3) diageotropism
(4) seismonasty
Ans: (2)
[1990]
Q1117. Highest auxin concentration occurs
(1) at base of plant organs
(2) in growing tips
(3) in xylem and phloem
(4) in leaves
Ans: (2)
[1990]
Q1118. Phytohormones are:
(1) hormones regulating growth from seed to adulthood
(2) chemicals regulating flowering
(3) regulators synthesised by plants and influencing physiological processes
(4) chemicals regulating secondary growth
Ans: (3)
[1990]
Q1119. Abscisic acid controls
(1) shoot elongation
(2) cell division
(3) cell elongation and wall formation
(4) leaf fall and dormancy
Ans: (4)
[1990]
Q1120. Phototropic and geotropic movements are linked to:
(1) auxin
(2) gibberellins
(3) cytokinins
(4) enzymes
Ans: (1)
[1991]
Q1121. Cytokinins
(1) help retain chlorophyll
(2) promote abscission
(3) inhibit protoplasmic streaming
(4) influence water movement
Ans: (1)
[1991, 95]
Q1122. Which is employed for artificial ripening of banana
fruits?
(1) Ethylene
(2) Auxin
(3) Cytokinin
(4) Coumarin
Ans: (1)
[1991]
Q1123. Abscisic acid causes
(1) leaf expansion
(2) stomatal closure
(3) root elongation
(4) stem elongation
Ans: (2)
 [1991]
Q1124. The hormone responsible for a pical dominance is
(1) ABA
(2) IAA
(3) florigen
(4) GA
Ans: (2)
[1992, 2000]
Q1125. A chemical believed to be involved in flowering is
(1) florigen
(2) gibberellin
(3) IBA
(4) kinetin
Ans: (1)
[1992]
Q1126. Dwarfness can be controlled by treating the plant with
(1) auxin
(2) cytokinin
(3) antigibberellin
(4) gibberellic acid
Ans: (4)

Q1127. Flowering dependent on cold treatment is

(1) cryoscopy
(2) cryotherapy
(3) vernalisation
(4) cryogenics
Ans: (3)
[1992]
Q1128. Bananas can be prevented from over-ripening by
(1) dipping in ascorbic acid solution
(2) maintaining them at room temperature
(3) storing in a freezer
(4) refrigeration
Ans: (1)
[1992]
Q1129. Apical dominance is caused by
(1) gibberellin in lateral buds
(2) abscisic acid in lateral bud
(3) auxin in shoot tip
(4) cytokinin in leaf tip
Ans: (3)
[1992]
Q1130. In short day plants, flowering is induced by
(1) long night
(2) photoperiod less than 12 hours
(3) short photoperiod and interrupted long night
(4) photoperiod below a critical length and uninterrupted long night
Ans: (4)
[1992, 2002]
Q1131. Movement of auxin is
(1) acropetal
(2) centripetal
(3) both B and C
(4) basipetal
Ans: (3)
[1993]
Q1132. Removal of apical bud results in
(1) death of plant
(2) formation of new apical bud
(3) formation of lateral branching
(4) elongation of main stem
Ans: (3)
[1993]
Q1133. The regulator which retards ageing/ senescence of plant
parts is:
(1) gibberellin
(2) cytokinin
(3) abscisic acid
(4) auxin
Ans: (2)
 [1993]
Q1134. What is a stress hormone? or The hormone produced
during adverse environmental conditions is
(1) ethylene
(2) benzyl aminopurine
(3) abscisic acid
(4) dichlorophenoxy acetic acid
Ans: (3)
[1993, 2000]
Q1135. Klinostat is employed in the study of
(1) photosynthesis
(2) osmosis
(3) respiration
(4) growth movements
Ans: (4)
[1994]
Q1136. If a tree, flowers thrice in a year (Oct., Jan. and July) in
Northern India, it is said to be
(1) photo and thermosensitive
(2) photosensitive but thermoinsensitive
(3) photo and thermoinsensitive
(4) thermosensitive but photoinsensitive
Ans: (3)
[1995, 97, 2002]
Q1137. What will be the effect on phytochrome in a plant
subjected to continuous red light?
(1) Phytochrome synthesis increases
(2) Level of phytochrome decreases
(3) Destruction and synthesis of phytochrome remain in equilibrium.
(4) Phytochrome is destroyed
Ans: (2)
[1995]
Q1138. Thigmotropic movement is best shown by
(1) movement in roots
(2) movement in tendril
(3) movement in Mimosa pudica
(4) insectivorous plants
Ans: (2)
Q1139. Ethylene gas is used for
(1) ripening of fruits
(2) growth of plants
(3) stopping the leaf abscission
(4) delaying fruit’s abscission
Ans: (1)
[1997]
Q1140. The pigment, that absorbs red and far red light in plants,
is
(1) phytochrome
(2) xanthophyll
(3) carotene
(4) cytochrome
Ans: (1)
[1997]
Q1141. The method that renders the seed coat permeable to water
so that embryo expansion is not physically retarded is
(1) denudation
(2) vernalization
(3) scarification
(4) stratification
Ans: (3)
[1998]
Q1142. ABA is involved in
(1) shoot elongation
(2) dormancy of seeds
(3) increased cell division
(4) root elongation
Ans: (2)
[1998]
Q1143. The response of different organisms to environmental
rhythms of light and darkness is called
(1) phototropism
(2) phototaxis
(3) vernalization.
(4) photoperiodism
Ans: (4)
[1998]
Q1144. A plant hormone used for inducing morphogenesis in plant
tissue culture is
(1) ethylene
(2) gibberellins
(3) abscisic acid.
(4) cytokinins
Ans: (4)
[1999]
Q1145. Which combination of gases is suitable for fruit ripening?
(1) 80% CO2 and 20% O2
(2) 80% CO2 and 20% CH2
(3) 80% C2H4 and 20% CO2
(4) 80% CH4 and 20% CO2
Ans: (3)
[2000]
Q1146. Which of the following prevents fall of fruits?
(1) Ethylene
(2) GA3
(3) Zeatin
(4) NAA
Ans: (4)
[2000, 03]
Q1147. Hormone responsible for senescence
(1) GA
(2) ABA
(3) cytokinin
(4) auxin
Ans: (2)
 [2000, 02]
Q1148. What breaks bud dormancy of potato tuber?
(1) ABA
(2) Gibberellin
(3) Zeatin
(4) IAA
Ans: (2)
Q1149. Geocarpic fruits are produced by
(1) ground nut
(2) onion
(3) carrot
(4) watermelon
Ans: (1)
[2001]
Q1150. What reason will you assign for coconut milk used in tissue
culture?
(1) Auxins
(2) Gibberellins
(3) Ethylene
(4) Cytokinins
Ans: (4)
[2001]
Q1151. Differentiation of shoot is controlled by
(1) high cytokinin: auxin ratio
(2) high gibberellin: cytokinin ratio
(3) high gibberellin: auxin ratio
(4) high auxin: cytokinin ratio
Ans: (1)
[2001]
Q1152. Seed dormancy is due to the
(1) IAA
(2) ethylene
(3) starch
(4) abscisic acid
Ans: (4)
 [2001]
Q1153. Proteinaceous pigment which control activities concerned
with light
(1) anthocyanin
(2) phytochrome
(3) carotenoids
(4) chlorophyll
Ans: (2)
[2001]
Q1154. Glycolate induces opening of stomata in
(1) high CO2 conc.
(2) presence of oxygen
(3) absence of CO2
(4) low CO2 conc.
Ans: (4)
[2002]
Q1155. Which one is a long-day plant?
(1) Mirabilis jalapa
(2) Tobacco
(3) Spinach
(4) Glycine max
Ans: (3)
[2003]
Q1156. An enzyme that can stimulate germination of barley seeds
is
(1) invertase
(2) lipase
(3) a-amylase
(4) protease
Ans: (3)
[2003]
Q1157. Cell elongation in internodal regions of the green plants
takes place due to
(1) gibberellins
(2) indole acetic acid
(3) ethylene
(4) cytokinins
Ans: (1)
[2004]
Q1158. One set of a plant was grown at 12 hours day and 12 hours
night period cycles and it flowered while in the other set night
phase was interrupted by flash of light and it did not produce
flower. Under which one of the following categories will you place
this plant?
(1) Day neutral
(2) Long day
(3) Short day
(4) Darkness neutral
Ans: (3)
[2004]
Q1159. Anthesis is a phenomenon which refers to
(1) development of anther
(2) reception of pollen by stigma
(3) opening of flower bud
(4) formation of pollen
Ans: (3)
[2004]
Q1160. Plants deficient of element zinc, show its effect on the
biosynthesis of plant growth hormone
(1) cytokinin
(2) abscisic acid
(3) ethylene
(4) auxin
Ans: (4)
[2006]
Q1161. “Foolish seedling’’ disease of rice led to the discovery of
(1) IAA
(2) ABA
(3) GA
(4) 2, 4-D
Ans: (3)
[2006]
Q1162. Which one of the following pairs, is not correctly
matched?
(1) IAA - Cell wall elongation
(2) Gibberellic acid - Leaf fall
(3) Abscissic acid - Stomatal closure.
(4) Cytokinin - Cell wall elongation
Ans: (2)
[2006]
Q1163. Opening of floral buds into flowers, is a type of
(1) autonomic movement of growth
(2) autonomic movement of variation
(3) autonomic movement of locomotion.
(4) paratonic movement of growth
Ans: (1)
[2007]
Q1164. How does pruning help in making the hedge dense?
(1) It releases wound hormones
(2) It frees axillary buds from apical dominance
(3) It induces the differentiation of new shoots from the rootstock
(4) The apical shoot grows faster after pruning
Ans: (2)
[2007]
Q1165. Treatment of seed at low temperature under moist
conditions to break its dormancy is called
(1) stratification
(2) vernalization
(3) scarification
(4) chelation
Ans: (1)
[2007]
Q1166. Coiling of garden pea tendrils around any support is an
example of:
(1) thigmotropism
(2) thigmotaxis
(3) thermotaxis
(4) thigmonasty
Ans: (1)
[2008]
Q1167. Phototropic curvature is the result of uneven distribution
of:
(1) cytokinins
(2) gibberellin
(3) auxin
(4) phytochrome
Ans: (3)
[2009]
Q1168. Which one of the following acids is a derivative of
carotenoids?
(1) Abscisic acid
(2) Indole-3 -acetic acid
(3) Indole butyric acid
(4) Gibberellic acid
Ans: (1)
[2009]
Q1169. One of the synthetic auxin is:
(1) IBA
(2) IAA
(3) NAA
(4) GA
Ans: (3)
[2010]
Q1170. Senescence as an active developmental cellular process in
the growth and functioning of a flowering plant, is indicated in
(1) annual plants
(2) vessels and tracheid differentiation
(3) floral parts
(4) leaf abscission
Ans: (4)
[2010]
Q1171. During seed germination its stored food is mobilized
(1) Gibberellin
(2) Cytokinin
(3) Ethylene
(4) ABA
Ans: (1)
[2012M]
Q1172. Which one of the following is not used for ex-situ plant
conservation?
(1) Botanical Gardens
(2) Seed banks
(3) Field gene banks
(4) Shifting cultivation
Ans: (4)
[2012M]
Q1173. Vernalization stimulates flowering in
(1) carrot
(2) zamikand
(3) ginger
(4) turmeric
Ans: (1)
[2012M]
Q1174. Which one of the following generally acts as an antagonist
to gibberellins?
(1) ABA
(2) Zeatin
(3) IAA
(4) Ethylene
Ans: (1)
[NEET 2013]
Q1175. Through their effect on plant growth regulators, what do
the temperature and light control in the plants?
(1) Closure of stomata
(2) Apical dominance
(3) Fruit elongation
(4) Flowering
Ans: (4)
[NEET 2013]
Q1176. Secretin stimulates production of
(1) Bile
(2) Saliva
(3) Pancreatic juice
(4) Gastric juice
Ans: (3)
[NEET Kar. 2013]
Q1177. Release of pancreatic juice is stimulated by
(1) Trypsinogen
(2) Enterokinase
(3) Secretin
(4) Cholecystokinin
Ans: (4)
[1988]
Q1178. Wharton’s duct is associated with
(1) Submaxillary salivary gland
(2) Sublingual salivary duct
(3) Brunner’s glands
(4) Parotid salivary gland
Ans: (1)
[1988]
Q1179. Duct leading from parotid gland and opening into vestibule
is
(1) Wolffian duct
(2) Haversian duct
(3) Infra-orbital duct
(4) Stensen’s duct
Ans: (4)
[1989]
Q1180. The pineapple which under natural conditions is difficult to
blossom has been made to produce fruits throughout the year by
application of
(1) Phenyl acetic acid
(2) IAA, IBA
(3) Cytokinin
(4) NAA, 2, 4-D
Ans: (4)
[1990]
Q1181. Pancreas produces
(1) two digestive enzymes and one hormone
(2) three digestive enzymes and one hormone
(3) three digestive enzymes and no hormone
(4) three types of digestive enzymes and two hormones
Ans: (4)
[1990]
Q1182. Where is protein digestion accomplished?
(1) Rectum
(2) Stomach
(3) Duodenum
(4) Ileum
Ans: (4)
[1990]
Q1183. Pancreatic juice and hormones of pancreas are produced
by
(1) Statement is wrong
(2) Same cells
(3) Different cells
(4) Same cells at different times
Ans: (3)
[1990]
Q1184. In man the zymogen or chief cells are mainly found in
(1) Duodenum
(2) Cardiac part of stomach
(3) Fundic part of stomach
(4) Pyloric part of stomach
Ans: (3)
Q1185. Emulsification of fat is carried out by
(1) HCl
(2) Bile pigments
(3) Pancreatic juice
(4) Bile salts
Ans: (4)
[1991]
Q1186. Which of the following pair is characterised by swollen
lips, thick pigmented skin of hands and legs and irritability?
(1) Nicotinamide – Pellagra
(2) Thiamine – Beri-Beri
(3) Iodine – Goitre
(4) Protein – Kwashiorkor
Ans: (1)
[1992]
Q1187. Most of the fat digestion occurs in
(1) Duodenum
(2) Rectum
(3) Small intestine
(4) Stomach
Ans: (3)

Q1188. Vitamin K is required for

(1) change of fibrinogen to fibrin
(2) change of prothrombin to thrombin
(3) formation of thromboplastin
(4) synthesis of prothrombin
Ans: (4)
[1993]
Q1189. Secretion of gastric juice is stopped by
(1) Cholecystokinin
(2) Gastrin
(3) Enterogastrone
(4) Pancreazymin
Ans: (3)
[1993]
Q1190. Brunner’s glands occur in
(1) mucosa of oesophagus
(2) submucosa of duodenum
(3) mucosa of ileum
(4) submucosa of stomach
Ans: (2)
[1993]
Q1191. Calcium deficiency occurs in the absence of vitamin
(1) E
(2) D
(3) B
(4) C
Ans: (2)
[1993]
Q1192. Prolonged deficiency of nicotinic acid produces
(1) Pellagra
(2) Osteomalacia
(3) Anaemia
(4) Xerophthalmia
Ans: (1)
[1994]
Q1193. Inhibition of gastric and stimulation of gastric, pancreatic
and bile secretions are controlled by hormones 1994]
(1) Gastrin, enterogastrone, cholecystokinin and pancreozymin
(2) Gastrin, secretin, enterokinin and cholecystokinin
(3) Secretin, enterogastrone, gastrin and enterokinin
(4) Enterogastrone, gastrin, pancreozymin and cholecystokinin
Ans: (4)
Q1194. Renin acts on
(1) fat in intestine
(2) milk changing casein into calcium paracaseinate at 7.2 – 8.2 pH
(3) milk changing casein into calcium paracaseinate at 1 – 3 pH.
(4) proteins in stomach
Ans: (3)
[1994]
Q1195. Kupffer’s cells occur in
(1) brain
(2) spleen
(3) liver
(4) kidney
Ans: (3)
[1994]
Q1196. For persons suffering from high blood cholesterol, the
physicians recommend
(1) red meat with layers of fats
(2) pure ‘deshi ghee’ or butter
(3) vanaspati margarine
(4) vegetable oil such as groundnut oil
Ans: (4)
[1995]
Q1197. A dental disease characterized by mottling of teeth is due
to the presence of a certain chemical element in drinking water.
Which of the following is that element?
(1) fluorine
(2) mercury
(3) boron
(4) chlorine
Ans: (1)
Q1198. The haemorrhagic disease of new born is caused due to the
deficiency of
(1) vitamin B 12
(2) vitamin A
(3) vitamin K
(4) vitamin B 1
Ans: (3)
[1995, 2002]
Q1199. The vitamin C or ascorbic acid prevents
(1) scurvy
(2) rickets
(3) antibody synthesis
(4) pellagra
Ans: (1)
[1995]
Q1200. The enzyme enterokinase helps in the conversion of
(1) caesinogen into caesin
(2) pepsinogen into pepsin
(3) proteins into polypeptides
(4) trypsinogen into trypsin
Ans: (4)

Q1201. The layer of cells that secrete enamel of tooth is

(1) Odontoblast
(2) Ameloblast
(3) Dentoblast
(4) Osteoblast
Ans: (2)
[1996]
Q1202. Which one of the following vitamins can be synthesized by
bacteria inside the gut?
(1) D
(2) B 1
(3) K
(4) C
Ans: (3)
[1996]
Q1203. A person had to undergo a surgery in which a major
portion of his pancreas was removed. Which of the following food
constituents will he find especially difficult to digest?
(1) Fats
(2) Starch
(3) Lactose sugar
(4) Proteins
Ans: (1)
Q1204. Which one of the following is a matching pair of a
substrate and its particular digestive enzyme?
(1) Maltose — steapsin
(2) Starch — maltase
(3) Casein — chymotrypsin
(4) Lactose — rennin
Ans: (2)
[1997]
Q1205. Which one of the following is a matching pair of a vitamin
and the deficiency disease related with it?
(1) Niacin — pellagra
(2) Riboflavin — beri beri
(3) Calciferol — scurvy
(4) Thiamine — xerophthalmia
Ans: (1)
[1998]
Q1206. The daily dietary requirement of a moderately active adult
individual is approximately
(1) 1,000 k cal
(2) 8,000 k cal
(3) 2,500 k cal
(4) 4,000 k cal
Ans: (3)
[1998]
Q1207. Which one of the following is a protein deficiency
disease?
(1) Kwashiorkor
(2) Night blindness
(3) Cirrhosis
(4) Eczema
Ans: (1)
[1998]
Q1208. The contraction of gall bladder is due to
(1) Secretin
(2) Gastrin
(3) Enterogastrone
(4) Cholecystokinin
Ans: (4)
[1998]
Q1209. The hormone that stimulates the stomach to secrete gastric
juice is
(1) Renin
(2) Enterogastrone
(3) Gastrin
(4) Enterokinase
Ans: (3)
[1998]
Q1210. One of the factors required for the maturation of
erythrocytes is
(1) Vitamin C
(2) Vitamin A
(3) Vitamin D
(4) Vitamin B12
Ans: (4)
[1999]
Q1211. An adolescent human below 17 years of age normally has
dental formula as
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Ans: (3)
[1999]
Q1212. The food having fully undergone mechanical and chemical
digestion inside the stomach, is called
(1) Amino acid
(2) Chyle
(3) Chyme
(4) Bolus
Ans: (3)
 [1999]
Q1213. Nutrients absorbed by the blood capillaries of intestinal
villi first go into
(1) aorta
(2) liver through hepatic portal vein
(3) posterior vena cava
(4) hepatic artery
Ans: (2)
[1999]
Q1214. Which one of the following pairs is mismatched?
(1) Vitamin K - Beri Beri
(2) Vitamin C - Scurvy
(3) Vitamin A - Xerophthalmia
(4) Vitamin D - Rickets
Ans: (1)
[1999]
Q1215. Secretin and cholecystokinin are two hormones involved in
digestion. They are secreted by
(1) Oesophagus
(2) Duodenum
(3) Stomach
(4) Ileum
Ans: (2)
[1999]
Q1216. Hydrolytic enzymes which act on low pH are called as
(1) hydrolases
(2) proteases
(3) peroxidases
(4) a-amylases
Ans: (1)
[2000]
Q1217. Which one is correctly matched?
(1) Vitamin B — Calciferol
(2) Vitamin E — Tocopherol
(3) Vitamin A — Thiamine
(4) Vitamin D — Riboflavin
Ans: (2)
[2000]
Q1218. Which set is correct?
(1) Bundle of His — Pace maker
(2) Corpus callosum — Grafian follicle
(3) Vitamin B7 — Niacin
(4) Sebum — Sweat
Ans: (1)
[2001]
Q1219. A person is eating boiled potato, which food component is
found in it?
(1) Starch which does not get digested
(2) DNA which gets digested by pancreatic DNAase
(3) Cellulose which is digested by intestinal cellulose
(4) Lactose which is indigestible
Ans: (2)
[2001]
Q1220. A person deficient in the rhodopsin should be advised to
take more of
(1) Carrot and ripe papaya
(2) Guava and ripe banana
(3) Radish and potato
(4) Apple and grapes
Ans: (1)
[2002]
Q1221. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly
matched?
(1) Vitamin B1 - Beri-beri
(2) Vitamin B12 - Pernicious anaemia
(3) Vitamin B3 - Pellagra
(4) Vitamin B6 - Loss of appetite
Ans: (4)
[2002]
Q1222. During prolonged fasting, in what sequence are the
following organic compounds used up by the body?
(1) First fats, next carbohydrates and lastly proteins
(2) First proteins, next lipids and lastly carbohydrates
(3) First carbohydrates, next proteins and lastly lipids
(4) First carbohydrates, next fats and lastly proteins
Ans: (4)
[2003]
Q1223. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly
matched?
(1) Vitamin B3 – Pellagra
(2) Vitamin B6 – Beri Beri
(3) Vitamin B12 – Pernicious anaemia
(4) Vitamin C – Scurvy
Ans: (2)
[1994, 2003]
Q1224. Fluoride pollution mainly affects
(1) heart
(2) kidney
(3) teeth
(4) brain
Ans: (3)
[2003]
Q1225. Stool of a person is whitish grey coloured due to
malfunction of which of the following organ?
(1) Kidney
(2) Pancreas
(3) Liver
(4) Spleen
Ans: (3)
[2004]
Q1226. A patient is generally advised to specially, consume more
meat, lentils, milk and eggs in diet only when he suffers from
(1) Rickets
(2) Scurvy
(3) Anemia
(4) Kwashiorkor
Ans: (4)

Q1227. Which group of three of the following five statements (a-e)

contain is all three correct statements regarding beri-beri?
(1) a nutritional disorder in infants and young children when the diet is
persistently deficient in essential protein;
(2) a crippling disease prevalant among the native population of sub-Saharan
Africa;
(3) occurs in those countries where the staple diet is polished rice; (e) the
symptoms are pain from neuritis, paralysis, muscle wasting, progressive
oedema, mental deterioration and finally heart failure;
(4) a deficiency disease caused by lack of thiamine (vitamin B 1)
Ans: (2)
[2004]
Q1228. The richest sources of vitamin B12 are
(1) Rice and hen’s egg
(2) Goat’s liver and Spirulina
(3) Carrot and chicken’s breast
(4) Chocolate and green gram
Ans: (2)
[2004]
Q1229. Which one of the following is the correct matching of a
vitamin, its nature and its deficiency disease?
(1) Vitamin A – Fat-soluble – Beri-beri
(2) Vitamin A – Fat-soluble – Night blindness
(3) Vitamin K – Water-soluble – Pellagra
(4) Vitamin K – Fat-Soluble – Beri-beri
Ans: (2)
[2005]
Q1230. Duodenum has characteristic Brunner’s gland which
secrete two hormones called
(1) Prolactin, parathormone
(2) Kinase, estrogen
(3) Estradiol, progesterone
(4) Secretin, cholecystokinin
Ans: (4)
[2005]
Q1231. Which one of the following is a fat-soluble vitamin and its
related deficiency disease?
(1) Calciferol - Pellagra
(2) Retinol - Xerophthalmia
(3) A scorbic acid - Scurvy.
(4) Cobalamine - Beri-beri
Ans: (2)

Q1232. A person who is one along hunger strike and is surviving

only on water, will have
(1) less urea in his urine
(2) less amino acids in his urine
(3) more sodium in his urine.
(4) more glucose in his blood
Ans: (1)
[2005]
Q1233. Angiotensinogen is a protein produced and secreted by
(1) juxtaglomerular (JG) cells
(2) endothelial cells (lining the blood vessels)
(3) macula densa cells
(4) liver cells
Ans: (4)
[2006]
Q1234. Secretin and cholecystokinin are digestive hormones. They
are secreted in:
(1) Ileum
(2) Pyloric stomach
(3) Oesophagus
(4) Duodenum
Ans: (4)
[2007]
Q1235. Epithelial cells of the intestine involved in food absorption
have on their surface:
(1) zymogen granules
(2) pinocytic vesicles
(3) phagocytic vesicles
(4) microvilli
Ans: (4)
[2007]
Q1236. A young infant may be feeding entirely on mothers milk
which is white in colour but the stools which the infant passes out
is quite yellowish. What is this yellow colour due to?
(1) pancreatic juice poured into duodenum
(2) bile pigments passed through bile juice
(3) intestinal juice
(4) undigested milk protein casein
Ans: (2)
[2008]
Q1237. When breast feeding is replaced by less nutritive food low
in proteins and calories; the infants below the age of one year are
likely to suffer from:
(1) Pellagra
(2) Rickets
(3) Marasmus
(4) Kwashiorkor
Ans: (3)
[2008]
Q1238. Modern detergents contain enzyme preparations of:
(1) Thermoacidophiles
(2) Acidophiles
(3) Thermophiles
(4) Alkaliphiles
Ans: (4)
[2008]
Q1239. Which one of the following is the correct matching of the
site of action on the given substrate, the enzyme acting upon it and
the end product?
(1) Small intestine: Proteins Amino acids
(2) Duodenum: Triglycerides Monoglycerides
(3) Stomach: Fats Micelles
(4) Small inestine: Starch Disaccharide (Maltose)
Ans: (4)
[2009]
Q1240. What will happen if the secretion of parietal cells of gastric
glands is blocked with an inhibitor?
(1) In the absence of HCI secretion, inactive pepsinogen is not converted into
the active enzyme pepsin
(2) Gastric juice will be deficient in chymosin
(3) Enterokinase will not be released from the duodenal mucosa and so
trypsinogen is not converted to trypsin
(4) Gastric juice will be deficient in pepsinogen
Ans: (1)
[2009]
Q1241. Which one of the following enzymes carries out the initial
step in the digestion of milk in humans?
(1) Lipase
(2) Pepsin
(3) Trypsin
(4) Rennin
Ans: (4)
[2009]
Q1242. Two friends are eating together on a dining table. One of
them suddenly starts coughing while swallowing some food. This
coughing would have been due to improper movement of:
(1) neck
(2) epiglottis
(3) tongue
(4) diaphragm
Ans: (2)
[2009]
Q1243. If for some reason our goblet cells are non functional, this
will adversely affect:
(1) maturation of sperms
(2) production of somatostatin
(3) smooth movement of food down the intes-tine
(4) secretion of sebum from the sebaceous glands
Ans: (3)
[2010]
Q1244. Which one of the following pairs of food components in
humans reaches the stomach totally undigested?
(1) Starch and cellulose
(2) Starch and fat
(3) Protein and starch
(4) Fat and cellulose
Ans: (4)
[2011]
Q1245. Which one of the following statements is true regarding
digestion and absorption of food in humans?
(1) About 60% of starch is hydrolysed by salivary amylase in our mouth
(2) Fructose and amino acids are absorbed through intestinal mucosa with the
help of carrier ions like Na+.
(3) Oxyntic cells in our stomach secrete the proenzyme pepsinogen.
(4) Chylomicrons are small lipoprotein particles that are transported from
intestine into blood capillaries.
Ans: (2)
[2011]
Q1246. Select the correct match of the digested products in humans
given in column -I with their absorption site and mechanism in
column-II Column I Column II
(1) Cholesterol, maltose Large intestine, active absorption
(2) Fructose, Na+ Small intestine, passive absorption
(3) Glycine, glucose Small intestine, active absorption
(4) Glycerol, fatty acids Duodenum, move as chylomicrons
Ans: (3)
[2011M]
Q1247. Where do certain symbiotic micro-organisms normally
occur in human body?
(1) Vermiform appendix and rectum
(2) Caecum
(3) Duodenum
(4) Oral lining and tongue surface
Ans: (2)
Q1248. Anxiety and eating spicy food together in an otherwise
normal human, may lead to
(1) Diarrhoea
(2) Indigestion
(3) Vomiting
(4) Jaundice
Ans: (2)
[2012]
Q1249.
Ans: (1)
[2012M]
Q1250. One of the constituents of the pancreatic juice while poured
into the duodenum in humans, is:
(1) trypsin
(2) trypsinogen
(3) enterokinase
(4) chymotrypsin
Ans: (2)
[NEET 2013]
Q1251. Carbon dioxide is transported from tissues to respiratory
surface by only
(1) erythrocytes
(2) plasma and erythrocytes
(3) erythrocytes and leucocytes
(4) plasma
Ans: (2)
[NEET Kar. 2013]
Q1252. The alveolar epithelium in the lungs is
(1) ciliated columnar
(2) nonciliated columnar
(3) ciliated squamous
(4) nonciliated squamous
Ans: (4)
[NEET Kar. 2013]
Q1253. Skin is an accessory organ of respiration in
(1) rabbit
(2) humans
(3) lizard
(4) frog
Ans: (4)
Q1254. Which enzymes are likely to act on the baked potatoes
eaten by a man, starting from the mouth and as it moves down the
alimentary canal?
(1) Disaccharidase like maltase → lipases → nucleases
(2) Salivary maltase → carboxypeptidase → trypsinogen
(3) Salivary amylase → pancreatic amylase → disaccharidases
(4) Pancreatic amylase → salivary amylase → lipases
Ans: (3)
[1990]
Q1255. A healthy person eats the following diet - 5 gm raw sugar,
4 gm albumin, 10 gm pure buffalo ghee adultrated with 2 gm
vegetable ghee (hydrogenated vegetable oil) and 5 gm lignin. How
many calories he is likely to get?
(1) 164
(2) 144
(3) 112
(4) 126
Ans: (2)
[1993]
Q1256. People living at sea level have around 5 million RBC per
cubic millimeter of their blood whereas those living at an altitude
of 5400 metres have around 8 million. This is because at high
altitude
(1) people eat more nutritive food, therefore more RBCs are formed
(2) atmospheric O2 level is less and hence more RBCs are needed to absorb
the required amount of O2 to survive
(3) people get pollution - free air to breathe and more oxygen is available
(4) there is more UV radiation which enhances RBC production
Ans: (2)
[1994]
Q1257. The carbon dioxide is transported via blood to lungs as
(1) in combination with haemoglobin only
(2) dissolved in blood plasma
(3) carbaminohaemoglobin and as carbonic acid
(4) in the form of carbonic acid only
Ans: (3)
[1994]
Q1258. Although much CO2 is carried in blood, yet blood does not
become acidic, because
(1) it combines with water to form which is neutralized by NaCO3
(2) it is absorbed by the leucocytes
(3) it is continuously diffused through tissues and is not allowed to
accumulate
(4) blood buffers play an important role in CO2 transport.
Ans: (4)
[1995]
Q1259. Air is breathed through
(1) Nostrils — pharynx — larynx — trachea — bronchi — bronchioles —
alveoli
(2) Trachea — lungs — larynx — pharynx — alveoli
(3) Nose — mouth — lungs
(4) Nose — larynx — pharynx — bronchus — alveoli — bronchioles
Ans: (1)
[1995]
Q1260. Oxygen dissociation curve of haemoglobin is
(1) Linear
(2) Sigmoid
(3) Hypobolic
(4) Hyperbolic
Ans: (2)
[1995, 2006]
Q1261. Which one of the following organs in the human body is
most affected due to shortage of oxygen?
(1) kidney
(2) intestine
(3) brain
(4) skin
Ans: (3)
[1996]
Q1262. The process of migration of chloride ions from plasma to
RBC and of carbonate ions from RBC to plasma is
(1) atomic shift
(2) chloride shift
(3) Na+ pump
(4) ionic shift
Ans: (2)
Q1263. The exchange of gases in the alveoli of the lungs takes
place by
(1) active transport
(2) simple diffusion
(3) passive transport
(4) osmosis
Ans: (2)
[1998]
Q1264. In alveoli of the lungs, the air at the site of gas exchange, is
separated from the blood by
(1) alveolar epithelium, capillary endothelium and tunica adventitia
(2) alveolar epithelium only
(3) alveolar epithelium, capillary endothelium, a thin layer of tunica media
and tunica adventitia
(4) alveolar epithelium and capillary endothelium
Ans: (4)
[1999]
Q1265. The quantity 1500 ml in the respiratory volumes of a
normal human adult refers to
(1) expiratory reserve volume
(2) maximum air that can be breathed in and breathed out
(3) total lung capacity
(4) residual volume
Ans: (4)
[1999]
Q1266. What is vital capacity of our lungs?
(1) Inspiratory reserve volume plus expiratory reserve volume
(2) Inspiratory reserve volume plus tidal volume
(3) Total lung capacity minus residual volume
(4) Total lung capacity minus expiratory reserve volume
Ans: (3)
[2004]
Q1267. Intercostal muscles occur in
(1) ribs
(2) abdomen
(3) diaphragm
(4) thigh
Ans: (1)
[2004]
Q1268. Which one of the following mammalian cells is not capable
of metabolising glucose to carbon-dioxide aerobically?
(1) red blood cells
(2) unstraited muscle cells
(3) white blood
(4) liver cells
Ans: (1)
[2007]
Q1269. Blood analysis of a patient reveals an unusually high
quantity of carboxyhaemoglobin content. Which of the following
conclusions is most likely to be correct? The patient has been
inhaling polluted air containing unusually high content of
(1) carbon dioxide
(2) carbon disulphide
(3) carbon monoxide
(4) chloroform
Ans: (3)
[1988]
Q1270. When CO2 concentration in blood increases, breathing
becomes
(1) slow and deep
(2) shallower and slow
(3) faster and deeper
(4) there is no effect on breathing
Ans: (3)

Q1271.
Ans: (4)
[2010]
Q1272. Which of the following are the correct statement for
respiration in human
(1) Workers in grinding and stone - breaking industries may suffer from lung
fibrosis
(2) Cigarette smoking may lead of inflammation of bronchi
(3) About 90% of carbon dioxide (CO2) is carried by haemoglobin as
carbamino haemoglobin.
(4) Neural signals from pneumotaxic centre in pons region of brain can
increase the duration of inspiration
Ans: (1)
[2010]
Q1273. Which one of the following is a possibility for most of us
in regard to breathing, by making a conscious effort?
(1) One can consiously breathe in and breathe out by moving the diaphragm
alone, without moving the ribs at all.
(2) One can breathe out air totally without oxygen.
(3) The lungs can be made fully empty by forcefully breathing out all air
from them
(4) One can breathe out air through eustachian tubes by closing both the nose
and the mouth.
Ans: (4)
[2011M]
Q1274. Which two of the following changes (a–d) usually tend to
occur in the plain dwellers when they move to high altitudes (3,500
m or more)? (i) Increase in red blood cell size (ii) Increase in red
blood cell production (iii) Increased breathing rate (iv) Increase in
thrombocyte count Changes occurring are:
(1) (i) and (iv)
(2) (ii) and (iii)
(3) (i) and (ii)
(4) (iii) and (iv)
Ans: (2)
[2012]
Q1275. Listed below are four respiratory capacities (i–iv) and four
jumbled respiratory volumes of a normal human adult:
Respiratory Respiratory capacities volumes (i) Residual volume
2500mL (ii) Vital capacity 3500mL (iii) Inspiratory reserve
1200mL volume (iv) Inspiratory capacity 4500mL Which one of
the following is the correct matching of two capacities and
volumes?
(1) (iv) 3500 mL, (i) 1200mL
(2) (ii) 2500mL, (iii) 4500mL
(3) (i) 4500 mL, (ii) 3500mL
(4) (iii) 1200mL, (iv) 2500mL
Ans: (1)
Q1276. Child death may occur in the marriage between
(1) Rh– man and Rh– woman
(2) Rh+ man and Rh+ woman
(3) Rh– man and Rh+ woman
(4) Rh+ man and Rh– woman
Ans: (4)
Q1277. Breakdown product of haemoglobin is
(1) Biliverdin
(2) Bilirubin
(3) Calcium
(4) Iron
Ans: (4)
[NEET Kar. 2013]
Q1278. RBC do not occur in
(1) camel
(2) frog
(3) cockroach
(4) cow
Ans: (3)
[1988]
Q1279. Which one of the following is one of the paths followed by
air/O2 during respiration in an adult male Periplaneta americana as
it enters the animal body?
(1) Mouth, bronchial tube, trachea, oxygen enters cells
(2) Hypopharynx, mouth, pharynx, trachea, tissues
(3) Spiracles in prothorax, tracheoles, trachea, oxygen diffuses into cells
(4) Spiracle in metathorax, trachea, tracheoles, oxygen diffuses into cells
Ans: (4)
[1988]
Q1280.
Ans: (4)
Q1281. Tricuspid valve is found in between
(1) left ventricle and left auricle
(2) sinus venosus and right auricle
(3) ventricle and aorta
(4) right auricle and right ventricle
Ans: (4)
[1988]
Q1282. Which one engulfs pathogens rapidly?
(1) Basophils
(2) Acidophils
(3) Neutrophils
(4) Monocytes
Ans: (3)
[1988]
Q1283. Haemophilia is
(1) both a and b
(2) royal disease
(3) mosquito having haemocoel
(4) faulty blood clotting
Ans: (1)
[1989]
Q1284. Sickle cell anaemia is characterised by
(1) Mental retardation
(2) Leukemia
(3) Hemolytic anaemia
(4) Polycythemia
Ans: (3)
[1989]
Q1285. Presence of RBC in urine is
(1) Hematuria
(2) Alkaptonuria
(3) Proteinuria
(4) Ureathiasis
Ans: (1)
[1989]
Q1286. Splenic artery arises from
(1) posterior mesenteric artery
(2) anterior mesenteric artery
(3) intestinal artery
(4) coeliac artery
Ans: (4)
[1989]
Q1287. A vein possesses a large lumen because
(1) tunica interna, tunica media and tunica externa are thin
(2) tunica media and tunica externa form a single coat
(3) tunica media is a thin coat
(4) tunica interna and tunica media form a single coat
Ans: (3)
[1989]
Q1288. Arteries carry oxygenated blood except
(1) Hepatic
(2) Pulmonary
(3) Systemic
(4) Cardiac
Ans: (2)
[1989]
Q1289. Removal of calcium from freshly collected blood would
(1) cause immediate clotting
(2) cause delayed clotting
(3) prevent destruction of haemoglobin
(4) prevent clotting
Ans: (4)
[1990]
Q1290. A person with blood group A requires blood. The blood
group which can be given is
(1) A and O
(2) A and B
(3) A, B, AB and O
(4) A and AB
Ans: (1)
[1990]
Q1291. Cells formed in bone marrow include
(1) Leucocytes
(2) RBC
(3) Lymphocytes
(4) RBC and leucocytes
Ans: (4)
[1991]
Q1292. The genotype of B-group father of an O-group child is
(1) IAIB
(2) IOIO
(3) IOIB
(4) IBIB
Ans: (3)
[1991]
Q1293. Blood group AB has
(1) neither antigen nor antibody
(2) no antigen
(3) both antigen and antibody
(4) no antibody
Ans: (4)
[1991]
Q1294. Carbonic anhydrase occurs in
(1) RBC
(2) Lymphocytes
(3) Leucocytes
(4) Blood plasma
Ans: (1)
[1992]
Q1295. Wall of blood capillary is formed of
(1) endothelial cells
(2) haemocytes
(3) oxyntic cells
(4) parietal cells
Ans: (1)
[1993]
Q1296. Pacemaker of heart is
(1) SA node
(2) AV node
(3) Purkinje fibres
(4) Bundle of His
Ans: (1)

Q1297. Closed circulatory system occurs in

(1) mosquito
(2) cockroach
(3) housefly
(4) tadpole/fish
Ans: (4)
[1993]
Q1298. ‘Dup’ sound is produced during closure of
(1) Tricuspid valve
(2) Semilunar valves
(3) Both b and c
(4) Bicuspid valve
Ans: (2)
[1994]
Q1299. Blood capillaries are made of
(1) endothelium and connective tissue
(2) endothelium, connective tissue and muscle fibres
(3) endothelium only
(4) endothelium and muscle fibres
Ans: (3)
[1994]
Q1300. A man with blood group A marries AB blood group
woman. Which type of progeny indicate that the man is not
homozygous?
(1) A
(2) AB
(3) O
(4) B
Ans: (4)
[1994]
Q1301. The blood cancer is known as
(1) haemolysis
(2) leukaemia
(3) haemophilia
(4) thrombosis
Ans: (2)
[1994]
Q1302. The correct route through which pulsemaking impulse
travels in the heart is
(1) SA node→Purkinje fibre→bundle of His→AV node→heart muscles
(2) AV node→bundle of His→SA node Purkinje fibres →heart muscles
(3) SA node→AV node→bundle of His→Purkinje fibre→heart muscles
(4) AV node→SA node→Purkinje fibres→ bundle of His→heart muscles
Ans: (3)
[1995]
Q1303. Antigens are present
(1) inside the cytoplasm
(2) inside the nucleus
(3) on nuclear membrane
(4) on cell surface
Ans: (4)
[1995]
Q1304. The lymph serves to
(1) return the interstitial fluid to the blood
(2) transport oxygen to the brain
(3) return the WBCs and RBCs to the lymph nodes
(4) transport carbon dioxide to the lungs
Ans: (1)
[1995]
Q1305. A child of blood group O cannot have parents of blood
groups
(1) B and B
(2) AB and AB/O
(3) O and O
(4) A and B
Ans: (2)
[1995]
Q1306. In mammals, histamine is secreted by
(1) mast cells
(2) histiocytes
(3) fibroblasts
(4) lymphocytes
Ans: (1)
[1996]
Q1307. The life span of human W.B.C. is approximately
(1) between 2 to 3 months
(2) less than 10 days
(3) more than 4 months
(4) between 20 to 30 days
Ans: (2)
[1996]
Q1308. Which of the following is not a granulocyte?
(1) Basophil
(2) Lymphocyte
(3) Neutrophil
(4) Eosinophil
Ans: (2)
[1997]
Q1309. Which one of the following statements about blood
constituents and transport of respiratory gases is most accurate?
(1) RBCs as well as WBCs transport both oxygen and CO2
(2) RBCs transport oxygen whereas WBCs transport CO2
(3) RBCs as well as plasma transport both oxygen and CO2
(4) RBCs transport oxygen whereas plasma transports only CO2
Ans: (3)
[1997]
Q1310. Which one of the following vertebrate organs receives the
oxygenated blood only?
(1) Liver
(2) Gill
(3) Spleen
(4) Lung
Ans: (3)
[1998]
Q1311. What is true about leucocytes?
(1) These are enucleated
(2) Their sudden fall in number is indication of blood cancer
(3) These can squeeze out through the capillary walls
(4) These are produced in thymus
Ans: (3)
[1998]
Q1312. Pulmonary artery differ from pulmonary vein in having
(1) large lumen
(2) no endothelium
(3) thick muscular walls
(4) valves
Ans: (3)
[1998]
Q1313. Contraction of the ventricle in the heart begins by the
command from
(1) Purkinje fibres
(2) Chordae tendinae
(3) A. V. node
(4) S.A. node
Ans: (4)
[1999]
Q1314. With respect to the ABO group, there are four major blood
types because this blood group is determined by
(1) three alleles, of which two are codominant and the third is recessive
(2) three alleles, all of which are recessive
(3) three alleles, all of which are codominant
(4) three alleles, of which, two are recessive and the third is dominant
Ans: (1)
[2000]
Q1315. An adult human with average health has systolic and
diastolic pressures as
(1) 50 mm Hg and 80 mm Hg
(2) 70 mm Hg and 120 mm Hg
(3) 80 mm Hg and 80 mm Hg
(4) 120 mm Hg and 80 mm Hg
Ans: (4)
 [2000]
Q1316. Which of the following statments is true for lymph?
(1) RBCs, WBCs and plasma
(2) WBC and serum
(3) RBCs proteins and platelets
(4) all components of blood except RBCs and some proteins
Ans: (4)
[2000]
Q1317. Impulse of heart beat originates from
(1) Vagus nerve
(2) S. A. node
(3) Cardiac nerve
(4) A. V. node
Ans: (2)
[2001]
Q1318. What is correct for blood group ‘O’?
(1) Antigen and antibody both absent
(2) No antigens but both a and b antibodies are present
(3) A and B antigens and a, b antibodies
(4) A antigen and b antibody
Ans: (2)
[2001]
Q1319. Sickle cell anaemia is induced by
(1) change of amino acid in both a- and b-chain of haemoglobin
(2) change of amino acid in a-chain of haemoglobin
(3) change of amino acid in either a- or b-chain of haemoglobin
(4) change of amino acid in b-chain of haemoglobin
Ans: (4)
[2002]
Q1320. As the age advances, there is a gradual thinning of hair in
human males. This is mainly because of lowered
(1) synthesis of glycogen
(2) blood supply
(3) availability of energy
(4) synthesis of proteins
Ans: (4)
[2002]
Q1321. The cardiac pacemaker in a patient fails to function
normally. The doctors find that an artificial pacemaker is to be
grafted in him. It is likely that it will be grafted at the site of
(1) Sinuatrial node
(2) Atrioventricular bundle
(3) Atrioventricular node
(4) Purkinje system
Ans: (1)
[2003]
Q1322. You are required to draw blood from a patient and to keep
it in a test tube for analysis of blood corpuscles and plasma. You
are also provided with the following four types of test tubes. Which
of them will you not use for the purpose?
(1) Test tube containing heparin
(2) Test tube containing calcium bicarbonate
(3) Test tube containing sodium oxalate
(4) Chilled test tube
Ans: (2)
[2003]
Q1323. In the ABO system of blood groups, if both antigens are
present but no antibody, the blood group of the individual would
be
(1) AB
(2) B
(3) A
(4) O
Ans: (1)
[2004]
Q1324. Bundle of His is a network of
(1) muscle fibres found only in the ventricle wall
(2) nerve fibres found throughout the heart
(3) nerve fibres distributed in ventricles
(4) muscle fibres distributed throughout the heart walls
Ans: (1)
[2004]
Q1325. Systemic heart refers to
(1) left auricle and left ventricle in higher vertebrates
(2) the two ventricles together in humans
(3) entire heart in lower vertebrates
(4) the heart that contracts under stimulation from nervous system
Ans: (1)
Q1326. Examination of blood of a person suspected of having
anemia, shows large, immature, nucleated erythrocytes without
haemoglobin. Supple-menting his diet with which of the following,
is likely to alleviate his symptoms?
(1) Iron compounds
(2) Folic acid and cobalamine
(3) Thiamine
(4) Riboflavin
Ans: (2)
[2005]
Q1327. The majority of carbon dioxide produced by our body cells
is transported to the lungs
(1) attached to hemoglobin
(2) as bicarbonates
(3) dissolved in the blood
(4) as carbonates
Ans: (2)
[2006]
Q1328. Which one of the following has an open circulatory
system?
(1) Octopus
(2) Periplaneta
(3) Pheretima
(4) Hirudinaria
Ans: (2)
 [2006]
Q1329. Which one of the following statements is incorrect?
(1) The principle of countercurrent flow facilitates efficient respiration in
gills of fishes
(2) The presence of non-respiratory air sacs, increases the efficiency of
respiration in birds
(3) The residual area in lungs slightly decreases the efficiency of respiration
in mammals
(4) In insects, circulating body fluids serve to distribute oxygen to tissues
Ans: (4)
Q1330. Damage to thymus in a child may lead to:
(1) loss of antibody mediated immunity
(2) a reduction in haemoglobin content of blood
(3) loss of cell mediated immunity
(4) a reduction in stem cell production
Ans: (3)
[2006]
Q1331. In humans, blood passes from the post caval to the diastolic
right atrium of heart due to.
(1) stimulation of the sino auricular node
(2) pushing open of the venous valves
(3) pressure difference between the post caval and atrium
(4) suction pull
Ans: (4)
[2007]
Q1332. The most active phagocytic white blood cells are:
(1) eosinophils and lymphocytes
(2) neutrophils and eosinophils
(3) neutrophils and monocytes
(4) lymphocytes and macrophages
Ans: (3)
[2007]
Q1333. Which type of white blood cells are concerned with the
release of histamine and the natural anti- coagulant heparin?
(1) Eosinophils
(2) Neutrophils
(3) Monocytes
(4) Basophils
Ans: (4)
[2008]
Q1334. What is true about Nereis, scorpion, cockroach and silver
fish?
(1) They all belong to the same phylum
(2) They all posses dorsal heart
(3) They all have jointed paired appendages
(4) None of them is aquatic
Ans: (2)
[2008]
Q1335. A drop of each of the following, is placed separately on
four slides. Which of them will not coagulate?
(1) Whole blood from pulmonary vein
(2) Blood serum
(3) Blood plasma.
(4) Sample from the thoracic duct of lymphatic system
Ans: (2)
[2008]
Q1336. Globulins contained in human blood plasma are primarily
involved in:
(1) clotting of blood
(2) osmotic balance of body fluids
(3) defence mechanisms of body
(4) oxygen transport in the blood
Ans: (3)
[2009]
Q1337. In a standard ECG which one of the following alphabets is
the correct representation of the respective activity of the human
heart?
(1) P - depolarisation of the atria
(2) S - start of systole
(3) R - repolarisation of ventricles
(4) T - end of diastole
Ans: (1)
[2009]
Q1338. There is no DNA in:
(1) hair root
(2) mature RBCs
(3) an enucleated ovum
(4) a mature spermatozoan
Ans: (2)
[2009]
Q1339. Compared to blood our lymph has:
(1) more RBCs and less WBCs
(2) plasma without proteins
(3) no plasma
(4) more WBCs and no RBCs
Ans: (4)

Q1340. The most popularly known blood grouping is the ABO

grouping. It is named ABO and not ABC, because “O” in it refers
to having:
(1) no antigens A and B on RBCs
(2) overdominance of this type on the genes for A and B types
(3) other antigens besides A and B on RBCs
(4) one antibody only - either anti - A or anti- B on the RBC;
Ans: (1)
[2009]
Q1341. ‘Bundle of His’ is a part of which one of the following
organs in humans?
(1) Kidney
(2) Brain
(3) Pancreas
(4) Heart
Ans: (4)
[2010]
Q1342.
Ans: (4)
[2010]
Q1343. What is true about RBCs in humans?
(1) They transport about 80 per cent oxygen only and the rest 20 per cent of it
is transported in dissolved state in blood plasma
(2) They carry about 20–25 per cent of CO2
(3) They do not carry CO2 at all
(4) They transport 99.5 per cent of O2
Ans: (2)
[2010]
Q1344. If due to some injury the chordae tendinae of the tricuspid
valve of the human heart is partially non - functional, what will be
the immediate effect?
(1) The blood will tend to flow back into the left atrium
(2) The flow of blood into the aorta will be slowed down
(3) The flow of blood into the pulmonary artery will be reduced
(4) The ‘pacemaker’ will stop working
Ans: (3)
Q1345. ABO blood groups in humans are controlled by the gene I.
It has three alleles – IA IB and i. Since there are three different
alleles, six different genotypes are possible. How many phenotypes
can occur?
(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One
Ans: (1)
[2011]
Q1346. Bulk of carbon dioxide (CO2) released from body tissues
into the blood is present as
(1) 70% carbamino- haemoglobin and 30% as bicarbonate
(2) bicarbonate in blood plasma and RBCs
(3) carbamino-haemoglobin in RBCs
(4) free CO2 in blood plasma
Ans: (2)
[2011]
Q1347. Given below is the ECG of a normal human. Which one of
its components in human is correctly interpreted below
(1) Peak P and Peak R together-Systolic and diastolic blood pressures
(2) Complex QRS-One complete Pulse
(3) Peak P- Initiation of left atrial contraction only
(4) Peak T - Initiation of total cardiac contraction
Ans: (1)
[2011]
Q1348. Which one of the following statements is correct regarding
blood pressure?
(1) 105/50 mm Hg makes one very active
(2) 130/90 mmHg is considered high and requires treatment
(3) 90/110 mmHg may harm vital organs like brain and kidney
(4) 100/55 mmHg is considered an ideal blood pressure
Ans: (3)
[2011]
Q1349. Arteries are best defined as the vessels which:
(1) break up into capillaries which reunite to form a vein
(2) supply oxygenated blood to the different organs
(3) carry blood from one visceral organ to another visceral organ
(4) break up into capillaries which reunite to form one visceral organ
Ans: (4)
[2011M]
Q1350. Which one of the following plasma proteins is involved in
the coagulation of blood?
(1) a globulin
(2) an albumin
(3) fibrinogen
(4) serum amylase
Ans: (3)
[2011M]
Q1351. Reabsorption of useful substances from glomerular filtrate
occurs in
(1) Proximal convoluted tubule
(2) Collecting tube
(3) Distal convoluted tubule
(4) Loop of Henle
Ans: (1)
[2011M]
Q1352.
Ans: (3)
Q1353.
Ans: (4)

Q1354.
Ans: (3)

Q1355. Which one of the following human organs is often called

the graveyard of RBCs?
(1) Spleen
(2) Gall bladder
(3) Liver
(4) Kidney
Ans: (1)
[1989]
Q1356. Glucose is taken back from glomerular filtrate through
(1) Osmosis
(2) Active transport
(3) Diffusion
(4) Passive transport
Ans: (2)
[1990]
Q1357. Nitrogenous waste products are eliminated mainly as
(1) urea in both tadpole and adult frog
(2) urea in tadpole and ammonia in adult frog
(3) urea in tadpole and uric acid in adult frog
(4) ammonia in tadpole and urea in adult frog
Ans: (4)
 [1990]
Q1358. Under normal conditions which one is completely
reabsorbed in the renal tubule?
(1) Salts
(2) Urea
(3) Glucose
(4) Uric acid
Ans: (3)
[1991]
Q1359. Proximal and distal convoluted tubules are parts of
(1) Oviduct
(2) Seminiferous tubules
(3) Vas deferens
(4) Nephron
Ans: (4)
[1991]
Q1360. Brush border is characteristic of
(1) proximal convoluted tubule
(2) neck of nephron
(3) all the above
(4) collecting tube
Ans: (1)
[1993]
Q1361. A patient suffering from cholera is given saline drip
because
(1) Na+ ions are important in transport of substances across membrane
(2) Cl– ions are important component of blood plasma
(3) Cl– ions help in the formation of HCl in stomach for digestion
(4) Na+ ions help to retain water in the body
Ans: (4)
[1993]
Q1362. Uric acid is nitrogenous waste in
(1) Frog and cartilaginous fishes
(2) Mammals and molluscs
(3) Insects and bony fishes
(4) Birds and lizards
Ans: (4)
Q1363. If kidney fail to reabsorb water, the effect on tissue
would
(1) absorb water from blood plasma
(2) remain unaffected
(3) take more O2 from blood
(4) shrink and shrivel
Ans: (4)
[1994]
Q1364. Part not belonging to uriniferous tubule is
(1) Distal convoluted tubule
(2) Glomerulus
(3) Connecting tubule
(4) Henle’s loop
Ans: (2)
[1994]
Q1365. Hair present in the skin are
(1) dermal in origin and made of living cells
(2) epidermal in origin and made of dead cells
(3) dermal in origin and made of dead cells
(4) epidermal in origin and made of living cells
Ans: (2)
[1996, 2000]
Q1366. In the renal tubules the permeability of the distal
convoluted tubule and collecting duct to water is controlled by
(1) Growth hormone
(2) Vasopressin
(3) Renin
(4) Aldosterone
Ans: (2)
[1996]
Q1367. Solenocytes are the main excretory structures in
(1) Molluscs
(2) Platyhelminthes
(3) Echinodermates
(4) Annelids
Ans: (2)
[1997, 2000]
Q1368. The basic functional unit of the human kidney is
(1) pyramid
(2) nephron
(3) Henle's loop
(4) nephridia
Ans: (2)
[1997]
Q1369. In ureotelic animals, urea is formed by the
(1) Ornithine cycle
(2) Arginine cycle
(3) EM pathway
(4) Cori's cycle
Ans: (1)
[1998]
Q1370. In Ornithine cycle, which one pair of the following wastes
are removed from the blood?
(1) Ammonia and urea
(2) CO2 and urea
(3) Urea and sodium salts
(4) CO2 and ammonia
Ans: (4)
[1999]
Q1371. If Henle's loop were absent from mammalian nephron,
which of the following is to be expected?
(1) There will be hardly any change in the quality and quantity of urine
formed
(2) The urine will be more dilute
(3) The urine will be more concentrated
(4) There will be no urine formation
Ans: (2)
 [2000]
Q1372. In Hydra waste material of food digestion and nitrogenous
waste material removed from
(1) mouth and nematocyst
(2) mouth and body wall
(3) body wall and tentacles
(4) mouth and tentacles
Ans: (2)
[2000]
Q1373. Which one of the following is a matching pair?
(1) Saliva-tasting food
(2) Tears-excretion of salts
(3) Sebum-sex attraction
(4) Sweat-thermoregulation
Ans: (4)
[2000]
Q1374. The enteronephric nephridia of earthworm are concerned
with
(1) digestion
(2) osmoregulation
(3) respiration
(4) excretion of nitrogenous wastes
Ans: (4)

Q1375. Formation of concentrated (hyperosmotic) urine in

vertebrates generally depends on
(1) area of Bowman's capsule epithelium
(2) length of the proximal convoluted tubule
(3) capillary network forming glomerulus
(4) length of Henle's loop
Ans: (4)
[2003]
Q1376. The net pressure gradient that causes the fluid to filter out
of the glomeruli into the capsule is:
(1) 20 mm Hg
(2) 50 mm Hg
(3) 30 mm Hg
(4) 75 mm Hg
Ans: (1)
[2004]
Q1377. A person is undergoing prolonged fasting. His urine will be
found to contain abnormal quantities of:
(1) glucose
(2) fats
(3) ketones
(4) amino acids
Ans: (3)
[2004]
Q1378. A terrestrial animal must be able to
(1) actively pump salts out through the skin
(2) excrete large amounts of water in urine
(3) excrete large amounts of salts in urine
(4) conserve water
Ans: (4)
[2004]
Q1379. Uricotelism is found in
(1) Birds, reptiles and insects
(2) Mammals and birds
(3) Frogs and toads
(4) Fishes and fresh water protozoans
Ans: (1)
[2005]
Q1380. When a fresh-water protozoan possessing a contractile
vacuole, is placed in a glass containing marine water, the vacuole
will
(1) increase in size
(2) increase in number
(3) decrease in size
(4) disappear
Ans: (3)
 [2005]
Q1381. Consider the following four statements (a-d) about certain
desert animals such as kangaroo, rat.
(1) They feed on dry seeds and do not require drinking water
(2) They have dark colour and high rate of reproduction and excrete solid
urine
(3) They excrete very concentrated urine and do not use water to regulate
body temperature Which two of the above statements for such animals are
true?
(4) They do not drink water, breathe at a slow rate to conserve water and have
their body covered with thick hairs
Ans: (2)
[2005]
Q1382. Lysozyme that is present in perspiration, saliva and tears,
destroys
(1) most virus-infected cells
(2) certain types of bacteria
(3) certain fungi
(4) all viruses
Ans: (2)
Q1383. Bowman’s glands are located in the
(1) olfactory epithelium of our nose
(2) anterior pituitary
(3) proximal end of uriniferous tubules.
(4) female re productive system of cockroach
Ans: (1)
[2007]
Q1384.
Ans: (1)
[2007]
Q1385. In Ornithine cycle, which of the following wastes are
removed from the blood?
(1) CO2 and ammonia
(2) CO2 and urea
(3) Urea and urine
(4) Ammonia and urea
Ans: (1)
[2008]
Q1386. Consider the following four statements (i-iv) regarding
kidney transplant and select the two correct ones out of these. (i)
Even if a kidney transplant is proper the recipient may need to take
immune suppresants for a long time (ii) The cell mediated immune
response is responsible for the graft rejection (iii) The B
lymphocytes are responsible for rejection of the graft (iv) The
acceptance or rejection of a kidney transplant depends on specific
interferons The two correct statements are:
(1) (i) and (iii)
(2) (ii) and (iii)
(3) (i) and (ii)
(4) (iii) and (iv)
Ans: (3)
[2009]
Q1387. The principal nitrogenous excretory compound in humans
is synthesised
(1) in liver and also eliminated by the same through bile
(2) in kidneys but eliminated mostly through liver
(3) in the liver, but eliminated mostly through kidneys
(4) in kidneys as well as eliminated by kidneys
Ans: (3)
[2009]
Q1388. Which one of the following statements in regard to the
excretion by the human kidneys is correct?
(1) Nearly 99 per cent of the glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed by the renal
tubules
(2) Descending limb of Loop of Henle is impermeable to water
(3) Ascending limb of Loop of Henle is impermeable to electrolytes
(4) Distal convoluted tubule is incapable of reabsorbing HCO3
Ans: (1)
 [2010]
Q1389. Uric acid is the chief nitrogenous component of the
excretory products of
(1) frog
(2) earthworm
(3) man
(4) cockroach
Ans: (4)
[2010]
Q1390. What will happen if the stretch receptors of the urinary
bladder wall are totally removed?
(1) There will be no micturition
(2) Micturition will continue
(3) Urine will not collect in the bladder
(4) Urine will continue to collect normally in the bladder
Ans: (1)
[2010]
Q1391. Uricotelic mode of passing out nitrogenous wastes is found
in
(1) Amphibians and Reptiles
(2) Reptiles and Bird
(3) Insects and Amphibians
(4) Birds and Annelids
Ans: (2)
[2011]
Q1392. Which one of the following statements is correct with
respect to kidney function regulation?
(1) An increase in glomerular blood flow stimulates formation of Angiotensin
II.
(2) When someone drinks lot of water,ADH release is suppressed.
(3) During summer when body loses lot of water by evaporation, the release
of ADH is suppressed.
(4) Exposure to cold temperature blood flow stimulates formation of
Angiotensin II.
Ans: (2)
 [2011]
Q1393. Which one of the following correctly explains the function
of a specific part of a human nephron?
(1) Distal convoluted tubule: reabsorption of K+ ions into the surrounding
blood capillaries
(2) Podocytes: create minute spaces (slite pores) for the filtration of blood
into the Bowman’s capsule
(3) Afferent arteriole: carries the blood away from the glomerular towards
renal vein.
(4) Henle’s loop: most reabsorption of the major substances from the
glomerular filtrate
Ans: (2)
[2011]
Q1394. A large proportion of oxygen is left unused in the human
blood even after its uptake by the body tissues. This O2
(1) is enough to keep oxyhaemoglobin saturation at 96%
(2) acts as a reserve during muscular exercise
(3) helps in releasing more O2 to the epithelial tissues.
(4) raise the pCO2 of blood to 75 mm of Hg.
Ans: (2)
[2011]
Q1395. Which one of the following is not a part of a renal pelvis?
(1) Collecting ducts
(2) Peritubular capillaries
(3) Loops of Henle
(4) Convoluted tubules
Ans: (1)
[2011]
Q1396. Which one of the following characteristics is common to
both in humans and adult frogs?
(1) Nucleated RBCs
(2) Four - chambered heart
(3) Ureotelic mode of excretion
(4) Internal fertilization
Ans: (3)
 [2011M]
Q1397. A fall in glomerular filtration rate (GFR) activates
(1) juxta - glomerular cells to release renin.
(2) adrenal cortex to release aldosterone.
(3) posterior pituitary to release vasopressin.
(4) adrenal medulla to release adrenaline.
Ans: (1)
[2012]
Q1398. Which one of the following options gives the correct
categorization of six animals according to the type of nitrogenous
wastes (A, B, C), they give out? A-Ammonotelic ---- B-Ureotelic
---- C-Uricotelic
(1) Aquatic Amphibia -- Frog, Humans -- Pigeon, Lizards, Cockroach
(2) Pigeon, Humans -- Aquatic Amphibia, Lizards --Cockroach, Frog
(3) Aquatic Amphibia --Cockroach, Humans-- Frog, Pigeon, Lizards
(4) Frog, Lizards -- Aquatic Amphibia, Humans -- Cockroach, Pigeon
Ans: (1)
[2012M]
Q1399. The maximum amount of electrolytes and water (70 - 80
percent) from the glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed in which part of
the nephron?
(1) Proximal convoluted tubule
(2) Ascending limb of loop of Henle
(3) Descending limb of loop of Henle
(4) Distal convoluted tubule
Ans: (1)
[2012M]
Q1400. Ureters act as urogenital ducts in
(1) frog's both males and females
(2) human males
(3) frog's males
(4) human females
Ans: (3)
[2012M]
Q1401. Number of cervical vertebrae in camel is
(1) same as that of whale
(2) more than that of rabbit
(3) more than that of horse
(4) less than that of rabbit
Ans: (1)
Q1402. A deltoid ridge occurs in
(1) Femur
(2) Radius
(3) Humerus
(4) Ulna
Ans: (3)
[NEET Kar. 2013]
Q1403. Extremities of long bones possess cartilage
(1) elastic
(2) calcified
(3) hyaline
(4) fibrous
Ans: (3)
[1989]
Q1404. Select the option which shows correct matching of animal
with excretory organs and excretory product Animal Excretory
Excretory organs product
(1) Salamander Kidney Urea
(2) Housefly Renal tubules Uric acid
(3) Peacock Kidney Urea
(4) Labeo (Rohu) Nephridial Ammonia tubes
Ans: (1)
[1990]
Q1405.
Ans: (3)
[1990]
Q1406. Total number of bones in the hind limb of man is
(1) 24
(2) 14
(3) 21
(4) 30
Ans: (4)
[1993]
Q1407. The number of floating ribs in the human body, is
(1) 3 pairs
(2) 6 pairs
(3) 2 pairs
(4) 5 pairs
Ans: (3)
[1994]
Q1408. Which is part of pectoral girdle?
(1) Ilium
(2) Glenoid cavity
(3) Acetabulum
(4) Sternum
Ans: (2)
[1994]
Q1409. Which ion is essential for muscle contraction?
(1) Ca
(2) Na
(3) Cl
(4) K
Ans: (1)
[1995]
Q1410. Long bones function in
(1) support and erythrocyte synthesis
(2) support
(3) erythrocyte formation
(4) support, erythrocyte and leucocyte synthesis
Ans: (4)
[1998]
Q1411. The joint found between sternum and the ribs in humans
is
(1) cartilaginous joint
(2) angular joint
(3) gliding joint
(4) fibrous joint
Ans: (1)
[1998]
Q1412. Ligament is a
(1) modified white fibrous tissue
(2) modified yellow elastic fibrous tissue
(3) none of these
(4) inelastic white fibrous tissue
Ans: (2)
[1998, 2006]
Q1413. Tendon is made up of
(1) areolar tissue
(2) adipose tissue
(3) yellow fibrous connective tissue
(4) modified white fibrous tissue
Ans: (4)
[1999]
Q1414. Which of the following is the contractile protein of a
muscle?
(1) Actin
(2) Myosin
(3) Tubulin
(4) Tropomyosin
Ans: (2)
[1999]
Q1415. The lower jaw in mammals is made up of
(1) Maxilla
(2) Mandible
(3) Angulars
(4) Dentary
Ans: (2)
[2000]
Q1416. Which of the following pairs, is correctly matched?
(1) Cartilaginous - skull bones joint
(2) Hinge joint - between vertebrae
(3) Fibrous joint - between phalanges
(4) Gliding joint - between zygapophyses of the successive vertebrae
Ans: (4)
[2000]
Q1417. What will happen if ligaments are cut or broken?
(1) Bones will become unfix
(2) Bones will move freely at joints
(3) Bones will become fixed
(4) No movement at joints
Ans: (1)
[2001]
Q1418. Which statement is correct for muscle contraction?
(1) Length of I-band increases
(2) Length of H-line decreases
(3) Length of two Z-lines increase
(4) Length of A-band remains constant
Ans: (4)
[2001]
Q1419. What is sarcomere?
(1) Part between two I-bands
(2) Part between two H-lines
(3) Part between two Z-lines
(4) Part between two A-lines
Ans: (3)
[2002]
Q1420. Which one of the following is a skull bone?
(1) Arytaenoid
(2) Atlas
(3) Pterygoid
(4) Coracoid
Ans: (3)
[2005]
Q1421. Elbow joint is an example of:
(1) ball and socket joint
(2) hinge joint
(3) pivot joint
(4) gliding joint
Ans: (2)
[2005]
Q1422. Which one of the following is the correct matching of three
items and their grouping category? Items Group
(1) cytosine, uracil, - pyrimidines thiamine
(2) ilium, ischium, pubis - coxal bones of pelvic girdle
(3) malleus, incus, - ear ossicles cochlea
(4) actin, myosin, - muscle proteins rhodopsin.
Ans: (2)
[2007]
Q1423. Which one of the following items gives its correct total
number?
(1) Types of diabetes - 3
(2) Floating ribs in humans - 4
(3) Cervical vertebrae in humans - 8
(4) Amino acids found in proteins - 16
Ans: (2)
[2008]
Q1424. In human body, which one of the following is anatomically
correct?
(1) Cranial nerves - 10 pairs
(2) Collar bones - 3 pairs
(3) Floating ribs - 2 pairs
(4) Salivary glands - 1 pairs
Ans: (3)
[2009]
Q1425. An acromian process is characteristically found in the:
(1) skull of frog
(2) pelvic girdle of mammals
(3) sperm of mammals
(4) pectoral girdle of mammals
Ans: (4)
[2009]
Q1426. Select the correct statement with respect to locomotion in
humans:
(1) The joint between adjacent vertebrae is a fibrous joint
(2) Accumulation of uric acid crystals in joints causes their inflammation
(3) The decreased level of progesterone causes osteoporosis in old people
(4) The vertebral column has 10 thoracic vertebrae.
Ans: (2)
[2011M]
Q1427. The characteristics and an example of a synovial joint in
humans is: Characteristics Examples
(1) Lymph filled between gliding joint two bones, limited between movement
carpals
(2) Fluid filled between Skull bones two joints, provides cushion
(3) Fluid cartilage Knee joint between two bones, limited movements
(4) Fluid filled synovial Joint between cavity between two atlas and axis
bones
Ans: (4)
[2012]
Q1428. Which one of the following pairs of chemical substances is
correctly categorized?
(1) Troponin and myosin - Complex proteins in striated muscles
(2) Calcitonin and thymosin - Thyroid hormones
(3) Secretin and rhodopsin - Polypeptide hormones
(4) Pepsin and prolactin - Two digestive enzymes secreted in stomach
Ans: (1)
[2012M]
Q1429. Select the correct statement regarding the specific disorder
of muscular or skeletal system :-
(1) Myasthenia gravis - Auto immune disorder which inhibits sliding of
myosin filaments
(2) Muscular dystrophy - age related shortening or muscles.
(3) Gout - inflammation of joints due to extra deposition of calcium.
(4) Osteoporosis - decrease in bone mass and higher chance of fractures with
advancing age.
Ans: (4)
[NEET 2013]
Q1430. Three of the following pairs of the human skeletal parts are
correctly matched with their respective inclusive skeletal category
and one pair is not matched. Identify the non-matching pair. Pairs
of skeletal parts Category
(1) Humerus and Ulna Appendicular skeleton
(2) Sternum and Ribs Axial skeleton
(3) Malleus and Stapes Ear ossicles
(4) Clavicle and Glenoid Pelvic girdle cavity
Ans: (4)
[NEET 2013]
Q1431. Sensitive pigmented layer of eye is
(1) sclerotic
(2) cornea
(3) iris
(4) retina
Ans: (4)
[NEET 2013]
Q1432. Acute vision is present in
(1) bat
(2) vulture
(3) frog
(4) shark
Ans: (2)
[NEET Kar. 2013]
Q1433. During muscle contraction in humans the
(1) A band remain same
(2) Actin filaments shorten
(3) A, H and I bands shorten
(4) Sarcomere does not shorten
Ans: (1)
[NEET Kar. 2013]
Q1434. Select the correct statement with respect to disorders of
muscles in humans
(1) Accumulation of urea and creatine in the joints cause their inflammation
(2) Rapid contractions of skeletal muscles causes muscle dystrophy
(3) An overdose of vitamin D causes osteoporosis
(4) Failure of neuromuscular transmission in myasthenia gravis can prevent
normal swallowing
Ans: (4)
[1988]
Q1435. The H-zone in the skeletal muscle fibre is due to:
(1) Extension of myosin filaments in the central portion of the A-band.
(2) The central gap between myosin filaments in the A-band.
(3) The absence of myofibrils in the central portion of A-band.
(4) The central gap between actin filaments extending through myosin
filaments in the A-band
Ans: (4)
[1989]
Q1436. Afferent nerve fibres carry impulses from
(1) CNS to receptors
(2) effector organs to CNS
(3) CNS to muscles
(4) receptors to CNS
Ans: (4)
[1989]
Q1437. Vagus nerve is
(1) VII
(2) X
(3) V
(4) IX
Ans: (2)
[1990]
Q1438. Third ventricle of brain is also known as
(1) paracoel
(2) metacoel
(3) diacoel
(4) rhincoel
Ans: (3)
Q1439. One function of parasympathetic nervous system is
(1) acceleration of heart beat
(2) contraction of hair muscles
(3) constriction of pupil
(4) stimulation of sweat glands
Ans: (3)

Q1440. Which of the following cranial nerves can regulate heart

beat?
(1) VIII
(2) X
(3) VII
(4) IX
Ans: (2)

Q1441. Ivan Pavlov performed experiments on

(1) cardiac reflexes
(2) simple reflexes
(3) origin of life
(4) conditioned reflexes
Ans: (4)
[1992]
Q1442. Light rays entering the eye is controlled by
(1) cornea
(2) pupil
(3) lens
(4) iris
Ans: (2)
[1993]
Q1443. Retina is most sensitive at
(1) macula lutea
(2) optic disc
(3) fovea centralis
(4) periphery
Ans: (3)
[1993]
Q1444. Function of iris is to
(1) bring about movements of eye lids
(2) move lens forward and backward
(3) alter the size of pupil.
(4) refract light rays
Ans: (3)
Q1445. Iris is part of
(1) choroid and retina
(2) sclerotic
(3) sclerotic and choroid
(4) choroid/Uvea
Ans: (1)

Q1446. Cornea transplantation is outstandingly successful

because
(1) the technique involved is very simple
(2) cornea is easy to preserve
(3) cornea is easily available
(4) cornea is not linked up with blood vascular and immune systems
Ans: (4)
[1993]
Q1447. In humans, visceral organs are innervated by
(1) both sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves and are under conscious
control
(2) sympathetic nerves and are under conscious control
(3) both sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves but are not under conscious
control
(4) parasympathetic nerves and are under conscious control
Ans: (3)
[1994]
Q1448. The sympathetic nerves in mammals arise from
(1) thoraco-lumbar nerves
(2) sacral nerves
(3) 3rd, 7th, 9th and 10th cranial nerves
(4) cervical nerves
Ans: (1)
[1995]
Q1449. Respiratory centre is situated in
(1) hypothalamus
(2) cerebellum
(3) cerebrum
(4) medulla oblongata
Ans: (4)
[1996]
Q1450. CNS is mostly made of
(1) association neurons
(2) motor neurons and sensory neurons
(3) motor neurons and association neurons
(4) sensory neurons and association neurons
Ans: (1)
[1996]
Q1451. Suspensory ligament is part of
(1) tongue
(2) heart
(3) brain
(4) eye
Ans: (4)
[1997, 03]
Q1452. In vertebrates, simple reflex action is
(1) trisynaptic
(2) polysynaptic
(3) monosynaptic
(4) bisynaptic
Ans: (3)
[1997]
Q1453. Anesthetics reduce pain by blocking the transmission of
nerve impulses. The kind of chemicals working as anesthetics are
those that block
(1) only the neuro-transmitter receptors
(2) only the voltage-gated sodium channels in membranes
(3) voltage-gated sodium and potassium channels and neuro-transmitter
receptors
(4) only the voltage-gated potassium channels in membranes
Ans: (3)
[1998]
Q1454. In the chemistry of vision in mammals, the photosensitive
substance is called
(1) rhodopsin
(2) sclerotin
(3) melanin
(4) retinol
Ans: (1)
[1999]
Q1455. The Nissl’s granules of nerve cells are made up of
(1) DNA
(2) ribosomes
(3) mitochondria
(4) proteins
Ans: (2)
[1999]
Q1456. Which of the following statements is correct for ‘nodes of
Ranvier’ of nerve?
(1) Both neurilemma and myelin sheath are discontinuous
(2) Neurilemma is discontinuous
(3) Covered by myelin sheath
(4) Myelin sheath is discontinuous
Ans: (4)
[1999]
Q1457. Characteristic feature of human cornea
(1) Blood circulation is absent in cornea
(2) Secreted by conjunctiva and glandular
(3) In old age it becomes harden and white layer deposits on it which causes
cataract
(4) It is lacrimal gland which secretes tears
Ans: (1)
[2001]
Q1458. When we migrate from dark to light, we fail to see for
sometime but after a time visibility becomes normal. It is an
example of
(1) mutation
(2) accommodation
(3) photoperiodism
(4) adaptation
Ans: (4)
[2001]
Q1459. What is intensity of sound in normal conversation?
(1) 70—90 decibel
(2) 10—20 decibel
(3) 120—150 decibel
(4) 30—60 decibel
Ans: (4)
[2001]
Q1460. Neuroglia consist of cells found in the
(1) central nervous system and ganglia
(2) liver
(3) testes
(4) kidney
Ans: (1)
[2002]
Q1461. Four healthy people in their twenties got involved in
injuries resulting in damage and death of a few cells of the
following. Which of the cells are least likely to be replaced by new
cells?
(1) Malpighian layer of the skin
(2) Liver cells
(3) Osteocytes
(4) Neurons
Ans: (4)
 [2002]
Q1462. In the resting state of the neural membrane, diffusion due
to concentration gradients, if allowed, would drive
(1) Na+ into the cell
(2) K+ into the cell
(3) Na+ out of the cell
(4) K+ and Na+ out of the cell
Ans: (1)
[2003]
Q1463. Injury to vagus nerve in humans is not likely to affect
(1) pancreatic secretion
(2) tongue movements
(3) cardiac movements
(4) gastrointestinal movements
Ans: (2)
[2004]
Q1464. Ommatidia serve the purpose of photoreception in
(1) frog
(2) sunflower
(3) humans
(4) cockroach
Ans: (4)
[2004]
Q1465. In which animal nerve cell is present but brain is absent?
(1) Cockroach
(2) Sponge
(3) Hydra
(4) Earthworm
Ans: (3)
[2005]
Q1466. Which one of the following pairs of structures
distinguishes a nerve cell from other types of cells?
(1) Nucleus and mitochondria
(2) Vacuoles and fibres
(3) Perikaryon and dendrites.
(4) Flagellum and medullary sheath
Ans: (3)
[2005]
Q1467. Which of the following is an example of negative feedback
loop in humans?
(1) Secretion of sweat glands and constriction of skin blood vessels when it is
too hot
(2) Secretion of tears after falling of sand particles into the eye.
(3) Constriction of skin blood vessels and contraction of skeletal muscles
when it is too cold
(4) Salivation of mouth at the sight of delicious food
Ans: (3)
[2005]
Q1468. During the transmission of nerve impulse through a nerve
fibre, the potential on the inner side of the plasma membrane has
which type of electric change?
(1) First positive, then negative and again back to positive
(2) First positive, then negative and continue to be positive
(3) First negative, then positive and again back to negative.
(4) First negative, then positive and continue to be positive.
Ans: (3)
[2007]
Q1469. One of the examples of the action of the autonomous
nervous system is
(1) peristalsis of the intestine
(2) swallowing of food
(3) knee-jerk response
(4) pupillary reflex
Ans: (1)
[2007]
Q1470. In a man, abducens nerve is injured. Which one of the
following functions will be affected?
(1) Swallowing
(2) Movement of the eye ball
(3) Movement of the neck
(4) Movement of the tongue
Ans: (2)
[2007]
Q1471. Alzheimer disease in humans is associated with the
deficiency of:
(1) gamma aminobutyric acid (GABA)
(2) glutamic acid
(3) dopamine
(4) acetylcholine
Ans: (4)
[2008]
Q1472. Cornea transplant in humans is almost never rejected. This
is because
(1) it is composed of enucleated cells
(2) its cells are least penetrable by bacteria
(3) it is a non-living layer
(4) it has no blood supply
Ans: (4)
[2008]
Q1473. During the propagation of a nerve impulse, the action
potential results from the movement of:
(1) K+ ions from intracellular fluid to extracellular fluid
(2) K+ ions from extracellular fluid to intracellular fluid
(3) Na+ ions from extracellular fluid to intracellular fluid
(4) Na+ ions from intracellular fluid to extracellular fluid
Ans: (3)
[2008]
Q1474. Which one of the following is the correct difference
between Rod Cells and Cone Cells of our retina? Rod Cells Cone
Cells
(1) Overall: Vision in Colour function poor light vision and detailed vision in
bright light
(2) Visual: High Low acuity
(3) Distribu- More conc- Evenly tion: entrated in distributed retina all over
(4) Visual: Iodopsin Rhodpsin pigment contained
Ans: (1)
[2008]
Q1475. Given below is a diagrammatic cross section of a single
loop of human cochlea: A A B C D Which one of the following
options correctly represents the names of three different parts?
(1) D: Sensory hair cells, A: Endolymph, B: Tectorial membrane
(2) B: Tectorial membrane, C: Perilymph, D: Secretory cells
(3) A: Perilymph, B: Tectorial membrane, C: Endolymph
(4) C: Endolymph, D: Sensory hair cells, A: Serum
Ans: (3)
[2009]
Q1476. The human hind brain comprises three parts, one of which
is:
(1) Cerebellum
(2) Spinal cord
(3) Hypothalamus
(4) Corpus callosum
Ans: (1)
[2009]
Q1477. The purplish red pigment rhodopsin contained in the rods
type of photoreceptor cells of the human eye, is a derivative of:
(1) vitamin D
(2) vitamin B1
(3) vitamin A
(4) vitamin C
Ans: (2)
[2010]
Q1478. When a neuron is in resting state I not conducting any
impulse, the axonal membrane is:
(1) impermeable to both Na+ and K+ ions
(2) comparatively more permeable to Na+ ions and nearly impermeable to K+
ions
(3) comparatively more permeable to K+ ions and nearly impermeable to Na+
ions
(4) equally permeable to both Na+ and K+ ions
Ans: (3)
[2011]
Q1479. The nerve centres which control the body temperature and
the urge for eating are contained in:
(1) cerebellum
(2) hypothalamus
(3) thalamus
(4) pons
Ans: (2)
[2011]
Q1480. Which part of human brain is concerned with the regulation
of body temperature?
(1) Hypothalamus
(2) Cerebellum
(3) Medulla Oblongata
(4) Cerebrum
Ans: (1)
[2012]
Q1481.
Ans: (1)
[2012]
Q1482.
Ans: (3)
[2012]
Q1483. The most abundant intracellular cation is:
(1) K+
(2) Ca++
(3) Na+
(4) H+
Ans: (1)
[NEET 2013]
Q1484. A person entering an empty room suddenly finds a snake
right in front on opening the door. Which one of the following is
likely to happen in his neuro-hormonal control system?
(1) Hypothalamus activates the parasympathetic division of brain.
(2) Sympathetic nervous system is activated releasing epinephrin and
norepinephrin from adrenal medulla.
(3) Sympathetic nervous system is activated releasing epinephrin and
norepinephrin from adrenal cortex.
(4) Neurotransmitters diffuse rapidly across the cleft and transmit a nerve
impulse.
Ans: (2)
Q1485. Which part of the human ear plays no role in hearing as
such but is otherwise very much required?
(1) Vestibular apparatus
(2) Eustachian tube
(3) Ear ossicles
(4) Organ of corti
Ans: (1)

Q1486. Insulin is
(1) hormone
(2) vitamin
(3) enzyme
(4) lipid
Ans: (1)

Q1487. Addition of a trace of thyroxine or iodine in water

containing tadpoles will
(1) slow down their metamorphosis
(2) keep them in larval stage
(3) kill the tadpoles
(4) hasten their metamorphosis
Ans: (4)
[1988]
Q1488. Which hormone possesses anti-insulin effect?
(1) Oxytocin
(2) Cortisol
(3) Aldosterone
(4) Calcitonin
Ans: (2)
[1988]
Q1489. MSH of pars intermedia of middle pituitary is responsible
for
(1) noth A and B
(2) darkening of skin in lower vertebrates
(3) darkening of skin in human beings
(4) light colouration of skin in lower vertebrates
Ans: (2)
[1990]
Q1490.
Ans: (3)
[1990]
Q1491. Male hormone is produced in the testis by cells of
(1) spermatocytes
(2) sertoli
(3) leydig
(4) epithelial
Ans: (3)
[1991]
Q1492. Testosterone is produced by
(1) oxyntic cells
(2) sertoli cells
(3) pituitary gland
(4) leydig’s cells
Ans: (4)
[1991]
Q1493. Gastric secretion is stopped by hormone
(1) pancreozymin
(2) enterogastrone
(3) cholecystokinin
(4) gastrin
Ans: (2)
[1993]
Q1494. ADH or vasopressin is
(1) hormone that promotes glycogenolysis
(2) enzyme that hydrolyses peptides
(3) energy rich compound connected with muscle contraction.
(4) hormone secreted by pituitary that promotes reabsorption of water from
glomerular filtrate
Ans: (4)
[1993]
Q1495. Occurrence of Leydig’s cells and their secretion is
(1) pancreas and glucagon
(2) ovary and estrogen
(3) testes and testosterone
(4) liver and cholesterol
Ans: (3)
[1993]
Q1496. Nicotine acts as a stimulant, because it mimics the effect
of
(1) testosterone
(2) thyroxine
(3) dopamine
(4) acetylcholine
Ans: (4)
[1994]
Q1497. The mammalian corpus luteum produces
(1) luteotropic hormone
(2) estrogen
(3) luteinizing hormone
(4) progesterone
Ans: (4)
[1994]
Q1498. Ovulation occurs under the influence of
(1) estrogen
(2) LH
(3) progesterone
(4) FSH
Ans: (2)
 [1994]
Q1499. Function of enterogastrone is
(1) inhibition of gastric secretion
(2) regulation of bile flow
(3) stimulation of gastric secretion
(4) stimulation of pancreatic flow
Ans: (1)
[1995]
Q1500. Ovulation is stimulated by
(1) estrogen
(2) LH
(3) progesterone
(4) FSH
Ans: (2)
[1995]
Q1501. According to the “immunity theory” of ageing, the process
starts with the gradual atrophy and disappearance of
(1) thymus
(2) thyroid
(3) islets of Langerhans
(4) parthyroid
Ans: (1)
[1995]
Q1502. Which one of the following hormone stimulates the “let-
down” (release) of milk from the mother’s breasts when the baby is
sucking?
(1) Prolactin
(2) Progesterone
(3) Relaxin
(4) Oxytocin
Ans: (4)
[1995]
Q1503. Which of the following radioactive isotope is used in the
detection of thyroid cancer?
(1) Uranium-238
(2) Iodine-131
(3) Phosphorus-32
(4) Carbon-14
Ans: (2)
[1995, 02]
Q1504. According to the accepted concept of hormone action, if
receptor molecules are removed from target organs, then the target
organ will
(1) continue to respond to the hormone but in the opposite way
(2) not respond to the hormone
(3) continue to respond to the hormone but will require higher concentration
(4) continue to respond to hormone without any difference
Ans: (2)
[1996]
Q1505. Which of the following endocrine gland stores its secretion
in the extracellular space before discharging it into the blood?
(1) Testis
(2) Pancreas
(3) Thyroid
(4) Adrenal
Ans: (3)
[1996]
Q1506. Parathormone deficiency produces muscle ramps or tetany
as a result of
(1) enhanced blood glucose
(2) lowered blood Ca2+
(3) enhanced blood Ca2+
(4) enhanced blood Na+
Ans: (2)
[1996]
Q1507. The most important component of the oral contraceptive
pill is
(1) luteinizing hormone
(2) growth hormone
(3) progesterone
(4) thyroxine
Ans: (3)
[1997]
Q1508. Calcitonin is a thyroid hormone which
(1) has no effect on calcium
(2) lowers calcium level in blood
(3) elevates potassium level in blood
(4) elevates calcium level in blood
Ans: (2)
[1998]
Q1509. Hormones, thyroxine, adrenaline and the pigment melanin
are formed from
(1) tyrosine
(2) tryptophan
(3) proline
(4) glycine
Ans: (1)
[1998]
Q1510. In human adult females oxytocin
(1) stimulates pituitary to secrete vasopressin
(2) is secreted by anterior pituitary
(3) causes strong uterine contractions during parturition
(4) stimulates growth of mammary glands
Ans: (3)
[1999]
Q1511. The gland that regresses with age is
(1) thymus
(2) adrenal
(3) thyroid
(4) gonad
Ans: (1)
[1999]
Q1512. Insulin differs from growth hormone in that it
(1) increases mRNA/ribosome acitivity
(2) stimulates lipoprotein lipase in vicinity of fat cells
(3) stimulates hormone sensitive lipase in fat cells
(4) increases the transport of amino acids across the cell membranes of
muscles
Ans: (3)

Q1513. A candidate vaccine for male contraception is based on

(1) testosterone
(2) follicle stimulating hormone
(3) luteinizing hormone
(4) progesterone
Ans: (1)
[1999]
Q1514. The technique used for estimation of minute amounts of
hormones and drugs is called
(1) fractionation
(2) electrophoresis
(3) radioimmunoassay
(4) electroencephalogram
Ans: (3)

Q1515. Oxytocin helps in

(1) ovulation
(2) lactation
(3) implantation of the embryo
(4) child birth
Ans: (4)
[1999]
Q1516. Mainly which type of hormones control the menstrual
cycle in human beings?
(1) FSH, LH, estrogen
(2) FSH
(3) Progesteron
(4) LH
Ans: (1)
[2000]
Q1517. Melanin protects us from
(1) infrared rays
(2) U. V. rays
(3) X-rays
(4) visible rays
Ans: (2)
[2000]
Q1518. Progesterone, the component of the oral contraceptive pills,
prevents pregnancy by
(1) blocking ovulation
(2) preventing the cleavage of the fertilized egg
(3) creating unfavourable chemical environment for the sperms to survive in
the female reproductive tract
(4) preventing the formation of ova
Ans: (1)
[2000]
Q1519. Melanocyte stimulating hormone (MSH) is produced by
(1) anterior pituitary
(2) parathyroid
(3) posterior pituitary
(4) pars intermedia of pituitary
Ans: (4)
[2002]
Q1520. Melatonin is produced by
(1) pituitary
(2) thymus
(3) pineal gland
(4) skin
Ans: (3)
[2002]
Q1521. Which one of the following pairs correctly matches a
hormone with a disease resulting from its deficiency?
(1) Prolactin – Cretinism
(2) Insulin – Diabetes insipidus
(3) Parathyroid hormone – Tetany
(4) Relaxin – Gigantism
Ans: (3)
[2002]
Q1522. Which steroid is used for microbial transformation?
(1) Testosterone
(2) Cortisol
(3) Progesterone
(4) Cholesterol
Ans: (4)
[2002]
Q1523. Acromegaly is caused by
(1) deficiency of thyroxin
(2) excess of G.H.
(3) excess of adrenalin
(4) excess of thyroxin
Ans: (2)
[2002]
Q1524. Adrenaline directly affects on
(1) dorsal root of spinal cord
(2) S. A. node
(3) epithelial cells of stomach
(4) b-cells of Langerhans
Ans: (2)
[2002]
Q1525. When both ovaries are removed from rat then which
hormone is decreased in blood?
(1) Estrogen
(2) Oxytocin
(3) Gonadotropin releasing factor
(4) Prolactin
Ans: (1)
[2003]
Q1526. Parkinson’s disease (characterized by tremors and
progressive rigidity of limbs) is caused by degeneration of brain
neurons that are involved in movement control and make use of
neurotransmitter
(1) dopamine
(2) acetylcholine
(3) GABA
(4) norepinephrine
Ans: (1)
[2004]
Q1527. Which one of the following hormones is a modified amino
acid?
(1) Prostaglandin
(2) Epinephrine
(3) Estrogen
(4) Progesterone
Ans: (2)
[2004]
Q1528. Which of the following hormones is not a secretion product
of human placenta?
(1) Estrogen
(2) Human chorionic gonadotropin
(3) Progesterone
(4) Prolactin
Ans: (4)
[2004]
Q1529. Which one of the following pairs correctly matches a
hormone with a disease resulting from its deficiency?
(1) Thyroxine - Tetany
(2) Luteinizing - Failure of ovulation
(3) Parathyroid - Diabetes mellitus
(4) Insulin - Diabetes insipidus
Ans: (2)
[2004]
Q1530. Chemically hormones are
(1) proteins only
(2) biogenic amines only
(3) steroids only
(4) proteins, steroids and biogenic amines
Ans: (4)
[2005]
Q1531. Which of the following is an accumulation and release
centre of neurohormones?
(1) Anterior pituitary lobe
(2) Intermediate lobe of the pituitary
(3) Posterior pituitary lobe
(4) Hypothalamus
Ans: (3)
[2006]
Q1532. Which one of the following does not act as a
neurotransmitter?
(1) Cortisone
(2) Epinephrine
(3) Acetylcholine
(4) Norepinephrine
Ans: (1)

Q1533. Which one of the following is not a second messenger in

hormone action?
(1) cAMP
(2) Calcium
(3) cGMP
(4) Sodium
Ans: (4)
[2006]
Q1534. A steroid hormone which regulates glucose metabolism is
(1) cortisone
(2) corticosterone
(3) cortisol
(4) 11- deoxycorticosterone
Ans: (3)
[2006]
Q1535. Sertoli cells are regulated by the pituitary hormone known
as
(1) LH
(2) GH
(3) FSH
(4) Prolactin
Ans: (3)
[2006]
Q1536. Feeling the tremors of an earthquake a scared resident of
seventh floor of a multistored building starts climbing down the
stairs rapidly. Which hormone initiated this action?
(2) gastrin
(2) adrenaline
(3) thyroxine
(4) glucagon
Ans: (2)
[2006]
Q1537. A person is having problems with calcium and phosphorus
metabolism in his body. Which one of following glands may not be
functioning properly?
(1) Thyroid
(2) Parotid
(3) Parathyroid
(4) Pancreas
Ans: (3)
[2006]
Q1538. Which part of ovary in mammals acts as an endocrine
gland after ovulation?
(1) Vetelline membrane
(2) Stroma
(3) Graafian follicle.
(4) Germinal epithelium
Ans: (3)
[2007]
Q1539. Which one of the following statement is correct?
(1) Endocrine glands regulate neural activity, but not vice versa
(2) Endrocrine glands regulate neural activity, and nervous system regulates
endocrine glands
(3) Neurons regulate endocrine activity, but not vice versa
(4) Neither hormones control neural activity nor the neurons control
endocrine activity
Ans: (2)
[2007]
Q1540. Which hormone causes dilation of blood vessels, increased
oxygen consumption and glucogenesis?
(1) Glucagon
(2) Insulin
(3) ACTH
(4) Adrenaline
Ans: (4)
[2007]
Q1541. Low Ca ++ in the body fluid may be the cause of:
(1) angina pectoris
(2) tetany
(3) gout
(4) anaemia
Ans: (2)
[2008]
Q1542. Injury to adrenal cortex is not likely to affect the secretion
of which one of the following?
(1) Adrenaline
(2) Aldosterone
(3) Cortisol
(4) Both Androstenedione and Dehydroepiandrosterone
Ans: (1)
[2008]
Q1543. A health disorder that results from the deficiency of
thyroxine in adults and characterised by (i) a low metabolic rate,
(ii) increase in body weight and (iii) tendency to retain water in
tissues is:
(1) cretinism
(2) simple goitre
(3) hypothyroidism
(4) myxoedema
Ans: (4)
[2009]
Q1544. Which one of the following pairs of organs includes only
the endocrine glands?
(1) Thymus and Testes
(2) Parathyroid and Adrenal
(3) Adrenal and Ovary
(4) Pancreas and Parathyroid
Ans: (2)
[2010]
Q1545. The blood calcium level is lowered by the deficiency of
(1) both calcitonin and parathormone
(2) parathormone
(3) calcitonin
(4) thyroxine
Ans: (2)
[2010]
Q1546. The 24 hour (diurnal) rhythm of our body such as the
sleep-wake cycle is regulated by the hormone:
(1) adrenaline
(2) calcitonin
(3) melatonin
(4) prolactin
Ans: (3)
[2010]
Q1547.
Ans: (2)
[2010]
Q1548. Match the source gland with respective hormone as well as
the function correctly. Source gland – Hormone -- Function
(1) Corpus luteum -- Estrogen -- Supports pregnancy
(2) Anterior pituitary – Oxytocin -- Contraction of uterus muscles during
child birth
(3) Thyroid -- Thyroxine --Regulates blood calcium level
(4) Posterior pituitary – Vasopressin -- Stimulates reabsorption of water in
the distal tubules in the nephron
Ans: (4)
[2011]
Q1549. Toxic agents present in food which interfere with thyroxine
synthesis lead to the development of:
(1) simple goitre
(2) toxic goitre
(3) thyrotoxicosis
(4) cretinism
Ans: (1)

Q1550. Which one of the following pairs is incorrectly matched?

(1) Corpus luteum - Relaxin (secretion)
(2) Glucagon - Beta cells (source)
(3) Insulin - Diabetes mellitus (disease)
(4) Somatostatin - Delta cells (source)
Ans: (2)
[2011M]
Q1551. A pregnant female deliver a baby who suffers from stunted
growth, mental retardation/low intelligence quotient and abnormal
skin. This is the result of:
(1) Over secretion of pars distalis
(2) Low secretion of growth hormone
(3) Deficiency of iodine in diet
(4) Cancer of the thyroid gland
Ans: (3)
[2012]
Q1552. Which of the following statements is correct in relation to
the endocrine system?
(1) Releasing and inhibitory hormones are produced by the pituitary gland.
(2) Organs in the body like gastrointestinal tract, heart, kidney and liver do
not produce any hormones.
(3) Adenohypophysis is under direct neural regulation of the hypothalamus.
(4) Non-nutrient chemicals produced by the body in trace amount that act as
intercellular messenger are known as hormones.
Ans: (4)
[2012]
Q1553. F2 generation in a Mendelian cross showed that both
genotypic and phenotypic ratios are same as 1: 2: 1. It represents a
case of:
(1) Monohybrid cross with complete dominance
(2) Co-dominance
(3) Monohybrid cross with incomplete dominance
(4) Dihybrid cross
Ans: (3)
[2012]
Q1554. What is correct to say about the hormone action in
humans
(1) In females FSH first binds with specific receptors on ovarian cell
membrane
(2) Glucagon is secreted by β-cells of islets of Langerhans and stimulates
glycogenolysis
(3) FSH stimulates the secretion of estrogen and progesterone
(4) Secretion of thymosins is stimulated with ageing
Ans: (1)
[NEET 2013]
Q1555. Which one of the following pairs of hormones are the
examples of those that can easily pass through the cell membrane
of the target cell and bind to a receptor inside it (Mostly in the
nucleus)
(1) Somatostain, oxytocin
(2) Insulin, glucagon
(3) Cortisol, testosterone
(4) Thyroxin, insulin
Ans: (3)
[NEET 2013]
Q1556. During cleavage, what is true about cells?
(1) There is less consumption of oxygen
(2) Nucleocytoplasmic ratio remains unchanged
(3) The division is like meiosis
(4) Size does not increase
Ans: (4)
Q1557. Cells become variable in morphology and function in
different regions of the embryo. The process is
(1) organisation
(2) differentiation
(3) rearrangement
(4) metamorphosis
Ans: (2)
[NEET Kar. 2013]
Q1558. Norepinephrine: (1) Is released by sympathetic fibres (2)
Is released by parasympathetic fibres (3) Increases the heart rate (4)
Decreases blood pressure Which of the above said statements are
correct?
(1) (2) and (1)
(2) (2) and (4)
(3) (2) and (3)
(4) (1) and (3)
Ans: (4)
[NEET Kar. 2013]
Q1559. Which of the following represents the action of insulin?
(1) Decreases blood glucose levels of forming glycogen
(2) Increases blood glucose levels by hydrolysis of glycogen
(3) Increases blood glucose level by promoting cellular uptake of glucose
(4) Increases blood glucose levels by stimulating glucagon production
Ans: (1)
[1989]
Q1560.
Ans: (4)
[1991]
Q1561. In telolecithal egg the yolk is found
(1) both the sides
(2) all over the egg
(3) centre
(4) on one side
Ans: (4)
[1992]
Q1562. Termination of gastrulation is indicated by
(1) closure of blastopore
(2) obliteration of blastocoel
(3) closure of neural tube
(4) obliteration of archenteron
Ans: (2)
[1992]
Q1563. Blastopore is
(1) future anterior end of embryo
(2) opening of neural tube
(3) found in blastula
(4) opening of gastrocoel
Ans: (4)
[1992]
Q1564. Eye lens is formed from
(1) endoderm
(2) ectoderm
(3) ectoderm and mesoderm
(4) mesoderm
Ans: (2)
Q1565. Meroblastic cleavage is division
(1) total
(2) horizontal
(3) spiral
(4) partial/parietal
Ans: (4)
[1993]
Q1566. Which of the following processes is associated with a
change in the cellular DNA amount?
(1) Fertilization
(2) Spore germination
(3) Blastulation
(4) Cytokinesis
Ans: (1)
[1993]
Q1567. The correct sequence in the process of development of
human embryo is
(1) fertilization—zygote—blastula— morula—cleavage—gastrula
(2) fertilization—zygote—cleavage— morula—blastula—gastrula
(3) cleavage—zygote—fertilization— morula—blastula—gastrula
(4) fertilization—cleavage—morula— zygote—blastula—gastrula
Ans: (2)
[1994]
Q1568. In an egg, the type of cleavage is determined by
(1) amount and distribution of yolk
(2) shape and size of the sperm
(3) number of egg membranes
(4) size and location of the nucleus
Ans: (1)
[1995]
Q1569. What is true about cleavage in fertilized egg of humans?
(1) Starts in fallopian tube
(2) Meroblastic
(3) It is identical to normal mitosis
(4) Starts when egg reaches uterus
Ans: (1)
[1998]
Q1570. Amount of yolk and its distribution are changed in the egg.
Which one is affected?
(1) Number of blastomeres
(2) Pattern of cleavage
(3) Fertilization
(4) Formation of zygote
Ans: (2)
[1999]
Q1571. Vegetative propagation in mint occurs by:
(1) sucker
(2) offset
(3) runner
(4) rhizome
Ans: (1)
[1999]
Q1572. What is true for cleavage?
(1) Size of cells increase
(2) Size of embryo increases
(3) Size of embryo decreases
(4) Size of cells decrease
Ans: (4)
[2000]
Q1573. During regeneration, modification of an organ to other
organ is known as
(1) Morphallaxis
(2) Morphogenesis
(3) Accretionary growth
(4) Epimorphosis
Ans: (4)
[2001]
Q1574. Blastopore is the opening of
(1) blastocoel
(2) coelenteron
(3) archenteron
(4) coelom
Ans: (3)
[2002]
Q1575. Exponential growth of cells is a characteristic feature of
(1) unicellular organisms
(2) tissue culture cells
(3) embryo
(4) multicellular organisms
Ans: (3)
[2009]
Q1576. Monoecious plant of Chara shows occurrence of:
(1) upper oogonium and lower antheridium on the same plant
(2) stamen and carpel of the same plant
(3) antheridiophore and archegoniophore on the same plant
(4) upper antheridium and lower oogonium on the same plant
Ans: (1)
[2011]
Q1577. Select the wrong statement:
(1) Chalmydomonas exhibits both isogamy and anisogamy and Fucus shows
oogamy.
(2) Anisogametes differ either in structure, function or behaviour.
(3) Isogametes are similar in structure, function and behaviour.
(4) In Oomycetes female gamete is smaller and motile, while male gamete is
larger and non-motile.
Ans: (4)
[2011M]
Q1578. Which one of the following is correctly matched
(1) Chlamydomonas - Conidia
(2) Onion - Bulb
(3) Yeast - Zoospores
(4) Ginger - Sucker
Ans: (2)
[2012]
Q1579. What is common between vegetative reproduction and
apomixis?
(1) Both occur round the year
(2) Both are applicable to only dicot plants
(3) Both produces progeny identical to the parent
(4) Both bypass the flowering phase
Ans: (3)
[NEET 2013]
Q1580. The “Eyes” of the potato tuber are
(1) shoot buds
(2) root buds
(3) axillary buds
(4) flower buds
Ans: (3)
[NEET 2013]
Q1581. Male gametophyte of angiosperms is shed as
(1) microspore mother cell
(2) four celled pollen grain
(3) anther
(4) three celled pollen grain
Ans: (4)
[NEET 2013]
Q1582. Parthenogenesis is
(1) development of fruit without hormones
(2) development of embryo without fertilization
(3) development of embryo from egg without fertilization
(4) d eve l o p m e n t o f f r u i t w i t h o u t fertilization
Ans: (3)
[NEET Kar. 2013]
Q1583. Formation of gametophyte directly from sporophyte
without meiosis is
(1) Parthenogenesis
(2) Apospory
(3) Amphimixis
(4) Apogamy
Ans: (2)
[1988]
Q1584. Syngamy can occur outside the body of the organism in
(1) Algae
(2) Fungi
(3) Ferns
(4) Mosses
Ans: (1)
[1988]
Q1585. Meiosis takes place in:
(1) Megaspore
(2) Conidia
(3) Meiocyte
(4) Gemmule
Ans: (3)
[1988]
Q1586. Generative cell was destroyed by laser but a normal pollen
tube was still formed because
(1) laser beam stimulates growth of pollen tube
(2) vegetative cell is not damaged
(3) the region of emergence of pollen tube is not harmed
(4) contents of killed generative cell stimulate pollen growth
Ans: (2)
[1988]
Q1587. Nucellar embryo is
(1) Apomictic haploid
(2) Amphimictic haploid
(3) Apomictic diploid
(4) Amphimictic diploid
Ans: (3)
[1988, 93]
Q1588. Development of an organism from female gamete/egg
without involving fertilization is
(1) Parthenocarpy
(2) Adventitive embryony
(3) Parthenogenesis
(4) Polyembryony
Ans: (3)
[1989]
Q1589. Double fertilization and triple fusion were discovered by
(1) Leeuwenhoek
(2) Hofmeister
(3) Strasburger
(4) Nawaschin and Guignard
Ans: (4)
[1989]
Q1590. Total number of meiotic division required for forming 100
zygotes/100 grains of wheat is
(1) 125
(2) 100
(3) 50
(4) 75
Ans: (1)
Q1591. Female gametophyte of angiosperms is represented by
(1) Embryo sac
(2) Ovule
(3) Nucellus
(4) Megaspore mother cell
Ans: (1)
[1989]
Q1592. Male gametophyte of angiosperms/monocots is
(1) Microspore
(2) Microsporangium
(3) Stamen
(4) Nucellus
Ans: (1)
[1989, 2004]
Q1593. Which ones produces androgenic haploids in anther
cultures?
(1) Connective tissue
(2) Anther wall
(3) Young pollen grains
(4) Tapetal layer of anther wall
Ans: (3)
[1990]
Q1594. A diploid female plant and a tetraploid male plant are
crossed. The ploidy of endosperm shall be
(1) diploid
(2) tetraploid
(3) pentaploid
(4) triploid
Ans: (2)
 [1990]
Q1595. Which is correct?
(1) Gametes are generally haploid
(2) Gametes are invariably haploid
(3) Both spores and gametes are invariably haploid
(4) Spores are invariably haploid
Ans: (2)
[1990]
Q1596. Embryo sac occurs in
(1) Ovule
(2) Embryo
(3) Endosperm
(4) Axis part of embryo
Ans: (1)
[1990]
Q1597. Pollination occurs in
(1) Angiosperms and gymnosperms
(2) Bryophytes and angiosperms
(3) Angiosperms and fungi
(4) Pteridophytes and angiosperms
Ans: (1)
[1990]
Q1598. Cellular totipotency was demonstrated by
(1) F.C. Steward
(2) Theodore Schwann
(3) Robert Hooke
(4) A.V. Leeuwenhoek
Ans: (1)
[1991]
Q1599. Entry of pollen tube through micropyle is
(1) Porogamy
(2) Chalazogamy
(3) Pseudogamy
(4) Mesogamy
Ans: (1)
 [1991]
Q1600. Sperm and egg nuclei fuse due to
(1) mutual attraction
(2) base pairing of their DNA and RNA
(3) attraction of their protoplasts
(4) formation of hydrogen bonds
Ans: (3)
[1991]
Q1601. Meiosis is best observed in dividing
(1) microspores and anther wall
(2) cells of apical meristem
(3) microsporocytes
(4) cells of lateral meristem
Ans: (3)
[1991]
Q1602. Double fertilization is fusion of
(1) one male gamete with egg and other with synergid
(2) two eggs
(3) one male gamete with egg and other with secondary nucleus
(4) two eggs and polar nuclei with pollen nuclei
Ans: (3)
[1991]
Q1603. Syngamy means
(1) fusion of two similar spores
(2) fusion of gametes
(3) fusion of two dissimilar spores
(4) fusion of cytoplasms
Ans: (2)
[1991]
Q1604. Point out the odd one?
(1) Micropyle
(2) Nucellus
(3) Pollen grain
(4) Embryo sac
Ans: (3)
 [1991]
Q1605. Which of the following pair has haploid structures?
(1) Antipodal cells and megaspore mother cell
(2) Nucellus and antipodal cells
(3) Nucellus and primary endosperm nucleus
(4) Antipodal cells and egg cell
Ans: (4)
[1992]
Q1606. Double fertilization is characteristic of
(1) Gymnosperms
(2) Angiosperms
(3) Bryophytes
(4) Pteridophytes
Ans: (2)
[1993]
Q1607. Ovule is straight with funiculus, embryo sac, chalaza and
micropyle lying on one straight line. It is
(1) Campylotropous
(2) Orthotropous
(3) Amphitropous
(4) Anatropous
Ans: (2)
[1993]
Q1608. Study of formation, growth and development of new
individual from an egg is
(1) Embryogeny
(2) Apomixis
(3) Cytology
(4) Embryology
Ans: (4)
[1993]
Q1609. Which of the following plant cells will show totipotency?
(1) Meristem
(2) Sieve tubes
(3) Cork cells
(4) Xylem vessels
Ans: (1)
[1993]
Q1610. A population of genetically identical individuals, obtained
from asexual reproduction is
(1) Deme
(2) Callus
(3) Aggregate
(4) Clone
Ans: (4)
[1993]
Q1611. Fertilization involving carrying of male gametes by pollen
tube is
(1) Chalazogamy
(2) Porogamy
(3) Syngonogamy
(4) Siphonogamy
Ans: (4)
[1993]
Q1612. Transfer of pollen to the stigma of another flower of the
same plant is
(1) Xenogamy
(2) Autogamy
(3) Geitonogamy
(4) Allogamy
Ans: (3)
[1994]
Q1613. Chief pollinators of agricultural crops are
(1) moths
(2) butterflies
(3) beetles
(4) bees
Ans: (4)
[1994]
Q1614. Haploid plant cultures are got from
(1) pollen grain
(2) leaves
(3) buds
(4) root tip
Ans: (1)
[1994]
Q1615. Number of meiotic divisions required to produce 200/400
seeds of Pea would be
(1) 300/600
(2) 200/400
(3) 250/500
(4) 400/800
Ans: (3)
[1994]
Q1616. How many pollen grains will be formed after meiotic
division in ten microspore mother cells?
(1) 40
(2) 10
(3) 80
(4) 20
Ans: (1)
[1994]
Q1617. Reproducing new plants by cells instead of seeds is known
as
(1) antibiotics
(2) mutation
(3) biofertilizer
(4) tissue culture
Ans: (4)
[1995]
Q1618.
Ans: (2)

Q1619. In an angiosperm, how many microspore mother cells are

required to produce 100 pollen grains
(1) 75
(2) 25
(3) 100 36 The polyembryony commonly occurs in
(4) 50
Ans: (2)
[1995]
Q1620. One of the most resistant biological material is
(1) lignocellulose
(2) lignin
(3) sporopollenin
(4) hemicellulose
Ans: (3)
[1996]
Q1621. Double fertilisation leading to initiation of endosperm in
Angiosperms require
(1) fusion of four or more polar nuclei and the second male gamete only
(2) fusion of one polar nucleus and the second male gamete only
(3) all the above kinds of fusion in different angiosperms
(4) fusion of two polar nuclei and the second male gamete
Ans: (4)
[1996]
Q1622. Flowers showing ornithophily show few characteristic
like
(1) b r i g h t r e d f l o w e r i n t o t h i c k inflorescence
(2) blue flower with nectaries at base of corolla
(3) white flowers with fragrance
(4) red sweet scented flower with nectaries
Ans: (2)
[1997]
Q1623. The endosperm of gymnosperm is
(1) diploid
(2) triploid
(3) polyploid
(4) haploid
Ans: (4)
 [1999]
Q1624. If an angiospermic male plant is diploid and female plant
tetraploid, the ploidy level of endosperm will be
(1) tetraploid
(2) haploid
(3) pentaploid
(4) triploid
Ans: (3)
[1999]
Q1625. In angiosperms, triple fusion is required for the formation
of
(1) seed coat
(2) embryo
(3) fruit wall
(4) endosperm
Ans: (4)
[2000]
Q1626. What is the direction of micropyle in anatropous ovule?
(1) right
(2) upward
(3) left
(4) downward
Ans: (4)
[2000]
Q1627. In angiosperms pollen tubes liberate their male gametes
into the
(1) egg cell
(2) central cell
(3) synergids
(4) antipodal cell
Ans: (3)
[2001]
Q1628. Adventive polyembryony in citrus is due to
(1) zygotic embryo
(2) nucellus
(3) fertilised egg
(4) integuments
Ans: (2)
[2001, 05]
Q1629. Anemophily type of pollination is found in
(1) Vallisneria
(2) Salvia
(3) Coconut
(4) Bottle brush
Ans: (3)
[2002]
Q1630. Eight nucleate embryo sacs are
(1) always bisporic
(2) always tetrasporic
(3) sometime monosporic, sometimes bisporic and sometimes tetrasporic
(4) always monosporic
Ans: (4)
[2002]
Q1631.
Ans: (4)
[2002]
Q1632. An ovule which becomes curved so that the nucellus and
embryo sac lie at right angles to the funicle is
(1) Anatropous
(2) Hemitropous
(3) Orthotropous
(4) Campylotropous
Ans: (2)
[2002]
Q1633. In a flowering plant, archesporium gives rise to
(1) both wall and the sporogenous cells
(2) only tapetum and sporogenous cells
(3) wall and the tapetum
(4) only the wall of the sporangium
Ans: (1)
 [2003]
Q1634. In angiosperms all the four microspores of tetrad are
covered by a layer which is formed by
(1) cellulose
(2) pectocellulose
(3) sporopollenin
(4) callose
Ans: (3)
[2004]
Q1635. Which type of association is found in between
entomophilous flower and pollinating agent
(1) cooperation
(2) mutualism
(3) co-evolution
(4) commensalism
Ans: (2)

Q1636.
Ans: (3)

Q1637.
Ans: (4)
Q1638.
Ans: (2)

Q1639.
Ans: (2)
Q1640.
Ans: (1)

Q1641.
Ans: (3)
Q1642.
Ans: (2)
Q1643.
Ans: (3)
Q1644.
Ans: (2)

Q1645.
Ans: (2)
Q1646.
Ans: (2)

Q1647.
Ans: (2)
Q1648.
Ans: (2)

Q1649.
Ans: (4)

Q1650.
Ans: (1)
Q1651. Apomictic embryos in citrus arise from
(1) Antipodal cells
(2) Synergids
(3) Diploid egg
(4) Maternal sporophytic tissue in ovule
Ans: (4)
[2008]
Q1652. An example of a seed with endosperm, perisperm, and
caruncle is
(1) castor
(2) coffee
(3) cotton
(4) lily
Ans: (1)
 [2009]
Q1653. Cotyledons and testa respectively are edible parts in
(1) cashew nut and litchi
(2) walnut and tamarind
(3) groundnut and pomegranate
(4) french bean and coconut
Ans: (3)
[2009]
Q1654. A fruit developed from hypanthodium inflorescence is
called
(1) Caryopsis
(2) Sorosis
(3) Hasperidium
(4) Syconus
Ans: (4)
[2009]
Q1655. The fruit is chambered, developed from inferior ovary and
has seeds with succulent testa in
(1) guava
(2) pomegranate
(3) cucumber
(4) orange
Ans: (2)
[2010]
Q1656. Nucellar polyembryony is reported in species of
(1) Triticum
(2) Citrus
(3) Brassica
(4) Gossypium
Ans: (2)
[2010]
Q1657. Filiform apparatus is a characteristic feature of
(1) synergid
(2) suspensor
(3) zygote
(4) egg
Ans: (1)
[2010]
Q1658. Wind pollinated flowers are
(1) large producing abundant nectar and pollen
(2) small, brightly coloured, producing large number of pollen grains
(3) small, producing nectar and dry pollen
(4) small, producing large number of dry pollen grains
Ans: (4)
[2010]
Q1659. The scutellum observed in a grain of wheat or maize is
comparable to which part of the seed in other monocotyledons?
(1) Aleurone layer
(2) Cotyledon
(3) Plumule
(4) Endosperm
Ans: (2)
[2011]
Q1660. Transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of
another flower of the same plant is called
(1) Karyogamy
(2) Xenogamy
(3) Autogamy
(4) Geitonogamy
Ans: (4)
[2011]
Q1661. An organic substance that can withstand environmental
extremes and cannot be degraded by any enzyme is:
(1) Lignin
(2) Cuticle
(3) Cellulose
(4) Sporopollenin
Ans: (4)
[2011]
Q1662. Both, autogamy and geitonogamy are prevented in -
(1) Castor
(2) Papaya
(3) Maize
(4) Cucumber
Ans: (2)
[2011]
Q1663. A drupe develops in
(1) pea
(2) mango
(3) tomato
(4) wheat
Ans: (2)
[2011]
Q1664. Wind pollination is common in
(1) grasses
(2) legumes
(3) orchids
(4) lilies
Ans: (1)
[2012]
Q1665. In which one of the following pollination is autogamous?
(1) Chasmogamy
(2) Geitonogamy
(3) Cleistogamy
(4) Xenogamy
Ans: (3)
[2012]
Q1666. Perisperm differs from endosperm in;
(1) its formatting by fusion of secondary nucleus with several sperms
(2) having no reserve food
(3) being a haploid tissue
(4) being a diploid tissue
Ans: (4)
[2012]
Q1667. Plants with ovaries having only one or a few ovules, are
generally pollinated by
(1) birds
(2) bees
(3) wind
(4) butterflies
Ans: (3)
[2012M]
Q1668. Which one of the following statements is wrong?
(1) Pollen grains in some plants remain viable for months.
(2) When pollen is shed at two-celled stage, double fertilization does not take
place.
(3) Intine is made up of cellulose and - pectin.
(4) Vegetative cell is larger than generative cell.
Ans: (2)
[2012M]
Q1669. What is the function of germ pore?
(1) Initiation of pollen tube
(2) Emergence of radicle
(3) Release of male gametes
(4) Absorption of water for seed germination
Ans: (1)
[2012M]
Q1670. Even in absence of pollinating agents seed setting is
assured in
(1) Salvia
(2) Commellina
(3) Fig
(4) Zostera
Ans: (2)
[NEET 2013]
Q1671. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(1) Tapetum nourishes the developing pollen
(2) Sporogenous tissue is haploid
(3) Hard outer layer of pollen is called intine
(4) Endothecium produces the microspores
Ans: (1)
[NEET 2013]
Q1672. Product of sexual reproduction generally generates:
(1) Large biomass
(2) Prologned dormancy
(3) Longer viability of seeds
(4) New genetic combination leading to variation
Ans: (4)
[NEET 2013]
Q1673. Advantage of cleistogamy is:
(1) Vivipary
(2) More vigorous offspring
(3) Higher genetic variability
(4) No dependence of pollinators
Ans: (4)
[NEET 2013]
Q1674. Seed coat is not thin, membranous in:
(1) Gram
(2) Coconut
(3) Maize
(4) Groundnut
Ans: (2)
[NEET 2013]
Q1675. Megasporangium is equivalent to:
(1) Ovule
(2) Fruit
(3) Embryo sac
(4) Nucellus
Ans: (1)
[NEET 2013]
Q1676. Which of the following statements is correct?
(1) Sporopollenin is made up of inorganic materials
(2) Sporopollenin can withstand high temperatures but not strong acids
(3) Sporopollenin can withstand high temperatures as well as strong acids and
alkalis
(4) Sporopollenin can be degraded by enzymes
Ans: (3)
[NEET Kar. 2013]
Q1677. Animal vectors are required for pollination in
(1) Mulberry
(2) Maize
(3) Cucumber
(4) Vallisneria
Ans: (3)
[NEET Kar. 2013]
Q1678. Megaspores are produced from the megaspore mother cells
after
(1) Formation of a thick wall
(2) Meiotic division
(3) Differentiation
(4) Mitotic division
Ans: (2)
[NEET Kar. 2013]
Q1679. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(1) Xenogamy occurs only by wind pollination
(2) Geitonogamy involves the pollen and stigma of flowers of different plants
(3) Chasmogamous flowers do not open at all
(4) Cleistogamous flowers are always autogamous
Ans: (4)
[NEET Kar. 2013]
Q1680. The viability of seeds is tested by
(1) 2, 3, 5 triphenyl tetrazolium chloride
(2) Safranine
(3) DMSO
(4) 2, 6 dichlorophenol indophenols
Ans: (1)
[NEET Kar. 2013]
Q1681. Amniocentesis is a technique
(1) in which the sex of the foetus can be reversed
(2) by which the essential amino acids in the body can be estimated
(3) that can be used for correcting genetic disorders of the foetus
(4) by which any chromosomal anomalies in the foetus can be detected
Ans: (4)
[NEET Kar. 2013]
Q1682. Test tube baby is one who
(1) is born out of the technique of fertilization in vitro
(2) is born out of artificial insemination
(3) h a s b e e n d e v e l o p e d w i t h o u t fertilization
(4) has undergone development in a test tube
Ans: (1)
[NEET Kar. 2013]
Q1683. The estrous cycle is a characteristic of
(1) mammalian males other than primates
(2) human males only
(3) mammalian females other than primates
(4) human females only
Ans: (3)
[1995]
Q1684. Which of the following statements is not true about somatic
embryogenesis?
(1) Somatic embryos can develop from microspores
(2) A somatic embryo develops from a somatic cell
(3) Somatic embryo is induced usually by an auxin such as 2, 4-D
(4) The pattern of development of a somatic embryo is comparable to that of
a zygotic embryo
Ans: (1)
[1996, 2003]
Q1685. Albuminous seeds store their reserve food mainly in
(1) Cotyledons
(2) Perisperm
(3) Hypocotyl
(4) Endosperm
Ans: (4)
[1997]
Q1686. During embryonic development, the establishment of
polarity along anterior/ posterior, dorsal/ventral or medial/lateral
axis is called
(1) axis formation
(2) pattern formation
(3) anamorphosis
(4) organizer phenomena
Ans: (4)
[1999]
Q1687. Cleavage in mammalian egg is
(1) unequal holoblastic
(2) superficial meroblastic
(3) equal holoblastic
(4) discoidal meroblastic
Ans: (1)

Q1688. Exponential growth of cells is a characteristic feature of

(1) unicellular organisms
(2) tissue culture cells
(3) embryo
(4) multicellular organisms
Ans: (3)
[1999]
Q1689. The growth of corpus luteum is initiated by
(1) Luteinizing hormone
(2) Human chorionic gonadotropin
(3) Prolactin
(4) Follicle stimulating hormone
Ans: (1)
[2000]
Q1690. After ovulation the collapsed ovarian follicle shrinks and
becomes filled with cell to form
(1) corpus atresia
(2) corpus luteum
(3) corpus adiposum
(4) corpus albicans
Ans: (2)
 [2003]
Q1691. In humans, at the end of the first meiotic division, the male
germ cells differentiate into the
(1) spermatids
(2) primary spermatocytes
(3) spermatozonia
(4) secondary spermatocytes
Ans: (4)
[2005]
Q1692. In the human female, menstruation can be deferred by the
administration of
(1) FSH only
(2) combination of FSH and LH
(3) LH only
(4) c o m b i n a t i o n o f e s t r o g e n a n d progesterone
Ans: (4)
[2005]
Q1693. Withdrawal of which of the following hormones is the
immediate cause of menstruation?
(1) Progesterone
(2) FSH
(3) Estrogen
(4) FSH-RH
Ans: (1)
[2006]
Q1694. Grey crescent is the area
(1) at the animal pole
(2) at the point of entry of sperm into ovum
(3) at the vegetal pole
(4) just opposite to the site of entry of sperm into ovum
Ans: (4)
[2007]
Q1695. If mammalian ovum fails to get fertilized, which one of the
following is unlikely?
(1) Estrogen secretion further decreases
(2) Corpus luteum will disintegrate
(3) Primary follicle starts developing
(4) Progesterone secretion rapidly declines
Ans: (1)

Q1696.
Ans: (2)
[2008]
Q1697. Seminal plasma in humans is rich in
(1) fructose and certain enzymes but poor in calcium
(2) fructose and calcium but has no enzymes
(3) fructose, calcium and certain enzymes
(4) glucose and certain enzymes but has no calcium ‘
Ans: (1)
[2008]
Q1698. Which one of the following is the correct matching of the
events occurring during menstrual cycle?
(1) M e n s t r u a t i o n: B r e a k d o w n o f myometrium and ovum not
fertilised.
(2) Proliferative phase: Rapid regeneration of myometrium and maturation of
Graffian follicle.
(3) Ovulation: LH and FSH attain peak level and sharp fall in the secretion of
progesterone.
(4) Development of corpus luteum: Secretory phase and increased secretion
of progesterone.
Ans: (4)
[2009]
Q1699. Which one of the following statements is incorrect about
menstruation?
(1) At menopause in the female, there is especially abrupt increase in
gonadotropic hormones
(2) During normal menstruation about 40 ml blood is lost
(3) The beginning of the cycle of menstruation is called menarche
(4) The menstrual fluid can easily clot
Ans: (4)
[2009]
Q1700. Which extra-embryonic membrane in humans prevents
desiccation of the embryo inside the uterus?
(1) Yolk sac
(2) Chorion
(3) Amnion
(4) Allantois
Ans: (3)
Q1701. In vitro fertilisation is a technique that involves transfer of
which one of the following into the fallopian tube?
(1) Embryo of 32 cell stage
(2) Embryo only, upto 8 cell stage
(3) Zygote only
(4) Either zygote or early embryo upto 8 cell stage
Ans: (2)
[2009]
Q1702. A change in the amount of yolk and its distribution in the
egg will affect
(1) fertilization
(2) pattern of cleavage
(3) formation of zygote
(4) number of blastomeres produced
Ans: (2)
[2009]
Q1703. Which one of the following is the most likely root cause
why menstruation is not taking place in regularly cycling human
female?
(1) retention of well -developed corpus luteum
(2) maintenance of the hypertrophical endometrial lining
(3) fertilisation of the ovum
(4) maintenance of high concentration of sex hormones in the blood stream
Ans: (3)
[2009]
Q1704. The correct sequence of spermatogenetic stages leading to
the formation of sperms in a mature human testes is:
(1). spermatogonia - spermatid - spermatocyte - sperms
(2) spermatogonia - spermatocyte - spermatid -sperms
(3) spermatocyte - spermatogonia - spermatid - sperms
(4) spermatid - spermatocyte - spermatogonia - sperms
Ans: (2)
[2009]
Q1705. Foetal ejection reflex in human female is induced by
(1) differentiation of mammary glands
(2) release oxytocin from pituitary
(3) pressure exerted by amniotic fluid
(4) fully developed foetus and placenta
Ans: (4)
[2010]
Q1706. The signals for parturition originate from
(1) oxytocin released from maternal pituitary
(2) placenta only
(3) fully developed foetus only
(4) placenta as well as fully developed foetus
Ans: (4)
[2010]
Q1707. The permissible use of the technique amniocentesis is for
(1) transfer of embryo into the uterus of the surrogate mother
(2) detecting sex of the unborn foetus
(3) detecting any genetic abnormality
(4) artificial insemination
Ans: (3)
Q1708. Seminal plasma in human males is rich in:
(1) DNA and testosterone
(2) fructose and calcium
(3) ribose and potassium
(4) glucose and calcium
Ans: (2)

Q1709. Vasa efferentia are the ductules leading from

(1) vas deferens to epididymis
(2) testicular lobules to rete testis
(3) epididymis to urethra
(4) rete testis to vas deferens
Ans: (4)
[2010]
Q1710. Sertoli cells are found in
(1) seminiferous tubules and provide nutrition to germ cells
(2) ovaries and secrete progesterone
(3) pancreas and secrete cholecystokinin
(4) adrenal cortex and secrete adrenaline
Ans: (1)
[2010]
Q1711. The part of fallopian tube closest to the ovary is
(1) cervix
(2) isthmus
(3) ampulla
(4) infundibulum
Ans: (4)
[2010]
Q1712. Which one of the following statements about morula in
humans is correct?
(1) It has more or less equal quantity of cytoplasm and DNA as in uncleaved
zygote
(2) It has almost equal quantity of cytoplasm as an uncleaved zygote but
much more DNA
(3) It has more cytoplasm and more DNA than an uncleaved zygote
(4) It has far less cytoplasm as well as less DNA than in an uncleaved zygote
Ans: (2)
[2010]
Q1713. Which one of the following statements about human sperm
is correct?
(1) Acrosome serves as a sensory structure leading the sperm towards the
ovum
(2) Acrosome has a conical pointed structure used for piercing and
penetrating the egg, resulting in fertilisation
(3) Acrosome serves no particular function
(4) The sperm lysins in the acrosome dissolve the egg envelope facilitating
fertilisation
Ans: (4)
[2010]
Q1714. The second maturation division of the mammalian ovum
occurs
(1) until the nucleus of the sperm has fused with that of the ovum
(2) shortly after ovulation before the ovum makes entry into the fallopian
tube
(3) in the graafian follicle following the first maturation division
(4) until after the ovum has been penetrated by a sperm
Ans: (4)
[2010]
Q1715. The first movements of the foetus and appearance of hair
on its head are usually observed during which month of
pregnancy?
(1) Sixth month
(2) Fourth month
(3) Third month
(4) Fifth month
Ans: (4)
[2010]
Q1716. About which day in a normal human menstrual cycle does
rapid secretion of LH (Popularly called LH-surge) normally
occurs?
(1) 5th day
(2) 14th day
(3) 11th day
(4) 20th day
Ans: (2)
[2011]
Q1717. What happens during fertilisation in humans after many
sperms reach close to the ovum?
(1) Cells of corona radiata trap all the sperms except one
(2) Secretions of acrosome helps one sperm enter cytoplasm of ovum through
zona pellucida
(3) Only two sperms nearest the ovum penetrate zona pellucida
(4) All sperms except the one nearest to the ovum lose their tails
Ans: (2)
[2011]
Q1718.
Ans: (4)
Q1719. The testes in humans are situated outside the abdominal
cavity insides pouch called scrotum. The purpose served is for
(1) providing more space for the growth of epididymis
(2) maintaining the scrotal temperature lower than the internal body
temperature
(3) providing a secondary sexual feature for exhibiting the male sex
(4) escaping any possible compression by the visceral organs
Ans: (2)
[2011M]
Q1720. If for some reason, the vasa efferentia in the human
reproductive system gets blocked, the gametes will not be
transported from
(1) ovary to uterus
(2) testes to epididymis
(3) vagina to uterus
(4) epididymis to vas deferens
Ans: (2)
[2011M]
Q1721.
Ans: (1)
[2012]
Q1722. The Leydig cells found in the human body are the secretory
source of
(1) glucagon
(2) Progesterone
(3) androgens
(4) intestinal mucus
Ans: (3)
[2012]
Q1723. In a normal pregnant woman, the amount of total
gonadotropin activity was assessed. The result expected was
(1) High level of FSH and LH in uterus to stimulate endometrical thickening
(2) High level of circulating FSH and LH in the uterus to stimulate
implantation of the embyro
(3) High level of circulating HCG to stimulate estrogen and progesterone
synthesis
(4) High level of circulatting HCG to stimulate endometrial thickening
Ans: (3)
[2012]
Q1724. Signals for parturition originate from:
(1) Placenta only
(2) Both placenta as well as fully developed foetus
(3) Fully developed foetus only
(4) Oxytocin released from maternal pituitary
Ans: (2)
[2012]
Q1725. Which one of the following statements is false in respect of
viability of mammalian sperm?
(1) Viability of sperm is determined by its motility.
(2) Sperm is viable for only up to 24 hours.
(3) Sperms must be concentrated in a thick suspension.
(4) Survival of sperm depends on the pH of the medium and is more active in
alkaline medium.
Ans: (3)
Q1726. Which of the following best illustrates FEEDBACK in
development?
(1) As tissue (X) develops, it secretes enzymes that inhibit the development
of tissue (Y)
(2) As tissue (X) develops, it secretes something that slows down the growth
of tissue (Y)
(3) As tissue (X) develops, it secretes something that induces tissue (Y) to
develop
(4) Tissue (X) secretes RNA which changes the development of tissue (Y)
Ans: (3)
[2012M]
Q1727. Which one of the following is not the function of placenta?
It:
(1) secretes oxytocin during parturition
(2) secretes estrogen
(3) facilitates supply of oxygen and nutrients to embyo
(4) facilitates removal of carbon dioxide and waste material from embryo.
Ans: (1)
[NEET 2013]
Q1728. What is the correct sequence of sperm formation?
(1) Spermatogonia, spermatocyte, spermatid, spermatozoa
(2) S p e r m a t o g o n i a, s p e r m a t o c y t e, spermatozoa, spermatid
(3) Spermatid, spermatocyte, spermatogonia, spermatozoa
(4) S p e r m a t o g o n i a; s p e r m a t oz o a, spermatocyte, spermatid
Ans: (1)
[NEET 2013]
Q1729. Menstrual flow occurs due to lack of:
(1) Vasopressin
(2) FSH
(3) Progesterone
(4) Oxytocin
Ans: (3)
[NEET 2013]
Q1730. The secretory phase in the human menstrual cycle is also
called
(1) luteal phase and lasts for about 13 days
(2) luteal phase and lasts for about 6 days
(3) follicular phase and lasts for about 13 days
(4) follicular phase lasting for about 6 days
Ans: (1)
[NEET Kar. 2013]
Q1731.
Ans: (2)
Q1732. Copper-T is a device that prevents
(1) fertilization
(2) implantation of blastocyst
(3) egg maturation
(4) ovulation
Ans: (2)
[NEET Kar. 2013]
Q1733. The foetal ejection reflex in humans triggers release of
(1) Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (hCG) from placenta
(2) Oxytocin from maternal pituitary
(3) Human Placental Lactogen (hPL) from placenta
(4) Oxytocin from foetal pituitary
Ans: (2)
[NEET Kar. 2013]
Q1734. Select the option which correctly matches the endocrine
gland with its hormone and its function Endocrine gland --
Hormone -- Function
(1) Corpus – estrogen -- essential for luteum maintenance of endometerium
(2) Ovary -- FSH -- stimulates follicular development and the secretion of
estrogens.
(3) Leydig – androgen -- initiates the cells production of sperms.
(4) Placenta – estrogen -- initiates secretion of the milk.
Ans: (3)
[2000]
Q1735.
Ans: (4)

Q1736. The technique called gamete intrafallopian transfer (GIFT)

is recommended for those females:
(1) whose cervical canal is too narrow to allow passage for the sperms
(2) who cannot produce an ovum
(3) who cannot provide suitable environment for fertilisation
(4) who cannot retain the foetus inside uterus.
Ans: (2)
 [2008]
Q1737. Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) is considered
safe up to how many weeks of pregnancy?
(1) Eighteen weeks
(2) Eight weeks
(3) Six weeks
(4) Twelve weeks
Ans: (4)
[2010]
Q1738. Which one of the following is the most widely accepted
method of contraception in India, as at present?
(1) Diaphragms
(2) Cervical caps
(3) IUDs. (Intra uterine devices)
(4) Tubectomy
Ans: (3)
[2011]
Q1739. Cu ions released from copper - releasing Intra Uterine
Devices (IUDs):
(1) suppress sperm motility
(2) m a k e u t e r u s u n s u i t a b l e f o r implantation
(3) prevent ovulation
(4) increase phagocytosis of sperms
Ans: (1)
[2011]
Q1740. Consider the statements given below regarding
contraception and answer as directed thereafter: \ (i) Medical
Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) during first trimester is generally
safe \(ii) Generally chances of conception are nil until mother
breast-feeds the infant upto two years \(iii) Intrauterine devices like
copper-T are effective contraceptives \(iv) Contraception pills may
be taken upto one week after coitus to prevent conception Which
two of the above statements are correct?
(1) i and iii
(2) ii and iii
(3) i and ii
(4) iii and iv
Ans: (1)
[2011M]
Q1741. Artificial insemination mean:
(1) Introduction of sperms of a healthy donor directly into the ovary
(2) Transfer of sperms of husband to a test tube containing ova
(3) Transfer of sperms of a healthy donor to a test tube containing ova
(4) Artificial introduction of sperms of a healthy donor into the vagina
Ans: (4)
Q1742. One of the legal methods of birth control is:
(1) by a premature ejaculation during coitus
(2) by abstaining from coitus from day 10 to 17 of the menstrual cycle
(3) abortion by taking an appropriate medicine
(4) by having coitus at the time of day break
Ans: (3)
[2012]
Q1743. Which of the following cannot be detected in a developing
foetus by amniocentesis?
(1) Jaundice
(2) Sex of the foetus
(3) Klinefelter syndrome
(4) Down syndrome
Ans: (1)
[NEET 2013]
Q1744. The test-tube Baby Programme employs which one of the
following techniques
(1) Gamete intra fallopian transfer (GIET)
(2) Intra cytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI)
(3) Zygote intra fallopian transfer (ZIFT)
(4) Intra uterine insemination (IUI)
Ans: (3)
[NEET 2013]
Q1745.
Ans: (1)
[NEET 2013]
Q1746. Haploids are able to express both recessive and dominant
alleles/mutations because there are
(1) only one allele for each gene in the individual
(2) many alleles for each gene
(3) only one allele in a gene
(4) two alleles for each gene
Ans: (1)
[NEET Kar. 2013]
Q1747. What contribute to the success of Mendel?
(1) His knowledge of biology
(2) Qualitative analysis of data
(3) Consideration of one character at one time
(4) Observation of distinct inherited traits
Ans: (3)
[NEET Kar. 2013]
Q1748. The stage transferred into the uterus after induced
fertilization of ova in the laboratory is
(1) Embryo at 2 blastomere stage
(2) Zygote
(3) Morula
(4) Embryo at 4 blastomere stage
Ans: (3)
[NEET Kar. 2013]
Q1749. Which one of the following statements is correct regarding
Sexually Transmitted Diseases (STD)?
(1) Haemophilia is one of the STD
(2) The chances of a 5 year boy contacting a STD are very little
(3) Genital herpes and sickle-cell anaemia are both STD
(4) A person may contact syphilis by sharing milk with one already suffering
from the disease
Ans: (2)
Q1750. One of the following is not a method of contraception –
which one?
(1) Pills of a combination of oxytocin and vasopressin
(2) Tubectomy
(3) Lippes loop
(4) Condoms
Ans: (1)
Q1751. Triticale has been evolved by intergeneric hybridization
between
(1) rice and maize
(2) wheat and rye
(3) wheat and Aegilops
(4) wheat and rice
Ans: (2)
[1988]
Q1752.
Ans: (1)

Q1753. Diploid chromosome number in humans is

(1) 48
(2) 46
(3) 42
(4) 44
Ans: (2)

Q1754. Mutations used in agriculture are commonly

(1) lethal
(2) induced
(3) recessive and lethal
(4) spontaneous
Ans: (2)
Q1755. A mother in a family of five daughters is expecting her
sixth baby. The chance of its being a son is
(1) 50%
(2) zero
(3) 100%
(4) 25%
Ans: (1)
[1989, 2001]
Q1756. Cross between AaBB and aaBB will form
(1) 3 AaBB: 1 aaBB
(2) 1 AaBB: 1aaBB
(3) 1 AaBB: 3 aaBB
(4) All AaBB
Ans: (2)
Q1757. In a genetic cross having recessive epistasis, F2 phenotypic
ratio would be
(1) 9: 3: 4
(2) 9: 6: 1
(3) 12: 3: 1
(4) 15: 1
Ans: (1)
[1990]
Q1758. ABO blood group system is due to
(1) multiple allelism
(2) multifactor inheritance
(3) epistasis
(4) incomplete dominance
Ans: (1)
[1990]
Q1759. tt mates with Tt. What will be characteristic of offspring?
(1) 25% recessive
(2) 75% recessive
(3) All dominant
(4) 50% recessive
Ans: (4)
[1990]
Q1760. A normal green male maize is crossed with albino female.
The progeny is albino because
(1) plastids are inherited from female parent
(2) trait for albinism is dominant
(3) green plastids of male must have mutated
(4) the albinos have biochemical to destroy plastids derived form green male
Ans: (1)
[1990]
Q1761. Bateson used the terms coupling and repulsion for linkage
and crossing over. Name the correct parent of coupling type
alongwith its cross repulsion
(1) Coupling aaBB, aabb; Repulsion AABB, aabb
(2) Coupling AABB, aabb; Repulsion AABB, AAbb
(3) Coupling AABB, aabb: Repulsion AAbb, aaBB
(4) Coupling AAbb, aaBB; Repulsion AaBb, aabb
Ans: (3)
[1990]
Q1762. Haemophilia is more common in males because it is a
(1) Dominant trait carried by X-chromosome
(2) Recessive character carried by Y-chromosome
(3) Recessive trait carried by X-chromosome
(4) Dominant character carried by Y-chromosome
Ans: (3)
[1990]
Q1763. Which one is a hereditary disease?
(1) Blindness
(2) Cataract
(3) Phenylketonuria
(4) leprosy
Ans: (3)
[1990]
Q1764. Both husband and wife have normal vision though their
fathers were colour blind. The probability of their daughter
becoming colour blind is
(1) 50%
(2) 0%
(3) 75%
(4) 25%
Ans: (2)
 [1990]
Q1765. An octamer of 4 histones complexed with DNA forms
(1) mesosome
(2) endosome
(3) centromere
(4) nucleosome
Ans: (4)
[1990]
Q1766. A dihybrid condition is
(1) tt rr
(2) tt Rr
(3) Tt Rr
(4) Tt rr
Ans: (3)
[1990]
Q1767. Blue eye colour is recessive to brown eye colour. A brown
eyed man whose mother was blue eyed marries a blue-eyed
women. The children shall be
(1) all blue eyed
(2) both blue eyed and brown eyed 1:1
(3) blue eyed and brown eyed 3: 1
(4) all brown eyed
Ans: (2)
[1991]
Q1768. The allele which is unable to express its effect in the
presence of another is called
(1) complementary
(2) codominant
(3) recessive
(4) supplementary
Ans: (3)
[1991]
Q1769. Red (RR) Antirrhinum is crossed with white (WW) one.
Offspring RW are pink. This is an example of
(1) hybrid
(2) dominant -recessive
(3) supplementary genes
(4) incomplete dominance
Ans: (4)
[1991]
Q1770. In Down’s syndrome of a male child, the sex complement
is
(1) XX
(2) XO
(3) XXY
(4) XY
Ans: (4)
[1991]
Q1771. A man of A-blood group marries a women of AB blood
group. Which type of progeny would indicate that man is
heterozygous A?
(1) O
(2) AB
(3) B
(4) A
Ans: (3)
[1991]
Q1772. Multiple alleles control inheritance of
(1) sickle cell anaemia
(2) phenylketonuria
(3) blood groups
(4) colour blindness
Ans: (3)
[1991]
Q1773. The contrasting pairs of factors in Mendelian crosses are
called
(1) alloloci
(2) multiple alleles
(3) paramorphs
(4) allelomorphs
Ans: (4)
[1991]
Q1774. First geneticist/ father of genetics was
(1) Darwin
(2) de Vries
(3) Morgan
(4) Mendel
Ans: (4)
Q1775. Mendel’s last law is
(1) independent assortment
(2) segregation
(3) polygenic inheritance
(4) dominance
Ans: (1)

Q1776. A gene pair hides the effect of another. The phenomenon

is
(1) mutation
(2) epistasis
(3) none of the above
(4) dominance
Ans: (2)
[1991]
Q1777. In a cross between AABB × aabb, the ratio of F2 genotypes
between AABB, AaBB, Aabb and aabb would be
(1) 1: 2: 2: 1
(2) 9: 3: 3: 1
(3) 7: 5: 3: 1
(4) 2: 1: 1: 2
Ans: (1)

Q1778. Segregation of Mendelian factors (no linkage, no crossing

over) occurs during
(1) diplotene
(2) anaphase I
(3) metaphase I
(4) anaphase II
Ans: (2)
[1992]
Q1779. An organism with two identical alleles is
(1) heterozygous
(2) dominant
(3) homozygous
(4) hybrid
Ans: (3)
[1992]
Q1780. A colour blind girl is rare because she will be born only
when
(1) her mother is colour blind and father has normal vision
(2) her mother and maternal grand father were colour blind
(3) parents have normal vision but grand parents were colour blind.
(4) her father and maternal grand father were colour blind
Ans: (4)
[1992, 95, 99]
Q1781. A colour blind mother and normal father would have
(1) all colour blind
(2) colour blind sons and normal/carrier daughters
(3) all normal
(4) colour blind sons and daughters
Ans: (2)
[1992]
Q1782. Down's syndrome is due to
(1) sex-linked inheritance
(2) crossing over
(3) nondisjunction of chromosomes
(4) linkage
Ans: (3)
[1992]
Q1783. In human beings 45 chromosomes/single X/ XO
abnormality causes
(1) Turner's syndrome
(2) Down's syndrome
(3) Edward's syndrome
(4) Kinefelter's syndrome
Ans: (1)
[1992]
Q1784. A child of O-group has B-group father. The genotype of
father will be
(1) IA IB
(2) IO IO
(3) IB IO
(4) IB IB
Ans: (3)
[1992]
Q1785. An allele is dominant if it is expressed in
(1) heterozygous combination
(2) both homozygous and heterozygous states
(3) homozygous combination
(4) second generation
Ans: (2)
[1992, 94]
Q1786. Nucleosome core is made of
(1) H1, H2A, H2B, H3 and H4
(2) H1, H2A, H2B and H3
(3) H2A, H2B, H3 and H4
(4) H1, H2A, H2B, H4
Ans: (3)
[1992]
Q1787. A polygenic inheritance in human beings is
(1) Colour blindness
(2) Skin colour
(3) Sickle cell anaemia
(4) Phenylketonuria
Ans: (2)

Q1788. Mendel studied inheritance of seven pairs of traits in Pea

which can have 21 possible combinations. If you are told that in
one of these combinations, independent assortment is not observed
in later studies, your reaction will be
(1) It is impossible
(2) Independent assortment principle may be wrong
(3) Later studies may be wrong
(4) Mendel might not have studied all the combinations
Ans: (4)
[1993]
Q1789. When a certain character is inherited only through female
parent, it probably represents
(1) incomplete dominance
(2) multiple plastid inheritance
(3) mendelian nuclear inheritance
(4) cytoplasmic inheritance
Ans: (4)

Q1790. Out of 8 ascospores formed in Neurospora the arrangement

is 2a: 4a: 2a showing
(1) Second generation division
(2) No crossing over
(3) First generation division
(4) Some meiosis
Ans: (1)
[1993]
Q1791. Of a normal couple, half the sons are haemophilic while
half the daughters are carriers. The gene is located on
(1) one X-chromosome of mother
(2) X-chromosome of father
(3) both the X-chromosomes of mother
(4) Y-chromosome of father
Ans: (1)
[1993]
Q1792. Two dominant nonallelic genes are 50 map units apart. The
linkage is
(1) complete
(2) cis type
(3) absent/ Incomplete
(4) trans type
Ans: (3)
[1993]
Q1793. Haploids are preferred over diploids for mutation studies
because in haploids
(1) mutations are readily induced
(2) recessive mutations express immediately
(3) tissue culture is easy
(4) d o m i n a n t m u t a t i o n s e x p r e s s immediately
Ans: (2)
[1993]
Q1794. Which crop variety is not due to induced mutations?
(1) Sharbati Sonora of Wheat
(2) Reimei of Rice
(3) Aruna of Castor
(4) Prabhat of Arhar
Ans: (3)
[1993]
Q1795. Sex is determined in human beings
(1) 40 days after fertilization
(2) by ovum
(3) seventh to eight week when genitals differentiate in foetus
(4) at time of fertilization
Ans: (4)
[1993]
Q1796. In a dihybrid cross AABB × aabb, F2 progeny of AABB,
AABb, AaBB and AaBb occurs in the ratio of
(1) 1: 2: 2: 1
(2) 1: 1: 1: 1
(3) 1 :2: 2: 4
(4) 9: 3: 3: 1
Ans: (3)
 [1993]
Q1797. A women with albinic father marries an albinic man. The
proportion of her progeny is
(1) all albinic
(2) 2 normal: 1 albinic
(3) 1 normal: 1 albinic
(4) all normal
Ans: (3)
[1993]
Q1798. Of both normal parents, the chance of a male child
becoming colour blind are
(1) possible only when father’s mother was colour blind
(2) no
(3) possible only when mother’s father was colour blind
(4) possible only when all the four grand parents had normal vision
Ans: (3)
[1993]
Q1799. Mr. Kapoor has Bb autosomal gene pair and d allele sex-
linked. What shall be proportion of Bd in sperms
(1) 1/4
(2) Zero
(3) 1/8
(4) 1/2
Ans: (1)
[1994]
Q1800. Which of the following is suitable for experiment on
linkage
(1) AaBb × AaBb
(2) aaBB × aaBB
(3) AAbb × AaBB
(4) AABB × aabb
Ans: (4)
[1994]
Q1801. Genes located on Y-chromosome are
(1) autosomal genes
(2) mutant genes
(3) holandric genes
(4) sex-linked genes
Ans: (3)
[1994]
Q1802. A fruitfly exhibiting both male and female traits is
(1) hemizygous
(2) heterozygous
(3) gynander
(4) gynandromorph
Ans: (4)
[1994]
Q1803. A child of blood group O can not have parents of blood
groups
(1) B and B
(2) AB and AB/O
(3) O and O
(4) A and B
Ans: (2)
[1994]
Q1804. A cross between pure tall Pea plant with green pods and
dwarf Pea plant with yellow pods will produce short F2 plants out
of 16
(1) 4
(2) 9
(3) 1
(4) 3
Ans: (1)
[1994]
Q1805. The process of mating between closely related individuals
is
(1) hybridisation
(2) self breeding
(3) heterosis
(4) inbreeding
Ans: (4)
[1994]
Q1806. The change of the light-coloured variety of peppered moth
(Biston betularia) to its darker variety (Biston carbonaria) is due
to
(1) genetic isolation
(2) mutation
(3) temporal isolation
(4) regeneration
Ans: (2)
[1995]
Q1807. The most striking example of point mutation is found in a
disease called
(1) down's syndrome
(2) thalassemia
(3) sickle cell anaemia
(4) night blindness
Ans: (3)
[1995]
Q1808. The polytene chromosomes were discovered for the first
time in
(1) Musca nebulo
(2) Drosophila
(3) Musca domestica
(4) Chironomus
Ans: (4)
[1995]
Q1809. Barr body in mammals represents
(1) all heterochromatin in male and female cells
(2) all the heterochromatin in female cells
(3) one of the two X-chromosomes in somatic cells of females
(4) Y-chromosomes in somatic cells of male
Ans: (3)
[1995]
Q1810. When two genetic loci produce identical phenotypes in cis
and trans position, they are considered to be
(1) multiple alleles
(2) pseudoalleles
(3) parts of same gene
(4) different genes
Ans: (2)
[1995]
Q1811. A man with a certain disease marries a normal woman.
They have eight children (3 daughters and 5 sons). All the
daughters suffer from their father's disease but none of the sons are
affected. Which of the following mode of inheritance do you
suggest for this disease?
(1) Autosomal dominant
(2) Sex-linked recessive [1996, 2005]
(3) Sex-limited recessive
(4) Sex-linked dominant
Ans: (4)

Q1812. A person with 47 chromosomes due to an additional Y

chromosome suffers from a condition called
(1) Turner's syndrome
(2) Down's syndrome
(3) Klinefelter's syndrome
(4) Superfemale
Ans: (3)
[1996]
Q1813. Barr body in human female is formed by
(1) inactivation of both X-chromosomes
(2) inactivation of paternal X-chromosome
(3) inactivation of either the paternal or maternal X-chromosome
(4) inactivation of maternal X-chromosome
Ans: (3)
[1996]
Q1814. An individual exhibiting both male and female sexual
characteristics in the body is known as
(1) gynandromorph
(2) hermaphrodite
(3) bisexual
(4) intersex
Ans: (1)
[1996]
Q1815. Alleles that produce independent effects in their
heterozygous condition are called
(1) complementary alleles
(2) codominant alleles
(3) supplementary alleles
(4) epistatic alleles
Ans: (2)
Q1816. A person with the sex chromosomes XXY suffers from
(1) Turner's syndrome
(2) Down's syndrome
(3) Gynandromorphism
(4) Klinefelter's syndrome
Ans: (4)
[1996]
Q1817. Genetic identity of a human male is determined by
(1) sex chromosomes
(2) autosomes
(3) cell organelles
(4) nucleolus
Ans: (1)
[1997]
Q1818. After crossing between two plants, the progenies are found
to be male-sterile. This phenomenon is found to be maternally
inherited and is due to some genes which are present in
(1) mitochondrion
(2) nucleus
(3) cytoplasm
(4) chloroplast
Ans: (3)
 [1997]
Q1819. A fruit fly is heterozygous for sex-linked genes. When
mated with a normal female fruit fly, the male-specific
chromosome will enter egg cells in the proportion of
(1) 3: 1
(2) 1: 1
(3) 7: 1
(4) 1: 2
Ans: (2)
[1997]
Q1820. H.J.Muller was awarded Nobel Prize for his
(1) work on gene mapping in Drosophila
(2) discovery that chemicals can induce gene mutations
(3) efforts to prevent the use of nuclear weapons.
(4) discovery that ionizing radiations can induce gene mutations
Ans: (4)
[1997]
Q1821. Albinism is known to be due to an autosomal recessive
mutation. The first child of a couple with normal skin pigmentation
was an albino. What is the probability that their second child will
also be an albino?
(1) 75%
(2) 25%
(3) 100%
(4) 50%
Ans: (2)
[1998]
Q1822. A woman with two genes for haemophilia and a gene for
colour blindness on one of the 'X' chromosomes marries a normal
man. How will the progeny be
(1) 50% haemophilic daughters and 50% colour-blind daughters
(2) h a e m o p h i l i c a n d c o l o u r - b l i n d daughters
(3) All sons and daughters haemophilic and colour-blind
(4) 50% haemophilic, colour-blind sons and 50% haemophilic sons
Ans: (4)
Q1823. The formation of multivalents at meiosis in a diploid
organism is due to
(1) monosomy
(2) inversion
(3) reciprocal translocation
(4) deletion
Ans: (3)
[1998]
Q1824. Mental retardation in man associated with sex
chromosomal abnormality is usually due to
(1) large increase in Y complement
(2) increase in X complement
(3) reduction in X complement
(4) moderate increase in Y complement
Ans: (2)
[1998]
Q1825. In Down's syndrome, Karyotyping has shown that the
disorder is associated with trisomy of chromosome number-21
usually due to
(1) non-disjunction during formation of eggcells and sperm-cells
(2) non-disjunction during egg-cell formation
(3) addition of extra chromosome during mitosis of the zygote
(4) non-disjunction during sperm-cell formation
Ans: (1)
[1998]
Q1826. Molecular weight of chromosome of yeast cell is
(1) 0.5 × 109
(2) 2.56 × 109
(3) 1 × 109
(4) 40 × 109
Ans: (2)
[1998]
Q1827. How many different types of genetically different gametes
will be produced by a heterozygous plant having the genotype:
AABbCc?
(1) Six
(2) Two
(3) Nine
(4) Four
Ans: (4)
[1998]
Q1828. If Mendel had studied the 7 traits using a plant with 12
chromosomes instead of 14, in what way would his interpretation
have been different?
(1) He would have discovered sex linkage
(2) He would have discovered blending or incomplete dominance
(3) H e c o u l d h a v e m a p p e d t h e chromosome
(4) He would not have discovered the law of independent assortment
Ans: (4)
[1998]
Q1829. How many genome types are present in a typical green
plant cell?
(1) More than five
(2) Two
(3) More than ten
(4) Three
Ans: (4)
[1998]
Q1830. Crossing over in diploid organism is responsible for
(1) linkage between genes
(2) segregation of alleles
(3) recombination of linked alleles
(4) dominance of genes
Ans: (3)
[1999]
Q1831. Red-green colour blindness in humans is governed by a
sex-linked recessive gene. A normal woman whose father was
colour blind marries a colour blind man. What proportion of their
daughters is expected to be colourblind?
(1) 1/4
(2) 3/4
(3) All
(4) 1/2
Ans: (4)
[1999]
Q1832. One child is haemophilic (sex-linked trait), while its
fraternal twin brother is normal. Which one of the following
informations is most appropriate?
(1) The other child is a female and the father is haemophilic
(2) T h e m o t h e r m u s t h av e b e e n heterozygous
(3) The haemophilic child is a male
(4) The child is a monozygotic twin
Ans: (2)
[1999]
Q1833. Phenomenon of ‘Industrial melanism’ demonstrates
(1) geographical isolation
(2) natural selection
(3) reproductive islolation
(4) induced mutation
Ans: (2)
[1999]
Q1834. In hybridisation Tt × tt gives rise to the progeny of ratio
(1) 2 :1
(2) 1: 1
(3) 1: 2: 1
(4) 1 :2
Ans: (2)
[1999]
Q1835. Which of the following is the main category of mutation?
(1) Somatic mutation
(2) Genetic mutation
(3) All of these
(4) Zygotic mutation
Ans: (2)
Q1836. Which character studied by Mendel in garden pea (Pisum
sativum) was dominant
(1) Green seed colour
(2) Wrinkled seed shape
(3) Terminal flower position
(4) Green pod colour
Ans: (4)
[1999]
Q1837. Which one pair of the following parents is most likely to
get a child who suffer from hemolytic disease of new born?
(1) Rh-negative mother and Rh-negative father
(2) Rh-negative mother and Rh-positive father
(3) Rh-positive mother and Rh-positive father
(4) Rh-positive mother and Rh-negative father
Ans: (2)
[2000]
Q1838. Mongoloid idiocy in humans is also known as
(1) Down's Syndrome
(2) Tay Sachs disease
(3) Turner's Syndrome
(4) Klinefelter's syndrome
Ans: (1)

Q1839. Drosophila flies with XXY genotype are females but in

case of humans, such individuals are abnormal males (Klinefelter's
syndrome). This indicates that
(1) The Y chromosome is male determining in humans
(2) The Y chromosome has no role in sex determination
(3) The Y chromosome is female determining in Drosophila
(4) In Drosophila, the Y chromosome is essential for sex determination
Ans: (1)
[2000]
Q1840. How many base pairs are found in one genome of man?
(1) 3 × 109
(2) 7 × 104
(3) 4 × 109
(4) 2.8 × 107
Ans: (1)
[2000]
Q1841. Forthcoming generation are less adaptive than their
parental generation due to
(1) genetic drift
(2) natural selection
(3) adaptation
(4) mutation
Ans: (4)
Q1842. Ratio of complementary genes
(1) 9: 3: 3: 4
(2) 9: 3: 4
(3) 9: 7
(4) 12: 3: 1
Ans: (3)
[2001]
Q1843. When dominant and recessive alleles express itself together
it is called
(1) amphidominace
(2) codominance
(3) pseudodominance
(4) dominance
Ans: (2)
[2001]
Q1844. Independent assortment of genes does not take place
when
(1) genes are located on nonhomologous chromosomes
(2) genes are located on homologous chromosomes
(3) all the above
(4) genes are linked and located on same chromosomes
Ans: (4)
 [2001]
Q1845. In a certain plant, red fruit (R) is dominant over yellow
fruit (r) and tallness (T) is dominant over shortness (t) .If a plant
with RRTt genotype is crossed with a plant rrtt genotype, what will
be the percentage of tall plants with red fruits in the progeny?
(1) 75%
(2) 50%
(3) 25%
(4) 100% [2000, 04]
Ans: (2)
[2001]
Q1846. In humans, male XXY and female XXXX occur due to
(1) autosomal syndrome
(2) aneuploidy
(3) none of these
(4) euploidy
Ans: (4)
[2001, 04]
Q1847. A and B genes are linked what shall be genotype of
progeny in a cross between AB/ab and ab/ab?
(1) AABB and aabb
(2) AAbb and aabb
(3) None of these
(4) AaBb and aabb
Ans: (4)
[2001]
Q1848. Probability of four sons to a couple is
(1) 1/16
(2) 1/4
(3) 1/32
(4) 1/8
Ans: (1)
[2001]
Q1849. Two non-allelic genes produce new phenotype when
present together but fail to do so independently are called?
(1) Non- complimentary genes
(2) Epistatsis
(3) Complimentary genes
(4) Polygene
Ans: (3)
[2001]
Q1850. Extranuclear inheritance occurs in
(1) mitochondria and ribosome
(2) peroxisome and ribosome
(3) chloroplast and lysosome
(4) chloroplast and mitochondria
Ans: (4)
[2001]
Q1851. A gene is said to be dominant if
(1) it expresses its effect both in homozygous and heterozygous condition
(2) it expresses its effect only in homozygous state
(3) it never expresses its effect in any conditions
(4) it expresses its effect only in heterozygous condition
Ans: (1)
[2001]
Q1852. Which of the following is an example of pleiotropic
effect?
(1) Sickle cell anaemia
(2) Haemophilia
(3) Colour blindness
(4) Thalassemia
Ans: (1)
[2002]
Q1853. Which of the following is an example of sex linked
disease?
(1) Syphilis
(2) AIDS
(3) Gonorrhoea
(4) Colour blindness
Ans: (4)
[2002]
Q1854. Which of the following is correct match?
(1) Haemophila — Y-chromosome
(2) Down's syndrome — 21st chromosome
(3) Parkinson disease — X & Y chromosome
(4) Sickle cell anaemia — X-chromosome
Ans: (2)
[2002]
Q1855. No. of barr body present in each somatic cell of a female
is
(1) 3
(2) 1
(3) 4
(4) 2
Ans: (2)
[2002]
Q1856. Genes for cytoplasmic male sterility in plants are generally
located in
(1) mitochondrial genome
(2) cytosol
(3) nuclear genome
(4) chloroplast genome
Ans: (2)
[2002]
Q1857. In Drosophila, the sex is determined by
(1) X and Y chromosomes
(2) whether the egg is fertilized or develops parthenogenetically
(3) the ratio of pairs of X-chromosomes to the pairs of autosomes
(4) the ratio of number of X-chromosomes to the sets of autosomes
Ans: (4)
[2002]
Q1858. There are three genes a, b, c. Percentage of crossing over
between a and b is 20%, b and c is 28% an a and c is 8%. What is
the sequence of genes on chromosome?
(1) a, c, b
(2) b, a, c
(3) none of these
(4) a, b, c
Ans: (2)
[2002]
Q1859. On selfing a plant of F1 generation with genotype
“AABbCC”,the genotypic ratio in F2 generation will be
(1) 9: 3: 3: 1
(2) 3: 1
(3) 27: 9: 9: 9: 3: 3: 3: 1
(4) 1: 2: 1
Ans: (4)
[2003]
Q1860. A diseased man marries a normal woman. They have three
daughters and five sons. All the daughters were diseased and sons
were normal. The gene of this disease is
(1) sex-linked character
(2) sex-linked dominant
(3) autosomal dominant
(4) sex-linked recessive
Ans: (2)
[2003, 05]
Q1861. The linkage map of X-chromosome of fruit fly has 66
units, with yellow body gene (y) at one end and bobbed hair
(2) 66%
(2) gene at the other end. The recombination frequency between these two
genes (y and b) should be
(3) > 50%
(1) 100%
Ans: (4)
[2003]
Q1862. Two crosses between the same pair of genotypes or
phenotypes in which the source of the gametes are reversed in one
cross, is known as
(1) reciprocal cross
(2) reverse cross
(3) dihybrid cross
(4) test cross
Ans: (1)

Q1863. The genes controlling the seven pea characters studied by

Mendel are now known to be located on how many different
chromosomes?
(1) Six
(2) Four
(3) Five
(4) Seven
Ans: (2)

Q1864. Which one of the following traits of garden pea studied by

Mendel was a recessive feature?
(1) Green seed colour
(2) Round seed shape
(3) Green pod colour
(4) Axial flower position
Ans: (1)
[2003]
Q1865. Nicotiana sylvestris flowers only during long days and N.
tabacum flowers only during short days. If raised in the laboratory
under different photoperiods, they can be induced to flower at the
same time and can be cross fertilized to produce self – fertile
offspring. What is the best reason for considering N. sylvestris and
N. tabacum to be separate species?
(1) They are reproductively distinct
(2) They are morphologically distinct
(3) They are physiologically distinct
(4) They cannot interbreed in nature
Ans: (1)
Q1866. The recessive genes located on X-chromosome in humans
are always
(1) expressed in males
(2) lethal
(3) expressed in females
(4) sub-lethal
Ans: (1)
[2003]
Q1867. Lack of independent assortment of two genes A and B in
fruit fly Drosophila is due to
(1) linkage
(2) repulsion
(3) crossing over
(4) recombination
Ans: (1)
[2003]
Q1868. Down's syndrome is caused by an extra copy of
chromosome number 21. What percentage of offspring produced
by an affected mother and a normal father would be affected by
this disorder?
(1) 75%
(2) 25%
(3) 50%
(4) 100%
Ans: (3)
[2003]
Q1869. Pattern baldness, moustaches and beard in human males are
examples of
(1) sex limited traits
(2) sex-determining traits
(3) sex differentiating traits
(4) sex linked traits
Ans: (3)
[2004]
Q1870. Christmas disease is another name for
(1) hepatitis B
(2) sleeping sickness
(3) Down's syndrome
(4) haemophilia
Ans: (4)
[2004]
Q1871. After a mutation at a genetic locus the character of an
organism changes due to the change in
(1) protein synthesis pattern
(2) protein structure
(3) RNA transcription pattern
(4) DNA replication
Ans: (2)
[2004]
Q1872. A self-fertilizing trihybrid plant forms
(1) 8 different gametes and 16 different zygotes
(2) 8 different gametes and 64 different zygotes
(3) 8 different gametes and 32 different zygotes
(4) 4 different gametes and 16 different zygotes
Ans: (2)
[2004]
Q1873. One of the parents of a cross has a mutation in its
mitochondria. In that cross, that parent is taken as a male. During
segregation of F2 progenies that mutation is found in
(1) all the progenies
(2) one-third of the progenies
(3) fifty percent of the progenies
(4) none of the progenies
Ans: (4)
[2004]
Q1874. A normal woman, whose father was colourblind is married
to a normal man. The sons would be
(1) all normal
(2) 75% colour-blind
(3) all colour-blind
(4) 50% color-blind
Ans: (4)
[2004]
Q1875. A male human is heterozygous for autosomal genes A and
B and is also hemizygous for hemophilic gene h. What proportion
of his sperms will be abh?
(1) 1/16
(2) 1/8
(3) 1/4
(4) 1/32
Ans: (2)
[2004]
Q1876. A woman with normal vision, but whose father was colour
blind, marries a colour blind man. Suppose that the fourth child of
this couple was a boy. This boy
(1) must have normal colour vision
(2) may be colour blind or may be of normal vision
(3) will be partially colour blind since he is heterozygous for the colour blind
mutant allele
(4) must be colour blind
Ans: (2)
[2005]
Q1877. G-6-P dehydrogenase deficiency is associated with
haemolysis of:
(1) platelets
(2) leucocytes
(3) rBCs
(4) lymphocytes
Ans: (3)
[2005]
Q1878. The salivary gland chromosomes in the dipteran larvae, are
useful in gene mapping because:
(1) these are easy to stain
(2) these are fused
(3) They have endoreduplicated chromosomes.
(4) these are much longer in size
Ans: (3)
[2005]
Q1879. At a particular locus, frequency of ‘A’ allele is 0.6 and that
of ‘a’ is 0.4. What would be the frequency of heterozygotes in a
random mating population at equilibrium?
(1) 0.24
(2) 0.36
(3) 0.48
(4) 0.16
Ans: (3)
[2005]
Q1880. In order to find out the different types of gametes produced
by a pea plant having the genotype AaBb, it should be crossed to a
plant with the genotype:
(1) aabb
(2) AABB
(3) aaBB
(4) AaBb
Ans: (1)
[2005]
Q1881. Which one of the following is an example of polygenic
inheritance?
(1) Skin colour in humans
(2) Production of male honey bee
(3) Flower colour in Mirabilis jalapa
(4) Pod shape in garden pea
Ans: (1)
[2005]
Q1882.
Ans: (1)
[2005]
Q1883. A women with 47 chromosomes due to three copies of
chromosome 21 is characterized by:
(1) turner's syndrome
(2) superfemaleness
(3) down's Syndrome 136.If a colour blind woman marries a normal visioned
man, their sons will be
(4) triploidy
Ans: (3)

Q1884. Haemophilia is more commonly seen in human males than

in human females because:
(1) this disease is due to an X-linked recessive mutation
(2) a greater proportion of girls die in infancy
(3) this disease is due to an X-linked dominant mutation
(4) this disease is due to a Y-linked recessive mutation
Ans: (1)

Q1885. Which of the following is not a hereditary disease?

(1) Haemophilia
(2) Cystic fibrosis
(3) Cretinism
(4) Thalassemia
Ans: (3)
[2006]
Q1886. Test cross involves
(1) crossing between two genotypes with dominant trait
(2) crossing between two F1 hybrids
(3) crossing between two genotypes with recessive trait
(4) crossing the F1 hybrid with a double recessive genotype
Ans: (4)
[2006]
Q1887. In Mendel’s experiment with garden pea, round seed shape
(RR) was dominant over wrinkled seeds (rr), yellow cotyledon
(YY) was dominant over green cotyledon (yy). What are the
expected phenotypes in the F2 generation of the cross RRYY ×
rryy?
(1) Round seeds with yellow cotyledons, and wrinkled seeds with yellow
cotyledons
(2) only wrinkled seeds with yellow cotyledons
(3) only round seeds with green cotyledons
(4) only wrinkled seeds with green cotyledons
Ans: (1)
[2006]
Q1888. Sickle cell anaemia has not been eliminated from the
African population because
(1) it is controlled by dominant genes
(2) it is not a fatal disease
(3) it is controlled by recessive genes
(4) it provides immunity against malaria
Ans: (4)
[2006]
Q1889. Both sickle cell anemia and Huntington's chorea are
(1) virus-related diseases
(2) congenital disorders
(3) bacteria - related diseases
(4) pollulant-induced disorders
Ans: (2)
[2006]
Q1890. Cri-du-chat syndrome in humans is caused by the
(1) trisomy of 21st chromosome
(2) loss of half of the short arm of chromosome 5
(3) fertilization of an XX egg by a normal Y-bearing sperm
(4) loss of half of the long arm of chromosome 5
Ans: (2)
[2006]
Q1891. In pea plants, yellow seeds are dominant to green. If a
heterozygous yellow seeded plant is crossed with a green seeded
plant, what ratio of yellow and green seeded plants would you
expect in F1 generation?
(1) 3: 1
(2) 9: 1
(3) 50 :50
(4) 1: 3
Ans: (3)
Q1892. Two genes R and Y are located very close on the
chromosomal linkage map of maize plant. When RRYY and rryy
genotypes are hybridized, the F2 segregation will show
(1) higher number of the parental types
(2) segregation in the expected 9: 3: 3: 1 ratio
(3) higher number of the recombinant types.
(4) segregation in 3: 1 ratio
Ans: (1)
[2006]
Q1893. A common test to find the genotype of a hybrid is by
(1) crossing of one F1 progeny with male parent
(2) crossing of one F2 progeny with female parent
(3) crossing of one F2 progeny with male parent.
(4) studying the sexual behaviour of F1 progenies
Ans: (1)
[2007]
Q1894. How many different kinds of gametes will be produced by
a plant having the genotype AABbCC?
(1) Two
(2) Four
(3) Three
(4) Nine
Ans: (1)
[2007]
Q1895. Phenotype of an organism is the result of
(1) genotype and environment interactions
(2) cytoplasmic effects and nutrition
(3) mutations and linkages
(4) environmental changes and sexual dimorphism
Ans: (1)
[2007]
Q1896.
Ans: (2)
[2007]
Q1897. Which one of the following conditions in humans. is
correctly matched with its chromosomal abnormality/linkage?
(1) Erythroblastosis foetalis - X-linked
(2) Klinefelters syndrome-44 autosomes + XXY
(3) Downs syndrome - 44 autosomes + XO
(4) Colour blindness - Y-linked
Ans: (2)
[2007]
Q1898. A human male produces sperms with the genotypes AB,
Ab, aB, and ab pertaining to two diallelic characters in equal
proportions. What is the corresponding genotype of this person?
(1) AABB
(2) AaBB
(3) AaBb
(4) AABb
Ans: (3)
[2007]
Q1899. Inheritances of skin colour in humans is an example of
(1) codominance
(2) point mutation
(3) chromosomal aberration.
(4) polygenic inheritance
Ans: (4)
[2008]
Q1900. The two polynucleotide chains in DNA are ]
(1) semi-conservative
(2) discontinuous
(3) parallel.
(4) antiparallel
Ans: (4)
Q1901. Which one of the following cannot be explained on the
basis of Mendel’s Law of Dominance?
(1) Alleles do not show any blending and both the characters recover as such
in F2 generation.
(2) The discrete unit controlling a particular character is called a factor
(3) Factors occur in pairs
(4) Out of one pair of factors one is dominant, and the other recessive
Ans: (1)
[2009]
Q1902. Point mutation involves:
(1) deletion
(2) change in single base pair
(3) insertion
(4) duplication
Ans: (2)
[2009]
Q1903. Select the incorrect statement from the following:
(1) Baldness is a sex -limited trait
(2) Galactosemia is an inborn error of metabolism
(3) Linkage is an exception to the principle of independent assortment in
heredity
(4) Small population size results in random genetic drift in a population
Ans: (1)
[2009]
Q1904. Sickle cell anaemia is:
(1) characterized by elongated sickle like RBCs with a nucleus
(2) caused by substitution of valine by glutamic acid in the beta globin chain
of haemoglobin
(3) an autosomal linked dominant trait
(4) caused by a change in a single base pair of DNA
Ans: (4)
[2009]
Q1905. The genetic defect - Adenosine deaminase (ADA)
deficiency may be cured permanently by:
(1) enzyme replacement therapy.
(2) administering adenosine deaminase activators.
(3) periodic infusion of genetically engineered lymphocytes having
functional ADA cDNA.
(4) introducing bone marrow cells producing ADA into cells at early
embryonic stages.
Ans: (4)
 [2010]
Q1906. Which one of the following conditions correctly describes
the manner of determining the sex in the given example?
(1) XO condition in human as found in Turner syndrome, determines female
sex.
(2) Homozygous sex chromosomes (ZZ) determine female sex in birds.
(3) Homozygous sex chromosomes (XX) produce male in Drosophila.
(4) XO type of sex chromosomes determine male sex in grasshopper
Ans: (4)
[2010]
Q1907. Infectious proteins are present in:
(1) Viroids
(2) Gemini viruses
(3) Satellite viruses
(4) Prions
Ans: (4)
[2010]
Q1908.
Ans: (2)
Q1909. Select the correct statement from the ones given below
with respect to dihybrid cross.
(1) Genes loosely linked on the same chromosome show similar
recombinations as the tightly linked ones
(2) Tightly linked genes on the same chromosome show higher
recombinations
(3) Tightly linked genes on the same chromosome show very few
recombinations
(4) Genes far apart on the same chromosome show very few recombinations
Ans: (3)
[2010]
Q1910. The genotype of a plant showing the dominant phenotype
can be determined by:
(1) pedigree analysis
(2) test cross
(3) back cross
(4) dihybrid cross
Ans: (2)
[2011]
Q1911. The unequivocal proof of DNA as the genetic material
came from the studies on a
(1) viroid
(2) bacterium
(3) bacterial virus
(4) fungus
Ans: (3)
[2011]
Q1912. Test cross in plants or in Drosophila involves crossing
(1) the F1 hybrid with a double recessive genotype.
(2) between two genotypes with recessive trait
(3) between two genotypes with dominant trait
(4) between two F1 hybrids
Ans: (1)
[2011]
Q1913. A person with unknown blood group under ABO system,
has suffered much blood loss in an accident and needs immediate
blood transfusion. His one friend who has a valid certificate of his
own blood type offers blood donation without delay. What would
have been the type of blood group of the donor friend?
(1) Type O
(2) Type B
(3) Type A
(4) Type AB
Ans: (1)
[2011]
Q1914. Mutations can be induced with:
(1) ethylene
(2) infra red radiations
(3) gamma radiations
(4) I AA
Ans: (3)
[2011M]
Q1915. When two unrelated individuals or lines are crossed, the
performance of F1 hybrid is often superior to both parents. This
phenomenon is called:
(1) splicing
(2) heterosis
(3) metamorphosis
(4) transformation
Ans: (2)
[2011M]
Q1916. A test cross is carried out to
(1) assess the number of alleles of a gene.
(2) determine the genotype of a plant at F2.
(3) determine whether two species or varieties will breed successfully.
(4) predict whether two traits are linked.
Ans: (2)
[2011M]
Q1917. Which one of the following is a wrong statement regarding
mutations?
(1) UV and Gamma rays are mutagens.
(2) Deletion and insertion of base pairs cause frame-shift mutations.
(3) Change in a single base pair of DNA does not cause mutation.
(4) Cancer cells commonly show chromosomal aberrations.
Ans: (3)
[2012]
Q1918. A normal- visioned man whose father was colour. blind,
marries a woman whose father was also colour blind. They have
their first child as a daughter. what are the chance that this child
would be colour blind?
(1) 25%
(2) 100%
(3) 50%
(4) zero percent
Ans: (4)
 [2012]
Q1919. A certain road accident patient with unknown blood group
needs immediate blood transfusion. His one doctor friend at once
offers his blood.What was the blood group of the donor?
(1) Blood group O
(2) Blood group B
(3) Blood group A
(4) Blood group AB
Ans: (1)
[2012M]
Q1920. Which one of the following conditions of the zygotic cell
would lead to the birth of a normal human female child?
(1) Only one X chromosome
(2) Two X chromosomes
(3) One X and one Y chromosome
(4) Only one Y chromosome
Ans: (2)
[2012M]
Q1921. Which of the following statements is not true of two genes
that show 50% recombination frequency?
(1) If the genes are present on the same chromosome, they undergo more than
one crossovers in every meiosis
(2) The genes are tightly linked
(3) The genes may be on different chromosomes
(4) T h e g e n e s s h o w i n d e p e n d e n t assortment
Ans: (2)
Q1922. If both parents are carriers for thalassemia, which is an
autosomal recessive disorder, what are the chances of pregnancy
resulting in an affected child?
(1) 100%
(2) 50%
(3) no chance
(4) 25%
Ans: (4)
 [NEET 2013]
Q1923. Which Mendelian idea is depicted by a cross in which the
F1 generation resembles both the parents?
(1) Co-dominance
(2) Law of dominance
(3) Incomplete dominance
(4) Inheritance of one gene
Ans: (1)
[NEET 2013]
Q1924. If two persons with ‘AB’ blood group marry and have
sufficiently large number of children these children could be
classified as ‘A’ blood group: ‘AB’ blood group: ‘B’ blood group
in 1: 2: 1 ratio. Modern technique of protein electrophoresis reveals
presence of both ‘A’ and ‘B’ type proteins in ‘AB’ blood group
individuals. This is an example of:
(1) Complete cominance
(2) incomplete dominance
(3) Codominance
(4) Partial dominance
Ans: (3)
[NEET 2013]
Q1925.
Ans: (4)
[NEET 2013]
Q1926. Down’s syndrome in humans is due to
(1) Three copies of chromosome 21
(2) Two ‘Y’ chromosomes
(3) Monosomy
(4) Three ‘X’ chromosomes
Ans: (1)
[NEET 2013]
Q1927. In our society women are blamed for producing female
children. Choose the correct answer for the sex-determination in
humans
(1) Due to the genetic make up of the particular sperm which fertilizes the
egg
(2) Due to some defect in the women
(3) Due to the genetic make up of the egg
(4) Due to some defect like aspermia in man
Ans: (1)
[NEET Kar. 2013]
Q1928. Which one is the incorrect statement with regards to the
importance of pedigree analysis?
(1) It helps to understand whether the trait in question is dominant or
recessive
(2) It helps to trace the inheritance of a specific trait
(3) It confirms that the trait is linked to one of the autosome
(4) It confirms that DNA is the carrier of genetic information
Ans: (4)
[NEET Kar. 2013]
Q1929. Genetic variation in a population arises due to
(1) Mutations as well as recombination
(2) Mutations only
(3) Reproductive isolation and selection
(4) Recombination only
Ans: (1)
[NEET Kar. 2013]
Q1930. The incorrect statement with regard to Haemophilia is:
(1) A single protein involved in the clotting of blood is affected
(2) It is a recessive disease
(3) It is a sex-linked disease
(4) It is a dominant disease
Ans: (4)
[NEET Kar. 2013]
Q1931. The process of transfer of genetic information from DNA
to RNA/formation of RNA from DNA is
(1) translation
(2) transversion
(3) translocation
(4) transcription
Ans: (4)
[1988]
Q1932. A nucleotide is formed of
(1) nitrogen base, sugar and phosphate
(2) purine, pyrimidine and phosphate
(3) pyrimidine, sugar and phosphate
(4) purine, sugar and phosphate
Ans: (1)
[1989, 2000]
Q1933. In the genetic dictionary, there are 64 codons as
(1) there are 44 nonsense codons and 20 sense codons
(2) 64 amino acids are to be coded
(3) genetic code is triplet.
(4) 64 types of tRNAs are present
Ans: (3)
[1990]
Q1934. DNA replication is
(1) semiconservative and discontinuous
(2) conservative and discontinuous
(3) conservative
(4) s e m i c o n s e r v a t i v e a n d s e m i discontinuous
Ans: (4)
[1991]
Q1935. Genetic code consists of
(1) cytosine and guanine
(2) cdenine and guanine
(3) all the above
(4) cytosine and uracil
Ans: (3)
[1991]
Q1936. A DNA with unequal nitrogen bases would most probably
be
(1) triple stranded
(2) single stranded
(3) four stranded
(4) double stranded
Ans: (2)
[1992]
Q1937. Nucleotide arrangement in DNA can be seen by
(1) ultracentrifuge
(2) X-ray crystallography
(3) light microscope
(4) electron microscope
Ans: (2)
Q1938. Experimental material in the study of DNA replication has
been
(1) Pneumococcus
(2) Escherichia coli
(3) Drosophila melanogaster
(4) Neurospora crassa
Ans: (2)
[1992]
Q1939. Khorana first deciphered the triplet codons of
(1) tyrosine and tryptophan
(2) serine and isoleucine
(3) phenylalanine and methionine
(4) cysteine and valine
Ans: (4)
[1993]
Q1940. Escherichia coli fully labelled with 15N is allowed to grow
in 14N medium. The two strands of DNA molecule of the first
generation bacteria have
(1) same density and resemble parent DNA
(2) different density and do not resemble parent DNA
(3) same density but do not resemble parent DNA
(4) different density but resemble parent DNA
Ans: (2)
[1993]
Q1941. The transforming principle of Pneumococus as found out
by Avery, MacLeod and McCarty was
(1) protein
(2) mRNA
(3) polysaccharide
(4) DNA
Ans: (4)
[1993]
Q1942. Who proved that DNA is basic genetic material?
(1) Boveri and Sutton
(2) Griffith
(3) Hershey and Chase
(4) Watson
Ans: (3)
[1993]
Q1943. Because most of the amino acids are represented by more
than one codon, the genetic code is
(1) degenerate
(2) overlapping
(3) generate
(4) wobbling
Ans: (1)
[1993]
Q1944. During DNA replication, the strands separate by
(1) unwindase/Helicase
(2) DNA polymerase
(3) gyrase
(4) topoisomerase
Ans: (1)
[1993]
Q1945. The process of translation is
(1) dNA synthesis
(2) ribosome synthesis
(3) rNA synthesis
(4) protein synthesis
Ans: (4)
Q1946. In Escherichia coli, lac operon is induced by
(1) β -galactosidase
(2) lactose
(3) I-gene
(4) promoter gene
Ans: (2)
[1993, 94, 99, 2000]
Q1947. DNA template sequence of CTGATAGC is transcribed
over mRNA as
(1) GAUTATUG
(2) GUCTUTCG
(3) UACTATCU
(4) GACUAUCG
Ans: (4)
[1994]
Q1948. Which is not involved in protein synthesis?
(1) Elongation
(2) Transcription
(3) Termination
(4) Initition
Ans: (3)

Q1949. Protein helping in opening of DNA double helix in form of

replication fork is
(1) DNA ligase
(2) DNA gyrase
(3) DNA topoisomerase
(4) DNA polymerase I
Ans: (2)
[1994, 95, 2004]
Q1950. Initiation codon of protein synthesis (in eucaryotes) is
(1) CCA
(2) GUA
(3) AUG
(4) GCA
Ans: (3)
[1994]
Q1951. In split genes, the coding sequences are called
(1) exons
(2) introns
(3) cistrons
(4) operons
Ans: (1)
[1994]
Q1952. The wild type E. coli cells are growing in normal medium
with glucose. They are transferred to a medium containing only
lactose as sugar. Which of the following changes takes place?
(1) The lac operon is induced
(2) The lac operon is repressed
(3) E.coli cells stop dividing
(4) All operons are induced
Ans: (1)
[1994]
Q1953. Out of A-T, G-C pairing, bases of DNA may exist in
alternate valency state owing to arrangement called
(1) frame-shift mutation
(2) analogue substitution
(3) point mutation
(4) tautomerisational mutation
Ans: (4)
[1994]
Q1954. The number of base substitution possible in amino acid
codons is
(1) 535
(2) 261
(3) 549
(4) 264
Ans: (3)
[1995]
Q1955. Reverse transcriptase is
(1) DNA dependent DNA polymerase
(2) RNA dependent RNA polymerase
(3) RNA dependent DNA polymerase
(4) DNA dependent RNA polymerase
Ans: (3)
Q1956. The translation termination triplet is
(1) UAC
(2) UAU
(3) UGC.
(4) UAA
Ans: (4)
[1995]
Q1957. Okazaki fragments are seen during
(1) replication
(2) transcription
(3) transduction
(4) translation
Ans: (1)
[1995]
Q1958. Anticodon is an unpaired triplet of bases in an exposed
position of
(1) tRNA
(2) mRNA
(3) sRNA
(4) rRNA
Ans: (1)
[1995, 2000]
Q1959. The lac operon is an example of
(1) repressible operon
(2) arabinose operon
(3) overlapping genes
(4) inducible operon
Ans: (4)
[1996]
Q1960. An environmental agent, which triggers transcription from
an operon, is a
(1) depressor
(2) regulator
(3) controlling element
(4) inducer
Ans: (4)
[1996]
Q1961. If a completely radioactive double stranded DNA molecule
undergoes two rounds of replication in a non-radioactive medium,
what will be the radioactive status of the four resulting
molecules?
(1) Three out of four contain radioactivity
(2) Half the number contain no radioactivity
(3) Radioactivity is lost from all four
(4) All four still contain radioactivity
Ans: (2)
[1996]
Q1962. A mutation at one base of the first codon, of a gene,
produces a non-functional protein. Such a mutation is called
(1) frameshift mutation
(2) nonsense mutation
(3) reverse mutation
(4) missense mutation
Ans: (4)
[1997]
Q1963. Three codons causing chain termination are
(1) AGT, TAG, UGA
(2) TAG, TAA, TGA
(3) UAG, UGA, UAA
(4) GAT, AAT, AGT
Ans: (3)
[1997]
Q1964. Which step of translation does not consume a high energy
phosphate bond?
(1) Peptidyl-transferase reaction
(2) Translocation
(3) Aminoacyl tRNA binding to active ribosomal site
(4) Amino acid activation
Ans: (3)
[1997]
Q1965. The basis for DNA fingerprinting is
(1) availability of cloned DNA
(2) occurrence of restriction fragment length polymorphism (RFLP)
(3) knowledge of human karyotype
(4) phenotypic differences between individuals
Ans: (2)
[1997]
Q1966. The eukaryotic genome differs from the prokaryotic
genome because
(1) repetitive sequences are present in eukaryotes
(2) genes in the former case are organized into operons
(3) the DNA is circular and single stranded in prokaryotes
(4) the DNA is complexed with histones in prokaryotes
Ans: (1)
[1997]
Q1967. What base is responsible for hot spots for spontaneous
point mutations?
(1) 5-methylcytosine
(2) Adenine
(3) Guanine
(4) 5-bromouracil
Ans: (1)
Q1968. In eukaryotes, after transcription of mRNA, some of its
nucleotides are removed before it is translated into polypeptide.
The nucleotides which are removed from mRNA are called
(1) unusual bases
(2) exons
(3) introns
(4) upstream sequences
Ans: (3)
Q1969. During development of an organism, the product of one
gene is required to activate another gene. Such gene products are
called
(1) coenzymes
(2) transcription factors
(3) catalase
(4) episomes
Ans: (2)
[1998]
Q1970. Different mutations referrable to the same locus of a
chromosome give rise to
(1) polygenes
(2) multiple alleles
(3) oncogenes
(4) pseudoalleles
Ans: (2)
[1998]
Q1971. In operon concept, regulator gene functions as
(1) inhibitor
(2) repressor
(3) all of these
(4) regulator
Ans: (2)
[1998]
Q1972. The Pneumococcus experiment proves that
(1) Bacteria do not reproduce sexually
(2) DNA is the genetic material
(3) RNA sometime controls the production of DNA and proteins
(4) Bacteria undergo binary fission
Ans: (2)
[1998]
Q1973. In DNA, when AGCT occurs, their association is as per
which of the following pairs?
(1) AT-GC
(2) AG-CT
(3) All of these
(4) AC-GT
Ans: (1)
[1999]
Q1974. Genes that are involved in turning on or off the
transcription of a set of structural genes are called
(1) Regulator genes
(2) Operator genes
(3) Polymorphic genes
(4) Redundant genes
Ans: (2)

Q1975. DNA elements which can switch their position are called
(1) cistrons
(2) exons
(3) transposons
(4) introns
Ans: (3)
[1999]
Q1976. In negative operon
(1) co-repressor binds with inducer
(2) co-repressor binds with repressor
(3) CAMP have negative effect on lac operon
(4) co-repressor does not bind with repressor
Ans: (2)
[1999]
Q1977. One function of the telomeres in a chromosome is to
(1) "seal" the ends of chromosomes
(2) indentify the correct number of the homologous pair of chromosomes
(3) start RNA synthesis
(4) help two chromatids to move towards poles
Ans: (1)
 [2000]
Q1978. Protein synthesis occurs
(1) only on the ribosomes present in cytosol
(2) on ribosmes present in cytosol as well as in mitochondria
(3) on ribosomes present in the nucleolus as well as cytoplasm
(4) only on ribosomes attached to the nuclear envelope and endoplasmic
reticulum
Ans: (2)
[2000]
Q1979. Mutation generally produces
(1) recessive genes
(2) polygenes
(3) lethal genes
(4) dominant genes
Ans: (3)
[2000]
Q1980. How many base pairs (bp) are found in the haploid genome
of humans?
(1) 7 × 109
(2) 2.9 × 109
(3) 3 × 109
(4) 4 × 108
Ans: (2)
[2001]
Q1981. In E.coli during lactose metabolism repressor binds to
(1) structural gene
(2) regulator gene
(3) promoter gene
(4) operator gene
Ans: (4)
[2001]
Q1982. Gene and cistron words are sometimes used synonymously
because
(1) one gene contains one cistron
(2) one cistron contains many genes
(3) one gene contains no cistron
(4) one gene contains many cistrons
Ans: (1)
[2001]
Q1983. At time of organogenesis genes regulate the process at
different levels and at different time due to
(1) intron
(2) promoter
(3) exon
(4) regulator
Ans: (4)
[2001]
Q1984. In which direction m-RNA is synthesised on DNA
template?
(1) Both
(2)
(1) and
(4)
Ans: (2)
[2001]
Q1985. Frequency of an allele in a isolated population may change
due to
(1) mutation
(2) genetic Drift
(3) natural selection
(4) gene flow
Ans: (2)
[2002]
Q1986. Exon part of m- RNAs have code for
(1) carbohydrate
(2) protein
(3) phospholipid
(4) lipid
Ans: (2)
[2002]
Q1987. In a DNA percentage of thymine is 20% then what will be
the percentage of guanine?
(1) 30%
(2) 20%
(3) 60%
(4) 40%
Ans: (1)
[2002]
Q1988. Transformation experiment was first performed on which
bacteria?
(1) Salmonella
(2) E.coli
(3) Pasteurella pestis
(4) Diplococcus pneumoniae
Ans: (4)
[2002]
Q1989. Jacob and Monod studied lactose metabolism in E.coli and
proposed operon concept. Operon concept is applicable for
(1) all prokaryotes and all eukaryotes
(2) all prokaryotes
(3) all prokaryotes and some protozoans
(4) all prokaryotes and some eukaryotes
Ans: (4)
[2002]
Q1990. Out of 64 codons, 61 codons code for 20 types of amino
acid. It is called
(1) wobbling of codon
(2) degeneracy of genetic code
(3) universility of codons
(4) overlapping of gene
Ans: (2)
[2002]
Q1991. Which one of the following triplet codes, is correctly
matched with its specificity for an amino acid in protein synthesis
or as ‘start’ or ‘stop’codon?
(1) UUU – Stop
(2) UAC – Tyrosine
(3) UGU – Leucine
(4) UCG – Start
Ans: (2)
[2003]
Q1992. During translation initiation in prokaryotes, a GTP
molecule is needed in
(1) binding of 30 S subunit of ribosome with mRNA
(2) association of 50 S subunit of ribosome with initiation complex
(3) association of 30 S-mRNA with formylmet-tRNA
(4) formation of formyl-met-tRNA
Ans: (3)
[2003]
Q1993. During transcription, the DNA site at which RNA
polymerase binds is called
(1) regulator
(2) enhancer
(3) receptor
(4) promoter
Ans: (4)
[2003]
Q1994. What does "lac" refer to in what we call the lac operon?
(1) Lactase
(2) The number 1,00,000
(3) Lac insect
(4) Lactose
Ans: (4)
[2003]
Q1995. When a cluster of genes show linkage behaviour they
(1) show recombination during meiosis
(2) induce cell division
(3) do not show independent assortment
(4) do not show a chromosome map
Ans: (3)
[2003]
Q1996. DNA fingerprinting refers to
(1) techniques used for molecular analysis of different specimens of DNA
(2) molecular analysis of profiles of DNA samples
(3) techniques us ed for identification of fingerprints of individuals
(4) analysis of DNA samples using imprinting devices
Ans: (2)
[2003]
Q1997. Genetic map is one that
(1) establishes the various stages in gene evolution
(2) shows the distribution of various species in a region
(3) show the stages during the cell division
(4) establishes sites of the genes on a chromosome
Ans: (4)
[2003]
Q1998. Degeneration of a genetic code is attributed to the
(1) second member of a codon
(2) third member of a codon
(3) entire codon
(4) first member of a codon
Ans: (2)
[2003]
Q1999. In the genetic code dictionary, how many codons are used
to code for all the 20 essential amino acids?
(1) 64
(2) 60
(3) 61
(4) 20
Ans: (3)
[2003]
Q2000. What would happen if in a gene encoding a polypeptide of
50 amino acids, 25th codon (UAU) is mutated to UAA?
(1) Two polypeptides of 24 and 25 amino acids will be formed
(2) A polypeptide of 25 amino acids will be formed
(3) A polypeptide of 49 amino acids will be formed
(4) A polypeptide of 24 amino acids will be formed
Ans: (4)
[2004]
Q2001. During replication of a bacterial chromosome DNA
synthesis starts from a replication origin site and
(1) moves in one direction of the site
(2) RNA primers are involved
(3) moves in bi-directional way
(4) is facilitated by telomerase
Ans: (3)
[2004]
Q2002. The telomeres of eukaryotic chromosomes consist of short
sequences of
(1) adenine rich repeats
(2) thymine rich repeats
(3) guanine rich repeats
(4) cytosine rich repeats
Ans: (1)
[2004]
Q2003. The following ratio is generally constant for a given
species:
(1) (G+C)/(A+T)
(2) (A+G)/(C+T)
(3)(A+C)(T+G)
(4) (T+C)/(G+A)
Ans: (1)
[2004]
Q2004. Crossing over that results in genetic recombination in
higher organisms occurs between
(1) two daughter nuclei
(2) sister chromatids of a bivalent
(3) two different bivalents
(4) non-sister chromatids of a bivalent
Ans: (4)
 [2004]
Q2005. In a mutational event, when adenine is replaced by
guanine, it is a case of
(1) transition
(2) frame shift mutation
(3) transversion
(4) transcription
Ans: (1)
[2004]
Q2006. Telomerase is an enzyme which is a
(1) ribonucleoprotein
(2) simple protein
(3) repetitive DNA
(4) RNA
Ans: (1)
[2004]
Q2007. Which one of the following makes use of RNA as a
template to synthesize DNA?
(1) Reverse transcriptase
(2) DNA polymerase
(3) DNA dependant RNA polymerase
(4) RNA polymerase
Ans: (1)
[2005]
Q2008. During transcription holoenzyme RNA polymerase binds
to a DNA sequence and the DNA assumes a saddle like structure at
that point. What is that sequence called?
(1) GGTT box
(2) AAAT box
(3) CAAT box
(4) TATA box
Ans: (4)
[2005]
Q2009. E.coli cells with a mutated z gene of the lac operon cannot
grow in medium containing only lactose as the source of energy
because:
(1) in the presence of glucose, E.coli cells do not utilize lactose
(2) the lac operon is constitutively active in these cells
(3) they cannot transport lactose from the medium into the cell
(4) they cannot synthesize functional betagalactosidase
Ans: (4)
Q2010. In transgenics, expression of transgene in target tissue is
determined by
(1) promoter
(2) enhancer
(3) reporter
(4) transgene
Ans: (4)

Q2011. A sequential expression of a set of human genes

(1) ribosome
(2) messenger RNA
(3) transfer RNA.
(4) DNA sequence
Ans: (4)
[2006]
Q2012. The length of DNA molecule greatly exceeds the
dimensions of the nucleus in eukaryotic cells. How is this DNA
accommodated?
(1) through elimination of repititive DNA
(2) super-coiling in nucleosomes
(3) deletion of non-essential genes.
(4) DNase digestion
Ans: (2)
[2006]
Q2013. The okazaki fragments in DNA chain growth
(1) polymerize in the 5’ - to - 3’ direction and explain 3’ - to - 5’ DNA
replication
(2) polymerize in the 3’ - to - 5’ direction and forms replication fork
(3) result in transcription.
(4) prove semi-conservative nature of DNA replication
Ans: (1)
[2007]
Q2014. In which mode of inheritance do you expect more maternal
influence among the offspring?
(1) X-linked
(2) Cytoplasmic
(3) Autosomal
(4) Y-linked
Ans: (2)
[2007]
Q2015. One gene -one enzyme hypothesis was postulated by
(1) Beadle and Tatum
(2) Hershey and Chase
(3) R. Franklin
(4) A. Garrod
Ans: (1)
[2007]
Q2016. Which one of the following pairs of codons is correctly
matched with their function or the signal for the particular amino
acid?
(1) AUG, ACG-Start/Methionine
(2) GUU, GCU-Alanine
(3) UUA, UCA-Leucine
(4) UAG, UGA-Stop
Ans: (4)
[2007]
Q2017. In the DNA molecule
(1) the proportion of Adenine in relation to thymine varies with the organism
(2) the total amount of purine nucleotides and pyrimidine nucleotides is not
always equal
(3) there are two strands which run anti parallel one in 5′ → 3′ direction and
other in 3′ → 5′
(4) there are two strands which run parallel in the 5′ → 3′ direction
Ans: (3)
[2007]
Q2018. Molecular basis of organ differentiation depends on the
modulation in transcription by
(1) anticodon
(2) ribosome
(3) RNA polymerase.
(4) transcription factor
Ans: (3)
[2007]
Q2019. One gene-one enzyme relationship was established for the
first time in
(1) Diplocococcus pneumoniae
(2) Salmonella typhimurium
(3) Neurospora crassa.
(4) Escherichia coli
Ans: (3)
[2008]
Q2020. During transcription, RNA polymerase holoenzyme binds
to a gene promoter and assumes a saddle-like structure, what is it’s
DNA-binding sequence?
(1) TATA
(2) AATT
(3) TTAA
(4) CACC
Ans: (1)
[2008]
Q2021. Removal of introns and joining the exons in a defined order
in a transcription unit is called:
(1) capping
(2) tailing
(3) splicing
(4) transformation
Ans: (3)
[2008]
Q2022. What is not true for genetic code?
(1) It is unambiguous
(2) It is nearly universal
(3) A codon in mRNA is read in a non contiguous fashion
(4) It is degenerate
Ans: (3)
[2008]
Q2023. T.O. Diener discovered a:
(1) bacteriophage
(2) free infectious DNA
(3) free infectious RNA
(4) infectious protein
Ans: (3)
[2009]
Q2024. Haploids are more suitable for mutation studies than the
diploids. This is because
(1) haploids are more abundant in nature than diploids
(2) haploids are reproductively more stable than diploids
(3) all mutations, whether dominant or recessive are expressed in haploids
(4) mutagens penetrate in haploids more effectively than diploids
Ans: (3)
[2009]
Q2025. Which one of the following pairs of nitrogenous bases of
nucleic acids, is wrongly matched with the category mentioned
against it?
(1) Guanine, Adenine - Purines
(2) Thymine, Uracil - Pyrimidines
(3) Adenine, Thymine - Purines
(4) Uracil, Cytosine - Pyrimidines
Ans: (3)
[2009]
Q2026. Satellite DNA is useful tool in:
(1) forensic science
(2) organ transplantation
(3) genetic engineering
(4) sex determination
Ans: (1)
[2009]
Q2027. The one aspect which is not a salient feature of genetic
code, is its being:
(1) universal
(2) degenerate
(3) specific
(4) ambiguous
Ans: (4)
[2009]
Q2028. Select the two correct statements out of the four (a–d)
given below about lac operon. (i) Glucose or galactose may bind
with the repressor and inactivate it (ii) In the absence of lactose
the repressor binds with the operator region (iii) The z-gene codes
for permease (iv) This was elucidated by Francois Jacob and
Jacque Monod The correct statements are:
(1) (ii) and (iv)
(2) (ii) and (iii)
(3) (i) and (ii)
(4) (i) and (iii)
Ans: (1)
[2010]
Q2029. Whose experiments cracked the DNA and discovered
unequivocally that a genetic code is a ‘triplet’ .
(1) Beadle and Tantum
(2) Hershey and Chase
(3) Nirenberg and Mathaei
(4) Morgan and Sturtevant
Ans: (3)
[2010]
Q2030. Semi-conservative replication of DNA was first
demonstrated in:
(1) Salmonella typhimurium
(2) Escherichia coli
(3) Drosophila melanogaster
(4) Streptococcus pneumoniae
Ans: (2)
[2010]
Q2031. If one strand of DNA has the nitrogenous base sequence at
ATCTG, what would be the complementary RNA strand
sequence
(1) AACTG
(2) TTAGU
(3) ATCGU
(4) UAGAC
Ans: (4)
[2010]
Q2032. Which one of the following is not a part of a transcription
unit in DNA?
(1) A promoter
(2) The inducer
(3) The structural gene
(4) A terminator
Ans: (2)
[2011]
Q2033. Removal of RNA polymerase III from nucleoplasm will
affect the synthesis of:
(1) m RNA
(2) t RNA
(3) r RNA
(4) hn RNA
Ans: (2)
[2012]
Q2034. Which one of the following also acts as a catalyst in a
bacterial cell?
(1) hn RNA
(2) 5 sr RNA
(3) 23 sr RNA
(4) sn RNA
Ans: (3)
[2012]
Q2035. Which one of the following does not follow the central
dogma of molecular biology?
(1) Chlamydomonas
(2) Pea
(3) HIV
(4) Mucor
Ans: (3)
[2012]
Q2036. Which enzymes will be produced in a cell in which there is
a nonsense mutation in the lac Y gene?
(1) Lactose permease and transcetylase
(2) Lactose permease
(3) β- galactosidase
(4) Transacetylase
Ans: (3)
[2012]
Q2037.
Ans: (4)
[2012M]
Q2038. Which of the following forms the basis of DNA Finger
printing?
(1) The relative difference in the DNA occurrence in blood, skin and saliva.
(2) The relative proportions of purines and pyrimidines in DNA.
(3) The relative amount of DNA in the ridges and grooves of the
fingerprints.
(4) Satellite DNA occurring as highly repeated short DNA segments.
Ans: (4)
[2012M]
Q2039. Read the following four statements (A-D). (A) In
transcription, adenosine pairs with uracil. (B) Regulation of lac
operon by repressor is referred to as positive regulation. (C) The
human genome has approximately 50,000 genes. (D) Haemophilia
is a sex-linked recessive disease. How many of the above
statements are correct?
(1) Four
(2) Two
(3) One
(4) Three
Ans: (2)
Q2040. Removal of introns and joining of exons in a defined order
during transcription is called:
(1) Slicing
(2) Looping
(3) Splicing
(4) Inducing
Ans: (3)
[NEET 2013]
Q2041. In an inducible operon, the genes are
(1) Usually expressed unless a signal turns them “off ”
(2) Always expressed
(3) Never expressed
(4) Usually not expressed unless a signal turns them “on”
Ans: (4)
[NEET Kar. 2013]
Q2042.
Ans: (2)
[NEET Kar. 2013]
Q2043. One of the most frequently used techniques in DNA
fingerprinting is
(1) SSCP
(2) AFLP
(3) SCAR
(4) VNTR
Ans: (4)
[NEET Kar. 2013]
Q2044. Which of the following is not a property of the genetic
code?
(1) Ambiguous d) Degeneracy
(2) Universal (4) Non-overlapping
Ans: (1)

Q2045. Uridine, present only in RNA is a

(1) Nucleotide
(2) Pyrimidine
(3) Purine
(4) Nucleoside
Ans: (4)
[NEET Kar. 2013]
Q2046. Theory of inheritance of acquired characters was given
by
(1) Darwin
(2) Wallace
(3) De Vries
(4) Lamarck
Ans: (4)
[1988]
Q2047. “Continuity of germplasm” theory was given by
(1) Darwin
(2) de Vries
(3) Lamarck
(4) Weismann
Ans: (4)
[1988]
Q2048. Evolution is
(1) history of a race
(2) progressive development of a race
(3) development of a race
(4) history and development of a race alongwith variations
Ans: (4)
[1989]
Q2049. Phenomenon of organisms resembling others for escaping
from enemies is
(1) Homology
(2) Adaptation
(3) Analogy
(4) Mimicry
Ans: (4)
[1989]
Q2050. Humming bird and Hawk illustrate
(1) Adaptive radiation
(2) Convergent evolution
(3) Parallel evolution
(4) Homology
Ans: (1)
[1989]
Q2051. Correct order is
(1) Palaeozoic → Mesozoic → Coenozoic
(2) Pa l a e oz o i c → Archaeozoic → Coenozoic
(3) Mesozoic → Archaeozoic → Proterozoic
(4) A r c h a e oz o i c → Palaeozoic → Proterozoic
Ans: (1)
[1989]
Q2052. Which was absent in the atmosphere at the time of origin of
life?
(1) O2
(2) NH3
(3) CH4
(4) H2
Ans: (1)
[1990]
Q2053. Basic principles of embryonic development were
pronounced by
(1) Haeckel
(2) Van Baer
(3) Morgan
(4) Weismann
Ans: (2)
[1990]
Q2054. Parallelism is
(1) adaptive convergence of widely different species
(2) adaptive divergence
(3) adaptive convergence of closely related groups
(4) adaptive divergence of widely separated species
Ans: (3)
[1991]
Q2055. ‘Origin’ of species’ was written by
(1) Lamarck
(2) Oparin
(3) Darwin
(4) Weismann
Ans: (3)
[1991]
Q2056. Genetic drift is change of
(1) gene frequency from one generation to next
(2) gene frequency in same generation
(3) none of the above
(4) appearance of recessive genes
Ans: (1)
[1992]
Q2057. Theory of Natural selection dwells on 1993]
(1) changes in gene complex resulting in heritable variations
(2) role of environment in evolution
(3) none of these
(4) natural selection acting on favourable variations
Ans: (1)
Q2058. Weismann cut off tails of mice generation after generation
but tails neither disappeared nor shortened showing that
(1) Mutation theory is wrong
(2) Darwin was correct
(3) Lamarckism was wrong in inheritance of acquired characters.
(4) Tail is an essential organ
Ans: (3)
[1993]
Q2059. Evolutionary convergence is development of
(1) common set of characters in closely related groups
(2) common set of characters in group of different ancestry
(3) random mating.
(4) dissimilar characters in closely related groups
Ans: (2)
Q2060. The first organisms were
(1) Autotrophs
(2) Chemoautotrophs
(3) Eucaryotes
(4) Chemoheterotrophs
Ans: (4)
[1993]
Q2061. Homologous organs are
(1) Pectoral fins of Fish and fore limbs of Horse
(2) Wings of insects and Bat
(3) Wings of Grosshopper and Crow
(4) Gills of Fish and lungs of Rabbit
Ans: (1)
[1994]
Q2062. ‘Golden Age of Dinosaurs’/ Age of reptiles was
(1) Palaeozoic
(2) Mesozoic
(3) Psychozoic
(4) Coenozoic
Ans: (2)
[1994]
Q2063. Which one is irrelevant to evolution of man?
(1) Increased ability to communicate or develop community behaviour
(2) Perfection of hand for tool making
(3) Loss of tail
(4) Change of diet from hard nuts/roots to soft food
Ans: (3)
[1994]
Q2064. Which one does not favour Lamarckian concept of
inheritance of acquired characters?
(1) Presence of webbed toes in aquatic birds
(2) Lack of pigment in cave dwellers
(3) Melanisation of Peppered Moth in industrial areas.
(4) Absence of limbs in snakes
Ans: (3)
[1994]
Q2065. Frequency of a character increases when it is
(1) inheritable
(2) recessive
(3) adaptable
(4) dominant
Ans: (3)
[1994, 99]
Q2066. The closely related morphologically similar sympatric
populations, but reproductively isolated, are designated as
(1) clones
(2) clines
(3) sibling species
(4) demes
Ans: (3)
[1994]
Q2067. The homologous organs are those that show similarity in
(1) function
(2) size
(3) appearance
(4) origin
Ans: (4)
[1994]
Q2068. The presence of gill slits, in the embryos of all vertebrates,
supports the theory of
(1) metamorphosis
(2) biogenesis
(3) organic evolution
(4) recapitulation
Ans: (4)
[1995]
Q2069. Two geographical regions separated by high mountains
are
(1) Nearctic and Palaearctic
(2) Oriental and Australian
(3) Neotropical and Ethiopian
(4) Palaearctic and Oriental
Ans: (4)
[1995]
Q2070. The earliest fossil form in the phylogeny of Horse is
(1) Eohippus
(2) Merychippus
(3) Equus.
(4) Mesohippus
Ans: (1)
[1995]
Q2071. In the evolution of man, several changes occured in the
ancestral characters. Which one of the following changes is
irrelevant in this context?
(1) Change of diet from fruits, hard nuts and roots to softer food
(2) Loss of tail from body
(3) Perfection in the structure and working of hand for tool-making
(4) Increase in the ability to communicate with others and develop
community behaviour
Ans: (2)
[1996]
Q2072. Extremities, tail and ear are relatively shorter in animals
living in cooler regions as compared to those inhabiting warmer
zones. This is
(1) Gloger's Rule
(2) Bergman's Rule
(3) Allen's Rule
(4) Jordan's Rule
Ans: (3)
[1996]
Q2073. Which one of the following sets includes only the vestigial
structures in man?
(1) Coccyx, nictitating membrane, vermiform appendix, ear muscles
(2) Body hair, olecranon process, coccyx, patella
(3) Coccyx, body hair, ear ossicles, vermiform appendix
(4) Wisdom teeth, mammary glands, coccyx, patella
Ans: (1)
[1996]
Q2074. Identify the correct sequence in which the following
substances have appeared during the course of evolution of life on
earth
(1) Water, amino acids, nucleic acids, enzymes
(2) Glucose, amino acids, nucleic acids, proteins
(3) Amino acids, ammonia, phosphates, nucleic acids
(4) Ammonia, amino acids, proteins, nucleic acids
Ans: (4)
[1996]
Q2075. The kind of evolution in which two species of different
geneology come to resemble one another closely, is termed as
(1) parallel evolution
(2) progressive evolution
(3) retrogressive evolution
(4) convergent evolution
Ans: (4)
[1996]
Q2076. In general, in the developmental history of a mammalian
heart, it is observed that it passes through a two-chambered fish-
like heart, three-chambered frog-like heart and finally to four-
chambered stage. To which hypothesis can this above cited
statement be approximated?
(1) Biogenetic Law
(2) Hardy-Weinberg Law
(3) Mendelian Principles
(4) Lamarck's Principle
Ans: (1)
[1996]
Q2077. Which one of the following includes all homologous
organs?
(1) The thoracic leg of cockroach, the hind leg of frog and fore leg of rabbit
(2) The wing of butterfly, wing of bird, wing (patagia) of bat
(3) The wing of bird, wing of bat and wing of "flying" lizard
(4) The fore limb of frog, wing of bird and fore limb of rabbit
Ans: (4)
[1997]
Q2078. Which one of the following statements about fossil human
species is correct?
(1) Australopithecus fossils have been found in Australia
(2) Fossils of Homo neanderthalensis have been found recently in South
America
(3) Homo erectus was preceded by Homo habilis
(4) Neanderthal man and Cro-Magnon man did exist for sometime together
Ans: (1)
[1997]
Q2079. Common origin of man and chimpanzee is best shown by
(1) Binocular vision
(2) Banding pattern in chromosomes number 3 and 6
(3) Dental formula
(4) Cranial capacity
Ans: (2)
[1997]
Q2080. Which one of the following is regarded as the direct
ancestor of modern man?
(1) Homo habilis
(2) Homo erectus
(3) Australopithecus
(4) Ramapithecus
Ans: (2)
[1998]
Q2081. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(1) Neanderthal man is the direct ancestor of Homo sapiens
(2) Cro-Magnon man's fossil has been found in Ethiopia
(3) Australopithecus is the real ancestor of modern man
(4) Homo erectus is the ancestor of man
Ans: (4)
[1998, 02]
Q2082. Diversity in the type of beaks of finches adapted to
different feeding habits on the Galapagos Islands, as observed by
Darwin, provides evidence for
(1) Interspecific competition
(2) Intraspecific variations
(3) Origin of Species by natural selection
(4) Intraspecific competition
Ans: (3)
[1998]
Q2083. Life cannot originate from inorganic materials at present
because of
(1) absence of raw materials
(2) a very high amount of oxygen in the atmosphere
(3) high degree of environmental pollution
(4) very low atmospheric temperature
Ans: (2)
[1998]
Q2084. The age of the fossil of Dryopithecus on the geological
time scale is
(1) 50 × 106 years back
(2) 5 × 106 years back
(3) 75 × 106 years back
(4) 25 × 106 years back
Ans: (4)
 [1998]
Q2085. Genetic drift operates only in
(1) mendelian Populations
(2) smaller Populations
(3) island Populations
(4) larger Populations
Ans: (2)
[1998]
Q2086. Which one of the following features is closely related with
the evolution of humans?
(1) Binocular vision
(2) Loss of tail
(3) Flat nails
(4) Shortening of jaws
Ans: (2)
[2000]
Q2087. Which of the following primate is the closest relative of
humans?
(1) Gorilla
(2) Rhesus monkey
(3) Gibbon
(4) Orangutan
Ans: (1)
[2000]
Q2088. Homo sapiens evolved during
(1) Pliocene
(2) Pleistocene
(3) Miocene
(4) Oligocene
Ans: (1)
[2000]
Q2089. During organ differentiation in Drosophila an organ is
often modified to another organ such as wings could be replaced by
legs. Genes responsible for such metamorphosis are called
(1) Double dominant genes
(2) Homeotic genes
(3) Complimentary genes
(4) Plastid genes
Ans: (2)
[2000]
Q2090. Which is not a vestigial part in humans?
(1) Third molar
(2) Segmental muscles of abdomen
(3) Coccyx
(4) Finger nails
Ans: (4)
[2000]
Q2091. Darwin’s theory of pangenesis shows similarity with theory
of inheritance of acquired characters then what shall be correct
according to it?
(1) Development of organs is due to will power
(2) Useful organs become strong and developed while useless organs become
extinct. These organs help in struggle for survival
(3) There should be come physical basis of inheritance
(4) Size of organs increase with ageing
Ans: (3)
[2000]
Q2092. Which of the following is correct order of evolutionary
history of man?
(1) Pe k i n g m a n, H e i d e l b e r g m a n, Neanderthal, Cro-magnon
(2) Peking man, Homo sapiens, Neanderthal, Cro-magnon
(3) Peking man, Neanderthel, Homo sapiens, Heidelberg man
(4) Peking, Neanderthal, Homo sapiens, Cromagnon
Ans: (1)
[2001]
Q2093. Which of following is closest relative of man?
(1) Orangutan
(2) Chimpanzee
(3) Gibbon
(4) Gorilla
Ans: (2)
[2001]
Q2094. Similarities in organism with different genotype indicates
(1) Convergent evolution
(2) Microevolution
(3) Divergent evolution
(4) Macroevolution
Ans: (1)
[2001]
Q2095. Darwin’s finches provide an excellent evidence in favour
of evolution. This evidence comes from the field of
(1) Embryology
(2) Biogeography
(3) Palaentology
(4) Anatomy
Ans: (2)
[2001]
Q2096. Sequence of which of the followings is used to know the
phylogeny?
(1) tRNA
(2) mRNA
(3) DNA
(4) rRNA
Ans: (4)
[2001]
Q2097. There is no life on moon due to the absence of
(1) light
(2) O2
(3) temperature
(4) water
Ans: (4)
[2001]
Q2098. Which of the following are homologous organs?
(1) Wings of bat and butterfly
(2) Wings of birds and locust
(3) Legs of frog and cockroach
(4) Wings of birds (sparrow) and pectoral fins of fish
Ans: (4)
[2002]
Q2099. Half life period of C is about
(1) 50 years
(2) 500 years
(3) 5 × 104 years
(4) 5000 years
Ans: (4)
[2002]
Q2100. Occurrence of endemic species in South America and
Australia is due to
(1) There is no terrestial route to these places
(2) These species have been extinct from other regions
(3) Retrogressive evolution
(4) Continental separation
Ans: (4)
[2002]
Q2101. In which condition the gene ratio remains constant for any
species?
(1) Mutation
(2) Sexual selection
(3) Gene flow
(4) Random mating
Ans: (4)
[2002]
Q2102. According to fossils discovered up to present time origin
and evolution of man was started from
(1) Africa
(2) France
(3) China
(4) Java
Ans: (1)
[2002]
Q2103. Which of the following is most important for speciation?
(1) Behavioural isolation
(2) Seasonal isolation
(3) Tropical isolation
(4) Reproductive isolation
Ans: (2)
[2002]
Q2104. Two different species can not live for long duration in the
same niche or habitat. This law is
(1) Dollo's rule
(2) Allen's law
(3) Weisman's theory
(4) Gause's hypothesis
Ans: (4)

Q2105. In which era reptiles were dominant?

(1) Palaeozoic era
(2) Coenozoic era
(3) Archaeozoic era
(4) Mesozoic era
Ans: (4)
[2002]
Q2106. Convergent evolution is illustrated by
(1) bacterium and protozoan
(2) dogfish and whale
(3) starfish and cuttle fish
(4) rat and dog
Ans: (2)
[2003]
Q2107. In a random mating population in equilibrium, which of the
following brings about a change in gene frequency in a non-
directional manner?
(1) Random drift
(2) Migration
(3) Selection
(4) Mutations
Ans: (1)
[2003]
Q2108. Industrial melanism is an example of
(1) darkening of skin due to smoke from industries
(2) defensive adaptation of skin against ultraviolet radiations
(3) protective resemblance with the surroundings
(4) drug resistance
Ans: (3)
[2003]
Q2109. Which one of the following sequences was proposed by
Darwin and Wallace for organic evolution?
(1) Variations, constancy of population size, overproduction, natural selection
(2) Variations, natural selection, overproduction, constancy of population size
(3) Overproduction, constancy of population size, variations, natural selection
(4) Overproduction, variations, constancy of population size, natural selection
Ans: (4)
[2003]
Q2110. In recent years, DNA sequences (nucleotide sequence) of
mt-DNA and Y chromosomes were considered for the study of
human evolution, because
(1) they are uniparental in origin and do not take part in recombination
(2) they can be studied from the samples of fossil remains
(3) their structure is known in greater detail
(4) they are small, and therefore, easy to study
Ans: (1)
[2003]
Q2111. What kind of evidence suggested that man is more closely
related with chimpanzee than with other hominoid apes?
(1) Evidence from fossil remains, and the fossil mitochondrial DNA alone
(2) Evidence from DNA from sex chromosomes only
(3) Evidence from DNA extracted from sex chromosomes, autosomes and
mitochondria
(4) C o m p a r i s o n o f c h r o m o s o m e s morphology only
Ans: (3)
[2003]
Q2112. Presence of gills in the tadpole of frog indicates that
(1) frogs will have gills in future
(2) fishes were amphibious in the past
(3) frogs evolved from gilled ancestors
(4) fishes evolved from frog-like ancestors
Ans: (3)
[2003]
Q2113. Random genetic drift in a population probably results
from
(1) interbreeding within this population
(2) small population size
(3) constant low mutation rate
(4) highly genetically variable individuals
Ans: (2)
[2003]
Q2114. Darwin in his 'Natural Selection Theory' did not believe in
any role of which one of the following in organic evolution?
(1) Survival of the fittest
(2) Discontinuous variations
(3) Struggle for existence
(4) Parasites and predators as natural enemies
Ans: (2)
[2004]
Q2115. Which one of the following describes correctly the
homologous structures?
(1) Organs with anatomical dissimilarities, but performing same function
(2) Organs appearing only in embryonic stage and disappearing later in the
adult
(3) Organs that have no function now, but had an important function in
ancestors
(4) Organs with anatomical similarities, but performing different functions
Ans: (4)
[2004]
Q2116. There are two opposing views about origin of modern man.
According to one view Homo erectus in Asia were the ancestors of
modern man. A study of variation of DNA however suggested
African origin of modern man. What kind of observation on DNA,
variation could suggest this?
(1) Similar variation in Africa and Asia
(2) Greater variation in Asia than in Africa
(3) Variation only in Asia and no variation in Africa
(4) Greater variation in Africa than in Asia
Ans: (2)
[2004]
Q2117. Animals have the innate ability to escape from predation.
Examples for the same are given below. Select the incorrect
example.
(1) Poison fangs in snakes
(2) Colour change in Chameleon
(3) Melanism in moths
(4) Enlargement of body size by swallowing air in puffer fish
Ans: (1)
[2004]
Q2118. Which of the following is the relatively most accurate
method for dating of fossils?
(1) Electron-spin resonance method
(2) Radio-carbon method
(3) Uranium-lead method
(4) Potassium-argon method
Ans: (2)
[2005]
Q2119. According to Oparin, which one of the following was not
present in the primitive atmosphere of the earth
(1) Hydrogen
(2) Methane
(3) Water vapour
(4) Oxygen
Ans: (4)
[2005]
Q2120. Age of fossils in the past was generally determined by
radio-carbon method and other methods involving radioactive
elements found in the rocks. More precise methods, which were
used recently and led to the revision of the evolutionary periods for
different groups of organisms, includes
(1) electron spin resonance (ESR) and fossil DNA
(2) study of carbohydrates/proteins in fossils
(3) study of carbohydrates/proteins in rocks
(4) study of the conditions of fossilization
Ans: (1)
[2005]
Q2121. Which one of the following amino-acid was not found to
be synthesized in Miller's experiment?
(1) Alanine
(2) Aspartic acid
(3) Glycine
(4) Glutamic acid
Ans: (4)
[2005]
Q2122. de Vries gave his mutation theory on organic evolution
while working on:
(1) Oenothera lamarckiana
(2) Pisum sativum
(3) Althea rosea
(4) Drosophila melanogaster
Ans: (1)
[2005]
Q2123. Using imprints from a plate with complete medium and
carrying bacterial colonies, you can select streptomycin resistant
mutants and prove that such mutations do not originate as
adaptation. These imprints need to be used
(1) only on plates with streptomycin
(2) on plates with and without streptomycin
(3) only on plates without streptomycin
(4) on plates with minimal medium
Ans: (1)
[2005]
Q2124. Which one of the following phenomena supports Darwin’s
concept of natural selection in organic evolution?
(1) Prevalence of pesticide resistant insects
(2) Development of transgenic animals
(3) Development of organs from ‘stem cells’ for organ transplantation
(4) Production of ‘Dolly’, the sheep by cloning
Ans: (1)
[2005]
Q2125. Which one of the following experiments suggests that
simplest living organisms could not have originated spontaneously
from nonliving matter?
(1) Microbes appeared from unsterilized organic matter
(2) Larvae could appear in decaying organic matter.
(3) Meat was not spoiled, when heated and kept sealed in a vessel.
(4) Microbes did not appear in stored meat
Ans: (3)
[2006]
Q2126. When two species of different genealogy come to resemble
each other as a result of adaptation, the phenomenon is termed
(1) convergent evolution
(2) microevolution
(3) divergent evolution
(4) co-evolution
Ans: (1)
[2006]
Q2127. Which one of the following is not a living fossil?
(1) Peripatus
(2) Sphenodon
(3) King crab
(4) Archaeopteryx
Ans: (4)
[2006]
Q2128. An important evidence in favour of organic evolution is the
occurrence of
(1) Homologous and analogous organs
(2) Analogous and vestigial organs
(3) Homologous and vestigial organs
(4) Homologous organs only
Ans: (3)
[2006]
Q2129. Evolutionary history of an organism is known as
(1) Ontogeny
(2) Ancestry
(3) Phylogeny
(4) Paleontology
Ans: (3)
[2006]
Q2130. Jurassic period of the mesozoic era was characterised by
(1) Flowering plants and first dinosaurs appeared
(2) Radiation of reptiles and origin of mammal-like reptiles
(3) Gymnosperms were dominant plants and first birds appeared
(4) Dinosaurs become extinct and angiosperms appeared
Ans: (3)

Q2131. What is common between parrot, platypus and kangaroo?

(1) Ovoparity
(2) Toothless jaws
(3) Homeothermy
(4) Functional post-end tail
Ans: (3)
[2007]
Q2132. The finches of Galapagos islands provide an evidence in
favour of
(1) biogeographical evolution
(2) evolution due to mutation
(3) special creation.
(4) retrogressive evolution
Ans: (1)
 [2007]
Q2133. The concept of chemical evolution is based on
(1) possible origin of life by combination of chemicals under suitable
environmental conditions
(2) interaction of water, air and clay under intense heat
(3) crystallization of chemicals.
(4) effect of solar radiation on chemicals
Ans: (1)
[2007]
Q2134. Which one of the following statement is correct?
(1) Ontogeny repeats phylogeny
(2) There is no evidence of the existence of gills during embryogenesis of
mammals
(3) Stem cells are specialize cells.
(4) All plant and animal cells are totipotent
Ans: (1)
[2007]
Q2135. Among the human ancestors the brain size was more that
1000 cc in
(1) Homo habilis
(2) Homo erectus
(3) Homo neanderthalensis
(4) Ramapithecus
Ans: (3)
[2007]
Q2136. One of the important consequences of geographical
isolation is
(1) random creation of new species
(2) preventing speciation
(3) no change in the isolated fauna.
(4) speciation through reproductive isolation
Ans: (4)
[2007]
Q2137. Adaptive radiation refers to
(1) power of adaptation in an individual to a variety of environments
(2) evolution of different species from a common ancestor
(3) adaptations due to geographical isolation.
(4) migration of members of a species to different geographical areas
Ans: (2)
[2007]
Q2138. Industrial melanism as observed in peppered moth proves
that
(1) melanism is a pollution-generated feature
(2) the melanic form of the moth has no selective advantage over lighter form
in industrial area
(3) the true black melanic forms arise by a recurring random mutation
(4) the lighter-form moth has no selective advantage either in polluted
industrial area or non-polluted area
Ans: (3)
[2007]
Q2139. What is common to whale, seal and shark?
(1) Homoiothermy
(2) Thick subcutaneous fat
(3) Seasonal migration.
(4) Convergent evolution
Ans: (4)
[2007]
Q2140. Which one of the following is a matching pair of a body
feature and the animal possessing it?
(1) Ventral heart - Scorpion
(2) Ventral central - Leech nervous system
(3) Post-end tail - Octopus.
(4) Pharyngeal gill slits - Chameleon absent in embryo
Ans: (2)
[2007]
Q2141. Which one of the following pairs of items correctly belongs
to the category of organs mentioned against it?
(1) Nephridia of earthworm and malpighian tubules of Cockroach - Excretory
organs
(2) Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendril of Cucurbita - Analogous organs
(3) Wings of honey bee and wings of crow - Homologous organs
(4) Nictitating membrane and blind spot in human eye - Vestigial organs
Ans: (1)
[2008]
Q2142. Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendril of cucurbita are
example of
(1) vestigial organs
(2) analogous organs
(3) retrogressive evolution
(4) homologous organs
Ans: (4)
[2008]
Q2143. Darwinism finches are an excellent example of
(1) brood parasitism
(2) adaptive radiation
(3) connecting links
(4) seasonal migration
Ans: (2)
[2008]
Q2144. Which one of the following scientists name is correctly
matched with the theory put forth by him?
(1) De Vries - Natural selection
(2) Weismann - Theory of continuity of Germplasm
(3) Mendel - Theory of Pangenesis
(4) Pasteur - Inheritance of acquired characters
Ans: (2)
[2008]
Q2145. Which one of the following in birds, indicates their
reptilian ancestry?
(1) Two special chambers crop and gizzard in their digestive tract
(2) Scales on their hind limbs
(3) Eggs with a calcareous shell
(4) Four-chambered heart
Ans: (2)
[2008]
Q2146. Evolution of different species in a given area starting from
a point and spreading to other geographical areas is known as:
(1) Migration
(2) Adaptive radiation
(3) Divergent evolution
(4) Natural selection
Ans: (2)
[2008]
Q2147. What was the most significant trend in evolution of modern
man (Homo sapiens) from his ancestors?
(1) Binocular vision
(2) Upright posture
(3) lncreasing brain capacity
(4) Shortening of jaws
Ans: (3)
[2009]
Q2148. Darwin’s finches are a good example of:
(1) Adaptive radiation
(2) Industrial melanism
(3) Convergent evolution
(4) Connecting link
Ans: (1)
[2010]
Q2149. Peripatus is a connecting link between:
(1) Coelenterata and Porifera
(2) Mollusca and Echinodermata
(3) Ctenophora and Platyhelminthes
(4) Annelida and Arthropoda
Ans: (4)
[2011]
Q2150. Which one of the following is incorrect about the
characteristics of protobionts (coacervates and microspheres) as
envisaged in the biogenic origin of life?
(1) They were partially isolated from the surroundings
(2) They were able to reproduce
(3) They could maintain an internal environment
(4) They could separate combinations of molecules from the surroundings
Ans: (4)
[2012]
Q2151. The eye of octopus and eye of cat show different patterns
of structure, yet they perform similar function. This is an example
of:
(1) Analogous organs that have evolved due to divergent evolution.
(2) Homologous organs that have evolved due to divergent evolution.
(3) Homologous organs that have evolved due to convergent evolution.
(4) Analogous organs that have evolved due to convergent evolution.
Ans: (4)
[2012]
Q2152. The idea of mutations was brought forth by
(1) Hardy Weinberg, who worked on allele frequencies in a population.
(2) Gregor Mendel, who worked on Pisum sativum.
(3) Charles Darwin, who observed a wide variety of organisms during sea
voyage.
(4) Hugo de Vries, who worked on evening primrose.
Ans: (4)
[2012]
Q2153. The extinct human who lived 1,00,000 to 40,000 years ago,
in Europe, Asia and parts of Africa, With short stature, heavy
eyebrows, retreating fore heads, large jaws with heavy teeth, stocky
bodies, a lumbering gait and stooped posture was
(1) Cro-magnan humans
(2) Homo habilis
(3) Ramapithecus
(4) Neanderthal human
Ans: (4)
[2012]
Q2154. What was the most significant trend in the evolution of
modern man (Homo sapiens) from his ancestors?
(1) Increasing cranial capacity
(2) Shortening of jaws
(3) Upright posture
(4) Binocular vision
Ans: (3)
[2012M]
Q2155. Which one of the following options gives one correct
example each of convergent evolution and divergent evolution?
Convergent evolution -- Divergent evolution
(1) Bones of forelimbs of vertebrates -- Wings of butterfly and birds
(2) Eyes of octopus and mammals -- Bones of forelimbs of vertebrates
(3) "Thorns of Bougainvillia and tendrils of Cucurbita" -- Eyes of Octopus
and mammals
(4) "Thorns of Bougainvillia and tendrils of Cucurbita" -- Wings of
butterflies and birds
Ans: (2)
[NEET 2013]
Q2156. The finch species of Galapagos Islands are grouped
according to their food sources. Which of the following is not a
finch food?
(1) Insects
(2) Seeds
(3) Tree buds
(4) Carrion
Ans: (4)
[NEET 2013]
Q2157. Random unidirectional change in allele frequencies that
occurs by chance in all populations and especially in small
populations is known as
(1) Natural selection
(2) Mutation
(3) Genetic drift
(4) Migration
Ans: (3)
[NEET 2013]
Q2158. According to Darwin, The organic evolution is due to:
(1) Reduced feeding efficiency in one species
(2) Interspecific competition
(3) Intraspecific competition
(4) Competition within closely related species
Ans: (3)
[NEET 2013]
Q2159. Variation in gene frequencies within populations can occur
by chance rather than by natural section. The is referred to as:
(1) Genetic load
(2) Genetic drift
(3) Genetic flow
(4) Random mating
Ans: (2)
[NEET Kar. 2013]
Q2160. The process by which organisms with different
evolutionary history evolve similar phenotypic adaptations in
response to a common environmental challenge, is called:
(1) Adaptive radiation
(2) Convergent evolution
(3) Natural selection
(4) Non-random evolution
Ans: (2)
[NEET Kar. 2013]
Q2161. A cell coded protein formed in response to infection with
most animal viruses is
(1) Interferon
(2) Antigen
(3) Histone
(4) Antibody
Ans: (1)
[NEET Kar. 2013]
Q2162. Opiate narcotic is
(1) Heroin
(2) Bhang
(3) Nicotine
(4) Charas
Ans: (1)
[1990]
Q2163. Cells involved in immune mechanism are
(1) Eosinophils
(2) Erythrocytes
(3) Thrombocytes
(4) Lymphocytes
Ans: (4)
[1993]
Q2164. Analgesic drugs
(1) relieve fatigue
(2) form tissues
(3) cause pain
(4) relieve pain
Ans: (4)
[1993]
Q2165. Dinosaurs dominated the world in which of the following
geological era?
(1) Jurassic
(2) Devonion
(3) Mesozoic
(4) Coenozoic
Ans: (3)
[1994]
Q2166. Which of the following pair is not correctly matched?
(1) Syphilis - Trichuris trichiura
(2) Dengue fever -arbovirus
(3) Malaria - Plasmodium vivax
(4) Plague - Yersinia pestis
Ans: (1)
[1994]
Q2167. Sarcoma is cancer of
(1) blood
(2) epithelial tissue
(3) endodermal tissues
(4) mesodermal tissue
Ans: (4)
[1994]
Q2168. A sexually transmitted disease caused by bacteria is
(1) Syphilis
(2) Leprosy
(3) Pertussis
(4) aids
Ans: (1)
[1994]
Q2169. Which one of the sexually transmitted diseases is correctly
matched with its pathogen?
(1) Gonorrhoea – Entamoeba histolytica
(2) Urethritis – Bacillus anthracis
(3) Soft sore – Bacillus brevis
(4) Syphilis – Treponema pallidum
Ans: (4)
[1994]
Q2170. Obstacle to large scale transplantation of organs is
(1) religious or ethnic considerations
(2) insufficiency of organ donors
(3) lack of effective surgical techniques
(4) immunological rejection of foreign bodies
Ans: (4)
[1995]
Q2171. In which one of the following pairs of diseases both are
caused by viruses?
(1) Syphilis and AIDS
(2) Tetanus and typhoid
(3) Measles and rabies
(4) Whooping cough and sleeping sickness
Ans: (3)
[1995]
Q2172. Hypersensitivity to an allergen is associated with
(1) age of the individual
(2) aberrant functioning of the immune mechanism
(3) food habits
(4) increase in ambient temperature
Ans: (2)
[1995]
Q2173. Which one of the following is an Indian medicinal plant?
(1) Oryza sativa
(2) Saccharum officinarum
(3) Solanum melongena
(4) Rauwolfia serpentina
Ans: (4)
[1996]
Q2174. The alkaloid ajmalicine is obtained from
(1) Curcuma
(2) Atropa
(3) Sarpgandha
(4) Papaver
Ans: (3)
[1996]
Q2175. Which of the following diseases is due to an allergic
reaction?
(1) Hay fever
(2) Goitre
(3) Enteric fever
(4) Skin cancer
Ans: (1)
[1996]
Q2176. Diptheria is caused by
(1) excessive immune response by the host's body
(2) poisons released from dead bacterial cells into the host tissue
(3) poisons released by virus into the host tissues
(4) poisons released by living bacterial cells into the host tissue
Ans: (2)
[1996]
Q2177. Which of the following symptoms indicate radiation
sickness?
(1) Nausea and anaemia
(2) Red and ulcerated skin
(3) Ulcerated skin, nausea, loss of hair and anaemia
(4) Nausea and loss of hair
Ans: (3)
[1996]
Q2178. Chemically an antibody is a
(1) protein
(2) lipid
(3) lipoprotein
(4) nucleoprotein
Ans: (1)
[1996, 99]
Q2179. Passive immunity was discovered by
(1) Robert Koch
(2) Edward Jenner
(3) Louis Pasteur
(4) Emil von Behring
Ans: (2)
[1997]
Q2180. Retroviruses are implicated as a cause for cancer in humans
because they
(1) may carry v-oncogenes in their genome
(2) carry gene for reverse transcriptase
(3) carry single stranded RNA as their genetic material
(4) may carry cellular proto-oncogenes in their genome
Ans: (4)
[1997]
Q2181. Human immuno deficiency virus (HIV) has a protein coat
and a genetic material which is
(1) single stranded RNA
(2) single stranded DNA
(3) double stranded RNA
(4) double stranded DNA
Ans: (1)
Q2182. The use of Cannabis products (bhang, ganja, charas,
marijuana or hashish) causes
(1) suppresses brain function and relieves pain
(2) depression of brain activity and feeling of calmness
(3) stimulates the nervous system and increases alterness and activity.
(4) alters thoughts, perceptions and feelings
Ans: (4)
[1997]
Q2183. Which one of the following is an opiate narcotic?
(1) Amphetamines
(2) Barbiturates
(3) LSD
(4) Morphine
Ans: (4)
[1997]
Q2184. If a certain person shows production of interferons in his
body, the chances are that he has got an infection of
(1) malaria
(2) typhoid
(3) tetanus
(4) measles
Ans: (4)
[1997]
Q2185. Which one of the following diseases is now considered
nearly eradicated from India?
(1) Small pox
(2) Plague
(3) Poliomyelitis
(4) Kala azar
Ans: (1)
[1998, 2000]
Q2186. It is not possible to apply Koch's postulates to
(1) Leprosy
(2) Diptheria
(3) Tuberculosis
(4) Cholera
Ans: (1)
[1998]
Q2187. The cell in the human body invaded by the human
immuno-deficiency virus (HIV) is
(1) B-cell
(2) T-helper cell
(3) Macrophage
(4) Erythrocyte
Ans: (2)
[1998]
Q2188. Vaccines are
(1) curative medicines
(2) treated bacteria or viruses or one of their proteins
(3) monoclonal antibodies
(4) MHC (major histocompatibility complex) proteins
Ans: (2)
[1999]
Q2189. Typhoid fever is caused by
(1) Escherichia
(2) Salmonella
(3) Giardia
(4) Shigella
Ans: (2)
[1999, 2006]
Q2190. Botulism caused by Clostridium botulinum affects the
(1) spleen
(2) intestine
(3) lymph glands
(4) neuromuscular junction
Ans: (4)
[1999]
Q2191. Small proteins produced by vertebrate cells in response to
viral infections inhibiting viral multiplication are known as
(1) Interferons
(2) Lipoproteins
(3) Antitoxins
(4) Immuglobulins
Ans: (1)
[1999]
Q2192. Bovine spongiform encephalopathy, a bovine disease is
related to which human disease?
(1) Encephalitis
(2) Cerebral spondylitis
(3) Kala-azar
(4) Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease
Ans: (4)
[1999]
Q2193. Correctly match sexually transmitted disease with its
pathogen?
(1) Urethritis – Entamoeba gingivalis
(2) Syphilis – Treponema pallidum
(3) Gonorrhoea – Leishmania donovani
(4) AIDS – Bacillus anthracis
Ans: (2)
[2000]
Q2194. Hybridoma cells are
(1) only cells having oncogenes
(2) nervous cells of frog
(3) product of spore formation in bacteria
(4) hybrid cells resulting from myeloma cells
Ans: (4)
[2000]
Q2195. During blood typing agglutination indicates that the
(1) RBC carry certain antibodies
(2) RBC carry certain antigens
(3) Plasma contains certain antibodies
(4) Plasma contains certain antigens
Ans: (2)
[2000]
Q2196. Reason of lung cancer
(1) Cement factory
(2) Asbestos
(3) Bauxite mining
(4) Calcium fluoride
Ans: (2)
[2000]
Q2197. Which of the following is most infectious disease?
(1) Amoebiosis
(2) Hepatitis - B
(3) Malaria
(4) AIDS
Ans: (2)

Q2198. Salmonella is related with

(1) T.B.
(2) Typhoid
(3) Tetanus
(4) Polio
Ans: (2)
[2001]
Q2199. Which one of the following is correct match?
(1) Morphine — Hallucinogenic
(2) Reserpine — Tranquilizer
(3) Bhang — Analgesic
(4) Cocaine — Opiate narcotic
Ans: (2)
[2001]
Q2200. For which of the following disease, there is preventive
vaccine?
(1) Syphilis
(2) AIDS
(3) Gonorrhea
(4) Hepatitis B
Ans: (4)
[2001]
Q2201. Carcinoma refers to
(1) malignant tumours of the skin or mucous membrane
(2) benign tumours of the connective tissue
(3) malignant tumours of the colon
(4) malignant tumours of the connective tissue
Ans: (1)
[2001]
Q2202. Short-lived immunity acquired from mother to foetus
across placenta or through mother's milk to the infant is categorised
as
(1) passive immunity
(2) innate non-specific immunity
(3) cellular immunity
(4) active immunity
Ans: (1)
[2001]
Q2203. Cancerous cells can easily be destroyed by radiations due
to
(1) fast mutation
(2) rapid cell division
(3) lack of oxygen
(4) lack of nutrition
Ans: (2)
[2002]
Q2204. Which statement is correct about centre of origin of
plant?
(1) Climatic conditions more favourable
(2) More diversity in improved varieties
(3) None of these
(4) Frequency of dominant gene is more
Ans: (4)
[2003]
Q2205. L. S. D. is
(1) stimulant
(2) hallucinogenic
(3) tranquiliser
(4) sedative
Ans: (2)
[2003]
Q2206. AIDS is caused by HIV that principally infects:
(1) cytotoxic T cells
(2) all lymphocytes
(3) T 4 lymphocytes
(4) activator B cells
Ans: (3)
[2003]
Q2207. ELISA is used to detect viruses, where
(1) Alkaline phosphatase is the key reagent
(2) DNA-probes are required
(3) Catalase is the key reagent
(4) Southern bloting is done
Ans: (1)
[2003]
Q2208. Which one of the following is not correctly matched
(1) Aedes aegypti - Yellow fever
(2) Glossina palpalis - Sleeping sickness
(3) Anopheles culifacies- Leishmaniasis
(4) Culex pipiens - Filariasis
Ans: (3)
[2004]
Q2209. Which one of the following conditions though harmful in
itself, is also a potential saviour from a mosquito borne infectious
disease?
(1) Sickle cell anaemia
(2) Leukemia
(3) Pernicious anaemia
(4) Thalassemia
Ans: (1)
 [2004]
Q2210. What is true about T-lymphocytes in mammals?
(1) These originate in lymphoid tissues
(2) These are produced in thyroid
(3) They scavenge damaged cells and cellular debris
(4) There are three main types — cytotoxic T-cells, helper T-cells and
suppressor T-cells
Ans: (1)
[2005]
Q2211. If you suspect major deficiency of antibodies in a person to
which of the following would you look for confirmatory
evidence?
(1) haemocytes
(2) serum globulins
(3) serum albumins
(4) fibrinogen in the plasma
Ans: (2)
[2005]
Q2212. Antibodies in our body are complex
(1) glycoproteins
(2) steroids
(3) lipoproteins
(4) prostaglandins
Ans: (1)
[2006]
Q2213. The 'blue baby' syndrome results from
(1) excess of TDS (total dissolved solids)
(2) methaemoglobin
(3) excess of chloride
(4) excess of dissolved oxygen
Ans: (2)
[2006]
Q2214. A person showing unpredictable moods, outbursts of
emotion, quarrelsome behaviour and conflicts with other is
suffering from
(1) Addictive disorders
(2) Borderline personality disorder (BPD)
(3) Schizophrenia
(4) Mood disorders
Ans: (2)
[2006]
Q2215. Which one of the following depresses brain activity and
produced feelings of calmness, relaxation and drowsiness?
(1) Amphetamines
(2) Morphine
(3) Hashish
(4) Valium
Ans: (4)
[2007]
Q2216. To which type of barriers under innate immunity, do the
saliva in the mouth and the tears from the eyes, belong?
(1) Physiological barriers
(2) Cytokine barriers
(3) Physical barriers
(4) Cellular barriers
Ans: (1)
[2007]
Q2217. Which one of the following is the correct statement
regarding the particular psychotropic drug specified?
(1) Morphine leads to delusions and disturbed emotions
(2) Hashish causes after thought perceptions and hallucinations
(3) Barbiturates cause relaxation and temporary euphoria
(4) Opium stimulates nervous system and causes hallucinations
Ans: (2)
[2007]
Q2218. Match the disease in Column I with the appropriate items
(pathogen/prevention/ treatment) in Column II. Column I Column
II
(1) Cholera (iii) DPT Vaccine
(2) Amoebiasis (i) Treponema pallidum
(3) Syphilis (iv) Use oral rehydration therapy
(4) Diphtheria (ii) Use only sterilized food and water
Ans: (3)
[2008]
Q2219. Increased asthmatics attacks in certain seasons are related
to
(1) low temperature
(2) eating fruits preserved in tin containers
(3) hot and humid environment.
(4) inhalation of seasonal pollen
Ans: (4)
[2008]
Q2220. Ultrasound of how much frequency is beamed into human
body for sonography?
(2) 45 - 70 MHZ
(2) 15 - 30 MHZ
(3) 30 - 45 MHZ.
(4) 1 - 15 MHZ
Ans: (4)
[2008]
Q2221. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(1) Malignant tumours ours may exhibit metastasis.
(2) Benign tumours show the property of metastasis.
(3) Patients who have undergone surgery are given cannabinoids to relieve
pain.
(4) Heroin accelerates body functions.
Ans: (1)
[2008]
Q2222. Which of the following is a pair of viral diseases?
(1) Typhoid, tuberculosis
(2) Common cold, AIDS
(3) Ringworm, AIDS
(4) Dysentery, common cold
Ans: (2)
[2009]
Q2223. The letter T in T -lymphocyte refers to
(1) Thymus
(2) Thalamus
(3) Thyroid
(4) Tonsil
Ans: (1)
Q2224. A person likely to develop tetanus is immunised by
administering
(1) weakened germs
(2) preformed antibodies
(3) dead germs
(4) wide spectrum antibiotics
Ans: (1)
[2009]
Q2225. Consider the following statements about biomedical
technologies
(1) Computerised axial tomography (CAT) shows detailed internal structure
as seen in a section of body
(2) During open heart surgery blood is circulated in the heart-lung machine
(3) X-ray provides clear and detailed images of organs like prostate glands
and lungs Which two of the above statements are correct?
(4) Blockage in coronary arteries is removed by angiography
Ans: (1)
[2009]
Q2226. Where will you look for the sporozoites of the malarial
parasite?
(1) Spleen of infected humans
(2) Saliva of infected female Anopheles mosquito
(3) Salivary glands of freshly moulted female Anopheles mosquito
(4) Red blood corpuscles of humans suffering from malaria
Ans: (2)
[2009]
Q2227. Which one of the following statements is correct with
respect to AIDS?
(1) AIDS patients are being fully cured cent per cent with proper care and
nutrition
(2) The HIV can be transmitted through eating food together with an infected
person
(3) The causative HIV retrovirus enters helper T - lymphocytes thus reducing
their numbers
(4) Drug addicts are least susceptible to HIV infection.
Ans: (3)
[2010]
Q2228. Widal test is used for the diagnosis of
(1) Tuberculosis
(2) Malaria
(3) Typhoid
(4) Pneumonia
Ans: (3)
[2010]
Q2229. Select the correct statement from the ones given below?
(1) Chewing tobacco lowers blood pressure and heart rate
(2) Barbiturates when given to criminals make them tell the truth
(3) Cocaine is given to patients after surgery as it stimulates recovery
(4) Morphine is often given to persons who have undergone surgery as a pain
killer
Ans: (4)
[2010]
Q2230. Use of anti-histamines and steroids give a quick relief
from
(1) headache
(2) nausea
(3) allergy
(4) cough
Ans: (1)
[2011]
Q2231. The pathogen Microsporum responsible for ringworm
disease in humans belongs to the same kingdom of organisms as
that of
(1) Rhizopus, a mould
(2) Taenia, a tapeworm
(3) Ascaris, a round worm
(4) Wuchereria, a filarial worm
Ans: (1)
[2011]
Q2232. A certain patient is suspected to be suffering from
Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome. Which diagnostic
technique will you recommend for its detection?
(1) Ultra sound
(2) ELISA
(3) WIDAL
(4) MRI
Ans: (2)
[2011]
Q2233. Which one of the following acts as a physiological barrier
to the entry of microorganisms in human body?
(1) Monocytes
(2) Epithelium of urogenital tract
(3) Skin
(4) Tears
Ans: (3)
[2011]
Q2234. Which one of the following is categorised as a parasite in
true sense?
(1) Head louse living on the human scalp as well as laying eggs on human
hair
(2) The female Anopheles bites and sucks blood from humans
(3) The cuckoo (koel) lays its eggs in crow’s nest.
(4) Human foetus developing inside the uterus draws nourishment from the
mother
Ans: (1)
[2011]
Q2235. At which stage of HIV infection does one usually show
symptoms of AIDS?
(1) When HIV replicates rapidly in helper T-lymphocytes and damages large
number of these
(2) When the infecting retrovirus enters host cells
(3) Within 15 day of sexual contact with an infected person.
(4) When viral DNA is produced by reverse trancriptase
Ans: (1)
[2011M]
Q2236. Widal Test is carried out to test:
(1) HIV/AIDS
(2) Malaria
(3) Typhoid fever
(4) Diabetes mellitus
Ans: (3)
[2011M]
Q2237. Motile zygote of Plasmodium occurs in:
(1) Human RBCs
(2) Gut of female Anopheles
(3) Human liver
(4) Salivary glands of Anopheles
Ans: (2)
[2011M]
Q2238. Select the correct statement with respect to diseases and
immunisation?
(1) Certain protozoans have been used to mass produce hepatitis B vaccine.
(2) If due to some reason B-and T-lymphocytes are damaged, the body will
not produce antibodies against a pathogen
(3) Injection of snake antivenom against snake bite is an example of active
immunisation
(4) Injection of dead/ inactivated pathogens causes passive immunity
Ans: (2)
[2011M]
Q2239. Common cold is not cured by antibiotics because it is
(1) caused by a Gram-negative bacterium
(2) caused by a virus
(3) not an infectious disease
(4) caused by a Gram-positive bacterium
Ans: (2)
Q2240. Which one of the following option gives the correct
matching of a disease with its causative organism and mode of
infection. Disease – Causative ORGANISM -- Mode of Infection
(1) Elephantiasis -- Wuchereria -- infected bancrofti water and food
(2)Typhoid -- Salmonella typhii -- With inspired air
(3) Malaria -- Plasmodium -- Bite of male vivax Anopheles mosquito
(4)Pneumonia -- Streptococcus -- Droplet pneumoniae Infection
Ans: (4)
[2012]
Q2241. Read the following four statements (A-D). (A) Colostrum
is recommended for the new born because it is rich in antigens. (B)
Chikungunya is caused by a Gram negative bacterium. (C) Tissue
culture has proved useful in obtaining virus-free plants. (D) Beer is
manufactured by distillation of fermented grape juice. How many
of the above statements are wrong?
(1) Four
(2) Two
(3) One
(4) Three
Ans: (2)
[2012]
Q2242. Cirrhosis of liver is caused by the chronic intake of
(1) Tobacco (Chewing)
(2) Opium
(3) Cocaine
(4) Alcohol
Ans: (4)
[2012]
Q2243. In which one of the following options the two examples are
correctly matched with their particular type of immunity.
Examples -- Types of immunity
(1) Saliva in mouth and Tear in eyes -- Physical barriers
(2) Polymorphonuclear leukocytes and monocytes -- Cellular barriers
(3) Mucus coating of epithelium lining the urinogenital tract-and the HCl in
stomach -- Physiological barriers
(4) Anti-tetanus and antisnake bite injection -- Active immunity
Ans: (2)
[2012]
Q2244. Which one of the following is not a property of cancerous
cells whereas the remaining three are?
(1) They divide in an uncontrolled manner
(2) They compete with normal cells for vital nutrients.
(3) They show contact inhibition.
(4) They do not remain confined in the area of formation.
Ans: (3)
[2012]
Q2245. Common cold differs from pneumonia in, that:
(1) Pneumonia is caused by a virus while the common cold is caused by the
bacterium Haemophilus influenzae.
(2) Pneumonia is a communicable disease whereas the common cold is a
nutritional deficiency disease.
(3) Pneumonia pathogen infects alveoli whereas the common cold affects
nose and respiratory passage but not the lungs.
(4) Pneumonia can be prevented by a live attenuated bacterial vaccine
whereas the common cold has no effective vaccine.
Ans: (3)
[2012M]
Q2246. Identify the site where Wuchereria bancrofti is normally
found on human body
(1) Blood vessels of the thigh region
(2) Lymphatic vessels of the lower limbs
(3) Skin between the fingers
(4) Muscles of the legs
Ans: (2)
Q2247. The cell-mediated immunity inside the human body is
carried out by:
(1) Erythrocytes
(2) B-lymphocytes
(3) T-lymphocytes
(4) Thrombocytes
Ans: (3)
[2012M]
Q2248. Infection of Ascaris usually occurs by:
(1) Mosquito bite.
(2) Eating imperfectly cooked pork.
(3) Drinking water containing eggs of Ascaris.
(4) Tse-tse fly.
Ans: (3)
[NEET 2013]
Q2249. Which one of the following statements is correct with
respect to immunity?
(1) Antibodies are protein molecules, each of which has four light chains.
(2) Preformed antibodies need to be injected to treat the bite by a viper snake.
(3) Rejection of a kidney graft is the function of B-lymphocytes.
(4) The antibodies against small pox pathogen are produced by T –
lymphocytes.
Ans: (2)
[NEET 2013]
Q2250.
Ans: (3)
[NEET Kar. 2013]
Q2251. Haploid plant cultures are obtained from
(1) pollen grains
(2) leaves
(3) buds
(4) root tip
Ans: (1)
[NEET Kar. 2013]
Q2252. Most of our crop plants are
(1) mixed genotypic in origin
(2) autopolyploid in origin
(3) heterozygous in origin
(4) allopolyploid in origin
Ans: (2)
[1989]
Q2253. Haploid plants are preferred over diploids for mutation
study because in haploids
(1) culturing is easier
(2) r e c e s s i v e m u t a t i o n e x p r e s s e s immediately
(3) d o m i n a n t m u t a t i o n e x p r e s s e s immediately
(4) induction of mutations is easier
Ans: (2)
[1993]
Q2254. In crop improvement programme, haploids are important
because they
(1) grow better under adverse conditions
(2) require one half of nutrients
(3) form perfect homozygous
(4) are helpful in study of meiosis
Ans: (3)
[1994]
Q2255. Which one of the following is a hallucinogenic drug?
(1) Morphine
(2) Opium
(3) Lysergic acid diethylamide
(4) Caffeine
Ans: (3)
[1994]
Q2256. Pasteurization of milk involve heating for
(1) 30 minutes at about 65ºC
(2) 60 minutes at about 90ºC
(3) 60 minutes at 100ºC
(4) 30 minutes at about 50ºC
Ans: (1)
[1995]
Q2257. The long-term prospects for a truly human civilization
depend in a large measure on
(1) colonization of underpopulated areas
(2) the ability of humanity to moderate its fecundity
(3) control of human diseases
(4) increasing the food production
Ans: (3)
[1995]
Q2258. The silkworm silk is the product of
(1) salivary gland of the larva
(2) cuticle of the larva
(3) salivary gland of the adult
(4) cuticle of the adult
Ans: (1)
[1995]
Q2259. One of the major difficulties in the biological control of
insect pests is the
(1) predator does not always survive when transferred to a new environment
(2) practical difficulty of introducing the predator to specific areas
(3) the predator develops a preference to other diets and may itself become a
pest.
(4) method is less effective as compared with the use of insecticides
Ans: (3)
[1996]
Q2260. The rotenone is
(1) a natural herbicide
(2) an insect hormone
(3) a natural insecticide
(4) a bioherbicide
Ans: (3)
[1996]
Q2261. Which of the following has been recently used for
increasing productivity of super milk cows?
(1) Embryo transplantation only
(2) Artificial insemination by a pedigreed bull only
(3) A combination of superovulation, artificial insemination and embryo
transplantation into a 'carrier cow' (surrogate mother)
(4) Superovulation of a high production cow only
Ans: (3)
[1996]
Q2262. Of the world’s top five crops in terms of annual
production
(1) four belong to Poaceae (Gramineae) and one to Solanaceae
(2) all five belong to the family Poaceae (Gramineae)
(3) three belong to Poaceae (Gramineae), one to Leguminosae and one to
Solanaceae.
(4) four belong to Poaceae (Graminaeae) and one to Leguminosae
Ans: (1)
[1996]
Q2263. Suppression of reproduction of one type of organism by
utilizing some features of its biology or physiology to destroy it or
by use of another organism is known as
(1) biological control
(2) competition
(3) physiological control
(4) predation
Ans: (1)
[1996]
Q2264. Which one of the following is an exotic Indian fish?
(1) Cyprinus carpio
(2) Catla catla
(3) Lebeo rohita
(4) Heteropneustes fossilis
Ans: (1)
[1997]
Q2265. The earliest animal to have been domesticated by man was
most likely the
(1) dog
(2) horse
(3) pig
(4) cow
Ans: (1)
[1997]
Q2266. Biological control component is central to advanced
agricultural production. Which of the following is used as a third
generation pesticide?
(1) Pathogens
(2) Insect repellants
(3) Insect hormone analogues
(4) Pheromones
Ans: (4)
[1997]
Q2267. Lathyrism which is caused by consumption of Khesari dal
is a disease characterised by
(1) mental retardation, delay in the onset of puberty and cardiovascular
abnormalities
(2) reproductive failure, susceptibility to diabetes mellitus and skeletal
abnormalities
(3) gross skeletal deformation and thinning of collagen fibres and fibrils
(4) retardation of body growth, precocious puberty and renal dysfunction
Ans: (3)
[1997]
Q2268. The reason why vegetatively reproducing crop plants are
best suited for maintaining hybrid vigour is that
(1) they are more resistant to diseases
(2) once a desired hybrid has been produced there are few chances of losing it
(3) they can be easily propagated
(4) they have a longer life span
Ans: (2)
[1998]
Q2269. Honey is
(1) neutral
(2) acidic
(3) acidic when fresh and alkaline when old
(4) alkaline
Ans: (2)
[1998]
Q2270. In the silk worm, if no juvenile hormone (JH) is present
when it moults, it will
(1) moult into pupa
(2) die
(3) moult into an adult
(4) moult into another larval stage
Ans: (4)
[1998]
Q2271. The first transgenic crop was
(1) tobacco
(2) pea
(3) cotton
(4) flax
Ans: (1)
[1998]
Q2272. Which one of the following insecticides is more stable in
the environment?
(1) Camphechlor
(2) DDT
(3) Malathion
(4) Diazinon
Ans: (2)
[1998]
Q2273. What is Agent Orange?
(1) A biodegradable insecticide
(2) Colour used in fluorescent lamps
(3) A hazardous chemical used in luminous paints
(4) A weedicide containing dioxin
Ans: (4)
[1998]
Q2274. Which one among the following chemicals is used for
causing defoliation of forest trees?
(1) 2, 4-Dichlorophenoxy acetic acid
(2) Phosphon-D
(3) Amo-1618
(4) Malic hydrazide
Ans: (1)
[1999]
Q2275. Which of the following pesticides is an
acetylcholinesterase inhibitor?
(1) Malathion
(2) Y-BHC
(3) Aldrin
(4) Endosulfan
Ans: (1)
[1999]
Q2276. Before European invader which vegetable was absent in
India?
(1) Maize and Chichinda
(2) Potato and Tomato
(3) Brinjal and Lady's finger
(4) Simla mirch and Brinjal
Ans: (2)
[1999]
Q2277. What is the best pH of soil for cultivation of plants?
(1) 4.5 – 8.5
(2) 3.4 – 5.4
(3) 5.6 – 6.5
(4) 6.5 – 7.5
Ans: (4)
[1999]
Q2278. Which one of the following statement is correct in relation
to honey bees?
(1) Beewax is a waste product of honey bees
(2) Apis indica is the largest wild honey bee in India
(3) Communication in honey bees was discovered by Karl Von Frisch
(4) Honey is predominantly sucrose and arabinose
Ans: (3)
[2000]
Q2279. The worker honey bee normally lives for about
(1) 90 days
(2) 15 days
(3) 10 days
(4) 30 days
Ans: (1)
[2001]
Q2280. The new varieties of plants are produced by
(1) introduction and mutation
(2) selection and hybridization
(3) selection and intro
(4) mutation and selection
Ans: (2)
[2001]
Q2281. Which endangered animal is the source of world's finest,
lightest, warmest and most expensive wool the shahtoosh?
(1) Cheetal
(2) Chiru
(3) Kashmiri goat
(4) Nilgai
Ans: (3)
[2001]
Q2282. In tissue culture medium, the embryoids formed from
pollen grains is due to
(1) double fertilization
(2) cellular totipotency
(3) test – tube culture
(4) organogenesis
Ans: (2)
[2002]
Q2283. Reason of fast speciation in present day crop plants is
(1) polyploidy
(2) mutation
(3) sexual reproduction
(4) isolation
Ans: (1)
[2002]
Q2284. Which of the following crops have been brought to India
from New world?
(1) Tea, rubber, mango
(2) Cashewnut, potato, rubber
(3) Coffee
(4) Mango, tea
Ans: (2)
[2002]
Q2285. In Lederberg's replica experiment what shall be used to
obtain streptomycin-resistant strain?
(1) only minimal medium
(2) minimal medium and streptomycin
(3) only complete medium
(4) complete medium and streptomycin
Ans: (4)
[2003]
Q2286. The technique of obtaining large number of plantlets by
tissue culture method is called
(1) Micropropagation
(2) Plantlet culture
(3) Macropropagation
(4) Organ culture
Ans: (2)
[2003]
Q2287. The most likely reason for the development of resistance
against pesticides in insects damaging a crop is
(1) directed mutations
(2) random mutations
(3) acquired heritable chages
(4) genetic recombination
Ans: (2)
[2003]
Q2288. India’s wheat yield revolution in the 1960s was possible
primarily due to
(1) mutations resulting in plant height reduction
(2) hybrid seeds
(3) quantitative trait mutations
(4) increased chlorophyll content
Ans: (1)
[2004]
Q2289. Cellular totipotency is demonstrated by
(1) all plant cells
(2) only bacterial cells
(3) all eukaryotic cells
(4) only gymnosperm cells
Ans: (1)
[2004]
Q2290. Which of the following plants are used as green manure in
crop fields and in sandy soils?
(1) Calotropis procera and Phyllanthus niruri
(2) Dichanthium annulatum and Azolla nilotica
(3) Saccharum munja and Lantana camara
(4) Crotalaria juncea and Alhagi camelorum
Ans: (4)
[2004]
Q2291. Farmers in a particular region were concerned that pre-
mature yellowing of leaves of a pulse crop might cause decrease in
the yield. Which treatment could be most beneficial to obtain
maximum seed yield?
(1) Application of iron and magnesium to promote synthesis of chlorophyll
(2) Treatment of the plants with cytokinins along with a small dose of
nitrogenous fertilizer
(3) Frequent irrigation of the crop
(4) Removal of all yellow leaves and spraying the remaining green leaves
with 2, 4, 5- trichlorophenoxy acetic acid
Ans: (1)
[2005]
Q2292. Crop plants grown in monoculture are
(1) highly prone to pests
(2) free from intraspecific competition
(3) low in yield
(4) characterised by poor root system
Ans: (1)
[2005]
Q2293. In order to obtain virus-free plants through tissue culture
the best method is
(1) Meristem culture
(2) Embryo rescue
(3) Protoplast culture
(4) Anther culture
Ans: (1)
[2006]
Q2294. The world’s highly prized wool yielding 'Pashmina' breed
is
(1) goat-sheep cross
(2) goat
(3) Kashmir sheep-Afghan sheep cross
(4) sheep
Ans: (2)
[2006]
Q2295. Three crops that contribute maximum to global food grain
production are
(1) Wheat, maize and sorghum
(2) Wheat, rice and maize
(3) Rice, maize and sorghum
(4) Wheat, rice and barley
Ans: (2)
[2006]
Q2296. Parthenocarpic tomato fruits can be produced by
(1) treating the plants with phenylmercuric acetate
(2) treating the plants with low concentrations of gibberellic acid and auxins
(3) removing androecium of flowers before pollen grains are released
(4) raising the plants from vernalized seeds
Ans: (2)
[2006]
Q2297. In maize, hybrid vigour is exploited by
(1) inducing mutations
(2) crossing of two inbred parental lines
(3) bombarding the protoplast with DNA
(4) harvesting seeds from the most productive plants
Ans: (2)
[2006]
Q2298. Which one of the following is the most suitable medium
for culture of Drosophila melanogaster?
(1) Cow dung
(2) Agar agar
(3) Moist bread
(4) Ripe banana
Ans: (4)
[2006]
Q2299. Curing of tea leaves is brought about by the activity of
(1) fungi
(2) mycorrhiza
(3) bacteria
(4) viruses
Ans: (3)
[2006]
Q2300. Triticale, the first man-made cereal crop, has been obtained
by crossing wheat with
(1) barley
(2) pearl millet
(3) rye
(4) sugarcane
Ans: (3)
[2006]
Q2301. Compared to a bull a bullock is docile because of
(1) lower levels of adrenaline/ noradrenaline in its blood
(2) higher levels of cortisone
(3) higher levels of thyroxine.
(4) lower levels of blood testosterone
Ans: (4)
[2007]
Q2302. Which one of the following pairs is mismatched?
(1) Bombyx mori - silk
(2) Apis indica - honey
(3) Pila globosa - pearl
(4) Kenia lacca - lac
Ans: (3)
[2007]
Q2303. In maize, hybrid vigour is exploited by
(1) inducing mutations
(2) crossing of two inbred parental lines
(3) bombarding the seeds with DNA.
(4) harvesting seeds from the most productive plants
Ans: (2)
[2007]
Q2304. Which one of the following pairs of organisms are exotic
species introduced in India?
(1) Nile perch, Ficus religiosa
(2) Lantana camara, water hyacinth
(3) Ficus religiosa, Lantana camara
(4) Water hyacinth, Prosopis cinereria
Ans: (2)
[2007]
Q2305. Which one of the following is being utilized as a source of
biodiesel in the Indian countryside?
(1) Pongamia
(2) Betroot
(3) Euphorbia
(4) Sugarcane
Ans: (1)
[2007]
Q2306. Which of the following is not used as a biopesticide?
(1) Xanthomonas campestris
(2) Trichoderma harzianum
(3) Bacillus thuringiensis
(4) Nuclear Polyhedrosis Virus (NPV)
Ans: (1)
[2007]
Q2307. What is antisense technology?
(4) RNA polymerase producing DNA
(2) A cell displaying a foreign antigen used for synthesis of antigens (4)
Production of somaclonal variants in tissue cultures (e) When a piece of RNA
that is complementary in sequence is used to stop expression of a specific
gene
Ans: (1)
[2008]
Q2308. Which one of the following proved effective for biological
control of nematodal disease in plants?
(1) Gliocladium virens
(2) Pisolithus tinctorius
(3) Paecilomyces lilacinus
(4) Pseudomonas cepacia
Ans: (1)
[2008]
Q2309. Consider the following four measures (a-d) that could be
taken to successfully grow chickpea in an area where bacteri blight
disease is common
(1) Use of only disease-free seeds
(2) Spray with Bordeaux mixture
(3) Use of varieties resistant to the disease Which two of the above measures
can control the disease?
(4) Control of the insect vector of the disease pathogen
Ans: (1)
[2008]
Q2310. Which one of the following is a viral disease of poultry?
(1) Pasteurellosis
(2) Coryza
(3) Salmonellosis.
(4) New castle disease
Ans: (4)
[2009]
Q2311. Himgiri developed by hybridisation and selection for
disease resistance against rust pathogens is a variety of
(1) sugarcane
(2) chilli
(3) wheat
(4) maize
Ans: (3)
[2009]
Q2312. Jaya and Ratna developed for green revolution in India are
the varieties of
(1) wheat
(2) maize
(3) bajra
(4) rice
Ans: (4)
[2010]
Q2313. An improved variety of transgenic basmati rice
(1) is completely resistant to all insect pests and diseases of paddy
(2) does not require chemical fertilizers and growth hormones
(3) gives high yield but has no characteristic aroma
(4) gives high yield and is rich in vitamin A
Ans: (4)
[2010]
Q2314. Breeding of crops with high levels of minerals, vitamins
and proteins is called
(1) Biomagnification
(2) Somatic hybridisation
(3) Micropropagation
(4) Biofortification
Ans: (4)
[2011]
Q2315. Somaclones are obtained by
(1) genetic engineering
(2) plant breeding
(3) tissue culture
(4) irradiation
Ans: (3)
[2011]
Q2316. Consider the following four statements (A-D) and select
the option which includes all the correct ones only. (1) Single cell
Spirulina can produce large quantities of food rich in protein,
minerals, vitamins etc. (2) Body weight-wise the micro-organism
Methylophilus methylotrophus may be able to produce several
times more proteins than the cows per day. (3) Common button
mushrooms are a very rich source of vitamin C. (4) A rice variety
has been developed which is very rich in calcium. Options:
(1) Statements (2), (1) and (4)
(2) Statements (3), (4)
(3) Statements (1), (2)
(4) Statements (1), (3) and (4)
Ans: (3)
[2011]
Q2317. Green revolution in India occurred during
(1) 1980.s
(2) 1960.s
(3) 1950.s
(4) 1970.s
Ans: (2)
[2012]
Q2318. Which one of the following is a case of wrong matching
(1) Micropropagation - in vitro production of plants in large numbers.
(2) Somatic hybridization - Fusion of two diverse cells
(3) Callus - Unorganised mass of cell produced in tissue culture
(4) Vector DNA -Site for t-RNA synthesis.
Ans: (4)
[2012]
Q2319. Which part would be most suitable for raising virus-free
plants for micropropagation?
(1) Meristem
(2) Bark
(3) Node
(4) Vascular tissue
Ans: (1)
[2012M]
Q2320. The process of RNA interference has been used in the
development of plants resistant to
(1) viruses
(2) nematodes
(3) insects
(4) fungi
Ans: (2)
[2012M]
Q2321. Which one thing is not true about antibiotics?
(1) Each antibiotic is effective only against one particular kind of germ
(2) The term “antibiotic” was coined by Selman Waksman in 1942
(3) Some persons can be allergic to a particular antibiotic
(4) First antibiotic was discovered by Alexander Flemming
Ans: (1)
[NEET 2013]
Q2322. CHAPTER 32 Microbes in Human Welfare [NEET
Kar. 2013]
Q2323. Tissue culture technique can produce infinite number of
new plants from a small parental tissue. The economic importance
of the technique is in raising
(1) Homozygous diploid plants
(2) Variants through picking up somaclonal variations
(3) Development of new species
(4) Genetically uniform population identical to the original parent
Ans: (4)
[NEET Kar. 2013]
Q2324. Which of the following has maximum genetic diversity in
India?
(1) Wheat
(2) Rice
(3) Groundnut
(4) Mango
Ans: (2)
Q2325. In plant breeding programmes, the entire collection (of
plants/seeds) having all the diverse alleles for all genes in a given
crop is called:
(1) germplasm collection
(2) cross-hybridisation among the selected parents.
(3) selection of superior recombinants.
(4) evaluation and selection of parents.
Ans: (1)
[1996]
Q2326. The aquatic fern, which is an excellent biofertiliser is
(1) Marsilia
(2) Azolla
(3) Pteridium
(4) Salvinia
Ans: (2)
[1997]
Q2327. Farmers have reported over 50% higher yields of rice by
using the biofertilizer
(1) Legume-Rhizobium symbiosis
(2) Azolla pinnata
(3) Mycorrhiza
(4) Cyanobacteria
Ans: (2)
[1997]
Q2328. Which one of the following is non-symbiotic
biofertilizer?
(1) Rhizobium
(2) Azotobacter
(3) VAM.
(4) Anabaena
Ans: (2)
[1998]
Q2329. Gobar gas contains mainly
(1) CO2 + H2
(2) CH4 + CO2
(3) CO2 + SO2
(4) CH4 + O2
Ans: (2)
Q2330. Which of the following is likely to be achieved in the
coming two decades?
(1) Correction of genetic basis of diabetes mellitus
(2) A complete understanding of the brainmind interaction
(3) Production of biodegradable plastic rather than cellulose by higher plants
(4) Control of cancer
Ans: (4)
[1999]
Q2331. Trichoderma harzianum has proved a useful
microorganism for
(1) gene transfer in higher plants
(2) bioremediation of contaminated soils
(3) biological control of soil-borne plant pathogens
(4) reclamation of wastelands
Ans: (3)
[2001]
Q2332. Which one of the following pairs is wrongly matched?
(1) Coliforms - vinegar
(2) Yeast - ethanol
(3) Methanogens - gobar gas.
(4) Streptomycetes - antibiotic
Ans: (1)
[2006]
Q2333. Probiotics are
(1) live microbial food supplement
(2) cancer inducing microbes
(3) safe antibiotics
(4) new kind of food allergens
Ans: (1)
[2007]
Q2334. Two microbes found to be very useful in genetic
engineering are
(1) Crown gall bacterium and Caenorhabditis elegans
(2) Vibrio cholerae and a tailed bacteriophage
(3) Escherichia coli and Agrobacterium tumefaciens
(4) Diplococcus sp. and Pseudomonas sp.
Ans: (3)
[2007]
Q2335. Which of the following is pair of biofertilizers?
(1) Rhizobium and grasses
(2) Azolla and BGA
(3) Salmonella and E. coli
(4) Nostoc and legumes
Ans: (2)
[2008]
Q2336. Which one of the following is not used in organic
farming?
(1) Oscillatoria
(2) Glomus
(3) Snail
(4) Earthworm
Ans: (3)
[2008]
Q2337. The common nitrogen fixer in paddy fields is
(1) Oscillatoria
(2) Rhizobium
(3) Frankia
(4) Azospirillum
Ans: (4)
 [2008]
Q2338. A common biocontrol agent for the control of plant
diseases is
(1) Glomus
(2) Baculovirus
(3) Trichoderma
(4) Bacillus thuringiensis
Ans: (3)
[2010]
Q2339. Cryl endotoxins obtained from Bacillus thuringiensis are
effective against
(1) nematodes
(2) mosquitoes
(3) boll worms
(4) flies
Ans: (3)
[2010]
Q2340. Human insulin is being commercially produced from a
transgenic species of
(1) Rhizobium
(2) Escherichia
(3) Saccharomyces
(4) Mycobacterium
Ans: (2)
[2010]
Q2341. Monascus purpureus is a yeast used commercially in the
production of:
(1) Citric acid
(2) ethanol
(3) blood cholesterol lowering statins
(4) streptokinase for removing clots from the blood vessels.
Ans: (3)
[2011]
Q2342. Which one of the following is a wrong matching of a
microbe and its industrial product, while the remaining three are
correct?
(1) Clostridium butylicum - lactic acid
(2) Yeast - statins
(3) Aspergillus niger - citric acid
(4) Acetobacter aceti - acid
Ans: (1)
[2011]
Q2343. Read the following statement having two blanks (A and B):
“A drug used for -------- (A) -------- patients is obtained from a
species of the organism -------- (B) --------.” The one correct option
for the two blanks is Blank - A Blank - B
(1) Swine flu -- Monascus
(2) Heart -- Penicillium
(3) AIDS -- Pseudomonas
(4) Organ-transplant -- Trichoderma
Ans: (4)
[2011M]
Q2344. Which one of the following help in absorption of
phosphorus from soil by plants?
(1) Frankia
(2) Glomus
(3) Anabaena
(4) Rhizobium
Ans: (2)
[2011M]
Q2345. An organism used as a biofertilizer for raising soyabean
crops is
(1) Rhizobium
(2) Azotobacter
(3) Nostoc
(4) Azospirillum
Ans: (1)
[2012]
Q2346. Which one of the following is an example of carrying out
biological control of pests/ diseases using microbes?
(1) Bt - cotton to increase cotton yield
(2) Trichoderma sp. against certain plant pathogens
(3) Lady bird beetle against aphids in mustard
(4) Nucleopolyhedrovirus against white rust in Brassica
Ans: (2)
[2012]
Q2347. A nitrogen-fixing microbe associated with Azolla in rice
fields is:
(1) Frankia
(2) Spirulina
(3) Tolypothrix
(4) Anabaena
Ans: (4)
[2012]
Q2348. Yeast is used in the production of
(1) Bread and beer
(2) Citric acid and lactic acid
(3) Cheese and butter
(4) Lipase and pectinase
Ans: (1)
[2012]
Q2349. Which one of the following microbes forms symbiotic
association with plants and helps them in their nutrition
(1) Glomus
(2) Azotobacter
(3) Trichoderma
(4) Aspergillus
Ans: (1)
[2012]
Q2350. A patient brought to a hospital with myocardial infarction
is normally immediately given:
(1) Cyclosporin-A
(2) Penicillin
(3) Statins
(4) Streptokinase
Ans: (4)
[2012]
Q2351. A good producer of citric acid is:
(1) Saccharomyces
(2) Pseudomonas
(3) Aspergillus
(4) Clostridium
Ans: (3)
[2012]
Q2352. During sewage treatment, biogases are produced which
include:
(1) hydrogen sulphide, nitrogen, methane
(2) methane, oxygen, hydrogen sulphide
(3) methane, hydrogen sulphide, carbon dioxide
(4) hydrogen sulphide, methane, sulphur dioxide
Ans: (3)
[2012M]
Q2353. The domestic sewage in large cities
(1) when treated in STPs does not really require the aeration step as the
sewage contains adequate oxygen.
(2) has a high BOD as it contains both aerobic and anaerobic bacteria.
(3) has very high amounts of suspended solids and dissolved salts.
(4) is processed by aerobic and then anaerobic bacteria in the secondary
treatment in Sewage Treatment Plants (STPs).
Ans: (4)
[2012M]
Q2354. In gobar gas, the maximum amount is that of
(1) propane
(2) butane
(3) carbon dioxide
(4) methane
Ans: (4)
[NEET 2013]
Q2355. Maximum nutritional diversity is found in the group.
(1) Monera
(2) Fungi
(3) Plantae
(4) Animalia
Ans: (1)
[NEET 2013]
Q2356. Polyethylene glycol method is used for
(1) energy production from sewage
(2) biodiesel production
(3) gene transfer without a vector
(4) seedless fruit production
Ans: (3)
[NEET Kar. 2013]
Q2357. The linking of antibiotic resistance gene with the plasmid
vector became possible with
(1) DNA polymerase
(2) DNA ligase
(3) Exonucleases
(4) Endonucleases
Ans: (2)
[2002]
Q2358. Gel electrophoresis is used for
(1) construction of recombinant DNA by joining with cloning vectors
(2) cutting of DNA into fragments
(3) isolation of DNA molecule
(4) separation of DNA fragments according to their size
Ans: (4)
Q2359. Introduction of food plants developed by genetic
engineering is not desirable because
(1) this method is costly
(2) economy of developing countries may suffer
(3) there is danger of entry of viruses and toxins with introduced crop
(4) these products are less tasty as compared to the already existing products
Ans: (3)
 [2008]
Q2360. Microbe used for biocontrol of pest butterfly caterpillars
is
(1) Bacillus thuringiensis
(2) Trichoderma sp.
(3) Streptococcus sp.
(4) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
Ans: (1)
[2009]
Q2361. Restriction endonucleases are enzymes which
(1) restrict the action of the enzyme DNA polymerase
(2) make cuts at specific positions within the DNA molecule
(3) remove nucleotides from the ends of the DNA molecule
(4) recognize a specific nucleotide sequence for binding of DNA ligase
Ans: (2)
[2010]
Q2362. DNA or RNA segment tagged with a radioactive molecule
is called
(1) Clone
(2) Vector
(3) Plasmid
(4) Probe
Ans: (4)
[2010]
Q2363. Which one of the following palindromic base sequences in
DNA can be easily cut at about the middle by some particular
restriction enzyme?
(1) 5'.............GAATTC.............3' 3'.............CTTAAG.............5'
(2) 5'.............CGTTCG.............3' 3'.............ATGGTA.............5'
(3) 5'.............CACGTA.............3' 3'.............CTCAGT.............5'
(4) 5'.............GATATG.............3' 3'.............CTACTA.............5'
Ans: (1)
[2010]
Q2364. Which one of the following is used as vector for cloning
genes into higher organisms?
(1) Rhizopus nigricans
(2) Baculovirus
(3) Retrovirus
(4) Salmonella typhimurium
Ans: (3)
[2010]
Q2365. Select the correct statement from the following?
(1) Biogas, commonly called gobar gas, is pure methane
(2) Biogas is produced by the activity of aerobic bacteria on animal waste
(3) Activated sludge-sediment in settlement tanks of sewage treatment plant
is a rich source of aerobic bacteria
(4) Methanobacterium is an aerobic bacterium found in rumen of cattle
Ans: (3)
[2010]
Q2366. Which one of the given options correctly identifies its
certain component (s)?
(1) Hind III, EcoRI - selectable markers
(2) ori - original restriction enzyme
(3) ampR, tetR - antibiotic resistance genes
(4) rop-reduced osmotic pressure
Ans: (3)

Q2367. The figure below is the diagrammatic representation of the

E.Coli vector pBR
Ans: (3)
[2011]
Q2368. Bacillus thuringiensis forms protein crystals which contain
insecticidal protein.
(1) is activated by acid pH of the foregut of the insect pest.
(2) binds with epithelial cells of midgut of the insect pest ultimately killing it
(3) does not kill the carrier bacterium which is itself resistant to this toxin
(4) is coded by several genes including the gene cry
Ans: (2)
[2011M]
Q2369. Agarose extracted from sea weeds finds use in:
(1) PCR
(2) Spectrophotometry
(3) Gel electrophoresis
(4) Tissue culture
Ans: (3)
Q2370. There is a restriction endonuclease called EcoRI. What
does .co. part in it stand for?
(1) coenzyme
(2) colon
(3) coli
(4) coelom
Ans: (3)
[2012]
Q2371. Biolistics (gene-gun) is suitable for
(1) Transformation of plant cells.
(2) DNA finger printing.
(3) Constructing recombinant DNA by joining with vectors.
(4) Disarming pathogen vectors.
Ans: (2)
[2012]
Q2372. For transformation, micro-particles coated with DNA to be
bombarded with gene gun are made up of:
(1) Silicon or Platinum
(2) Silver or Platinum
(3) Gold or Tungsten
(4) Platinum or Zinc
Ans: (3)
[2012]
Q2373. Which one is a true statement regarding DNA polymerase
used in PCR
(1) It is isolated from a virus
(2) It is used to ligate introduced DNA in recipient cell
(3) It remains active at high temperature
(4) It serves as a selectable marker
Ans: (3)
[2012]
Q2374. A single strand of nucleic acid tagged with a radioactive
molecule is called:
(1) Plasmid
(2) Vector
(3) Probe
(4) Selectablemarker
Ans: (3)
[2012]
Q2375. PCR and Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism are
the methods for:
(1) DNA sequencing
(2) Study of enzymes
(3) Genetic Fingerprinting
(4) Genetic transformation
Ans: (3)
[2012M]
Q2376. The colonies of recombinant bacteria appear white in
contrast to blue colonies of nonrecombinant bateria because of:
(1) Inactivation of glycosidase enzyme in recombinant bacteria
(2) Insertional inactivate of alphagalactosidase in non-recombinant bacteria
(3) Non-recombinant bacteria containing beta-galactosidase
(4) Insertional inactivation of alphagalactosidase in recombinant bacteria
Ans: (1)
[2012M]
Q2377. DNA fragments generated by the restriction endonucleases
in a chemical reaction can be separated by:
(1) Restriction mapping
(2) Polymerase chain reaction
(3) Centrifugation
(4) Electrophoresis
Ans: (3)
[2012M]
Q2378. Which one of the following represents a palindromic
sequence in DNA?
(1) 5' - CATTAG - 3' 3' - GATAAC - 5'
(2) 5' - GAATTC - 3' 3' - CTTAAG - 5'
(3) 5' - GATACC - 3' 3' - CCTAAG - 5'
(4) 5' - CCAATG - 3' 3' - GAATCC - 5'
Ans: (4)
[2012M]
Q2379. The figure below shows three steps (A, B, C) of
Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR). Select the option giving correct
identification together with what it represents?
(1) C - Extension in the presence of heat stable DNA polymerase.
(2) B - Denaturation at a temperature of about 98°C separating the two DNA
strands.
(3) A - Annealing with two sets of primers.
(4) A - Denaturation at a temperature of about 50°C.
Ans: (2)
[NEET 2013]
Q2380. In genetic engineering, the antibiotics are used
(1) to keep the cultures free of infection.
(2) as selectable markers.
(3) as sequences from where replication starts.
(4) to select healthy vectors.
Ans: (1)
[NEET 2013]
Q2381. Maximum application of animal cell culture technology
today is in the production of
(1) interferons
(2) edible proteins
(3) vaccines
(4) insulin
Ans: (3)
[NEET Kar. 2013]
Q2382. What is true for monoclonal antibodies?
(1) These antibodies obtained from one parent and for many antigen
(2) These antibodies obtained from one parent and for one antigen
(3) These antibodies obtained from many parents and for many antigens
(4) These antibodies obtained from parent and for two antigen
Ans: (2)
Q2383. Genetically engineered bacteria have been successfully
used in the commercial production of
(1) thyroxine
(2) human insulin
(3) melatonin
(4) testosterone
Ans: (2)
[1996]
Q2384. CHAPTER 34 Biotechnology and Its
Applications [2001]
Q2385. Genes of interest can be selected from a genomic library by
using
(1) DNA probes
(2) Restriction enzymes
(3) Gene targets
(4) Cloning vectors
Ans: (3)
[2003]
Q2386. A trangenic food crop’which may help in solving the
problem of night blindness in developing countries is
(1) Bt Soybean
(2) Flavr Savr tomatoes
(3) Golden rice
(4) Starlink maize
Ans: (3)
[2003]
Q2387. Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) strains have been used for
designing novel:
(1) Bio-mineralization processes
(2) Biofertilizers
(3) Bioinsecticidal plants
(4) Bio-metallurgical techniques
Ans: (3)
[2005, 06]
Q2388. The name of Norman Borlaug is associated with:
(1) yellow revolution
(2) white revolution
(3) blue revolution
(4) green revolution
Ans: (4)
[2005]
Q2389. Golden rice is a transgenic crop of the future with the
following improved trait:
(1) high protein content
(2) insect resistance
(3) high vitamin-A content
(4) high lysine (essential amino acid) content
Ans: (3)
[2005]
Q2390. ELISA is used to detect viruses where the key reagent is
(1) catalase
(2) RNase
(3) DNA probe
(4) alkaline phosphatase
Ans: (4)
[2008]
Q2391. The genetically-modified (GM) brinjal in India has been
developed for:
(1) enhancing mineral content
(2) insect-resistance
(3) drought-resistance
(4) enhancing shelf life
Ans: (2)
[2008]
Q2392. Transgenic plants are the ones:
(1) grown in artificial medium after hybridization in the field.
(2) generated by introducing foreign DNA into a cell and regenerating a plant
from that cell.
(3) produced by a somatic embryo in artificial medium.
(4) produced after protoplast fusion in artificial medium.
Ans: (2)
[2009]
Q2393. What is true about Bt toxin?
(1) The concerned Bacillus has antitoxins.
(2) Bt protein exists as active toxin in the Bacillus
(3) The inactive protoxin gets converted into active form in the insect gut.
(4) The activated toxin enters the ovaries of the pest to sterilise it and thus
prevent its multiplication.
Ans: (3)
[2009]
Q2394. Which one of the following is commonly used in transfer
of foreign DNA into crop plants?
(1) Penicillium expansum
(2) Meloidogyne incognita
(3) Trichoderma harzianum
(4) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
Ans: (4)
[2009]
Q2395. Main objective of production/use of herbicide resistant GM
crops is to
(1) encourage eco-friendly herbicides
(2) eliminate weeds from the field without the use of manual labour
(3) reduce herbicide accumulation in food articles for health safety
(4) eliminate weeds from the field without the use of herbicides
Ans: (3)
[2010]
Q2396. Continuous addition of sugars in ‘fed batch’ fermentation
is done to:
(1) purify enzymes
(2) produce methane
(3) degrade sewage
(4) obtain antibiotics
Ans: (1)
[2010]
Q2397. Maximum number of existing transgenic animals is of:
(1) cow
(2) fish
(3) pig
(4) mice
Ans: (4)
[2010]
Q2398. The most common substrate used in distilleries for the
production of ethanol is
(1) ground gram
(2) corn meal
(3) molasses
(4) soya meal
Ans: (3)
[2011]
Q2399. Some of the characteristics of Bt cotton are:
(1) high yield and production of toxic protein crystals which kill dipteran
pests
(2) long fibre and resistance to aphids
(3) high yield and resistance to bollworms
(4) medium yield, long fibre and resistance to beetle pests
Ans: (3)
[2011]
Q2400. Genetic engineering has been successfully used for
producing:
(1) transgenic cow – rosie which produces high fat milk for making ghee
(2) transgenic mice for testing safety of polio vaccine before use in humans
(3) animals like bulls for farm work as they have super power
(4) transgenic models for studying new treatments for certain cardiac diseases
Ans: (2)
[2011]
Q2401. Read the following four statements (A-D) about certain
mistakes in two of them (A) The first transgenic buffalo, Rosie
produced milk which was human alphalactal albumin enriched. (B)
Restriction enzymes are used in isolation of DNA from other
macro-molecules. (C) Downstream processing is one of the steps of
R-DNA technology. (D) Disarmed pathogen vectors are also used
in transfer of R-DNA into the host. Which are the two statements
having mistakes?
(1) Statement (A) and (C)
(2) Statement (B) and (C)
(3) Statement (A) and (B)
(4) Statement (C) and (D)
Ans: (3)
[2011M]
Q2402. Which one of the following techniques made it possible to
genetically engineer living organism?
(1) Heavier isotope labelling
(2) Recombinant DNA techniques
(3) Hybridization
(4) X-ray diffraction
Ans: (2)
[2011M]
Q2403. In history of biology, human genome project led to the
development of:
(1) bioinformatics
(2) biotechnology
(3) biosystematics
(4) biomonitoring
Ans: (1)
[2011M]
Q2404. Consider the following statements (A-D) about organic
farming: (A) Utilizes genetically modified crops like Bt cotton (B)
Uses only naturally produced inputs like compost (C) Does not use
pesticides and urea (D) Produces vegetables rich in vitamins and
minerals Which of the above statements are correct?
(1) (B) and (C) only
(2) (B), (C) and (D)
(3) (A) and (B) only
(4) (C) and (D) only
Ans: (1)
[2011M]
Q2405. Silencing of mRNA has been used in producing transgenic
plants resistant to:
(1) white rusts
(2) bollworms
(3) bacterial blights
(4) nematodes
Ans: (4)
[2011M]
Q2406. Which one of the following vectors is used to replace the
defective gene in gene therapy?
(1) Cosmid
(2) Ti plasmid
(3) Ri plasmid
(4) Adenovirus
Ans: (4)
[2012]
Q2407. Which of the following Bt crops is being grown in India by
the farmers?
(1) Soyabean
(2) Cotton
(3) Maize
(4) Brinjal
Ans: (2)
[2012M]
Q2408. The first clinical gene therapy was given for treating
(1) rheumatoid arthritis
(2) chicken pox
(3) adenosine deaminase deficiency
(4) diabetes mellitus
Ans: (3)
[2012M]
Q2409. Tobacco plants resistant to a nematode have been
developed by the introduction of DNA that produced (in the host
cells)
(1) an antifeedant
(2) both sense and anti-sense RNA
(3) a toxic protein
(4) a particular hormone
Ans: (2)
[NEET 2013]
Q2410. Consumption of which one of the following foods can
prevent the kind of blindness associated with vitamin ‘A’
deficiency?
(1) Golden rice
(2) ‘Flaver Savr’ tomato
(3) Bt-Brinjal
(4) Canolla
Ans: (1)
[NEET Kar. 2013]
Q2411. A mutually beneficial association necessary for survival of
both partners is
(1) amensalism
(2) mutualism/symbiosis
(3) both A and B
(4) commensalism
Ans: (2)
[NEET Kar. 2013]
Q2412. Competition for light, nutrients and space is most severe
between
(1) distantly related organisms growing in the same habitat
(2) closely related organism growing in different niches
(3) distantly related organisms growing in different niches
(4) closely related organisms growing in the same area/niche
Ans: (4)
 [NEET Kar. 2013]
Q2413. CHAPTER 35 Organisms and Environment
Q2414. RNA interference involves
(1) Silencing of specific mRNA due to complementary RNA
(2) Synthesis of mRNA from DNA
(3) Interference of RNA in synthesis of DNA
(4) Synthesis of cDNA from RNA using reverse transcriptase
Ans: (1)
[1988]
Q2415. During the process of isolation of DNA, chilled ethanol is
added to
(1) Break open the cell to release DNA
(2) Remove proteins such as histones
(3) Facilitate action of restriction enzymes
(4) Precipitate DNA
Ans: (4)
[1988]
Q2416. Soil particles determine its
(1) water holding capacity
(2) texture
(3) soil flora
(4) field capacity
Ans: (2)
[1991]
Q2417. A fertile agricultural soil appears deep coloured at the
surface as compared to soil one metre down. The reason for colour
of top soil is
(1) rich in iron, calcium and magnesium
(2) more moisture
(3) recent formation
(4) rich in organic matter
Ans: (4)
[1991]
Q2418. Which one is true?
(1) Symbiosis when neither populations affects each other
(2) Commensalism when none of the interacting populations affect each other
(3) Commensalism when the interaction is useful to both the populations
(4) Symbiosis when the interaction is useful to both the populations
Ans: (4)
[1991]
Q2419. Deep black soil is productive due to high proportion of
(1) clay and humus
(2) sand and zinc
(3) silt and earthworm
(4) gravel and calcium
Ans: (1)
[1992]
Q2420. Homeostasis is
(1) disturbance of self regulatory system and natural controls
(2) tendency of biological systems to change with change in environment
(3) biotic materials used in homeopathic medicines.
(4) tendency of biological systems to resist change
Ans: (4)
[1992]
Q2421. Animals that can tolerate a narrow range of salinity are
(1) anadromous
(2) stenohaline
(3) catadromous
(4) euryhaline
Ans: (2)
[1993]
Q2422. Xeric environment is characterised by
(1) extremes of temperature
(2) precipitation
(3) high rate of vapourisation
(4) low atmospheric humidity
Ans: (4)
[1993]
Q2423. Association of animals when both partners are benefitted
(1) commensalism
(2) colony
(3) amensalism
(4) mutualism
Ans: (4)
[1993]
Q2424. Soil best suited for plant growth is
(1) sandy
(2) clay
(3) gravel
(4) loam
Ans: (4)
[1994]
Q2425. The sum total of the populations of the same kind of
organisms constitute
(1) community
(2) colony
(3) species
(4) genus
Ans: (3)
[1994]
Q2426. The concept that population tends to increase geometrically
while food supply increases arithmetically was put forward by
(1) Charles Darwin
(2) Stuart Mill
(3) Thomas Malthus
(4) Adam Smith
Ans: (3)
[1994]
Q2427. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?
(1) excessive perspiration - xeric adaptation
(2) uricotelism - aquatic habitat
(3) stream lined body - aquatic adaptation
(4) parasitism - intra-specific relationship
Ans: (3)
[1994]
Q2428. Sunken stomata is the characteristic feature of
(1) xerophyte
(2) hydrophyte
(3) halophyte
(4) mesophyte
Ans: (1)
[1995]
Q2429. Tropical forests occur in India
(1) Kerala and Assam
(2) Jammu and Kashmir
(3) The forests do not occur in India
(4) Rajasthan
Ans: (1)
[1995]
Q2430. In a food chain, the largest population is that of
(1) secondary consumers
(2) producers
(3) primary consumers
(4) decomposers
Ans: (2)
[1995]
Q2431. Keystone species in an ecosystem are those
(1) attaining a large biomass
(2) present in maximum number
(3) contributing to ecosystem properties
(4) that are most frequent
Ans: (3)
[1995]
Q2432. In increasing order of organizational complexity, which
one of the following is the correct sequence?
(1) Population, ecosystem, species, community
(2) Population, species, community, ecosystem
(3) Species, variety, ecosystem, community
(4) Population, variety, species, ecosystem
Ans: (2)
 [1996]
Q2433. The nature of climax community ultimately depends on
(1) soil organisms
(2) climate
(3) pool of available nutrients.
(4) bed rock
Ans: (2)
[1996]
Q2434. Human population growth in India
(1) can be reduced by permitting natural calamities and enforcing birth
control measures
(2) tends to follow a sigmoid curve as in case of many other animal species
(3) can be regulated by following the national programme of family planning
(4) tends to reach a zero population growth as in case of some animal species
Ans: (3)
[1997]
Q2435. In India, human population is heavily weighed towards the
younger age groups as a result of
(1) short life span of many individuals and high birth rate
(2) short life span of many individuals and low birth rate
(3) long life span of many individuals and high birth rate
(4) long life span of many individuals and low birth rate
Ans: (1)
[1997]
Q2436. Two opposite forces operate in the growth and
development of every population. One of them relates to the ability
to reproduce at a given rate. The force opposing to it is called
(1) biotic control
(2) mortality
(3) environmental resistance.
(4) fecundity
Ans: (3)
[1997]
Q2437. An interesting modification of flower shape for insect
pollination occurs in some orchids in which a male insect mistakes
the pattern on the orchid flower for the female of his species and
tries to copulate with it, thereby pollinating the flower. This
phenomenon is called
(1) pseudocopulation
(2) mimicry
(3) pseudoparthenocarpy
(4) pseudopollination
Ans: (2)
[1997]
Q2438. Plants such as Prosopis, Acacia and Capparis represent
examples of tropical
(1) evergreen forests
(2) thorn forests
(3) grasslands
(4) deciduous forests
Ans: (2)
[1998]
Q2439. The present population of the world is about
(1) 6 billion
(2) 500 million
(3) 15 billion
(4) 100 billion
Ans: (1)
[1998]
Q2440. What is the most important factor for the success of animal
population?
(1) Adaptability
(2) Natality
(3) Inter-species activity
(4) Unlimited food
Ans: (1)
[1998]
Q2441. The semilog of per minute growing bacteria is plotted
against time. What will be the shape of graph?
(1) Ascending straight line
(2) Sigmoid
(3) Descending straight line
(4) Hyperbolic
Ans: (1)
[1998]
Q2442. Choose the correct sequence of stages of growth curve for
bacteria
(1) Stationary, lag, log, decline phase
(2) Lag, log, stationary, decline phase
(3) Decline, lag, log phase
(4) Lag, log, stationary phase
Ans: (2)
[1999]
Q2443. In a population unrestricted reproductive capacity is called
as
(1) carrying capacity
(2) biotic potential
(3) birth rate
(4) fertility
Ans: (2)
[2002]
Q2444. Which part of the world has a high density of organisms?
(1) Deciduous forests
(2) Grasslands
(3) Tropical rain forests
(4) Savannahs
Ans: (3)
[2002]
Q2445. Which of the following communities is more vulnerable to
invasion by outside animals and plants?
(1) Mangroves
(2) Tropical evergreen forests
(3) Temperate forests.
(4) Oceanic island communities
Ans: (4)
 [2002]
Q2446. The maximum growth rate occurs in
(1) lag phase
(2) stationary phase
(3) exponential phase
(4) senescent phase
Ans: (3)
[2003]
Q2447. In which one of the following habitats does the diurnal
temperature of soil surface vary most?
(1) Desert
(2) Shrub land
(3) Grassland
(4) Forest
Ans: (1)
[2003]
Q2448. What is a keystone species?
(1) A rare species that has minimal impact on the biomass and on other
species in the community
(2) A species which makes up only a small proportion of the total biomass of
a community, yet has a huge impact on the community’s organization and
survival
(3) A dominant species that constitutes a large proportion of the biomass and
which affects many other species.
(4) A common species that has plenty of biomass, yet has a fairly low impact
on the community’s organization
Ans: (2)
[2004]
Q2449. Diffuse porous woods are characteristic of plants growing
in
(1) cold winter regions
(2) tropics
(3) temperate climate
(4) alpine region
Ans: (2)
 [2004]
Q2450. Two opposite forces operate in the growth and
development of every population. One of them relates to the ability
to reproduce at a given rate. The force opposing it is called
(1) fecundity
(2) environmental resistance
(3) biotic potential
(4) morbidity
Ans: (2)
[2004]
Q2451. Praying mantis is a good example of
(1) camouflage
(2) warning colouration
(3) mullerian mimicry
(4) social insects
Ans: (1)
[2004]
Q2452. The formula for exponential population growth is
(1) dN/ dt = rN
(2) dN/rN = dt
(3) dt/ dN = rN
(4) rN/ dN = dt
Ans: (1)
[2005]
Q2453. Niche overlap indicates
(1) mutualism between two species
(2) two different parasites on the same host
(3) active cooperation between two species
(4) sharing of one or more resources between the two species
Ans: (4)
[2006]
Q2454. Which one of the following pairs is mismatched?
(1) Prairie - epiphytes
(2) Tundra - permafrost
(3) Coniferous forest - evergreen trees
(4) Savanna - acacia trees
Ans: (1)
[2006]
Q2455. Certain characteristic demographic features of developing
countries are
(1) high infant mortality, low fertility, uneven population growth and a very
young age distribution
(2) high fertility, low or rapidly falling mortality rate, rapid population
growth and a very young age distribution
(3) high mortality, high density, uneven population growth and a very old age
distribution
(4) high fertility, high density, rapidly rising mortality rate and a very young
age distribution
Ans: (2)
[2006]
Q2456. What is true about the isolated small tribal populations?
(1) Wrestlers who develop strong body muscles in their life time pass this
character on to their progeny
(2) There is a decline in population as boys marry girls only from their own
tribe
(3) There is no change in population size as they have a large gene pool
(4) Hereditary diseases like colour blindness do not spread in the isolated
population
Ans: (2)
[2007]
Q2457. A high density of elephant population in an area can result
in
(1) predation on one another
(2) intra specific competition
(3) mutualism.
(4) inter specific competition
Ans: (2)
[2007]
Q2458. Two plants can be conclusively said to belong to the same
species if they
(1) have same number of chromosomes
(2) have more than 90 per cent similar genes
(3) can reproduce freely with each other and form seeds.
(4) look similar and possess identical secondary metabolites
Ans: (3)
[2007]
Q2459. The population of an insect species shows an explosive
increase in numbers during rainy season followed by its
disappearance at the end of the season. What does this show?
(1) The population of its predators increases enormously
(2) The food plants mature and die at the end of the rainy season
(3) S-shaped or sigmoid growth of this insect.
(4) Its population growth curve is of J-type
Ans: (4)
[2007]
Q2460. Geometric representation of age structure is a characteristic
of
(1) ecosystem
(2) population
(3) biotic community.
(4) landscape
Ans: (2)
[2008]
Q2461.
Ans: (1)
Q2462. Which one of the following is one of the characteristics of
a biological community?
(1) Mortality
(2) Stratification
(3) Sex ratio
(4) Natality
Ans: (2)
[2009]
Q2463.
Ans: (3)
Q2464. In the case of peppered moth (Biston betularia) the black -
coloured form became dominant over the light- coloured form in
England during industrial revolution. This is an example of:
(1) inheritance of darker colour character acquired due to the darker
environment
(2) appearance of the darker coloured individuals due to very poor sunlight
(3) natural selection whereby the darker forms were selected
(4) protective mimicry
Ans: (3)
[2010]
Q2465.
Ans: (3)

Q2466. A sedentary sea anemone gets attached to the shell lining

of hermit crab. The association is:
(1) Amensalism
(2) Symbiosis
(3) Ectoparasitism
(4) Commensalism
Ans: (4)
[2011]
Q2467. Cuscuta is an example of
(1) predation
(2) ectoparasitism
(3) endoparasitism
(4) brood parasitism
Ans: (2)
[2011]
Q2468. Which one of the following statements is correct for
secondary succession?
(1) It follows primary succession
(2) It begins on a bare rock
(3) It is similar to primary succession except that it has a relatively fast pace
(4) It occurs on a deforested site
Ans: (4)
[2011]
Q2469. Consider the following four conditions (i) - (iv) and select
the correct pair of them as adaptation to environment in desert
lizards. The conditions: (i) Burrowing in soil to escape high
temperature (ii) Losing heat rapidly from the body during high
temperature (iii) Bask in sun when temperature is low (iv)
Insulating body due to thick fatty dermis Options:
(1) (iii), (ii), (iv)
(2) (iii), (iv)
(3) (i), (ii)
(4) (i)
Ans: (4)
[2012M]
Q2470. Large woody vines are more commonly found in:
(1) tropical rainforests
(2) temperate forest
(3) alpine forests
(4) mangroves
Ans: (1)
[NEET 2013]
Q2471. Pyramid of numbers in a grassland/true ecosystem is
(1) both A and B
(2) always inverted
(3) spindle-shaped
(4) always upright
Ans: (4)
[NEET 2013]
Q2472. Which one of the following is not a parasitic adaptation?
(1) Loss of digestive organs
(2) Loss of unnecessary sense organs
(3) Loss of reproductive capacity
(4) Development of adhesive organs
Ans: (3)
[NEET Kar. 2013]
Q2473. The age pyramid with broad base indicates
(1) Low percentage of young individuals
(2) High percentage of young individuals
(3) A stable population
(4) High percentage of old individuals
Ans: (2)
[NEET Kar. 2013]
Q2474. Benthic organisms are affected most by
(1) Surface turbulence of water
(2) Water-holding capacity of soil
(3) Sediment characteristics of aquatic ecosystems
(4) Light reaching the forest floor
Ans: (3)
[NEET Kar. 2013]
Q2475. A biologist studied the population of rats in a barn. He
found that the average natality was 250, average mortality 240,
immigration 20 and emigration 30. The net increase in population
is:
(1) zero
(2) 15
(3) 10
(4) 05
Ans: (1)
[1990, 91]
Q2476. Study of inter-relationships between organisms and their
environment is
(1) phytogeography
(2) ecology
(3) ethology
(4) ecosystem
Ans: (2)
[1991]
Q2477. River water deposits
(1) laterite soil
(2) loamy soil
(3) sandy soil
(4) alluvial soil
Ans: (4)
[1991]
Q2478. Pedology is science of
(1) diseases
(2) earth
(3) pollution
(4) soil
Ans: (4)
[1991]
Q2479. Pick up the correct food chain
(1) Phytoplankton Zooplankton Fish
(2) Grass Chamelion Insect Bird
(3) Fallen leaves Bacteria Insect larvae
(4) Grass Fox Rabbit Bird
Ans: (1)
[1992]
Q2480. Food chain in which micro-organisms breakdown the food
formed by primary producers is
(1) consumer food chain
(2) parasitic food chain
(3) predator food chain
(4) detritus food chain
Ans: (4)
[1993]
Q2481. In a biotic community, the most important factor for
survival of an animal is
(1) green food
(2) day length
(3) predators
(4) soil moisture
Ans: (1)
[1993]
Q2482. In grass-deer-tiger food chain, grass biomass is one tonne.
The tiger biomass shall be
(1) 200 kg
(2) 100 kg
(3) 1 kg
(4) 10 kg
Ans: (4)
[1993]
Q2483. The pyramid which cannot be inverted in a stable
ecosystem is that of
(1) Energy
(2) Biomass
(3) All the above
(4) Number
Ans: (1)
[1994]
Q2484. Pyramid of numbers in a pond ecosystem is
(1) upright
(2) irregular
(3) spindle shaped
(4) inverted
Ans: (1)
[1994]
Q2485. Pyramid of numbers deals with number of
(1) individuals in a tropic-level
(2) species in an area
(3) subspecies in a community
(4) individuals in a community
Ans: (1)
[1994]
Q2486. If we completely remove the decomposers from an
ecosystem, its functioning will be adversely affected, because
(1) mineral movement will be blocked
(2) energy flow will be blocked
(3) rate of decomposition will be very high
(4) herbivores will not receive solar energy
Ans: (1)
[1994]
Q2487. Which of the following does not have stomata?
(1) xerophytes
(2) hydrophytes
(3) submerged hydrophytes
(4) mesophytes
Ans: (3)
[1994]
Q2488. Desert plants are generally
(1) herbaceous
(2) viviparous
(3) heterophyllus
(4) succulent
Ans: (4)
[1995]
Q2489. Bulk CO2 fixation occurs in
(1) Tropical rain forests
(2) Crop plants
(3) Temperature forests
(4) Oceans
Ans: (4)
[1995]
Q2490. Second most important trophic level in a lake is
(1) Benthos
(2) Zooplankton
(3) Neuston
(4) Phytoplankton
Ans: (2)
[1995]
Q2491. Flamingoes breed in
(1) sambhar lake
(2) rann of Kutch
(3) mansarover Lake
(4) chilka lake
Ans: (4)
[1995]
Q2492. Which of the following pairs is a sedimentary type of
biogeochemical cycle?
(1) phosphorus and nitrogen
(2) oxygen and nitrogen
(3) phosphorus and carbon dioxide
(4) phosphorus and sulphur
Ans: (4)
[1995]
Q2493. In a biotic community, the primary consumers are
(1) detritivores
(2) carnivores
(3) herbivores
(4) omnivores
Ans: (3)
[1995]
Q2494. Which of the following is the most stable ecosystem?
(1) Mountain
(2) Forest
(3) Ocean
(4) Desert
Ans: (3)
[1995]
Q2495. The primary succession refers to the development of
communities on a
(1) pond, freshly filled with water after a dry phase
(2) fleshly cleared crop field
(3) newly-exposed habitat with no record of earlier vegetation
(4) forest clearing after devastating fire
Ans: (3)
[1996]
Q2496. During adverse season, therophytes survive by
(1) rhizomes
(2) bulbs
(3) seeds
(4) corms
Ans: (3)
[1996]
Q2497. Which of the following ecosystems has highest rate of
gross primary production?
(1) Coral reefs
(2) Grasslands
(3) Equatorial rain forest
(4) Mangroves
Ans: (3)
[1996, 99]
Q2498. Niche of a species in an ecosystem refers to its
(1) competitive ability
(2) function at its place of occurrence
(3) centre of origin
(4) place of its occurrence
Ans: (2)
[1996]
Q2499. The transfer of energy from one trophic level to another is
governed by the 2nd law of thermodynamics. The average
efficiency of energy transfer from herbivores to carnivores is
(1) 25%
(2) 5%
(3) 50%
(4) 10%
Ans: (4)
[1997]
Q2500. In a food chain, the largest population is that of
(1) primary consumers
(2) decomposers
(3) tertiary consumers
(4) producers
Ans: (4)
[1997]
Q2501. In an ecosystem, which one shows one-way passage
(1) nitrogen
(2) free energy
(3) potassium
(4) carbon
Ans: (2)
[1998]
Q2502. What is true of ecosystem?
(1) Producers are more than primary consumers
(2) Primary consumers are least dependent upon producers
(3) Secondary consumers are the largest and most powerful
(4) Primar y consumers out-number producers
Ans: (1)
[1998]
Q2503. Upper part of sea/aquatic ecosystem contains
(1) plankton and nekton
(2) plankton
(3) benthos
(4) nekton
Ans: (2)
[1988]
Q2504. Warm ocean surge of the Peru Current reoccurring every 5-
8 years or so in the East Pacific of South America is widely known
as
(1) Aye Aye
(2) Gulf Stream
(3) Magnox
(4) El Nino
Ans: (4)
[1988]
Q2505. The rate at which light energy is converted to the chemical
energy of organic molecules is the ecosystem’s
(1) net secondary productivity
(2) net primary productivity
(3) gross secondary productivity
(4) gross primary productivity
Ans: (4)
[1988]
Q2506. Which of the following is expected to have the highest
value (gm/m2 /yr) in a grassland ecosystem?
(1) Gross Production (GP)
(2) Secondary Production
(3) Net Production (NP)
(4) Tertiary Production
Ans: (1)
[1999]
Q2507. Bamboo plant is growing in a fir forest then what will be
the trophic level of it?
(1) Third trophic level (T3)
(2) First trophic level (T1)
(3) Fourth trophic level (T4)
(4) Second trophic level (T 2)
Ans: (2)
[2000]
Q2508. The greatest biomass of autotrophs in the oceans is that
of
(1) benthic brown algae,coastal red algae and daphnids
(2) sea grasses and slime moulds
(3) benthic diatoms and marine viruses
(4) free floating microalgae, cyanobacteria and nanoplankton
Ans: (4)
[2000]
Q2509. Pneumatophores are characteristic of plants growing in
(1) marshy places and salt lakes
(2) saline soils
(3) dryland regions
(4) sandy soils
Ans: (1)
[2002]
Q2510. Sudden mass killing of fishes is likely in
(1) salt lake
(2) mesotrophic lake
(3) eutrophic lake
(4) oligotrophic lake
Ans: (3)
[2004]
Q2511. Which one of the following is not used for construction of
ecological pyramids?
(1) Fresh weight
(2) Number of individuals
(3) Dry weight
(4) Rate of energy flow
Ans: (1)
[2004]
Q2512. More than 70% of world’s freshwater is contained in:
(1) antarctica
(2) polar ice
(3) greenland
(4) glaciers and mountains
Ans: (2)
[2004]
Q2513. Barophilic prokaryotes:
(1) readily grow and divide in sea water enriched in any soluble salt of
barium
(2) grow and multiply in very deep marine sediments
(3) grow slowly in highly alkaline frozen lakes at high altitudes
(4) occur in water containing high concentrations of barium hydroxide
Ans: (2)
[2005]
Q2514. An ecosystem which can be easily damaged but can
recover after some time if damaging effect stops will be having
(1) low stability and low resilience
(2) low stability and high resilience
(3) high stability and high resilience
(4) high stability and low resilience
Ans: (2)
[2005]
Q2515. If by radiation all nitrogenase enzymes are inactivated, then
there will be no
(1) conversion from nitrate to nitrite in legumes
(2) fixation of nitrogen in legumes
(3) conversion from ammonium to nitrate in soil
(4) fixation of atmospheric nitrogen
Ans: (2)
[2006]
Q2516. Consider the following statements concerning food
chains
(1) the length of food chains is generally limited to 3-4 trophic levels due to
energy loss
(2) removal of 80% tigers from an area resulted in greatly increased growth
of vegetation
(3) the length of food chains may vary from 2 to 8 trophic levels Which two
of the above statements are correct?
(4) removal of most of the carnivores resulted in an increased population of
deers
Ans: (2)
[2007]
Q2517. The slow rate of decomposition of fallen logs in nature is
due to their
(1) anaerobic environment around them
(2) low moisture content
(3) low cellulose content
(4) poor nitrogen content
Ans: (3)
[2008]
Q2518. About 70% of total global carbon is found in
(1) oceans
(2) grasslands
(3) forests
(4) agroecosystems
Ans: (1)
[2008]
Q2519. A lake near a village suffered heavy mortality of fishes
within a few days. Consider the following reasons for this?
(1) The lake water turned green and stinky
(2) Lots of urea and phosphate fertilizer were used in the crops in the vicinity
(3) Phytoplankton populations in the lake declined initially thereby greatly
reducing photosynthesis. Which two of the above were the main causes of
fish mortality in the lake?
(4) The area was sprayed with DDT by an aircraft
Ans: (1)
[2008]
Q2520. Which one of the following ecosystem types has the
highest annual net primary productivity?
(1) temperate deciduous forest
(2) tropical deciduous forest
(3) tropical rain forest.
(4) temperate evergreen forest
Ans: (3)
[2008]
Q2521. Mass of living matter at a trophic level in an area at any
time is called
(1) humus
(2) standing crop
(3) standing state
(4) deteritus
Ans: (2)
[2009]
Q2522. The biomass available for consumption by the herbivores
and the decomposers is called:
(1) standing crop
(2) net primary productivity
(3) gross primary productivity
(4) secondary productivity
Ans: (2)
[2009]
Q2523. Study the four statements (a–d) given below and select the
two correct ones out of them: (i) A lion eating a deer and a
sparrow feeding on grain are ecologically similar in being
consumers (ii) Predator star fish Pisaster helps in maintaining
species diversity of some invertebrates (iii) Predators ultimately
lead to the extinction of prey species (iv) Production of chemicals
such as nicotine, strychnine by the plants are metabolic disorders
The two correct statements are:
(1) (i) and (iv)
(2) (ii) and (iii)
(3) (i) and (ii)
(4) (iii) and (iv)
Ans: (3)
[2010]
Q2524. Which one of the following types of organisms occupy
more than one trophic level in a pond ecosystem?
(1) Frog
(2) Fish
(3) Phytoplankton
(4) Zooplankton
Ans: (2)
[2010]
Q2525. The correct sequence of plants in a hydrosere is:
(1) Oak→Lantana →Volvox →Hydrilla → Pistia →Scirpus
(2) Volvox → Hydrilla → Pistia →Scirpus Lantana → Oak
(3) Oak →Lantana →Scirpus →Pistia → Hydrilla →Volvox
(4) Pistia →Volvox →Scirpus →Hydrilla → Oak →Lantana
Ans: (2)
[2011]
Q2526. Which one of the following is not a gaseous
biogeochemical cycle in ecosystem?
(1) Nitrogen cycle
(2) Sulphur cycle
(3) Carbon cycle
(4) Phosphorus cycle
Ans: (4)
[2011]
Q2527. Pheretima and its close relatives derive nourishment
from:
(1) soil insects
(2) sugarcane roots
(3) small pieces of fresh fallen leaves of maize, etc.
(4) decaying fallen leaves and soil organic matter.
Ans: (4)
[2011M]
Q2528. Both, hydrarch and xerarch successions lead to:
(1) highly dry conditions
(2) medium water conditions
(3) excessive wet conditions
(4) xeric conditions
Ans: (2)
[2011M]
Q2529. Which one of the following animals may occupy more than
one trophic levels in the same ecosystem at the same time?
(1) Goat
(2) Sparrow
(3) Frog
(4) Lion
Ans: (2)
[2012]
Q2530. Which one of the following statements for pyramid of
energy is incorrect, whereas the remaining three are correct?
(1) It is inverted in shape
(2) Its base is broad
(3) It is upright in shape
(4) It shows energy content of different trophic level organisms
Ans: (1)
 [2012]
Q2531. The rate of formation of new organic matter by rabbit in a
grassland, is called
(1) net primary productivity
(2) net productivity
(3) gross primary productivity
(4) secondary productivity
Ans: (4)
[2012]
Q2532. The upright pyramid of number is absent in
(1) Lake
(2) Pond
(3) Grassland
(4) Forest
Ans: (4)

Q2533. Which one of the following is not a function of an

ecosystem
(1) Productivity
(2) Energy flow
(3) Stratification
(4) Decomposition
Ans: (3)
[2012]
Q2534.
Ans: (2)
[2012]
Q2535. Identify the possible link “A” in the following food chain:
Plant insect - frog “A” Eagle
(1) Cobra
(2) Rabbit
(3) Parrot
(4) WoIf
Ans: (1)
[2012M]
Q2536. Secondary productivity is rate of formation of new organic
matter by
(1) Decomposer
(2) Parasite
(3) Producer
(4) Consumer
Ans: (4)
[2012M]
Q2537. Which one of the following processes during
decomposition is correctly described?
(1) Leaching-Water soluble inorganic nutrients rise to the top layers of soil
(2) Humification-Leads to the accumulation of a dark coloured substance
humus which undergoes microbial action at every fast rate
(3) Fragmentation-Carried out by organisms such as earthworm
(4) Catabolism-Last step decomposition under fully anaerobic condition
Ans: (3)

Q2538. Natural reservoir of phosphorus is:

(1) Fossils
(2) Animal bones
(3) Sea water
(4) Rock
Ans: (4)
[NEET 2013]
Q2539.
Ans: (2)
[NEET 2013]
Q2540. The second stage of hydrosere is occupied by plants like
(1) Salix
(2) Azolla
(3) Vallisneria
(4) Typha
Ans: (3)
[NEET 2013]
Q2541. Deforestation will decrease
(1) soil fertility
(2) soil erosion
(3) rainfall
(4) land slides
Ans: (3)
[NEET Kar. 2013]
Q2542. Soil conservation is
(1) erosion of soil
(2) conversion of sterile soil into fertile one
(3) protection against loss
(4) aeration of soil
Ans: (3)
[NEET Kar. 2013]
Q2543. CHAPTER 37 Biodiversity and its Conservation
Q2544. When man eats fish which feeds on zooplankton which
have eaten small plants, the producer in the chain is
(1) Fish
(2) Zooplankton
(3) Man
(4) Small plants
Ans: (4)
[1989]
Q2545. Which one of the following is a primary consumer in maize
field ecosystem?
(1) Wolf
(2) Lion
(3) Phytoplankton
(4) Grasshopper
Ans: (4)
[1990]
Q2546. Minerals and metals are
(1) non-renewable
(2) biodegradable resources
(3) renewable and non-renewable resources
(4) renewable
Ans: (3)
[1991, 92, 93]
Q2547. Petroleum is a
(1) non-renewable resource
(2) synthetic product
(3) inconvenient resource
(4) renewable resource
Ans: (1)
[1991]
Q2548. Fertility of soil is measured by its ability to
(1) hold water
(2) retain nutrients
(3) support life
(4) hold organic materials
Ans: (3)

Q2549. Renewable source of energy is

(1) Petroleum
(2) Biomass
(3) Kerosene
(4) Coal
Ans: (2)
[1992]
Q2550. A non-renewable resource is
(1) renewable non-conventional energy source
(2) non-renewable non-conventional energy source
(3) renewable conventional energy source
(4) non-renewable conventional energy source
Ans: (4)
[1992]
Q2551. Deforestation does not lead to
(1) alteration of local weather conditions
(2) quick nutrient cycling
(3) destruction of natural habitat of wild animals
(4) soil erosion
Ans: (2)
 [1992]
Q2552. Wildlife is destroyed most when
(1) its natural habitat is destroyed
(2) there is lack of proper care
(3) natural calamity
(4) mass scale hunting for foreign trade
Ans: (1)
[1992]
Q2553. American water plant that has become a troublesome water
weed in India is
(1) Trapa latifolia
(2) Cyperus rotundus
(3) Trapa bispinosa
(4) Eichhornia crassipes
Ans: (4)
[1993]
Q2554. Water is a resource
(1) renewable
(2) nondegradable nonmaintainable
(3) non-renewable
(4) degradable maintainable
Ans: (1)
[1994, 98, 2002]
Q2555. Soil fertility is reduced by
(1) decaying organic matter
(2) crop rotation
(3) intensive agriculture
(4) nitrogen fixing bacteria
Ans: (3)
[1994]
Q2556. National Park associated with Rhinoceros is
(1) Corbett
(2) Kaziranga
(3) Valley of Flowers
(4) Ranthambore
Ans: (2)
[1994]
Q2557. Ranthambore National Park is situated in
(1) Gujarat
(2) Maharashtra
(3) U.P.
(4) Rajasthan
Ans: (4)
[1994]
Q2558. Which animal has become extinct from India?
(1) Wolf
(2) Snow Leopard
(3) Cheetah
(4) Hippopotamus
Ans: (3)
[1994]
Q2559. Bulk fixation of carbon through photosynthesis takes place
in
(1) crop plants
(2) tropical rain forests
(3) oceans
(4) tropical rain forest and crop plants
Ans: (3)
Q2560. Largest amount of fresh water is found in
(1) polar ice and glaciers
(2) lakes and streams
(3) rivers
(4) underground
Ans: (1)
[1994]
Q2561. If the forest cover is reduced to half, what is most likely to
happen on a long term basis?
(1) Large areas will become deserts
(2) Tribals living in these areas will starve to death
(3) Crop breeding programmes will suffer due to a reduced availability of
variety of germplasm
(4) Cattle in these and adjoining areas will die due to lack of fodder
Ans: (1)
[1994]
Q2562. A number of natural reserves have been created to conserve
specific wild life species. Identify the correct combination from the
following
(1) Rann of Kutch - Wild Ass
(2) Gir forest - Tiger
(3) Manas wild life Sanctuary - Musk deer
(4) Kaziranga - Elephants
Ans: (1)
[1995]
Q2563. Which of the following is the correct matching pair of a
sanctuary and its main protected wild animal?
(1) Sunderban- Rhino
(2) Gir-Lion
(3) Kaziranga-Musk deer
(4) Sariska-Tiger
Ans: (2)
[1995]
Q2564. Which of the following is the main factor of
desertification?
(1) Over- grazing
(2) Tourism
(3) All of these
(4) Irrigated agriculture
Ans: (1)
[1996]
Q2565. Species diversity increases as one proceeds from
(1) low altitude to high altitude and low latitude to high latitude
(2) high altitude to low altitude and high latitude to low latitude
(3) high altitude to low altitude and low latitude to high latitude.
(4) low altitude to high altitude and high latitude to low latitude
Ans: (2)
 [1996]
Q2566. The endangered largest living lemur Idri idri is found in
(1) Mauritius
(2) Sri Lanka
(3) India
(4) Madagascar
Ans: (4)
[1997]
Q2567. A high density of a protected animal in a National Park can
result into
(1) emigration
(2) mutualism
(3) predation
(4) intraspecific competition
Ans: (4)
[1999]
Q2568. Which animal has gone extinct in recent times in India?
(1) Antilope cervicapra
(2) Panthera leo
(3) Rhinoceros unicornis
(4) Acinonyx jubatus
Ans: (2)
[1999]
Q2569. At present, the most significant cause of dwindling
biodiversity is probably
(1) niological magnification of DDT
(2) the deterioration of ozone layer
(3) global warming
(4) the destruction of habitat
Ans: (4)
[1999]
Q2570. MAB stands for
(1) Mammals and Biosphere Programme
(2) Man and Biology Programme
(3) Mammals and Biology Programme
(4) Man and Biosphere Programme
Ans: (4)
[2000]
Q2571. In which one of the following pairs is the specific
characteristic of a soil not correctly matched?
(1) Chernozems - Richest soil in the world
(2) Laterite - Contains aluminium compound
(3) Black soil - Rich in calcium carbonate
(4) Terra rossa - Most suitable for roses
Ans: (3)
[2000]
Q2572. In your opinion, which is the most effective way to
conserve the plant diversity of an area?
(1) By creating botanical garden
(2) By tissue culture method
(3) By developing seed bank
(4) By creating biosphere reserve
Ans: (3)
[2001]
Q2573. Which group of vertebrates comprises the highest number
of endangered species?
(1) Fishes
(2) Birds
(3) Reptiles
(4) Mammals
Ans: (4)
[2003]
Q2574. Reason of diversity in living beings is due to
(1) gradual change
(2) mutation
(3) short term evolutionary change
(4) long term evolutionary change
Ans: (4)
[2004]
Q2575. An institution where valuable plant material likely to
become irretrievably lost in the wild or in cultivation is preserved
in a viable condition is known as
(1) Gene library
(2) Genome
(3) Gene bank
(4) Herbarium
Ans: (3)
[2004]
Q2576. Biodiversity Act of India was passed by the parliament in
the year
(1) 2000
(2) 1992
(3) 2002
(4) 1996
Ans: (3)
[2004]
Q2577. One of the most important functions of botanical gardens is
that
(1) they allow ex-situ conservation of germ plasm
(2) they provide a beautiful area for recreation
(3) they provide the natural habitat for wildlife
(4) one can observe tropical plants there
Ans: (1)
[2005]
Q2578. At which latitude, heat gain through insolation
approximately equals heat loss through terrestrial radiation?
(1) 42 1 2 º North and South
(2) 22 1 2 ° North and South
(3) 66° North and South
(4) 40° North and South
Ans: (4)
[2005]
Q2579. According to IUCN Red List, what is the status of Red
Panda (Ailurus fulgens)?
(1) Extinct species
(2) Critically endangered species
(3) Endangered species
(4) Vulnerable species
Ans: (3)
[2005]
Q2580. Diversification in plant life appeared
(1) suddenly on earth
(2) due to long periods of evolutionary changes
(3) by seed dispersal
(4) due to abrupt mutations
Ans: (2)
[2005]
Q2581. One of endangered species of Indian medicinal plants is
that of
(1) Nepenthes
(2) Ocimum
(3) Podophyllum
(4) Garlic
Ans: (3)
[2006]
Q2582. Which of the following pairs of an animal and a plant
represents endangered organisms in India?
(1) Banyan and black buck
(2) Tamarind and Rhesus monkey
(3) Bentinckia nicobarica and Red Panda
(4) Cinchona and leopard
Ans: (3)
[2006]
Q2583. Which of the following is considered a hot-spot of
biodiversity in India? [
(1) Aravalli Hills
(2) Indo-Gangetic Plain
(3) Western Ghats
(4) Eastern Ghats
Ans: (3)
 [2006
Q2584. Which one of the following is not included under in-situ
conservation?
(1) National park
(2) Botanical garden
(3) Sanctuary
(4) Biosphere reserve
Ans: (2)
[2006]
Q2585. Which one of the following is the correct matched pair of
an endangered animal and National Park?
(1) Great Indian -Keoladeo National Park bustard
(2) Rhinoceros - Kaziranga National Park
(3) Lion - Corbett National Park
(4) Wild ass - Dudhwa National Park
Ans: (2)
[2007]
Q2586. Which one of the following has maximum genetic diversity
in India?
(1) Tea
(2) Mango
(3) Teak
(4) Wheat
Ans: (4)
[2007]
Q2587. Quercus species are the dominant component in
(1) Scrub forests
(2) Temperate deciduous forests
(3) Tropical rain forests
(4) Alpine forests
Ans: (2)
[2008]
Q2588. Which one of the following is not observed in biodiversity
hotspots?
(1) Lesser inter-specific competition
(2) Endemism
(3) Species richness
(4) Accelerated species loss
Ans: (4)
[2008]
Q2589. The table below gives the population (in thousands) of ten
species (A-J in four areas (a-d) consisting of the number of habitats
given within brackets against each. Study the table and answer the
question which follows: Which area out of a to d shows
maximum species diversity?
(1) d
(2) b
(3) a
(4) c
Ans: (1)
[2008]
Q2590. Identify the odd combination of the habitat and the
particular animal concerned.
(1) Rann of kutch - Wild Ass
(2) Sunderbans - Bengal Tiger
(3) Dachigam - Snow National park Leopard.
(4) Periyar - Elephant
Ans: (3)
[2009]
Q2591. Which one of the following shows maximum genetic
diversity in India?
(1) Maize
(2) Groundnut
(3) Mango
(4) Rice
Ans: (4)
[2009]
Q2592. A collection of plants and seeds having diverse alleles of
all the genes of a crop is called
(1) gene library
(2) herbarium
(3) genome
(4) germplasm
Ans: (1)
[2010]
Q2593. Eutrophication is often seen in
(1) ocean
(2) deserts
(3) mountains
(4) fresh water lakes
Ans: (4)
[2011]
Q2594. Which one of the following is an example of Exsitu
conservation?
(1) Sacred groves
(2) Wildlife sanctuary
(3) National park
(4) Seed bank
Ans: (4)
[2011]
Q2595. Tiger is not a resident in which one of the following
national park?
(1) Jim Corbett
(2) Sunderbans
(3) Ranthambhor
(4) Gir
Ans: (4)
[2011]
Q2596. Sacred groves are specially useful in
(1) generating environmental awareness.
(2) preventing soil erosion.
(3) conserving rare and threatened species.
(4) year-round flow of water in rivers.
Ans: (3)
 [2011M]
Q2597. The highest number of species in the world is represented
by
(1) Algae
(2) Fungi
(3) Lichens
(4) Mosses
Ans: (2)
[2011M]
Q2598. Which one of the following areas in India, is a hotspot of
biodiversity
(1) Sunderbans
(2) Eastern Ghats
(3)Western Ghats
(4) Gangetic Plain
Ans: (3)
[2012]
Q2599. Biodiversity of a geographical region represents
(1) genetic diversity present in the dominant species of the region.
(2) endangered species found in the region.
(3) species endemic to the region.
(4) the diversity in the organisms living in the region.
Ans: (4)
[2012]
Q2600. Consider the following statements (A)-(D) each with one
or two blanks. (A) Bears go into __(1)__ during winter to __(2)__
cold weather (B) A conical age pyramid with a broad base
represents __(3)__ human population (C) A wasp pollinating a fig
flower is an example of __(4)___ (D) An area with high levels of
species richness is known as __(5)___ Which one of the following
options give the correct fill ups for the respective blank numbers
from (1) to (5) in the statements
(1) (1) - expanding, (4) - commensalism, (5) biodiversity park
(2) (2) - stable (4) commensalism, (5) marsh
(3) (1)- hibernation, (2) - escape, (3) - expanding, (5) hot spot
(4) (1) - aestivation, (5) - escape, (3) - stable, (4) - mutualism
Ans: (3)
[2012M]
Q2601. Acid rains are produced by
(1) excess release of carbon monoxide by incomplete combustion
(2) excess emissions of NO2 and SO2 from burning fossil fuels
(3) excess formation of CO2 by combustion and animal respiration
(4) excess production of NH3 by industry and coal gas
Ans: (2)
[2012M]
Q2602. The largest tiger reserve in India is
(1) Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam
(2) Nagarhole
(3) Periyar
(4) Valmiki
Ans: (1)
[NEET 2013]
Q2603. Which organization publishes the Red Data Book?
(1) UNEP
(2) GEF
(3) WWF
(4) IUCN
Ans: (4)
[NEET Kar. 2013]
Q2604. Which of the following re present maximum number of
species among global biodiversity?
(1) Mosses and Ferns
(2) Lichens
(3) Algae
(4) Fungi
Ans: (4)
[NEET Kar. 2013]
Q2605. Select the correct statement about biodiversity.
(1) Conservation of biodiversity is just a fad pursued by the developed
countries.
(2) Large scale planting of Bt cotton has no adverse effect on biodiversity.
(3) The desert areas of Rajasthan and Gujarat have a very high level of desert
animal species as well as numerous rare animals.
(4) Western Ghats have a very high degree of species richness and endemism.
Ans: (4)
[1988, 89, 91]
Q2606. Domestic waste constitutes
(1) Effluents
(2) Nonbiodegradable pollution
(3) Air pollution
(4) Biodegradable pollution
Ans: (4)
[1988, 92]
Q2607. Gas released during Bhopal tragedy was
(1) Sodium isothiocyanate
(2) Methyl isocyanate
(3) Ethyl isothiocyanate
(4) Potassium isothiocyanate
Ans: (2)
[1989, 91]
Q2608. Major aerosol pollutant in jet plane emission is
(1) Methane
(2) Sulphur dioxide
(3) Fluorocarbon
(4) Carbon monoxide
Ans: (3)
[1990]
Q2609. Green house effect is warming due to
(1) Increase in temperature due to increase in carbon dioxide concentration of
atmosphere
(2) Infra-red rays reaching earth
(3) Ozone layer of atmosphere
(4) Moisture layer in atmosphere
Ans: (1)
[1990, 99]
Q2610. Which one is not a pollutant normally?
(1) Carbon monoxide
(2) Hydrocarbons
(3) Sulphur dioxide
(4) Carbon dioxide
Ans: (4)
[1991]
Q2611. Which gas contributes most to green house effect?
(1) CO2
(2) CFC
(3) CH4
(4) Freon
Ans: (1)
[1992]
Q2612. Highest DDT deposition shall occur in
(1) Crab
(2) Phytoplankton
(3) Eel
(4) Sea Gull/Birds
Ans: (4)
[1993]
Q2613. Atmosphere of big/metropolitan cities is polluted most by
(1) household waste
(2) automobile exhausts
(3) radio-active fall-out
(4) pesticide residue
Ans: (2)
[1994]
Q2614. Ultraviolet radiations from sunlight causes a reaction that
produces
(1) Sulphur dioxide
(2) Fluorides
(3) Ozone
(4) Carbon monoxide
Ans: (3)
 [1994]
Q2615. Most hazardous metal pollutant of automobile exhausts is
(1) Lead
(2) Mercury
(3) Copper
(4) Cadmium
Ans: (1)
[1994]
Q2616. The Taj Mahal is threatened due to the effect of
(1) chlorine
(2) oxygen
(3) sulphur dioxide
(4) hydrogen
Ans: (3)
[1994]
Q2617. Fish die in water bodies polluted by sewage due to
(1) reduction in oxygen
(2) pathogens
(3) foul smell
(4) clogging of gills by silt
Ans: (1)
[1994]
Q2618. Sound becomes hazardous noise pollution at level
(1) Above 100 dB
(2) Above 30 dB
(3) Above 120 dB
(4) Above 80 dB
Ans: (4)
[1994]
Q2619. Drawback of DDT as pesticide is
(1) It is not easily/rapidly degraded in nature
(2) It becomes ineffective after sometime
(3) Its high cost
(4) It is less effective than others
Ans: (1)
 [1994]
Q2620. Disease caused by eating fish found in water contaminated
with industrial waste having mercury is
(1) Hashimoto's disease
(2) Minamata disease
(3) Osteosclerosis
(4) Bright's disease
Ans: (2)
[1995]
Q2621. The major contributor of Green House gases to the
atmosphere is
(1) Germany
(2) Russia
(3) Brazil.
(4) U.S.A.
Ans: (4)
[1995]
Q2622. The worst environmental hazards were created by accidents
in nuclear power plant and MIC gas tragedy respectively in
(1) Bhopal in 1984 & Russia in 1990
(2) Russia in 1990 & Bhopal in 1986
(3) Ukraine in 1986 and Bhopal in 1984
(4) Ukraine in 1988 & USA in 1984
Ans: (3)
[1995]
Q2623. Sewage drained into water bodies kill fishes because
(1) it removes the food eaten by fish
(2) excessive carbon dioxide is added to water
(3) it increases competition with fishes for dissolved oxygen
(4) it gives off a bad smell
Ans: (3)
[1996]
Q2624. In Minamata Bay Japan, the animals which remained free
from Minamata disease, are
(1) dogs
(2) pigs
(3) cats
(4) rabbits
Ans: (4)
[1996]
Q2625. When huge amount of sewage is dumped into a river, its
B.O.D, will
(1) sharply decrease
(2) increase
(3) remain unchanged
(4) decrease
Ans: (2)
[1996, 2002]
Q2626. The most common indicator organism that represents
polluted water is
(1) C. vibrio
(2) E. coli
(3) Entamoeba
(4) P. typhi
Ans: (2)
[1997]
Q2627. Formation of ozone hole is maximum over
(1) Antarctica
(2) India
(3) Africa
(4) Europe
Ans: (1)
[1997]
Q2628. In coming years, skin related disorders will be more
common due to
(1) water pollution
(2) pollutants in air
(3) depletion of ozone layer
(4) use of detergents
Ans: (3)
 [1997]
Q2629. The CO2 content in the atmospheric air is about
(1) 3.34%
(2) 0.034%
(3) 6.5%
(4) 0.34%
Ans: (2)
[1997]
Q2630. Phosphate pollution is caused by
(1) sewage and phosphate rocks
(2) phosphate rocks only
(3) sewage and agricultural fertilizers
(4) agricultural fertilizers only
Ans: (3)
[1997, 2004]
Q2631. Which of these is a pollution related to occupational health
hazard?
(1) Flurosis
(2) Pneumoconiosis
(3) Silicosis
(4) Asthma
Ans: (3)
[1998]
Q2632. DDT causes egg shell thinning in birds because it inhibits
(1) Magnesium ATPase
(2) Calmodulin
(3) Carbonic anhydrase
(4) Calcium ATPase
Ans: (4)
[1998]
Q2633. Which important green house gas other than methane is
being produced from the agricultural fields?
(1) Nitrous oxide
(2) Sulphur dioxide
(3) Arsine
(4) Ammonia
Ans: (1)
[1998]
Q2634. Which one of the following organisms is used as indicator
of water quality?
(1) Escherichia
(2) Chlorella
(3) Biggiatoa
(4) Azospirillum
Ans: (1)
[1999]
Q2635. How does carbon monoxide, a poisonous gas emitted by
automobiles, prevent transport of oxygen into the body tissues?
(1) By obstructing the reaction of oxygen with haemoglobin
(2) By destroying the haemoglobin
(3) By changing oxygen into carbon dioxide.
(4) By forming a stable compound with haemoglobin
Ans: (4)
[1999]
Q2636. Which of the following is a secondary pollutant?
(1) PAN
(2) CO
(3) Aerosol
(4) CO2
Ans: (1)
[1999]
Q2637. Which of the following organism is likely to have more
concentration of D.D.T. in its body?
(1) Top carnivores
(2) Herbivores
(3) Primary producers
(4) Carnivores
Ans: (1)
[1999]
Q2638. Green house effect refers to
(1) production of cereals
(2) cooling of earth
(3) warming of earth
(4) trapping of UV rays
Ans: (3)
[1999]
Q2639. Which of the following is the use of lichens in case of
pollution?
(1) They promote pollution
(2) They treat the polluted water
(3) Lichens are not related with pollution
(4) They act as bioindicators of pollution
Ans: (4)
[1999]
Q2640. Maximum bioconcentration of pesticide residues is usually
found in birds that exclusively feed on
(1) worms
(2) fish
(3) meat
(4) seeds
Ans: (2)
[1999]
Q2641. In 1984, Bhopal gas tragedy took place because methyl
isocyanate
(1) reacted with CO2
(2) reacted with DDT
(3) reacted with water
(4) reacted with ammonia
Ans: (3)
[1999]
Q2642. A major component of gobar gas is
(1) Ethane
(2) Ammonia
(3) Butane
(4) Methane
Ans: (4)
[2002]
Q2643. Escherichia coli is used as an indicator organism to
determine pollution of water with
(1) faecal matter
(2) pollen of aquatic plants
(3) industrial effluents
(4) heavy metals
Ans: (1)
[2003]
Q2644. Which of the following is absent in polluted water?
(1) Larva of stone fly
(2) Hydrilla
(3) Blue green algae
(4) Water hyacinth
Ans: (2)
[2004]
Q2645. D.D.T. is
(1) not a pollutant
(2) a non –degradable pollutant
(3) an antibiotic
(4) A bio-degradable pollutant
Ans: (2)
[2004]
Q2646. Identify the correctly matched pair.
(1) Montreal Protocol - Global warming
(2) Basal Convention - Biodiversity Conservation
(3) Ramsar - Ground water Convention pollution
(4) Kyoto Protocol - Climatic change
Ans: (4)
[2004]
Q2647. Which of the following is not used for disinfection of
drinking water?
(1) Chloramine
(2) Chlorine
(3) Phenyl
(4) Ozone
Ans: (3)
[2004]
Q2648. Prolonged liberal irrigation of agricultural fields is likely to
create the problem of
(1) Salinity
(2) Acidity
(3) Metal toxicity
(4) Aridity
Ans: (1)
[2005]
Q2649. Recently Govt. of India has allowed mixing of alcohol in
petrol. What is the amount of alcohol permitted for mixing in
petrol?
(1) 10%
(2) 2.5%
(3) 5%
(4) 10 – 15%
Ans: (3)
[2005]
Q2650. Lead concentration in blood is considered alarming if it is
(1) 4–6 mg/100 ml
(2) 20 mg/100 ml
(3) 10 mg/100 ml
(4) 30 mg/100 ml
Ans: (4)
[2005]
Q2651. In which one of the following the BOD (Biochemical
Oxygen Demand) of sewage (s), distillery effluent (DE), paper mill
effluent (PE) and sugar mill effluent (SE) have been arranged in
ascending order?
(1) S < DE < PE < SE
(2) SE < PE < S < DE
(3) SE < S < PE < DE.
(4) PE < S < SE < DE
Ans: (4)
[2005]
Q2652. Montreal protocol which calls for appropriate action to
protect the ozone layer from human activities was passed in the
year
(1) 1985
(2) 1987
(3) 1986
(4) 1988
Ans: (2)
[2006]
Q2653. Photochemical smog pollution does not contain
(1) PAN (peroxy acyl nitrate)
(2) Nitrogen dioxide
(3) Ozone
(4) Carbon dioxide
Ans: (4)
[2006]
Q2654. Limit of BOD prescribed by Central Pollution Control
Board for the discharge of industrial and municipal waste waters
into natural surface waters, is
(1) < 30 ppm
(2) < 10 ppm
(3) < 3.0 ppm
(4) < 100 ppm
Ans: (2)
[2006]
Q2655. Which one of the following pairs is mismatched?
(1) Solar energy - green house effect
(2) Fossil fuel burning - release of CO2
(3) Biomass burning - release of CO2
(4) Nuclear power - radioactive wastes
Ans: (1)
[2007]
Q2656. Which one of the following is the correct percentag of the
two (out of the total of 4) green house gases that contribute to the
total global warming?
(1) N2 O 6%, CO2 86%
(2) CFCs 14%, Methane 20%
(3) Methane 20%, N2 O 18%
(4) CO2, 40%, CFCs 30%
Ans: (2)
[2007]
Q2657. Which one of the following is being tried in India as a
biofuel substitute for fossil fuels?
(1) Musa
(2) Jatropha
(3) Aegilops
(4) Azadirachta
Ans: (2)
[2007]
Q2658. According to Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB),
which particulate size in diameter (in micrometers) of the air
pollutants is responsible for greatest harm to human health?
(1) 1.0 or less
(2) 2.5 or less
(3) 5.2-2.5
(4) 1.5 or less
Ans: (2)
[2008]
Q2659. Which one of the following is not a bioindicator of water
pollution?
(1) Sewage fungus
(2) Blood-worms
(3) Sludge-worms.
(4) Stone flies
Ans: (4)
[2008]
Q2660. In a coal fired power plant electrostatic precipitators are
installed to control emission of
(1) CO
(2) NO×
(3) SO2
(4) SPM
Ans: (4)
[2008]
Q2661. Steps taken by the Government of India to control air
pollution include
(1) use of non-polluting Compressed Natural Gas (CNG) only as fuel by all
buses and trucks.
(2) compulsory PUC (Pollution Under Control) certification of petrol driven
vehicles which tests for carbon monoxide and hydrocarbons.
(3) compulsory mixing of 20% ethyl alcohol with petrol and 20% biodiesel
with diesel.
(4) permission to use only pure diesel with a maximum of 500 ppm sulphur
as fuel for vehicles.
Ans: (2)
[2008]
Q2662. Which of the following plant species you would select for
the production of bioethanol?
(1) Jatropha
(2) Zea mays
(3) Brassica
(4) Pongamia
Ans: (1)
[2009]
Q2663. Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOP) in a river water
(1) increases when sewage gets mixed with river water.
(2) has no relationship with concentration of oxygen in the water.
(3) remains unchanged when algal bloom occurs.
(4) gives a measure of Salmonella in the water.
Ans: (1)
[2009]
Q2664. Global agreement in specific control strategies to reduce
the release of ozone depleting substances, was adopted by
(1) The Vienna Convention
(2) The Montreal Protocol
(3) Rio de Janeiro Conference
(4) The Koyoto Protocol
Ans: (2)
[2009]
Q2665. World Summit on Sustainable Development (2002) was
held in
(1) Argentina
(2) Brazil
(3) South Africa
(4) Sweden
Ans: (3)
[2009]
Q2666. A renewable exhaustible natural resource is:
(1) minerals
(2) coal
(3) forest
(4) petroleum
Ans: (3)
[2009]
Q2667. The bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis is widely used in
contemporary biology as
(1) source of industrial enzyme
(2) insecticide
(3) indicator of water pollution
(4) agent for production of dairy products
Ans: (2)
[2009]
Q2668. Chipko movement was launched for the protection of
(1) wet lands
(2) forests
(3) grasslands
(4) livestock
Ans: (2)
[2009]
Q2669. DDT residues are rapidly passed through food chain
causing biomagnification because DDT is
(1) water soluble
(2) moderately toxic
(3) lipo soluble
(4) non-toxic to aquatic animals
Ans: (3)
[2009]
Q2670. Montreal protocol aims at
(1) Control of CO2 emission
(2) Biodiversity conservation
(3) Reduction of ozone de pleting substances
(4) Control of water pollution
Ans: (3)
[2010]
Q2671. Which one of following pairs of gases are the major cause
of “Greenhouse effect”?
(1) CFCs and SO2
(2) CO2 and O3
(3) CO2 and N2 O
(4) CO2 and CO
Ans: (3)
[2010]
Q2672. Which one of the following expanded forms of the
following acronyms is correct?
(1) EPA = Environmental Pollution Agency
(2) IPCC = International Panel for Climate Change
(3) IUCN = International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural
Resources
(4) UNEP = United Nations Environmental Policy
Ans: (3)
 [2010]
Q2673. Stirred tank bioreactors have been designed for
(1) ensuring anaerobic conditions in the culture vessel
(2) addition of preservatives to the product
(3) availability of oxygen throughout the process
(4) purification of the product
Ans: (3)
[2010]
Q2674. The two gases making highest relative contribution to the
greenhouse gases are
(1) CFC5 and N2 O
(2) CO2 and CH4
(3) CO2 and N2 O
(4) CH4 and N2 O
Ans: (2)
[2011]
Q2675. dB is a standard abbreviation used for the quantitative
expression of
(1) the dominant Bacillus in a culture
(2) the density of bacteria in a medium
(3) a certain pesticide
(4) a particular pollutant
Ans: (4)
[2011]
Q2676.
Ans: (4)
[2011]
Q2677. "Good ozone " is found in the
(1) stratosphere
(2) mesosphere
(3) ionosphere
(4) troposphere
Ans: (1)
[2011]
Q2678. Which one of the following statements is wrong in case of
Bhopal tragedy?
(1) Radioactive fall out engulfed Bhopal
(2) Methyl lsocyanate gas leakage took place
(3) It took place in the night of December 2/3 1984.
(4) Thousands of human beings died
Ans: (1)
[2011]
Q2679. Which of the following is mainly produced by the activity
of anaerobic bacteria on sewage?
(1) Mustard gas
(2) Laughing gas
(3) Marsh gas
(4) Propane
Ans: (3)
[2011M]
Q2680. Secondary sewage treatment is mainly a
(1) chemical process
(2) physical process
(3) biological process
(4) mechanical process
Ans: (3)

Q2681. Kyoto Protocol was endorsed at:

(1) CoP - 4
(2) CoP - 5
(3) CoP - 3
(4) CoP - 6
Ans: (3)
[2012]
Q2682. The Air Prevention and Control of Pollution Act came into
force in:
(1) 1990
(2) 1981
(3) 1975
(4) 1985
Ans: (2)
[2012]
Q2683. Measuring Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a
method used for:
(1) measuring the activity of Saccharomyces cerevisae in producing curd on a
commercial scale.
(2) estimating the amount of organic matter in sewage water.
(3) working out the efficiency of RBCs about their capacity to carry oxygen.
(4) working out the efficiency of oil driven automobile engines.
Ans: (2)
[2012]
Q2684. Which one of the following is a wrong statement?
(1) Greenhouse effect is a natural phenomenon.
(2) Most of the forests have been lost in tropical areas.
(3) Eutrophication is a natural phenomenon in freshwater bodies.
(4) Ozone in upper part of atmosphere is harmful to animals.
Ans: (4)
[NEET 2013]
Q2685. In an area where DDT had been used extensively, the
population of birds declined significantly because:
(1) cobras were feeding exclusively on birds
(2) birds stopped laying eggs
(3) many of the birds laid, did not hatch
(4) earthworms in the area got eradicated
Ans: (3)
[NEET 2013]
Q2686. [NEET 2013]
Q2687. Which one of the following is not correct as regards the
harmful effects of particulate matter of the size 2.5 micro meters or
less?
(1) It can directly enter into our circulatory system
(2) It can be inhaled into the lungs
(3) It can cause inflammation and damage to the lungs
(4) It can cause respiratory problems
Ans: (1)
 [NEET Kar. 2013]
Q2688. Climate of the world is threatened by
(1) Increasing amount of atmospheric carbondioxide
(2) Increasing concentration of atmospheric oxygen
(3) Decreasing amount of atmospheric carbondioxide
(4) Decreasing amount of atmospheric oxygen
Ans: (1)
[NEET Kar. 2013]
Q2689. The second commitment period for Kyoto Protocol was
decided at
(1) Bali
(2) Cancun
(3) Doha
(4) Durban
Ans: (3)
[NEET Kar. 2013]
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