SR NEET STAR SUPER CHAINA (for Toppers) DATE: 02.11.

2023
Time: 3.20 Hrs GT-2 Max.Marks: 720

Important Instructions:
In every subject:
(a) In Section – A, 35 questions will be given. Answer all 35 questions from section – A
(b) In Section – B, 15 questions will be given. Out of which Answer 10 questions only.
(c) Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response will get 4 marks. For each
incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores.
PHYSICS
SECTION – A
A − x2
1. If energy of a body moving along x-axis at time ‘t’ and position ‘x’ is given by E = , then the
Bt
dimensions of AB will be
1) [M–1 L2 T1] 2) [M L T–2] 3) [M–1 L3 T–2] 4) [M L–3 T–2]
2. A particle performs SHM on x-axis with amplitude A and time period T. At t = 0 particle starts from
A
rest, then time taken by it to travel a distance will be
4

1)
T
16
2)
T
16
( )
cos −1 3
4 3)
T
2
( )
cos −1 3
4 4)
T
2
cos −1 1 ( )
4
3. A honey bee is flying along straight line (x-axis) according to the equation x =  +  t 2 where
 = 5 cm and  = 8cm / s 2 . Its acceleration when velocity of honey bee is 18 m/s, is
1) 8 cm/s2 2) 16 cm/s2 3) 4 cm/s2 4) zero
4. A string is rigidly tied at two ends and its equation of vibration is given by y = cos2t sin 2 x .
The minimum length of the string is
1)1 m 2)0.5 m 3) 5 m 4) 2 m
5. The majority charge carriers in P-type semiconductor are
1) Holes 2) Electrons 3) Protons 4) Neutrons
0
6. A particle is projected from ground at an angle of 60 above the horizontal with speed 150 m/s. The
time (in second) after which particle is moving at an angle 450 with vertical, is
15 15
1) 15( 3 + 1) 2) ( 3 − 1) 3) 15( 3 + 1) 4) ( 3 + 1)
2 2
7. A large tank filled with water to a height ‘h’ is to be emptied through a small hole at the bottom. The
h h
time taken for the level of water to fall from h to is T1 and to fall from to zero is T2. The value
2 2
T
of 1 is
T2
1 1
1) 2 2) 2 −1 3) 4)
2 −1 2

Pg. 1
8. A convex lens of glass (  =1.5) having focal length f = 15 cm is dipped completely in water. Focal

 4
length of convex lens in water becomes 
 water = 
 3
1) 60cm 2) 15cm 3) – 60m 4) 30 cm
9. The internal resistance of a cell of 2.1 V which gives a current of 0.2 A through a resistance of 10 
is
(1) 0.8  (2) 1.0  (3) 0.2  (4) 0.5 
10. Statement-I: Gravitational torque due to weight of a body about its centre of gravity is zero.
Statement-II: In the absence of external torque the angular momentum of a body changes.
1) Statement-I is true and Statement-II is false
2) Statement-I is false and Statement-II is true
3) Both S-I and S-II are true
4) Both S-I and S-II are false.
11. The electric potential V(x) in a region around the origin is given by v(x) = 4x volts. The electric
charge enclosed in a cube of 1 m side with its centre at the origin, will be
1) 8 0 2) −4 0 3) −8 0 4) Zero
12. Three rods made of the same material and having the same cross section have been joined as shown
in the figure. Each rod is of the same length. The left and right ends are kept at 0ºC and 90ºC
respectively. The temperature of the junction of the three rods will be

1) 45ºC 2) 60ºC 3) 30ºC 4) 20ºC

13. If the earth is supposed to be a sphere of radius R, and g’ is the value of acceleration due to gravity at
latitude of 300 and g at the pole, then the value of g – g’ will be
2R 3 2 R R 2
1) 2) 3)  2 R 4)
4 4 3
2
14. A coil of area 2 cm with turns 500 is placed in a magnetic field of 0.5 T with its plane parallel to
field. The flux linked with the coil is
1) 50mwb 2) zero 3) 25mwb 4) 5mwb
15. Argon gas is adiabatically compressed to half its volume. If P, V and T represent the pressure,
volume and temperature of the gaseous system, at any stage, then the correct equation representing
the process is
2/5 5/3
1) TV = constant 2) VP = constant 3) TP 2/5 = constant 4) PT 2/5 = constant
16. In an ideal transformer, number of turns in primary coil are 140 and that in the secondary coil are
280. If current in the primary coil is 7 A, then that in the secondary coil is
1) 14 A 2) 3.5 A 3) 7A 4) 4A
17. Four charges, each equal to – Q are placed at the four corners of a square and charge q is at its
centre. If the system is in equilibrium the value of charges q is
Q Q Q Q
1) (1 + 2 2) 2) − (2 2 − 1) 3) − (1 + 2 2) 4) (1 + 2 2)
4 4 2 2

Pg. 2
18. The heat produced in a given resistor in a given time by the sinusoidal current I0 sin t will be the
same as that by a steady current of magnitude
I I
1) 0 2) I 0 3) 2I 0 4) 0
2 2
19. In the figure given below, the correct relation between acceleration a1, a2 and a3 is

1) 2a1 + 2a2 = a3 2) a1 + a2 = 2a3 3) a1 + a2 = a3 4) a1 = a2 = a3

20. The amplitudes of electric and magnetic fields in an electromagnetic wave are related to each other
as
1) E0 = B0 2) E0 = cB0 3) E0 = B0 / c 4) E0 = 2 B
21. The magnetic field at the centre of a circular current carrying coil of radius R is B c. The magnetic
B
field on its axis at a distance R from the centre is Ba. The value of c will be
Ba
1 1
1) 2 2) 3) 2 2 4)
2 2 2
2
22. The binding energy of deutron (1H ) is 1.15 MeV per nucleon and an alpha particle has a binding
energy of 7.1 MeV per nucleon. Energy released in the following reaction will be
1 H +1 H →2 He + Q
2 2 4

1) 5.95 MeV 2) 26.1 MeV 3) 23.8 MeV 4) 28.9 MeV

23. ˆ
The angular velocity of a rotating body is  = iˆ − 2 ˆj + 2k Velocity of a point on the body having
position vector r = 4 ˆj − 3kˆ is having magnitude
1) 29 unit 2) 79 unit 3) 120 unit 4) 87 unit
24. A uniform rod of length l is free to rotate in a vertical plane about a fixed horizontal axis through O.
The rod is allowed to rotate from rest from its unstable vertical position. Then, the angular velocity
of the rod when it has turned through an angle  is

3g 6g 3g 6g
1) sin ( / 2) 2) sin ( / 2) 3) cos ( / 2) 4) cos ( / 2)
l l l l

Pg. 3
25. Three blocks A, B and C, of masses 4 kg, 2kg and 1 kg respectively, are in contact on a frictionless
surface, as shown. If a force of 14 N is applied on the 4kg block, then the contact force between A
and B

1) 2N 2) 6N 3) 8N 4) 18N
26. If the critical angle for total internal reflection from a medium to vacuum is 300, then velocity of
light in the medium is
3 m m m 3 m
1)  108 2) 2  108 3) 3  108 4)  108
2 s s s 4 s
27. Which of the following waves have the maximum wave length
1) X – rays 2) Radio waves 3) Ultraviolet waves 4) Visible rays
28. A 2 µF capacitor is charged with the help of a 60 V battery. After disconnecting the battery it is
connected with another uncharged capacitor of 1µF. The potential difference across the plates of 2µ
F capacitor will be
1) 30 V 2) 60 V 3) 40 V 4) 20 V

29. Two coherent light waves of intensities I and 4I superpose at a point with phase difference of .
2
The resultant intensity of the superposed wave at that point will be
1) 1)5I 2)7I 3)6I 4)8I
30. To the captain of a ship A travelling with velocity v A 3i 4 j km / h , a second ship B appears

to have a velocity 5i 12 j km / h . What is the true velocity of the ship B ?

1) 2i 16 j km / h 2) 13i 8 j km / h 3) 2i 16 j km / h 4) 8 i j km / h
31. A small object is embedded in a glass sphere of µ = 3/2 and diameter 10 cm at a distance of 1.5 cm
left to the centre. Position of image of the object as seen by an observer standing to the left of the
sphere is nearly
1) 1 cm left to the centre 2) 2 cm left to the centre
3)1 cm right to the centre 4)2 cm right to the centre
32. For a nuclear reactor to run in critical condition the reproduction factor k should be
1) =1 2) >1 3) <1 4) >>1
33. A thin brass sheet at 20ºC and a thin steel sheet at 40°C have the same surface area. The common
temperature at which both would have the same area will be
( brass = 19 10−6 / 0 C and  steel = 1110−6 / 0 C )
1) – 3.7ºC 2) –7.5ºC 3)12ºC 4) Not possible
34. Part AB of the track shown below is smooth and beyond point-B track is rough. A block of mass 2
kg is released from rest at point A and it stops after travelling 8 m on track BC. The value of friction
coefficient µ between block and track BC is

1 1 3 6
1) 2) 3) 4)
4 8 4 5
Pg. 4
35. 100g of ice at 00C is mixed with 100g of water at 1000C. What will be the final temperature of the
mixture? (Assume no heat loss)
(1)200C (2) 400C (3)300C (4)100C
SECTION – B
36. On the basis of Bohr’s atomic model the radius of 3rd orbit of any atom is
1) Three times of radius of first orbit 2) Nine times of radius of first orbit
3) One third of radius of first orbit 4) Equal to the radius of first orbit
37. If the radius of a circular coil is doubled and the number of turns are halved then the magnetic field
at the centre of the coil, for the same current will
1) Get doubled 2) Get one fourth 3) Get quadrupled 4) Remains unchanged
38. Two ideal diodes are connected to a battery as shown in the circuit. The current supplied by the
battery is

1)Zero 2)0.5 A 3)0.4 A 4)0.75 A

39. A thin wooden rod of length 0.05 m is placed in front of a spherical mirror as shown in the figure.
Length of the image of the rod will be

10
1) 5cm 2) cm 3) 10 cm 4) both 2 and 3
21
40. The minimum force required to move a body up an inclined plane of inclination 30º is found to be
three times the minimum force required to prevent it from sliding down the plane. The coefficient of
friction between the body and plane is
1 1 1 1
1) 2) 3) 4)
3 2 3 3 3 4 3
41. An electron of mass m and charge e initially at rest gets accelerated by constant electric field E. The
rate of change of de-Broglie wavelength of this electron at time t is
2h h h −2h
1) 2) 3) − 2
4)
eEt eEt eEt eEt 2
42. The minimum wavelength of the X-ray emitted by an X-ray tube operating at 10 kV is
o o o o
1) 1.24 A 2) 12.4 A 3) 3.1 A 4) 6.2 A
43. In a YDSE experiment, the coherent sources are at 2d distance from each other and screen is placed
a distance D from the slits. If nth bright fringe is formed on the screen exactly opposite to a slit, the
value of n must be
d2 d2 2d 2 d2
1) 2) 3) 4)
4 D D D 2 D
Pg. 5
44. Maximum kinetic energy of a photoelectron is E when the wavelength of incident light is  . If
energy becomes four times when incident wavelength is reduced to one third, then work function of
the metal is
hc 3hc hc hc
1) 2) 3) 4)
  2 3
45. A Neutron’s moving with a certain kinetic energy collide head on with an atom of mass number ‘A’.
Find the fraction of kinetic energy retained by it
3 2
A 1 A 1 A 1 4A
(1) (2) (3) (4)
A 1 A 1 A 1 ( A 1) 2
46. A particle of charge q and mass m starts moving from the origin under the action of an electric field
E = Eiˆ and magnetic field B = Biˆ with velocity  = 0 ĵ . The speed of the particle will become 2 0
after a time.
2mυ0 2Bq 3Bq 3mυ0
(1) t = (2) t = (3) t = (4) t =
qE mυ 0 mυ0 qE
-1
47. A projectile is moving at 60ms at its highest point, where it breaks into two equal parts due to an
internal explosion. One part moves vertically up at 50 ms-1 w.r.t. ground. The other part will move
at
(1) 110 ms-1 (2) 120 ms-1 (3) 130 ms-1 (4)10 61 ms-1
48. A point charge q is placed at a distance ‘r’ from one end of a uniformly charged thin rod of length
‘L’ as shown in the figure. Magnitude of electric force between them will be

1 Qq 1 Qq Qq Qq
1) 2) 3) 4)
4 0 r(r + L) 4 0 r 2 2 0 r 2 4 0 ( L + r )2
49. Assertion(A): When a particle moves in a circular path with uniform speed , its velocity and
acceleration both change.
Reason (R): The centripetal acceleration in circular motion depends on angular velocity of the body.
1) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.
2) Both A and R are true and R is not correct explanation of A.
3) A is true but R is false
4) Both A and R are false.
50. Match list -I with list -II
List – I List – II
8RT
A) RMS velocity P)
M
1
B) Most probable velocity Q)
2  n D2
3RT
C) Average velocity R)
M
2RT
D) Mean free path S)
M
The correct match is
1) A → Q , B → S , C → R , D → P 2) A → S , B → P , C → Q , D → R
3) A → R , B → S , C → Q , D → P 4) A → R , B → S , C → P , D → Q
Pg. 6
 CHEMISTRY
SECTION – A
51. The molarity of aqueous NaCl solution which contains 5.85 g NaCl in 500 ml solution is
1 1 3 2
1) 2) 3) 4)
5 2 5 5
52. Which of the following set of quantum number is possible?
1
1) n = 4, l = 4, m = –3, s=+
2
1
2) n = 4, l = 3, m = –2, s= −
2
1
3) n = 2, l = 3, m = +3, s=+
2
1
4) n = 4, l = 4, m = 4, s= −
2
53. IUPAC name of element with Z = 110 is
1) Ununnillium 2) Unnilseptium 3) Unnilunium 4) Ununoctium
54. Square planar molecule among the following is
1) SF4 2) CH4 3) XeF4 4) ClF3
OH

55. Which of the following is not the product of dehydration of

(1) (2) (3) (4)

56. If enthalpy of combustion of butane is –2658 kJ mol –1 then how much heat energy will be released
by the combustion of 5.8 g of butane in kJ is
1)132.9 2)265.8 3)332.25 4)664.
57. If KC for the reaction N 2 ( g ) + O2 2 NO(g) is x then KC for the reaction
1 1
NO (g) N 2 ( g ) + O2 ( g ) is
2 2
1 1 1
1) x2 2) 3) 4)
x x2 x
58. Oxidation number of Cr in CrO5 is
1) +2 2) +5 3) +6 4) 10

i) O3
A + B
ii) Zn / H2O
CH3 C=CH CH3
CH3
KMnO4 / H+ A + C
59.
‘B’ on oxidation gives C. Identify A, B and C in the above reactions
(1) CH 3COCH 3 , CH 3CHO, CH 3COOH (2) CH3COOH , CH3CHO, CH3COCH3
(3) CH3COOH , CH3CHO, CH3COCH3 (4) CH 3COCH 3 , CH 3COOH , CH 3CHO
Pg. 7
60. When aqueous solution of 1 mole of PdSO4.4NH3 is treated with excess of BaCl2 solution one mole
of BaSO4 is precipitated . The formula of complex , primary and secondary valencies of metal are
respectively .
(1) [Pd(NH3)4]SO4 , 2 and 6 (2) [Pd(NH3)2SO4].2NH3 , 2 and 4
(3) [Pd(NH3)4]SO4 , 2 and 4 (4) [Pd(NH3)4SO4] , 2 and 6
61. Minimum electronegativity among the following is of
1) B 2) Al 3) In 4) Tl
62. Which of the following is a temporary effect?
1)Inductive 2) Electromeric 3) Resonance 4) Hyperconjugation
63. Which of the following can not be formed by Wurtz reaction?
1) C2H6 2) CH4 3) C3H8 4) C4H10
64. 0.126 g of an acid required 20 ml of 0.1 N NaOH for complete neutralization. Equivalent weight of
the acid is
1) 45 2) 53 3) 40 4) 63
65. P4 + xNaOH + yH 2O ⎯⎯ → mNaH 2 PO2 + nPH3
x, y, m, n are in the following order
1) 3, 2, 3, 1 2) 4, 2, 4, 1 3) 1, 2, 1, 2 4) 3, 3, 3, 1
66. Negative deviation solution among the following is/are
1) Phenol and aniline 2) Benzene and toluene
3) Ethanol and acetone 4) All of these
67. Which of the following is true?
1)  om KCl −  om NaCl =  om KBr −  om NaBr 2)  om KCl +  om NaCl =  om KBr +  om NaBr
3)  om KCl −  om NaBr =  om KBr −  om NaCl 4) All of these
68. If half life of a first order reaction is 2 min then the ratio of initial rate to the rate after two half lives
is
1 1 2 4
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 4 1 1
69. Consider the following statement :
( +) ( +)
I) CH3O C H 2 is more stable than CH 3 C H 2
(+) ( +)
II) Me3 C more stable than CH3CH 2 CH 2
( +) ( +)
III) CH 2 = CH − CH 2 is more stable than CH3CH 2 CH 2
(+) (+)
IV) CH 2 = CH is more stable than CH 3 CH 2
of these statement:
1) I and II are correct 2) III and IV are correct
3) I, II and III are correct 4) II, III and IV are correct
70. Which of the following oxide of Nitrogen is neutral?
1) N 2O5 2) N 2O3 3) N 2O4 4) N 2O
71. pH of a 10−14 M NaOH is nearest to :
1) 10 2) 7 3) 4 4) 10.9
72. Fusion of chromite ore with sodium carbonate in free access of air gives
1) Na2CrO4 2) Fe2O3 3) CO2 4) All of these
Pg. 8
73. Total number of geometrical isomers possible for MABXL type square planar complex is
1) 2 2) 3 3) 4 4) 5
+
74. CH3 ⎯⎯⎯
KCN
→ A ⎯⎯⎯
H3O
→ B The product B is
1) CH3OH 2) C2H5OH 3) CH3CHO 4) CH3COOH
75. Which of the following on reaction with Grignard reagent followed by hydrolysis form alcohol?
1) HCHO 2) CH3CHO 3) CH3COCH3 4) All of these
CHO Conc.NaOH

76. CHO Product A is

COOH CH 2OH CH 2ONa CH 2OH

1) COOH 2) COOH 3) COOH 4) COONa

77. Which of the following can give carbylamine test?
CH3
CH3 CH NH2 CH3 C NH2

1) CH3NH2 2) CH3 3) CH3 4) All of these

78. Which among the following will not react with Tollen’s reagent?
1) D-Mannose 2) D-fructose 3) Sucrose 4) Lactose
79. The incorrect combination among the following is
(1) XeF4 - sp3d2 hybridisation - Square planar

(2) XeF6 - sp3d3 hybridisation - Distorted octahedron

(3) XeO3 - sp2 hybridisation - Plane triangle

(4) XeO3 - sp3 hybridisation - Pyramidal

80. The EMF of the cell, Ni / Ni 2 0.01M // Cl (0.01) / Cl2 , Pt
is ______V, if the SRP of nickel and chlorine electrodes are -0.25V and +1.36V respectively
1)-1.79V 2) +1.79V 3)-1.61V 4)+1.61V
81. Most basic among the following in aqueous medium is
1)(CH3)2NH 2)CH3NH2 3)(CH3)3N 4)NH3
82. Which among the following will not give iodoform reaction?
1)HCHO 2)CH3CHO 3)CH3COCH3 4)C2H5OH
83. In Carius method of estimation of halogen, 0.20 g of an organic compound give 0.188 g of AgBr.
The % of bromine in the compound is (Molar mass of Ag = 108 g mol–1,
molar mass of Br = 80 g mol–1)
1)10% 2)20% 3)30% 4)40%
84. -
Statement-A : I ion is linear.
3

Statement-B : In I3- ion, iodine is in 'sp' hybridised state.

1) Both A and B are true
2) Both A and B are false
3) A is true and B is false
4) A is false and B is true
85. Ratio of radius of fourth orbit of He+ ion to the radius of second orbit of Be3+ ion is
1) 1 : 1 2) 4 : 1 3) 1 : 4 4) 8 : 1
Pg. 9
 SECTION – B
86. If Kb for ammonia is 2 10−5 then the ionisation constant of NH 4+ ion is
1) 2 1010 2) 2.5 10−10 3) 5 10−10 4) 5 1010
87. Which among the following is C-2 epimer of D-glucose?
1) D-galactose 2) D-Mannose 3) D-Allose 4) D-Fructose
88. Select the complex ion, which is paramagnetic in nature?
1) [Fe(H2O)6]3+ 2) [Co(C2O4)3]3– 3) [Zn(H2O)6]2+ 4) [Co(CN)6]3–
89. Total number of electrons present in antibonding molecular orbital of O2 is
1) 2 2) 4 3) 6 4) 8
90. Two moles of ideal gas expand isothermally and reversibly to double its volume at 400°C. The
entropy change during the process is (log 2 = 0.3)
1) 6.74 J 2)11.5 J 3)15.61 J 4)19.5 J
91. Which of the following aquated ion is not coloured?
1Ti4+ 2) V3+ 3) Mn3+ 4) Cr2+
92. Which of the following is most basic in nature?
1) La(OH)3 2)Yb(OH)3 3)Eu(OH)3 4)Ce(OH)3
93. Reduction potential of hydrogen electrode at the pH of 1 and at 1 atm of H2(g) pressure is
1) –0.0591 V 2) 1 V 3) +0.0591 V 4) 0 V
94. For the reaction A + B → product following data were obtained.
[A] [B] Initial rate
(i) 0.1 0.1 0.04
(ii) 0.2 0.1 0.04
(iii) 0.1 0.2 0.16
Overall order of the reaction is
1) 0 2) 1 3) 2 4) 3
CH3
_
CH3 C Br + CH3CH2ONa+ P(Major)

95. Consider the following reaction CH3 Major product P

is
CH3
CH3 C CH2 CH3 C OC2H5

1) CH3 2) CH3
CH3
CH3 C CH2 OCH3 CH3 C CH2 OC2H5

3) CH3 4) CH3
96. Match the following
List – I List – II
I) Acidic nature a) HF> HI > HBr > HCl
II) Reducing nature b) HI > HBr > HCl > HF
III) Boiling points c) HCl > HBr > HI > HF
IV) Volatility d) HCl > HF > HBr > HI
The correct match is
I II III IV
1) a b c d
2) b d a c
3) d c a b
4) d b a c
Pg. 10
97. Which of the following is not a characteristic of interstitial compounds of transition elements?
1) The formulae of these compounds do not correspond to any normal oxidation state
2) They have melting points higher than those of pure elements
3) They are very hard and some compounds approach diamond in hardness
4) They do not exhibit metallic conductivity
98. The K SP of FeS = 4  10−19 at 298K. The minimum concentration of H + ions required to prevent
the precipitation of FeS from a 0.01M solution Fe 2+ salt by passing H 2 S (0.1M)
−21
(Given H 2 S ka1  ka2 = 10 )

1) 1.6  10−3 M 2) 2.5  10−4 M

3) 2.0  10−2 M 4) 1.2  10−4 M
99. Correct order of stability is:
1) cis – 2 – butene > 1 – butene > trans – 2 - butene
2) trans – 2 – butene > cis – 2 – butene > 1 – butene
3) 1 – butene > cis – 2 – butene > trans – 2 – butene
4) cis – 2 – butene > trans – 2 – butene > 1- butene

100.

1) 2)

3) 4)
BOTANY
SECTION – A
101. Select the wrong statement w.r.t kingdom: Monera:
(1) Both the structure and behaviour of bacteria are simple.
(2) Mycoplasma do not survive without oxygen.
(3) Bacilli form spores during favourable conditions.
(4) All of the above.
102. Both p-arms and q-arms are seen in:
(A) Metacentric chromosomes (B) Sub-metacentric chromosomes
(C) Acrocentric chromosomes (D) Telocentric chromosomes
The correct answer is:
(1) A and B (2) B and C (3) B, C and D (4) A, C and D
103. Centrioles are duplicated in animal cells during:
(1) G1- phase (2) S- phase 3) G2- phase 4) M- phase
Pg. 11
104. White spots disease on the leaves of mustard is caused by:
(1) Albugo (2) Aspergillus (3) Agaricus (4) Alternaria
105. Select the correctly typed scientific name of mango:
(1) Mangifera indica Linn. (2) Mangifera indica Linn.
(3) Mangifera indica Linn. (4) Mangifera Indica Linn.
106. Select the incorrect statement of the following:
(1) Desmids are chief producers in the oceans.
(2) Dinoflagellates are used in the filtration of oils and syrups.
(3) Euglenoids have two equal size flagella.
(4) All of the above.
107. Viroids differ from Prions in --------------------:
(1) RNA without capsid coat (2) Abnormally folded proteins
(3) Being infectious (4) Causing mad cow disease
108. Which of the following is correct w.r.t imperfect fungi?
(1) Possess aseptate and coenocytic mycelium
(2) Reproduce sexually by oospores
(3) Include truffles and morels
(4) Reproduce asexually by conidia
109. Which of the following organisms were not classified in the five-kingdom classification system
by R.H. Whittaker:
(a) Chlorella and Chlamydomonas (b) Amoeba and Paramecium
(c) Lichens and Prions (d) Viruses and Viroids
(1) Both (a) and (b) (2) Only (b) (3) Both (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
110. The correct floral formula of Brassicaceae is

(1) (2) K2+2C4 A3+3 G( 2)

(3) K2+2C4 A2+4 G( 2) (4)

111. In cymose inflorescence __________:
(1) The peduncle has unlimited growth (2) The main axis terminates with a flower
(3) The flowers are borne in acropetal order (4) All of these
112. Dicot root differs from monocot root in:
(1) Having radial vascular bundles (2) Having exarch xylem
(3) Showing secondary growth (4) Having root hairs
113. Identify the following phases (A), (B), and (C) of meiosis:

(A) (B) (C)

(1) A= Prophase-I, B= Metaphase-II, C= Metaphase- I
(2) A= Metaphase-II, B= Metaphase- I, C= Prophase-II
(3) A= Metaphase-II, B= Prophase-I, C= Metaphase- I
(4) A= Metaphase-I, B= Telophase-I, C= Anaphase-I
114. Phloem parenchyma does not store:
(1) Food (2) Tannins (3) Mucilage (4) Latex

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115. The paramount importance of algae is:
(1) Primary producers of energy-rich compounds
(2) Producers of hydrophilic colloids
(3) Used as food by space travellers
(4) Used to produce iodine
116. Assertion (A): Chlorophyll- a is the chief pigment of photosynthesis in plants.
Reason (R): Chlorophyll- a shows peaks at blue and red wavelengths in the action spectrum and
absorption spectrum.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) correctly explains (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) does not correctly explain (A).
117. If the sequence of coding strand of DNA is 5`GGCCTTAATGGCG3`, what will be the
sequence of mRNA formed from its template strand?
(1)5`CCGGAAUUACCGC3` (2) 3`GGGGAATTACGCC5’
(3) 3’GGCCAAUUACCGC5` (4) 5’GGCCUUAAUGGCG3`
118. Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t bundle sheath cells in C4- plants?
(A) Several layers of cells surrounding vascular bundles
(B) Intercellular spaces are present
(C) Do not permit gaseous exchange
(D) CO2 concentration is increased due to decarboxylation of C3- acid.
(1) A and B (2) B and C (3) B and D (4) A and D
119. Assertion (A): Respiration is an amphibolic pathway.
Reason (R): Carbohydrates, proteins, and lipids are not only degraded also synthesized in respiratory
pathway.
(1) (A) is true and (R) is false.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) does not correctly explain (A).
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) correctly explains (A).
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.
120. RNAi occurs at the level of:
(1) DNA replication (2) Transcription (3) RNA splicing (4) Translation
121. The alignment of chloroplasts at low light intensity is:
(A) Parallel to the walls of mesophyll cells (B) Perpendicular to the walls of mesophyll cells
(C) Parallel to the incident light (D) Perpendicular to the incident light
(1) Both (A) and (B) (2) Only (D)
(3) Both (A) and (D) (4) Only (C)
122. Select the correct match of the following:
List- I List- II
I. IAA A. Adenine
II. Zeatin B. Tryptophan
III. GA3 C. Ethephon
IV. Ethylene D. Terpenes

(1) I- D, II- A, III- B, IV- C

(2) I- B, II- A, III- D, IV- C
(3) I- C, II- A, III- D, IV- B
(4) I- C, II- D, III- B, IV- A
Pg. 13
123. Lac- operon is a:
(1) Regulation of enzyme synthesis by its product.
(2) Regulation of enzyme synthesis by its substrate.
(3) Regulation of enzymes of lactose biosynthesis.
(4) All of the above
124. Which of the following is the strongest oxidant in the Z- scheme?
(1) H2O (2) P700 (3) P700+ (4) P680+
125. S- I: Cholesterol is a 27-carbon lipid.
S- II: Lysine is an aromatic aminoacid.
(1) S- I is true & S- II is false (2) S- I is false & S- II is true
(3) Both S-I & S-II are true (4) Both S- I & S- II are false
126. Early seed production in conifers is promoted by:
(1) ABA (2) GA (3) 2, 4- D (4) Kinetin
127. All of the following are characteristics of insect-pollinated flowers, except:
(1) Colourful, fragrant (2) Sticky pollen grains
(3) Floral rewards (4) Long ribbon-like pollen grains
128. In the EMP- pathway of glycolysis, two redox equivalents are removed from:
(1) 3- PGA (2) 3- PGAL (3) Pyruvate (4) 1,3 -BPGA
129. Which of the following processes take place in the matrix of mitochondria?
(a) Formation of acetyl CoA (b) Citric acid cycle
(c) ETS (d) Oxidative phosphorylation
(1) Only- (a) (2) Only- (c) (3) Both (b) and (d) (4) Both (a) and (b)
130. The residual, persistent nucellus is found in the seeds of:
(1) Arhar (2) Beet (3) Coconut (4) Maize
131. S- I: Mendel’s law of independent assortment applies to the genes located on the same chromosome.
S- II: The A, B, and O blood groups of humans show co-dominance.
(1) S- I is true & S- II is false (2) S- I is false & S- II is true
(3) Both S-I & S-II are true (4) Both S- I & S- II are false
132. Select the correct match of the following:
List- I List- II
I. Ribozyme A. 7- methyl GTP
II. UTR B. Ochoa enzyme
III. Polynucleotide phosphorylase C. Methionine
IV. Initiator tRNA D. 23S rRNA
(1) I- D, II- A, III- B, IV- C (2) I- B, II- A, III- D, IV- C
(3) I- C, II- A, III- D, IV- B (4) I- C, II- D, III- B, IV- A
133. Which genes are expressed in Bt- crops to resist the action of corn borers?
(1) Cry I Ac (2) Cry II Ab (3) Cry I Ab (4) Lac Z
134. Which of the following enzyme contains haem as the prosthetic group?
(1) Carboxy peptidase (2) Peroxidase
(3) Catalase (4) Both 2 and 3
135. Seeds are produced without fertilisation in:
(1) Asteraceae (2) Poaceae (3) Brassicaceae (4) Both 1 and 2
SECTION – B
136. The BOD of sewage was significantly reduced in ---------------------- tank of STP:
(1) Anaerobic sludge digester (2) Primary settling tank
(3) Aeration tank (4) Activated sludge tank
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137. Bacterial transformation was inhibited by ------------- enzyme during the experiment which
proved DNA as Griffith’s transforming principle:
(1) Protease (2) RNase (3) DNase (4) All of these
138. Select the correct match of the following:
List- I (placentation) List- II (Examples)
I. Basal A. Lemon
II. Parietal B. Primrose
III. Free central C. Marigold
IV. Axile D. Mustard
(1) I- D, II- A, III- B, IV- C (2) I- B, II- A, III- D, IV- C
(3) I- C, II- A, III- D, IV- B (4) I- C, II- D, III- B, IV- A
139. Assertion (A): Proteins show lateral movements within a bilayer.
Reason (R): Lipids show quasi-fluid nature in a bilayer.
(1) (A) and (R) are true and (R) correctly explains (A).
(2) (A) and (R) are true and (R) does not correctly explain (A).
(3) (A) is true and (R) is false.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.
140. Select the correct statement of the following:
(1) Growth is determinate in the leaves, flowers, and fruits of plants.
(2) A single root apical meristem in maize increases in size up to 3,50,000 times.
(3) In plants, growth and differentiation are not open forms.
(4) All of these.
141. α- helix and β- sheet structures of proteins were first discovered by:
(1) G.N. Ramachandran (2) Linus Pouling
(3) Watson and Crick (4) Boyer and Cohen
142. Which of the following forms a barrier between the materials present inside the nucleus and
that of cytoplasm?
(1) Periplasmic space (2) Intermembrane space
(3) Perimitochondrial space (4) Perinuclear space
143. Cells are much thickened at corners due to the deposition of cellulose, hemicellulose, and
pectin. This is the characteristic of:
(1) Parenchyma (2) Collenchyma (3) Sclereids (4) Bast fibres
144. When a snapdragon plant bearing pink flowers was selfed, 39 plants had red flowers and
39 plants had white flowers. How many plants will have pink flowers in this experiment?
(1) 39 (2) 69 (3) 78 (4) 138
145. Mendel’s law of independent assortment is related to the orientation of chromosomes at:
(1) Anaphase of mitosis (2) Metaphase-I of Meiosis-I
(3) Anaphase-I of meiosis-I (4) Anaphase-II of meiosis- II
146. RNA is the genetic material in:
(1) ф X-174 (2) E. coli (3) QB- bacteriophage (4) All of these
147. Select the correct match of the following:
List- I (placentation) List- II (Examples)
I. Ladybird A. Nitrogen fixer in paddy fields
II. Cyanobacteria B. Mycobiont in Mycorrhiza
III. Rhizobium C. Controls Aphids
IV. Glomus D. Symbiotic diazotroph

(1) I- D, II- A, III- B, IV- C (2) I- B, II- A, III- D, IV- C

(3) I- C, II- A, III- D, IV- B (4) I- C, II- D, III- B, IV- A
Pg. 15
148. Select the incorrect statements of the following:
(A) The DNA polymerases can initiate DNA replication on their own.
(B) All reference point while defining a transcription unit is made with coding strand.
(C) Inheritance of a character is not affected by the regulatory sequences of a structural gene.
(D) RNA polymerase catalyses the opening of DNA helix during transcription.
(1) A and C (2) B and C (3) A and B (4) A and D
149. Mammals, Wheat, Angiosperms, Muscidae and Plants represent:
(1) Taxa at different levels (2) Categories at same levels
(3) Taxa at same levels (4) Categories at different levels
150. 15 14
The percentage of hybrid DNA (N -N ) in E. coli in Meselson and Stahl experiment after
60min. of DNA replication is:
(1) 25% (2) 50% (3) 75% (4) 100%
ZOOLOGY
SECTION – A
151. The epithelium found in the lining of stomach and intestine is
1) Compound 2) Simple squamous 3) Cuboidal ciliated 4) Simple columnar
152. Bones differ from cartilage as the former lacks
1) Pliable matrix 2) Lacunae 3) Calcium salts 4) Collagen fibres
153. In which of the following organisms, female can produce two types of gametes?
1) Humans 2) Grasshopper 3) Birds 4) Drosophila
154. Choose the incorrect statement about sickle-cell anaemia:
1) It is an autosomal recessive disease.
2) Individuals with genotype HbA HbS appear apparently unaffected.
3) The disease/defect is caused by substitution of valine by glutamic acid at 6th position of beta
chain.
4) The disease is controlled by a single pair of allele.
155. Choose the odd one w.r.t. Turner’s syndrome
1) Due to monosomy 2) Genetic compliment is 44 + XXY
3) Are sterile females 4) Have short stature
156. The amount of haemoglobin in every 100 mL of blood in a healthy individual is:
1) 25 – 30 grams 2) 25 – 30 mg.
3) 12 – 16 grams 4) 10 – 20 mg.
157. The universal blood donor group has:
1) Both anti – A and anti – B antibodies 2) both antigen A and B on the surface of RBC.
3) Only antigen A on the RBC 4) Only anti – B antibody in the blood plasma.
158. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. oxyhaemoglobin.
1) It dissociates near tissues due to increase in H+ concentration.
2) Formation of oxyhaemoglobin occurs in the alveoli and dissociation at the tissues.
3) Formaton of oxyhaemoglobin increases during carbon monoxide poisoning
4) The oxyhaemoglobin dissociation curve is sigmoid in shape.
159. A chronic respiratory disorder characterised by damage of alveolar wall is
1) Asthma due to allergic conditions
2) Emphysema due to cigarette smoking
3) Common cold caused due to Rhino viruses
4) Pneumonia due to bacterial infection.
160. Conditional reabsorption of mainly Na+ from DCT occurs under the direct influence of
1) ADH 2) Aldosterone 3) ANF 4) Renin
Pg. 16
161. How many of the animals given below are uricotelic?
Reptiles, birds, cartilaginous fishes, mammals, aquatic insects, Hydra, land snails
1) 3 2) 4 3) 5 4) 6
162. The ‘renin’ which plays a complex regulatory role in kidney functioning is released from:
1) Liver 2) Adrenal Cortex 3) Adrenal medulla 4) JG cells
163. Choose the incorrect match w.r.t. blood corpuscles in a healthy male.
Cells Number Function
1) Thrombocytes 1.5 – 3.5 lakhs/mm 3
Blood clotting
2) Monocytes 6 – 8% of all leucocytes Phagocytosis
3) Lymphocytes 20 – 25% of all WBCs Immune responses of the body
4) Eosinophils 0 − 1% of all leucocytes Release heparin, histamine & serotonin
164. QRS complex in an ECG represents systole of
1) Only left ventricle 2) Only left atrium 3) Both ventricles 4)Only right ventricle
165. In the diagram given below, A and B respectively represent binding sites for

1) Myosin, actin 2) Actin, ATP 3) ATP, myosin 4)Tropomyosin, actin

166. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. human rib cage.
1) Vertebrosternal ribs are attached with the sternum with the help of hyaline cartilage
2) The last two pairs of ribs are called vertebral ribs
3) Vertebrochondral ribs articulate with the 7th rib, thus are called false ribs
4) Bicephalic ribs attach to the sternum with 2 heads
167. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. the neuron.
1) Neuron is considered as structural and functional unit of neural system.
2) Neuron is a microscopic structure and is composed of three major parts, cell body, dendrites and
axon.
3) In most mammals, cell body is without nucleus but contain Nissl’s granules.
4) The axons transmits nerve impulses awau from the cell body.
168. Upon arrival of a stimulus, the polarised state of a resting neuronal membrane is reversed by
1) Efflux of Na+ to the outside 2) Activation of Na+ – K+ pump
3) Influx of Na+ into axoplasm 4) Influx of K+ into axoplasm
169. Which parts of the human brain are responsible for controlling body temperature and respiration
respectively?
1) Pons and medulla oblongata 2) Hypothalamus and cerebellum
3) Hypothalamus and medulla oblongata 4) Medulla oblongata and hypothalamus
170. Hyposecretion of thyroid hormones can lead to all the following, except
1) Myxoedema 2) Grave’s disease 3) Simple goitre 4) Cretinism
171. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. steroid hormones.
1) Their receptors are intracellular receptors
2) Upon binding with the receptor, they regulate gene expression
3) They bring about physiological response through cAMP and IP3
4) They are slower but long lasting in response as compared to lipid insoluble hormone
Pg. 17
172. Which of the following is a correct match of animal and its respective taxon?
1) Equus – Mammalia 2) Pinctada – Echinodermata
3) Felis – Aves 4) Spider – Annelida
173. Among the following the sponge is
1) Paramoecium 2) Ctenoplana 3) Sycon 4) Hydra
174. Male Periplaneta americana
1) Lacks anal cerci 2) Has caudal styles
3) Possesses three pairs of wings 4) Has total four jointed legs
175. The alimentary canal of cockroach has all the following, except
1) Crop 2) Ileum 3) Radula 4) Hepatic caecae
176. Choose the incorrect feature w.r.t. Struthio.
1) Oviparous 2) Poikilothermic nature
3) Pneumatic bones 4) Development direct
177. A disadvantage of asexual reproduction is that it
1) Is rapid 2) Is a simple process
3) Is uniparental 4) Does not contribute to evolution
178. Read the following statements.
A: Zona pellucida is a non – cellular layer secreted by the secondary oocyte around itself.
B: Implantation occurs in the uterus.
Choose the correct option.
1) Only A is correct 2) Only B is correct
3) Both A and B are incorrect 4) Both A and B are correct
179. Choose the incorrect statement.
1) Leydig cells of testes synthesise and secrete testicular hormones called androgens.
2) Small amounts of androgenic steroids are secreted by the adrenal cortex.
3) Menstruation in human females occurs due to LH surge.
4) The anterior lobe of pituitary secretes FSH which causes growth of ovarian follicle.
180. Spermiogenesis is the process of formation of ‘A’ from ‘B’. Choose the option that fills the blank
correctly.
1) A – Spermatozoa, B – Spermatid.
2) A – Primary spermatocyte, B – Secondary spermatocyte.
3) A – Spermatogonia, B – Primary spermatocyte.
4) A – Secondary spermatocyte, B – Spermatid.
181. Choose the odd one w.r.t. bacterial STI’s.
1) Syphilis 2) Gonorrhoea 3) Chlamydiasis 4) Genital herpes
182. Match Column I and II w.r.t. action of contraceptives.
Column I Column II
a. Jellies (i) Anovulation
b. Progestasert (ii) Spermicidal
c.Copper T (iii) Suppress sperm motility
(iv) Prevent deposition of sperms into vagina
Choose the correct option.
1) a(iv), b(i), c(ii) 2) a(ii), b(i), c(iii) 3) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv) 4) a(iv), b(i), c(iii)
183. According to Charles Darwin, all the following can cause evolution, except
1) Natural selection 2) Mutation 3) Branching descent 4) Variations
184. About ______ million years ago, the dinosaurs suddenly disappeared from the earth.
1) 50 2) 65 3) 150 4) 200
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185. The brain capacity of Homo erectus is about:
1) 900 cc 2) 650 cc 3) Less than 500 cc 4) 1300 – 1650 cc
SECTION – B
186. The unisexual chordate with two auricles and one ventricle in heart is:
1) Fishes 2) Crocodiles 3) Amphibians 4) All the listed
187. About 50% of lymphoid tissue in human body is contributed alone by
1) Spleen 2) Thymus 3) MALT 4) Lymph nodes
188. An addictive compound obtained from Cannabis sativa which is known to affect cardiovascular
system is
1) Heroin 2) Hashish 3) Cocaine 4) Caffeine
189. The specialissed connective tissue which can resist compression is/are:
1) Cartilage 2) Bone 3) Muscle 4) Both 1 and 2
190. Total volume of air a person can inspire after a normal expiration is:
1) Inspiratory reserve volume 2) Inspiratory capacity
3) Expiratory reserve volume 4) Total lung capacity
191. Declining population
1) Is called stable population
2) Shows bell shaped age pyramid
3) Has less pre-reproductive individuals than reproductive
4) Is young population
192. In grassland ecosystem, which of the pyramids are upright?
a. Pyramid of energy b. Pyramid of number c. Pyramid of biomass
1) Only a 2) Only a and b 3) Only c 4) All a, b and c
193. Which of the following is not the alien species for India?
1) Parthenium 2) Lantana 3) Eichhornia 4) Saccharum barberi
194. Second heart sound ‘dub’ is associated with the closure of the
1) Tricuspid valve 2) Semilunar valve
3) Tricuspid and Bicuspid valves 4) AV valves and Aortic valves
195. Human kidneys can produce urine nearly ______ times concentrated than the initial filtrate formed.
1) 1 2) 2 3) 4 4) 10
196. Which of the following genetic disorder is caused due to aneuploidy of autosomes ?
1) Klinefleter’s syndrome 2) Turner’s syndrome
3) Down’s syndrome 4) Phenylketonuria
197. Assertion: The possibility of a female becoming haemophilic is extremely rare.
Reason: Mother of such a female has to be at least carrier and the father should be haemophilic
(unviable in the later stage of life).
1) Assertion and reason both are true and the reason is correct explanation of assertion.
2) Assertion and reason both are true but reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
3) Assertion is true but reason is wrong.
4) Assertion and reason both are wrong.
198. Assertion: AIDS is not a congenital disease.
Reason: The transmission of HIV infection generally occurs from a infected mother to her child .
1) Assertion and reason both are true and the reason is correct explanation of assertion.
2) Assertion and reason both are true but reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
3) Assertion is true but reason is wrong.
4) Assertion and reason both are wrong.

Pg. 19
199. Assertion: Whether it is the plants in Britain, birds in Califorina or molluscs in New York State, the
slopes of the regression line (Z) are amazing similar
Reason: Regardless of the taxonomic group or the region value of regression line (Z) are amazingly
similar.
1) Assertion and reason both are true and the reason is correct explanation of assertion.
2) Assertion and reason both are true but reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
3) Assertion is true but reason is wrong.
4) Assertion and reason both are wrong.
200. Consider the following statements-
A. Catecholomines stimulate the breakdown of glycogen into glucose.
B. Glucocorticoids produces Anti-inflammatory reactions.
C. Erythropoietin stimulates RBC production whereas Cortisol inhibit RBC production.
D. Insulin results in hyperglycemia whereas Glucogon causes hypoglycemia.
The incorrect statements among the above are:
1) A and B 2) B and C 3) C and D 4) A and D

Pg. 20