UGEE 2018 SUPR

Question 1: A metal surface is illuminated by light of given intensity and frequency to cause
photoemission. If the intensity of illumination is reduced to one fourth of its original value then
the maximum KE of the emitted photoelectrons would be
Options:
(a) Twice the original value
(b) Four times the original value
(c) One fourth of the original value
(d) Unchanged

Question 2: Torque acting on a rectangular coil carrying current ‘l’ situated parallel to magnetic
field induction ‘B’, having number of turns ‘n’ and area ‘A’ is
Options:
(
(a) ni Aˆ  Bˆ)
nBA
(b)
i
(c) ni ( A  B )
iBA
(d)
n

Question 3: A force ( F ) = −5iˆ − 7 ˆj + 3kˆ acting on a particle causes a displacement

( s ) = 3iˆ − 2 ˆj + akˆ in its own direction. If the work done is 14J, then the value of ‘a’ is
Options:
(a) 0
(b) 5
(c) 15
(d) 1

Question 4: When the electron in hydrogen atom jumps from fourth Bohr orbit to second Bohr
orbit, one gets the
Options:
(a) Second line of Balmer series
(b) First line of Balmer series
(c) First line of Ptund series
(d) Second line of Paschen series

Question 5: Light of wavelength ‘X’ is incident on a single slit of width ‘a’ and the distance
between slit and screen is ‘D’. In diffraction pattern, if slit width is equal to the width of the central
maximum then ‘D’ is equal to
Options:
 a
(a)
2
a2
(b)
2
a
(c)

a2
(d)


Question 6: In U.C.M., when time interval  t → 0 , then angle between change in velocity ( v )
and linear velocity (v) will be
Options:
(a) 0o
(b) 90o
(c) 180o
(d) 45o

Question 7: A stretched string fixed at both ends has ‘m’ nodes, then the length of the string will
be
Options:

(a) ( m − 1)
2
(b)
( m + 1) 
2
m
(c)
2

(d) ( m − 2 )
2

Question 8: A particle is performing a linear simple harmonic motion of amplitude ‘A’. When it
is midway between its mean and extreme position, the magnitudes of its velocity and acceleration
are equal. What is the periodic time of the motion?
Options:
2
(a) s
3
3
(b) s
2
(c) 2 3s
1
(d) s
2 3
Question 9: Three identical rods each of mass ‘M’ and length ‘L’ are joined to form a symbol ‘H’.
The moment of inertia of the system about one of the sides of ‘H’ is
Options:
2 ML2
(a)
3
ML2
(b)
2
ML2
(c)
6
4 ML2
(d)
3

Question 10: The luminous border that surrounds the profile of a mountain just before sun rises
behind it is an example of
Options:
(a) Dispersion
(b) Total internal reflection
(c) Interference
(d) Diffraction

Question 11: A block of mass ‘m’ moving on a frictionless surface at speed ‘v’ collides elastically
with a block of same mass, initially at rest. Now the first block moves at an angle ' ' with its
initial direction and has speed ‘v1’. The speed of the second block after collision is
Options:
(a) v12 − v 2
(b) v 2 − v12
(c) v 2 + v12
(d) v − v1

Question 12: Three point masses each of mass ‘m’ are kept at the corners of an equilateral triangle
of side ‘L’. The system rotates about the center of the triangle without any change in the separation
of masses during rotation. The period of rotation is directly proportional to
 3
 cos 30 = sin 30 = 
 2 
Options:
(a) L
(b) L3/2
(c) L
(d) L−2
Question 13: Two pendulums begin to swing simultaneously. The first pendulum makes nine full
oscillations when the other makes seven. The ratio of the lengths of the two pendulums is
Options:
49
(a)
81
64
(b)
81
8
(c)
9
7
(d)
9

Question 14: When light enters glass from vacuum, then the wavelength of light
Options:
(a) Decreases
(b) Becomes zero
(c) Remains same
(d) Increases

Question 15: Which one of the following statement is correct?

Options:
(a) Surface energy is potential energy per unit length
(b) Surface tension is work done per unit area
(c) Surface tension is work done per unit length
(d) Surface tension is work done per unit force

Question 16: What is the minimum energy required to launch a satellite of mass ‘m’ from the
surface of the earth of mass ‘M’ and radius ‘R’ at an altitude 2R?
Options:
GMm
(a)
2R
2GMm
(b)
3R
GMm
(c)
3R
5GMm
(d)
6R

Question 17: A wire of length ‘L’ and area of cross section ’A’ is made of material of Young’s
modulus ‘Y’. It is stretched by an amount ‘x’. The work done in stretching the wire is
Options:
Y x2 A
(a)
2L
 2T x 2 A
(b)
L
Y xA
(c)
2L
Y x2 A
(d)
2

Question 18: In a parallel plate air capacitor the distance between plates is reduced to one fourth
and the space between them is filled with a dielectric medium of constant 2. If the initial capacity
of the capacitor is 4μF. Then its new capacity is
Options:
(a) 32 μF
(b) 18 μF
(c) 8 μF
(d) 44 μF

Question 19: An air craft is moving with uniform velocity 150 m/s in the space. If all the forces
acting on it are balanced, then it will
Options:
(a) Keep moving with same velocity
(b) Remain floating at its place
(c) Escape in space
(d) Fall down on earth

Question 20: In case of p-n junction diode, the width of depletion region is
Options:
(a) Decreased with heavy doping
(b) Increased by reverse biasing
(c) Decreased with light doping
(d) Increased by forward biasing

Question 21: In the study of transistor as an amplifier, the ratio of collector current to emitter
current is 0.98 then the ratio of collector current to base current will be
Options:
(a) 99
(b) 49
(c) 50
(d) 98

Question 22: In a bionomial distribution, mean is 18 and variance is 12 then p = ______

Options:
2
(a)
3
1
(b)
3
 3
(c)
4
1
(d)
2

x −1 y +1 z −1 x −3 y − z
Question 23: If lines = = and = = intersect each other, then  =
2 3 4 1 2 1
____
Options:
7
(a)
2
3
(b)
2
9
(c)
2
5
(d)
2

 dy 
Question 24: The particular solution f the differential equation log   = x , when x = 0, y = 1 is
 dx 
_______
Options:
(a) y =  2 + 2
(b) y = − x
(c) y = − x + 2
(d) y =  x

1
Question 25: The p.d.f of a random variable x is given by f ( x ) = = 0. , otherwise
4a
 3a   5a 
0  x  4a, ( a  0 ) = 0 and P  x   = kP  x   then k = _______
 2   2 
Options:
(a) 1
1
(b)
4
1
(c)
8
1
(d)
2
 (e kx
− 1) tan kx
Question 26: If the function f ( x ) =
4 x2
,x  0

= 16 x=0
is continuous at x = 0, then k = ______
Options:
1
(a) 
8
(b) 4
(c) 2
(d) 8

Question 27: The solution of the differential equation

y dx – x dy = xy dx is _____
Options:
(a) x2 =  x y 2
(b) x = y x
(c) xy =  x
(d) x 2 y 2 = log x

Question 28: The maximum value of z = 6x + 8y subject to

x – y ≥ 0, x + 3y ≤ 12, x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0 is _______
Options:
(a) 72
(b) 42
(c) 96
(d) 24

 ( 2r + 1) + 440 , then n = _______

n
Question 29: If r =0

Options:
(a) 20
(b) 22
(c) 21
(d) 19

Question 30: If p and q are true r and s are false statements, then which of the following is true?
Options:
(a) ( q  r )  ( ~ p  s )
(b) ( ~ p → q )  ( r  s )
(c) ( p → q )  ( r  s )
(d) ( p  ~ r )  ( ~ q  s )
Question 31: If the standard deviation of the random variable X is 3qp and mean is 3p then
E(x2) = ______
Options:
(a) 3pq + 3q2
(b) 3p(1 + 2p)
(c) 3pq + 3p2
(d) 3q(1 + 2q)

Question 32: If (x) = [x], where [x] is the greatest integer greater than x, then f’(1+) = ________
Options:
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 0
(d) -1

Question 33: If lines represented by (1 + sin 2  ) x 2 + 2hxy + 2sin  y 2 = 0,    0 are perpendicular

to each other then  = _______
Options:

(a)
2
(b) π
3
(c)
2

(d)
6

Question 34: If A = {x | x  N, x is a prime number less than 12} and B = {x | x  N, x is a factor

of 10}, than A  B = _______
Options:
(a) {2}
(b) {2, 5}
(c) {2, 5, 10}
(d) {1, 2, 5, 10}

Question 35: If R is the circum radius of ABC , then A ( ABC ) = ______

Options:
abc
(a)
R
abc
(b)
4R
abc
(c)
3R
 abc
(d)
2R

Question 36: If A, B, C and D are (3, 7, 4), (5, -2, -3), (-4, 5, 6) and (1, 2, 3) respectively, then the
volume of the parallelopiped with AB, AC and AD as the co-terminus edges, is ______ cubic
units.
Options:
(a) 91
(b) 94
(c) 92
(d) 93

( )
Question 37: If − 2, 2 are cartesian co-ordinates of the point, then its polar co-ordinates
are______
Options:
 4 
(a) 1, 
 3 
 3 
(b)  2, 
 4 
 7 
(c)  3, 
 4 
 5 
(d)  4, 
 4 

cos x − sin x 1  3 + sin x + cos x 

Question 38: If  8 − sin 2 x
dx = log 
p  3 − sin x − cos x 
+ c then p = _______

Options:
(a) 6
(b) 1
(c) 3
(d) 12

Question 39: If A is non-singular matrix and (A + l) (A – l) = 0 then A + A-1 = _______

Options:
(a) 2A
(b) 0
(c) l
(d) 3l

Question 40: Equations of planes parallel to the plane x – 2y + 2z + 4 = 0 which are at a distance
of one unit from the point (1, 2, 3) are _______
Options:
(a) x + 2y + 2z = -6, x + 2y + 2z = 5
(b) x – 2y – 6 = 0, x – 2y + z = 6
(c) x + 2y + 2z = 6, x + 2y + 2z = 0
(d) x – 2y + 2z = 0, x – 2y + 2z – 6 = 0

Question 41: The y-intercept of the line passing through A(6, 1) and perpendicular to the line x –
2y = 4 is ________.
Options:
(a) 5
(b) 13
(c) -2
(d) 26

Question 42: The number of  and π-bonds in 2-formylbenzoic acid are respectively
Options:
(a) 10, 3
(b) 14, 3
(c) 12, 5
(d) 17, 5

Question 43: The volume of 1 mole of any pure gas at standard temperature and pressure is always
equal to
Options:
(a) 0.022414 m3
(b) 22.414 m3
(c) 2.2414 m3
(d) 0.22414 m3

Question 44: Veronal is used as a/an

Options:
(a) Analgesic
(b) Antihistamine
(c) Antibiotic
(d) Tranquilizer

Question 45: Which of the following is also called as nitrogen sesquioxide?

Options:
(a) NO2
(b) N2O3
(c) N2O4
(d) N2O5

Question 46: The oxidation number of sulphur in S8 molecule is

Options:
(a) 6
(b) 0
(c) 2
(d) 3

Question 47: Which among the following is a set of nucleophiles?

Options:
(a) H+, NH3, Cl-
(b) BF3, H2O, NH3
(c) AlCl3, BF3, NH3
(d) CN-, H2O, R-OH

Question 48: Which of the following acts as oxidising agent in hydrogen-oxygen fuel cell?
Options:
(a) H2
(b) O2
(c) KOH
(d) C

Question 49: In ozone molecule the formal charge on the central oxygen atom is
Options:
(a) -1
(b) +2
(c) 0
(d) +1

Question 50: According to Werner’s theory the geometry of the complex is determined by
Options:
(a) Only from the primary valence in space
(b) Number and position of the primary valences in space
(c) Number and position of the secondary valences in space
(d) Only from the position of secondary valence in space
 UGEE 2018 REAP
Question 1: 25 persons are in a room, 15 of them play hockey, 17 of them play football and 10 of
them play both hockey and football. Then the number of persons playing neither hockey nor
football is
Options:
(a) 2
(b) 17
(c) 13
(d) 3

Question 2: If 137 + 276 = 435 how much is 731 + 672?

Options:
(a) 534
(b) 1403
(c) 1623
(d) 1531

Question 3: 5 skilled workers can build a wall in 20 days; 8 semiskilled workers can build a wall
in 25 days; 10 unskilled workers can build a wall in 30 days. If a team has 2 skilled, 6 semiskilled
and 5 unskilled workers, how long will it take to build the wall?
Options:
(a) 20 days
(b) 18 days
(c) 16 days
(d) 15 days

Question 4: Given digits 2, 2, 3, 3, 3, 4, 4, 4, 4 how many distinct 4 digit numbers greater than
3000 can be formed?
Options:
(a) 50
(b) 51
(c) 52
(d) 54

Question 5: Hari (H), Gita (G), Irfan (I) and Saira (S) are siblings (i.e., brothers and sisters). All
were born on 1st January. The age difference between any two successive siblings (that is born one
after another) is less than 3 years. Given the following facts:
1. Hari’s age + Gita’s age > Irfan’s age + Saira’s age.
2. The age difference between Gita and Saira is 1 year. However, Gita is not the oldest and Saira
is not the youngest.
3. There are no twins.
In what order were they born (oldest first)?
Options:
(a) HSIG
(b) SGHI
(c) IGSH
(d) IHSG

Question 6: If Log(P) = (1/2)Log(Q) = (1/3)Log(R), then which of the following options is TRUE?
Options:
(a) P2 = Q3R2
(b) Q2 = PR
(c) Q2 = R3P
(d) R = P2Q2

Question 7: P, Q, R and S are four types of dangerous microbes recently found in a human habitat.
The area of each circle with its diameter printed in brackets represents the growth of a single
microbe surviving human immunity system within 24 hours of entering the body. The danger to
human beings varies proportionately with the toxicity, potency and growth attributed to a microbe
shown in the figure below:

A pharmaceutical company is contemplating the development of a vaccine against the most

dangerous microbe. Which microbe should the company target in its first attempt?
Options:
(a) P
(b) Q
(c) R
(d) S

Question 8: A transporter receives the same number of orders each day. Currently, he has some
pending orders (backlog) to be shipped. If he uses 7 trucks, then at the end of the 4 th day he can
clear all the orders. Alternatively, if he uses only 3 trucks, then all the orders are cleared at the end
of the 10th day. What is the minimum number of trucks required so that there will be no pending
order at the end of the 5th day?
Options:
(a) 4
(b) 5
(c) 6
(d) 7

Question 9: There are two candidates P and Q in an election. During the campaign 40% of the
voters promised to vote for P and rest for Q. However, on the day of election 15% of the voters
went back on their promise to vote for P and instead voted for Q 20% of the voters went back on
their promise to vote for Q and instead voted for P. Suppose, P lost by 2 votes, then what was the
total number of voters?
Options:
(a) 100
(b) 110
(c) 90
(d) 95

Question 10: The fuel consumed by a motorcycle during a journey while travelling at various
speeds is indicated in the graph below

The distance covered during four laps of the journey are listed in the table below:
Lap Distance Average speed
(kilometers) (kilometers per hour)
P 15 15
Q 75 45
R 40 75
S 10 10
From the given data, we can conclude that the fuel consumed per kilometre was least during the
lap
Options:
(a) P
(b) Q
(c) R
(d) S
Question 11: Three friends, R, S and T shared toffee from a bowl. R took 1/3rd of the toffees, but
returned four to the bowl. S took 1/4th of what was left but returned three toffees to the bowl. T
took half of the remainder but returned two back into the bowl. If the bowl had 17 toffees left, how
many toffees were originally there in the bowl?
Options:
(a) 38
(b) 31
(c) 48
(d) 41

Question 12: Given that f(y) = |y| / y, and q is any non-aero real number, the value of
|f(q) – f(-q)| is
Options:
(a) 0
(b) -1
(c) 1
(d) 2

Question 13: The sum of n terms of the series 4 + 44 + 4444 + …… is

Options:
(a) (4/81) [10n+1 – 9n-1]
(b) (4/81) [10n-1 – 9n-1]
(c) (4/81) [10n+1 – 9n-10]
(d) (4/81) [10n – 9n-10]

Question 14: The cost function for a product in a firm is given by 5q2, where q is the amount of
production. The firm can sell the product at a market price of Rs.50 per unit. The number of units
to be produced by the firm such that the profit is maximized is
Options:
(a) 5
(b) 10
(c) 15
(d) 25

Question 15: A political party orders an arch for the entrance to the ground in which the annual
conventions is being held. The profile of the arch follows the equation y = 2x – 0.1 x2 where y is
the height of the arch in meters. The maximum possible height of the arch is
Options:
(a) 8 meters
(b) 10 meters
(c) 12 meters
(d) 14 meters

Question 16: An automobile plant contracted to buy shock absorbers from two supplies X and Y.
X supplies 60% and Y supplies 40% of the shock absorbers. All shock absorbers are subjected to
a quality test. The ones that pass the quality test are considered reliable. Of X’s shock absorbers,
96% are reliable. Of Y’s shock absorbers, 72% are reliable.
The probability that a randomly chosen shock absorber, which is found to be reliable, is made by
Y is
Options:
(a) 0.288
(b) 0.334
(c) 0.667
(d) 0.720

Question 17: Which of the following assertions are CORRECT?

P: Adding 7 to each entry in a list adds 7 to the mean of the list
Q: Adding 7 to each entry in a list adds 7 to the standard deviation of the list
R: Doubling each entry n a list doubles the mean of the list
S: Doubling each entry in a list leaves the standard deviation of the list unchanged
Options:
(a) P, Q
(b) Q, R
(c) P, R
(d) R, S

Question 18: Given the sequence of terms, AD CG FI next time is

Options:
(a) OV
(b) OW
(c) PV
(d) PW

Question 19: If (1.001)1259 = 3.52 (1.001)2062 = 7.8 (1.001)3321

Options:
(a) 2.23
(b) 4.33
(c) 11.37
(d) 27.64

Question 20: The data given in the following table summarize the monthly budget of an average
household.
Category Amount
Food 4000
Clothing 1200
Rent 2000
Savings 1500
Others 1800
The approximate percentage of the monthly budget NOT spent on savings is
Options:
(a) 10%
(b) 14%
(c) 81%
(d) 86%

Question 21: There are eight bags of rice looking alike, seven of which have equal and one is
slightly heavier. The weighing balance is of unlimited capacity. Using this balance the minimum
number of weighting required to identify the heavier bag is
Options:
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 8

Question 22: A number much greater than 75 it is smaller than 117 is

Options:
(a) 91
(b) 93
(c) 89
(d) 96

Question 23: A firm is selling it product at Rs.60/unit. The total cost of production is Rs.100 and
firm is earning total profit of Rs.500. Later the total cost increased by 30%. By what percentage
the price should be increased to maintain the same profit level.
Options:
(a) 5
(b) 15
(c) 10
(d) 30

Question 24: Following table provides figures (in rupees) on annual expenditure of a firm for two
years 2010 and 2011
Category 2010 2011
Raw material 5200 6240
Power & fuel 7000 9450
Salary & wages 9000 12600
Plant & machinery 20000 25000
Advertising 15000 19500
Research & Development 22000 26400
In 2011, which of the following two categories have registered increase by same percentage?
Options:
(a) Raw material and salary and wages
(b) Salary and wages and advertising
(c) Power and fuel and advertising
(d) Raw material and research and development

Question 25: If |4x – 7| = 5 then the value of 2|x| - |-x| is

Options:
1
(a) 2,
3
1
(b) ,3
2
2 1
(c) ,
3 3
2
(d) ,3
9

Question 26: x and y are two positive real numbers, such that equation
2x + y ≤ 6; x + 2y ≤ 8
For which values of (x, y), the function f(x, y) = 3x + 6y will give maximum value
Options:
(a) 4/3, 10/3
(b) 8/3, 20/3
(c) 8/3, 10/3
(d) 4/3, 20/3

Question 27: What will be the maximum sum of 44, 42, 40, …… ?
Options:
(a) 502
(b) 504
(c) 506
(d) 500

Question 28: Out of all the 2-digit integers between 1 and 100, a 2-digit number has to be selected
at random. What is the probability that the selected number is not divisible 7?
Options:
(a) 13/90
(b) 12/90
(c) 78/90
(d) 77/90

Question 29: A tourist covers half this journey by train at 60 km/h, half of the remainder by bus
at 30 km/h and the rest by cycle at 10km/h. The average speed of the tourist in km/h during his
entire journey is
Options:
(a) 36
(b) 30
(c) 24
(d) 18

1 1 1 1
Question 30: Find the sum of the expression + + + .... +
1+ 2 2+ 3 3+ 4 80 + 81
Options:
(a) 7
(b) 8
(c) 9
(d) 10

Question 31: The current erection cost of a structure is Rs.13,200. If the labour wages per day
increase by 1/5 of the current wages and the working hours decrease by 1/24 of the current period,
then the new cost of erection in Rs.. is
Options:
(a) 16,500
(b) 15,180
(c) 11,000
(d) 10,120

Question 32: In the summer of 2012, in New Delhi, the mean temperature of Monday of
Wednesday was 40oC and of Tuesday to Thursday was 43oC. If the temperature on Thursday was
15% higher than that of Monday, Then the temperature in oC on Thursday was
Options:
(a) 40
(b) 43
(c) 46
(d) 49

Question 33: A car travels 8 km in the first quarter of an hour, 6 km in the second quarter and
16km in the third quarter. The average speed of the car in km per hour over the entire journey is
Options:
(a) 30
(b) 36
(c) 40
(d) 24

Question 34: Find the sum to n terms of the series 10 + 84 + 734 +

Options:
9 ( 9n + 1)
(a) +1
10
9 ( 9n − 1)
(b) +1
8
9 ( 9n − 1)
(c) +n
8
9 ( 9n − 1)
(d) + n2
8

Question 35: What is the change that a leap year selected at random will contain 53 Saturday?
Options:
2
(a)
7
3
(b)
7
1
(c)
7
5
(d)
7

Question 36: The statistics of runs scored in a series by four batsman are provided in the following
table. Who is the most consistant batsman of these four?
Batsman Average Standard Deviation
K 31.2 5.21
L 46.0 6.35
M 54.4 6.22
N 17.9 5.90
Options:
(a) K
(b) L
(c) M
(d) N

Question 37: What is the next number in the series?

12 35 81 173 357
Find the odd one from the following group:
WEKO IQWA FNTZ NVBD
Options:
(a) WEKO
(b) IQWA
(c) FNTX
(d) NVBD

Question 38: You are given three coins: one has heads on both faces, the second has tails on both
faces, and the third has a head on one face and a tail on the other. You choose a coin at random
and toss it and it comes up heads. The probability that the other face is tails is
Options:
(a) 1/4
(b) 1/3
(c) 1/2
(d) 2/3

Question 39: A regular die has six sides with numbers 1 to 6 marked on its sides. If a very large
number of throws show the following frequencies of occurrence:
1 → 0.167; 2 → 0.176; 3 → 0.152; 4 → 0.166; 5 → 0.168; 6 → 0.180. We call this die
Options:
(a) Irregular
(b) Biased
(c) Gaussian
(d) Insuffient

Question 40: Fill in the missing number in the series.

2 3 6 15 ___?___ 157.5 630

50Question 41: Find the odd one in the following group

QWZB, BHKM, WCGJ, MSVX
Options:
(a) QWZB
(b) BHKM
(c) WCGJ
(d) MSVX

Answers of UGEE 2018 SUPR

1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (b) 6. (b) 7. (a) 8. (a) 9. (d) 10. (d)
11. (b) 12. * 13. (a) 14. (a) 15. (b) 16. (b) 17. (a) 18. (a) 19. (a) 20. (b)
21. (b) 22. (b) 23. (c) 24. (d) 25. (a) 26. (d) 27. (b) 28. (a) 29. (a) 30. (c)
31. (b) 32. (c) 33. (c) 34. (b) 35. (b) 36. (c) 37. (b) 38. (a) 39. (a) 40. (d)
41. (b) 42. (d) 43. (a) 44. (d) 45. (b) 46. (b) 47. (d) 48. (b) 49. (d) 50. (c)

Answer of UGEE 2018 REAP

35. (d) 36. (c) 37. (d) 38. (b) 39. (b) 40. (b) 41. (d) 42. (c) 43. (a) 44. (b)
45. (c) 46. (d) 47. (c) 48. (a) 49. (b) 50. (b) 51. (b) 52. (a) 53. (d) 54. (d)
55. (a) 56. (d) 57. (a) 58. (d) 59. (b) 60. (a) 61. (c) 62. (d) 63. (c) 64. (b)
65. (b) 66. (c) 67. (c) 68. (d) 69. (a) 70. (a) 71. 16 72. (b) 73. (b) 74. 45
75. (c)