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REVIEWER

FOR
ELECTRONICS
TECHNICIAN
LICENSURE
EXAMINATION
34

Section 3 – Electronics Fundamentals

Conductors, Insulators, and Semiconductors
The following materials conduct electricity well, thus are called conductors (in
order of conductivity)
- Silver
- Copper
- Aluminum
- Most other metals

Insulators that do not conduct electricity include

- Plastics

OP
- Ceramics
- Glass
- Porcelain
- Air

L
Semiconductors do not insulate, but they do not conduct electricity well. Some
common semiconductors are
YO
- Silicon
- Germanium

There are 2 types of semiconductors – n-type and p-type.

n-type – the current is carried by the electrons
p-type – the current is carried by the holes (or missing electrons)
O Y

Thermodynamics
As the temperature of an object increases, the atoms vibrate more. In conductors
AK

and semiconductors, this causes their resistance to increase slightly.

Atomic Structure
An atom is made of a nucleus, containing protons and neutrons, and of electrons
that orbit the nucleus. Protons have a positive charge, Electrons have a negative
M

charge.

Parts of the Atom

All atoms are more or less the same size, but different atoms are made differently. The atom is
made of tiny bits of energy called subatomic particles, and each type of atom has a different
number of particles. These particles are organized inside the atom in a definite pattern.

Because the particles are not matter themselves, just energy, they don't behave like matter.
Sometimes it is useful to imagine them like little balls, and often diagrams of the atom show them
that way, but subatomic particles are definitely not little balls. Subatomic particles are truly weird.
Yet the way they act explains a great many things about matter, such as compounds, elements,
nuclear bombs, electricity, and how you digest your food, to name only a few.

Structure of the Atom

Around the outside of the atom there are tiny particles called electrons. Electrons move
constantly. Each electron has a negative electrical charge. Electrons can move away from the
atom sometimes. They can be shared between atoms, or they can go from one atom to another.
Electrons can even move through matter, which is what causes electricity. Electrons are very light
and incredibly small.

In the centre of the atom (the nucleus) are the bigger, heavier parts of the atom. There are two
types of particle in the nucleus. One of them is the neutron, a particle with no charge. The other
type of particle is the proton, a particle with a positive charge.

L OP
YO
Y

Is this what an atom looks like? Well, no, not really.

Is it a diagram which shows some basic ideas about the atom? Yes.
O

Electricity is the flow of electrons. In metallic compounds, the electrons are free to
AK

flow from one atom to another, thus the metallic compound can conduct
electricity.
An insulator will not share its electrons, and thus because the electrons can not
leave their atom, they do not conduct electricity.
M

A normal atom will have the same number of electrons as protons. The positive
and negative charges will cancel out. If an atom has to many or to few electrons,
the charges will not cancel. This type of atom is called an ion. It will have a
charge. To few electrons and the ion will have a positive charge. To many
electrons and it will have a negative charge.

Electricity sources
A battery is a common source of electricity. It has a negative terminal, that has to
many electrons in it, and a positive terminal, that has to few electrons in it. The
flow of electricity, called current, is made from the electrons traveling. Current as
we know it goes from positive to negative. However, if you could see what was

happening in the wire, the electronics would really be traveling from negative to
positive.
Some batteries can be recharged. A common example is the lead acid battery.

Magnetism
A magnet will have a North and South Pole. Like poles repel each other and
opposite poles attract. Any wire carrying electric current will produce a magnetic
field circling the wire.

Question File: 3. Electronics Fundamentals: (2 questions)

1. The element Silicon is:
a. a conductor

OP
b. an insulator
c. a superconductor
d. a semiconductor
==================
2. An element which falls somewhere between being an insulator and a

L
conductor is called a:
a. P-type conductor
b. intrinsic conductor
YO
c. semiconductor
d. N-type conductor
==================
3. In an atom:
a. the protons and the neutrons orbit the nucleus in opposite directions
Y

b. the protons orbit around the neutrons

c. the electrons orbit the nucleus
O

d. the electrons and the neutrons orbit the nucleus

==================
4. An atom that loses an electron becomes:
AK

a. a positive ion
b. an isotope
c. a negative ion
d. a radioactive atom
M

==================
5. An electric current passing through a wire will produce around the
conductor:
a. an electric field
b. a magnetic field
c. an electrostatic field
d. nothing
==================

6. These magnetic poles repel:

a. unlike
b. like
c. positive
d. negative
==================
7. A common use for a permanent magnet is:
a. A computer speaker
b. An optical mouse
c. A keyboard
d. A magnetic loop antenna
==================
8. The better conductor of electricity is:
a. copper

OP
b. carbon
c. silicon
d. aluminium
==================
9. The term describing opposition to electron flow in a metallic circuit is:

L
a. current
b. voltage
YO
c. resistance
d. power
==================
10. The substance which will most readily allow an electric current to flow is:
a. an insulator
b. a conductor
Y

c. a resistor
d. a dielectric
O

==================
11. The plastic coating formed around wire is:
a. an insulator
AK

b. a conductor
c. an inductor
d. a magnet
==================
M

12. The following is a source of electrical energy:

a. p-channel FET
b. carbon resistor
c. germanium diode
d. lead acid battery
==================

13. An important difference between a common torch battery and a lead acid
battery is that only the lead acid battery:
a. has two terminals
b. contains an electrolyte
c. can be re-charged
d. can be effectively discharged
==================
14. As temperature increases, the resistance of a metallic conductor:
a. increases
b. decreases
c. remains constant
d. become a negative
==================
15. In an n-type semiconductor, the current carriers are:

OP
a. holes
b. electrons
c. positive ions
d. photons
==================

L
16. In a p-type semiconductor, the current carriers are:
a. photons
YO
b. electrons
c. positive ions
d. holes
==================
17. An electrical insulator:
a. lets electricity flow through it in one direction
Y

b. does not let electricity flow through it

c. lets electricity flow through it when light shines on it
O

d. lets electricity flow through it

==================
18. Four good electrical insulators are:
AK

a. plastic, rubber, wood, carbon

b. glass, wood, copper, porcelain
c. paper, glass, air, aluminium
d. glass, air, plastic, porcelain
M

==================
19. Three good electrical conductors are:
a. copper, gold, mica
b. gold, silver, wood
c. gold, silver, aluminium
d. copper, aluminium, paper
==================

20. The name for the flow of electrons in an electric circuit is:
a. voltage
b. resistance
c. capacitance
d. current
==================

L OP
YO
O Y
AK
M

Section 4 – Measurement
Electrical properties are measured in units. Some common units are listed below

Measure Measured in (Unit) Symbol

Electrical Potential Difference (E) Volt V
Electric Current (I) Ampere (Amp) A
Electric Resistance or Impedance (R or Z) Ohm 
Power (W) Watt W
Capacitance (C) Farad F
Inductance (L) Henry H
Electrical Charge Coulomb C

OP
All these units can be assigned multipliers – just like a kilometer equates to 1000
meters, a kilovolt would equate to 1000 volts.
Common multipliers are listed below

L
Multiplier Symbol multiply by
YO
Pico p 0.000000000001
Nano n 0.000000001
Micro  0.000001
Milli m 0.001
Y

Kilo k 1000
Mega M 1000000
O

Giga G 1000000000
Tera T 1000000000000
AK

Thus a milliamp would be 0.001 of an amp, or one thousandth of an amp.

A kilohm is 1000 ohms or one thousand ohms.
M

Impedance, like resistance, is measured in ohms, but is takes into account the
reactance of an AC circuit.

Question File: 4. Measurement Units: (1 question)

1. The unit of impedance is the:
a. ampere
b. farad
c. henry
d. ohm
==================
2. One kilohm is:
a. 10 ohm
b. 0.01 ohm
c. 0.001 ohm
d. 1000 ohm
==================

OP
3. One kilovolt is equal to:
a. 10 volt
b. 100 volt
c. 1000 volt
d. 10,000 volt

L
==================
4.
YO
One quarter of one ampere may be written as:
a. 250 microampere
b. 0.5 ampere
c. 0.25 milliampere
d. 250 milliampere
==================
Y
5. The watt is the unit of:
a. power
O

b. magnetic flux
c. electromagnetic field strength
d. breakdown voltage
AK

==================
6. The voltage 'two volt' is also:
a. 2000 mV
b. 2000 kV
c. 2000 uV
M

d. 2000 MV
==================
7. The unit for potential difference between two points in a circuit is the:
a. ampere
b. volt
c. ohm
d. coulomb
==================

8. Impedance is a combination of:

a. reactance with reluctance
b. resistance with conductance
c. resistance with reactance
d. reactance with radiation
==================
9. One mA is:
a. one millionth of one ampere
b. one thousandth of one ampere
c. one tenth of one ampere
d. one millionth of admittance
==================
10. The unit of resistance is the:
a. farad

OP
b. watt
c. ohm
d. resistor
==================

L
YO
O Y
AK
M

Section 5 – Ohms Law

OP
Know this triangle

L
To use the above triangle, simply cover up the unit you wish to find out (the
unknown) and use the other 2 to solve it. V is Voltage, I is Current, R is
YO
Resistance.
In some versions V is shown as E for voltage. V and E are interchangeable.

E=IxR I=E/R R=E/I

Y
Thus is you know the voltage across a resistor, and the value of resistance, you
can calculate the current through the resister as follows
O
AK
M

I=E/R

Thus I = 9 / 18
= 0.5A
or I = 500mA

eg2

An unknown voltage is applied across a 16 ohm resister, and the current meter
reads 2 amps. What is the unknown voltage?

E=IxR
E = 2 x 16
E = 32V

Eg3
The markings have faded on a resistor. We know with ohms law the resistance
can be calculated with known voltage and current. A circuit is set up with a
battery, the unknown resistor, a voltmeter and current meter. The voltmeter reads
3V and the current meter shows 300mA.

OP
First – the current must be put into standard units.
We know 300mA = 0.3A

Ohms law tells us R = V / I

L
Thus R = 3 / 0.3
R = 10 ohms
YO
O Y
AK
M

Question File: 5. Ohm's Law: (2 questions)

1. The voltage across a resistor carrying current can be calculated using
the formula:
a. E = I + R [voltage equals current plus resistance]
b. E = I - R [voltage equals current minus resistance]
c. E = I x R [voltage equals current times resistance]
d. E = I / R [voltage equals current divided by resistance]
==================

2. A 10 mA current is measured in a 500 ohm resistor. The voltage across

the resistor will be:
a. 5 volt
b. 50 volt
c. 500 volt
d. 5000 volt
==================
3. The value of a resistor to drop 100 volt with a current of 0.8 milliampere
is:
a. 125 ohm
b. 125 kilohm
c. 1250 ohm
d. 1.25 kilohm
==================

OP
4. I = E/R is a mathematical equation describing:
a. Ohm's Law
b. Thevenin's Theorem
c. Kirchoff's First Law
d. Kirchoff's Second Law

L
==================
5. The voltage to cause a current of 4.4 ampere in a 50 ohm resistance is:
YO
a. 2220 volt
b. 220 volt
c. 22.0 volt
d. 0.222 volt
==================
6. A current of 2 ampere flows through a 16 ohm resistance. The applied
Y

voltage is:
a. 8 volt
O

b. 14 volt
c. 18 volt
AK

d. 32 volt
==================
7. A current of 5 ampere in a 50 ohm resistance produces a potential
difference of:
a. 20 volt
M

b. 45 volt
c. 55 volt
d. 250 volt
==================
8. This voltage is needed to cause a current of 200 mA to flow in a lamp of
25 ohm resistance:
a. 5 volt
b. 8 volt
c. 175 volt
d. 225 volt
==================

9. A current of 0.5 ampere flows through a resistance when 6 volt is

applied. To change the current to 0.25 ampere the voltage must be:
a. increased to 12 volt
b. reduced to 3 volt
c. held constant
d. reduced to zero
==================
10. The current flowing through a resistor can be calculated by using the
formula:
a. I = E x R [current equals voltage times resistance]
b. I = E / R [current equals voltage divided by resistance]
c. I = E + R [current equals voltage plus resistance]
d. I = E - R [current equals voltage minus resistance]
==================

OP
11. When an 8 ohm resistor is connected across a 12 volt supply the current
flow is:
a. 12 / 8 amps
b. 8 / 12 amps
c. 12 - 8 amps

L
d. 12 + 8 amps
==================
YO
12. A circuit has a total resistance of 100 ohm and 50 volt is applied across
it. The current flow will be:
a. 50 mA
b. 500 mA
c. 2 ampere
Y
d. 20 ampere
==================
13. The following formula gives the resistance of a circuit:
O

a. R = I / E [resistance equals current divided by voltage]

b. R = E x I [resistance equals voltage times current
AK

c. R = E / R [resistance equals voltage divided by resistance]

d. R = E / I [resistance equals voltage divided by current]
==================
14. A resistor with 10 volt applied across it and passing a current of 1 mA
has a value of:
M

a. 10 ohm
b. 100 ohm
c. 1 kilohm
d. 10 kilohm
==================
15. If a 3 volt battery causes 300 mA to flow in a circuit, the circuit resistance
is:
a. 10 ohm
b. 9 ohm
c. 5 ohm
d. 3 ohm
==================

16. A current of 0.5 ampere flows through a resistor when 12 volt is applied.
The value of the resistor is:
a. 6 ohms
b. 12.5 ohms
c. 17 ohms
d. 24 ohms
==================
17. The resistor which gives the greatest opposition to current flow is:
a. 230 ohm
b. 1.2 kilohm
c. 1600 ohm
d. 0.5 megohm
==================
18. The ohm is the unit of:

OP
a. supply voltage
b. electrical pressure
c. current flow
d. electrical resistance
==================

L
19. If a 12 volt battery supplies 0.15 ampere to a circuit, the circuit's
resistance is:
YO
a. 0.15 ohm
b. 1.8 ohm
c. 12 ohm
d. 80 ohm
==================
20. If a 4800 ohm resistor is connected to a 12 volt battery, the current flow
Y

is:
a. 2.5 mA
O

b. 25 mA
c. 40 A
AK

d. 400 A
==================
M

Section 6 – Resistance

OP
A parallel resistor network

L
YO
A series resistor network
Formulas
Y

For a series resistance network, the total resistance = the sum of each individual
member of the network
O

RT = R1 + R2 + R3 + …..
AK

In a series network if each resistive component has the same resistance Rx, a
simpler formula can be used. n = the number of resistors.

RT = Rx x n
M

For a parallel resistance network, the reciprocal of the total resistance = the sum
of each of the reciprocal resistances

RT-1 = R1-1 + R2-1 + R3-1 + ….

In a parallel network if each resistive component has the same resistance R x, a

simpler formula can be used. n = the number of resistors.

RT = Rx / n

Thus the following can be said

The total resistance in a series network will always be greater than any one of
the resistive components
The total resistance in a parallel network will always be less than any one of the
resistive components

Eg1
Calculate the total resistance in the following network

L OP
YO
O Y
AK

Using the series network formula, we sum the components.

Thus RT = 10 + 270 + 3900 + 100

RT = 4280
Check = is RT larger than any component – 4280 is larger than 3900 - yes

Eg2

R1-1 = 0.0147059
R2-1 = 0.0000213
R3-1 = 0.0017857
R4-1 = 0.1

Thus RT-1 = the sum of the above

= 0.1165129
RT = 8.583

OP
Check – is RT smaller than any component – RT is less than R4 10 = yes

NB. R-1 is the reciprocal of R. This is sometimes shown as the 1/x button or the x-
1
button on a calculator.

L
Ohms law applies to all resistive networks. Beware however. Read what the
YO
question is asking. If a question asks for the total current in a network – first you
must work out the total resistance across the supply, as shown above. However if
a question asks for the current in a branch – you need only know the resistance
of that branch.

Eg3
O Y
AK
M

If the current meter reads 100mA, what will the voltmeter read?

Ohms law says E = I x R

ER1 = IR1 x R1 IR1 = I in a series circuit, as all the current will pass through R1
ER1 = 0.1 x 33
ER1 = 3.3V
Eg4

Ignore the wattages indicated above

A string of six 2V lamps are connected in series across a supply. What supply
voltage is required so as to ensure that the lamps glow at the same brightness as
a single lamp with a 2V supply?

OP
All the resistances are equal, but unknown. However for the lamp to glow
correctly, it requires 2V difference across it. Thus for 6 lamps the total voltage will
be 6 x 2V = 12V.

L
Question File: 6. Resistance: (3 questions)
YO
1. The total resistance in a parallel circuit:
a. is always less than the smallest resistance
b. depends upon the voltage drop across each branch
c. could be equal to the resistance of one branch
d. depends upon the applied voltage
Y
==================
2. Two resistors are connected in parallel and are connected across a 40
O

volt battery. If each resistor is 1000 ohms, the total battery current is:
a. 40 ampere
b. 40 milliampere
AK

c. 80 ampere
d. 80 milliampere
==================
3. The total current in a parallel circuit is equal to the:
M

a. current in any one of the parallel branches

b. sum of the currents through all the parallel branches
c. applied voltage divided by the value of one of the resistive elements
d. source voltage divided by the sum of the resistive elements
==================

4. One way to operate a 3 volt bulb from a 9 volt supply is to connect it in:
a. series with the supply
b. parallel with the supply
c. series with a resistor
d. parallel with a resistor
==================
5. You can operate this number of identical lamps, each drawing a current
of 250 mA, from a 5A supply:
a. 50
b. 30
c. 20
d. 5
==================
6. Six identical 2-volt bulbs are connected in series. The supply voltage to

OP
cause the bulbs to light normally is:
a. 12 V
b. 1.2 V
c. 6V
d. 2V

L
==================
7. This many 12 volt bulbs can be arranged in series to form a string of
YO
lights to operate from a 240 volt power supply:
a. 12 x 240
b. 240 + 12
c. 240 - 12
d. 240 / 12
==================
Y

8. Three 10,000 ohm resistors are connected in series across a 90 volt

supply. The voltage drop across one of the resistors is:
O

a. 30 volt
b. 60 volt
AK

c. 90 volt
d. 15.8 volt
==================
9. Two resistors are connected in parallel. R1 is 75 ohm and R2 is 50 ohm.
The total resistance of this parallel circuit is:
M

a. 10 ohm
b. 70 ohm
c. 30 ohm
d. 40 ohm
==================

10. A dry cell has an open circuit voltage of 1.5 volt. When supplying a large
current the voltage drops to 1.2 volt. This is due to the cell's:
a. internal resistance
b. voltage capacity
c. electrolyte becoming dry
d. current capacity
==================
11. A 6 ohm resistor is connected in parallel with a 30 ohm resistor. The total
resistance of the combination is:
a. 5 ohm
b. 8 ohm
c. 24 ohm
d. 35 ohm
==================

OP
12. The total resistance of several resistors connected in series is:
a. less than the resistance of any one resistor
b. greater than the resistance of any one resistor
c. equal to the highest resistance present
d. equal to the lowest resistance present

L
==================
13. Five 10 ohm resistors connected in series give a total resistance of:
YO
a. 1 ohm
b. 5 ohms
c. 10 ohms
d. 50 ohms
==================
14. Resistors of 10, 270, 3900, and 100 ohm are connected in series. The
Y

total resistance is:

a. 9 ohm
O

b. 3900 ohm
c. 4280 ohm
AK

d. 10 ohm
==================
15. This combination of series resistors could replace a single 120 ohm
resistor:
a. five 24 ohm
M

b. six 22 ohm
c. two 62 ohm
d. five 100 ohm
==================
16. If a 2.2 megohm and a 100 kilohm resistor are connected in series, the
total resistance is:
a. 2.1 megohm
b. 2.11 megohm
c. 2.21 megohm
d. 2.3 megohm
==================

17. If ten resistors of equal value R are wired in parallel, the total resistance
is:
a. R
b. 10R
c. 10/R
d. R/10
==================
18. The total resistance of four 68 ohm resistors wired in parallel is:
a. 12 ohm
b. 17 ohm
c. 34 ohm
d. 272 ohm
==================
19. Resistors of 68 ohm, 47 kilohm, 560 ohm and 10 ohm are connected in

OP
parallel. The total resistance is:
a. less than 10 ohm
b. between 68 and 560 ohm
c. between 560 and and 47 kilohm
d. greater than 47 kilohm

L
==================
20. The following resistor combination can most nearly replace a single 150
YO
ohm resistor:
a. four 47 ohm resistors in parallel
b. five 33 ohm resistors in parallel
c. three 47 ohm resistors in series
d. five 33 ohm resistors in series
==================
Y

21. Two 120 ohm resistors are arranged in parallel to replace a faulty
resistor. The faulty resistor had an original value of:
O

a. 15 ohm
b. 30 ohm
AK

c. 60 ohm
d. 120 ohm
==================
22. Two resistors are in parallel. Resistor A carries twice the current of
resistor B which means that:
M

a. A has half the resistance of B

b. B has half the resistance of A
c. the voltage across A is twice that across B
d. the voltage across B is twice that across B
==================
23. The smallest resistance that can be made with five 1 k ohm resistors is:
a. 50 ohm by arranging them in series
b. 50 ohm by arranging them in parallel
c. 200 ohm by arranging them in series
d. 200 ohm by arranging them in parallel
==================

24. The following combination of 28 ohm resistors has a total resistance of

42 ohm:
a. three resistors in series
b. three resistors in parallel
c. a combination of two resistors in parallel, then placed in series with
another resistor
d. a combination of two resistors in parallel, then placed in series with
another two in parallel
==================
25. Two 100 ohm resistors connected in parallel are wired in series with a 10
ohm resistor. The total resistance of the combination is:
a. 60 ohms
b. 180 ohms
c. 190 ohms

OP
d. 210 ohms
==================
26. A 5 ohm and a 10 ohm resistor are wired in series and connected to a 15
volt power supply. The current flowing from the power supply is:
a. 0.5 ampere

L
b. 1 ampere
c. 2 ampere
YO
d. 15 ampere
==================
27. Three 12 ohm resistors are wired in parallel and connected to an 8 volt
supply. The total current flow from the supply is:
a. 1 ampere
Y
b. 2 amperes
c. 3 amperes
O

d. 4.5 amperes
==================
28. Two 33 ohm resistors are connected in series with a power supply. If the
AK

current flowing is 100 mA, the voltage across one of the resistors is:
a. 66 volt
b. 33 volt
c. 3.3 volt
d. 1 volt
M

==================
29. A simple transmitter requires a 50 ohm dummy load. You can fabricate
this from:
a. four 300 ohm resistors in parallel
b. five 300 ohm resistors in parallel
c. six 300 ohm resistors in parallel
d. seven 300 ohm resistors in parallel
==================

30. Three 500 ohm resistors are wired in series. Short-circuiting the centre
resistor will change the value of the network from:
a. 1500 ohm to 1000 ohm
b. 500 ohm to 1000 ohm
c. 1000 ohm to 500 ohm
d. 1000 ohm to 1500 ohm
==================

L OP
YO
O Y
AK
M

Section 7 – Power Calculations

L OP
As with ohms law, the power law can be read from the triangle above
YO
E = Potential Difference (Volts), P = Power (Watts), I = Current (Amps)

P=ExI E=P/I I=P/E

Learn the above triangle and remember it.

Eg1
A transmitter power amplifier requires 30mA at 300V. Calculate the DC input
O

power.
We know E and I, and thus need to calculate P
AK

P=ExI
= 300 x 0.03
=9W
M

Eg2

The current in a 100k resistor is 10mA. What power (heat) is the resistor
dissipating?
We know R = 100000 and I = 0.01
Step 1 – We have I and R. We can find E using ohms law.

E=IxR
= 0.01 x 100000
= 1000V

Step 2 – Now that we know E and I calculate P

P=ExI

= 1000 x 0.01
= 10W

Eg3
Two 10 resistors are connected in series with a 10V battery supplying current.
Find the total power load.

Step 1 - Find RT for a series network

RT = R1 + R2
= 10 + 10
= 20

Step 2 – Find I using ohms law

I=E/R
= 10 / 20

OP
= 0.5A

Step 3 – Find P using the power law

P=ExI

L
= 10 x 0.5
= 5W
YO
Question File: 7. Power calculations: (2 questions)
1. A transmitter power amplifier requires 30 mA at 300 volt. The DC input
Y
power is:
a. 300 watt
O

b. 9000 watt
c. 9 watt
d. 6 watt
AK

==================
2. The DC input power of a transmitter operating at 12 volt and drawing 500
milliamp would be:
a. 6 watt
b. 12 watt
M

c. 20 watt
d. 500 watt
==================

3. When two 500 ohm 1 watt resistors are connected in series, the
maximum total power that can be dissipated by both resistors is:
a. 4 watt
b. 2 watt
c. 1 watt
d. 1/2 watt
==================
4. When two 1000 ohm 5 watt resistors are connected in parallel, they can
dissipate a maximum total power of:
a. 40 watt
b. 20 watt
c. 10 watt
d. 5 watt
==================

OP
5. The current in a 100 kilohm resistor is 10 mA. The power dissipated is:
a. 1 watt
b. 10 watt
c. 100 watt
d. 10,000 watt

L
==================
6. A current of 500 milliamp passes through a 1000 ohm resistance. The
YO
power dissipated is:
a. 0.25 watt
b. 2.5 watt
c. 25 watt
d. 250 watt
==================
Y

7. A 20 ohm resistor carries a current of 0.25 ampere. The power

dissipated is:
O

a. 1.25 watt
b. 5 watt
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c. 2.50 watt
d. 10 watt
==================
8. If 200 volt is applied to a 2000 ohm resistor, the resistor will dissipate:
a. 20 watt
M

b. 30 watt
c. 10 watt
d. 40 watt
==================
9. The power delivered to an antenna is 500 watt. The effective antenna
resistance is 20 ohm. The antenna current is:
a. 25 amp
b. 2.5 amp
c. 10 amp
d. 5 amp
==================

10. The unit for power is the:

a. ohm
b. watt
c. ampere
d. volt
==================
11. The following two quantities should be multiplied together to find power:
a. resistance and capacitance
b. voltage and current
c. voltage and inductance
d. inductance and capacitance
==================
12. The following two electrical units multiplied together give the unit "watt":
a. volt and ampere

OP
b. volt and farad
c. farad and henry
d. ampere and henry
==================
13. The power dissipation of a resistor carrying a current of 10 mA with 10

L
volt across it is:
a. 0.01 watt
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b. 0.1 watt
c. 1 watt
d. 10 watt
==================
14. If two 10 ohm resistors are connected in series with a 10 volt battery, the
battery load is:
Y

a. 5 watt
b. 10 watt
O

c. 20 watt
d. 100 watt
AK

==================
15. Each of 9 resistors in a circuit is dissipating 4 watt. If the circuit operates
from a 12 volt supply, the total current flowing in the circuit is:
a. 48 ampere
b. 36 ampere
M

c. 9 ampere
d. 3 ampere
==================
16. Three 18 ohm resistors are connected in parallel across a 12 volt supply.
The total power dissipation of the resistor load is:
a. 3 watt
b. 18 watt
c. 24 watt
d. 36 watt
==================

17. A resistor of 10 kilohm carries a current of 20 mA. The power dissipated

in the resistor is:
a. 2 watt
b. 4 watt
c. 20 watt
d. 40 watt
==================
18. A resistor in a circuit becomes very hot and starts to burn. This is
because the resistor is dissipating too much:
a. current
b. voltage
c. resistance
d. power
==================

OP
19. A current of 10 ampere rms at a frequency of 50 Hz flows through a 100
ohm resistor. The power dissipated is:
a. 500 watt
b. 707 watt
c. 10,000 watt

L
d. 50,000 watt
==================
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20. The voltage applied to two resistors in series is doubled. The total power
dissipated will:
a. increase by four times
b. decrease to half
c. double
Y
d. not change
==================
O
AK
M

Section 8 – Alternating Current

Direct Current DC – The current travels in one direction

Alternating Current AC – The current reverses direction periodically
Frequency – The rate at which the alternating current reverses direction

Frequency is measured in Hertz (Hz)

1Hz = 1 complete cycle per second

So in NZ we have a 50Hz mains supply, thus 50 cycles occur every second.

L OP
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The above is a diagram of one sinusoidal cycle. This is the purest of waves, as it
Y

is based upon a rotating circle. On the Y axis is voltage or current, and on the X
axis is time.
O

Period – the time it takes for one cycle to occur. This is the reciprocal of
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frequency.

T = F-1 F = T-1
M

Eg1
What is the time it takes for one complete cycle of a 100Hz signal?
T=F-1
=100-1
= 0.01s

A harmonic is a multiple of a base signal. If a base signal was 2kHz, its 2nd
harmonic would be 4kHz, and its 3rd harmonic would be 6kHz, etc.

Harmonics can occur in electronic oscillators (circuits to create AC waves), and

can often be harmful as they are a common source of interference.

RMS is a way of measuring the “average” voltage or current in a sine wave. It is

not a real average, as this figure would be different. It allows the power and ohms

laws to apply to an AC circuit. Let me say that again. RMS voltage and current
values are the only values to be used in ohms law and power law.

The RMS value is 0.707 of the Peak value. (Actually it’s the reciprocal of the
square root of 2, but 0.707 is close enough for us)

Thus in NZ, we have a supply voltage of 230Vac, at 50Hz. This tells us that our
RMS voltage is 230V, and or frequency is 50Hz. Our peak voltage therefore, is
larger than this, and can be calculated.

230 / 0.707 = 325.3V

Eg2
Calculate the RMS current in an AC circuit, if it is known the current peaks at
10A.

OP
10A x 0.707 = 7.07A

Question File: 8. Alternating current: (1 question)

L
An 'alternating current' is so called because:
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a. it reverses direction periodically
b. it travels through a circuit using alternate paths
c. its direction of travel is uncertain
d. its direction of travel can be altered by a switch
==================
2. The time for one cycle of a 100 Hz signal is:
Y

a. 1 second
b. 0.01 second
O

c. 0.0001 second
d. 10 seconds
AK

==================
3. A 50 hertz current in a wire means that:
a. a potential difference of 50 volts exists across the wire
b. the current flowing in the wire is 50 amperes
c. the power dissipated in the wire is 50 watts
M

d. a cycle is completed 50 times in each second

==================
4. The current in an AC circuit completes a cycle in 0.1 second. So the
frequency is:
a. 1 Hz
b. 10 Hz
c. 100 Hz
d. 1000 Hz
==================

5. An impure signal is found to have 2 kHz and 4 kHz components. This 4

kHz signal is:
a. a fundamental of the 2 kHz signal
b. a sub-harmonic of 2 kHz
c. the DC component of the main signal
d. a harmonic of the 2 kHz signal
==================
6. The correct name for the equivalent of 'one cycle per second' is one:
a. henry
b. volt
c. hertz
d. coulomb
==================
7. One megahertz is equal to:

OP
a. 0.0001 Hz
b. 100 kHz
c. 1000 kHz
d. 10 Hz
==================

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8. One GHz is equal to:
a. 1000 kHz
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b. 10 MHz
c. 100 MHz
d. 1000 MHz
==================
9. The 'rms value' of a sine-wave signal is:
a. half the peak voltage
Y

b. 1.414 times the peak voltage

c. the peak-to-peak voltage
O

d. 0.707 times the peak voltage

==================
10. A sine-wave alternating current of 10 ampere peak has an rms value of:
AK

a. 5 amp
b. 7.07 amp
c. 14.14 amp
d. 20 amp
M

==================

Section 9 – Capacitors, Inductors, and Resonance

Capacitors are 2 plates of metal separated by a dielectric (possibly air).

Their Capacitance is measured in Farads (F) but as 1 Farad is very large,
capacitors are often measured in picofarads for very small capacitors, or more
commonly microfarads.

The closer the metal plates, the higher the capacitance, but the lower the working
voltage.

Capacitors are placed in parallel to increase the total capacitance.

CT = C1 + C2 + C3 + ….

OP
Capacitors have a maximum working voltage, above which point the capacitor
will breakdown.

Capacitors are placed in series to increase their maximum working voltage.

L
CET = CE1 + CE2 + CE3 + …. ( you don’t need to remember this)
YO
A capacitor in a series circuit will block DC. It will let AC pass depending on the
frequency. The higher frequency the less reactance it will have. Higher frequency
AC flows through a capacitor easier.
Y
Inductors are made from coiling wire around a former (possibly air).
Their inductance is measured in Henry (H), but you will more likely find them
O

measured in micro and millihenry.

The more turns of wire, the more inductance an inductor will have.
AK

Inductors placed in series will increase the total inductance.

LT = L1 + L2 + L3 + …..
M

Inductors placed in parallel will decrease the total inductance.

LT-1 = L1-1 + L2-1 + L3-1 +…..

Inductors will block higher frequency AC current, but will let lower frequency AC
and DC current pass through. The amount of resisting to AC current in an
inductor is referred to as reactance also. The higher the frequency, the higher the
reactance in an inductor.

Toroidal inductors are those formed on a donut style (closed loop) former.

Reactance, X
Reactance (symbol X) is a measure of the opposition of capacitance and
inductance to current. Reactance varies with the frequency of the electrical
signal. Reactance is measured in ohms, symbol .

There are two types of reactance: capacitive reactance (Xc) and inductive reactance (X L).

The total reactance (X) is the difference between the two: X = XL - Xc

 Capacitive reactance, Xc

1 Xc = reactance in ohms ( )
Xc = 2 fC where: f = frequency in hertz (Hz)
C = capacitance in farads (F)


Xc is large at low frequencies and small at high frequencies.
For steady DC which is zero frequency, Xc is infinite (total opposition),
hence the rule that capacitors pass AC but block DC.

OP
 For example: a 1µF capacitor has a reactance of 3.2k for a 50Hz signal,
but when the frequency is higher at 10kHz its reactance is only 16 .
 Inductive reactance, XL

XL = 2 fL where: XL = reactance in ohms ( )

L
f = frequency in hertz (Hz)
L = inductance in henrys (H)
YO

XL is small at low frequencies and large at high frequencies.
For steady DC (frequency zero), XL is zero (no opposition),
hence the rule that inductors pass DC but block high frequency AC.
Y
 For example: a 1mH inductor has a reactance of only 0.3 for a 50Hz signal,
but when the frequency is higher at 10kHz its reactance is 63 .
O

Transformers are 2 separate inductors wound on a common former, used to

change an AC voltage. The voltages can be worked out by the turns ratio.

Eg. A transformer has 100 turns on its primary winding, and 10 turns on its
secondary winding. 230V is applied to the primary. What voltage would appear
on the secondary winding?
M

The turns ratio is 100 – 10 or simplified down 10 – 1

Thus every 10 Volts on the primary creates 1 Volt on the secondary for this
transformer.
So 230V on the primary of this transformer would give us 23V on the secondary.

Resonance
As capacitors and inductors are complimentary components in an AC circuit, they
are often used to form a resonant circuit. A resonant circuit may be used to let
pass a particular frequency, or to block a particular frequency.

Series resonant circuit. Its impedance is lowest at resonance and acts as a pass
filter.

Parallel resonant circuit. Its impedance is highest at resonance and acts as a

notch filter.

OP
For both circuits the following rules apply

If the capacitance is increased by a factor of 4, the resonant frequency will

decrease to half.

L
YO
If the inductance is decreased by a factor of 4, the resonant frequency will
increase by a factor of 2.

The selectivity of a filter is measured by it’s Q.

A high Q filter is highly selective, where as a low Q filter will not be as selective.
O Y

Question File: 9. Capacitors, Inductors, Resonance: (2

questions)
AK

1. The total capacitance of two or more capacitors in series is:

a. always less than that of the smallest capacitor
b. always greater than that of the largest capacitor
c. found by adding each of the capacitances together
d. found by adding the capacitances together and dividing by their total
M

number
==================

2. Filter capacitors in power supplies are sometimes connected in series to:

a. withstand a greater voltage than a single capacitor can withstand
b. increase the total capacity
c. reduce the ripple voltage further
d. resonate the filter circuit
==================
3. A component is identified as a capacitor if its value is measured in:
a. microvolts
b. millihenrys
c. megohms
d. microfarads
==================
4. Two metal plates separated by air form a 0.001 uF capacitor. Its value
may be changed to 0.002 uF by:

OP
a. bringing the metal plates closer together
b. making the plates smaller in size
c. moving the plates apart
d. touching the two plates together
==================

L
5. The material separating the plates of a capacitor is the:
a. dielectric
YO
b. semiconductor
c. resistor
d. lamination
==================
6. Three 15 picofarad capacitors are wired in parallel. The value of the
combination is:
Y

a. 45 picofarad
b. 18 picofarad
O

c. 12 picofarad
d. 5 picofarad
AK

==================
7. Capacitors and inductors oppose an alternating current. This is known
as:
a. resistance
b. resonance
M

c. conductance
d. reactance
==================
8. The reactance of a capacitor increases as the:
a. frequency increases
b. frequency decreases
c. applied voltage increases
d. applied voltage decreases
==================

9. The reactance of an inductor increases as the:

a. frequency increases
b. frequency decreases
c. applied voltage increases
d. applied voltage decreases
==================
10. Increasing the number of turns on an inductor will make its inductance:
a. decrease
b. increase
c. remain unchanged
d. become resistive
==================
11. The unit of inductance is the:
a. farad

OP
b. henry
c. ohm
d. reactance
==================
12. Two 20 uH inductances are connected in series. The total inductance is:

L
a. 10 uH
b. 20 uH
YO
c. 40 uH
d. 80 uH
==================
13. Two 20 uH inductances are connected in parallel. The total inductance
is:
a. 10 uH
Y

b. 20 uH
c. 40 uH
O

d. 80 uH
==================
14. A toroidal inductor is one in which the:
AK

a. windings are wound on a closed ring of magnetic material

b. windings are air-spaced
c. windings are wound on a ferrite rod
d. inductor is enclosed in a magnetic shield
M

==================
15. A transformer with 100 turns on the primary winding and 10 turns on the
secondary winding is connected to 230 volt AC mains. The voltage
across the secondary is:
a. 10 volt
b. 23 volt
c. 110 volt
d. 2300 volt
==================

16. An inductor and a capacitor are connected in series. At the resonant

frequency the resulting impedance is:
a. maximum
b. minimum
c. totally reactive
d. totally inductive
==================
17. An inductor and a capacitor are connected in parallel. At the resonant
frequency the resulting impedance is:
a. maximum
b. minimum
c. totally reactive
d. totally inductive
==================

OP
18. An inductor and a capacitor form a resonant circuit. The capacitor value
is increased by four times. The resonant frequency will:
a. increase by four times
b. double
c. decrease to half

L
d. decrease to one quarter
==================
YO
19. An inductor and a capacitor form a resonant circuit. If the value of the
inductor is decreased by a factor of four, the resonant frequency will:
a. increase by a factor of four
b. increase by a factor of two
c. decrease by a factor of two
Y
d. decrease by a factor of four
==================
20. A "high Q" resonant circuit is one which:
O

a. carries a high quiescent current

b. is highly selective
AK

c. has a wide bandwidth

d. uses a high value inductance
==================
M

Section 10 – Safety

First rule of safety – Your own safety is paramount. Never do anything that will
put your own safety at risk.

Eg. You find someone unconscious near a high voltage electricity supply. Your
first call is to isolate (turn off) the power, before approaching the person to check
his well-being. He may still be connected to the supply, and approaching him may
mean you end up on the floor beside him.

Never work on any Mains appliance unless you are competent to do so.

OP
Before working on an appliance that uses mains supply, always turn the power
off and remove the plug from the outlet.

In a high power transmitter, high voltages are present. The wires are well
insulated to avoid short circuits within the amplifier or transmitter.

L
RCD = Residual Current Device. It constantly measures the phase and neutral
YO
currents in an appliance or power system. Should these 2 currents become out of
balance, the RCD will disconnect the supply. This is because there is a chance
that if the currents are out of balance, they could possibly be electrocuting
someone.
Y
A class 1 appliance has a metal outer, that is connected to earth. This is so that if
a fault occurs where a live wire comes into contact with the metal frame, it will
O

quickly short circuit the supply and blow the circuit protecting device (or fuse).
The purpose then of the earthing conductor is to prevent the metal outer from
becoming live.
AK
M

Wiring in a 230V appliance lead

L OP
YO
O Y
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Top left is the phase terminal, or Live. Connect the Red or Brown wire here.
Top right is the neutral terminal. Connect the Black or Blue wire here.
The larger bottom pin is the earth terminal. Connect the Green or the Green and Yellow wire here.

Isolating transformers are another safety device, used to remove the voltage from either the
M

neutral or phase wire to earth. However if you were to come into contact with both the neutral and
phase terminals you would still be electrocuted.
This transformer has a winding ratio of 1 – 1.

Question File: 10. Safety: (1 question)

1. You can safely remove an unconscious person from contact with a high
voltage source by:
a. pulling an arm or a leg
b. wrapping the person in a blanket and pulling to a safe area
c. calling an electrician
d. turning off the high voltage and then removing the person
==================
2. For your safety, before checking a fault in a mains operated power
supply unit, first:
a. short the leads of the filter capacitor
b. turn off the power and remove the power plug
c. check the action of the capacitor bleeder resistance

OP
d. remove and check the fuse in the power supply
==================
3. Wires carrying high voltages in a transmitter should be well insulated to
avoid:
a. short circuits

L
b. overheating
c. over modulation
YO
d. SWR effects
==================
4. A residual current device is recommended for protection in a mains
power circuit because it:
a. reduces electrical interference from the circuit
Y
b. removes power to the circuit when the phase and neutral currents are
not equal
O

c. removes power to the circuit when the current in the phase wire equals
the current in the earth wire
d. limits the power provided to the circuit
AK

==================
5. An earth wire should be connected to the metal chassis of a mains-
operated power supply to ensure that if a fault develops, the chassis:
a. does not develop a high voltage with respect to earth
M

b. does not develop a high voltage with respect to the phase lead
c. becomes a conductor to bleed away static charge
d. provides a path to ground in case of lightning strikes
==================
6. The purpose of using three wires in the mains power cord and plug on
amateur radio equipment is to:
a. make it inconvenient to use
b. prevent the chassis from becoming live in case of an internal short to the
chassis
c. prevent the plug from being reversed in the wall outlet
d. prevent short circuits
==================

7. The correct colour coding for the phase wire in a flexible mains lead is:
a. brown
b. blue
c. yellow and green
d. white
==================
8. The correct colour coding for the neutral wire in a flexible mains lead is:
a. brown
b. blue
c. yellow and green
d. white
==================
9. The correct colour coding for the earth wire in a flexible mains lead is:
a. brown

OP
b. blue
c. yellow and green
d. white
==================
10. An isolating transformer is used to:

L
a. ensure that faulty equipment connected to it will blow a fuse in the
distribution board
YO
b. ensure that no voltage is developed between either output lead and
ground
c. ensure that no voltage is developed between the output leads
d. step down the mains voltage to a safe value
==================
O Y
AK
M

Section 11 – Semiconductors

Diode
A diode is an electronic device used to conduct current in one direction only. It is
made from 2 types of semiconductor – P material and N material. The electrons,
when forward biased (or forward voltaged) will pass from the N material to the P
material. During this process some voltage is lost. For Silicon this is 0.7V. For
Germanium it is 0.3V. Silicon diodes are often used in power supplies to convert
AC into DC. Diodes also have a maximum reverse
voltage that, once exceeded, will destroy the diode.

Diodes have 2 connections, the anode and the

OP
cathode. Current flows only from the anode to the
cathode.

Diodes are also used to recover information from a

received radio signal, a process called demodulating.

L
Zener diodes have a lower reverse voltage, and with proper current limiting, can
YO
be used to create a regulated voltage source.

A varactor diode has variable capacitance.

Transistors are an electronic component used to amplify current. The most

common form of transistor is a bipolar transistor. These come in 2 varieties – the

NPN and the PNP transistor. They have 3 terminals, the base, the collector, and
the emitter.
AK
M

If the base is above (for NPN) or below (for PNP) the voltage at the emitter, by
more than 0.7V, (as they are a Silicon device) the transistor will turn on. If the
base is at the same potential as the emitter, the transistor will be off.

Transistors can be destroyed by excessive voltage, current, or heat. (created by

a combination of excessive current x voltage or power)

A simple transistor circuit is shown below.

Pressing the push button will allow a small current to flow through the base and
out the emitter. The transistor will then allow a much larger current to flow from

OP
the collector to the emitter thus turning the LED (Light Emitting Diode) on.

L
Field Effect transistors have similar properties to Bipolar transistors, but have
much higher gain. This is because the gate has a much higher impedance than
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the base of the bipolar transistor. The symbol for the JFET is shown below. The
gate is the terminal with the arrow, the other terminals are called the source and
drain. The one on the left is an N channel JFET, and the one on the right is a P
channel JFET
O Y
AK
M

Question File: 11. Semiconductors: (2 questions)

1. The basic semiconductor amplifying device is a:
a. diode
b. transistor
c. pn-junction
d. silicon gate
==================

2. Zener diodes are normally used as:

a. RF detectors
b. AF detectors
c. current regulators
d. voltage regulators
==================
3. The voltage drop across a germanium signal diode when conducting is
about:
a. 0.3V
b. 0.6V
c. 0.7V
d. 1.3V
==================
4. A bipolar transistor has three terminals named:

OP
a. base, emitter and drain
b. collector, base and source
c. emitter, base and collector
d. drain, source and gate
==================

L
5. The three leads from a PNP transistor are named the:
a. collector, source, drain
YO
b. gate, source, drain
c. drain, base, source
d. collector, emitter, base
==================
6. A low-level signal is applied to a transistor circuit input and a higher-level
signal is present at the output. This effect is known as:
Y

a. amplification
b. detection
O

c. modulation
d. rectification
AK

==================
7. The type of rectifier diode in almost exclusive use in power supplies is:
a. lithium
b. germanium
c. silicon
M

d. copper-oxide
==================
8. One important application for diodes is recovering information from
transmitted signals. This is referred to as:
a. biasing
b. rejuvenation
c. ionisation
d. demodulation
==================

9. In a forward biased pn junction, the electrons:

a. flow from p to n
b. flow from n to p
c. remain in the n region
d. remain in the p region
==================
10. The following material is considered to be a semiconductor:
a. copper
b. sulphur
c. silicon
d. tantalum
==================
11. A varactor diode acts like a variable:
a. resistance

OP
b. voltage regulator
c. capacitance
d. inductance
==================
12. A semiconductor is said to be doped when small quantities of the following

L
are added:
a. electrons
YO
b. protons
c. ions
d. impurities
==================
13. The connections to a semiconductor diode are known as:
a. cathode and drain
Y

b. anode and cathode

c. gate and source
O

d. collector and base

==================
14. Bipolar transistors usually have:
AK

a. 4 connecting leads
b. 3 connecting leads
c. 2 connecting leads
d. 1 connecting lead
M

==================
15. A semiconductor is described as a "general purpose audio NPN device".
This is a:
a. triode
b. silicon diode
c. bipolar transistor
d. field effect transistor
==================

16. Two basic types of bipolar transistors are:

a. p-channel and n-channel types
b. NPN and PNP types
c. diode and triode types
d. varicap and zener types
==================
17. A transistor can be destroyed in a circuit by:
a. excessive light
b. excessive heat
c. saturation
d. cut-off
==================
18. To bias a transistor to cut-off, the base must be:
a. at the collector potential

OP
b. at the emitter potential
c. mid-way between collector and emitter potentials
d. mid-way between the collector and the supply potentials
==================
19. Two basic types of field effect transistors are:

L
a. n-channel and p-channel
b. NPN and PNP
YO
c. germanium and silicon
d. inductive and capacitive
==================
20. A semiconductor with leads labelled gate, drain and source, is best
described as a:
a. bipolar transistor
Y

b. silicon diode
c. gated transistor
O

d. field-effect transistor
==================
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M

Section 12 – Device Recognition

Bipolar transistors.

OP
For the NPN the arrow points outward. The PNP the arrow points in.

L
Field Effect transistors
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O Y
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M

The N channel arrow points in, the P channel arrow points out.

MOSFET’s

The dual gate mosfet has 2 gates, a source and a

drain.

Question File: 12. Device recognition: (1 question)

1. In the figure shown, 2 represents the:

a. collector of a pnp transistor
b. emitter of an npn transistor
c. base of an npn transistor
M

d. source of a junction FET

==================
2. In the figure shown, 3 represents the:
a. drain of a junction FET
b. collector of an npn transistor
c. emitter of a pnp transistor
d. base of an npn transistor
==================

3. In the figure shown, 2 represents the:

a. base of a pnp transistor
b. drain of a junction FET
c. gate of a junction FET
d. emitter of a pnp transistor
==================
4. In the figure shown, 1 represents the:
a. collector of a pnp transistor
b. gate of a junction FET
c. source of a MOSFET
d. emitter of a pnp transistor
==================
5. In the figure shown, 2 represents the:
a. drain of a p-channel junction FET

OP
b. collector of an npn transistor
c. gate of an n-channel junction FET
d. base of a pnp transistor
==================
6. In the figure shown, 3 represents the:

L
a. source of an n-channel junction FET
b. gate of a p-channel junction FET
YO
c. emitter of a pnp transistor
d. drain of an n-channel junction FET
==================
7. In the figure shown, 2 represents the:
a. gate of a MOSFET
b. base of a dual bipolar transistor
Y

c. anode of a silicon controlled rectifier

d. cathode of a dual diode
O

==================
8. The figure shown represents a:
a. dual bipolar transistor
AK

b. dual diode
c. dual varactor diode
d. dual gate MOSFET
==================
M

9. In the figure shown, 3 represents the:

a. filament of a tetrode
b. anode of a triode
c. grid of a tetrode
d. screen grid of a pentode
==================

10. In the figure shown, 5 represents the:

a. grid of a tetrode
b. screen grid of a tetrode
c. heater of a pentode
d. grid of a triode
==================

L OP
YO
O Y
AK
M

Section 13 - Meters and Measuring

Ammeters.
- Have low internal resistance
- Placed in series with the item under test
- Displays the current traveling through the meter
- May short circuit if placed across a circuit by accident.

Voltmeters
- Have high internal resistance
- Placed across the item under test
- Displays the potential difference (voltage) between the 2 points of test

OP
- Will not operate accurately if placed in series by accident.

Thus
When measuring the current drawn by a receiver from a power supply the meter

L
should be placed in series with one of the power leads.
YO
An Ammeter circuit measures current, it is in series and should have low internal
resistance. This could be used to measure the supply current to an amplifier.

A voltmeter circuit should be in parallel and should have high resistance (ie, high
ohms).
Y

A DC ammeter could be used to measure power supply output current.

Do not put an ammeter over the car battery because it will cause a short circuit..
AK

When measuring current in a light bulb from a dc supply meter it acts in the circuit
as a very low value series resistance.

VSWR (voltage standing wave ratio) in reverse = relative reflected voltage.

AC voltmeter (RMS reading volt meter) is used to measure 50Hz sign wave of
known peak voltage of 1 volts, the meter reading will be 0.707 volts.

L OP
True RMS = 0.707 x peak voltage in a sinusoidal wave
YO
RMS < Peak voltage

An ohmmeter measures the value of any resistance placed between its terminals
Y

Question File: 13. Meters and Measuring: (1 question)

1. An ohmmeter measures the:

a. value of any resistance placed between its terminals
b. impedance of any component placed between its terminals
AK

c. power factor of any inductor or capacitor placed between its terminals

d. voltage across any resistance placed between its terminals
==================
2. A VSWR meter switched to the "reverse" position provides an indication
M

of:
a. power output in watts
b. relative reflected voltage
c. relative forward voltage
d. reflected power in dB
==================
3. The correct instrument for measuring the supply current to an amplifier is
a:
a. wattmeter
b. voltmeter
c. ammeter
d. ohmmeter
==================

4. The following meter could be used to measure the power supply current
drawn by a small hand-held transistorised receiver:
a. a power meter
b. an RF ammeter
c. a DC ammeter
d. an electrostatic voltmeter
==================
5. When measuring the current drawn by a light bulb from a DC supply, the
meter will act in circuit as:
a. an insulator
b. a low value resistance
c. a perfect conductor
d. an extra current drain
==================

OP
6. When measuring the current drawn by a receiver from a power supply,
the current meter should be placed:
a. in parallel with both receiver power supply leads
b. in parallel with one of the receiver power leads
c. in series with both receiver power leads

L
d. in series with one of the receiver power leads
==================
YO
7. An ammeter should not be connected directly across the terminals of a
12 volt car battery because:
a. the resulting high current will probably destroy the ammeter
b. no current will flow because no other components are in the circuit
c. the battery voltage will be too low for a measurable current to flow
Y
d. the battery voltage will be too high for a measurable current to flow
==================
8. A good ammeter should have:
O

a. a very high internal resistance

b. a resistance equal to that of all other components in the circuit
AK

c. a very low internal resistance

d. an infinite resistance
==================
9. A good voltmeter should have:
a. a very high internal resistance
M

b. a resistance equal to that of all other components in the circuit

c. a very low internal resistance
d. an inductive reactance
==================
10. An rms-reading voltmeter is used to measure a 50 Hz sinewave of
known peak voltage 14 volt. The meter reading will be about:
a. 14 volt
b. 28 volt
c. 10 volt
d. 50 volt
==================

Section 14 - Decibels

For POWER

3dB = Double
10dB = X10

Therefore 20dB = x 100 (10dB + 10dB = 20dB, x10 x10 = x100)

And 23dB = x 200 (10dB + 10 dB + 3dB = 23dB, x10 x10 x2 = x200)

OP
For VOLTAGE

6dB = x 2

L
20dB = x 10
YO
remember – dBs add together – where cascading amplifiers multiply

eg.
3 amplifiers have 4 x power gain connected in cascade (one after the other in
series)
Y

each amp has 6dB gain (x4 = 2 lots of x2, thus 2 lots of 3dB = 6dB)
O

for 3 amps just add each of the dB’s together

so 3 lots of 6dB’s = 18dB gain

eg2
a 10dB amplifier is connected in cascade with a 3dB attenuator. Calculate the
overall gain.
M

10dB – 3dB = 7dB (minus for attenuation)

Question File: 14. Decibels, Amplification and Attenuation: (1

question)
1. The input to an amplifier is 1 volt rms and the output 10 volt rms. This is
an increase of:
a. 3 dB
b. 6 dB
c. 10 dB
d. 20 dB
==================
2. The input to an amplifier is 1 volt rms and output 100 volt rms. This is an
increase of:
a. 10 dB
b. 20 dB

OP
c. 40 dB
d. 100 dB
==================
3. An amplifier has a gain of 40 dB. The ratio of the rms output voltage to
the rms input voltage is:

L
a. 20
b. 40
c. 100
YO
d. 400
==================
4. A transmitter power amplifier has a gain of 20 dB. The ratio of the output
power to the input power is:
a. 10
Y

b. 20
c. 40
O

d. 100
==================
5. An attenuator network comprises two 100 ohm resistors in series with
AK

the input applied across both resistors and the output taken from across
one of them. The voltage attenuation of the network is:
a. 3 dB
b. 6 dB
M

c. 50 dB
d. 100 dB
==================
6. An attenuator network has 10 volt rms applied to its input with 1 volt rms
measured at its output. The attenuation of the network is:
a. 6 dB
b. 10 dB
c. 20 dB
d. 40 dB
==================

7. An attenuator network has 10 volt rms applied to its input with 5 volt rms
measured at its output. The attenuation of the network is:
a. 6 dB
b. 10 dB
c. 20 dB
d. 40 dB
==================
8. Two amplifiers with gains of 10 dB and 40 dB are connected in cascade.
The gain of the combination is:
a. 8 dB
b. 30 dB
c. 50 dB
d. 400 dB
==================

OP
9. An amplifier with a gain of 20 dB has a -10 dB attenuator connected in
cascade. The gain of the combination is:
a. 8 dB
b. 10 dB
c. -10 dB

L
d. -200 dB
==================
YO
10. Each stage of a three-stage amplifier provides 5 dB gain. The total
amplification is:
a. 10 dB
b. 15 dB
c. 25 dB
Y
d. 125 dB
==================
O
AK
M

Section 15 Station Components

Amateur radio stations range from the
very simple to the vary elaborate and
complex. Some of the common
elements are considered here. This
block diagram is typical of the High
Frequency equipment used in an
amateur station.

L OP
YO
The Transceiver

This is the centre-piece of the station and where most things

Y
happen! It contains both transmitter and receiver. These
functions are treated elsewhere in this Study Guide.
O

The Linear Amplifier

This is switched in to provide a stronger transmitted signal

at times of difficult conditions. Not an essential item and not
all radio amateurs use them or find them to be necessary. It
provides an amplified version of the signal fed into its input.
M

The term "linear" means that the output signal is a replica of

the waveform of the signal fed into its input - except that the
amplitude of it is greater.

The Low Pass Filter

This device is designed to prevent the passing of

frequencies above 30 MHz (the limit of HF and where VHF
begins) from the transmitter to the antenna. It is good
practice to have this item in use but it may not always be
required. Many modern transceivers are already fitted with
such a filter.

S W R Bridge

This little box (Standing Wave Ratio bridge - or meter) does

two things. It gives a measure of the transmitter output
power level. It also gives an indication of how well the
antenna is working. If the feeder to the antenna is damaged
or the antenna itself is faulty, a glance at this meter will
indicate a problem.

The Antenna Switch

Only two positions are shown in this diagram. The switch

OP
changes between the external antenna and the "dummy
load" (used for testing). In practice, the Antenna Switch may
have many positions and be used for selecting between
various antennas as well as the dummy load. It is general
practice to use a multi-element beam antenna for operating

L
at 14 MHz and above, and to use a "wire antenna" on
frequencies below 14 MHz, but there are no hard and fast
YO
rules!

The Antenna Tuner

This name is not strictly correct. This device takes the

Y
impedance "seen looking down the antenna feedline" and
corrects it for correct "match" to the output impedance of the
O

transmitter. This device is treated elsewhere in this Study

The Dummy Antenna (Dummy Load)

The purpose of this device is to allow you to carry out

adjustments to your transmitter without actually transmitting
a signal on the air. It is usually a collection of carbon
M

resistors in a can - for shielding. The can may be filled with

transformer oil to assist cooling.

It is important to know the power rating for your dummy

load. The time that you can use it with a high-power signal
may be very short before overheating causes it to be
severely damaged. Know your ratings and observe them!

The Dummy Antenna should be connected to your antenna

switch as one of your antennas. The device simulates an
antenna in all respects except that it does not radiate. It
usually has a 50
ohm impedance

with a low SWR of 1 to 1.

A practical unit

Sometimes an SWR Bridge, an Antenna Tuner, Antenna

Switch and a Dummy Load, are all combined into the one
box.

Sometimes the two SWR meters are built into one

instrument - with cross-needles. The crossing point of the

OP
two needles can be read directly as the SWR value off a
separate scale on the face of the meter, while each
separate needle indicates the forward and reflected power
on its own arc-scale. An example is in the photograph.

L
YO
Question File: 15. HF Station Arrangement: (1 question)
1. In the block diagram shown, the "linear amplifier" is:
O Y

a. an amplifier to remove distortion in signals from the transceiver

b. an optional amplifier to be switched in when higher power is required
c. an amplifier with all components arranged in-line
AK

d. a push-pull amplifier to cancel second harmonic distortion

==================
2. In the block diagram shown, the additional signal path above the "linear
amplifier" block indicates that:
M

a. some power is passed around the linear amplifier for stability

b. "feed-forward" correction is being used to increase linearity
c. the linear amplifier input and output terminals may be short-circuited
d. the linear amplifier may be optionally switched out of circuit to reduce
output power
==================

3. In the block diagram shown, the "low pass filter" must be rated to:

a. carry the full power output from the station

b. filter out higher-frequency modulation components for maximum
intelligibility
c. filter out high-amplitude sideband components
d. emphasise low-speed Morse code output
==================
4. In the block diagram shown, the "SWR bridge" is a:

OP
a. switched wave rectifier for monitoring power output

L
b. static wave reducer to minimize static electricity from the antenna
c. device to monitor the standing-wave-ratio on the antenna feedline
YO
d. short wave rectifier to protect against lightning strikes
==================
5. In the block diagram shown, the "antenna switch":
O Y

a. switches the transmitter output to the dummy load for tune-up purposes
b. switches the antenna from transmit to receive
AK

c. switches the frequency of the antenna for operation on different bands

d. switches surplus output power from the antenna to the dummy load to
avoid distortion.
==================
M

6. In the block diagram shown, the "antenna tuner":

a. adjusts the resonant frequency of the antenna to minimize harmonic

radiation
b. adjusts the resonant frequency of the antenna to maximise power output
c. changes the standing-wave-ratio on the transmission line to the antenna
d. adjusts the impedance of the antenna system seen at the transceiver
output
==================
7. In the block diagram shown, the "dummy load" is:

a. used to allow adjustment of the transmitter without causing interference

to others
b. a load used to absorb surplus power which is rejected by the antenna
system
c. used to absorb high-voltage impulses caused by lightning strikes to the
antenna
d. an additional load used to compensate for a badly-tuned antenna system
==================
8. In the block diagram shown, the connection between the SWR bridge

OP
and the antenna switch is normally a:

L
a. twisted pair cable
YO
b. coaxial cable
c. quarter-wave matching section
d. short length of balanced ladder-line
==================
9. In this block diagram, the block designated "antenna tuner" is not
Y
normally necessary when:
O
AK

a. the antenna input impedance is 50 ohms

b. a half wave antenna is used, fed at one end
c. the antenna is very long compared to a wavelength
d. the antenna is very short compared to a wavelength
M

==================

10. In the block diagram shown, the connection between the "antenna tuner"
and the "antenna" could be made with:

a. three-wire mains power cable

b. heavy hook-up wire
c. 50 ohm coaxial cable
d. an iron-cored transformer
==================

L OP
YO
O Y
AK
M

Section 16 Receiver Block Diagrams

How to draw them!
This is is a "block diagram" of a "super-heterodyne" receiver. Before the actual stages are
discussed, consider the diagram itself. It is drawn to show the "signal flow" entirely from left to
right, shown by the arrows.

OP
It starts with the antenna (aerial) on the left. The signal flows through many

L
stages, shown by arrows from left to right. It ends with the speaker (or phones)
on the right.
YO
The "superhet" receiver
The diagram shows a "super-sonic heterodyne" - or "superhet" -
receiver, the standard pattern for receivers in general use today.
The first thing to note is that three amplifiers are shown, the RF
amplifier, the IF amplifier, and the AF amplifier. Let's look at each in
Y

turn.
O

The Radio Frequency amplifier

This provides amplification for the signal as soon as it arrives from
AK

the antenna. The amplified signal is then passed to the

"mixer/oscillator". The purpose of the mixer/oscillator is to
translate the frequency of the incoming signal to the "intermediate
frequency", i.e. to the "IF amplifier".
The mixer stage is usually acknowledged as being the noisiest
M

stage in the receiver so an RF amplifier is positioned ahead of it to

mask that noise with a higher signal level.
The RF amplifier stage should use a low-noise amplifying device -
such as a low-noise transistor - to keep the internally-generated
noise of the receiver to as low as possible. All the following
amplifying stages will amplify this RF stage noise as well as the
signal, so a low-noise device at the start of the receiving process is
very important.

The Intermediate Frequency amplifier

It is in the IF amplifier where most of the amplification in a
receiver takes place. Sometimes there may be two or more
stages of IF amplification. The "IF frequency" is carefully selected,

but more about that below. The filter block prior to the amplifier
shapes the "passband" of the receiver.
The filter pass-band should be tailored to fit the signal being
received - in the interests of keeping out unwanted noise and
unwanted signals. A 500 Hz pass-band for CW reception, a 3 kHz
pass-band for SSB, and 6 kHz for AM, would be typical.
From the IF stages, the signal passes to a detector. Here
demodulation of the radio-frequency signal takes place to produce
an audio signal.
The diagram shows a "product detector" with a Beat Frequency
Oscillator - or Carrier Insertion Oscillator (CIO) - for SSB and CW
reception.

The Audio Frequency amplifier

Finally the audio signal is amplified in the audio amplifier and

OP
passed on to a speaker or phones for the listener to enjoy.

Receiving a
signal

L
The superhet receiver is really in two parts:
YO
O Y
AK

1. From IF amplifier onwards, it is a "fixed frequency

receiver", a receiver pre-tuned and optimised for the
M

reception of a signal on the IF frequency.

2. The RF amplifier and mixer/oscillator receive signals from
the antenna and then convert them to the frequency of this
optimum receiver - to the IF frequency. It is in the RF
amplifier and mixer/oscillator sections of the receiver where
the actual operator adjustment and tuning for the selection or
"choice of received signal" takes place.

Tuning a Superhet Receiver

To change the frequency of the incoming signal to the IF
frequency, the tuned circuits in the RF amplifier, the mixer input,
and the local oscillator, must be adjustable from the front panel. A

look inside a typical conventional superhet receiver cabinet may

disclose a "three-gang" tuning capacitor. Each "section" of this
component tunes part of the first stages of the receiver.
Note that it is the INPUT to the mixer which is tuned by a variable
capacitor - the output is fixed-tuned at the IF frequency.

The choice of Intermediate Frequency

There are two conflicts with the choice of the IF Frequency:
A low intermediate frequency brings the advantage of higher stage gain and
higher selectivity using high-Q tuned circuits. Sharp pass-bands are possible for
narrow-band working for CW and SSB reception.
A high intermediate frequency brings the advantage of a lower image
response.
The "image frequency" problem can be seen in this example:
Consider a receiver for 10 MHz using an IF frequency of 100 kHz. The local

OP
oscillator will be on either 10.1 MHz - i.e. 100 kHz higher than the required input
signal - or on 9.9 MHz. We will consider the 10.1 MHz case - but the principles
are the same for the case where the oscillator is LOWER in frequency than the
wanted signal frequency. .

L
Because of the way that mixers work, a signal at 10.2 MHz
will also be received. This is known as the IMAGE
YO
frequency.
The image rejection of a superhet receiver can be improved by having more
tuned circuits set to the required input frequency, such as more tuned circuits in
the RF amplifier ahead of the mixer. This brings practical construction difficulties.
Another solution is to choose a high IF frequency so that the
O Y
AK
M

required received frequency and the image frequency are well

separated in frequency. Choosing an IF of 2 MHz for the 10 MHz
receiver would put the local oscillator at 12 MHz, the image
frequency then being at 14 MHz.
When receiving a signal at 10 MHz, it is easier to reject a signal at
14 MHz (the image in the 2 MHz IF case) than at 10.2 MHz (the
image in the 100kHz IF case).
Note that the Image Frequency is TWICE the IF Frequency
removed from the WANTED signal frequency - on the same side of
the wanted frequency as the oscillator.

The "Double Conversion" receiver

The "double-conversion" superhet receiver brings the good points from both IF

OP
choices. A high frequency IF is first chosen to bring a satisfactory image
response, followed by a low-frequency IF to bring high selectivity and gain.

L
YO
Y

Typical examples would be a 5 MHz first IF and a 100 kHz second

IF - but many designs are possible. There may be front-panel-

selectable quartz or mechanical filters used at either or both IF's to
give added selectivity.
AK

The only two disadvantages of the double-conversion receiver are

the added complexity and the additional oscillators required. These
oscillators, unless carefully shielded, can mix with each other and
produce unwanted signals at spots throughout the spectrum.
M

Count up the number of oscillators involved - including the BFO /

CIO.

The F M Receiver

A receiver for FM signals follows the same general principles as a

receiver for CW and SSB reception.

The frequency coverage for an FM receiver is different to that of a

SSB / CW receiver. FM is a distinct VHF-and-higher mode. So FM
receivers are for VHF and higher reception. In hand-held
transceivers, the receiver will be "channelised" for switch-channel
reception.

OP
The IF amplifier is much wider in bandwidth than that of a CW/SSB
receiver. So the IF amplifier will be higher in frequency - (say) 10.7
MHz.
The demodulator will usually be a "discriminator" and may even be
of a "phase-lock-loop" variety. There will be a "limiter" before the

L
descriminator to remove noise peaks and amplitude-changes
before detection of the FM
YO
signal
O Y
AK
M

Question File: 16. Receiver Block Diagrams: (2 questions)

1. In the block diagram of the receiver shown, the "RF amplifier":

a. decreases random fluctuation noise

b. is a restoring filter amplifier
c. increases the incoming signal level
d. changes the signal frequency
==================
2. In the block diagram of the receiver shown, the "mixer":

L OP
a. combines signals at two different frequencies to produce one at an
intermediate frequency
YO
b. combines sidebands to produce a stronger signal
c. discriminates against SSB and AM signals
d. inserts a carrier wave to produce a true FM signal
==================
3. In the block diagram of the receiver shown, the output frequency of the
Y
"oscillator" is:
O
AK

a. the same as that of the incoming received signal

b. the same as that of the IF frequency
c. different from both the incoming signal and IF frequencies
d. at a low audio frequency
M

==================

4. In the block diagram of the receiver shown, the "filter" rejects:

a. AM and RTTY signals

b. unwanted mixer outputs
c. noise bursts
d. broadcast band signals
==================
5. In the block diagram of the receiver shown, the "IF amplifier" is an:

OP
a. isolation frequency amplifier
b. intelligence frequency amplifier

L
c. indeterminate frequency amplifier
d. intermediate frequency amplifier
YO
==================
6. In the block diagram of the receiver shown, the "product detector":
O Y

a. produces an 800 Hz beat note

b. separates CW and SSB signals
c. rejects AM signals
AK

d. translates signals to audio frequencies

==================
7. In the block diagram of the receiver shown, the "AF amplifier":
M

a. rejects AM and RTTY signals

b. amplifies audio frequency signals
c. has a very narrow passband
d. restores ambiance to the audio
==================

8. In the block diagram of the receiver shown, the "BFO" stands for:

a. bad frequency obscurer

b. basic frequency oscillator
c. beat frequency oscillator
d. band filter oscillator
==================
9. In the block diagram of the receiver shown, most of the receiver gain is in
the:

OP
a. RF amplifier
b. IF amplifier

L
c. AF amplifier
d. mixer
YO
==================
10. In the block diagram of the receiver shown, the "RF amplifier":
Y

a. decreases random fluctuation noise

b. masks strong noise

c. should produce little internal noise
AK

d. changes the signal frequency

==================
11. In the block diagram of the receiver shown, the "mixer":
M

a. changes the signal frequency

b. rejects SSB and CW signals
c. protects against receiver overload
d. limits the noise on the signal
==================

12.. In the receiver shown, when receiving a signal, the output frequency of the
"oscillator" is:

a. the same as that of the signal

b. the same as that of the IF amplifier
c. of constant amplitude and frequency
d. passed through the following filter
==================
13. In the block diagram of the receiver shown, the "limiter":

OP
a. limits the signal to a constant amplitude
b. rejects SSB and CW signals

L
c. limits the frequency shift of the signal
d. limits the phase shift of the signal
YO
==================
14. In the block diagram of the receiver shown, the "frequency demodulator"
could be implemented with a:
O Y

a. product detector
b. phase-locked loop
c. full-wave rectifier
AK

d. low-pass filter
==================
15 In the block diagram of the receiver shown, the "AF amplifier":
M

a. amplifies stereo signals

b. amplifies speech frequencies
c. is an all frequency amplifier
d. must be fitted with a tone control
==================

16. In this receiver, an audio frequency gain control would be associated

with the block labelled:

a. AF amplifier
b. frequency demodulator
c. speaker, phones
d. IF amplifier
==================
17. In the block diagram of the receiver shown, the selectivity would be set
by the:

OP
a. AF amplifier

L
b. mixer
c. limiter
YO
d. filter
==================
18. In the FM communications receiver shown in the block diagram, the
"filter" bandwidth is typically:
O Y

a. 3 kHz
b. 10 kHz
AK

c. 64 kHz
d. 128 kHz
==================
19. In the block diagram of the receiver shown, an automatic gain control
(AGC) circuit would be associated with the:
M

a. speaker
b. IF amplifier
c. RF filter
d. oscillator
==================

20. In the block diagram of the receiver shown, the waveform produced by
the "oscillator" would ideally be a:

a. square wave
b. pulsed wave
c. sinewave
d. hybrid frequency wave
==================

Section 17 Receiver fundamentals

OP
Here we look at typical specifications for receivers and at some of the
features found to improve operating convenience.

Frequency stability

L
The ability of a receiver to stay tuned to an incoming signal
YO
for a long period is related to the frequency stability of its
local oscillator. This same requirement applies to
transmitters.
Metal shielding is used around oscillator coils and the
components used may be especially selected for high
frequency stability.
Y

Sensitivity
O

The sensitivity of a receiver is its ability to receive weak

signals. Selectivity is more important than sensitivity.
AK

Noise
The first stage in the receiving block-diagram chain, the RF
amplifier, sets the noise characteristics for a receiver. The
M

RF amplifier should use a low-noise device and it should

generate very little internal noise. Measurement of
sensitivity requires test equipment, equipment able to
measure the "signal plus noise" audio output from the
receiver and the "noise alone" with no signal being
received.
The ratio: (S+N)/N (i.e. signal plus noise to noise) is often
used with this test for comparing receivers.
There is far more to measuring the sensitivity and other
characteristics of a receiver than is often realised! Please
refer to standard textbooks on the subject.

Selectivity

The ability to separate two closely spaced signals is a

receiver's "selectivity". The characteristics of the filter in the
IF amplifier determine the frequency response of the IF
stages and the "selectivity".
The narrower the filter pass-band, the "higher" the
selectivity.
The receiver pass-band should be tailored to the
characteristics of the incoming signal. Too wide a pass-band
and unwanted noise is received which detracts from the
reception of the wanted signal.
We use bandwidth to measure selectivity. This is how wide
a range of frequencies you hear with the receiver tuned to a
set frequency. Filters can often be selected by a front-panel
switch to provide different receiver bandwidth
characteristics.

L OP
YO
O Y
AK
M

The audio stage

The audio stage of a receiver amplifies
the signal from the detector and raises it
to a level suitable for driving headphones
or a speaker.
A typical speaker is a load impedance of
about 8 ohm. A transformer is generally
used to match this low-impedance load to
the impedance level required for the best
performance of the amplifier.

There are many types of audio amplifier.

The circuit shown here is to show the

OP
principles. It is typical of that in a very
simple radio - with a small speaker and
low audio output.

L
YO
Question File: 17. Receiver Operation: (3 questions)
1. The frequency stability of a receiver is its ability to:
a. stay tuned to the desired signal
b. track the incoming signal as it drifts
c. provide a frequency standard
d. provide a digital readout
Y

==================
2. The sensitivity of a receiver specifies:
O

a. the bandwidth of the RF preamplifier

b. the stability of the oscillator
AK

c. its ability to receive weak signals

d. its ability to reject strong signals
==================
3. Of two receivers, the one capable of receiving the weakest signal will
have:
M

a. an RF gain control
b. the least internally-generated noise
c. the loudest audio output
d. the greatest tuning range
==================
4. The figure in a receiver's specifications which indicates its sensitivity is
the:
a. bandwidth of the IF in kilohertz
b. audio output in watts
c. signal plus noise to noise ratio
d. number of RF amplifiers
==================

5. If two receivers are compared, the more sensitive receiver will produce:
a. more than one signal
b. less signal and more noise
c. more signal and less noise
d. a steady oscillator drift
==================
6. The ability of a receiver to separate signals close in frequency is called
its:
a. noise figure
b. sensitivity
c. bandwidth
d. selectivity
==================
7. A receiver with high selectivity has a:

OP
a. wide bandwidth
b. wide tuning range
c. narrow bandwidth
d. narrow tuning range
==================

L
8. The BFO in a superhet receiver operates on a frequency nearest to that
of its:
YO
a. RF amplifier
b. audio amplifier
c. local oscillator
d. IF amplifier
==================
9. To receive Morse code signals, a BFO is employed in a superhet
Y

receiver to:
a. produce IF signals
O

b. beat with the local oscillator signal to produce sidebands

c. produce an audio tone to beat with the IF signal
AK

d. beat with the IF signal to produce an audio tone

==================
10. The following transmission mode is usually demodulated by a product
detector:
a. pulse modulation
M

b. double sideband full carrier modulation

c. frequency modulation
d. single sideband suppressed carrier modulation
==================
11. A superhet receiver for SSB reception has an insertion oscillator to:
a. replace the suppressed carrier for detection
b. phase out the unwanted sideband signal
c. reduce the passband of the IF stages
d. beat with the received carrier to produce the other sideband
==================

12. A stage in a receiver with input and output circuits tuned to the received
frequency is the:
a. RF amplifier
b. local oscillator
c. audio frequency amplifier
d. detector
==================
13. An RF amplifier ahead of the mixer stage in a superhet receiver:
a. enables the receiver to tune a greater frequency range
b. means no BFO stage is needed
c. makes it possible to receive SSB signals
d. increases the sensitivity of the receiver
==================
14. A communication receiver may have several IF filters of different

OP
bandwidths. The operator selects one to:
a. improve the S-meter readings
b. improve the receiver sensitivity
c. improve the reception of different types of signal
d. increase the noise received

L
==================
15. The stage in a superhet receiver with a tuneable input and fixed tuned
YO
output is the:
a. RF amplifier
b. mixer stage
c. IF amplifier
d. local oscillator
==================
Y

16. The mixer stage of a superhet receiver:

a. produces spurious signals
O

b. produces an intermediate frequency signal

c. acts as a buffer stage
AK

d. demodulates SSB signals

==================
17. A 7 MHz signal and a 16 MHz oscillator are applied to a mixer stage. The
output will contain the input frequencies and:
a. 8 and 9 MHz
M

b. 7 and 9 MHz
c. 9 and 23 MHz
d. 3.5 and 9 MHz
==================
18. Selectivity in a superhet receiver is achieved primarily in the:
a. RF amplifier
b. Mixer
c. IF amplifier
d. Audio stage
==================

19. The abbreviation AGC means:

a. attenuating gain capacitor
b. automatic gain control
c. anode-grid capacitor
d. amplified grid conductance
==================
20. The AGC circuit in a receiver usually controls the:
a. audio stage
b. mixer stage
c. power supply
d. RF and IF stages
==================
21. The tuning control of a superhet receiver changes the tuned frequency of
the:

OP
a. audio amplifier
b. IF amplifier
c. local oscillator
d. post-detector amplifier
==================

L
22. A superhet receiver, with an IF at 500 kHz, is receiving a 14 MHz signal.
The local oscillator frequency is:
YO
a. 14.5 MHz
b. 19 MHz
c. 500 kHz
d. 28 MHz
==================
23. An audio amplifier is necessary in an AM receiver because:
Y

a. signals leaving the detector are weak

b. the carrier frequency must be replaced
O

c. the signal requires demodulation

d. RF signals are not heard by the human ear
AK

==================
24. The audio output transformer in a receiver is required to:
a. step up the audio gain
b. protect the loudspeaker from high currents
c. improve the audio tone
M

d. match the output impedance of the audio amplifier to the speaker

==================
25. If the carrier insertion oscillator is counted, then a single conversion
superhet receiver has:
a. one oscillator
b. two oscillators
c. three oscillators
d. four oscillators
==================

26. A superhet receiver, with a 500 kHz IF, is receiving a signal at 21.0 MHz.
A strong unwanted signal at 22 MHz is interfering. The cause is:
a. insufficient IF selectivity
b. the 22 MHz signal is out-of-band
c. 22 MHz is the image frequency
d. insufficient RF gain
==================
27. A superhet receiver receives an incoming signal of 3540 kHz and the
local oscillator produces a signal of 3995 kHz. The IF amplifier is tuned
to:
a. 455 kHz
b. 3540 kHz
c. 3995 kHz
d. 7435 kHz

OP
==================
28. A double conversion receiver designed for SSB reception has a carrier
insertion oscillator and:
a. one IF stage and one local oscillator
b. two IF stages and one local oscillator

L
c. two IF stages and two local oscillators
d. two IF stages and three local oscillators
YO
==================
29. An advantage of a double conversion receiver is that it:
a. does not drift off frequency
b. produces a louder audio signal
c. has improved image rejection characteristics
Y
d. is a more sensitive receiver
==================
30. A receiver squelch circuit:
O

a. automatically keeps the audio output at maximum level

b. silences the receiver speaker during periods of no received signal
AK

c. provides a noisy operating environment

d. is not suitable for pocket-size receivers
==================
M

Section 18 Transmitter Block Diagrams

How to draw them!

This is a "block diagram" of a simple transmitter. Before the actual stages are discussed, consider
the diagram itself. It is drawn to show the "signal flow" entirely from left to right, shown by the
arrows.

The CW Transmitter
The simplest of all transmitters is one for sending Morse code - a CW (Continuous Wave)
transmitter as shown in the diagram above

OP
An oscillator generates the signal and it is then amplified to raise the power output to the desired
level. A Morse key is used to chop the transmission up into the "dots" and "dashes" of Morse code

The oscillator runs continuously. The Driver / Buffer are isolation stages, to isolate the oscillator
from the sudden load-changes due to the keying of the amplifier. This minimises frequency "chirp"

L
on the transmitted signal.
YO
The oscillator is usually supplied with DC from a voltage-regulated source to minimise chirp (slight
changes in the output frequency) due to variations in the supply voltage.

Several driver and buffer stages may be used. The keying may be in the final amplifier alone -
usually in the cathode or emitter lead - or may also be applied to the driver stage too.

A "keying relay" may be used to isolate the Morse key from the transmitter circuits, to keep high
Y

voltages away from the operator's Morse key. In the interests of operator safety, the moving bar of
the Morse key is ALWAYS kept at earth potential.
O
AK

The AM
Transmitter
M

This is a diagram of a typical Amplitude-Modulated transmitter.

The block diagram is derived from the CW transmitter.

The modulated stage is usually the final amplifier in the transmitter. This is known as "high-level"
modulation. If a following amplifier is used to raise the output power level, it must be a linear
amplifier.

The SSB Transmitter

A transmitter takes the generated signal and first translates it with a mixer / VFO combination to
the required output frequency then amplifies it to the required power output level using a linear
amplifier. A linear amplifier is needed to preserve the signal waveform in all ways except to
increase the output amplitude.

L OP
YO
O Y

The F M
transmitter
AK

The modulator can be one of several types. The simplest to understand is probably to consider
the voltage-controlled oscillator

Applying an audio signal to the varicap diodes in the circuit example given in the Oscillator
discussion will change the frequency of the oscillator in accord with the modulation. This
M

increases the frequency swing with increased audio loudness, and the rate of swing with
increasing audio frequency - hence providing Frequency Modulation.

In VHF hand-held transceivers, the oscillator will be generated by a phase-locked-loop to get

"channel switching" facilities. The frequency modulation may then be generated by applying the
audio signal to the PLL.

The Frequency Multiplier stage is an RF amplifier with a tuned output - the output tuned to a
harmonic of the input signal.

Question File: 18. Transmitter Block Diagrams: (2 questions)

1. In the transmitter block diagram shown, the "oscillator":

a. is variable in frequency
b. generates an audio frequency tone during tests
c. uses a crystal for good frequency stability
d. may have a calibrated dial

OP
==================
2. In the transmitter block diagram shown, the "balanced modulator":

L
YO
a. balances the high and low frequencies in the audio signal
b. performs double sideband suppressed carrier modulation
c. acts as a tone control
d. balances the standing wave ratio
Y
==================
3. In the transmitter block diagram shown, the "filter":
O
AK

a. removes mains hum from the audio signal

b. suppresses unwanted harmonics of the RF signal
M

c. removes one sideband from the modulated signal

d. removes the carrier component from the modulated signal
==================

4. In the transmitter block diagram shown, the "mixer":

a. adds the correct proportion of carrier to the SSB signal

b. mixes the audio and RF signals in the correct proportions
c. translates the SSB signal to the required frequency
d. mixes the two sidebands in the correct proportions
==================
5. In the transmitter block diagram shown, the "linear amplifier":

L OP
a. has all components arranged in-line
b. amplifies the modulated signal with no distortion
YO
c. aligns the two sidebands correctly
d. removes any unwanted amplitude modulation from the signal
==================
6. In the transmitter block diagram shown, the "VFO" is:
O Y
AK

a. a voice frequency oscillator

b. a varactor fixed oscillator
c. a virtual faze oscillator
d. a variable frequency oscillator
==================
M

7. In the transmitter block diagram shown, the "master oscillator" produces:

a. a steady signal at the required carrier frequency

b. a pulsating signal at the required carrier frequency
c. a 800 Hz signal to modulate the carrier
d. a modulated CW signal
==================
8. In the transmitter block diagram shown, the "driver buffer":

L OP
a. filters any sharp edges from the input signal
b.
YO
drives the power amplifier into saturation
c. provides isolation between the oscillator and power amplifier
d. changes the frequency of the master oscillator signal
==================
9. In the transmitter block diagram shown, the "Morse key":
O Y
AK

a. turns the DC power to the transmitter on and off

b. allows the oscillator signal to pass only when the key is depressed
c. changes the frequency of the transmitted signal when the key is
depressed
M

d. adds an 800 Hz audio tone to the signal when the key is depressed
==================

10. In the transmitter block diagram shown, the "power amplifier":

a. need not have linear characteristics

b. amplifies the bandwidth of its input signal
c. must be adjusted during key-up conditions
d. should be water-cooled
==================
11. In the transmitter block diagram shown, the "speech amplifier":

OP
a. amplifies the audio signal from the microphone

L
b. is a spectral equalization entropy changer
c. amplifies only speech, while discriminating against background noises
YO
d. shifts the frequency spectrum of the audio signal into the RF region
==================
12. In the transmitter block diagram shown, the "modulator":
O Y

a. is an amplitude modulator with feedback

b. is an SSB modulator with feedback
c. causes the speech waveform to gate the oscillator on and off
AK

d. causes the speech waveform to shift the frequency of the oscillator

==================
13. In the transmitter block diagram shown, the "oscillator" is:
M

a. an audio frequency oscillator

b. a variable frequency RF oscillator
c. a beat frequency oscillator
d. a variable frequency audio oscillator
==================

14. In the transmitter block diagram shown, the "frequency multiplier":

a. translates the frequency of the modulated signal into the RF spectrum

b. changes the frequency of the speech signal
c. produces a harmonic of the oscillator signal
d. multiplies the oscillator signal by the speech signal
==================
15. In the transmitter block diagram shown, the "power amplifier":

OP
a. increases the voltage of the mains to drive the antenna
b. amplifies the audio frequency component of the signal
c. amplifies the selected sideband to a suitable level

L
d. amplifies the RF signal to a suitable level
==================
YO
16. The signal from an amplitude modulated transmitter consists of:
a. a carrier and two sidebands
b. a carrier and one sideband
c. no carrier and two sidebands
d. no carrier and one sideband
Y
==================
17. The signal from a frequency modulated transmitter has:
a. an amplitude which varies with the modulating waveform
O

b. a frequency which varies with the modulating waveform

c. a single sideband which follows the modulating waveform
AK

d. no sideband structure
==================
18. The signal from a balanced modulator consists of:
a. a carrier and two sidebands
b. a carrier and one sideband
M

c. no carrier and two sidebands

d. no carrier and one sideband
==================
19. The signal from a CW transmitter consists of:
a. a continuous, unmodulated RF waveform
b. a continuous RF waveform modulated with an 800 Hz Morse signal
c. an RF waveform which is keyed on and off to form Morse characters
d. a continuous RF waveform which changes frequency in synchronism
with an applied Morse signal
==================

20. The following signal can be amplified using a non-linear amplifier:

a. SSB
b. FM
c. AM
d. DSBSC
==================

L OP
YO
O Y
AK
M

Section 19 Transmitter Theory

The Power Rating of a SSB linear amplifier

A power amplifier for SSB operation is required to be linear. This means that the
waveform of the output signal must be a replica of the input waveform in all ways
except amplitude - the output must be an amplified version of the input! The
maximum power output before severe distortion takes place is the limit of
successful linear amplifier operation.
The power output at the maximum level is the usual rating given for a linear
amplifier. This is known as the "Peak Envelope Power", PEP.
The PEP is by definition, the average power output during one RF cycle at the
crest of the modulating envelope.
The PEP rating and measurement are also sometimes used for amplifiers for

OP
other modes.
The RF output power from an amplifier is less than the total DC input power and
signal input power to the amplifier. The difference is energy loss and appears as
heat. Cooling facilities - fans etc. - are sometimes found on solid-state power
amplifiers for protection from over-heating.

L
YO
Question File: 19. Transmitter Theory: (1 question)
1. Morse code is usually transmitted by radio as:
a. an interrupted carrier
b. a voice modulated carrier
c. a continuous carrier
Y

d. a series of clicks
==================
O

2. To obtain high frequency stability in a transmitter, the VFO should be:

a. run from a non-regulated AC supply
b. in a plastic box
AK

c. powered from a regulated DC supply

d. able to change frequency with temperature
==================
3. SSB transmissions:
M

a. occupy about twice the bandwidth of AM transmissions

b. contain more information than AM transmissions
c. occupy about half the bandwidth of AM transmissions
d. are compatible with FM transmissions
==================

4. The purpose of a balanced modulator in a SSB transmitter is to:

a. make sure that the carrier and both sidebands are in phase
b. make sure that the carrier and both sidebands are 180 degrees out of
phase
c. ensure that the percentage of modulation is kept constant
d. suppress the carrier while producing two sidebands
==================
5. Several stations advise that your FM simplex transmission in the "two
metre" band is distorted. The cause might be that:
a. the transmitter modulation deviation is too high
b. your antenna is too low
c. the transmitter has become unsynchronised
d. your transmitter frequency split is incorrect
==================

OP
6. The driver stage of a transmitter is located:
a. before the power amplifier
b. between oscillator and buffer
c. with the frequency multiplier
d. after the output low-pass filter circuit

L
==================
7. The purpose of the final amplifier in a transmitter is to:
YO
a. increase the frequency of a signal
b. isolate the multiplier and later stages
c. produce a stable radio frequency
d. increase the power fed to the antenna
==================
8. The difference between DC input power and RF power output of a
Y

transmitter RF amplifier:
a. radiates from the antenna
O

b. is dissipated as heat
c. is lost in the feedline
AK

d. is due to oscillating current

==================
9. The process of modulation allows:
a. information to be impressed on to a carrier
b. information to be removed from a carrier
M

c. voice and Morse code to be combined

d. none of these
==================
10. The output power rating of a linear amplifier in a SSB transmitter is
specified by the:
a. peak DC input power
b. mean AC input power
c. peak envelope power
d. unmodulated carrier power
==================

Section 20 Harmonics and Parasitics

Harmonics

Harmonics are multiples of a transmitted frequency which are the result of a non-
linear action. They are present in any signal which has a distorted sinewave.
Harmonics are the even or odd multiple of the fundamental transmitted
frequency. For example, a transmitter at 3.5 MHz would have harmonics at 7,
10.5, 14, etc MHz.
Harmonics are typically produced by an over-driven stage somewhere in the
system. An example is over-modulation of a transmitter ("flat-topping"). Reducing
the microphone gain in this case will significantly reduce the harmonic output.

OP
Harmonic interference occurs at distinct frequencies.
Harmonics should be suspected if a transmitter on a lower frequency causes
interference to a frequency which is a multiple of it. For example, a transmitter on
the 10m band, at say 28 MHz, could cause interference to a television receiver
receiving on TV Channel 2, which is 54 to 61 MHz. The probable cause is the

L
second harmonic 2 x 28 = 56 MHz.
For TV and other frequency use, refer to the NZART CallBook (Page 8-9 in the
YO
1998/99 edition) for the New Zealand Radio Spectrum Usage. This information
is also available from the Ministry of Commerce web page - look for document
PIB21 at: http://www.med.govt.nz/rsm/planning/nztable.html
Harmonics can be produced within transmitters and receivers or outside of both.
Harmonics generated within a transmitter must be filtered out. A filter in the
output lead is usually installed by manufacturers. External filters are also used.
Y

Harmonics generated within a receiver generally cause cross- modulation or

intermodulation.
O

Harmonics can also be generated by external causes - for example a bad

connection between two metal surfaces, e.g. gutters, metal roofing, and
AK

antennas. The joint can oxidise and form a poor quality diode which when excited
by an RF field produces harmonics
Harmonics which are not exactly on the frequency being received can sometimes
be removed with a selective filter - band reject, high pass or low pass.
Generally, harmonics should be suppressed at their source.
M

Parasitic oscillations
With parasitic signals there is no simple mathematical relationship between the
operating frequency and the interfering frequency. The effects may be the same
as with harmonics - a VHF receiver being interfered with by a HF transmission.
The cause is an additional and undesired oscillation from an oscillator or amplifier
for which it was not designed. The circuit functions normally but the parasitic
oscillation occurs simultaneously.
Parasitics are suppressed by adding additional components to the circuit to
suppress the undesired oscillation without affecting the primary function of the
circuit. A typical solution is to add a VHF choke (an inductor) or a small-value
resistor (a "stopper") somewhere close to the active component in the offending
circuit.

OP
Question File: 20. Harmonics and Parasitics: (2 questions)
1. A harmonic of a signal transmitted at 3525 kHz would be expected to
occur at:

L
a. 3573 kHz
b. 7050 kHz
YO
c. 14025 kHz
d. 21050 kHz
==================
2. The third harmonic of 7 MHz is:
a. 10 MHz
Y
b. 14 MHz
c. 21 MHz
O

d. 28 MHz
==================
3. The fifth harmonic of 7 MHz is:
AK

a. 12 MHz
b. 19 MHz
c. 28 MHz
d. 35 MHz
==================
M

4. Excessive harmonic output may be produced in a transmitter by:

a. a linear amplifier
b. a low SWR
c. resonant circuits
d. overdriven amplifier stages
==================
5. Harmonics may be produced in the RF power amplifier of a transmitter if:
a. the modulation level is too low
b. the modulation level is too high
c. the oscillator frequency is unstable
d. modulation is applied to more than one stage
==================

6. Harmonics produced in an early stage of a transmitter may be reduced in

a later stage by:
a. increasing the signal input to the final stage
b. using FET power amplifiers
c. using tuned circuit coupling between stages
d. using larger value coupling capacitors
==================
7. Harmonics are produced when:
a. a resonant circuit is detuned
b. negative feedback is applied to an amplifier
c. a transistor is biased for class A operation
d. a sine wave is distorted
==================
8. Harmonic frequencies are:

OP
a. always lower in frequency than the fundamental frequency
b. at multiples of the fundamental frequency
c. any unwanted frequency above the fundamental frequency
d. any frequency causing TVI
==================

L
9. An interfering signal from a transmitter has a frequency of 57 MHz. This
signal could be the:
YO
a. seventh harmonic of an 80 meter transmission
b. third harmonic of a 15 metre transmission
c. second harmonic of a 10 metre transmission
d. crystal oscillator operating on its fundamental
==================
10. To minimise the radiation of one particular harmonic, one can use a:
Y

a. wave trap in the transmitter output

b. resistor
O

c. high pass filter in the transmitter output

d. filter in the receiver lead
AK

==================
11. A low-pass filter is used in the antenna lead from a transmitter:
a. to reduce key clicks developed in a CW transmitter
b. to increase harmonic radiation
c. to eliminate chirp in CW transmissions
M

d. to reduce radiation of harmonics

==================
12. The following is installed in the transmission line as close as possible to
a HF transmitter to reduce harmonic output:
a. a middle-pass filter
b. a low-pass filter
c. a high-pass filter
d. a band-reject filter
==================

13. A low pass filter will:

a. suppress sub-harmonics
b. reduce harmonics
c. always eliminate interference
d. improve harmonic radiation
==================
14. A spurious transmission from a transmitter is:
a. an unwanted emission unrelated to the output signal frequency
b. an unwanted emission that is harmonically related to the modulating
audio frequency
c. generated at 50 Hz
d. the main part of the modulated carrier
==================
15. A parasitic oscillation:

OP
a. is an unwanted signal developed in a transmitter
b. is generated by parasitic elements of a Yagi beam
c. does not cause any radio interference
d. is produced in a transmitter oscillator stage
==================

L
16. Parasitic oscillations in a RF power amplifier can be suppressed by:
a. pulsing the supply voltage
YO
b. placing suitable chokes, ferrite beads or resistors within the amplifier
c. screening all input leads
d. using split-stator tuning capacitors
==================
17. Parasitic oscillations in the RF power amplifier stage of a transmitter may
occur:
Y

a. at low frequencies only

b. on harmonic frequencies
O

c. at high frequencies only

d. at high or low frequencies
AK

==================
18. Transmitter power amplifiers can generate parasitic oscillations on:
a. the transmitter's output frequency
b. harmonics of the transmitter's output frequency
c. frequencies unrelated to the transmitter's output frequency
M

d. VHF frequencies only

==================
19. Parasitic oscillations tend to occur in:
a. high voltage rectifiers
b. high gain amplifier stages
c. antenna matching circuits
d. SWR bridges
==================

20. Parasitic oscillations can cause interference. They are:

a. always the same frequency as the mains supply
b. always twice the operating frequency
c. not related to the operating frequency
d. three times the operating frequency
==================

L OP
YO
O Y
AK
M

Section 21 Power Supplies

The typical power supply

OP
The purpose of a power supply is to take electrical energy in one form and
convert it into another. The usual example is to take supply from 230V AC mains
and convert it into smooth DC.

L
YO
This DC may be at 200 volt to provide (say) 200 mA as the high tension source
for valve operation, or 5 volt at (say) 1 Amp to feed transistors and other solid-
state devices.

The above diagram shows the separate stages in this conversion. Each will be
considered in turn.
Y

Protection
O

There should always be a fuse in the phase or active AC mains lead for
protection if a fault develops in the equipment. The fuse should be of the correct
AK

rating for the task.

Keep some spare fuses handy!

The transformer
M

When two inductors (or more) are mounted together

so their electromagnetic fields interact, we have a
transformer. A power supply almost invariably,
contains a transformer.
A transformer generally comprises two (or more)
sets of coils (or windings) on a single core, designed
so that maximum interaction and magnetic coupling
takes place. The windings are insulated from each other and insulated from the
core. The windings may be wound on top of each other.
At low frequencies the core may be made up from thin laminated soft-iron plates
forming closed loops and designed to reduce eddy current losses. At higher

frequencies the core may be dust-iron, ceramic ferrite, or air-cored (as for RF
coils).

The winding used to generate the magnetic flux is called the primary (connected
to the AC supply). The winding in which current is induced is the secondary (or
secondaries).

The input supply must be an alternating current. The input current sets up a
changing magnetic field around the input or primary winding. That field sweeps
the secondary and induces a current in that secondary winding.
The "turns ratio"
The number of turns on each winding determines the output voltage from the
transformer. The output voltage from the secondary is proportional to the ratio of
the turns on the windings.

OP
For example, if the secondary has half as many turns as there are on the primary,
and 100V AC is applied to the primary, the output will be 50V.

Transformers can be step-up or step-down (in voltage). With twice as many turns

L
on the secondary as there are on the primary and 100 V applied, the output
would be 200V.
YO
A function of the transformer is to provide an AC supply at a voltage suitable for
rectifying to produce a stated DC output.
The power output from the secondary cannot exceed the power fed into the
primary. Ignoring losses, a step-down in voltage means that an increase in
current from that lower-voltage winding is possible. Similarly, a step-up in voltage
Y
means a decrease in the current output. So the gauge of wire used for the
secondary winding may be different to the wire used for the primary. (The term
O

"gauge of wire" refers to its cross-sectional area.)

There will be some energy losses in a transformer, usually appearing as heat.
AK

Rectifiers
There are three basic rectifier
M

configurations, half-wave, full-wave and

bridge. We will look at each in turn. We
will use semiconductor rectifiers only.
The half-wave rectifier
Here is a very basic power supply, a
transformer feeding a resistor as its load
with a rectifier inserted in the circuit.

Without the rectifier, the load would have the full secondary alternating voltage
appearing across it.

The rectifier will conduct each time its anode is positive with respect to its
cathode.

So when the end of the secondary winding shown + is positive, the diode acts as
a short-circuit and the + appears across the load. Current flows around the
secondary circuit for the time that the diode is conducting. The voltage drop
across the diode can be regarded as negligible - about 0.6 volt for a silicon
device.

The waveform appearing across the load is shown in red on the graph. One-half
cycle of the AC from the transformer is conducted by the rectifier, one half cycle
is stopped. This is pulsating DC - half-wave rectified AC. Later we will put this
through a filter to "smooth" it.
The full-wave rectifier
This is two half-wave rectifiers
combined - it uses a center-
tapped secondary winding and
one additional diode.

OP
Each side of the centre-tap has
the same number of turns as our
previous example - and each

L
"works" for half the cycle as our
half-wave rectifier did.
YO
The "top half" of the secondary
works with one diode like the half-
wave circuit we have just
considered.
Y

When the polarity of the

secondary changes, the upper
O

diode shuts off and the lower

diode conducts.
AK

The result is that the lower diode

"fills in" another half-cycle in the
waveform when the upper diode
is not conducting.
M

The bridge rectifier

This uses one single winding as
the secondary and four diodes -
two are conducting at any one time.
Note the configuration of the diodes:

Diodes on parallel sides "point" in the same directions.

The AC signal is fed to the points where a cathode and anode join.

The positive output is taken from the junction of two cathodes.

The other end of the load goes to the junction of two anodes.

The operation is simple: Parallel-side diodes conduct at the same time. Note that
the two + points are connected by a diode - same as in the two previous cases.
The other end of the load returns to the transformer via the other parallel diode.
When the polarity changes, the other two diodes conduct.

The output waveform is the same as the full-wave rectifier example shown
before.

The main advantage? A simpler transformer - no centre-tap and no extra winding.

Diodes can be small and cheap. A bridge rectifier can be purchased as a "block"
with four wire connections.

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Smoothing the output - the Filter
Each of the three circuits studied
above produces an output that is

L
DC, but it is DC with a waveform
showing a large "ripple". The ripple
YO
is the waveform shown in red in the
three examples. DC from a power
supply should be smooth and non-
varying in amplitude.
Y
The half-wave circuit produced a
ripple of the same frequency as the
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input signal, 50 Hz for input from a

mains supply.
AK

The other two examples produced

a ripple that is twice the frequency
of the mains supply - i.e. 100 Hz.

How can we remove the ripple? By

using a filter circuit comprising filter

capacitors and often a choke.

A capacitor wired across the load will charge up when the diode conducts and will
discharge after the diode has stopped conducting. This reduces the size of the
ripple. The blue lines in this diagram illustrate this.
The choice of capacitor is important. Electrolytic capacitors are generally used
because a very large value capacity can be obtained in a small and cheap
package.

The capacitor value chosen depends on the purpose for the supply. Capacities of
the order of thousands of microfarads are common for low-voltage supplies. For
supplies of 100V and upwards, the capacity is more likely to be 50 microfarad or
so. It depends on other factors too. The voltage rating of the capacitor and its

wiring polarity must be observed (electrolytic capacitors have + and -

connections).

When a diode conducts, it must supply current to the load as well as charge up
the capacitor. So the peak current passing through the diode can be very high.
The diode only conducts when its anode is more positive than its cathode. You
can see from the diagram how the addition of the capacitor has shortened this
time.

The switch-on current through a power supply diode must also be considered.
Charging a large capacitor from complete discharge will mean a high initial
current.
A choke and an additional capacitor are often used to filter the output from a
rectifier, as shown in this diagram.

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The choke is an iron-cored inductor made for the purpose and it must be able to
carry a rated DC current without its core saturating.

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Internal resistance
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All power supplies exhibit "internal resistance". A torch light will dim as its battery
ages. The internal resistance of its battery increases with age. On open circuit,
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without the bulb connected, i.e. with no load current being drawn, the battery may
show its normal voltage reading. When the load is applied and current flows, the
internal resistance becomes apparent and the output voltage "droops" or "sags".
AK

The effects of internal resistance can be reduced substantially by using a

"regulator". This added electronic circuitry "winds up the voltage" as the output
load current increases to keep the output voltage constant. It keeps the voltage
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constant as the load current widely varies

Choice of supply
A power supply (also a battery) must have sufficient reserve energy capacity to
provide adequate energy to the device it is working with. For example, pen-light
dry cells are not a substitute for a vehicle battery!

Similarly, a power supply for an amateur radio transceiver, (to substitute for a
vehicle battery), must be chosen with care to ensure that the maximum load
current can be supplied at the correct voltage rating without the voltage "sagging"
when the load is applied.

Question File: 21. Power supplies: (1 question):

1. A mains operated DC power supply:
a. converts DC from the mains into AC of the same voltage
b. converts energy from the mains into DC for operating electronic
equipment
c. is a diode-capacitor device for measuring mains power
d. is a diode-choked device for measuring inductance power
==================
2. The following unit in a DC power supply performs a rectifying operation:
a. an electrolytic capacitor
b. a fuse
c. a crowbar
d. a full-wave diode bridge
==================
3. The following unit in a DC power supply performs a smoothing operation:

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a. an electrolytic capacitor
b. a fuse
c. a crowbar
d. a full-wave diode bridge

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==================
4. The following could power a solid-state 10 watt VHF transceiver:
a. a 12 volt car battery
YO
b. 6 penlite cells in series
c. a 12 volt, 500 mA plug-pack
d. a 6 volt 10 Amp-hour Gel cell.
==================
5. A fullwave DC power supply operates from the New Zealand AC mains.
Y
The ripple frequency is:
a. 25 Hz
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b. 50 Hz
c. 70 Hz
d. 100 Hz
AK

==================
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6. The capacitor value best suited for smoothing the output of a 12 volt 1
amp DC power supply is:
a. 100 pF
b. 10 nF
c. 100 nF
d. 10,000 uF
==================
7. The following should always be included as a standard protection device
in any power supply:
a. a saturating transformer
b. a fuse in the mains lead
c. a zener diode bridge limiter
d. a fuse in the filter capacitor negative lead
==================

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8. A halfwave DC power supply operates from the New Zealand AC mains.
The ripple frequency will be:
a. 25 Hz
b. 50 Hz
c. 70 Hz

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d. 100 Hz
==================
YO
9. The output voltage of a DC power supply decreases when current is
drawn from it because:
a. drawing output current causes the input mains voltage to decrease
b. drawing output current causes the input mains frequency to decrease
c. all power supplies have some internal resistance
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d. some power is reflected back into the mains.
==================
10. Electrolytic capacitors are used in power supplies because:
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a. they are tuned to operate at 50 Hz

b. they have very low losses compared to other types
AK

c. they radiate less RF noise than other types

d. they can be obtained in larger values than other types
==================
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Section 22 Regulated Power Supplies

The need for voltage regulation
A voltage regulator is added to a power supply to minimise the "voltage droop" or
"sag" when the load is applied and when the current load varies widely..
Some loads, for example a SSB transceiver, present a wide-changing current
requirement. The power supply current for a SSB transceiver, supplied from a car
battery, can fluctuate while the operator is speaking from a few amps to 50 amp
or more, depending upon its transmitter power rating. The battery voltage must
remain at a constant level throughout.
Similarly, a mains-powered power supply must be able to keep a constant
voltage throughout a wide current range.
A regulated power supply has another stage added to follow the filter:

L OP
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A simple regulator
A zener diode is a silicon diode with
a special level of doping to set its
reverse break-down voltage level. It
Y
forms a simple regulator for low-
voltage and small-current loads. The
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zener diode is reverse-biased and

the reverse current is determined by
the break-down voltage which
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depends on the doping level of the

silicon. The breakdown voltage is
repetitive provided the maximum
power dissipation is not exceeded. There is a catalogue choice of zener diode
across a wide range of voltages. The zener effect occurs below 5 volt, above 5
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volt the avalanche effect is used.

The resistor R is to limit the current through the diode and the load.

The Three-Terminal Regulator

This is an example of a regulator package, a 78LO5. It looks like a standard
transistor but it is a complete regulator for supplying a 5 volt output from (say) a
12 volt DC input. There are many other similar devices available for similar
purposes. The pin-connection details are given. ("Three-legged regulators".)

The diode D1 is a hold-off diode, for protection against the possibility of the input
connections being inadvertently reversed.
The diode will not conduct with reverse input potential so the regulator is
protected. Diode D2 is protection for the device itself from a higher voltage
appearing at its output compared to the input terminal.

L OP
YO
The Series Pass Regulator
A power transistor can be used to control the output voltage from a supply.
A power transistor (or several in parallel) is in series with the output. The base is
fed from a separately-regulated supply such as a three-terminal regulator or a
zener diode. The transistor is in an emitter-follower configuration. Its emitter
Y

contains the load and the emitter follows the voltage at the base.
O
AK

Protective measures
All the regulator circuits considered above require the input voltage to be
considerably higher than the output. If the regulator fails, there is the distinct
possibility that excessive voltage will be applied to the load. Over-voltage could
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damage the load and be very expensive if the load was a transceiver!
An electronic device known as a "crowbar" is usually installed to protect the load
as a "last ditch" measure in the case of a regulator failure. The crowbar senses
an over-voltage condition on the supply's output and acts instantly, firing a
shorting device (usually a silicon-controlled-rectifier) across the supply output.
This causes high currents in the supply which blows the mains fuse and
effectively turns the supply off.
Current-limiting is another protective measure usually incorporated in a
regulated supply. This is to reduce the current through the regulator to a low
value under excessive load or short-circuit conditions to protect the series pass

transistor from excessive power dissipation and possible destruction.

Question File: 22. Regulated Power supplies: (1 question):

1. The block marked 'Filter' in the diagram is to:

a. filter RF radiation from the output of the power supply

b. smooth the rectified waveform from the rectifier
c. act as a 50 Hz tuned circuit

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d. restore voltage variations
==================
2. The block marked 'Regulator' in the diagram is to:

L
YO
a. regulate the incoming mains voltage to a constant value
b. ensure that the output voltage never exceeds a dangerous value
c. keep the incoming frequency constant at 50 Hz
d. keep the output voltage at a constant value
Y
==================
O
AK
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3. The block marked 'Transformer' in the diagram is to:

a. transform the incoming mains AC voltage to a DC voltage

b. ensure that any RF radiation cannot get into the power supply
c. transform the mains AC voltage to a more convenient AC voltage
d. transform the mains AC waveform into a higher frequency waveform
==================
4. The block marked 'Rectifier' in the diagram is to:

OP
a. turn the AC voltage from the transformer into a fluctuating DC voltage
b. rectify any waveform errors introduced by the transformer

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c. turn the sinewave output of the rectifier into a square wave
d. Smooth the DC waveform
YO
==================
5. The block marked 'Regulator' in the diagram could consist of:
Y

a. four silicon power diodes in a regulator configuration

b. two silicon power diodes and a centre-tapped transformer

c. a three-terminal regulator chip
d. a single silicon power diode connected as a half-wave rectifier
AK

==================
6. In the block marked regulator below, a reverse diode may be present
across the regulator. Its job is to:
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a. Block negative voltages from appearing at the output

b. Blow a fuse if high voltages occur at the output
c. Blow a fuse if negative currents occur at the output
d. Bypass the regulator for higher voltage at its output compared with its
input
==================

7. A power supply is to power a solid-state transceiver. A suitable over-

voltage protection device is a:
a. crowbar across the regulator output
b. 100 uF capacitor across the transformer output
c. fuse in parallel with the regulator output
d. zener diode in series with the regulator
==================
8. In a regulated power supply, the 'crowbar' is a:
a. means to lever up the output voltage
b. circuit for testing mains fuses
c. last-ditch protection against failure of the regulator in the supply
d. convenient means to move such a heavy supply unit
==================
9. In a regulated power supply, 'current limiting' is sometimes used to:

OP
a. prevent transformer core saturation
b. protect the mains fuse
c. minimise short-circuit current passing through the regulator
d. eliminate earth-leakage effects
==================

L
10. The purpose of a series pass transistor in a regulated power supply is to:
a. suppress voltage spikes across the transformer secondary winding
YO
b. work as a surge multiplier to speed up regulation
c. amplify output voltage errors to assist regulation
d. Allow for higher current to be supplied than the regulator would otherwise
allow
==================
O Y
AK
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Section 23 General Operating Procedures

Note: This section includes:

Signal Reporting, QSL cards, the Phonetic

Alphabet, and
Morse code abbreviations.
You have passed the examination, been issued a licence, and have a callsign.
You have acquired a transmitter and receiver. You are now set to begin

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operating.

Golden Rules of Operating

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LISTEN: This is the first rule. The strongest reason for listening before
transmitting is to ensure that you won't interfere with anyone already using the
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frequency. The second reason for listening is that it may tell you a great deal
about the condition of the bands. Although a band may be dead by popular
consent at a particular time, frequent openings occur which you can take
advantage of if you are listening at the right time. The third reason for listening is
that if you can't hear 'em you are not likely to work 'em. Several short calls with
plenty of listening spells will net you more contacts than a single long call. If you
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are running low power you may find it more fruitful to reply to someone else's CQ
rather than call CQ yourself.
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KEEP IT SHORT: If we all listened and never called, the bands would be very
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quiet indeed. So, if after listening, you have not made a contact, call CQ. The
rules for calling CQ are:

1. Use your callsign frequently. Whoever you are calling knows their own
callsign. They are interested in finding out yours.
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2. Keep it short. Either they have heard you or they haven't. Either way, it is a
waste of time giving a long call. If they are having difficulty in hearing you, use
phonetics, but keep the overs as short as possible.

3. Examples:

When using CW send a 3 by 3 CQ. This means the letters CQ sent three times,
followed by your callsign sent three times, and then the same group sent again,
for example:

CQ CQ CQ de ZL1XYZ ZL1XYZ ZL1XYZ

sent twice and finally end with the letter K (for over) after the second group.

It is a nice and polite touch to add the endpiece "pse" (please):

"CQ CQ CQ de ZL1XYZ ZL1XYZ ZL1XYZ PSE K".

For voice operation you should repeat your call phonetically, for example:

CQ CQ CQ from ZL1XYZ ZL1XYZ ZL1XYZ

ZULU LIMA ONE X-RAY YANKEE ZULU
maybe three times and finish with:
calling CQ and listening.

OP
4. Don't attempt to engage in DX "pileups" (many stations calling a rare callsign
station) until you understand the accepted conventions for calling and replying.

A very bad practice may be observed in this activity. A station calling may carry

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out what amounts to an endurance exercise on the basis that the station who
calls the longest gets the contact, purely because it is the only one that the DX
YO
station can hear clearly. This is unacceptable behaviour and should be avoided.

5. When you have made contact with that rare DX station make sure that they
have your call and town correctly, give her/him your honest report, log your
contact details, and then let the next station have its turn. Rare DX stations are
not usually interested in the state of the weather in Eketahuna.
Y

DO UNTO OTHERS: This rule if faithfully applied, would make the crowded HF
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bands far more tolerable.

1. Don't interfere with another station for any reason (except in extreme
emergency).

2. Don't use full power to tune your antenna to resonance or when making
matching adjustments with your antenna tuner. Always use a dummy load, or a
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noise bridge which enables you to tune your antenna accurately before
transmitting.

3. Keep your power down to the minimum required for good communication.

4. Don't use excess audio drive or compression. This causes splatter and
interference to other stations.

If there are other amateur operators in the area, it is courteous to make yourself
known to them when you first begin transmitting. Check for things like cross
modulation problems. If you are causing another amateur interference which is
unrelated to equipment faults, you will have to come to a mutual arrangement
about transmitting hours. The above suggestions apply to all modes of operation.

Some modes have their own particular rules, and these will be discussed in detail
separately.

Repeater Operation

Repeaters were set up to provide a wider coverage on VHF and UHF as well as
to provide facilities for emergency communication. So there are special rules
governing repeater operation.

1. Keep contacts short. Three minutes is the generally accepted maximum

length for an over using a repeater.

2. Leave a pause between overs. This is to enable weak stations with

emergency traffic to make contact. Three seconds is the accepted break.

OP
4. Don't tune up on a repeater's input frequency.

These are the main rules for using repeaters.

L
Other points to note when using repeaters or working simplex channels are:
YO
1. Long CQs are not necessary or desirable on VHF or UHF channels. Just
report that you are monitoring the channel. If anyone is listening and wants to
contact you they will respond to your brief call.

2. When you want to contact someone through a repeater, it is not necessary to

give a series of long calls. Either they are listening or they are not. A short call
Y

followed by: are you are about Bill and Ben? will usually bring forth a response.
Some people respond to their name rather than to their callsign.
O

Do not keep triggering the repeater to make sure that it is there. This annoys the
AK

other people who monitor the repeater and it is not a good operating practice. A
better way to announce your presence is to call and request a signal report from
someone who may be monitoring the repeater. This may also result in an
interesting and unexpected contact.
M

CW - or Morse Code - operating

Although CW operating appears to be slow compared with the use of voice,

widespread use of abbreviations enables a CW contact to be conducted quite
quickly. The first point to master in CW operation is the meaning of the various
abbreviations for words and phrases in common use. A list is given below.

Other expressions are also used. An expression such as "up 2" means that the
operator will be listening 2 kHz higher up the band at the end of his call.

The international Q-Code is also used for common instructions and consists of
three-letter groups, each of which has a well defined meaning. The Q code is
used to ask a question when followed by a question mark, and also used to
provide a reply. For instance, if you are asked QRS? it means that the operator

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you are contacting is asking, should I send more slowly. The reply could be QRS
12 or whatever speed is suitable to the receiving operator.

When used on voice transmissions, many of the Q code signals take on a slightly
different meaning, for instance the letters QRP indicate, low power, and QRX

L
means, standby.
YO
Operating CW is slightly different from voice transmission in that it is essential for
the beginner to write everything down. As you become more proficient you will be
able to copy in your head, but this comes only with practice.

Have a good supply of writing material handy. It adds to your difficulties if, when
having to copy an incoming signal, pencils are lost, or blunt, or the supply of
Y

paper has run out. In your early days of CW sending, it helps to have a sheet of
card on which is printed the name of your town, your own name, and a few
O

details of the weather and so on. It is amazing how easy it is to forget even the
spelling of your own name in morse code when in the middle of a contact.
AK

Operating convenience is fairly easy to arrange and gives a conversational style

to CW transmissions. It also enables you to hear any interference on the
frequency, and you can then stop to find out if you are still being heard. When
calling CQ pause frequently.
M

Voice operation

A lot of your operation on the bands will be by voice, whether in the SSB or FM
modes. Here are a few do's and don'ts.

1. Speak clearly into the microphone. It is a good idea to contact a local

operator and ask for a critical report. Adjust your speaking distance from the
microphone and audio gain control to obtain the best results. If you change your
microphone or transceiver, repeat the process with the new equipment. It is often
better to talk across the microphone instead of into it.

2. If conditions are difficult, use phonetics . A copy of the standard phonetic

alphabet is below. This list is used and understood by all operators and will get
through far better than any other phonetics you may invent.

3. During overseas contacts the use of local slang and abbreviations should
be avoided as the person you are contacting may have only sufficient English to
provide the essential QSL information.

4. The voice equivalent of break-in keying is VOX. This enables the transmitter
to be automatically turned on with the first syllable of speech. Adjustments are
provided on transceivers fitted with VOX which enable the audio gain, delay, and
anti-vox, to be adjusted. These controls should be carefully set so that the
transmitter is turned on as soon as speech commences, and that the delay is just
sufficient to hold the transmitter on during the space between words, but released
during a reasonable pause in the conversation. This will enable your contact to
reply quickly to a comment, and permits an easy conversational flow.

OP
Signal reporting

L
The RST system of signal reporting is based on a scale of 1 to 5 for readability,
and 1 to 9 for signal strength. A tone figure of 1 to 9 is also given in the case of
YO
CW reports - for the purity of tone.

The RST System:

READABILITY
Y
1 - Unreadable
2 - Barely readable, occasional words distinguishable
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3 - Readable with considerable difficulty

4 - Readable with practically no difficulty
5 - Perfectly readable
AK

SIGNAL STRENGTH
1 - Faint signals, barely perceptible
2 - Very weak signals
3 - Weak Signals
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4 - Fair signals
5 - Fairly good signals
6 - Good signals
7 - Moderately strong signals
8 - Strong signals
9 - Extremely strong signals
TONE
1 - AC hum, very rough and broad
2 - Very rough ac, very harsh and broad
3 - Rough ac tone, rectified but not filtered
4 - Rough note, some trace of filtering
5 - Filtered rectified ac but strong ripple modulated
6 - Filtered tone, definite trace of ripple modulation

7 - Near pure tone, trace of ripple modulation

8 - near perfect tone, slight trace of modulation
9 - Perfect tone, no trace of ripple or modulation of any kind

The R readability part of the report is usually easy to resolve with a fair degree of
honesty, although you will sometimes hear a report of readability 5, and "could
you please repeat your name and location"!

The biggest problem in reporting seems to be the accuracy of the S signal

strength reports.

Some receivers are fitted with an "S" meter. The indication

is usually related to the receiver's AGC level. AGC The
meter may be a moving-coil or an LED bargraph. The
usual scale is for an increase of +6 dB in the receiver

OP
input signal for each "S" point up to S9, with a +20 dB
indication then up to +60 dB. In practice, on the HF bands,
an S meter needle makes wide changes and at best is just
a simple indicator of variations in the propagation path . Its

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best use may be for comparing two incoming signals,
such as when your contact station changes antennas.
YO
Variations in equipment, propagation, the type of antenna and power of the
equipment used by the operator at the other end, can all influence a signal
strength report. With these variables the best you can do is to be consistent in the
signal strength reports you give and hope that your contact does the same. This
applies particularly to DX contacts. However, if your local contacts begin to give
Y

you reports that are at variance with what you normally receive, it's time to have a
good look at your antenna and equipment, as something may have become
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disconnected or out of adjustment.

The T part of the RST reporting system refers to the tone of the received signal
and is used in CW reporting. On a scale of 1 to 9, a 1 would indicate a heavy AC
hum. A 9, indicates a clean tone, as from a sine wave audio oscillator. It is
unusual to hear a signal that is not T9 these days. The numbers in between give
variations of the above conditions. Again, honesty of reporting. If a signal is not
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up to standard tell the operator. He will appreciate it. If your signal is not up to
scratch, fix it. You owe this to other users of the bands.

When using FM these signal reports become meaningless. The audio level of an
FM signal will not change with an increase in signal strength — the background
noise will drop as the signal strength increases. This is called "quieting". A typical
report could be "strength 5, very little noise". Signal reports from a repeater are
generally meaningless, but a report to a user that he is fully limiting the repeater,
or that his signal is breaking badly will sometimes help someone who may be
checking a new site, or trying to access a repeater that he has not been able to
work into before.

Other modes

The original digital means of communication was the Morse code and this is still
in use as a method of transferring information by means other than voice. Today
however Morse has been joined by a number of other methods each with its own
advantages and disadvantages. RTTY, AMTOR, and Packet Radio, have all
been given a great boost with the arrival of the computer and the advent of
satellites with store and forward facilities. It is now possible to pass information to
many parts of the world with a hand held transceiver, modem, and computer.
Each of these means of communication has its own particular operating protocol
and a study of it is well worthwhile before you venture into digital
communications. DIGITAL

Confirming the contact - QSL cards Q-Code

Most amateurs follow up a contact with an exchange of QSL cards to confirm the

OP
contact. When you design one for yourself, remember that these cards are
sometimes used to obtain awards and certificates and if used for this purpose
must contain the following information:

1. Your callsign, the callsign of the station worked, and your address. This should

L
appear on the same side as other QSL information.
YO
2. The date and time of the contact. The date should have the name of the
month written. For example, 5 March 1990. In the United States 5/3/90 means
May 3rd 1990. Times should be expressed in Universal Time. If local time is used
this should be stated. Remember that when using Universal Time, the date
changes at midday in New Zealand. (1 p.m. during daylight saving time.)
Y

3 Signal Report.
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4. Frequency of operation.
AK

5. Mode of operation. Some awards require the mode used by both stations to
be stated. For example, 2-way SSB.

6. If the card is to be sent through the NZART QSL Bureau, the call of the
station to whom the card is to be sent should be printed on the back of the card. If
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a QSL manager is used by the recipient, that is the call that should be used.

7. Other information which may be included is a description of equipment,

NZART Branch number, County, and Maidenhead Locator.

The New Zealand Association of Radio Transmitters, NZART, operates a QSL

bureau. Cards may be forwarded through this if you are a member. Details of the
bureau are in the Annual NZART CallBook. If you send a card direct, it is a
courtesy to send a self-addressed envelope and international reply coupons to
cover the cost of return postage.

L OP
YO
O Y
AK
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Frequency Bands and Metres

Amateur Radio frequency bands are often referred to in terms of wavelength.

This Table relates the frequency bands to the wavelength equivalent:

Table of Frequency Bands and Metres equivalent:

Frequency Band Metre

Band
165-190 kHz 1750 metres
1800-1950 kHz 160 metres
3.50-3.90 MHz 80 metres
7.00-7.30 MHz 40 metres
10.10-10.15 MHz 30 metres

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14.00-14.350 MHz 20 metres
18.068-18.168 17 metres
MHz
21.00-21.45MHz 15 metres
24.89-24.99 MHz 12 metres

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27.12 MHz 11 metres
28.00-29.70 MHz 10 metres
YO
50.00-54.00 MHz 6 metres
144.0-148.0 MHz 2 metres
430-440 MHz 70
centimetres
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The Phonetic Alphabet:

This is an extract from the International Radio Regulations:

APPENDIX S14
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Phonetic Alphabet

When it is necessary to spell out call signs, service abbreviations and words, the
following letter spelling table shall be used:

Letter to be Code word to Spoken as*

transmitted be used
A Alfa AL FAH
B Bravo BRAH VOH
C Charlie CHAR LEE or SHAR LEE
D Delta DELL TAH
E Echo ECK OH
F Foxtrot FOKS TROT

G Golf GOLF
H Hotel HOH TELL
I India IN DEE AH
J Juliett JEW LEE ETT
K Kilo KEY LOH
L Lima LEE MAH
M Mike MIKE
N November NO VEM BER
O Oscar OSS CAH
P Papa PAH PAH
Q Quebec KEH BECK
R Romeo ROW ME OH
S Sierra SEE AIR RAH

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T Tango TANG GO
U Uniform YOU NEE FORM or
OO NEE FORM
V Victor VIK TAH

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W Whiskey WISS KEY
X X-ray ECKS RAY
YO
Y Yankee YANG KEY
Z Zulu ZOO LOO

The following are general phonetics used by radio amateurs:

Figure or mark to be Code word Spoken as*

transmitted to be used
0 zero ZAY-ROH
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1 one WUN
2 two TOO
3 three THREE
4 four FOWER
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5 five FIVE
6 six SIX
7 seven SEVEN
8 eight AIT
9 nine NINE
Decimal point Decimal DAY-SEE-MAL
Full stop Stop STOP

Morse code abbreviations

AA all after
AB all before
ABT about
AGN again
ANT antenna
BC broadcast interference
BCNU be seeing you
CK check
CL closing down
CPI copy
CQ calling all stations

OP
CUD could
CUL see you later
DE this is; from
DX distant foreign countries
ES and

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FB fine; excellent
GB goodbye
YO
GE good evening
GM good morning
GN good night
GUD good
HI high
Y
HI HI the CW laugh
HR here
O

HW how is
NR near; number
NW now
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OC old chap
OM old man
OP operator
OT old timer
M

PSE please
PWR power
RX receiver
RFI radio frequency interference
RIG equipment
RPT repeat
SRI sorry
TNX thanks
TKS thanks
TVI television interference
UR your
VY very
WKD worked
TX transmitter
XTAL crystal

XYL wife
YL young lady
73 best regards
88 love and kisses

Question File 23: General Operating Procedures: (1 Question)

1. The correct order for callsigns in a callsign exchange at the start and end
of a transmission is:
a. the other callsign followed by your own callsign
b. your callsign followed by the other callsign
c. your own callsign, repeated twice

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d. the other callsign, repeated twice
==================
2. The following phonetic code is correct for the callsign "ZL1AN":
a. zanzibar london one america norway
b. zulu lima one alpha november

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c. zulu lima one able nancy
d. zulu lima one able niner
==================
YO
3. The accepted way to call "CQ" with a SSB transceiver is:
a. "CQ CQ CQ this is ZL1XXX ZL1XXX ZL1XXX"
b. "This is ZL1XXX calling CQ CQ CQ"
c. "CQ to anyone, CQ to anyone, I am ZL1XXX"
d. "CQ CQ CQ CQ CQ this is New Zealand"
Y
==================
4. A signal report of "5 and 1" indicates:
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a. very low intelligibility but good signal strength

b. perfect intelligibility but very low signal strength
c. perfect intelligibility, high signal strength
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d. medium intelligibilty and signal strength

==================
5. The correct phonetic code for the callsign VK5ZX is:
a. victor kilowatt five zulu xray
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b. victor kilo five zulu xray

c. victor kilo five zanzibar xray
d. victoria kilo five zulu xray
==================
6. The accepted way to announce that you are listening to a VHF repeater
is:
a. "hello 6695, this is ZL2ZZZ listening"
b. "calling 6695, 6695, 6695 from ZL2ZZZ"
c. "6695 from ZL2ZZZ"
d. "ZL2ZZZ listening on 6695"
==================
7. A rare DX station calling CQ on CW and repeating "up 2" at the end of
the call means the station:
a. will be listening for replies 2 kHz higher in frequency
b. will reply only to stations sending at greater than 20 wpm

c. is about to shift his calling frequency 2 kHz higher

d. will wait more than 2 seconds before replying to his call
==================
8. When conversing via a VHF or UHF repeater you should pause between
overs for about:
a. half a second
b. 3 seconds
c. 30 seconds
d. several minutes
==================
9. Before calling CQ on the HF bands, you should:
a. listen first, then ask if the frequency is in use
b. request that other operators clear the frequency
c. request a signal report from any station listening
d. use a frequency where many stations are already calling

OP
==================
10. The phrase "you are fully quieting the repeater" means:
a. your signal is too weak for the repeater to reproduce correctly
b. your signal into the repeater is strong enough to be noise-free on the
output frequency

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c. your modulation level is too low
d. you are speaking too quietly into the microphone.
YO
==================
O Y
AK
M

Section 24 Operating Procedures and Practice

Receiver facilities

RF and IF gain controls - Simple receivers for the broadcast band have one
"gain control" only, this sets the level of audio gain. Communications receivers
have other gain controls which work on stages in advance of the detector.

An RF gain control sets the gain ahead of the receiver mixer. Adjustment to the
gain of the first stage in the receiver can assist reception in cases where front-
end-overload may be bothersome. This occurs when trying to receive a weak
signal adjacent in frequency to a very strong local signal.

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An IF gain control gives an independent control over the amplification prior to the
detector stage. Most of the amplification in a receiver takes place in the IF
stages. There may be many IF stages and operator-gain-control can effect
improved performance.

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AGC - "Automatic Gain Control". Tuning a receiver from a weak signal to a very
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strong signal (and back again) calls for frequent adjustment to the receiver's gain
control(s). This becomes tiresome and is a nuisance with a communications
receiver when tuning across a band of frequencies.

HF signals fade and the received audio can change from loud to faint and back
Y
again at sometimes very fast intervals. This need to frequently adjust a gain
control is also a nuisance and burdensome.
O

By sampling the strength of the signal being received (by rectifying it to produce a
voltage) and by applying it to some of the amplifier stages, it is possible to
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automatically adjust the overall gain of a receiver. Tuning from a strong signal to
a weak one, and the fading of a distant signal, will now have minimal effect on the
level of audio heard from the speaker.

The signal-level sample for AGC applications may be taken from the detector or
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alternatively may be a rectified sample of the received audio. The AGC voltage is
usually a DC voltage fed back to the IF amplifier stages where it controls the bias
of the amplifiers,

"S" meter - This is usually a meter front-panel-mounted on

a receiver and calibrated in signal strength units and dB. It
varies as the signal fades. It is usually an electronic
voltmeter measuring the AGC voltage. With a strong signal,
the AGC level will be high. With a weak signal, there may be
no AGC voltage at all.

As a absolute level measurement, an S-meter is generally

unsatisfactory. It is useful for making relative measurements
between different received signals. Read it with caution!

Noise blanker - Noise at HF is often of the "impulse variety", short sharp spikes
of noise that blank out reception. A noise blanker uses such spikes to form a
gating signal in the path of the signal through the receiver. A noise spike then
automatically mutes the receiver for the period of the noise spike. This makes
reception more comfortable on the ears of the operator. The effectiveness of a
noise blanker varies and depends on the type of noise and the signal levels being
received.

Station switching

PTT - "Push-To-Talk". The simple way to control the send/receive function on a

transceiver is to use a "pressel" switch on the microphone. Pushing the switch is
a simple and intuitive action when sending a voice transmission. Release the
switch and the transceiver reverts to receiving incoming signals. The switch

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usually operates a relay inside the transceiver. The relay does all the switching
changes needed to change from receive to send and back again.

VOX - "Voice-Operated-Relay" or "Voice-Operated-Transmit" This technique can

be used to simulate duplex operation (i.e. telephone-type conversations) when

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operating phone on the HF bands. It is an extension of PTT operating. Just
speak! A sample of the speech audio from the microphone is amplified and
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rectified to provide a DC control signal. That DC signal operates the relay which
does the station send/receive switching.

A VOX system must have a "fast attack, slow release" characteristic to be sure
that the first syllable of a spoken statement is not severely clipped, and to ensure
that the relay does not clatter excessively in and out between the spoken words.
Y

Break-in keying - This system uses the Morse key as the send/receive switch
O

too. When using the key, on first key-down, the station changes to transmit. Stop
using the key - and the station receives. The "channel" in use can be monitored
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during key-up periods when sending. Conversational-type contacts are possible.

Operating techniques

RIT - "Receiver Incremental Tuning". A transceiver is usually a receiver and

transmitter combination sharing a lot of common circuits - such as the various
oscillators that determine its operating frequency. RIT provides a tuning facility so
the receiver can be separately tuned for a few kHz each side of the transmit
frequency, hence giving independent control over the receive frequency.

Split Frequency Operating - A transceiver is usually a receiver and transmitter

combination which shares a lot of common circuits - such as the various
oscillators that determine its operating frequency. There are occasions when
separation of the send and receive frequencies is desirable - to receive on one
frequency but to transmit on another. An obvious example is when a Novice
grade operator is receiving a station outside the Novice segment of the band but

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transmits inside the Novice segment.

Pileup - Loose colloquial jargon used by radio amateurs to indicate the

congestion that can occur when many stations suddenly call and try to work the
same station, usually a station in some "rare DX" location. Discipline is needed

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to minimise this problem.
YO
Station optimising

ALC - "Automatic Level Control". Just as we had AGC in a receiver, this is a

similar thing for transmitters, usually for the linear amplifiers used in SSB
transmitters. Its purpose is to prevent over-driving the linear amplifier stages
Y
especially the final amplifier.
O

It may also permit the peaks of an SSB signal to be limited in amplitude to enable
an increase in the mean output power of the transmitter to improve the relative
signal level at a distant receiver. This function can also involve processing the
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audio in the transmitter, known as "compression" .

SWR bridge - Operating adjustments should be made to the Antenna Tuner for
minimum reflected power indication on the SWR bridge. Appropriate antenna
and transmission line adjustments should be made during installation for the
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same purpose.

VHF repeater working

A VHF (or UHF) repeater is a receiver and a transmitter connected together and
sited on a hill-top or other high point - to get extended coverage.

L OP
In this diagram, the repeater receiver (Rx) audio output is passed to the
transmitter (Tx).
YO
The Rx and Tx can share a common antenna. The receive and transmit signals
are directed to the appropriate places by the "duplexer" . This is a collection of
high-Q tuned circuits, a passive device acting as filters for the repeater input and
output signals.
Y

The "control" detects a received carrier and switches the transmitter on - until the
O

received carrier disappears when it then switches the transmitter off. So the
push-to-talk switch in the mobile station also turns the repeater transmitter on and
off for "talk-through" operating. The repeater receiver "squelch" is used to provide
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the transmitter send/receive function.

The frequency difference in this example is 600 kHz between the repeater
receive and transmit frequencies. This is the standard "split" for repeaters
M

operating in the 146 to 148 MHz band: i.e. it is plus 600 kHz above 147 MHz,
and minus 600 kHz on or below 147 MHz. (The NZART CallBook gives details
of the bandplans adopted in New Zealand and lists the frequencies and locations
of amateur radio repeaters )

UHF repeaters operating in the 430 to 440 MHz band use a 5 MHz "split".

The carrier-operated switch at the repeater receiver may fail to operate when an
input signal gets weak. When mobile stations are operating through the repeater,
if a mobile moves into an area with little-or-no signal, the repeater may "drop out",
there being insufficient signal to hold the repeater receiver open.

The carrier-operated switch at the repeater receiver is similar to the "squelch"

operation in an FM receiver. FM receivers are very noisy in the absence of an

input signal. To make life comfortable for operators monitoring FM

communications channels, a "squelch" mutes the receiver loudspeaker in the
absence of an incoming signal. The squelch "opens" when a signal is received
and the signal's audio is then heard from the speaker.

Repeater networks

New Zealand radio amateurs have built and installed 2-metre band (144 - 148
MHz) repeaters to provide most of the country with local area coverage.

The "National System" on the 70 cm band (430 to 440 MHz) is a chain of linked
repeaters. These provide communication along the length of the country. Refer
to the NZART CallBook for maps and other details about the operation of the
National System.

OP
Question File: 24. Practical Operating Knowledge: (2 questions)
1. You are mobile and talking through a VHF repeater. The other station
reports that you keep "dropping out". This means:
a. your signal is drifting lower in frequency

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b. your signal does not have enough strength to operate the repeater
c. your voice is too low-pitched to be understood
YO
d. you are not speaking loudly enough
==================
2. A "pileup" is:
a. an old, worn-out radio
b. another name for a junkbox
Y
c. a large group of stations all calling the same DX station
d. a type of selenium rectifier
O

==================
3. "Break-in keying" means:
a. unauthorised entry has resulted in station equipment disappearing
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b. temporary emergency operating

c. key-down changes the station to transmit, key-up to receive
d. the other station's keying is erratic
==================
4. A repeater operating with a "positive 600 kHz split":
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a. listens on a frequency 600 kHz higher than its designated frequency

b. transmits on a frequency 600 kHz higher than its designated frequency
c. transmits simultaneously on its designated frequency and one 600 kHz
higher
d. uses positive modulation with a bandwidth of 600 kHz
==================
5. The standard frequency offset (split) for 2 metre repeaters in New
Zealand is:
a. plus 600 kHz above 147 MHz, minus 600 kHz on or below 147 MHz
b. plus 600 kHz below 147 MHz, minus 600 kHz on or above 147 MHz
c. minus 5 MHz below 147 MHz, plus 5 MHz kHz on or above 147 MHz
d. plus 5 MHz below 147 MHz, minus 5 MHz kHz on or above 147 MHz
==================

6. The standard frequency offset (split) for 70 cm repeaters in New Zealand

is plus or minus:
a. 600 kHz
b. 1 MHz
c. 2 MHZ
d. 5 MHz
==================
7. You are adjusting an antenna matching unit using an SWR bridge. You
should adjust for:
a. maximum reflected power
b. equal reflected and transmitted power
c. minimum reflected power
d. minimum transmitted power
==================

OP
8. The "squelch" or "muting" circuitry on a VHF receiver:
a. inhibits the audio output unless a station is being received
b. compresses incoming voice signals to make them more intelligible
c. reduces audio burst noise due to lightning emissions
d. reduces the noise on incoming signals

L
==================
9. The "S meter" on a receiver:
YO
a. indicates where the squelch control should be set
b. indicates the standing wave ratio
c. indicates the state of the battery voltage
d. indicates relative incoming signal strengths
==================
10. The "National System" is:
Y

a. the legal licensing standard of Amateur operation in New Zealand

b. a series of nationwide amateur radio linked repeaters in the 70 cm band
O

c. the official New Zealand repeater band plan

d. A nationwide emergency communications procedure
AK

==================
11. A noise blanker on a receiver is most effective to reduce:
a. 50 Hz power supply hum
b. noise originating from the mixer stage of the receiver
c. ignition noise
M

d. noise originating from the RF stage of the receiver.

==================
12. The purpose of a VOX unit in a transceiver is to:
a. change from receiving to transmitting using the sound of the operator's
voice
b. check the transmitting frequency using the voice operated crystal
c. enable a volume operated extension speaker for remote listening
d. enable the variable oscillator crystal
==================

13. "VOX" stands for:

a. volume operated extension speaker
b. voice operated transmit
c. variable oscillator transmitter
d. voice operated expander
==================
14. "RIT" stands for:
a. receiver interference transmuter
b. range independent transmission
c. receiver incremental tuning
d. random interference tester
==================
15. The "RIT" control on a transceiver:
a. reduces interference on the transmission

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b. changes the frequency of the transmitter section without affecting the
frequency of the receiver section
c. changes the transmitting and receiver frequencies by the same amount
d. changes the frequency of the receiver section without affecting the
frequency of the transmitter section

L
==================
16. The "split frequency" function on a transceiver allows the operator to:
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a. transmit on one frequency and receive on another
b. monitor two frequencies simultaneously using a single loudspeaker
c. monitor two frequencies simultaneously using two loudspeakers
d. receive CW and SSB signals simultaneously on the same frequency
==================
17. The term "ALC" stands for:
Y

a. audio limiter control

b. automatic level control
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c. automatic loudness control

d. automatic listening control
AK

==================
18. The AGC circuit is to:
a. expand the audio gain
b. limit the extent of amplitude generation
c. minimise the adjustments needed to the receiver gain control knobs
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d. amplitude limit the crystal oscillator output

==================
19. Many receivers have both RF and AF gain controls. These allow the
operator to:
a. vary the receiver frequency and AM transmitter frequency independently
b. vary the low and high frequency audio gain independently
c. vary the receiver's "real" and "absolute" frequencies independently
d. vary the gain of the radio frequency and audio frequency amplifier stages
independently
==================

20. The term "PTT" means:

a. push to talk
b. piezo-electric transducer transmitter
c. phase testing terminal
d. phased transmission transponder
==================

L OP
YO
O Y
AK
M

Question File 25 Q Codes

QUESTION(1 question)
FILE 25 (1 question)

Q CODES
These abbreviated three letter “Q” Codes were evolved by old-time telegraphy operators as a
shorthand means for exchanging information about working conditions being experienced over the
circuit in use.

You will be tested on only 10 of the 40 or so Q Code messages that are used in amateur radio
communication.

Many can be used as a query if followed by a question mark, e. g. QRM? QTH? or as an answer
to a query or as a statement of fact with no question mark, e.g. QTH Auckland, QTH San
Francisco etc.

All Q codes may be used while operating CW and some are used during phone transmissions.

QRL? Means “Are you busy” [25.6] Commonly means “is the frequency in use?”

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QRM Means “Your transmission is being interfered with” [25.1]

QRN Means “I am troubled by static” [25.2]

QRP? Means “Shall I decrease transmitter power?” [25.7]

Without the query means “I am running low power”

QRQ Means “Please send faster” [25.10]

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YO
QRS Means “Please send slower” [25.3 ]
With a query could mean “shall I (or we) send slower?”

QRZ? Means “Who is calling me?” [25.4]

Commonly means “who is on this frequency?” if you were unable to copy a callsign
Y
QSB As part of a signal report means “your signals are fading” [25.8]

QSY? Means “Shall I change to transmission on another frequency?” [25.9]

Without the query means “I am going to change frequency/up 5 (kHZ)/ to 28.459 etc.”

QTH? Means “What is your location?” [25.5]

Without the query “QTH Melbourne” means “my location is Melbourne”
AK

You will need to memorize these Q Codes before the course starts
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Hints

Often QRM and QRN are confused

QRM is Man made interference
QRN is Natural Noise

QRQ for Quicker

QRS for Slower

Question File: 25. Q signals: (1 question)

1. The signal "QRM" means:
a. your signals are fading
b. I am troubled by static
c. your transmission is being interfered with
d. is my transmission being interfered with?
==================
2. The signal "QRN" means:
a. I am busy
b. I am troubled by static
c. are you troubled by static?
d. I am being interfered with
==================
3. The "Q signal" requesting the other station to send slower is:
a. QRL

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b. QRN
c. QRM
d. QRS
==================
4. The question "Who is calling me?" is asked by:

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a. QRT?
b. QRM?
YO
c. QRP?
d. QRZ?
==================
5. The "Q" signal "what is your location?" is:
a. QTH?
Y
b. QTC?
c. QRL?
O

d. QRZ?
==================
6. The "Q" signal "are you busy?" is:
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a. QRM?
b. QRL?
c. QRT?
d. QRZ?
M

==================
7. The "Q" signal "shall I decrease transmitter power?" is:
a. QRP?
b. QRZ?
c. QRN?
d. QRL?
==================
8. The "Q" signal "your signals are fading" is:
a. QSO
b. QSB
c. QSL
d. QRX
==================
9. The signal "QSY?" means:
a. shall I change to transmission on another frequency?

b. shall I increase transmitter power?

c. shall I relay to .... ?
d. is my signal fading?
==================
10. The "Q" signal which means "send faster" is:
a. QRP
b. QRQ
c. QRS
d. QRN

L OP
YO
O Y
AK
M

Section 26 Transmission Lines

Carrying the signal

Transmission lines are the link between your station equipment, transmitter,
receiver, transceiver, and the antenna. There are many different varieties but two
major types of line predominate for frequencies in general use by radio amateurs.
Parallel-conductor line, also known as twin-line, or open-wire line, consists of two
parallel conductors held apart at a constant fixed distance by insulators or by
insulation. This type of transmission line is "balanced". This means that each wire
is "hot" with respect to earth.
Coaxial cable (coax) is the other major type and consists of two concentric

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conductors. It is a single wire surrounded by insulation and enclosed in an outer
conductor, usually a braid. This is an "unbalanced" line, the outer sheath can be
at earth potential, only the inner wire is "hot".
The transmitter power radiating from the antenna is less than that generated at
the transmitter due to losses in the transmission line. These losses increase with

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higher SWR values, with higher frequencies and with increasing the length of the
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line. Most line loss occurs in the supporting insulation so open-wire lines have
lower losses than heavily-insulated line.

Parallel lines
These come in various types. The flat TV "300-ohm ribbon" is an example.
"Ladder-line", in which two parallel conductors are spaced by insulation
Y
"spreaders" at intervals is another. These lines are relatively cheap. Open-wire
lines can be home-constructed using improvised "spreaders". These lines have
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low losses at HF frequencies.

These lines do have the disadvantage that they must be kept away from other
conductors and earthed objects. They cannot be buried or strapped directly to a
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tower.
As the frequency increases, the open-wire line spacing becomes a significant
fraction of the wavelength and the line will radiate some energy.
Because it is a balanced line, it can feed a dipole directly without the use of a
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"balun" at the antenna. (Baluns are discussed below.) Most transceivers have an
unbalanced 50-ohm output impedance and a balun transformer will be required to
feed a balanced line.
Parallel lines vary in impedance depending on the diameter and the spacing of
the conductors. TV twin lead has an impedance of 300-ohm and ladder-line is
usually 450 or 600-ohm.

Coaxial cable
Coaxial cable consists of two concentric conductors with dielectric insulation in
the space between the conductors. The inner conductor carries the signal (i.e. it
is "hot") the outer conductor is usually at earth potential and acts as a shield. This
cable can be buried and run close to metal objects with no harmful effects.
Coax comes in various sizes from very small to large diameters. The small sizes
are for low powers and short distances. The larger sizes have higher power-
handling capabilities and usually lower losses. Most amateurs use 50-ohm cable
while TV coax is usually 75-ohm.
The dielectric insulator is generally the main cause of energy loss. Most coax
uses solid polyethylene and some types use a foam version. The foam version is
lower loss but the solid version is more rugged. For very low loss purposes, a
solid outer is used ("hardline"), and the inner conductor is supported by a spiral
insulator or by beads. This type of coax is hard to work, cannot be bent very

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sharply and is generally expensive.

Impedance

L
An important characteristic of a transmission line is its "impedance". This can
range from about 30 ohm for high-power coax to 600 to 1000 ohm for open-wire
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wide-spaced line. The unit of measurement is the ohm, but you cannot simply
attach an ohm-meter to coax cable to measure its impedance.
The characteristic impedance of a line is not dependent on its length but on the
physical arrangement of the size and spacing of the conductors. (Remember that
when simply put, impedance is the ratio of the voltage to the current. A high
Y
voltage and low current means a high impedance. A low voltage and high current
means low impedance).
O

Loads attached to the distant end of a line have an effect on the impedance
"seen" at the input to the line.
When a line is terminated at the distant end with a termination impedance that is
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the same as the characteristic impedance of the line, the input to the line will be
"seen" to be the characteristic impedance of that line. In other words, looking in to
the input of this line, you "see" an infinitely-long line. This is ideal for the optimum
transfer of power from the transmitter down the line to the antenna.
M

In this diagram, the termination is the same value as the characteristic

impedance of the line. The voltage across the line is shown as E for the various

points along the line and the current in the line at those same points is shown as
I.
Note that the line is "flat" - there is no variation in the ratio of voltage to current
(i.e. no variation in impedance) at any point along the line.
If there was such a thing as an infinitely long line, cutting a short length off it and
terminating that short piece with a load equal to its characteristic impedance,
would still make it indistinguishable at its input from an infinitely long line - as
shown in the diagram above.

Line terminations
There are several classic cases of line termination which must be known and
each will be described in turn.

L OP
YO
Y
For a line with a short-circuit termination, consider this approach:
A signal starts off and travels down the line. It reaches the distant end and finds
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the line to be short-circuited! What can it do? It turns around and travels back to
the source. So there are now TWO waves travelling on the line but in different
directions - the forward wave being still sent down the line, and the reflected
AK

wave, on its way back.

At any point on the line, the voltage across the line will be the sum of these two
component waves, measured using an appropriate voltmeter.
But the voltage across the line at a short-circuit must be zero. So the reflected
wave must be phased in such a way that the resultant voltage at the short-circuit
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is zero. See the red E curve above. Coming back down the line the voltage will
increase as shown in the diagram above.
Likewise, at a short-circuit the current will be high. So the current in the line must
be high at the termination and will decrease as you measure it back down the
line. The current will follow the blue I curve shown above.

Impedance is the ratio of voltage to current. So at the load (a short-circuit) the

impedance will be zero. As you travel back down the line, both E and I vary so
the ratio between them is varying. When the line is one-quarter wavelength long,
the impedance will be very high - approaching infinity.
A similar thing happens when the line is open-circuited:

L OP
In this case, there will be a high voltage at the end of the line - the open-circuit.
YO
The current in the line must be zero there. So the impedance will be very high.
Travelling back down the line, the impedance (the ratio of voltage to current) will
decrease until at a quarter-wavelength point, the impedance will be seen to be
zero.
O Y
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The quarter-wave length of line in effect inverts the impedance at its termination.
Quarter-wave lengths of line are very useful for many applications especially at
VHF and UHF.
M

The half-wave length of line can be considered as two quarter-wavelengths in

cascade and its performance can be deduced from that approach.

The input impedance of a half-wave length of line is a repeat of the termination

at the distant end.

The Voltage Standing Wave Ratio (VSWR)

We have considered the line with a matched load, with a short-circuit termination
and with an open-circuit termination. The practical values of load fall somewhere
between these limits.

The VSWR (usually shortened to SWR) can be visualised by considering the

forward and reflected waves in a line. If the antenna (the termination at the load
end of the line) does not exactly match the line (i.e. is not exactly equal to the
characteristic impedance of the line), then some energy will be reflected back
down the line. So we have a forward wave (high energy) and a reflected wave
(smaller than the forward wave) on the line. A pattern of peaks and troughs in the
voltage measured between the line conductors will be found as you measure the
voltage at points back down the line.

L OP
YO
The SWR can be measured with a device known variously as a "reflectometer" or
SWR bridge, or plain SWR meter.

The SWR meter is usually placed near to the transmitter. It distinguishes between
the forward and reflected waves in the line. It gives an indication of whether the
Y
antenna is matched to the line by allowing the standing-wave-ratio to be
measured. When inserted in the line between the transmitter and the antenna
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tuning unit, it also permits the antenna tuning unit to be adjusted.

Any variations from a "correct match" at the antenna (or load) end of the line can
have a significant effect on the power radiated by the system:
1. The transmitter requires a "correct match" (usually 50-ohm) to the line for
the best transfer of energy from the transmitter to the line.
2. The line requires a minimum SWR for least losses, and
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3. the match from the line to the antenna should be correct to minimise the
SWR on the line.
Variations from a "correct match" can also have undesirable effects on a
transmitter to the point of causing overheating in the final stage and arcing in
tuned circuits.

The "Antenna Tuner"

This is usually inserted in the transmission line adjacent to the transmitter with
the transmission line to the antenna following and the antenna connected at the
distant end of the line. The antenna tuner does not really tune the antenna at all.
It does not adjust the length of the antenna elements, alter the height above
ground, and so on. What it does do is to transform the impedance at the feedline
input to a value that the transmitter can handle - usually 50 ohm. Think of the

antenna tuner as an adjustable impedance transformer and you will understand

its function.
If the antenna is cut to resonance and is designed to match the impedance of the
transmitter and feedline, an antenna tuner is not required. The transmitter is
presented with a 50-ohm load (or something close to it) and into which it can
deliver its full output power.
The "SWR bandwidth" is important. The SWR bandwidth of many antenna
designs is usually limited to only some 200 or 300 kHz. If a dipole is cut to
resonate with a 1:1 SWR at 7 MHz, you may find that the SWR is above 2.5:1 at
7200 kHz. Most modern transceivers will begin to reduce output or may
automatically completely shut down at SWR's above 2:1.
With an antenna tuner in the same line, you can transform the impedance seen
by the transmitter to 50-ohm, and reduce the SWR in the short piece of line
between the transmitter and the antenna tuner to 1:1 again. The transceiver then
delivers its full output again. The radiated power will be slightly reduced because

OP
of the higher losses on the line between the tuner and the antenna, attenuation
due to the higher line currents associated with the higher SWR on that stretch of
line.
This attenuation is caused by the fact that the matching function of the tuner has

L
not changed the conditions on the line between the tuner and the antenna.
YO
Velocity factor
A radio wave in free space travels with the speed of light. When a wave travels
on a transmission line, it travels slower, travelling through a dielectric/insulation.
The speed at which it travels on a line compared to the free-space velocity is
known as the "velocity factor".
Typical figures are:
Y

Twin line 0.82, Coaxial cable 0.66, (free space 1.0).

So a wave in a coaxial cable travels at about 66% of the speed of light (as an
O

example).
In practice this means that if you have to cut a length of coaxial transmission line
AK

to be a half-wavelength long (for, say, some antenna application), the length of

line you cut off will have to be 0.66 of the free-space length that you calculated.

Baluns
M

A balun is a device to convert a balanced line to an unbalanced line - and vice-

versa. It comes in a variety of types.
The "transformer" type is probably the easiest version to understand. Consider a
transformer with two windings, a primary and a secondary. The primary can be
fed by a coaxial cable - the UNbalanced input. The secondary could be a centre-
tapped winding with the tap connected to the outer of the coaxial input cable. The
two ends of the secondary are then the BALanced connections. Impedance
transformation can also be made by adjusting the number of turns on the primary
and secondary windings.
When a balanced antenna, such as a dipole, is directly fed with coax (and
unbalanced line), the antenna currents (which are inherently balanced) will run on
the outside of the coax to balance the coaxial cable currents which are inherently
unbalanced. This feedline current leads to radiation from the feedline itself as well
as by the antenna and can distort the antenna radiation pattern. The RF can

travel back down the outside of the coax to the station and cause metal surfaces
at the station to become live to RF voltages. RF shocks are unpleasant and burn
the flesh. They should be avoided. To correct this, a balun should be used when
connecting a balanced line to an unbalanced line and vice-versa.
Baluns are used for connecting TV receivers (75-ohm unbalanced) to 300-ohm
ribbon (balanced).

Using a single antenna for transmit and receive

A lot of trouble and expense goes into erecting a good feeder and antenna
system for transmitting. It should also be used for receiving. This is usually the
case with a transceiver.
With a station comprising a separate transmitter and receiver, a change-over
relay can be fitted to switch the antenna feeder between the two items. It is usual
- and desirable - for the unit not being used to be disabled. Extra poles on this
same relay can be used to disable the device not being used.

OP
Question File: 26. Transmission lines: (2 questions)

L
1. Any length of transmission line may be made to appear as an infinitely
long line by:
YO
a. shorting the line at the end
b. leaving the line open at the end
c. terminating the line in its characteristic impedance
d. increasing the standing wave ratio above unity
==================
2. The characteristic impedance of a transmission line is determined by the:
Y

a. length of the line

b. load placed on the line
O

c. physical dimensions and relative positions of the conductors

d. frequency at which the line is operated
AK

==================
M

3. The characteristic impedance of a 20 metre length of transmission line is

52 ohm. If 10 metres is cut off, the impedance will be:
a. 13 ohm
b. 26 ohm
c. 39 ohm
d. 52 ohm
==================
4. The following feeder is the best match to the base of a quarter wave
ground plane antenna:
a. 300 ohm balanced feedline
b. 50 ohm coaxial cable
c. 75 ohm balanced feedline
d. 300 ohm coaxial cable
==================

OP
5. The designed output impedance of the antenna socket of most modern
transmitters is nominally:
a. 25 ohm
b. 50 ohm
c. 75 ohm

L
d. 100 ohm
==================
YO
6. To obtain efficient transfer of power from a transmitter to an antenna, it is
important that there is a:
a. high load impedance
b. low load impedance
c. correct impedance match between transmitter and antenna
Y
d. high standing wave ratio
==================
7. A coaxial feedline is constructed from:
O

a. a single conductor
b. two parallel conductors separated by spacers
AK

c. braid and insulation around a central conductor

d. braid and insulation twisted together
==================
8. An RF transmission line should be matched at the transmitter end to:
a. prevent frequency drift
M

b. overcome fading of the transmitted signal

c. ensure that the radiated signal has the intended polarisation
d. transfer maximum power to the antenna
==================
9. A damaged antenna or feedline attached to the output of a transmitter
will present an incorrect load resulting in:
a. the driver stage not delivering power to the final
b. the output tuned circuit breaking down
c. excessive heat being produced in the transmitter output stage
d. loss of modulation in the transmitted signal
==================
10. A result of mismatch between the power amplifier of a transmitter and
the antenna is:
a. reduced antenna radiation

b. radiation of key clicks

c. lower modulation percentage
d. smaller DC current drain
==================
11. Losses occurring on a transmission line between a transmitter and
antenna result in:
a. less RF power being radiated
b. a SWR of 1:1
c. reflections occurring in the line
d. improved transfer of RF energy to the antenna
==================
12. If the characteristic impedance of a feedline does not match the antenna
input impedance then:
a. standing waves are produced in the feedline
b. heat is produced at the junction

OP
c. the SWR drops to 1:1
d. the antenna will not radiate any signal
==================
13. A result of standing waves on a non-resonant transmission line is:
a. maximum transfer of energy to the antenna from the transmitter

L
b. perfect impedance match between transmitter and feedline
c. reduced transfer of RF energy to the antenna
YO
d. lack of radiation from the transmission line
==================
14. A quarter-wave length of 50-ohm coaxial line is shorted at one end. The
impedance seen at the other end of the line is:
a. zero
Y
b. 5 ohm
c. 150 ohm
O

d. infinite
==================
15. A switching system to use a single antenna for a separate transmitter
AK

and receiver should also:

a. disable the unit not being used
b. disconnect the antenna tuner
c. ground the antenna on receive
d. switch between power supplies
M

==================
16. An instrument to check whether RF power in the transmission line is
transferred to the antenna is:
a. a standing wave ratio meter
b. an antenna tuner
c. a dummy load
d. a keying monitor
==================
17. This type of transmission line will exhibit the lowest loss:
a. twisted flex
b. coaxial cable
c. open-wire feeder
d. mains cable
==================

18. The velocity factor of a coaxial cable with solid polythene dielectric is
about:
a. 0.66
b. 0.1
c. 0.8
d. 1.0
==================
19. This commonly available antenna feedline can be buried directly in the
ground for some distance without adverse effects:
a. 75 ohm twinlead
b. 300 ohm twinlead
c. 600 ohm open-wire
d. coaxial cable
==================
20. If an antenna feedline must pass near grounded metal objects, the

OP
following type should be used:
a. 75 ohm twinlead
b. 300 ohm twinlead
c. 600 ohm open-wire
d. coaxial cable

L
==================
YO
O Y
AK
M

Section 27 Antennas

Wavelength and frequency

A useful and fundamental measurement in radio antenna work is the "half
wavelength". We must know how to calculate it. It gives the desired physical
length of an antenna for any operating frequency.

Wavelength, frequency, and the speed of light, are related. The length of a radio
wave for a given frequency when multiplied by that operating frequency, gives the
speed of light.

L OP
YO
Knowing that the speed of light is c = 3 x 108 metres per second, and knowing
our operating frequency, we can derive the wavelength of a radio wave by
transposition as follows:

Wavelength (in metres) = 300 divided by the frequency in MHz. .

A simple way to remember this is to remember 10 metres and 30 MHz, (to get
O

the value of the constant, 300 !).

That gives a wavelength! The half-wavelength of a wave is half of the

wavelength figure you obtain!

So a half-wavelength at 10 metres (30 MHz) will be 5 metres. The amateur 10

metre band is 28 to 29.7 MHz so a half-wavelength for that band will be a little
M

longer than 5 metres. Pick a frequency and calculate it!

Dipoles

The fundamental antenna is the dipole. It is an antenna in two parts or poles.

It is usually a one-half wavelength in overall length and is fed at the middle with a

OP
balanced feedline. One side of the antenna is connected to one side of the line
and the other to the remaining side either directly or through some sort of phasing
line.
When making a half-wave dipole for HF frequencies, one usually has to reduce

L
the length by about 2 percent to account for capacitive effects at the ends. This is
best done after installation because various factors such as the height above
YO
ground and other nearby conducting surfaces can affect it.
The feedpoint impedance of a half-wave dipole, installed about one wavelength
or higher above ground (i.e. in "free space"), is 72 ohm. When the ends are
lowered (i.e. into an "inverted V"), the impedance drops to around 50 ohms.
The ends of the antenna should be insulated as they are high-voltage low-current
points. The connections of the feedline to the antenna should be soldered
Y

because the centre of the dipole is a high-current low-voltage point.

The radiation pattern of a dipole in free space has a minimum of radiation in the
O

direction off the ends of the dipole and a maximum in directions perpendicular to
it. This pattern degrades considerably when the dipole is brought closer to the
AK

ground.
M

A modified version of the simple dipole is the folded dipole. It has two half-wave
conductors joined at the ends and one conductor is split at the half-way point
where the feeder is attached.
If the conductor diameters are the same, the feedpoint impedance of the folded
dipole will be four times that of a standard dipole, i.e. 300 ohm.

The height above the ground

The height of an antenna above the ground, and the nature of the ground itself,
has a considerable effect on the performance of an antenna.and its angle of
radiation. See PROPAGATION

The physical size of a dipole

A wire dipole antenna for the lower amateur bands is sometimes too long to fit
into a smaller property. The antenna can be physically shortened and it can still

OP
act as an electrical half-wave antenna by putting loading coils in each leg as
shown in this diagram. With careful design, performance in still acceptable.
Installing such "loading coils" lowers the resonant frequency of an antenna.

L
Multi-band dipoles
A simple half-wave dipole cut to length for operation on the 40m band (7 MHz)
YO
will also operate on the 15m band without any changes being necessary. This is
because the physical length of the antenna appears to be one-and-one-half
wavelengths long at 15 metres (21 MHz), i.e. three half-wavelengths long.
A dipole antenna can be arranged to operate on several bands using other
methods. One way is to install "traps" in each leg.
O Y
AK

These are parallel-tuned circuits as shown in this diagram (enlarged to show the
circuitry). The traps are seen as "high impedances" by the highest band in use
and the distance between the traps is a half-wavelength for that band. At the
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frequencies of lower bands, the traps are seen as inductive and the antenna
appears as a dipole with loading coils in each leg. With clever and careful design,
operation becomes possible on a range of amateur bands.
Baluns
Dipoles should be fed with a "balanced line".
Vertical antennas

The simplest vertical is the Marconi which is a quarter-wave radiator above a

ground-plane. It has a feedpoint impedance over a perfect ground of 36 ohm.
Above real ground it is usually between 50
and 75 ohm. This makes a good match for
50 ohm cable with the shield going to
ground. For a given wavelength it is the
smallest antenna with reasonable

OP
efficiency and so is a popular choice for
mobile communication. It can be thought of
half of a dipole with the other half
appearing as a virtual image in the ground.
A longer antenna can produce even lower

L
radiation angles although these antennas
YO become a bit large to easily construct. A
length often used for VHF mobile operation is the 5/8th wavelength. This length
has a higher feed impedance and requires a matching network to match most
feeder cables.
Vertical antennas require a good highly conductive ground. If the natural ground
conductivity is poor, quarter-wave copper wire radials can be laid out from the
Y
base of the vertical to form a virtual ground.
Vertical antennas provide an omni-directional pattern in the horizontal plane so
O

they receive and transmit equally well in all directions. This also makes them
susceptible to noise and unwanted signals from all directions.
Vertical antennas are often used by DX operators because they produce low
AK

angle radiation that is best for long distances.

Beams
To improve signal transmission or reception in specific directions, basic elements,
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either vertical or horizontal, can be combined to form arrays. The most common
form is the Yagi-Uda parasitic array commonly referred to as a Yagi array or
beam.
It consists of a driven element which is either a simple or folded dipole and a
series of parasitic elements arranged in a plane. The elements are called
parasitic because they are not directly driven by the transmitter but rather absorb
energy from the radiated element and re-radiate it.
Usually a Yagi will have one element behind the driven element (called the
reflector), and one or more elements in front (called the directors). The reflector
will be slightly longer than the driven element and the directors will be slightly
shorter. The energy is then concentrated in a forward direction.
To rotate the beam, the elements are attached to a boom and in turn to a mast
through some sort of rotator system.

Other antenna types can be constructed to give directivity. The size and weight,
with wind resistance, are important. The cubical quad is a light-weight antenna
for home-construction and it can provide good performance. It consists of two or
more "square" wire cage-like elements.

Antenna
measurements
Most antenna performance measurements are given in decibels. Important
figures for a beam antenna are the forward gain, front-to-side ratio, and front-to-
back ratio.
Forward gain is often given related to a simple dipole. For example, if the forward
gain is said to be 10 dB over a dipole, then the radiated energy would be 10
times stronger in its maximum direction than a simple dipole.
Another comparison standard is the isotropic radiator or antenna. Consider it to

OP
be a theoretical point-source of radio energy. This is a hypothetical antenna that
will radiate equally well in all directions in all planes - unlike a real vertical
antenna which radiates equally well only in the horizontal plane. A dipole has a
2.3 dB gain over the isotropic radiator.
A front-to-back ratio of 20 dB means that the energy off the back of the beam is

L
one-hundredth that of the front. Similar figures apply to the front-to-side ratio.
Another antenna measurement is the bandwidth or range of frequencies over
YO
which the antenna will satisfactorily operate. High gain antennas usually have a
narrower bandwidth than low gain antennas. Some antennas may only cover a
narrow part of a band they are used in while others can operate on several
bands. Other antennas may be able to operate on several bands but not on
frequencies in-between those bands.
Y

Dummy loads
O

A dummy load, or dummy antenna, is not really an antenna but is closely related
to one. It is a pure resistance which is put in place of an antenna to use when
testing a transmitter without radiating a signal.
AK

Commonly referred to as a termination, if correctly matched to the impedance of

the line, when placed at the end of a transmission line it will make the
transmission line look like an infinite line.
Most transmitters are 50 ohm output impedance so a dummy load is simply a 50
ohm non-inductive resistor load. The resistor can be enclosed in oil to improve its
M

power-handing capacity. The rating for full-power operation may be for only a
short time so be aware of the time and power ratings of your dummy load before
testing for long periods at full power. The things can get very hot!

Question File: 27. Antennas: (4 questions)

1. In this diagram the item U corresponds to the:

a. boom
b. reflector
c. driven element
d. director
==================
2. In this diagram the item V corresponds to the:

L OP
a. boom
b. reflector
c. driven element
YO
d. director
==================
3. In this diagram the item X corresponds to the:
O Y

a. boom
b. reflector
AK

c. director
d. driven element
==================
4. The antenna in this diagram has two equal lengths of wire shown as 'X'
forming a dipole between insulators. The optimum operating frequency
M

will be when the:

a. length X+X equals the signal wavelength

b. dimensions are changed with one leg doubled in length
c. length X+X is a little shorter than one-half of the signal wavelength
d. antenna has one end grounded
==================

5. The antenna in this diagram can be made to operate on several bands if

the following item is installed at the points shown at 'X' in each wire:

a. a capacitor
b. an inductor
c. a fuse
d. a parallel-tuned trap
==================
6. The physical length of the antenna shown in this diagram can be
shortened and the electrical length maintained, if one of the following
items is added at the points shown at 'X' in each wire:

OP
a. an inductor

L
b. a capacitor
c. an insulator
YO
d. a resistor
==================
7. The approximate physical length of a half-wave antenna for a frequency
of 1000 kHz is:
a. 300 metres
b. 600 metres
Y

c. 150 metres
d. 30 metres
O

==================
8. The wavelength for a frequency of 25 MHz is:
a. 15 metres
AK

b. 32 metres
c. 4 metres
d. 12 metres
==================
M

9. Magnetic and electric fields about an antenna are:

a. parallel to each other
b. determined by the type of antenna used
c. perpendicular to each other
d. variable with the time of day
==================

10. Radio wave polarisation is defined by the orientation of the radiated:

a. magnetic field
b. electric field
c. inductive field
d. capacitive field
==================
11. A half wave dipole antenna is normally fed at the point of:
a. maximum voltage
b. maximum current
c. maximum resistance
d. resonance
==================
12. An important factor to consider when high angle radiation is desired from
a horizontal half-wave antenna is the:

OP
a. size of the antenna wire
b. time of the year
c. height of the antenna
d. mode of propagation
==================

L
13. An antenna which transmits equally well in all compass directions is a:
a. dipole with a reflector only
YO
b. quarterwave grounded vertical
c. dipole with director only
d. half-wave horizontal dipole
==================
14. A groundplane antenna emits a:
a. horizontally polarised wave
Y

b. elliptically polarised wave

c. axially polarised wave
O

d. vertically polarised wave

==================
15. The impedance at the feed point of a folded dipole antenna is
AK

approximately:
a. 300 ohm
b. 150 ohm
c. 200 ohm
M

d. 100 ohm
==================
16. The centre impedance of a 'half-wave' dipole in 'free space' is
approximately:
a. 52 ohm
b. 73 ohm
c. 100 ohm
d. 150 ohm
==================

17. The effect of adding a series inductance to an antenna is to:

a. increase the resonant frequency
b. have no change on the resonant frequency
c. have little effect
d. decrease the resonant frequency
==================
18. The purpose of a balun in a transmitting antenna system is to:
a. balance harmonic radiation
b. reduce unbalanced standing waves
c. protect the antenna system from lightning strikes
d. match unbalanced and balanced transmission lines
==================
19. A dummy antenna:
a. attenuates a signal generator to a desirable level

OP
b. provides more selectivity when a transmitter is being tuned
c. matches an AF generator to the receiver
d. duplicates the characteristics of an antenna without radiating signals
==================
20. A half-wave antenna resonant at 7100 kHz is approximately this long:

L
a. 20 metres
b. 40 metres
YO
c. 80 metres
d. 160 metres
==================
21. An antenna with 20 metres of wire each side of a centre insulator will be
resonant at approximately:
a. 3600 kHz
Y

b. 3900 kHz
c. 7050 kHz
O

d. 7200 kHz
==================
22. A half wave antenna cut for 7 MHz can be used on this band without
AK

change:
a. 10 metre
b. 15 metre
c. 20 metre
M

d. 80 metre
==================
23. This property of an antenna broadly defines the range of frequencies to
which it will be effective:
a. bandwidth
b. front-to-back ratio
c. impedance
d. polarisation
==================

24. The resonant frequency of an antenna may be increased by:

a. shortening the radiating element
b. lengthening the radiating element
c. increasing the height of the radiating element
d. lowering the radiating element
==================
25. Insulators are used at the end of suspended antenna wires to:
a. increase the effective antenna length
b. limit the electrical length of the antenna
c. make the antenna look more attractive
d. prevent any loss of radio waves by the antenna
==================
26. To lower the resonant frequency of an antenna, the operator should:
a. lengthen the antenna

OP
b. centre feed the antenna with TV ribbon
c. shorten the antenna
d. ground one end
==================
27. A half-wave antenna is often called a:

L
a. bi-polar
b. Yagi
YO
c. dipole
d. beam
==================
28. The resonant frequency of a dipole antenna is mainly determined by:
a. its height above the ground
b. its length
Y

c. the output power of the transmitter used

d. the length of the transmission line
O

==================
29. A transmitting antenna for 28 MHz for mounting on the roof of a car could
be a:
AK

a. vertical long wire

b. quarter wave vertical
c. horizontal dipole
d. full wave centre fed horizontal
M

==================
30. A vertical antenna which uses a flat conductive surface at its base is the:
a. vertical dipole
b. quarter wave ground plane
c. rhombic
d. long wire
==================

31. The main characteristic of a vertical antenna is that it:

a. requires few insulators
b. is very sensitive to signals coming from horizontal aerials
c. receives signals from all points around it equally well
d. is easy to feed with TV ribbon feeder
==================
32. At the ends of a half-wave dipole the:
a. voltage and current are both high
b. voltage is high and current is low
c. voltage and current are both low
d. voltage low and current is high
==================
33. An antenna type commonly used on HF is the:
a. parabolic dish

OP
b. cubical quad
c. 13-element Yagi
d. helical Yagi
==================
34. A Yagi antenna is said to have a power gain over a dipole antenna for

L
the same frequency band because:
a. it radiates more power than a dipole
YO
b. more powerful transmitters can use it
c. it concentrates the radiation in one direction
d. it can be used for more than one band
==================
35. The maximum radiation from a three element Yagi antenna is:
a. in the direction of the reflector end of the boom
Y

b. in the direction of the director end of the boom

c. at right angles to the boom
O

d. parallel to the line of the coaxial feeder

==================
36. The reflector and director(s) in a Yagi antenna are called:
AK

a. oscillators
b. tuning stubs
c. parasitic elements
d. matching units
M

==================
37. An isotropic antenna is a:
a. half wave reference dipole
b. infinitely long piece of wire
c. dummy load
d. hypothetical point source
==================

38. The main reason why many VHF base and mobile antennas in amateur
use are 5/8 of a wavelength long is that:
a. it is easy to match the antenna to the transmitter
b. it is a convenient length on VHF
c. the angle of radiation is high giving excellent local coverage
d. most of the energy is radiated at a low angle
==================
39. A more important consideration when selecting an antenna for working
stations at great distances is:
a. sunspot activity
b. angle of radiation
c. impedance
d. bandwidth
==================

OP
40. On VHF and UHF bands, polarisation of the receiving antenna is
important in relation to the transmitting antenna, but on HF it is relatively
unimportant because:
a. the ionosphere can change the polarisation of the signal from moment to
moment

L
b. the ground wave and the sky wave continually shift the polarisation
c. anomalies in the earth's magnetic field profoundly affect HF polarisation
YO
d. improved selectivity in HF receivers makes changes in polarisation
redundant
==================
O Y
AK
M

Section 28 Propagation
The spectrum

Amateur Radio is all about the transmission of radio waves from place-to-place
without wires. Signals travel from the transmitting antenna to the receiving
antenna in different ways depending on the frequency used. Some frequencies
use the ionosphere to bounce signals around the world while other frequencies
can only be used for line-of-sight operations.
Radio waves are part of the spectrum of electromagnetic radiation, with infrared,
light, ultraviolet, x-rays and cosmic rays at the extreme upper frequencies. Radio
waves further subdivide into different frequency ranges. All electromagnetic

OP
radiation travels at the same speed, commonly referred to as the speed of light,
c = 3 x 108 metres per second or 300 000 km per second.
Electromagnetic radiation consists of two waves travelling together, the magnetic
and the electric, with the planes of the two waves perpendicular to each other.
The polarisation of a radio wave is determined by the direction of the electric

L
field. Most antennas radiate waves that are polarised in the direction of the length
of the metal radiating element. For example, the metal whips as used on cars are
YO
vertically polarised while TV antennas may be positioned for either vertical or
horizontal polarisation. Polarisation is important on VHF and higher but is not
very important for HF communications because the many reflections that a
skywave undergoes makes its polarisation quite random.
Y
The path
The simplest path to understand is the direct path in a straight line between
O

transmitter and receiver. These are most important for communication on

frequencies above 50 MHz. The signal might be reflected off buildings and
mountains to fill in some shadows, but usually communication is just line-of-sight.
AK

On lower frequencies the ionosphere is able to reflect the radio waves. The
actual direction-change in the ionosphere is closer to refraction but reflection is
easier to envisage.
For simplicity, we will use the reflection word here, but remember that the
mechanism is more truly refractive. Similarly, again for simplicity, we will consider
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the regions where the change-of-direction takes place to be "layers" although

they are more strictly "regions".
The signal reflected off the ionosphere is referred to as the skywave or
ionospheric wave. The groundwave is the signal that travels on the surface of the
earth and depends upon the surface conductivity.
Groundwaves are the main mode of transmission on the MF bands (e.g. AM
broadcast band), but they are not very important for amateur use - except

perhaps on the only amateur MF band, 160 metres, 1.8 MHz. The groundwave is
usually attenuated within 100 km.
On VHF and higher frequencies, variations in the atmospheric density can bend
the radio waves back down to the earth. This is referred to as the tropospheric
wave.
The skywave
The skywave is the primary mode of long distance communication by radio
amateurs and is usually of the most interest. A skywave will go farther if it can
take longer "hops". For this reason, a low angle (< 30° ) radiation is best for DX
(long distance) communication as it will travel farther before reflecting back to
earth. Antennas that produce low angle radiation include verticals or dipoles
mounted high (at least half a wavelength) above the ground.

The sun and the ionosphere

OP
The ionosphere refers to the upper region of the atmosphere where charged gas
molecules have been produced by the energy of the sun. The degree of
ionisation varies with the intensity of the solar radiation. Various cycles affect the
amount of solar radiation with the obvious ones being the daily and yearly cycles.
This means that ionisation will be greatest around noon in the summer and at

L
minimum just before dawn in the winter.
The output from the sun varies over a longer period of approximately 11 years.
YO
During the maximum of the solar sunspot cycle, there is greater solar activity and
hence greater ionisation of the ionosphere.
Greater solar activity generally results in better conditions for radio propagation
by increasing ionisation. However, very intense activity in the form of
geomagnetic storms triggered by a solar flare can completely disrupt the layer of
the ionosphere and block communications. This can happen in minutes and
Y

communications can take hours to recover.

Ionospheric layers
The ionosphere is not a homogenous region but consists of rather distinct layers
AK

or regions which have their own individual effects on radio propagation. The
layers of distinct interest to radio amateurs are the E and F layers.
The E layer at about 110 km is the lower of the two. It is in the denser region of
the atmosphere where the ions formed by solar energy recombine quickly. This
means the layer is densest at noon and dissipates quickly when the sun goes
M

down.
The F layer is higher and during the day separates into two layers, F1 and F2 at
about 225 and 320 km. It merges at night to form a single F layer at about 280
km.
The different layer of the ionosphere can reflect radio waves back down to earth
which in turn can reflect the signal back up again. A signal can "hop" around the
world in this way. The higher the layer, the longer the hop. The longer the hop the
better since some of the signal's energy is lost at each hop.
Lower angle radiation will go farther before it reflects off the ionosphere. So to
achieve greatest DX, one tries to choose a frequency that will reflect off the
highest layer possible and use the lowest angle of radiation. The distance
covered in one hop is the skip distance. For destinations beyond the maximum
skip distance the signal must make multiple hops.

The virtual height of any ionospheric layer at any time can be determined using
an ionospheric sounder or ionosonde, in effect a vertical radar. This sends pulses
that sweep over a wide frequency range straight up into the ionosphere. The
echoes returned are timed (for distance) and recorded. A plot of frequency
against height can be produced. The highest frequency that returns echoes at
vertical incidence is known as the critical frequency.

Absorption
The ionosphere can also absorb radio waves as well as reflect them. The
absorption is greater at lower frequencies and with denser ionisation. There is
another layer of ionisation below the E layer, called the D layer, which only exists
during the day. It will absorb almost all signals below 4 MHz - i.e. the 80 and 160
metre bands. Short-range communication is still possible using higher angle
radiation which is less affected. It travels a shorter distance through the
atmosphere. The signal can then reflect off the E layer to the receiver. The D and

OP
E layers are responsible for you hearing only local AM broadcast stations during
the day and more distant ones at night.

Attenuation

L
The attenuation of a signal by the ionosphere is higher at lower frequencies. So
YO
for greater distance communication one should use higher frequencies. But if the
frequency used is too high, the signal will pass into space and not reflect back to
earth. This may be good for satellite operation but is not useful for HF DX
working.
For DX working on HF, one should try to use the highest frequency that will still
Y
reflect off the ionosphere. This varies with solar activity and time of day. It can be
calculated with various formulas given the current solar indices. This frequency is
O

referred to as the Maximum Usable Frequency (MUF). In the peak of the solar
cycle it can often be over 30 MHz and on rare occasions up to 50 MHz. At other
times, during the night, it can drop below 10 MHz.
AK

At the low end of the spectrum, daytime absorption by the D layer limits the
possible range. In addition, atmospheric noise is greater and limits the Lowest
Usable Frequency (LUF). This noise and absorption decreases at night lowering
the LUF at the same time as the MUF is lowered by the decrease in solar
excitation of the ionosphere. This usually means that by picking the right
M

frequency, long range communication is possible at any time.

Fading
Radio waves can travel over different paths from transmitter to receiver. If a path
length varies by a multiple of half the wavelength of the signal, the signals
arriving by two or more paths may completely cancel each other. This multi-path
action causes fading of the signal. Other phenomena can cause this. Aircraft,
mountains and ionospheric layers can reflect part of a signal while another part
takes a more direct path.
Sometimes fading may be so frequency-dependent that one sideband of a
double-sideband (AM) signal may be completely unreadable while the other is
"good copy". This is known as "selective fading". It will often be observed just as
a band is on the verge of closing, when reflections from two layers are received
simultaneously.

Fading can also occur when a signal passes through the polar regions, referred
to as polar flutter, caused by different phenomena. The ionosphere is much more
disorganised in the polar regions because of the interaction of solar energy with
the geomagnetic field. The same phenomena that cause aurora can cause the
wavering of signals on polar paths.

Other atmospheric effects

Other atmospheric effects can affect radio propagation and may often extend the
transmission of VHF and higher signals beyond the line-of-sight. The lowest
region in the atmosphere, the troposphere, can scatter VHF signals more than
600 km - tropospheric scatter. Ducting is a phenomenon where radio waves get
trapped by a variation in the atmospheric density. The waves can then travel
along by refraction. Ducting usually occurs over water or other homogenous
surfaces. This is more common at higher frequencies and has permitted UHF
communication over distances greater than 2500 km.

OP
Another phenomenon, sporadic E skip, is a seasonal occurrence, usually during
the summer. A small region of the E layer becomes more highly charged than
usual, permitting the reflection of signals as high in frequency as 200 MHz. This
highly-charged region soon dissipates. Sporadic E propagation will occur for only

L
a few minutes to a few hours.
Communication can be achieved by bouncing signals off the ionised trails of
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meteors. Meteor scatter communication may only last a few seconds so it is
feasible only when large numbers of meteors enter the atmosphere, particularly
during times of meteor showers.

Skip zone
Amateurs are usually
Y

concerned about working to

the maximum possible
O

distances but there are times

when one can talk to people
AK

thousands of kilometres away

but cannot talk to someone
only 500 km away. A skip
zone can be created by the
ionosphere reflecting signals
M

from a shallow angle. Waves

at a higher angle pass directly
through and are lost into space. The critical angle varies with the degree of
ionisation and generally results in larger skip zones at night. The area between
the limit of maximum range by direct wave or ground wave, and the maximum
skip distance by skywave is known as the skip zone.

Question File: 28. Propagation: (5 questions)

1. A 'skip zone' is:
a. the distance between the antenna and where the refracted wave first
returns to earth
b. the distance between the far end of the ground wave and where the
refracted wave first returns to earth
c. the distance between any two refracted waves
d. a zone caused by lost sky waves
==================
2. The medium which reflects high frequency radio waves back to the
earth's surface is called the:
a. biosphere
b. stratosphere

OP
c. ionosphere
d. troposphere
==================
3. The highest frequency that will be reflected back to the earth at any
given time is known as the:

L
a. UHF
b. MUF
YO
c. OWF
d. LUF
==================
4. All communications frequencies throughout the spectrum are affected in
varying degrees by the:
Y
a. atmospheric conditions
b. ionosphere
O

c. aurora borealis
d. sun
==================
AK

5. Solar cycles have an average length of:

a. 1 year
b. 3 years
c. 6 years
M

d. 11 years
==================
6. The 'skywave' is another name for the:
a. ionospheric wave
b. tropospheric wave
c. ground wave
d. inverted wave
==================

7. The polarisation of an electromagnetic wave is defined by the direction

of:
a. the H field
b. propagation
c. the E field
d. the receiving antenna
==================
8. That portion of HF radiation which is directly affected by the surface of
the earth is called:
a. ionospheric wave
b. local field wave
c. ground wave
d. inverted wave
==================

OP
9. Radio wave energy on frequencies below 4 MHz during daylight hours is
almost completely absorbed by this ionospheric layer:
a. C
b. D
c. E

L
d. F
==================
YO
10. Because of high absorption levels at frequencies below 4 MHz during
daylight hours, only high angle signals are normally reflected back by this
layer:
a. C
b. D
Y
c. E
d. F
O

==================
11. Scattered patches of high ionisation developed seasonally at the height
of one of the layers is called:
AK

a. sporadic-E
b. patchy
c. random reflectors
d. trans-equatorial ionisation
==================
M

12. For long distance propagation, the radiation angle of energy from the
antenna should be:
a. less than 30 degrees
b. more than 30 degrees but less than forty-five
c. more than 45 degrees but less than ninety
d. 90 degrees
==================

13. The path radio waves normally follow from a transmitting antenna to a
receiving antenna at VHF and higher frequencies is a:
a. circular path going north or south from the transmitter
b. great circle path
c. straight line
d. bent path via the ionosphere
==================
14. A radio wave may follow two or more different paths during propagation
and produce slowly-changing phase differences between signals at the
receiver resulting in a phenomenon called:
a. absorption
b. baffling
c. fading
d. skip

OP
==================
15. The distance from the far end of the ground wave to the nearest point
where the sky wave returns to the earth is called the:
a. skip distance
b. radiation distance

L
c. skip angle
d. skip zone
YO
==================
16. High Frequency long-distance propagation is most dependent on:
a. ionospheric reflection
b. tropospheric reflection
c. ground reflection
Y
d. inverted reflection
==================
17. The layer of the ionosphere mainly responsible for long distance
O

communication is:
a. C
AK

b. D
c. E
d. F
==================
18. The ionisation level of the ionosphere reaches its minimum:
M

a. just after sunset

b. just before sunrise
c. at noon
d. at midnight
==================
19. One of the ionospheric layers splits into two parts during the day called:
a. A&B
b. D1 & D2
c. E1 & E2
d. F1 & F2
==================
20. Signal fadeouts resulting from an 'ionospheric storm' or 'sudden
ionospheric disturbance' are usually attributed to:
a. heating of the ionised layers

b. over-use of the signal path

c. insufficient transmitted power
d. solar flare activity
==================
21. The 80 metre band is useful for working:
a. in the summer at midday during high sunspot activity
b. long distance during daylight hours when absorption is not significant
c. all points on the earth's surface
d. up to several thousand kilometres in darkness but atmospheric and man-
made noises tend to be high
==================
22. The skip distance of radio signals is determined by the:
a. type of transmitting antenna used
b. power fed to the final amplifier of the transmitter
c. only the angle of radiation from the antenna

OP
d. both the height of the ionosphere and the angle of radiation from the
antenna
==================
23. Three recognised layers of the ionosphere that affect radio propagation
are:

L
a. A, E, F
b. B, D, E
YO
c. C, E, F
d. D, E, F
==================
24. Propagation on 80 metres during the summer daylight hours is limited to
relatively short distances because of
Y
a. high absorption in the D layer
b. the disappearance of the E layer
O

c. poor refraction by the F layer

d. pollution in the T layer
==================
AK

25. The distance from the transmitter to the nearest point where the sky
wave returns to the earth is called the:
a. angle of radiation
b. maximum usable frequency
c. skip distance
M

d. skip zone
==================
26. A variation in received signal strength caused by slowly changing
differences in path lengths is called:
a. absorption
b. fading
c. fluctuation
d. path loss
==================

27. VHF and UHF bands are frequently used for satellite communication
because:
a. waves at these frequencies travel to and from the satellite relatively
unaffected by the ionosphere
b. the Doppler frequency change caused by satellite motion is much less
than at HF
c. satellites move too fast for HF waves to follow
d. the Doppler effect would cause HF waves to be shifted into the VHF and
UHF bands.
==================
28. The 'critical frequency' is defined as the:
a. highest frequency to which your transmitter can be tuned
b. lowest frequency which is reflected back to earth at vertical incidence
c. minimum usable frequency

OP
d. highest frequency which will be reflected back to earth at vertical
incidence
==================
29. The speed of a radio wave:
a. varies indirectly to the frequency

L
b. is the same as the speed of light
c. is infinite in space
YO
d. is always less than half the speed of light
==================
30. The MUF for a given radio path is the:
a. mean of the maximum and minimum usable frequencies
b. maximum usable frequency
Y
c. minimum usable frequency
d. mandatory usable frequency
O

==================
31. The position of the E layer in the ionosphere is:
a. above the F layer
AK

b. below the F layer

c. below the D layer
d. sporadic
==================
32. A distant amplitude-modulated station is heard quite loudly but the
M

modulation is at times severely distorted. A similar local station is not

affected. The probable cause of this is:
a. transmitter malfunction
b. selective fading
c. a sudden ionospheric disturbance
d. front end overload
==================
33. Skip distance is a term associated with signals through the ionosphere.
Skip effects are due to:
a. reflection and refraction from the ionosphere
b. selective fading of local signals
c. high gain antennas being used
d. local cloud cover
==================

34. The type of atmospheric layers which will best return signals to earth are:
a. oxidised layers
b. heavy cloud layers
c. ionised layers
d. sun spot layers
==================
35. The ionosphere:
a. is a magnetised belt around the earth
b. consists of magnetised particles around the earth
c. is formed from layers of ionised gases around the earth
d. is a spherical belt of solar radiation around the earth
==================
36. The skip distance of a sky wave will be greatest when the:
a. ionosphere is most densely ionised
b. signal given out is strongest

OP
c. angle of radiation is smallest
d. polarisation is vertical
==================
37. If the height of the reflecting layer of the ionosphere increases, the skip
distance of a high frequency transmission:

L
a. stays the same
b. decreases
YO
c. varies regularly
d. becomes greater
==================
38. If the frequency of a transmitted signal is so high that we no longer
receive a reflection from the ionosphere, the signal frequency is above
Y
the:
a. speed of light
O

b. sun spot frequency

c. skip distance
d. maximum usable frequency
AK

==================
39. A 'line of sight' transmission between two stations uses mainly the:
a. ionosphere
b. troposphere
c. sky wave
M

d. ground wave
==================
40. The distance travelled by ground waves in air:
a. is the same for all frequencies
b. is less at higher frequencies
c. is more at higher frequencies
d. depends on the maximum usable frequency
==================

41. The radio wave from the transmitter to the ionosphere and back to earth
is correctly known as the:
a. sky wave
b. skip wave
c. surface wave
d. F layer
==================
42. Reception of high frequency radio waves beyond 4000 km normally
occurs by the:
a. ground wave
b. skip wave
c. surface wave
d. sky wave
==================

OP
43. A 28 MHz radio signal is more likely to be heard over great distances:
a. if the transmitter power is reduced
b. during daylight hours
c. only during the night
d. at full moon

L
==================
44. The number of high frequency bands open to long distance
YO
communication at any time depends on:
a. the highest frequency at which ionospheric reflection can occur
b. the number of frequencies the receiver can tune
c. the power being radiated by the transmitting station
d. the height of the transmitting antenna
==================
Y

45. Regular changes in the ionosphere occur approximately every 11:

a. days
O

b. months
c. years
AK

d. centuries
==================
46. When a HF transmitted radio signal reaches a receiver, small changes in
the ionosphere can cause:
a. consistently stronger signals
M

b. a change in the ground wave signal

c. variations in signal strength
d. consistently weaker signals
==================
47. The usual effect of ionospheric storms is to:
a. increase the maximum usable frequency
b. cause a fade-out of sky-wave signals
c. produce extreme weather changes
d. prevent communications by ground wave
==================

48. Changes in received signal strength when sky wave propagation is used
are called:
a. ground wave losses
b. modulation losses
c. fading
d. sunspots
==================
49. Although high frequency signals may be received from a distant station
by a sky wave at a certain time, it may not be possible to hear them an
hour later. This may be due to:
a. changes in the ionosphere
b. shading of the earth by clouds
c. changes in atmospheric temperature
d. absorption of the ground wave signal

OP
==================
50. VHF or UHF signals transmitted towards a tall building are often received
at a more distant point in another direction because:
a. these waves are easily bent by the ionosphere
b. these waves are easily reflected by objects in their path

L
c. you can never tell in which direction a wave is travelling
d. tall buildings have elevators
YO
==================
O Y
AK
M

Section 29 Interference and Filtering

Filters

L OP
YO
Filters can be active or passive. Passive filters, comprised of inductors and
capacitors, are used for the suppression of unwanted signals and interference.
These are treated below.
Y
Active filters use amplifying devices such as transistors or integrated circuits with
feedback applied to achieve the required filter characteristics.
O

The "operational amplifier" is one such active device with features making it
particularly suitable for filter applications up to a few megahertz. This diagram
AK

shows a typical example.

These can have a very high gain but with negative feedback applied, are usually
operated to produce a circuit with unity gain. The input impedance to such a
M

circuit can be very high. These circuits are compact, and able to have variable Q,
centre, and cut-off frequencies. The circuit gain and performance can be adjusted
by changes to the feedback network.

Key clicks

L OP
YO
O Y
AK

In a CW transmission, the envelope of the keyed RF output waveform may be as

shown in this upper diagram - a square-wave. When analysed this will be found
to be composed of a large number of sinewaves.
M

These sidebands may extend over an wide part of the adjacent band and be
annoying to listeners - a form of click or thud each time your key is operated.

To prevent this happening, the high-frequency components of the keying

waveform must be attenuated. In practice this means preventing any sudden
changes in the amplitude of the RF signal. With suitable shaping, it is possible to
produce an envelope waveform as shown in the lower diagram.

One means for doing this is a key-click filter as shown in this diagram. When the
key contacts close, the inductance of the iron-cored choke prevents the key
current from rising too suddenly. When the contacts are broken, the capacitor

keeps the keyed current going for a short period. The resistor prevents the
discharge current from being excessive.

Note that the body of the key is at earth potential at all times - for safety reasons.

Interference
Radio transmissions can cause interference to other Radio Services and to
nearby electronic equipment. Some Radio Frequency Interference (RFI) can
render some equipment completely useless.

The term "Electromagnetic Compatibility" (EMC), is the preferred title and reflects
the need for all devices to co-exist together in the same electromagnetic
environment.

OP
The responsibility for avoidance of, and the suppression of, interference to other
Radio Services, is a Radio Regulatory matter is considered in the section on
Regulations

L
This Interference and Filtering section will consider the causes of and solutions to
common RFI problems - problems that arise when your transmitted signal "gets
YO
into" your own and other television receivers and other appliances.

It is important, for domestic and for neighbourhood harmony, to be able to correct

manufacturing deficiencies in consumer electronics.
Y

Filter passbands
O

Filters form the basis of many RFI circuits. A

filter is a frequency-selective circuit which
AK

passes signals of certain frequencies while

attenuating others. Filters are able to select
desired frequencies from undesired
frequencies so they are fundamental to
suppressing interference.
M

Typical measures of a filter are its cut-off

frequency and its Q.

The cut-off frequency is defined as the

frequency at which the signal will be reduced
to half the power of the maximum signal
passed. The Q (or quality) of a filter is a
measure of how "sharp" the filter is. High-Q
filters are those with a relatively narrow bandwidth, while low-Q filters have a
relatively wide bandwidth. A filter's bandwidth is the frequency separation
between cut-off frequencies.

This diagram shows the four common filter types. They are easy to recognise.

Low Pass filters exhibit the typical characteristic shown in 1.

High Pass is shown in 2.
Band Pass is shown in 3.
Band Stop in 4.

These diagrams are for demonstration only. Practical filters exhibit considerable
differences and more pronounced characteristics.

Broadcast and Television Interference

TV interference is of two types -

TV receivers which radiate spurious emissions and cause interference to the

signals you are trying to receive on the amateur bands, and

OP
interference which your transmissions cause to TV reception on adjacent
television receivers.

It is the second variety that is the more important and the more difficult.

L
The text following is based on the NZART document: "A Code of Practice for
YO
Radio and Television Interference Cases" dated 1981, published in "Break-In"
October 1981.

A copy of the original document can be obtained from NZART Headquarters,

P.O. Box 40-525, Upper Hutt or at mailto:nzart@clear.net.nz . Please give this
reference to the month and year of this "Break-In" issue and your postal address.
O Y

A Code of Practice for Radio and Television

Interference Cases
AK

1. Introduction

This is a guide for radio amateurs whose operations come to the attention of
neighbours through disturbance to reception of sound broadcast and television
M

transmissions (BCI and TVI). This disturbance is a continuing risk in amateur

radio, and all radio amateurs can expect to cause or to be accused of causing
BCI or TVI at some time. The interference is not damaging and the accusation
does not bring any disgrace.

Interference between one radio service and another is inevitable from time to
time, because all services share the one radio frequency spectrum.

You must face the problem only when it arises, and you should not worry about it
beforehand. You should not fear a TVI or BCI report in any way or restrict your
activities or hours of operation because a report may arise.

The best advice is this: ensure that the apparatus in your own home is free from
interference caused by your amateur radio activities--and be active on the air. In

all cases of interference, a cure is possible. Problems can be cured only as they
arise. In reading this guide, which treats TVI in greater detail, bear in mind that in
BCI cases you must take a similar approach.

The exact procedure to follow in interference cases cannot be laid down. Each
case differs. Neighbours have been known to complain of interference after a
radio amateur has erected a new aerial but before it has been used for
transmitting. In other cases, neighbours have tolerated overhearing transmissions
because they like to feel informed. Few hard and-fast rules can be offered.

2. BCI

Interference to broadcast-band receivers is often reported. The broadcast

receiver cannot be considered to be of adequate design unless it has a radio-
frequency amplifier stage and is connected to an outside aerial. An internal aerial

OP
or an aerial in the same room as the receiver is not to be accepted as
satisfactory.

The amateur's transmissions may be able to be received at various points on the

L
tuning dial, but the generally-accepted rule is that the case is one of interference
only when reception of the local broadcast stations is disturbed.
YO
3. Interference to audio devices

By some reports, an amateur's transmissions are heard from record players,

stereo grams, and similar audio devices that are not designed for the reception of
radio transmissions.
Y

On receiving a report of interference to such an audio device, courteously discuss

the matter with the owner, and advise him to contact the supplier or his supplier’s
agent to arrange for it to receive attention and to have the deficiency cured.
AK

These devices are not designed to be radio receivers.

4. TVI

The important point to remember about TVI is that it can be cured. Bear this point
M

in mind at all times. TVI must be challenged head-on and a cure found for each
separate case. Unfortunately, there may be no easy way or shortcut.

5 Preliminaries

When you start transmitting from a new neighbourhood or with a new rig, first
ensure that your own television set is absolutely free from TVI. Then operate
without any self-imposed restrictions of any sort. That is, operate when you want
to, for as long as you wish, on any authorised band, with any power up to your
legal limit, and with no disturbance to your own television receiver.

A radio amateur's first operating concern should be to ensure that the television
receiver in his own home is disturbance-free. It should not display any
interference.when operation is taking place on the frequented amateur bands.

Your television receiver is very close to the transmitter and its aerial. Having your
TV receiver ''clean" is important for several reasons, the first being that it
promotes domestic or family harmony! Your receiver will be the subject of the first
tests the MED RSM Official may want to make--and revealing a clean display on
your own television set will incline him in your favour. Revealing a clean set can
also help you to deal with neighbours who do not believe that the fault lies in their
own installation. If your own TV set is not TVI free, therefore you should make it
so!

6. The wait

OP
Do not ask the neighbours for TVI reports. Let the neighbours first report the
matter either to yourself or to the MED RSM. Wait for the TVI reports (if any) to
come to you-- they may never come.

L
7 . Reports
YO
TVI reports can come from several directions and in several ways.

The neighbour may contact you or a member of your family. An MED RSM
Official may contact you. The report may be very complete, may be garbled or
incomplete, may be casual, or may be second or third hand. Be sure you
recognise a TVI report as such, and note it well.
Y

8. Action upon receiving a report

a. Do not delay. Attend to the matter promptly.

b. Check what you learn against your own operating activities and against your
log. Have you changed bands, changed aerials, or built a new amplifier? Does
the report coincide with changes to your installation or operating habits?
M

c. Check that any interference is in fact due to you. Be sure that it is not from a
neighbour's new electric drill, arc welder, or other appliance, or from some other
source.

d. Check with family members who view your own television set. Was any
interference observed at the time claimed?

e. Show concern, but do not admit any responsibility for the interference at this
stage. Wait until tests have been conducted.

f. Determine whether the MED RSM staff have or have not been notified.

g. Get full details of the interference, the time, the channel, and the nature of the
interference on picture and on the sound. Has it just started, or is the problem of
long standing?

h. Details of the model or type of television receiver, feeder, and aerial are also
useful.

i. Start a notebook with date, time, and details of the report. Because even cases
with big problems have small beginnings, start an accurate record early. You
cannot be sure of the final outcome.

j. Above all don't worry.

9. When should you contact the MED RSM?

OP
This depends on the nature of the TVI report reaching you, the degree of co-
operation shown by the neighbours, and how well you know them. If the
neighbour directs threats or abuse at you, or is not known to you, or claims that

L
the fault is wholly yours, do not hesitate to notify the MED RSM by telephone.
YO
You would be wise to be prepared to give a short history of any previous TVI
problems you have experienced in this same location. Have you cured similar
problems? This is where the notebook becomes useful.

If you do not show any TVI on your own set, continue to operate until the matter
can be investigated.
Y

If your neighbour is co-operative and is prepared to let you or a friend examine

the set; then offer to do some tests to try to reproduce the conditions that gave
rise to the interference. You may be able to cure the problem without involving
AK

the MED RSM staff at all.

Please be aware that the MED RSM may charge someone for their services.
Make enquiries first to determine any costs involved and where their account is
likely to be directed. This may depend on where the source of the interference is
M

finally found.

10. The cause

The technical mechanism or whatever generates the interference or disturbance

must be established early to determine:

a. The cure necessary, and,

b. Who is responsible for affecting a cure, and,

c. Who is to pay any expenses involved.

Because tests must be carried out to determine this mechanism, the following are
necessary:

a. Access to the television set for tests,

b. Operation of the transmitting equipment, and,

c. Someone with TVI tracing experience to decide which tests should be done, to
carry out the tests, and to interpret the results.

This means that the radio amateur and the neighbour must be present for the
period of the tests. That is, co-operation is necessary.

The tests may or may not be conducted by the MED RSM. They could be
conducted by some other competent person provided the co-operation of the

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neighbour is assured.

Note that one or more mechanisms may be creating the interference, and so
more than one cure may be necessary at any television installation. At any one

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transmitter site, the disturbance in adjacent television receivers may be
generated by quite different mechanisms.
YO
11. The problems

The two problems that arise with TVI are:

a. Technical, and,
Y

b. Social.
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Few people will comment on which is the more difficult! The technical cause may
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be:

a. At the transmitter installation, or,

b. At the receiver installation, or,

c. Somewhere else, or,

d. Combinations of these.

12. The tests

The first tests should be elementary:

a. Check the TV installation. Is the aerial in good order? Is it installed in

accordance with accepted practice? Is the ribbon / coax in good order? Is a balun
fitted? Is the aerial adequate for the TV field strength at the site? Is the aerial
suitable for the TV channels received at the site? Check the suitability of the
aerial mount. Check the joints between feeder and aerial elements. Do not

assume that because a television aerial has been commercially installed that it
will have been correctly installed. The requirements of a TV aerial to reject
interference are more stringent than those for satisfactory reception when
interference is absent. An aerial which gives satisfactory reception when installed
may prove inadequate later when a source of interference comes into being.

b. Have another operator work the transmitter on the frequency from which
interference is suspected. Note any disturbance to picture, colour, or sound.
Make adjustments to accessible controls - fine tuning, contrast, and colour.
Check all television channels. A VHF link to the transmitter operator is useful for
co-ordination

c. Substitute another television receiver (perhaps a different model) and repeat

the tests. Use a television set known to be TVI-free in a similar location.

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d. Do not remove the back from the television set. Confine tests to operational
tests, intended only to identify the nature of the disturbance, but try a high-pass
filter (if available) in the television aerial lead if a quick diagnosis decides that this
might help, if the neighbour agrees.

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e. Obtain details of the set's make and model. Is it under guarantee? How old is
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it? Who supplied it? Is it under a service contract? Who maintains it? Is it a rental
set?

f. Has an official from the MED RSM viewed the set? Does the MED RSM know
of the problem ?
Y

g. Keep the test short, make no promises, and do not give an opinion at the site.
Withdraw, consult textbooks and other persons for advice, and then decide on a
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course of action.
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13. The rusty-bolt effect

High-pass filters (at the television receiver aerial terminals) and low-pass filters
(at the transmitter) do not always cure TVI problems. Substitution of other TV
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sets can generally show if the cause is a faulty transmitter or faulty television
receiver, but if substitution shows the interference effect to continue, then the
cause becomes more difficult to establish. The ''rusty-bolt" effect is one of the
hardest of all these TVI causes to locate.

If a known clean transmitter is causing interference to a known good television

receiver, then an external cause can be suspected. Perhaps the transmitter
signal is being picked up by a local conductor such as a clothes-line or fence-
wire. A rusty or corroded joint in this conductor may be acting as a diode.
Harmonics of the transmitter signal could be produced by this spurious diode
detector and re-radiated. These harmonics can be received by the television
receiver and cause interference to the picture or sound.

Such interference may vary with the weather. It may be intermittent and be
affected by wind as well as rain.

Typical offenders are metal-tile roofs, metal gutters and down pipes. A heavy
blow with a hammer may sometimes correct an offending joint. Applying water
from a hose can sometimes change or remove the interfering source and help to
identify the culprit.

Either bonding or insulating the offending joint may solve the problem. More than
one joint may be causing trouble. Bonding is generally impossible with metal tiles.
Shifting the television aerial away from the offending harmonic source or sources
is a more practical cure. A bonded wire mesh over the offending joint may be
considered. It is unlikely that a complete metal roof will have to be bonded to
effect a cure.

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Bonding suspect joints can sometimes produce problems. With bonded
conductors, a better signal pick-up may result, larger radio frequency currents
may flow, and the problem may shift to another joint that was hitherto not
suspect. Insulating the suspect joints may sometimes be more effective. A

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change to nylon guy-wires may sometimes eliminate problem joints.
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The accepted rule is that if the offending joints are on the amateur's property, the
problem is his. If the offending joints are on the property of the television set's
owner the problem is his, Unfortunately, few set-owners understand this problem
and so the radio amateur should offer technical assistance and advice. Re-siting
the television set aerial or the transmitting aerial is often the only practicable cure.
Y

14. Guarantees and service contracts

If the television set has been shown to be faulty and is under a guarantee or a
service contract, then give the firm concerned early advice of the problem. This is
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best done after the MED RSM has been advised and the problem discussed.
Advise the firm concerned that the MED RSM is aware of the problem. These
actions are really the concern of the television set's owner, but the radio amateur
may offer to assist.
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15. Rental sets

Rental sets should be treated in the same way as a set with a service contract. A
rental set has the advantage that a change to another model may be possible,
which could cure an otherwise difficult problem.

16. Getting involved with other people's gear

As a radio amateur, you should be aware of the undesirability of agreeing to fix a

neighbour's equipment. The equipment may be under guarantee, may be
covered by a service contract, or may be rented. It may not belong to the person
who is using it, who may not always be honest and forthright about ownership.
Where to draw the line depends very much on how well you know the neighbour,
and other factors, such as the age of the set, and the nature of the problem itself.

Your ''unauthorised tampering" may invalidate guarantees and service contracts.

Future problems with the equipment - in no way related to the interference
problem - will without doubt be blamed on the radio amateur. No radio amateur
wants to be concerned with the maintenance of his neighbour's equipment for
evermore. The possibility of double-blame must be avoided (first the interference,
and then of damaging the set).

Safety and Regulations are good reasons for keeping out of a neighbour's set.
Many modern television receivers may operate with the chassis alive - at about
half mains voltage. This also means that short lengths of coaxial cable inside the
set (to the aerial isolation unit) could appear to have the outer at earth potential,
but in fact this outer could be at a hazardous potential. Under the various
Electrical Acts and Electrical Regulations, a radio amateur is not qualified to
service mains-operated television receivers.

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17. What level of interference is tolerable?

Slight disturbances on a television test pattern which are barely noticed by a

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trained eye will not be seen on a television picture.
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Disturbances of the same level as the noise on the picture, and less than
interference from motor vehicle ignition, electrical appliance noise or aircraft
flutter, are acceptable.

Tearing of the picture, herringbones, or switching between colour and black and
white are unacceptable.
Y

The last trace of TVI may be slight changes at the areas of intense red in a
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picture. This is acceptable for unless attention is drawn to it, it will be unnoticed.
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Noises from an adjacent transmitter should not be heard during pauses in the
television sound.

It is wise not to draw the attention of the owner to minor disturbances. Instead,
check if he is satisfied with the quality of reception. The neighbour should be
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unable to tell when you are transmitting.

18. Contact with the equipment manufacturer

Where substitution of another set or other tests have shown that the fault is
within a particular television receiver or other piece of commercial equipment,
consider approaching the manufacturer of the equipment. When or how this
should be done depends on the attitude of the local agent for the equipment, and
the status of the guarantee or service contract. Ideally, the local supplier of the
equipment should handle communications with the manufacturer in cases where
a manufacturer's modification or the expense of a local modification arises. Again
the radio amateur may offer to assist the owner.

If you approach a manufacturer, be certain to include details of model type and

serial numbers, age of set, installation arrangements, tests conducted and their
results, and any other details that will help in an analysis of the problem,
diagnosis of its cause, and the development of a cure.

19. The radio amateur's responsibility for the cure

The radio amateur should accept responsibility for being the cause of TVI, only if
carefully conducted tests have established:

a. That his transmitting installation is faulty, or,

b. That, in the substitution of another transmitter of comparable characteristics,

the problem disappears, or,

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c. That, in more than one adjacent television set, previously TVI-free, the same
interference symptoms suddenly appear at the same time, and coincide with
transmissions from the amateur's transmitter, or,

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d. That a parasitic rectifying joint on the radio amateur's own premises is
generating interfering signal components.
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20. The television set owner's responsibility for the cure.

The owner or user of the television set must accept responsibility for curing the
interference if carefully conducted tests show:
Y

a. That no interference is exhibited on the radio amateur's own television receiver

on the radio amateur's own premises, or,
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b. That a high-pass filter or other trap device on the television aerial eliminates
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the interference, or,

c. That any parasitic rectifying junction is shown to be located on the property of

the television set's owner or user, or,
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d. That another television receiver substituted at the television installation fails to

display the same interference, or,

e. That other attention at the television installation will cure the interference; for
example, repairs to the aerial or feeder, or a shift of the television aerial to
another position.

22. The viewers' choice

If a television viewer chooses to view television programmes on a defective set,

or a set with a defective installation, he should not expect a radio amateur to
cease transmissions to remove the disturbances to his viewing.

25. Terminology

Be careful with the use of words. An amateur transmitter does not "interfere with''
or ''cause interference'' to television reception until properly conducted tests have
clearly established that the fault is in the transmitting equipment or the
transmitting installation.

A properly adjusted transmitter, radiating a ''clean" signal, does not ''radiate

interference'' or ''cause interference". Disturbances to television reception should
not be described as "interference" if the television set has deficiencies in its
design or installation that cause it to respond to signals from a "clean'' transmitter.

A faulty television receiver or installation that responds to the amateur

transmitter's ''clean'' signal does not exhibit "interference'' - although this is the
term often given to it (TVI). ''Reception is being disturbed'' is a better description.

If the transmitter is faulty and radiates energy that enters the television set at the

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television channel frequencies, then this is clearly a case of ''interference''. The
amateur transmitter is then ''radiating an interfering signal''.

If the fault is at the television receiver, and the transmitter is blameless, then the

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transmitter cannot be said to be ''causing interference".

26. The approach

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Be tactful when explaining to a neighbour that his television receiver or
installation is faulty. An explanation such as follows is satisfactory and typical:

''You have a very good set. It displays each channel very well, with good crisp
Y

pictures and pleasant sound. Unfortunately, it also responds to signals not meant
for it, and this means it is defective. Other sets in the area are known to be
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unaffected in this way ... By means of some tests, we can determine if the fault is
inside the set, or if it can be cured by changes to your aerial, or if your installation
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needs a filter or trap added to the aerial lead.'' The punch line ''it also responds to
signals not meant for it, and this means it is defective should be carefully
explained.

Contact with the neighbours may be by a visit, telephone, or a formal letter. The
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procedure to adopt depends how approachable they are, how well you know
them, and where the TVI report came from, and how it was conveyed to you.
There is a need to explain to the layman what Radio Frequency Interference
(RFI) is, and what radio amateurs do.

27. No guarantees possible for TVI cures

The possibility of a TVI report is ever present. Once a cure has been effected to a
TVI case, there is no known way of ensuring that the same set will not again
become subject to TVI at some later time, perhaps by other cause. Damage and
corrosion takes its toll of aerials and earthing systems.

Sets age and become faulty. The radio frequency spectrum is a shared resource,
and until we have new knowledge or techniques, all radio amateurs must learn to

live with the possibility of a TVI case arising at any time and be trained in how to
handle it when it does arise.

A radio amateur should not, and can not, give a neighbour a guarantee that a TVI
cure just made will remain effective for any period.

28. Fitting devices to a neighbour's set

It may be found that a high-pass filter, traps, stubs or other device fitted at the
aerial terminals of a neighbour's TV set will cure disturbances to his viewing. It is
important to leave a label or tag securely attached to the set, which gives reason
for the installation of the device - otherwise the device may be removed by
someone in the absence of an interfering signal ''because it has no effect"!

29. Extra assistance

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Every NZART Branch should designate a member of its Committee as
Interference Officer, his duties being to receive requests for assistance on BCI /
TVI matters from members. He should have power to enlist other technically

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qualified members of the Branch into a team to help any member who needs
tests, diagnosis, negotiations, advice, and other support until the case is closed.
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Amateurs should be seen to be united - this is important.

An independent expert third party may be acceptable to a neighbour in difficult

cases.

Branches should be aware that the NZART Council is in a position to help with
Y

problem BCI / TVI cases, particularly where added technical assistance is

required, or where an amateur is under pressure from a local dignitary or
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influential person. NZART Council has the route through the NZART
Administration Liaison Officer available for official negotiations on behalf of a
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member if the Council deems them necessary.

Difficult technical or social TVI/BCI interference problems should be notified to

NZART promptly.
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30. Conclusion

Remember that all BCI and TVI cases are capable of being technically cured. All
you need is patience to test, diagnose the problem, and work out a cure. Many
good textbook and magazine articles have been published and are available. The
problem is not yours alone. Other radio amateurs are available to help you, many
having experience with the problem. The MED RSM are there to help. TVI and
BCI are accepted as a part of radio life and technical progress.

The neighbour also has a part to play. Cooperation and patience are necessary.
Don't allow yourself to worry, and don't allow your neighbour to think that you
should stop your operations.

Question File: 29. Interference & filtering: (3 questions)

1. Electromagnetic compatibility is:
a. two antennas facing each other
b. the ability of equipment to function satisfactorily in its own environment
without introducing intolerable electromagnetic disturbances
c. more than one relay solenoid operating simultaneously
d. the inability of equipment to function satisfactorily together and produce
tolerable electromagnetic disturbances
==================
2. On an amateur receiver, unwanted signals are found at every 15.625

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kHz. This is probably due to:
a. a low-frequency government station
b. a remote radar station
c. radiation from a nearby TV line oscillator
d. none of these

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==================
3. Narrow-band interference can be caused by:
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a. transmitter harmonics
b. a neon sign
c. a shaver motor
d. lightning flashes
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4. Which of the following is most likely to cause broad-band continuous
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interference:
a. an electric blanket switch
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b. a refrigerator thermostat
c. a microwave transmitter
d. poor commutation in an electric motor
AK

==================
5. If broadband noise interference varies when it rains, the most likely
cause could be from:
a. underground power cables
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b. outside overhead power lines

c. car ignitions
d. your antenna connection
==================
6. Before explaining to a neighbour that the reported interference is due to
a lack of immunity in the neighbour's electronic equipment:
a. disconnect all your equipment from their power sources
b. write a letter to the MBIE
c. make sure that there is no interference on your own domestic equipment
d. ignore all complaints and take no action
==================
7. A neighbour's stereo system is suffering RF break-through. One possible
cure is to:
a. put a ferrite bead on the transmitter output lead
b. put a capacitor across the transmitter output

c. use open-wire feeders to the antenna

d. use screened wire for the loudspeaker leads
==================
8. When living in a densely-populated area, it is wise to:
a. always use maximum transmitter output power
b. use the minimum transmitter output power necessary
c. only transmit during popular television programme times
d. point the beam at the maximum number of television antennas
==================
9. When someone in the neighbourhood complains of TVI it is wise to:
a. deny all responsibility
b. immediately blame the other equipment
c. inform all the other neighbours
d. check your log to see if it coincides with your transmissions
==================

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10. Cross-modulation is usually caused by:
a. rectification of strong signals in overloaded stages
b. key-clicks generated at the transmitter
c. improper filtering in the transmitter
d. lack of receiver sensitivity and selectivity

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==================
11. When the signal from a transmitter overloads the audio stages of a
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broadcast receiver, the transmitted signal:
a. can be heard irrespective of where the receiver is tuned
b. appears only when a broadcast station is received
c. is distorted on voice peaks
d. appears on only one frequency
==================
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12. Cross-modulation of a broadcast receiver by a nearby transmitter would

be noticed in the receiver as:
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a. a lack of signals being received

b. the undesired signal in the background of the desired signal
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c. interference only when a broadcast signal is received

d. distortion on transmitted voice peaks
==================
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13. Unwanted signals from a radio transmitter which cause harmful

interference to other users are known as:
a. rectified signals
b. re-radiation signals
c. reflected signals
d. harmonic and other spurious signals
==================
14. To reduce harmonic output from a transmitter, the following could be put
in the transmission line as close to the transmitter as possible:
a. wave trap
b. low-pass filter
c. high-pass filter
d. band reject filter
==================

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15. To reduce energy from an HF transmitter getting into a television
receiver, the following could be placed in the TV antenna lead as close to
the TV as possible:
a. active filter
b. low-pass filter

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c. high-pass filter
d. band reject filter
YO
==================
16. A low-pass filter used to eliminate the radiation of unwanted signals is
connected to the:
a. output of the balanced modulator
b. output of the amateur transmitter
Y
c. input of the stereo system
d. input of the mixer stage of your SSB transmitter
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==================
17. A band-pass filter will:
a. pass frequencies each side of a band
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b. attenuate low frequencies but not high frequencies

c. attenuate frequencies each side of a band
d. attenuate high frequencies but not low frequencies
==================
18. A band-stop filter will:
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a. pass frequencies each side of a band

b. stop frequencies each side of a band
c. only allow one spot frequency through
d. pass frequencies below 100 MHz
==================
19. A low-pass filter for a high frequency transmitter output would:
a. attenuate frequencies above 30 MHz
b. pass audio frequencies below 3 kHz
c. attenuate frequencies below 30 MHz
d. pass audio frequencies above 3 kHz
==================

20. Installing a low-pass filter between the transmitter and transmission line
will:
a. permit higher frequency signals to pass to the antenna
b. ensure an SWR not exceeding 2:1
c. reduce the power output back to the legal maximum
d. permit lower frequency signals to pass to the antenna
==================
21. A low-pass filter may be used in an amateur radio installation:
a. to attenuate signals lower in frequency than the transmission
b. to attenuate signals higher in frequency than the transmission
c. to boost the output power of the lower frequency transmissions
d. to boost the power of higher frequency transmissions
==================
22. Television interference caused by harmonics radiated from an amateur

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transmitter could be eliminated by fitting:
a. a low-pass filter in the TV receiver antenna input
b. a high-pass filter in the transmitter output
c. a low-pass filter in the transmitter output
d. a band-pass filter to the speech amplifier

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==================
23. A high-pass filter can be used to:
YO
a. prevent interference to a telephone
b. prevent overmodulation in a transmitter
c. prevent interference to a TV receiver
d. pass a band of speech frequencies in a modulator
==================
24. A high-pass RF filter would normally be fitted:
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a. between transmitter output and feedline

b. at the antenna terminals of a TV receiver
O

c. at the Morse key or keying relay in a transmitter

d. between microphone and speech amplifier
AK

==================
25. A high-pass filter attenuates:
a. a band of frequencies in the VHF region
b. all except a band of VHF frequencies
c. high frequencies but not low frequencies
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d. low frequencies but not high frequencies

==================
26. An operational amplifier connected as a filter always utilises:
a. positive feedback to reduce oscillation
b. negative feedback
c. random feedback
d. inductors and resistor circuits only
==================

27. The voltage gain of an operational amplifier at low frequencies is:

a. very high but purposely reduced using circuit components
b. very low but purposely increased using circuit components
c. less than one
d. undefined
==================
28. The input impedance of an operational amplifier is generally:
a. very high
b. very low
c. capacitive
d. inductive
==================
29. An active audio low-pass filter could be constructed using:
a. zener diodes and resistors

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b. electrolytic capacitors and resistors
c. an operational amplifier, resistors and capacitors
d. a transformer and capacitors
==================
30. A filter used to attenuate a very narrow band of frequencies centred on

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3.6 MHz would be called:
a. a band-pass filter
YO
b. a high-pass filter
c. a low-pass filter
d. a notch filter
==================
O Y
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Section 30 Digital Communications

Contributed by Murray Greenman ZL1BPU

The original digital means of electrical communication was the Morse code. It is

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still in use today as a very successful method for transferring information by
means other than voice. Today Morse has been joined by some other methods
each with its own advantages and disadvantages.

RTTY, AMTOR, PACTOR, PSK31, Packet Radio and other modes have all been

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given a great boost with the arrival of the computer as a generally available
appliance. In fact some of the new modes would be impossible without the
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computer and the PC sound card. The advent of satellites with store and forward
facilities has also enhanced digital operations.

It is now possible to pass information to many parts of the world with a hand-held
transceiver, modem, and computer, and also to have real-time conversations
Y
around the world using an HF radio and a computer. Each of these means of
digital communication has its own protocol.
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How Digital Modes are Generated

Two common digital coding schemes are used; the ITU-R ITA2 alphabet, (often misnamed the
"Baudot code"), and the ITU-R ITA5 alphabet (or ASCII - American Standard Code for Information
Interchange). ITA2 codes each character as a number between 0 and 31 to represent the various
letters, digits and punctuation marks. To fit more than 32 different characters into the code, most
numbers are used twice, and a special character (a "shift" character) is used to switch between
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the two meanings. The number can be represented by a 5-digit binary number (e.g. 14 = 01110 in
binary). RTTY is one of the few systems that use the ITA2 alphabet today.

The ITA5 alphabet has 128 combinations, so a comprehensive alphabet, including lower and
upper case letters, can be represented in seven binary bits. ITA-5 is used by PACTOR, packet
radio and many other modes. Some digital modes (such as Morse!) use a scheme called a
Varicode where the different characters are represented as numbers of different lengths. If the
more frequently used characters are shorter, the transmission of plain text is therefore more
efficient.

The numbers to be transmitted must then be modulated onto a radio signal in some way. There
are three main properties of a radio signal; frequency, phase and strength (amplitude), so there
are three common modulation methods, and some modes use a combination of two or more of
these. Many modes are transmitted using Frequency Shift Keying (FSK). This in principle consists
of switching between two adjacent frequencies which are used to designate the "0" or "1" data
bits. The two tones must maintain a fixed frequency separation or shift and of course the radio
frequencies must also be stable. The most common shifts used by amateurs on HF for FSK are

170 Hz and 200 Hz. Wider shifts are used on VHF where data rates and signal bandwidths can
be higher. Other modes use more tones (Multiple Frequency Shift Keying, MFSK), or one of the
other techniques, such as Phase Shift Keying (PSK), where the phase of the tone or carrier is
varied, or Amplitude Shift Keying (ASK), where the signal strength is varied or even keyed on and
off.

To send a character over the radio, one bit (binary digit), 0 or 1, is assigned to one of two states,
or if there are more than two possible states (say if there are four tones or four PSK phases), then
two or more bits at a time may define the state to transmit. The data changes the properties of the
signal to be transmitted (i.e. modulates the signal), as each state is fed successively to the
transmitter modulator, to define and transmit each symbol.

For the receiving end to be able to accurately decode the characters sent, the bits must be sent at
a constant speed. The signalling speed of serial data transmissions on wires is measured in bits
per second (bps), since the bits are always sent one at a time. However, the signalling speed on a
radio link is not measured in bits, but in symbols per second (the unit of symbols/sec is the baud).
The symbol is the basic modulated signalling entity on a radio link, and represents the state of

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each signalling interval. Each symbol may carry one or more (or even less) data bits, depending
on the modulation technique. For RTTY, each symbol (a short duration of one tone or another)
carries one data bit, so the speed in bps is the same as the baud rate.

The device that produces a modulated tone symbol for each data state, or creates a data state for
each received tone symbol, is called a modem (a modulator /demodulator). The modem may be

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a special separate unit rather like a telephone modem, or sometimes the modulation is performed
directly on a transmitter oscillator or a modulator, and a separate modem device may not be
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necessary except perhaps for receiving. Equally, the function of a modem now often takes place
in a computer sound card, with the signals fed from it and to it by an SSB transceiver.

RTTY (Radio TeleTYpe) is one of the oldest of the machine-generated digital modes. It does
not necessarily require a computer, as it is simple enough to be handled by a mechanical device
similar to a typewriter - a teleprinter. RTTY, like most other digital modes, works by encoding
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characters into a digital alphabet.
O

Common speeds used by amateurs for RTTY are: 45.5, 50 and 75 baud, equivalent to 60 wpm,
66 wpm, and 100 wpm. (There are five letters and a space in the average "word").
AK

AMTOR is a form of RTTY, now little used, that uses error checking to ensure that the data
sent is received correctly. The message being sent is broken up into groups of three characters
each. A special alphabet is used which has seven bits per character; every valid character always
has a 4:3 ratio of 0s and 1s. This small packet is then transmitted through the modem to the radio.
AMTOR always operates at 100 baud and uses 170 Hz shift FSK.
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The system can operate in two modes, mode A and mode B. Mode A uses Automatic Repeat
Request (ARQ) to ask the sending station to resend any packets that are not received properly
(correct 4:3 ratio) once contact is established. Mode B sends the data twice, and checks the data
but will not ask for a repeat. It is used for establishing contact (i.e. calling CQ) and for net and
bulletin transmissions.

Packet Radio is an ARQ system like AMTOR, but with more powerful error checking and
message handling abilities. Larger packets are used, and encoded in each packet are the sender
and destination addresses, and a very efficient error detection scheme called a Cyclic
Redundancy Check (CRC).

The Packet protocol allows a limited number of stations to carry on independent conversations on
the same frequency without interference. The effective communication rate will be reduced if
many stations are using the same frequency and excessive packet collisions occur.

Packets are assembled and prepared for transmission by a Terminal Node Controller (TNC),
which manages the packet radio protocol and also contains a modem. The individual characters
are usually in the ASCII alphabet, and a packet protocol called AX25 is usually used. The
assembled packet is then passed to the modem and a radio in the same way as AMTOR or
PACTOR.

Packet radio allows automated message forwarding throughout the world. Most activity is on VHF
and higher bands where more stable propagation prevails and FM transmitters and receivers are
used.

Large cities are centres of activity and cities are connected to each other by a series of relay
stations. For longer distances the cities are connected by HF links (using PACTOR) or via internet
or satellite gateways. Store-and-forward relaying is used. Most cities have a Bulletin Board
System (BBS) for packet radio users. These can be used for the circulation of amateur radio
information. They can be accessed by stations comprising a home computer, a simple modem
and a VHF FM transceiver.

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Another popular application of Packet Radio and AX25 is a telemetry technique sometimes called
the Automatic Position Reporting System (APRS), although it is used for much more than
reporting position. Stations with information to pass on send regular standard format messages in
the manner of a beacon, which can be retransmitted by other stations. Applications of this type do
not use bi-directional error correction, but do use automatic forwarding much the same as
conventional packet systems.

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YO
PACTOR is derived from AMTOR. Like AMTOR it is a two-way error correcting system, but
PACTOR dynamically adapts to conditions, switching from 100 baud to 200 baud. PACTOR can
accept a series of imperfect data packets and reassemble them into the correct text. A recent
version of PACTOR, called PACTOR II, uses the same protocol, but uses PSK modulation for
even higher performance.

PSK31 is the most popular of the new digital modes. It is used like RTTY, for live keyboard-to-
Y

keyboard contacts. It uses differential binary PSK modulation at 31.25 baud. It is easy to tune in
and to operate. The signal is very narrow (only 50Hz) and the performance very good, due to the
O

high sensitivity and noise rejection of the PSK technique. PSK31 uses advanced digital signal
processing (DSP), and can be run on many computer platforms, including Windows with a
SoundBlaster type soundcard. The software is available free.
AK

All you need to get going is a stable HF SSB Transceiver of conventional design,
and a computer with a soundcard. You run two shielded audio cables between
the rig and the sound card. The computer with its soundcard does the job of the
modem. You can download FREE software from a web page. When all is set up,
M

you have a live-keyboard system for chatting with other HF stations around the
world. This is a really exciting mode. You can get further details about PSK31
from: http://aintel.bi.ehu.es/psk31.html

Other modes: There are numerous other digital modes in use, and more being introduced
all the time. Many of these are designed for specific applications. For example, MFSK16 was
designed for very long distance low power real-time conversations, and also is most effective on
lower bands with strong multi-path reception and burst noise. CLOVER is an ARQ mode
designed for reliable long distance file transfer under poor conditions, while MT63 was designed
for net operation under severe interference. Some of these modes use interesting modulation
methods such as single or multi-carrier Binary Phase Shift Keying BPSK, Quadrature Phase Shift
Keying QPSK, or Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplex OFDM. There are even special modes
for moon-bounce, auroral signals, very weak LF comunications and satellite operation. Many of
these new modes also use a simple sound card modem and free software.

Don't overlook Hellschreiber. This is a mode with an interesting history. Hellschreiber is a

method for sending text by radio or telephone line that involves dividing each text character into
little pieces and sending them as dots. Hellschreiber was invented by the German inventor,
Rudolf Hell who patented Hellschreiber in 1929.

The same SSB transceiver and computer set-up used for PSK31 can be used for Hellschreiber.
Most Hellschreiber operation uses ASK modulation at 122.5 baud. You can check out the world of
Hell on the web site at: http://www.qsl.net/zl1bpu and download the latest Hell software from
there.

Hellschreiber is becoming popular with HF digital operators, as it provides very good performance
with simple equipment and is easy to use. Its application is as a point-to-point mode for live
contacts in a similar way to RTTY and PSK31. Modern variations such as PSK-Hell and FM-Hell
provide even better performance with features to overcome specific ionospheric limitations of
other digital modes.

OP
Digital Modes and Propagation
While sensitivity and therefore rejection of Broadband Noise is an important property of digital
modes, there are other specific ionospheric problems that affect digital modes more than is
apparent on either Morse or voice modes. Burst Noise (electrical machinery, lightning) causes
errors, interferes with synchronisation of data modes and impedes error correction systems, while

L
Carrier Interference, (TV and mains harmonics, other radio transmissions) will obviously impair
reception of most modes.
YO
There are two other effects which are not so obvious. Multi-path Reception, where the signal
arrives from different paths through the ionosphere with different time delays, can have a
devastating effect on digital modes such as RTTY, that no increase in transmitter power will
correct. The best solution to this problem is to use a mode with a very low baud rate, such as
MFSK16 or MT63, to limit the timing errors. Doppler Modulation, caused mostly by fast moving
Y
air streams in the ionosphere or the movement of the apparent reflective height through changes
in ion density, also has a serious effect, changing especially the phase and even the frequency of
signals. This is best countered by using higher baud rates, or avoiding PSK modes. Doppler can
O

be a big problem with long distance PSK31 operation.

Because the requirements for best performance conflict to some extent, and there is no one mode
AK

which will defeat all the problems, however in all cases the use of an effective error correction
system (designed for the conditions) will provide significant improvements. The best solution is to
choose an appropriate mode for the conditions prevailing at the time.

Automatic Packet Reporting System (APRS) is an amateur radio-based system for

real time tactical digital communications of information of immediate value in the local area. In
addition, all such data is ingested into the APRS Internet system (APRS-IS) and distributed
globally for ubiquitous and immediate access. Along with messages, alerts, announcements and
bulletins, the most visible aspect of APRS is its map display. Anyone may place any object or
information on his or her map, and it is distributed to all maps of all users in the local RF network
or monitoring the area via the Internet. Any station, radio or object that has an attached GPS is
automatically tracked. Other prominent map features are weather stations, alerts and objects and
other map-related amateur radio volunteer activities including Search and Rescue and signal
direction finding.

APRS has been developed since the late 1980s by Bob Bruninga, callsign WB4APR, currently a
senior research engineer at the United States Naval Academy. He still maintains the main APRS
website. The acronym "APRS" was derived from his callsign

Question File: 30. Digital Systems: (1 question)

1. In the block diagram shown, the block designated "modem" is a:

a. modulator/demodulator
b. modulation emphasis unit
c. Morse demodulator
d. MOSFET de-emphasis unit
==================
2. In the block diagram shown, the "modem":

OP
a. monitors the demodulated signals
b. de-emphasises the modulated data

L
c. translates digital signals to and from audio signals
d. determines the modulation protocol
YO
==================
3. The following can be adapted for use as a modem:
a. an electronic keyer
b. a spare transceiver
c. a spare receiver
Y
d. a computer sound-card
==================
4. The following are three digital communication modes:
O

a. DSBSC, PACTOR, NBFM

b. AGC, FSK, Clover
AK

c. PSK31, AFC, PSSN

d. AMTOR, PACTOR, PSK31
==================
5. In digital communications, FSK stands for:
a. phase selection keying
M

b. final section keying

c. frequency shift keying
d. final signal keying
==================
6. In digital communications, BPSK stands for:
a. binary phase shift keying
b. baseband polarity shift keying
c. band pass selective keying
d. burst pulse signal keying
==================
7. When your HF digital transmission is received with errors due to multi-
path conditions, you should:
a. increase transmitter power
b. reduce transmitted baud rate

c. reduce transmitter power

d. change frequency slightly
==================
8. The letters BBS stand for:
a. binary baud system
b. bulletin board system
c. basic binary selector
d. broadcast band stopper
==================
9. APRS is an adaption of packet radio. APRS stands for
a. Automatic Packet Reporting System
b. Amateur Position Reporting System
c. Automatic Packet Relay System
d. Amateur Position Relay System
==================

OP
10. The following communication mode is generally used for connecting to a
VHF packet radio bulletin board:
a. SSB
b. AM
c. FM

L
d. DSB
==================
YO
O Y
AK
M

Mastery Materials GEAS ECE Laws

Due No due date Points 336 Questions 336 Time Limit None
Allowed Attempts Unlimited

Take the Quiz Again

Attempt History
Attempt Time Score

OP
LATEST Attempt 1 204,506 minutes 54 out of 336

L
Score for this attempt: 54 out of 336
Submitted Apr 14 at 8:57pm
This attempt took 204,506 minutes.
YO
Question 1 1 / 1 pts
O Y
What is the short title of RA 9292?
AK

Electronics Engineering Law of 2007

Electronics and Communications Engineering Law of 2004

Correct!
Electronics Engineering Law of 2004

Electronics and Communications Engineering Law of 2007

Question 2 1 / 1 pts

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The science dealing with the development and application of devices and
systems involving the flow of electrons or other carriers of electric charge,
in a vacuum, in gaseous media, in plasma, in semiconductors, in solid-
state and/or in similar devices, including, but not limited to, applications
involving optical, electromagnetic and other energy forms when
transduced or converted into electronic signals.

Communications

OP
Correct!
Electronics

Computers

L
YO
Information and Communications Technology

Question 3 1 / 1 pts
O Y

Any of a variety of electronic devices that is capable of accepting data,

programs and/or instructions, executing the programs and/or instructions

to process the data and presenting the results.
M

Electronics

Communications

Information and Communications Technology

Correct!
Computers

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Question 4 1 / 1 pts

The acquisition, production, transformation, storage and

transmission/reception of data and information by electronic means in
forms such as vocal, pictorial, textual, numeric or the like; also refers to
the theoretical and practical applications and processes utilizing such data
and information.

OP
Electronics

Computers

L
Communications

Correct!
YO
Information and Communications Technology
Y
Question 5 1 / 1 pts
O
AK

The process of sending and/or receiving information, data, signals and/or

messages between two (2) or more points by radio, cable, optical wave
guides or other devices and wired or wireless medium
M

Computers

Electronics

Information and Communications Technology

Correct!
Communications

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Question 6 1 / 1 pts

Any transmission, emission or reception of voice, data, electronic

messages, text, written or printed matter, fixed or moving pictures or
images, words, music or visible or audible signals or sounds, or any
information, intelligence and/or control signals of any design/format and
for any purpose, by wire, radio, spectral, visual/optical/light, or other
electronic, electromagnetic and technological means.

OP
Transmission Engineering

L
Broadcasting

Communications Engineering
YO
Correct!
Telecommunications
O Y

Question 7 0 / 1 pts
AK

An undertaking the object of which is to transmit audio, video, text, images

or other signals or messages for reception of a broad audience in a

geographical area via wired or wireless means.

Telecommunications

ou Answered Transmission Engineering

orrect Answer
Broadcasting

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Communications Engineering

Question 8 1 / 1 pts

Includes all manufacturing establishments and other business endeavors

where electronic or electronically-controlled machinery or equipment are
installed and/or are being used, sold, maintained, assembled,
manufactured or operated.

OP
Electronic Business

Industrial Electronics

L
Correct! Industrial Plant

Electronic Commerce
YO
Y
Question 9 1 / 1 pts
O
AK

Include services requiring adequate technical expertise, experience and

professional capability in undertaking advisory and review, pre-investment
or feasibility studies, design, planning, construction, supervision,
M

management and related services, and other technical studies or special

studies in the field of electronics engineering.

Designing Services

Correct! Consulting Services

Signing Services

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Intermediary Services

Question 10 1 / 1 pts

What is Section 4 of RA 9292?

Powers and Functions of the Board

OP
Nature and Scope of Practice

Correct!
Categories of Practice

L
Composition of the Board
YO
Y
Question 11 1 / 1 pts
O
AK

The nature and scope of practice of electronics engineering and

electronics technician professions is stated in what section of the RA
9292?
M

Correct!
Section 5

Section 6

Section 4

Section 7

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Question 12 1 / 1 pts

Non-engineering work or activity relating to the installation, construction,

operation, control, tests and measurements, diagnosis, repair and
maintenance are the scope of work of what electronics profession?

ECE

OP
RECE

Correct! ECT

L
PECE YO
Y
Question 13 1 / 1 pts
O
AK

What electronics profession has the sole authority to provide consulting

services and to sign and seal electronics plans, drawings, permit
applications, specifications, reports and other technical documents
prepared by himself/herself and/or under his direct supervision?
M

RECE

ECT

ECE

Correct! PECE

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Question 14 1 / 1 pts

The Professional Regulatory Board of Electronics Engineering is

composed of _______

Correct! Chairman and two (2) members

OP
Three (3) members

Commissioner, Chairman and two (2) members

L
Chairman and Commissioner
YO
Question 15 1 / 1 pts
O Y

What is Section 6 of RA 9292?

AK
M

Powers and Functions of the Board

Categories of Practice

Correct! Composition of the Board

Nature and Scope of Practice

Question 16 1 / 1 pts

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Powers and functions of the board of electronics engineering is stated

under what article of the RA 9292?

Correct! Section 7

Section 4

Section 6

OP
Section 5

L
Question 17 YO 0 / 1 pts

What Section 8 of RA 9292?

O Y

Scope of Examination
AK

ou Answered Qualifications for Examination

Compensation and Allowances

orrect Answer Qualifications of Board Members

Question 18 1 / 1 pts

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According to the section 9 of RA 9292, the members of the Board shall

hold office for a term of how many years from the date of appointment?

two years

Correct!
three years

ten years

OP
seven years

L
Question 19 YO 1 / 1 pts

The compensation and allowances of the board of electronics engineering

is stated at what section of the RA 9292?
O Y
AK

Section 12

Correct!
Section 10
M

Section 11

Section 13

Question 20 1 / 1 pts

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What section of the RA 9292 states that all applicants seeking to be

registered and licensed as Electronics Engineers and Electronics
Technicians, shall undergo the required examinations to be given by the
Board?

Section 11

Correct!
Section 13

OP
Section 12

Section 10

L
Question 21
YO 1 / 1 pts
Y
To see whether an applicant for the electronics engineering board
O

examination is qualified or not, what section of the RA 9292 must be

consulted?
AK
M

Section 12

Section 11

Section 13

Correct!
Section 14

Question 22 1 / 1 pts

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What Section 15 of RA 9292?

Compensation and Allowances

Qualifications of Board Members

Correct! Scope of Examination

OP
Qualifications for Examination

1 / 1 pts

L
Question 23
YO
Applicants of Professional Electronics Engineer shall consult what section
of RA 9292 for their requirements?
O Y

Section 17
AK

Section 15
M

Section 16

Correct! Section 18

Question 24 1 / 1 pts

For ECT, guidelines about registration without examination is stipulated on

what section of the RA 9292?
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Section 20

Section 19

Correct! Section 20

Section 18

OP
Question 25 1 / 1 pts

L
Non-issuance of a Certificate of Registration and/or Professional
Identification Card for Certain Grounds is found on what section of the RA
YO
9292?
Y
Correct! Section 21
O

Section 22
AK

Section 24
M

Section 23

Question 26 1 / 1 pts

All successful examinees and all those who have qualified for registration
without examination shall be required to take a professional oath before
any member of the Board or any person authorized by the Commission
before he/she can be registered and issued a Certificate of Registration

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and Professional Identification Card, and as a prerequisite to practicing as

a Professional Electronics Engineer, Electronics Engineer or Electronics
Technician

Section 21

Correct! Section 22

Section 24

OP
Section 23

L
Question 27 1 / 1 pts
YO
Guidelines regarding exemptions from examination and registration for the
electronics professions are stipulated on what section of the RA 9292?
O Y

Correct!
AK

Section 26

Section 21
M

Section 23

Section 22

Question 28 1 / 1 pts

According to Section 27 of the RA 9292, what is needed to be qualified to

perform the work of a Professional Electronics Engineer, Electronics
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Engineer or Electronics Technician?

You can work without license.

Correct!

Valid Certificate of Registration and a valid Professional Identification Card

Notice of Admission from PRC

Valid Professional Identification Card

OP
Question 29 1 / 1 pts

L
YO
Article 5 of the RA 9292 gives sections of the Act regarding
O Y
General Information

Correct!
AK

Sundry Provision

Appropriations
M

Penal Provision

Question 30 1 / 1 pts

CPE or continuing professional education is stipulated on what section of

the RA 9292?

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Section 33

Section 32

Correct! Section 31

Section 34

Question 31 1 / 1 pts

OP
According to section 32 of the RA 9292, there shall be one (1) integrated
and Accredited Professional Organization of Professional Electronics
Engineers, Electronics Engineers and Electronics Technicians in the

L
country. What is the name of this Accredited Professional Organization?
YO
Correct! IECEP
O Y
IEEE
AK

PSME

IIEE
M

Question 32 1 / 1 pts

What is Section 33 of the RA 9292?

Appropriations

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Correct! Foreign Reciprocity

Continuing Professional Education

Accredited Professional Organization

Question 33 1 / 1 pts

Article 6 of the RA 9292 deals with ______

OP
Sundry Provision

L
General Information
YO
Correct! Penal Provision
Y
Appropriations
O
AK

Question 34 1 / 1 pts
M

What section of RA 9292 is the penal provision?

Section 37

Section 36

Section 38

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Correct! Section 35

Question 35 1 / 1 pts

According to the Section 35 of the RA 9292, what is the maximum length

of imprisonment to any individual proven guilty of the violation of the RA
9292?

OP
ten years

two years

L
Correct! six years
YO
three years
O Y

Question 36 1 / 1 pts
AK

According to the transitory provision, section 37 of the RA 9292, who shall

appoint the Chairman and members of the first Board of Electronics

engineering?

Correct! President of the Philippines

Secretary of Education

Commissioner of the Board

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PRC

Question 37 1 / 1 pts

What is the Section 40 of RA 9292?

Correct! Appropriations

OP
Penal Provision

General Information

L
Sundry Provision
YO
Y
Question 38 1 / 1 pts
O
AK

What section of the RA 9292 repeals the RA 5734?

Section 35

Section 41

Correct! Section 42

Section 38

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Question 39 1 / 1 pts

RA 9292 is consolidation of the House Bill No. ______ and Senate Bill No.
_______

2412 and 4212

Correct!
5224 and 2683

OP
5224 and 2214

3212 and 4512

L
Question 40
YO 0 / 1 pts
Y
Date of approval of RA 9292
O
AK

ou Answered April 14, 2007

orrect Answer April 17, 2004

None of these

April 14, 2004

Question 41 1 / 1 pts

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There are __ Articles and _ sections in the RA 9292.

7, 43

Correct! 8, 43

7,42

8,42

OP
Question 42 1 / 1 pts

L
Any person who shall violate any provision of RA 9292 or any rules,
YO
regulations, the Code of Ethics and the Code of Technical Standards of
Practice is stated in section _________.
O Y

36
AK

Correct! 35
M

Question 43 1 / 1 pts

This act is was consolidation of House Bill No. 5224 and Senate Bill No.
2683.
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RA 5734

Correct! RA 9292

None of these

RA 6541

OP
Question 44 1 / 1 pts

L
The chairperson of the PRC shall include in the Commission’s program
the implementation of RA 9292, the funding of w/c shall be included in the
YO
Annual General Appropriation Act.
Y
Sec 39
O

Sec 41
AK

Sec 42

Correct!
M

Sec 40

Question 45 1 / 1 pts

According to section 43, RA 9292 shall take effect __________ following

its full publication in the __________ or any newspaper of general
circulation.

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30 days, internet

15 days, internet

Correct! 15 days, Official Gazette

15 days, Law Gazette

Question 46 1 / 1 pts

OP
Who among the following persons was not a signatory of the 9292?

L
JOSE DE VENECIA JR
YO
FRANKLIN DRILON
Y
Correct! JESUS P. NAZARENO
O

OSCAR G. YABES
AK
M

Question 47 1 / 1 pts

Section 40 of RA 9292.

Correct! Appropriations

Effectivity

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Separability clause

Repealing clause

Question 48 1 / 1 pts

Which of the following is not true for the qualifications of Board Members
of Electronics Engineering?

OP
Must not have been convicted of an offense involving moral turpitude

L
Correct!
YO
Be a citizen and a resident of the Philippines for 5 consecutive yrs prior to
his appointment

Be of good moral character and integrity

O Y
Member of good standing of the APO
AK

Question 49 1 / 1 pts
M

All records of the Board, including applications for the examination,

administrative cases involving PECE, ECE and ECTs shall be kept by

APO

Correct! PRC

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IECEP

BECE

Question 50 1 / 1 pts

The members of the Board shall hold office for a term of __________ from
date of appointment or until their successors shall have been appointed
and qualified and may be re-appointed once for another term.

OP
Correct!
3 years

L
at least 3 years
YO
5 years
Y
two years
O
AK

Question 51 1 / 1 pts
M

Section 7 states that the Board is vested with the authority to: Adopt an
official __________ of the Board.

logo

icon

Avatar

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Correct! Seal

Question 52 1 / 1 pts

The compensation and allowances of the Board is comparable to that

being received by the Chairman and members of existing regulatory
boards under the Commission as provided for in the __________.

OP
Correct! Gen Appropriations Act

RA 1992

L
DBM
YO
Civil Service
O Y

Question 53 1 / 1 pts
AK

Each member of the Board shall take the/a __________ prior to the
M

assumption of office.

board exam

Correct! proper oath

panel interview from the Appointment committee

none of these

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Question 54 0 / 1 pts

How much or what fine is required for any person who shall violate any
provision or any rules, regulations, the Code of Ethics and the Code of
Technical Standards of Practice promulgated under RA 9292?

none of these

OP
ou Answered
Not less than Php100,000.00 nor more than Php 1M or by imprisonment of
not less than 6 months nor more than 6 years

L
orrect Answer
YO
Not less than Php100,000.00 nor more than Php 1M or by imprisonment of
not less than 6 months nor more than 6 years, or both, in the discretion of
the court
O Y

Php100,000.00 to Php 1M or 6 yrs imprisonment or both, in the discretion

of the court
M

Question 55 1 / 1 pts

The Board and the __________ shall correct and rate the licensure
examination papers

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APO

none of these

Correct! Commission

IECEP

Question 56 1 / 1 pts

OP
According to section 2-Statement of Policy, the state shall therefore
develop and nurture competent, virtuous, productive, and __________
PECE, ECE, and ECTs

L
YO
God-fearing
Y
Correct! well-rounded
O

versatile
AK

religious
M

Question 57 1 / 1 pts

Within __________ years after the effectivity of RA 9292, the Board shall
issue Certificate of Registration and Professional Identification Cards
without examination to all applicants for registration as Electronics
Technicians who comply to all the requirements stated in section 20.

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Correct! 5 (five)

3 (three)

none of these

7 (seven)

Question 58 1 / 1 pts

OP
All submittals/documents shall be accompanied by a certification from
__________ registered PECEs vouching for the integrity, technical
capability and good moral character of the applicant.

L
YO
none of these
Y
5
O

Correct! at least 3
AK

3
M

Unanswered Question 59 0 / 1 pts

This memorandum circular enforces that no passenger and/or cargo

vessel registered with the Philippine Government shall attempt or willfully
leave any Philippine port without the prescribed radio installation on
board.

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NTC MC-4-08-89

NTC MC-8-04-98

orrect Answer NTC MC-4-09-88

NTC MC-4-08-98

Unanswered
Question 60 0 / 1 pts

OP
According to NTC MC-4-09-88, radio installation is optional for _____.

L
passenger vessel below 350 G.T.
YO
lighterage vessels for coastwise operation
Y
orrect Answer cargo vessel below 350 G.T.
O

lighterage vessels for bay and river operation

AK
M

Unanswered
Question 61 0 / 1 pts

According to NTC MC-4-09-88, the MF/CW International Distress Channel

is _____.

2182 kHz

4125 kHz

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orrect Answer 500 kHz

156.8 MHz

Unanswered Question 62 0 / 1 pts

According to NTC MC-4-09-88, the HF/SSB International Distress

Channel is _____.

OP
156.8 MHz

orrect Answer 2182 kHz

L
4125 kHz

500 kHz
YO
Y
Unanswered Question 63 0 / 1 pts
O
AK

According to NTC MC-4-09-88, the VHF International Distress Channel is

_____.
M

2182 kHz

4125 kHz

500 kHz

orrect Answer 156.8 MHz

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Unanswered Question 64 0 / 1 pts

According to NTC MC-4-09-88, the Alternate HF/SSB International

Distress Channel is _____.

500 kHz

OP
156.8 MHz

orrect Answer 4125 kHz

L
2182 kHz
YO
Unanswered Question 65 0 / 1 pts
O Y

The implementing rules and regulations for RA 7925 is articulated in

_____.
M

NTC MC 09-08-95

orrect Answer NTC MC 08-09-95

NTC MC 09-09-85

NTC MC 08-05-99

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Unanswered Question 66 0 / 1 pts

It refers to a remuneration paid to a carrier by the interconnecting carriers

for accessing the facilities of such carrier which is needed by the
interconnecting carriers for the origination and/or termination of all types
of traffic derived from interconnection.

cross subsidy

OP
dial charge

basic telephone charge

L
orrect Answer access charge
YO
Unanswered Question 67 0 / 1 pts
O Y

National Service Performance Standards for Telecommunications

Services (Telephone, Telegraph and Telex Services)

NTC MC 11-9-93

NTC MC 20-12-92

orrect Answer NTC MC 10-17-90

NTC MC 10-18-90

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Unanswered Question 68 0 / 1 pts

Implementing Guidelines on the Provisions of EO 109

orrect Answer NTC MC 11-9-93

NTC MC 10-18-90

OP
NTC MC 10-17-90

NTC MC 20-12-92

L
Unanswered Question 69
YO 0 / 1 pts

Rules and Regulations Governing Public Repeater Network Services in

Y
the Philippines
O
AK

NTC MC 10-17-90
M

orrect Answer NTC MC 10-18-90

NTC MC 11-9-93

NTC MC 20-12-92

Unanswered Question 70 0 / 1 pts

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Implementing Guidelines for Cellular Mobile Telephone System (CMTS)

Operations in the Philippines

orrect Answer NTC MC 20-12-92

NTC MC 10-18-90

NTC MC 10-17-90

OP
NTC MC 11-9-93

L
Unanswered Question 71 YO 0 / 1 pts

National Fundamental Technical Plans (Standards) for

Telecommunications
O Y
AK

NTC MC 9-7-93

NTC MC 3-3-96
M

NTC MC 1-04-88

orrect Answer NTC MC 10-16-90

Unanswered Question 72 0 / 1 pts

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Implementing Guidelines on the Interconnection of Authorized Public

Telecommunications Carriers

orrect Answer NTC MC 9-7-93

NTC MC 1-04-88

NTC MC 10-16-90

OP
NTC MC 3-3-96

L
Unanswered Question 73 YO 0 / 1 pts

Rules and Regulations Governing Equipment Provided by

Customers/Subscribers of Public Networks
O Y
AK

orrect Answer NTC MC 1-04-88

NTC MC 3-3-96
M

NTC MC 9-7-93

NTC MC 10-16-90

Unanswered Question 74 0 / 1 pts

Review, Allocation and Assignment of the Radio Spectrum

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NTC MC 1-04-88

NTC MC 10-16-90

NTC MC 9-7-93

orrect Answer NTC MC 3-3-96

OP
Unanswered Question 75 0 / 1 pts

L
It refers to a grant consistent with the telecommunications policies and
objectives to a qualified applicant, after due notice and hearing, of a final
YO
authority to own, operate and maintain a public telecommunications
facility/service by the National Telecommunications Commission.
O Y
Certificate of Public Compliance and Necessity
AK

orrect Answer Certificate of Public Convenience and Necessity

Certificate of Personal Convenience and Necessity

Certificate of Personal Compliance and Necessity

Unanswered Question 76 0 / 1 pts

Pursuant to NTC MC 3-3-96, the _____ shall be reviewed once every two
(2) years.

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orrect Answer National Radio Frequency Allocation Table

Natural Radio Frequency Allocation Table

National Radio Frequency Access Table

Natural Radio Frequency Access Table

Unanswered Question 77 0 / 1 pts

OP
This NTC memorandum circular implements the rules and regulations
governing radio training centers (RTC) offering short-term GMDSS radio
communications courses.

L
YO
NTC MC 02-05-2008
Y
NTC MC 03-05-2007
O

NTC MC 05-08-2005
AK

orrect Answer NTC MC 17-02-2002

Unanswered Question 78 0 / 1 pts

This NTC memorandum circular promulgates that voice over internet

protocol (VOIP) shall be classified as a value-added service within the
contemplation of RA 7925.

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orrect Answer NTC MC 05-08-2005

NTC MC 02-05-2008

NTC MC 17-02-2002

NTC MC 03-05-2007

Unanswered Question 79 0 / 1 pts

OP
This NTC memorandum circular defines the frequency bands for the use
and operation of short-range devices (SRDs).

L
orrect Answer NTC MC 03-05-2007
YO
NTC MC 02-05-2008
O Y
NTC MC 05-08-2005
AK

NTC MC 17-02-2002
M

Unanswered Question 80 0 / 1 pts

This NTC memorandum circular articulates the guidelines for value-added

services.

NTC MC 17-02-2002

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orrect Answer NTC MC 02-05-2008

NTC MC 03-05-2007

NTC MC 05-08-2005

Unanswered Question 81 0 / 1 pts

Standard for Digital Terrestrial Television (DTT) Broadcast Service

OP
NTC MC 02-03-2016

L
NTC MC 02-08-2012
YO
NTC MC 01-01-2014
Y
orrect Answer NTC MC 02-06-2010
O
AK

Unanswered Question 82 0 / 1 pts

Guidelines for the Issuance of Certificate of Competency for ROC, GOC

and REC

NTC MC 02-03-2016

NTC MC 01-01-2014

orrect Answer NTC MC 02-08-2012

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NTC MC 02-06-2010

Unanswered Question 83 0 / 1 pts

Guidelines for Internet Service Providers in the Implementation of RA

9775 (Anti-Child Pornography Act of 2009

OP
orrect Answer NTC MC 01-01-2014

NTC MC 02-08-2012

L
NTC MC 02-03-2016

NTC MC 02-06-2010
YO
O Y
Unanswered Question 84 0 / 1 pts
AK

Sale and Labeling of ISDB-T Receivers

NTC MC 02-06-2010

NTC MC 02-08-2012

orrect Answer NTC MC 02-03-2016

NTC MC 01-01-2014

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Unanswered Question 85 0 / 1 pts

The Philippine Technology Transfer Act of 2009

orrect Answer RA 10055

RA 10175

OP
RA 10535

RA 10844

L
Unanswered Question 86
YO 0 / 1 pts

The Philippine Standard Time Act of 2013

O Y
AK

RA 10175

RA 10055
M

RA 10844

orrect Answer RA 10535

Unanswered Question 87 0 / 1 pts

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The Department of Information and Communications Technology Act of

2015

RA 10175

RA 10535

RA 10055

OP
orrect Answer RA 10844

L
Unanswered Question 88 YO 0 / 1 pts

The Cybercrime Prevention Act of 2012

O Y

RA 10535
AK

orrect Answer RA 10175

RA 10844

RA 10055

Unanswered Question 89 0 / 1 pts

Which of the following is NOT one of the Specific Principles of

Professional Conduct?
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Service to Others

Professional Competence

Solidarity and Teamwork

orrect Answer Reciprocity

OP
Unanswered Question 90 0 / 1 pts

L
Which of the following is NOT one of the Specific Principles of
Professional Conduct? YO
orrect Answer
Y
Reciprocity
O

Global Competitiveness
AK

Social and Civic Responsibility

Integrity and Objectivity

Unanswered Question 91 0 / 1 pts

What states the moral responsibilities of engineers as seen by the

profession, and as represented by a professional society?

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Moral Turpitude

Professional Oath

orrect Answer Code of Ethics

Honor Code

Unanswered Question 92 0 / 1 pts

OP
What is otherwise known as “PRC modernization law”?

L
RA 2123
YO
RA 2432
Y
orrect Answer RA 8981
O

RA 8921
AK
M

Unanswered Question 93 0 / 1 pts

What is an executive order signed by former President Fidel Ramos in

March 1998 providing the national policy in the operation and use of
international satellite communications in the Philippines?

orrect Answer EO 196

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EO 421

EO 214

EO 241

Unanswered
Question 94 0 / 1 pts

Which law regulates the operation of CATV systems in the country?

OP
EO 206

L
EO 122
YO
orrect Answer EO 205
Y
EO 204
O
AK

Unanswered
Question 95 0 / 1 pts
M

What law specifically requires the services of a duly registered Electronics

and Communications Engineer in the designing, installation and
construction, operation and maintenance of radio stations?

DO 3845

DO 77

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orrect Answer DO 88

DO 421

Unanswered Question 96 0 / 1 pts

Which government regulation in telecommunication provides the policy to

improve the provision of local exchange carrier service?

OP
EO 421

EO 241

L
EO 521

orrect Answer EO 109

YO
Y
Unanswered Question 97 0 / 1 pts
O
AK

Which law vested the jurisdiction, control and regulation over the
Philippine communications satellite corporation with the National
Telecommunications Commission?
M

EO 241

orrect Answer EO 196

EO 532

EO 421

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Unanswered Question 98 0 / 1 pts

Which law provides for a national policy on the operation and use of
international satellite communications in the country?

orrect Answer EO 467

EO 421

EO 241

OP
EO 431

L
Unanswered Question 99
YO 0 / 1 pts
Y
What is otherwise known as “The Maritime Communications Law”?
O
AK

RA 6849

orrect Answer RA 3396

RA 5734

RA 9292

Unanswered Question 100 0 / 1 pts

Republic Act No. 6849 is otherwise known as _______

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Maritime Communications Law

Electronics Engineering Law of 2004

orrect Answer Municipal Telephone Act of 2000

E-Commerce Law

OP
Unanswered Question 101 0 / 1 pts

L
An Act that provides for the regulation of radio station communications in
the Philippines and other purposes YO
Y
RA 6849
O

orrect Answer RA 3846

RA 5734

RA 3396
M

Unanswered Question 102 0 / 1 pts

What law states that ECE and ECT licensure examination serves as Civil
Licensure Examination equivalent?

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RA 8010

RA 1800

orrect Answer RA 1080

RA 1008

Unanswered Question 103 0 / 1 pts

OP
What is the Cybercrime Prevention Act of 2012?

L
RA 10532
YO
orrect Answer RA 10175
Y
RA 10125
O

RA 10625
AK
M

Unanswered Question 104 0 / 1 pts

What is the Article I of RA 9292?

orrect Answer General Information

Professional Regulatory Board of Electronics Engineering

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Examination, Registration and Licensure

Practice of Professional Electronics Engineering, Electronics Engineering

and Electronics Technicians

Unanswered Question 105 0 / 1 pts

What is the Article II of RA 9292?

L OP
orrect Answer Professional Regulatory Board of Electronics Engineering

General Information
YO
Examination, Registration and Licensure
Y
Practice of Professional Electronics Engineering, Electronics Engineering
O

and Electronics Technicians

AK
M

Unanswered Question 106 0 / 1 pts

What is the Article III of RA 9292?

General Information

Professional Regulatory Board of Electronics Engineering

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orrect Answer Examination, Registration and Licensure

Practice of Professional Electronics Engineering, Electronics Engineering

and Electronics Technicians

Unanswered Question 107 0 / 1 pts

What is the Article IV of RA 9292?

L OP
Examination, Registration and Licensure
YO
Professional Regulatory Board of Electronics Engineering

General Information
Y
orrect Answer
Practice of Professional Electronics Engineering, Electronics Engineering
O

and Electronics Technicians

AK
M

Unanswered Question 108 0 / 1 pts

What is the Article V of RA 9292?

Final Provision

Penal Provision

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orrect Answer Sundry Provision

Transitory Provision

Unanswered Question 109 0 / 1 pts

What is the Article VI of RA 9292?

orrect Answer Penal Provision

OP
Transitory Provision

Sundry Provision

L
Final Provision YO
Y
Unanswered Question 110 0 / 1 pts
O
AK

What is the Article VII of RA 9292?

Sundry Provision

Final Provision

Penal Provision

orrect Answer Transitory Provision

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Unanswered
Question 111 0 / 1 pts

What is the Article VIII of RA 9292?

Sundry Provision

Transitory Provision

OP
Penal Provision

orrect Answer
Final Provision

L
Unanswered
Question 112
YO 0 / 1 pts

Section 13 of RA 9292 refers to:

O Y
AK

Release of the Results of Examination

Qualification for Examination

Ratings

orrect Answer Licensure Examination

Unanswered
Question 113 0 / 1 pts

Section 27 of RA 9292 refers to:

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Seal of the Professional Electronics Engineers

orrect Answer Practice of Profession

Code of Ethics and Code of Technical Standards of Practice

CPE and/or Development Programs

OP
Unanswered Question 114 0 / 1 pts

L
Section 42 of RA 9292 refers to:
YO
Implementing Rules and Regulations
Y
Appropriations
O

Effectivity
AK

orrect Answer Repealing Clause

Unanswered Question 115 0 / 1 pts

What is one way that RF energy can affect human body tissue?

It causes the blood count to reach a dangerously low level

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It cools body tissue

It causes radiation poisoning

orrect Answer It heats body tissue

Unanswered Question 116 0 / 1 pts

Which of the following properties is important in estimating whether an RF

OP
signal exceeds the maximum permissible exposure (MPE)?

L
Its duty cycle YO
orrect Answer All of these choices are correct

Its power density

Y
Its frequency
O
AK

Unanswered Question 117 0 / 1 pts

How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure
regulations?

By calculation based on computer modeling

By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65

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orrect Answer All of these choices are correct

By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment

Unanswered Question 118 0 / 1 pts

What does "time averaging" mean in reference to RF radiation exposure?

OP
orrect Answer The total RF exposure averaged over a certain time

L
The average time it takes RF radiation to have any long-term effect on the
body YO
The total time of the exposure
Y
The average time of day when the exposure occurs
O
AK

Unanswered Question 119 0 / 1 pts

What must you do if an evaluation of your station shows RF energy

radiated from your station exceeds permissible limits?

Secure written permission from your neighbors to operate above the

controlled MPE limits

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orrect Answer Take action to prevent human exposure to the excessive RF fields

All of these choices are correct

File an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS-97) with the FCC

Unanswered Question 120 0 / 1 pts

What effect does transmitter duty cycle have when evaluating RF

OP
exposure?

L
orrect Answer
YO
A lower transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels

Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation

requirements
O Y
AK

A higher transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels

High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements

Unanswered Question 121 0 / 1 pts

Which of the following steps must an amateur operator take to ensure

compliance with RF safety regulations when transmitter power exceeds
levels specified in part 97.13?

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orrect Answer Perform a routine RF exposure evaluation

Post a copy of OET Bulletin 65 in the station

All of these choices are correct

Post a copy of FCC Part 97 in the station

Unanswered Question 122 0 / 1 pts

OP
What type of instrument can be used to accurately measure an RF field?

L
A receiver with an S meter
YO
A betascope with a dummy antenna calibrated at 50 ohms
Y
An oscilloscope with a high-stability crystal marker generator
O

orrect Answer A calibrated field-strength meter with a calibrated antenna

AK
M

Unanswered Question 123 0 / 1 pts

What is one thing that can be done if evaluation shows that a neighbor
might receive more than the allowable limit of RF exposure from the main
lobe of a directional antenna?

Change from horizontal polarization to circular polarization

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orrect Answer
Take precautions to ensure that the antenna cannot be pointed in their
direction

Use an antenna with a higher front-to-back ratio

Change from horizontal polarization to vertical polarization

Unanswered Question 124 0 / 1 pts

OP
What precaution should you take if you install an indoor transmitting
antenna?

L
YO
No special precautions are necessary if SSB and CW are the only modes
used
O Y

Locate the antenna close to your operating position to minimize feed-line

radiation
M

Position the antenna along the edge of a wall to reduce parasitic radiation

orrect Answer Make sure that MPE limits are not exceeded in occupied areas

Unanswered Question 125 0 / 1 pts

What precaution should you take whenever you make adjustments or

repairs to an antenna?
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Ensure that you and the antenna structure are grounded

Wear a radiation badge

orrect Answer Turn off the transmitter and disconnect the feed line

All of these choices are correct

OP
Unanswered Question 126 0 / 1 pts

L
What precaution should be taken when installing a ground-mounted
antenna? YO
Y
It should not be installed in a wet area
O

orrect Answer
It should be installed so no one can be exposed to RF radiation in excess
AK

of maximum permissible limits

It should limited to 10 feet in height

It should not be installed higher than you can reach

Unanswered Question 127 0 / 1 pts

Which is a commonly accepted value for the lowest voltage that can
cause a dangerous electric shock?

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300 volts

orrect Answer 30 volts

120 volts

12 volts

OP
Unanswered
Question 128 0 / 1 pts

L
How does current flowing through the body cause a health hazard?
YO
It disrupts the electrical functions of cells
Y
By heating tissue
O

orrect Answer All of these choices are correct

It causes involuntary muscle contractions

Unanswered
Question 129 0 / 1 pts

What is connected to the green wire in a three-wire electrical AC plug?

orrect Answer Safety ground

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The white wire

Hot

Neutral

Unanswered Question 130 0 / 1 pts

What is the purpose of a fuse in an electrical circuit?

OP
To limit current to prevent shocks

L
YO
To prevent power supply ripple from damaging a circuit

orrect Answer To interrupt power in case of overload

Y
All of these choices are correct
O
AK

Unanswered Question 131 0 / 1 pts

Why is it unwise to install a 20-ampere fuse in the place of a 5-ampere

fuse?

The power supply ripple would greatly increase

The larger fuse would be likely to blow because it is rated for higher current

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All of these choices are correct

orrect Answer Excessive current could cause a fire

Unanswered Question 132 0 / 1 pts

What is a good way to guard against electrical shock at your station?

OP
Use three-wire cords and plugs for all AC powered equipment

Connect all AC powered station equipment to a common safety ground

L
orrect Answer All of these choices are correct
YO
Use a circuit protected by a ground-fault interrupter
O Y

Unanswered Question 133 0 / 1 pts

Which of these precautions should be taken when installing devices for

lightning protection in a coaxial cable feedline?

Include a parallel bypass switch for each protector so that it can be

switched out of the circuit when running high power

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Include a series switch in the ground line of each protector to prevent RF

overload from inadvertently damaging the protector

Keep the ground wires from each protector separate and connected to
station ground

orrect Answer
Ground all of the protectors to a common plate which is in turn connected
to an external ground

OP
Unanswered Question 134 0 / 1 pts

L
YO
What is one way to recharge a 12-volt lead-acid station battery if the
commercial power is out?
O Y

orrect Answer Connect the battery to a car’s battery and run the engine
AK

All of these choices are correct

Cool the battery in ice for several hours

Add acid to the battery

Unanswered Question 135 0 / 1 pts

What kind of hazard is presented by a conventional 12-volt storage

battery?

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All of these choices are correct

It emits ozone which can be harmful to the atmosphere

orrect Answer Explosive gas can collect if not properly vented

Shock hazard due to high voltage

OP
Unanswered Question 136 0 / 1 pts

What can happen if a lead-acid storage battery is charged or discharged

L
too quickly?

orrect Answer
YO
The battery could overheat and give off flammable gas or explode

The memory effect will reduce the capacity of the battery

O Y
The voltage can become reversed
AK

All of these choices are correct

Unanswered Question 137 0 / 1 pts

Which of the following is good practice when installing ground wires on a

tower for lightning protection?

All of these choices are correct

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Put a loop in the ground connection to prevent water damage to the ground
system

Make sure that all bends in the ground wires are clean, right angle bends

orrect Answer Ensure that connections are short and direct

Unanswered Question 138 0 / 1 pts

OP
What kind of hazard might exist in a power supply when it is turned off and
disconnected?

L
YO
Static electricity could damage the grounding system
Y
orrect Answer
O

You might receive an electric shock from stored charge in large capacitors
AK

The fuse might blow if you remove the cover

Circulating currents inside the transformer might cause damage

Unanswered Question 139 0 / 1 pts

What safety equipment should always be included in home-built

equipment that is powered from 120V AC power circuits?

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A capacitor across the AC power source

orrect Answer A fuse or circuit breaker in series with the AC "hot" conductor

An AC voltmeter across the incoming power source

An inductor in series with the AC power source

Unanswered Question 140 0 / 1 pts

OP
The poles or supporting structures of overhead lines and manholes shall
be provided with an earth ground with an earth resistance shall be no
greater than ______.

L
YO
50 ohms
Y
orrect Answer 25 ohms
O

100 ohms
AK

75 ohms
M

Unanswered Question 141 0 / 1 pts

Wires shall have a minimum vertical clearance above ground when

crossing or along public thoroughfares in urban and rural areas shall not
be less than _____.

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4.5 meters

orrect Answer 5.5 meters

4.8 meters

3 meters

Unanswered Question 142 0 / 1 pts

OP
Wires shall have a minimum vertical clearance above ground along public
thoroughfares travelled by vehicles or agricultural equipment shall not be
less than _______.

L
3 meters
YO
4.8 meters
Y
5.5 meters
O

orrect Answer 4.5 meters

Unanswered Question 143 0 / 1 pts

Wires shall have a minimum vertical clearance in areas accessible by

pedestrians above ground shall not be less than _______.

orrect Answer 3 meters

4.5 meters

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4.8 meters

5.5 meters

Unanswered
Question 144 0 / 1 pts

Wires shall have a minimum vertical clearance for railway shall have a
clearance not less than __________.

OP
orrect Answer
3 meters

L
4.5 meters YO
4.8 meters

5.5 meters
O Y
AK

Unanswered
Question 145 0 / 1 pts
M

Wires shall have a minimum vertical clearance when crossing above

swimming pools shall not be less than ___________ for conductors

4.8 meters

4.5 meters

3 meters

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orrect Answer 5.5 meters

Unanswered Question 146 0 / 1 pts

Wires shall have a minimum vertical clearance when crossing above

swimming pools shall not be less than ___________ for jacketed cable

OP
5.5 meters

orrect Answer 4.8 meters

L
3 meters

4.5 meters
YO
O Y
Unanswered Question 147 0 / 1 pts
AK

Railroad tracks shall have clearance not less than _________ which is
based upon the maximum of standard freight cars of _______ from the
M

top of the rail.

6.7 meters; 7.4 meters

orrect Answer 7.6 meters; 4.7 meters

7.9 meters; 7.9 meters

2.1 meters; 1.2 meters

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Unanswered Question 148 0 / 1 pts

Railroads operated by trolley shall be not less than ______ which is based
upon the maximum height of the free trolley pole throw of ______ above
the rails.

7.6 meters; 4.7 meters

OP
2.1 meters; 1.2 meters

L
6.7 meters; 7.4 meters

orrect Answer 7.9 meters; 7.9 meters

YO
Y
Unanswered Question 149 0 / 1 pts
O
AK

The climbing space shall be maintained in the same position of the pole
for the minimum vertical distance of ________ above and below each
conductor level through which it passes
M

2.2 meters

4.2 meters

orrect Answer 1.2 meters

3.2 meters

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Unanswered Question 150 0 / 1 pts

Vertical runs of communication wires or cables supported on the surface

of wood poles or structure shall be covered by a suitable protective
covering within a vertical distance of ______ above unprotected supply
conductors supported on the same pole or structure.

OP
4.2 meters

orrect Answer 0.9 meter

L
2.2 meters

1.8 meters
YO
Y
Unanswered Question 151 0 / 1 pts
O
AK

Vertical runs of communication wires or cables supported on the surface

of wood poles or structure shall be covered by a suitable protective
covering within a vertical distance of ______ below unprotected supply
M

conductors supported on the same pole or structure.

2.2 meters

4.2 meters

0.9 meter

orrect Answer 1.8 meters

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Unanswered Question 152 0 / 1 pts

Define as wires or cables entering the building, terminated to the main

cross connecting point within the building from the nearest telephone
facility.

drop wire

OP
orrect Answer service entrance

L
subscribers loop

local loop
YO
Y
Unanswered Question 153 0 / 1 pts
O
AK

A type of service entrance that serves as means of providing service

aerially from a pole to a building.
M

Underground entrance

Handhole

orrect Answer Aerial entrance

Overhead entrance

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Unanswered
Question 154 0 / 1 pts

The size of the aerial entrance conduit shall not be less than ____ in
diameter.

orrect Answer 50 mm

OP
20 mm

40 mm

L
30 mm
YO
Unanswered
Question 155 0 / 1 pts
O Y

The maximum span from telephone pole to a building used in aerial

entrance should be _____.

orrect Answer 30 m

20 m

50 m

40 m

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Unanswered Question 156 0 / 1 pts

In aerial entrance, the minimum clearances between telephone cable and

power entrance must be ___ radial distance.

OP
orrect Answer 1m

L
Unanswered Question 157
YO 0 / 1 pts
Y
In aerial entrance, the minimum clearance from ground level when
O

crossing the street must be ____.

orrect Answer 5.5 m

6.6 m

4.4 m

3.3 m

Unanswered Question 158 0 / 1 pts

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In aerial entrance, minimum clearance over areas accessible to

pedestrians only, must be____.

4.5 m

orrect Answer 3.5 m

5.5 m

OP
6.1 m

L
Unanswered Question 159 YO 0 / 1 pts

A type of service entrance that provides mechanical protection and

minimize the need for possible subsequent repairs to the property.
O Y
AK

orrect Answer Underground entrance

Handhole
M

Aerial entrance

Overhead entrance

Unanswered Question 160 0 / 1 pts

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An underground entrance’s minimum depth under areas used for

vehicular traffic inside private property is

900 mm

700 mm

orrect Answer 600 mm

OP
800 mm

L
Unanswered Question 161 YO 0 / 1 pts

For underground entrance, conduits should be separated from power

conduits by not less than ____ in well-tamped earth:
O Y
AK

orrect Answer 300 mm

100 mm
M

150 mm

50 mm

Unanswered Question 162 0 / 1 pts

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For underground entrance, conduits should be separated from power

conduits by not less than ____ of concrete

100 mm

150 mm

orrect Answer 50 mm

OP
300 mm

L
Unanswered Question 163 YO 0 / 1 pts

The size of underground entrance conduit within the building shall be no

case smaller than ____in diameter when the service entrance does not
Y
require use of a service box.
O
AK

50 mm
M

orrect Answer 75 mm

65 mm

45 mm

Unanswered Question 164 0 / 1 pts

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The use of handholes will be permitted for entrance cable not exceeding
____ pairs.

orrect Answer 50

OP
30

L
Unanswered Question 165 YO 0 / 1 pts

The minimum size for vehicular handholes is

O Y

orrect Answer 0.61 m x 0.91 m x 0.91 m

0.19 m x 1.23 m x 1.21 m

0.91 m x 1.22 m x 1.19 m

0.61 m x 0.91 m x 0.73 m

Unanswered Question 166 0 / 1 pts

The minimum size for non-vehicular handholes is

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orrect Answer 0.61m x 0.91m x 0.73m

0.91m x 1.22m x 1.19m

0.61m x 0.91m x 0.91m

0.19m x 1.23m x 1.21m

OP
Unanswered Question 167 0 / 1 pts

L
The use of service box will be permitted for entrance cable exceeding 50
pairs. The minimum size for service-box (vehicular) is
YO
Y
0.91m x 1.22m x 1.19m
O

0.61m x 0.91m x 0.91m

0.61m x 0.91m x 0.73m

orrect Answer 0.19m x 1.23m x 1.21m

Unanswered Question 168 0 / 1 pts

The minimum size for service-box (non-vehicular) is

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orrect Answer 0.91m x 1.22m x 1.19m

0.61m x 0.91m x 0.91m

0.19m x 1.23m x 1.21m

0.61m x 0.91m x 0.73m

Unanswered Question 169 0 / 1 pts

OP
The minimum size for an entrance conduit is

L
30mm
YO
orrect Answer 50mm
Y
40mm
O

20mm
AK
M

Unanswered Question 170 0 / 1 pts

The minimum number of entrance conduit is

orrect Answer 2

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Unanswered
Question 171 0 / 1 pts

It is a point where cable from TELCO and the in-building distribution

system are terminated.

OP
drop wire

L
terminal wire YO
service box

orrect Answer main terminals

O Y
AK

Unanswered
Question 172 0 / 1 pts
M

The location of the main terminal must be equipped with adequate

lighting, and located at a minimum distance of ______above floor finish.

1.6 m

2.3 m

1.3 m

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orrect Answer 2.6 m

Unanswered Question 173 0 / 1 pts

The location of the main terminal should have enough working space in
front of all terminations. Normally _____away from all hazards.

1000 mm

orrect Answer

OP
900 mm

800 mm

L
700 mm
YO
Unanswered Question 174 0 / 1 pts
O Y

A main terminal required for terminating entrance cables using one or

more terminal blocks.

Riser System

orrect Answer Main Telephone Terminal Cabinet (MTTC)

Main Distributing Frame (MDF)

Service Box

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Unanswered Question 175 0 / 1 pts

The backboard color for Main Telephone Terminal Cabinet (MTTC) used
other special services is:

orrect Answer blue

white

OP
yellow

black

L
Unanswered Question 176
YO 0 / 1 pts
Y
The backboard color for Main Telephone Terminal Cabinet (MTTC) used
O

as an entrance is:
AK

blue
M

black

orrect Answer white

yellow

Unanswered Question 177 0 / 1 pts

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The backboard color for Main Telephone Terminal Cabinet (MTTC) used
for risers is:

black

white

orrect Answer yellow

blue

OP
Unanswered Question 178 0 / 1 pts

L
YO
A main terminal generally recommended when entrance cable
requirements will exceed 300 pairs.
O Y
Riser System

orrect Answer
AK

Main Distributing Frame (MDF)

Service Box
M

Main Telephone Terminal Cabinet (MTTC)

Unanswered Question 179 0 / 1 pts

Defined as the vertical and horizontal distribution of telephone

communication lines between two or more floors or adjoining premises on

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the same floor of a building generally originating at or near the cabinet up

to the Telephone Terminal or outlet.

Main Distributing Frame (MDF)

orrect Answer Riser System

Main Telephone Terminal Cabinet (MTTC)

Service Box

OP
Unanswered Question 180 0 / 1 pts

L
YO
A riser system usually extends from the ground to the roof top of the
building with no floor separation similar to a ventilating shaft. Telephone
cable is not permitted in unless placed in metallic conduit.
O Y
AK

Underground Riser

Closed Riser
M

Elevated Riser

orrect Answer Open Riser

Unanswered Question 181 0 / 1 pts

A riser system that consists of a series of telephone terminal

cabinets/closets vertically or non-vertically aligned, usually beginning at
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the ground floor and extending throughout the height of the building.

Elevated Riser

Underground Riser

Open Riser

orrect Answer Closed Riser

OP
Unanswered Question 182 0 / 1 pts

L
YO
Type of distribution system that provides concealment of the wires with
the least flexibility.
O Y
Cellular floor system
AK

Under floor duct system

Ceiling system
M

orrect Answer Conduit system

Unanswered Question 183 0 / 1 pts

Type of distribution system scomprise of two components, distribution

ducts and feeder (header) ducts. Depending on floor structure, they may
be designed into a one or two-level system.

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Cellular floor system

orrect Answer Under floor duct system

Ceiling system

Conduit system

OP
Unanswered Question 184 0 / 1 pts

L
Type of distribution system that serves the same floor where the cables
(wires) are placed within the ceiling and brought down to desk locations.
YO
Y
Conduit system
O

Cellular floor system

Under floor duct system

orrect Answer Ceiling system

Unanswered Question 185 0 / 1 pts

Type of distribution system comprises of two distinct components,

distribution cells and feeder (header) ducts. Depending on the floor
structure, the distribution cells may be constructed of steel or concrete.

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Under floor duct system

orrect Answer Cellular floor system

Ceiling system

Conduit system

Unanswered Question 186 0 / 1 pts

OP
It is a floor assembly elevated with respect to an existing area providing
unlimited accessible space under the floor. This has been used for
computer rooms and office space.

L
YO
orrect Answer Unlimited access (raised floor)
Y
Closet
O

Cabinet
AK

Conduit system
M

Unanswered Question 187 0 / 1 pts

It is typically a box-type made of steel or fibre glass usually prefabricated

in standard sizes with cover and knockout holes, for in-building telephone
distribution.

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Conduit system

Unlimited access (raised floor)

Closet

orrect Answer Cabinet

Unanswered
Question 188 0 / 1 pts

OP
It is a room or shallow enclosure which is normally enclosed by a door (or
series of doors in the case of a shallow closet).

L
Cabinet
YO
orrect Answer Closet
O Y
Unlimited access (raised floor)
AK

Conduit system
M

Unanswered
Question 189 0 / 1 pts

A closet which varies from 460 to 760 mm in depth.

orrect Answer
Shallow closet

walk in closet

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raised closet

Deep closet

Unanswered Question 190 0 / 1 pts

A closet which which is 1200 mm or more in depth.

OP
raised closet

Deep closet

L
orrect Answer walk in closet
YO
Shallow closet
O Y

Unanswered Question 191 0 / 1 pts

A suitable enclosure large enough to house key telephone systems

apparatus, power equipment and terminating facilities for key telephone

systems stations and sevices, as well as central closets, zone closets, or
riser closets, according to the design of the underfloor raceway or riser
system.

orrect Answer Apparatus Closet

Apparatus Cabinet

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Closet

Cabinet

Unanswered Question 192 0 / 1 pts

Refers to the physical cable within a building that does not include station
wiring cable.

OP
inside drop

L
service drop YO
orrect Answer building cable

inside wire
O Y
AK

Unanswered Question 193 0 / 1 pts

An assembly of cellular metal or concrete floor raceways units forming

part of a continuous floor structure.

orrect Answer Cellular floor raceways

Conduit system

Under floor duct system

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Ceiling system

Unanswered Question 194 0 / 1 pts

A load-bearing floor unit containing one or more longitudinal cells which

may be closed on all sides or open at top or bottom.

OP
box

closet

L
cabinet

orrect Answer cellular floor unit

YO
O Y
Unanswered Question 195 0 / 1 pts
AK

The place where customer’s communication lines are terminated and

where the equipment which interconnects those lines is located.
M

tandem office

trunk office

toll station

orrect Answer central office

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Unanswered Question 196 0 / 1 pts

An electrical discharge which occurs between clouds and also from cloud
to earth.

Aurora

OP
Thunder

Corona

L
orrect Answer Lightning
YO
Unanswered Question 197 0 / 1 pts
O Y

Results from abnormally high sound level, the physical effects of which
AK

may vary from minor discomfort to serious injury.

orrect Answer Acoustic Shock

Sonic Boom

Electrical Shock

Super Sonic

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Unanswered Question 198 0 / 1 pts

The factor that determines the intensity of electric shock is

conductance

resistance

voltage

orrect Answer

OP
current

Unanswered Question 199 0 / 1 pts

L
YO
The average resistance of a dry adult human body is approximately:
O Y
100 ohms
AK

orrect Answer 1 000 ohms

100 000 ohms

10 000 ohms

Unanswered Question 200 0 / 1 pts

Ventricular fibrillation is likely to occur when a 60 Hz rms current of

_____amperes and above passes through one’s chest cavity.

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0.010

orrect Answer 0.030

0.11

0.33

Unanswered Question 201 0 / 1 pts

OP
The minimum voltage value that is considered hazardous is:

L
orrect Answer 45 V RMS AC
YO
24 V RMS AC
Y
50 V RMS AC
O

12 V RMS AC
AK
M

Unanswered Question 202 0 / 1 pts

The minimum voltage value that is considered hazardous is:

orrect Answer 135 V DC

160 V DC

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150 V DC

45 V DC

Unanswered Question 203 0 / 1 pts

The potential difference at any time between two points on the floor or
earth surface separated by a distance of one pace, or about one meter, in
the direction of maximum potential gradient shall be no greater than

OP
_______.

55 volts rms AC or 145 volts DC

L
15 volts rms AC or 105 volts DC
YO
orrect Answer 45 volts rms AC or 135 volts DC
Y
25 volts rms AC or 115 volts DC
O
AK

Unanswered Question 204 0 / 1 pts

It is the provision of a grounded electrical conducting material located

such that foreign potential will be intercepted and surge currents diverted
to ground with the least damage to plant equipment possible.

orrect Answer Shielding

Grounding

current limiting

Bonding

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Unanswered
Question 205 0 / 1 pts

Prevents development of hazardous potential difference in communication

plant by direct bonding, when permissible or by use of surge arresters,
discharge gaps, diodes, etc. which operate under abnormal voltage
condition.

OP
orrect Answer Voltage Limiting

Resistance limiting

L
Current limiting YO
Grounding
O Y
Unanswered
Question 206 0 / 1 pts
AK

The current in a circuit can be kept from rising above a predetermined

value by the use of a fuse in series with a circuit.
M

Voltage Limiting

Grounding

orrect Answer Current limiting

Resistance limiting

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Unanswered Question 207 0 / 1 pts

This is used to divert undesired currents before they reach the equipment
being protected and often are installed both at and some distance away
from the protected equipment.

Resistance limiting

OP
Current limiting

Voltage Limiting

L
orrect Answer Grounding YO
Y
Unanswered Question 208 0 / 1 pts
O
AK

It is the resistance path of a ground connection which includes the ground

wire and its connection to ground electrode.
M

orrect Answer Ground Resistance

Resistance Path

Ground Electrode

Ground Path

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Unanswered Question 209 0 / 1 pts

For equipment locations, antenna towers, and all allied installations, the
ground resistance must never exceed ______.

43 ohms

orrect Answer 5 ohms

OP
25 ohms

3 ohms

L
Unanswered Question 210
YO 0 / 1 pts
Y
For outside plant telephone poles and manholes as well as customer
premises, the ground resistance must never exceed _____.
O
AK

orrect Answer 25 ohms

5 ohms
M

3 ohms

43 ohms

Unanswered Question 211 0 / 1 pts

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It is an electrode buried in the ground for the purpose of establishing a low

resistance electrical contact with the earth.

Ground pole

orrect Answer Made Ground

Guy

OP
Lightning Rods

L
Unanswered Question 212 YO 0 / 1 pts

It is a metal strip or rod, usually of copper or similar conductive material,

designed to protect tall or isolated structures (such as the roof of a
Y
building or the mast of a vessel) from lightning damage.
O

Ground pole
AK

Made Ground

Guy
M

orrect Answer Lightning Rods

Unanswered Question 213 0 / 1 pts

A device used in electrical systems to protect against excessive current.

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orrect Answer fuse

Lightning rod

Grounding

Surge arrester

Unanswered Question 214 0 / 1 pts

OP
These are normally open circuited devices and pass no significant current
at normal operating potentials.

L
Grounding
YO
fuse
O Y
Lightning rod

orrect Answer
AK

Surge arrester
M

Unanswered Question 215 0 / 1 pts

Provides certain level of safety to humans and property in case of

equipment damages.

Lightning rod

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fuse

orrect Answer Bonding or grounding

Surge arrester

Unanswered
Question 216 0 / 1 pts

The simplest way to make an earth resistance test is to use:

OP
orrect Answer Direct Method or two terminal test

L
Triangulation Method
YO
Voltmeter-Ammeter Method
Y
Three terminal test
O
AK

Unanswered
Question 217 0 / 1 pts
M

It is the resistance of parallel faces of a one cubic centimeter of soil

expressed in ohm-centimeter.

orrect Answer Earth Resistivity

Earth density

Ground resistance

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Cubic resistance

Unanswered Question 218 0 / 1 pts

Which of the following are ways to improve grounds:

Use multiple rods

OP
Lengthen the ground-electrode in the earth

orrect Answer All of the above.

L
YO
Treat the soil when 1 & 2 are not feasible
Y
Unanswered Question 219 0 / 1 pts
O
AK

Ground resistance shall be tested when installed and periodically

afterwards, at least _____ during the dry or non-rainy months and all
values obtained shall be no greater than the rule required.
M

12 times a year

orrect Answer once a year

twice as year

3 times per year

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Unanswered Question 220 0 / 1 pts

All ground connections, be it solderless or soldered, shall be checked at

least ____ to be sure they are tight.

12 times a year

orrect Answer

OP
once a year

twice as year

L
3 times per year
YO
Unanswered Question 221 0 / 1 pts
O Y

This loading shall be taken as the resultant stress due to wind and dead
AK

weight for 240 kph wind velocity.

orrect Answer Heavy Loading Zone

Extra Heavy Loading Zone

Light Loading Zone

Medium Loading Zone

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Unanswered Question 222 0 / 1 pts

This loading shall be taken as the resultant stress due to wind and dead
weight for 200 kph wind velocity.

Heavy Loading Zone

Extra Heavy Loading Zone

orrect Answer Medium Loading Zone

OP
Light Loading Zone

L
Unanswered Question 223 0 / 1 pts
YO
This loading shall be taken as the resultant stress due to wind and dead
weight for 160 kph wind velocity.
O Y
AK

Medium Loading Zone

orrect Answer Light Loading Zone

Heavy Loading Zone

Extra Heavy Loading Zone

Unanswered Question 224 0 / 1 pts

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Batteries should be located where temperatures range between

_______degrees Celsius.

12.5 and 25.2

15.2 and 52.2

orrect Answer 15.5 and 32.2

OP
55.5 and 60.3

L
Unanswered Question 225 YO 0 / 1 pts

Lead acid or similar gas emitting battery installations where the aggregate
power exceeds ______ shall be located in a properly ventilated room
Y
separated from the equipment room or location where people are staying.
O
AK

1 kW
M

15 kW

orrect Answer 5 kW

10 kW

Unanswered Question 226 0 / 1 pts

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It refers to the ability to discern between right and wrong.

ethical commitment

orrect Answer ethical awareness

ethical competency

OP
ethical influence

Unanswered 0 / 1 pts

L
Question 227
YO
It pertains to the ability to engage in sound moral reasoning and consider
carefully the implications of alternative actions.
O Y

ethical commitment
AK

ethical influence
M

orrect Answer ethical competency

ethical awareness

Unanswered Question 228 0 / 1 pts

Professionals shall be prepared for heroic sacrifice and genuine self-

awareness in carrying out their professional duties even at the expense of
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personal gain.

Solidarity and Teamwork

orrect Answer Service to Others

Integrity and Objectivity

Professional Competence

OP
Unanswered Question 229 0 / 1 pts

L
YO
In the performance of any professional service, the professionals shall be
free of conflicts of interest and refrain from engaging in any activity that
would prejudice their ability to carry out their duties ethically.
O Y

orrect Answer Integrity and Objectivity

Solidarity and Teamwork

Service to Others
M

Professional Competence

Unanswered Question 230 0 / 1 pts

Professionals have the express obligation to keep up with new knowledge

and techniques in their field, continually improve their skills and upgrade

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their level of competence and take part in a lifelong continuing education

program.

Integrity and Objectivity

orrect Answer Professional Competence

Solidarity and Teamwork

Service to Others

OP
Unanswered Question 231 0 / 1 pts

L
YO
Each professional shall nurture and support one organization for all its
members.
O Y

Integrity and Objectivity

Service to Others

orrect Answer Solidarity and Teamwork

Professional Competence

Unanswered Question 232 0 / 1 pts

Professional shall serve their clients/employers and the public with

professional concern and in a manner consistent with their responsibilities
to society.

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Reciprocity

orrect Answer Social and Civic Responsibility

Equality in All Professions

Global Competitiveness

Unanswered
Question 233 0 / 1 pts

OP
Every professional shall remain open to the challenges of a more dynamic
and interconnected world.

L
Reciprocity

Social and Civic Responsibility

YO
Equality in All Professions
Y
orrect Answer Global Competitiveness
O
AK

Unanswered
Question 234 0 / 1 pts
M

No one group of professionals shall treat their colleagues with respect

shall strive to is superior or above others.

Global Competitiveness

Social and Civic Responsibility

orrect Answer
Equality in All Professions

Reciprocity

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Unanswered Question 235 0 / 1 pts

Complete the statement from the Pledge of ECE: “I will participate in none
but _____ enterprises.”

honest and free

OP
deceptive and fee

deceptive and legal

L
orrect Answer honest and legal YO
Y
Unanswered Question 236 0 / 1 pts
O

Complete the statement from the Pledge of ECE: “In my profession, I take
AK

deep pride, but without _____.”

orrect Answer vainglory

honor

integrity

justice

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Unanswered Question 237 0 / 1 pts

Complete the statement from the Pledge of ECE: “To him who has
engaged my services, as employer or client, I will give the utmost of
performance and _____.”

loyalty

OP
courtesy

honesty

L
orrect Answer fidelity
YO
Unanswered Question 238 0 / 1 pts
O Y
Complete the statement from the Pledge of ECE: “_____ of the high
repute of my calling, I will strive to protect the interest and good name of
AK

any engineer that I know of be deserving”

analogous

jealous

orrect Answer zealous

religious

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Unanswered Question 239 0 / 1 pts

Also known as Philippine Public Telecommunications Policy Act, this

refers to an Act to promote and govern Philippine telecommunications.

RA 6849

RA 3396

OP
RA 3846

orrect Answer RA 7925

L
Unanswered Question 240
YO 0 / 1 pts
Y
This refers to the presidential decree creating the professional regulation
O

commission and prescribing its powers and functions.

PD 535
M

PD 232

PD 312

orrect Answer PD 223

Unanswered Question 241 0 / 1 pts

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This refers to the executive order prescribing the NTC promulgated July
23, 1979.

EO 255

EO 59

orrect Answer EO 546

OP
EO 266

L
Unanswered Question 242 YO 0 / 1 pts

This refers to the executive order prescribing guidelines of compulsory

interconnections of authorized public telecommunications carrier took
Y
effect February 24, 1993
O
AK

EO 255
M

EO 546

EO 266

orrect Answer EO 59

Unanswered Question 243 0 / 1 pts

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This refers to the executive order prescribing the institutionalization of

CPE (Continuing Professional Education) is under PRC.

EO 546

orrect Answer EO 266

EO 255

OP
EO 59

L
Unanswered Question 244 YO 0 / 1 pts

This refers to the executive order that requires radio stations with music
content to play at least 4 OPM song every clock hour
O Y
AK

EO 266

EO 59
M

EO 546

orrect Answer EO 255

Unanswered Question 245 0 / 1 pts

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According to the code of ethics, if you are employed in a company and

you wish to engage in a business which may compete with your company,
the most ethical thing to do is to

orrect Answer inform your employer about it

have somebody run the business instead of you

OP
keep your prices lower than your company’s

try to find new clients

L
Unanswered Question 246
YO 0 / 1 pts

An act providing for a more responsive and comprehensive regulation for

Y
the registration, licensing and practice of professional electronics
O

engineers, electronics engineers and electronics technicians, repealing

republic act no. 5734, otherwise known as the "Electronics and
AK

Communications Engineering Act of the Philippines", and for other

purposes.
M

RA 9192

RA 9291

orrect Answer RA 9292

RA 9293

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Unanswered Question 247 0 / 1 pts

Date of Approval of Electronics Engineering Law of 2004.

orrect Answer April 17, 2004

April 14, 2017

April 14, 2004

OP
None of the above

Unanswered Question 248 0 / 1 pts

L
YO
There are ______ Articles and ________ sections in the Electronics
Engineering Law of 2004.
O Y

orrect Answer 8,43

7,42

7,41
M

8,42

Unanswered Question 249 0 / 1 pts

Any person who shall violate any provision of RA 9292 or any rules,
regulations, the Code of Ethics and the Code of Technical Standards of
Practice is stated in section _________.
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orrect Answer 35

Unanswered
Question 250 0 / 1 pts

OP
Section 4 of RA 9292 is called ___________.

L
YO
Nature and Scope of Practice of Electronics Engineering and Electronics
Technician Professions
Y
Statement of Policy
O

Definition of Terms
AK

orrect Answer
Categories of Practice
M

Unanswered
Question 251 0 / 1 pts

Article II of RA 9292 is known as __________.

General Provisions

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orrect Answer Professional Regulatory Board of Electronics Engineering

Examination, Registration and Licensure

Practice of Professional Electronics Engineering, Electronics Engineering

and Electronics Technicians

Unanswered Question 252 0 / 1 pts

OP
Article IV of RA 9292 is known as __________.

L
Examination, Registration and Licensure
YO
Professional Regulatory Board of Electronics Engineering
Y
orrect Answer
Practice of Professional Electronics Engineering, Electronics Engineering
O

and Electronics Technicians

General Provisions
M

Unanswered Question 253 0 / 1 pts

Article I of RA 9292 is known as __________.

Examination, Registration and Licensure

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Practice of Professional Electronics Engineering, Electronics Engineering

and Electronics Technicians

Professional Regulatory Board of Electronics Engineering

orrect Answer General Provisions

Unanswered Question 254 0 / 1 pts

OP
According to Sec. 2 of RA 9292, The State shall therefore develop and
nurture ____________, virtuous, productive and well-rounded
Professional Electronics Engineers, Electronics Engineers and Electronics

L
Technician

Competitive
YO
World-class
Y
orrect Answer Competent
O

Global
AK
M

Unanswered Question 255 0 / 1 pts

Section 5 of RA 9292 is called ___________.

Statement of Policy

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orrect Answer
Nature and Scope of Practice of Electronics Engineering and Electronics
Technician Professions

Definition of Terms

Categories of Practice

Unanswered Question 256 0 / 1 pts

OP
Section 6 of RA 9292 is called ___________.

L
orrect Answer Composition of the Board
YO
Term of Office
Y
Qualifications of Board Members
O

Powers and Functions of the Board

AK
M

Unanswered Question 257 0 / 1 pts

Section 7 of RA 9292 is called ___________.

Term of Office

orrect Answer Powers and Functions of the Board

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Composition of the Board

Qualifications of Board Members

Unanswered Question 258 0 / 1 pts

Section 8 of RA 9292 is called ___________.

OP
orrect Answer Qualifications of Board Members

Term of Office

L
Powers and Functions of the Board
YO
Composition of the Board
O Y

Unanswered Question 259 0 / 1 pts

Section 10 of RA 9292 is called ___________.

Removal of Board Members

Powers and Functions of the Board

orrect Answer Compensation and Allowances of the Board

Composition of the Board

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Unanswered Question 260 0 / 1 pts

Section 9 of RA 9292 is called ___________.

Powers and Functions of the Board

Qualifications of Board Members

OP
Composition of the Board

orrect Answer Term of Office

L
YO
Unanswered Question 261 0 / 1 pts
O Y
Section 12 of RA 9292 is called _____________.
AK

Term of Office
M

Compensation and Allowances of the Board

Removal of Board Members

orrect Answer Custodian of Board Records, Secretariat and Support Services

Unanswered Question 262 0 / 1 pts

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Section 11 of RA 9292 is called _____________.

Custodian of Board Records, Secretariat and Support Services

orrect Answer Removal of Board Members

Compensation and Allowances of the Board

Term of Office

OP
Unanswered Question 263 0 / 1 pts

L
Section ______ of RA 9292 is known as Licensure Examination
YO
14
O Y
16
AK

orrect Answer 13
M

Unanswered Question 264 0 / 1 pts

Section ______ of RA 9292 is known as Scope of Examination for

Electronics Engineers and Electronics Technicians

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orrect Answer 15

Unanswered Question 265 0 / 1 pts

OP
Section ______ of RA 9292 is known as Qualifications for Examinations

L
15
YO
orrect Answer 14
Y
16
O

13
AK
M

Unanswered Question 266 0 / 1 pts

Section ______ of RA 9292 is known as Ratings.

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orrect Answer 16A

Unanswered Question 267 0 / 1 pts

According to Sec 17 of RA 9292, the __________ shall correct and rate

the licensure examination papers and shall release the examination
results within fifteen (15) days after the said examination.

OP
IECEP

L
ECE Board Members
YO
Commission
Y
orrect Answer Board and Commission
O
AK

Unanswered Question 268 0 / 1 pts

Section 18 of RA 9292 is known as _____________.

Registration without Examination for Electronics Technicians

Issuance of the Certificate of Registration and Professional Identification

Card

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orrect Answer
Qualifications and Schedule of Registration for Professional Electronics
Engineer

Release of the Results of Examination

Unanswered Question 269 0 / 1 pts

Section 19 of RA 9292 is known as _______________.

L OP
Registration without Examination for Electronics Technicians

Release of the Results of Examination

YO
Qualifications and Schedule of Registration for Professional Electronics
Y
Engineer
O

orrect Answer
AK

Issuance of the Certificate of Registration and Professional Identification

Card
M

Unanswered Question 270 0 / 1 pts

Section 20 of RA 9292 Is known as ____________.

orrect Answer Registration without Examination for Electronics Technicians

Release of the Results of Examination

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Qualifications and Schedule of Registration for Professional Electronics

Engineer

Issuance of the Certificate of Registration and Professional Identification

Card

Unanswered Question 271 0 / 1 pts

OP
Section 21 of RA 9292 is known as ____________.

L
YO
Reinstatement, Re-issuance or Replacement of Certificate of Registration
and Professional Identification Card
Y
orrect Answer
O

Non-issuance of a Certificate of Registration and/or Professional

Identification Card for Certain Grounds
AK

Revocation and Suspension of Certificate of Registration, Professional

Identification Card and Cancellation of Special Permits

Professional Oath

Unanswered Question 272 0 / 1 pts

Section 23 of RA 9292 is known as ____________.

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orrect Answer
Revocation and Suspension of Certificate of Registration, Professional
Identification Card and Cancellation of Special Permits

Non-issuance of a Certificate of Registration and/or Professional

Identification Card for Certain Grounds

OP
Professional Oath

Reinstatement, Re-issuance or Replacement of Certificate of Registration

and Professional Identification Card

L
YO
Unanswered Question 273 0 / 1 pts
O Y
Section 25 of RA 9292 is known as ____________.
AK

Professional Oath
M

orrect Answer Roster of PECEs, ECEs and ECTs

Practice of Profession

Exemptions from Examination

Unanswered Question 274 0 / 1 pts

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Section 22 of RA 9292 is known as ____________.

Non-issuance of a Certificate of Registration and/or Professional

Identification Card for Certain Grounds

Revocation and Suspension of Certificate of Registration, Professional

OP
Identification Card and Cancellation of Special Permits

L
Reinstatement, Re-issuance or Replacement of Certificate of Registration
and Professional Identification Card YO
orrect Answer Professional Oath
O Y
Unanswered Question 275 0 / 1 pts
AK

Section 24 of RA 9292 is known as ____________.

Non-issuance of a Certificate of Registration and/or Professional

Identification Card for Certain Grounds

orrect Answer
Reinstatement, Re-issuance or Replacement of Certificate of Registration
and Professional Identification Card

Professional Oath

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Revocation and Suspension of Certificate of Registration, Professional

Identification Card and Cancellation of Special Permits

Unanswered
Question 276 0 / 1 pts

Section 26 of RA 9292 is known as ____________.

orrect Answer Exemptions from Examination

OP
Professional Oath

Practice of Profession

L
Roster of PECEs, ECEs and ECTs
YO
Y
Unanswered
Question 277 0 / 1 pts
O
AK

Article IV of RA 9292 covers what sections?

Section 26 – 29

Section 26 – 30

Section 27 – 31

orrect Answer Section 27 – 30

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Unanswered Question 278 0 / 1 pts

Section _____ of RA 9292 is known as Prohibitions and Limitations on the

Practice of Electronics Engineering and Electronics Technician Profession.

orrect Answer 28

OP
27

L
Unanswered Question 279
YO 0 / 1 pts
Y
Section _____ of RA 9292 is known as Seal of the Professional
O

Electronics Engineers
AK

28
M

orrect Answer 29

Unanswered Question 280 0 / 1 pts

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Section _____ of RA 9292 is known as Practice of Profession

orrect Answer 27

OP
28

Unanswered 0 / 1 pts

L
Question 281
YO
Section _____ of RA 9292 is known as Code of Ethics and Code of
Technical Standards of Practice.
O Y

28
AK

orrect Answer 30
M

Unanswered Question 282 0 / 1 pts

The chairperson of the PRC shall include in the Commission’s program

the implementation of RA 9292, the funding of w/c shall be included in the

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Annual General Appropriation Act.

orrect Answer 40

Unanswered 0 / 1 pts

OP
Question 283

Which of the following is not true for the qualifications of Board Members

L
of Electronics Engineering?
YO
orrect Answer
Y
Be a citizen and a resident of the Philippines for 5 consecutive yrs prior to
his appointment
O
AK

Be of good moral character and integrity

Must not have been convicted of an offense involving moral turpitude

Member of good standing of the APO

Unanswered Question 284 0 / 1 pts

All records of the Board, including applications for the examination,

administrative cases involving PECE, ECE and ECTs shall be kept by

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BECE

orrect Answer PRC

IECEP

APO

Unanswered Question 285 0 / 1 pts

OP
The members of the Board shall hold office for a term of __________ from
date of appointment or until their successors shall have been appointed
and qualified and may be re-appointed once for another term.

L
YO
Two years
Y
orrect Answer 3 years
O

5 years
AK

at least 3 years
M

Unanswered Question 286 0 / 1 pts

Section 7 states that the Board is vested with the authority to: Adopt an
official __________ of the Board.

icon

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orrect Answer seal

avatar

Logo

Unanswered Question 287 0 / 1 pts

The compensation and allowances of the Board is comparable to that

OP
being received by the Chairman and members of existing regulatory
boards under the Commission as provided for in the __________.

L
RA 9292
YO
orrect Answer General Appropriations Act
Y
Civil Service
O

Department of Budget and Management

Unanswered Question 288 0 / 1 pts

Each member of the Board shall take the/a __________ prior to the
assumption of office.

orrect Answer Proper oath

Panel interview from the appointment committee

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Board exam

All of the above

Unanswered Question 289 0 / 1 pts

Section 31 of RA 9292

OP
Positions in Government Requiring the Services of Registered and
Licensed Professional Electronics Engineers, Electronics Engineers and

L
Electronics Technicians.
YO
Integrated and Accredited Professional Organization

Foreign Reciprocity
Y
orrect Answer
O

Continuing Professional Education (CPE) and/or Development Programs.

Unanswered 0 / 1 pts
M

Question 290

Section 33 of RA 9292

Continuing Professional Education (CPE) and/or Development Programs.

orrect Answer Foreign Reciprocity

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Positions in Government Requiring the Services of Registered and

Licensed Professional Electronics Engineers, Electronics Engineers and
Electronics Technicians.

Integrated and Accredited Professional Organization

Unanswered Question 291 0 / 1 pts

OP
Section 34 of RA 9292

L
YO
Continuing Professional Education (CPE) and/or Development Programs.

orrect Answer
Positions in Government Requiring the Services of Registered and
Y
Licensed Professional Electronics Engineers, Electronics Engineers and
Electronics Technicians.
O
AK

Integrated and Accredited Professional Organization

Foreign Reciprocity
M

Unanswered Question 292 0 / 1 pts

Section 32 of RA 9292

Foreign Reciprocity

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Continuing Professional Education (CPE) and/or Development Programs.

Positions in Government Requiring the Services of Registered and

Licensed Professional Electronics Engineers, Electronics Engineers and
Electronics Technicians.

orrect Answer Integrated and Accredited Professional Organization

Unanswered
Question 293 0 / 1 pts

OP
Article V of RA 9292

L
YO
Transitory Provisions
Y
Final Provisions
O

orrect Answer Sundry Provisions

Penal Provision and Assistance of Law Enforcement Agencies

Unanswered
Question 294 0 / 1 pts

Article VII of RA 9292

orrect Answer
Transitory Provisions

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Final Provisions

Sundry Provisions

Penal Provision and Assistance of Law Enforcement Agencies

Unanswered Question 295 0 / 1 pts

Article VIII of RA 9292

OP
Transitory Provisions

L
YO
Penal Provision and Assistance of Law Enforcement Agencies

orrect Answer Final Provisions

Y
Sundry Provisions
O
AK

Unanswered Question 296 0 / 1 pts

Article VI of RA 9292

Sundry Provisions

Final Provisions

orrect Answer Penal Provision and Assistance of Law Enforcement Agencies

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Transitory Provisions

Unanswered Question 297 0 / 1 pts

OP
Php100,000.00 to Php 1M or 6 yrs imprisonment or both, in the discretion
of the court

L
none of these
YO
Not less than Php100,000.00 nor more than Php 1M or by imprisonment of
Y
not less than 6 months nor more than 6 year
O

orrect Answer
AK

Not less than Php100,000.00 nor more than Php 1M or by imprisonment of

not less than 6 months nor more than 6 years, or both, in the discretion of
the court
M

Unanswered Question 298 0 / 1 pts

A candidate for Electronics Engineer or Electronics Technician who

obtains a passing rating in the majority of the subjects but obtains a rating
in the other subject/s below _________ percent but not lower than
__________ percent, shall be allowed to take one removal examinations
on the subject/s where he/she failed to obtain the passing rating.
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50, 70

70, 50

60, 70

orrect Answer 70, 60

OP
Unanswered Question 299 0 / 1 pts

L
Within __________ years after the effectivity of RA 9292, the Board shall
issue Certificate of Registration and Professional Identification Cards
YO
without examination to all applicants for registration as Electronics
Technicians who comply to all the requirements stated in section 20.
O Y
3
AK

none of the above

orrect Answer 5
M

Unanswered Question 300 0 / 1 pts

Section 36 of RA 9292

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Vested Rights: Electronics and Communications Engineers when this Law

is Passed

Implementing Rules and Regulations

Transitory Provision

orrect Answer Assistance of Law Enforcement and Other Government Agencies

OP
Unanswered Question 301 0 / 1 pts

L
Section 37 of RA 9292
YO
orrect Answer Transitory Provision
Y
Assistance of Law Enforcement and Other Government Agencies
O

Implementing Rules and Regulations

Vested Rights: Electronics and Communications Engineers when this Law

is Passed
M

Unanswered Question 302 0 / 1 pts

Section 38 of RA 9292

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Implementing Rules and Regulations

Assistance of Law Enforcement and Other Government Agencies

Transitory Provision

orrect Answer
Vested Rights: Electronics and Communications Engineers when this Law
is Passed

OP
Unanswered Question 303 0 / 1 pts

L
Section 39 of RA 9292
YO
Separability Clause
Y
orrect Answer Implementing Rules and Regulations
O
AK

Vested Rights: Electronics and Communications Engineers when this Law

is Passed
M

Appropriations

Unanswered Question 304 0 / 1 pts

Section 40 of RA 9292

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Vested Rights: Electronics and Communications Engineers when this Law

is Passed

orrect Answer Appropriations

Implementing Rules and Regulations

Separability Clause

OP
Unanswered Question 305 0 / 1 pts

L
Section 41 of RA 9292
YO
Implementing Rules and Regulations
Y
Appropriations
O

orrect Answer Separability Clause

Vested Rights: Electronics and Communications Engineers when this Law

is Passed
M

Unanswered Question 306 0 / 1 pts

Section 42 of RA 9292

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orrect Answer Repealing Clause

Separability Clause

Effectivity

Vested Rights: Electronics and Communications Engineers when this Law

is Passed

OP
Unanswered Question 307 0 / 1 pts

L
Section 43 of RA 9292
YO
Separability Clause
O Y
Vested Rights: Electronics and Communications Engineers when this Law
is Passed
AK

Repealing Clause
M

orrect Answer Effectivity

Unanswered Question 308 0 / 1 pts

NTC Office Order #19-8-91

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VoIP as a value added service

Radio Control Law of the Philippines

orrect Answer
Decentralization of Domestic Maritime Licensing functions of the Safety
and Special Radio Services Division

Amendment to the rules and regulations on Broadcast Messaging Service

OP
Unanswered
Question 309 0 / 1 pts

L
NTC MC #05-08-2005 YO
Y
Decentralization of Domestic Maritime Licensing functions of the Safety
O

and Special Radio Services Division

Radio Control Law of the Philippines

orrect Answer VoIP as a value added service

Amendment to the rules and regulations on Broadcast Messaging Service

Unanswered
Question 310 0 / 1 pts

NTC MC #03-03-2005

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orrect Answer

Amendment to the rules and regulations on Broadcast Messaging Service

VoIP as a value added service

Decentralization of Domestic Maritime Licensing functions of the Safety

and Special Radio Services Division

OP
Radio Control Law of the Philippines

L
Unanswered Question 311 0 / 1 pts
YO
RA 3846
O Y

Amendment to the rules and regulations on Broadcast Messaging Service

VoIP as a value added service

orrect Answer Radio Control Law of the Philippines

Decentralization of Domestic Maritime Licensing functions of the Safety

and Special Radio Services Division

Unanswered Question 312 0 / 1 pts

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Regulations requiring the services of duly registered ECEs in the planning

and designing, construction, operation and maintenance of radio stations
and in the manufacture and/or modification of radio communications
equipment

DO 7

DO 6

OP
orrect Answer DO 88

DO 108

L
Unanswered Question 313
YO 0 / 1 pts
Y
Requiring all radio station with Musical format programs to broadcast a
O

minimum of four OPM compositions in every clock hour.

EO 125
M

EO 256

EO 496

orrect Answer EO 255

Unanswered Question 314 0 / 1 pts

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Vesting the jurisdiction, control and regulation over the Philippine

Communications Satellite (PhilComSat) Corporation with the NTC.

EO 255

EO 496

EO 256

OP
orrect Answer EO 196

L
Unanswered Question 315 YO 0 / 1 pts

NTC MC #6-2-81
O Y
AK

Amendment to the rules and regulations on Broadcast Messaging Service

Decentralization of Domestic Maritime Licensing functions of the Safety

and Special Radio Services Division

VoIP as a value added service

orrect Answer Non-commercial stations are exempted from securing franchise

Unanswered Question 316 0 / 1 pts

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Creating a ministry of public works and a ministry of transportation and

communications

EO 815

DO 11

orrect Answer EO 546

OP
EO 496

L
Unanswered Question 317 YO 0 / 1 pts

Department Order #5
O Y
AK

To safeguard and promote the development of the Philippine

Semiconductor Electronics Industry
M

General Rules and Regulations Governing the Construction, Installation,

Establishment or Operation of Radio Stations.

Unlawful Telephone Installations

orrect Answer Rules and Regulations governing Radio Operators

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Unanswered Question 318 0 / 1 pts

Department Order # 11

orrect Answer
General Rules and Regulations Governing the Construction, Installation,
Establishment or Operation of Radio Stations.

OP
To safeguard and promote the development of the Philippine
Semiconductor Electronics Industry

L
Unlawful Telephone Installations
YO
Rules and Regulations governing Radio Operators
Y
Unanswered Question 319 0 / 1 pts
O
AK

EO #815
M

General Rules and Regulations Governing the Construction, Installation,

Establishment or Operation of Radio Stations.

Unlawful Telephone Installations

orrect Answer
To safeguard and promote the development of the Philippine
Semiconductor Electronics Industry

Rules and Regulations governing Radio Operators

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Unanswered Question 320 0 / 1 pts

Radio Frequency Spectrum

orrect Answer NTC MC #3-3-96

NTC MC #3-3-95

OP
NTC MC #1-1-97

L
NTC MC #10-10-97
YO
Unanswered Question 321 0 / 1 pts
O Y

Spectrum User’s Fees

AK
M

NTC MC #3-3-95

orrect Answer NTC MC #1-1-97

NTC MC #3-3-96

NTC MC #10-10-97

Unanswered Question 322 0 / 1 pts

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Review, Allocation and Assignment of Frequency

NTC MC #3-3-96

NTC MC #1-1-97

NTC MC #3-3-95

OP
orrect Answer NTC MC #10-10-97

Unanswered 0 / 1 pts

L
Question 323

Safety of Life at Sea

YO
NTC MC #1-1-97
O Y
NTC MC #3-3-96

orrect Answer
AK

NTC MC #4-2-92

NTC MC #10-10-97
M

Unanswered Question 324 0 / 1 pts

Philippine Low Power Ship Radiotelephone Service

NTC MC #3-3-96

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orrect Answer NTC MC #9-7-98

NTC MC #1-1-97

NTC MC #4-2-92

Unanswered
Question 325 0 / 1 pts

Equipment for Ship Stations plying Domestic Routes

OP
orrect Answer NTC MC #4-9-88

L
NTC MC #1-1-97
YO
NTC MC #4-2-98
Y
NTC MC #9-7-98
O
AK

Unanswered
Question 326 0 / 1 pts
M

Government Radio Operator Certificate

NTC MC #11-8-92

NTC MC #7-4-99

NTC MC #11-89

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orrect Answer NTC MC #14-89

Unanswered Question 327 0 / 1 pts

Unmanned Radio Stations

orrect Answer NTC MC #7-4-99

OP
NTC MC #14-89

NTC MC #11-89

L
NTC MC #11-8-92
YO
Y
Unanswered Question 328 0 / 1 pts
O
AK

Radio Operator’s Certificate

NTC MC #7-4-99

NTC MC #14-89

orrect Answer NTC MC #11-8-92

NTC MC #11-89

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Unanswered Question 329 0 / 1 pts

ECE Graduates to take Regular Commercial Radiotelephone Operator’s

Exam

NTC MC #11-8-92

orrect Answer NTC MC #11-89

OP
NTC MC #14-89

NTC MC #7-4-99

L
Unanswered Question 330
YO 0 / 1 pts
Y
General Operator’s Certificate
O
AK

NTC MC #8-7-98
M

NTC MC #6-6-98

NTC MC #9-7-98

orrect Answer NTC MC #1-1-96

Unanswered Question 331 0 / 1 pts

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Guidelines for the issuance of General Operator’s License

orrect Answer NTC MC #8-7-98

NTC MC #1-1-96

NTC MC #6-6-98

OP
NTC MC #9-7-98

Unanswered 0 / 1 pts

L
Question 332
YO
Guidelines for the issuance of Restricted Operator’s License
O Y

NTC MC #6-6-98
AK

NTC MC #1-1-96

NTC MC #8-7-98
M

orrect Answer NTC MC #9-7-98

Unanswered Question 333 0 / 1 pts

Guidelines for the issuance of Radio Electronic Certificate

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NTC MC #8-7-98

orrect Answer NTC MC #6-6-98

NTC MC #9-7-98

NTC MC #1-1-96

Unanswered Question 334 0 / 1 pts

OP
NTC MC# 70855-A

L
YO
Guidelines for the issuance of Radio Electronic Certificate

Guidelines for the issuance of General Operator’s License

Y
Guidelines for the issuance of Restricted Operator’s License
O

orrect Answer
AK

Restricted Radiotelephone Operator’s Certificate for Land Mobile Stations

Unanswered Question 335 0 / 1 pts

As provided in RA7925, a VAS provider needs to secure a franchise if

it does not discriminate other service providers against rates.

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it is offered by a telecommunications entity whose proceeds of utility

operations are not cross-subsidized.

orrect Answer it puts up its own network.

it is offered by a telecommunications entity that uses a separate book of

accounts for VAS.

OP
Unanswered
Question 336 0 / 1 pts

L
According to the section 16 of the RA 9292, to pass the licensure
examination, a candidate must obtain a passing rating of _________
YO
Y
50%
O

orrect Answer
70%
AK

80%

60%
M

Quiz Score: 54 out of 336

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