1.

Flight Management System (FMS) uses databases hosted in:

a. Two core processor input/output modules (CPIOM).
b. The flight management computers (FMC).
c. The primary flight control computers (PRIM).

2. Primary Flight Control Computer (PRIM) channels operate as

follows:
a. They operate as a backup to each other
b. The two channels must be operational to do the PRIM
function
c. A minimum of one operational channel is necessary to do the prim
function

3. Where is flight management hosted?

a. Secondary (SEC) computer
b. Autoflight (AFS) computer
c. Primary (PRIM) computer

4. Manual setting auto flight is done from?

a. FCU
b. MFCP
c. There is no manual function

5. If a Traffic Alert & Collision Avoidance System (TCAS) resolution

advisory occurs, Autothrust A/THR will:
a. Engage if it not already engaged
b. Disconnect to give priority to Autopilot/Flight Director (AP/FD)
operation
c. engage while the AP/FD monitors the altitude

6. The CIDS Directors receive an SLAT FLAP CONTROL COMPUTER

(SFCC) status to:
a. Operate the Data Loading & Configuration System (DLCS)
b. Give automatic cabin visual & audio announcements
c. Inhibit the Smoke Detection Function (SDF) at landing

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7. The Cabin Intercommunication Data System (CIDS) directors
receive a cockpit door status from the Cockpit Door Locking
System (CDLS) to:
a. Increase automatically the audio announcement volume
b. Increase the related lights in the forwards entry area to predefined
values
c. Decrease the related lights in the forward entry area to
predefined values

8. The Decoder/Encoder Units Type B (DEU-B) are dedicated to the

interfaces between the Cabin Intercommunication Data System
(CIDS) and the:
a. Cabin crew related functions
b. Cockpit crew related functions
c. Passenger related functions

9. Which VHF is used for data communication?

a. VHF 2
b. VHF3
c. None

10. Where is the SELCAL Decoder?

a. SELCAL Computer Unit
b. FMC
c. AMU

11. How do you manually operate the SSFDR?

a. Cannot be manually operated
b. RCDR switch on the Capt glareshield panel
c. RCDR ground control switch

12. What does the 4th Channel of the CVR do?

a. Monitors the area section of the cockpit
b. Not used on the A350 configuration
c. Monitors Captain’s microphone inputs

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13. A failure of one operational VHF Transceiver has the following
effect:
a. The failed VHF channel is definitively lost
b. An automatic reconfiguration on the spare transceiver
occurs, to retrieve the lost VHF channel
c. A manual reconfiguration on the spare transceiver is necessary to
retrieve the lost VHF channel

14. The Wireless Airport Communication System (WACS) gives

communication between the aircraft & the airport network via
the:
a. SATCOM & VHF connections
b. Cellular & WIFI Wireless Connections & A wired Gatelink
connection
c. WIFI & HF connections

15. When the aircraft receives an incoming selective call (SELCAL)

via a radio communication system, the following occurs:
a. The “Call” amber indication comes on, on the related
transmission keys of all radio and Audio Management Panels
(RMP), & a buzzer operates
b. The CAB “Call” red indication comes on, on all RMPs and an aural
warning operates
c. The related “Call” amber indication comes on and a message is
displayed on all RMPs

16. The flight interphone function is hosted in the:

a. Cabin Intercommunication Data System (CIDS)
b. Audio Management Unit (AMU)
c. Radio and Audio Management Panels (RMP)

17. In the ADIRU which part does the attitude and position
calculation?
a. IR
b. AD
c. Neither it is done via GPS only

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18. Which probe has AOA, TAT and PITOT info?
a. FMC
b. LGCIU
c. MFP

19. Which probe input is needed for load alleviation function?

a. TAT
b. AOA
c. PITOT

20. The Air Data/Inertial Reference Unit (ADIRU) 3 is installed in

the:
a. Cockpit
b. Avionics compartment
c. Rear avionics rack

21. The anti-icing function of the probes operates automatically

when:
a. The aircraft electrical power-up is completed
b. At least one engine is running or Ground Speed (GS) is more
than 30 knots
c. The two engines are running and the GS is less than 30 knots

22. The ONBOARD AIRPORT NAVIGATION SYSTEM (OANS)

uses flight/ground information from the Landing Gear
Extension and Retraction System (LGERS) to:
a. Inhibit the OANS display in flight
b. Inhibit the runway proximity advisory in flight
c. Trigger auto braking at landing

23. In normal configuration, the Airport Navigation Function (ANF)

is displayed on the following Control & Display System (CDS)
Display Units:
a. The outer displays
b. The inner displays
c. The upper centre display

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24. The OANS can be displayed:
a. Independently on the 2 Navigation Displays (ND),
depending on pilot request
b. On the 2 multifunction display (MFD)
c. On the 2 primary flight display (PFD), if the aircraft is on ground

25. The Integrated Standby Instrument System (ISIS)

Units receive the outside air static pressure from:
a. A shared Multifunction Probe (MFP)
b. A dedicated Integrated Static Probe (ISP)
c. 2 standby pneumatic probes

26. To start an Electronic Flight Bag (EFB) laptop, you must start
the:
a. Docking station first, then start the laptop
b. Laptop first, then start the docking station
c. Laptop and the docking station at the same time

27. The internal wireless system is dedicated to cabin crew and, as

an option, to the:
a. Flight crew
b. Maintenance crew
c. Passengers

28. The cabin logbook can be display on the:

a. Onboard Maintenance Terminal (OMT)
b. Electronic Flight Bag (EFB) Laptop
c. Flight Attendant Panel (FAP)

29. The function of the Onboard Information System (OIS) is to:

a. Give internet access to flight and maintenance crews
b. Host applications and documentation that will be used by
flight & maintenance crews
c. Operate as a backup for essential avionics systems

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30. The Open-World Server Function Cabinet (OSFC) module that
transmits graphical images to the Onboard Information System
(OIS) display units is the:
a. Versatile Graphical Module (VGM)
b. Avionics Video Module (AVM)
c. Avionics Graphical Module (AGM)

31. The function of the Onboard Information System “OIS

Avionics” reset switch is to reset the:
a. Avionics Server Function Cabinet (ASFC)
b. Open-World Server Function Cabinet (OSFC)
c. Electronic Flight Bags (EFB)

32. The Electronic Flight Bag (EFB) laptops are connected to the
Onboard Information System (OIS) through:
a. Wireless connection
b. One digital wired connection
c. Multiple wired connection

33. The Onboard Maintenance System (OMS) applications are

hosted in the:
a. Avionics Server Function Cabinet (ASFC) and the Electronics Flight
BAGS (EFB)
b. Open-World Server Function Cabinet (OSFC) and the EFBs
c. ASFC and the OSFC Cabinets

34. The data loading application used for Field-Loadable Software

uploading in the Open-World Server Function Cabinet (OSFC) is
the:
a. Data Loading and Configuration System – Aircraft Control Domain
(DLCS-ACD)
b. Simple Data Loader (SDL)
c. Local Maintenance Function (LMF)

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35. The data loading application that manages Field Loadable
Software uploading in the Aircraft Control Domain (ACD) and
the Aircraft Server Function Cabinet (ASFC) is the:
a. Simple Data Loader (SDL)
b. Central Maintenance System – ACD (CMS-ACD)
c. Data Loading and Configuration System – ACD (DLCS-ACD)

36. The Onboard Maintenance System (OMS) is hosted in the:

a. Avionics Full Duplex Switched Ethernet (AFDX) Network
b. Onboard Information System (OIS)
c. Ground Maintenance Support Information (MSI) system

37. The entry into the Minimum Equipment List (MEL) is done
through the:
a. Warning message
b. Fault message
c. Dispatch message

38. Field-loadable software can be uploaded into the aircraft

computers though wireless communication or from a:
a. USB key
b. CD/DVD
c. Floppy disk

39. The maintenance applications hosted in the Avionics Server

Function Cabinet (ASFC) are in charge of the maintenance of
the aircraft system and the:
a. ASFC itself
b. Open-World Server Function Cabinet (OSFC)
c. Electronics Flight Bag (EFB) laptops

40. The function of the Aircraft Condition Monitoring System

(ACMS) is to manage generated reports, to record data and to:
a) Launch aircraft systems system tests
b) Display aircraft systems real-time parameters
c) Check field-loadable software configuration